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SSC JE (Electrical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 03 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

720404, 720314, 700219, 720512

  1. ((a))

    720404

  2. ((b))

    720314

  3. ((c))

    700219

  4. ((d))

    720512

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

720404

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

501428, 501902, 511632, 501750

  1. ((a))

    501428

  2. ((b))

    501902

  3. ((c))

    511632

  4. ((d))

    501750

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

501428

3

Complete the analogy.

W : U :: S : ?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

4

Complete the analogy.

GIK : MPS :: QSU : ?

  1. ((a))

    YDF

  2. ((b))

    WZC

  3. ((c))

    WZD

  4. ((d))

    RTX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YDF

5

Complete the analogy.

DFHJ : LNPR :: SUWY : ?

  1. ((a))

    ACEG

  2. ((b))

    ABCE

  3. ((c))

    ACBE

  4. ((d))

    ZCDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACEG

6

Find the missing term in the series: A, Z, B, Y, C, ?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    X

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

7

Find the missing term in the series:

B, C, F, E, J, ?

  1. ((a))

    I

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I

8

Find the missing number in the series: 

5, 10, 15, 20, ?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

9

Find the missing number in the series:

3, 8, 15, 24, ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

10

Find the missing number in the series:

20, 18, 15, 11, ?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

11

Complete the analogy.

Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?

  1. ((a))

    Museum

  2. ((b))

    Stone

  3. ((c))

    Chisel

  4. ((d))

    Statue

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Museum

12

Complete the analogy.

Botanist : Plants :: Entomologist : ?

  1. ((a))

    Animals

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Fungi

  4. ((d))

    Insects

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Animals

13

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Orange, Guava, Papaya, Grapes

  1. ((a))

    Orange

  2. ((b))

    Guava

  3. ((c))

    Papaya

  4. ((d))

    Grapes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Orange

14

In a society, houses are numbered 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, and 15: Q lives two houses above O; R lives just above Q; S lives at the highest-numbered house; T lives at the lowest-numbered house.

Who lives at 11?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

15

If TRAIN is coded as UQBHO, then how is PLANE coded?

  1. ((a))

    QKBMF

  2. ((b))

    QKBND

  3. ((c))

    QKBNF

  4. ((d))

    QKCMF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QKBMF

16

In a certain code, ARRANGE is written as YWWYSLC (every consonant +5, every vowel -2, positions unchanged).

How is SYSTEM coded?

  1. ((a))

    XDBZJR

  2. ((b))

    XEBZKR

  3. ((c))

    XDXCYR

  4. ((d))

    XEBZJR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XDBZJR

17

Statement: "To control crowding, entry to the park will be by online booking only".

Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    Park staff prefer online work

  2. ((b))

    Online booking is free for all

  3. ((c))

    The number of visitors is currently too high

  4. ((d))

    Citizens dislike visiting parks in the evenings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Park staff prefer online work

18

Four friends, R, K, S, and A, travelled to a city in April on dates: 4, 11, 18, and 25. K went exactly one week before S. A did not go on the 25th. R travelled after S. A travelled on the 18th.

Who travelled on the 11th?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

19

Six people, M-R, travelled to a city on 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, and 21 June; Q travelled between N and R, M travelled after P, N travelled immediately after M, P did not travel first, R travelled last.

Who went on the 15th?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

20

After a difficult team project, two members openly blame each other for failures. You are their supervisor.

What shows the highest emotional intelligence?

  1. ((a))

    Avoid involvement and let them solve it

  2. ((b))

    Criticise both in front of the team

  3. ((c))

    Meet each member privately and explore their perspectives

  4. ((d))

    Remove both from the team

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avoid involvement and let them solve it

21

In the dictionary, which comes first?

CRY, CRYPT, CRYSTAL, CRYING

  1. ((a))

    CRYING

  2. ((b))

    CRYSTAL

  3. ((c))

    CRY

  4. ((d))

    CRYPT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CRYING

22

Which comes last alphabetically in the dictionary?

BRIGHT, BRIM, BRINE, BRISK

  1. ((a))

    BRIGHT

  2. ((b))

    BRIM

  3. ((c))

    BRINE

  4. ((d))

    BRISK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BRIGHT

23

If 25% of a number is 15, then what is the number?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    70

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

24

A pipe fills a tank in 6 hours, another in 4 hours. Together they fill in:

  1. ((a))

    2 hr 12 min

  2. ((b))

    2 hr 24 min

  3. ((c))

    2 hr 30 min

  4. ((d))

    2 hr 40 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 hr 12 min

25

A can do a job in 10 days, B in 15 days. They start together but B leaves after 5 days.

In how many more days will A finish the work?

  1. ((a))
    1. 67
  2. ((b))

    3.5

  3. ((c))
    1. 57
  4. ((d))

    5.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 67
26

In group work, a member suggests a method you think may not work.

Best way to respond?

  1. ((a))

    Appreciate the idea, discuss concerns politely

  2. ((b))

    Reject it immediately

  3. ((c))

    Laugh at it

  4. ((d))

    Ignore suggestion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Appreciate the idea, discuss concerns politely

27

In a team video call, one member’s connectivity is poor and repeats questions you already answered.

What’s the socially intelligent response?

  1. ((a))

    Answer patiently again

  2. ((b))

    Tell them to check the recording later

  3. ((c))

    Ignore their questions

  4. ((d))

    Say they are wasting time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Answer patiently again

28

Arrange the letters V I R A T C O I to form a meaningful English word.

  1. ((a))

    CAVITOIR

  2. ((b))

    COVRIAT

  3. ((c))

    VICTOAIR

  4. ((d))

    VICTORIA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CAVITOIR

29

Using all letters of E D E R M A T O, which valid word can be formed?

  1. ((a))

    DREAMOTE

  2. ((b))

    MODERATE

  3. ((c))

    TEARDOME

  4. ((d))

    MATERODE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DREAMOTE

30

Your friend asks for confidential company data.

What should you do?

  1. ((a))

    Refuse politely and explain it’s not allowed

  2. ((b))

    Share as it’s a friend

  3. ((c))

    Share partly

  4. ((d))

    Ignore the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Refuse politely and explain it’s not allowed

31

You notice a team member appears upset after a team reshuffle.

What is the best decision?

  1. ((a))

    Ignore their feelings

  2. ((b))

    Discuss and address their concerns in private

  3. ((c))

    Announce the issue publicly

  4. ((d))

    Change the team structure again

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ignore their feelings

32

A store has fewer female cashiers than male cashiers, despite females applying in equal numbers.

What is likely inferred?

  1. ((a))

    Prefer males as cashiers

  2. ((b))

    Females avoid cashier jobs

  3. ((c))

    Male cashiers are trained better

  4. ((d))

    Cashier jobs require strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prefer males as cashiers

33

River water level rose by 2 metres after the dam gates were closed.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Rainfall increased

  2. ((b))

    Dam closure stopped the downstream flow

  3. ((c))

    Water usage increased

  4. ((d))

    Tourists visited more

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rainfall increased

34

A community park was renovated at double the budget but visitor numbers remained the same.

Which is the best judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Renovation improved park quality

  2. ((b))

    Visitors dislike changes

  3. ((c))

    Money was not utilised efficiently to attract visitors

  4. ((d))

    Park is too far

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Renovation improved park quality

35

Find the value of 15×3−(12+9÷3)15\times3-(12+9\div3).

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    33

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

36

Find the result of (32÷\div4+14)×\times(15÷\div3-4).

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36

37

Work out (500÷25)×(72÷8)+(180÷12)×(45÷9){(500\div25)\times(72\div8)}+{(180\div12)\times(45\div9)}

  1. ((a))

    184

  2. ((b))

    255

  3. ((c))

    380

  4. ((d))

    476

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

184

38

If @ = division, % = addition, $ = multiplication, and # = subtraction, calculate 64 @ 8 % 12 $ 3 # 10.

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27

39

The rainfall measured for three years was 600 mm, 630 mm, and 662 mm.

Expected rainfall in the 5th year is

  1. ((a))

    718

  2. ((b))

    745

  3. ((c))

    739

  4. ((d))

    732

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

718

40

An investment grows by 15% in the first year, 20% in the second, and 25% in the third. If the initial investment ₹ 80,000, what is its value after 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    138,000

  2. ((b))

    135,000

  3. ((c))

    139,000

  4. ((d))

    137,999

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

138,000

41

A and B are brothers. C is the daughter of B.

How is A related to C?

  1. ((a))

    Father

  2. ((b))

    Uncle

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father

42

Pointing to a girl, Rohit said, "She is the daughter of my mother’s only son".

How is the girl related to Rohit?

  1. ((a))

    Sister of Rohit

  2. ((b))

    Daughter of Rohit

  3. ((c))

    Niece of Rohit

  4. ((d))

    Cousin of Rohit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister of Rohit

43

A 250 m long train crosses a platform in 20 seconds at a speed of 72 km/h.

What is the length of the platform?

  1. ((a))

    150 m

  2. ((b))

    200 m

  3. ((c))

    250 m

  4. ((d))

    300 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150 m

44

The sum of the present ages of A and B is 50 years. After 10 years, A’s age will be twice B’s age.

Find B’s present age in years.

  1. ((a))
    1. 33
  2. ((b))
    1. 33
  3. ((c))
    1. 66
  4. ((d))
    1. 33
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 33
45

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

Some books are papers.

Some papers are covers.

Conclusions:

I. Some books are covers.

II. No book is cover.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All gold is precious.

Some precious things are rare.

Conclusions:

I. Some gold is rare.

II. All rare things are gold.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All cats are animals.

Some animals are dogs.

Conclusions:

A. Some cats are dogs

B. All cats are dogs

C. Some dogs are cats

D. Some animals are cats

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only D

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

48

In the following questions, a few statements are given, followed by some conclusions. Consider the statements to be true, even if they appear to contradict commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions carefully and decide which of them logically follows from the given statements.

Statements:

All rats are dogs.

Some dogs are cows.

No cow is a cat.

Conclusions:

I. Some rats are cows.

II. Some dogs are cats.

III. No cat is a cow.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and III follow

  2. ((b))

    Only III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II and III follow

  4. ((d))

    All follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and III follow

49

Mall footfall rose by 2525% in the festive season without extra advertisements.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    New shops opened

  2. ((b))

    Festivals attracted more visitors

  3. ((c))

    Parking space increased

  4. ((d))

    Prices were reduced

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New shops opened

50

How can you show empathy in conversation?

  1. ((a))

    Interrupt often

  2. ((b))

    Maintain eye contact and nod

  3. ((c))

    Check your phone

  4. ((d))

    Talk about yourself more

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Interrupt often

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Which of the following is a key criticism of the Human Development Index (HDI) education component?

  1. ((a))

    It only considers primary education.

  2. ((b))

    It does not account for the quality of education.

  3. ((c))

    It overemphasizes higher education.

  4. ((d))

    It excludes vocational training.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It only considers primary education.

52

What is the significant environmental impact of increased levels of nitrogen oxides (NOx) in urban areas?

  1. ((a))

    Depletion of the ozone layer

  2. ((b))

    Formation of ground-level ozone and smog

  3. ((c))

    Increased ocean acidification

  4. ((d))

    Soil salinization

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Depletion of the ozone layer

53

The primary focus of the Cartosat series of satellites is:

  1. ((a))

    Solar research

  2. ((b))

    Communication

  3. ((c))

    Earth observation and mapping

  4. ((d))

    Astronomy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solar research

54

____ curve shows the various combinations of two commodities that can be produced with the given resources.

  1. ((a))

    Indifference

  2. ((b))

    Phillips

  3. ((c))

    Production possibility

  4. ((d))

    Laffer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indifference

55

What is the importance of the Vikram lander in the Chandrayaan-3 mission?

  1. ((a))

    It orbited Mars successfully

  2. ((b))

    It performed a soft landing near the lunar south pole

  3. ((c))

    It launched Aditya-L1 from lunar orbit

  4. ((d))

    It deployed the Mangalyaan rover

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It orbited Mars successfully

56

What is guaranteed by Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Right to Education

  2. ((b))

    Right to Equality

  3. ((c))

    Right to Constitutional Remedies

  4. ((d))

    Right to Freedom of Speech

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Right to Education

57

Which amendment of the Indian Constitution added the provision for the reservation of seats for women in local bodies?

  1. ((a))

    77th Amendment

  2. ((b))

    70th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    73rd Amendment

  4. ((d))

    71st Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

77th Amendment

58

What does P in the PESTAL macroeconomic analysis stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Price

  2. ((b))

    Profit

  3. ((c))

    Private

  4. ((d))

    Political

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Price

59

Which of the following is the CORRECT procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    By the President alone

  2. ((b))

    By the Supreme Court

  3. ((c))

    By Parliament through a simple majority

  4. ((d))

    By Parliament with a special majority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By the President alone

60

The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar included:

  1. ((a))

    Military rank only

  2. ((b))

    Land grant only

  3. ((c))

    Civil and military rank

  4. ((d))

    Revenue farming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Military rank only

61

Who among the following is NOT associated with Sufi Chishti order in India?

  1. ((a))

    Nizamuddin Auliya

  2. ((b))

    Moinuddin Chishti

  3. ((c))

    Nasiruddin Chiragh

  4. ((d))

    Shah Waliullah

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nizamuddin Auliya

62

The authority to establish or dissolve Legislative Councils in states is vested in:

  1. ((a))

    The Parliament

  2. ((b))

    The President of India

  3. ((c))

    The Supreme Court

  4. ((d))

    The State Governor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Parliament

63

Under which constitutional provision can the Union Parliament legislate for two or more states with their consent?

  1. ((a))

    Article 249

  2. ((b))

    Article 250

  3. ((c))

    Article 253

  4. ((d))

    Article 252

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 249

64

Which mechanism is used to allocate financial resources between the Union and the States?

  1. ((a))

    The Planning Commission

  2. ((b))

    The Economic Survey

  3. ((c))

    The Budget Committee

  4. ((d))

    The Finance Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Planning Commission

65

Which Article mandates that state governments adhere to the laws made by the Union?

  1. ((a))

    Article 254

  2. ((b))

    Article 256

  3. ((c))

    Article 260

  4. ((d))

    Article 258

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 254

66

Which South Asian country has the lowest population?

  1. ((a))

    Bhutan

  2. ((b))

    Maldives

  3. ((c))

    Sri Lanka

  4. ((d))

    Nepal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhutan

67

Which Middle Eastern country is a key part of the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) corridor?

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Saudi Arabia

  3. ((c))

    Libya

  4. ((d))

    Algeria

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iran

68

Where is Chabahar Port located?

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    India

  4. ((d))

    Afghanistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iran

69

The "DigiLocker" initiative by the Government of India serves what primary purpose?

  1. ((a))

    To provide free internet access to all citizens.

  2. ((b))

    To offer a secure cloud-based platform for storage and sharing of digital documents and certificates.

  3. ((c))

    To track the movement of goods and services across the country.

  4. ((d))

    To facilitate online voting in national and state elections.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To provide free internet access to all citizens.

70

Consider the following statements regarding the "National Green Hydrogen Mission":
I. It aims to make India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of Green Hydrogen.
II. Green Hydrogen under this mission is primarily produced using fossil fuels with carbon capture technology.
III. The mission supports research and development in Green Hydrogen technologies.
IV. A key objective is to reduce India’s reliance on imported fossil fuels.
Which of the above statements accurately reflect the goals and approach of the National Green Hydrogen Mission?

  1. ((a))

    I and III only

  2. ((b))

    II and IV only

  3. ((c))

    I, III, and IV only

  4. ((d))

    II and III only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III only

71

Where is ’Garbhagriha’ located in Vastu Shastra-based temple designs?

  1. ((a))

    Vayavya (North-West)

  2. ((b))

    Agni Kon (South-East)

  3. ((c))

    Brahmasthan (Central point)

  4. ((d))

    Nairutya (South-West)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vayavya (North-West)

72

Where is the tomb of Sher Shah Suri located?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Sasaram

  3. ((c))

    Agra

  4. ((d))

    Lahore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delhi

73

The Hill Area Development Programme was started during the ________ Five-Year Plan.

  1. ((a))

    First

  2. ((b))

    Second

  3. ((c))

    Third

  4. ((d))

    Fifth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

First

74

Who was awarded the Man Asian Literary Prize in 2007 for Wolf Totem, a work often mistaken for an Indian novel?

  1. ((a))

    Aravind Adiga

  2. ((b))

    Jiang Rong

  3. ((c))

    Kiran Desai

  4. ((d))

    Tash Aw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aravind Adiga

75

The Industrial Disputes Act was commenced in the year _______, having significant implications for industrial relations during the early Five-Year Plans.

  1. ((a))

    1947

  2. ((b))

    1953

  3. ((c))

    1961

  4. ((d))

    1965

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1947

76

Which policy measure during the Sixth Five-Year Plan encouraged private sector participation in trade?

  1. ((a))

    Complete nationalization of industries

  2. ((b))

    Removal of all export incentives

  3. ((c))

    Introduction of high tariffs on all imports

  4. ((d))

    Liberalization of industrial licensing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Complete nationalization of industries

77

Which novel by Kazuo Ishiguro won the Booker Prize in 1989 and explores themes of memory, regret, and duty through the life of a British butler?

  1. ((a))

    Never Let Me Go

  2. ((b))

    The Remains of the Day

  3. ((c))

    An Artist of the Floating World

  4. ((d))

    When We Were Orphans

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Never Let Me Go

78

The policy of "Divide and Rule," often employed by the British in India, aimed to:

  1. ((a))

    Promote unity and cooperation among different Indian communities.

  2. ((b))

    Weaken the nationalist movement by fostering divisions based on religion, caste, and region.

  3. ((c))

    Establish a single, unified administrative system across British India.

  4. ((d))

    Encourage inter-caste marriages and social reforms.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Promote unity and cooperation among different Indian communities.

79

The "Quit India Movement" of 1942, while ultimately suppressed by the British, had a significant impact on the trajectory of the Indian nationalist struggle. What was a key characteristic of this movement that distinguished it from earlier forms of protest?

  1. ((a))

    It was primarily led by moderate leaders advocating for constitutional reforms.

  2. ((b))

    It emphasized non-violent civil disobedience and cooperation with the British war effort.

  3. ((c))

    It witnessed widespread spontaneous uprisings and a call for the immediate end of British rule, even without clear centralized leadership after the arrest of major leaders.

  4. ((d))

    It was largely confined to urban centers and had limited participation from rural populations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It was primarily led by moderate leaders advocating for constitutional reforms.

80

What is the purpose of introducing Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India ?

  1. ((a))

    Introduce a uniform criminal code

  2. ((b))

    Replace the Constitution of India

  3. ((c))

    Abolish the caste system

  4. ((d))

    Standardize personal laws across all religions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Introduce a uniform criminal code

81

Which of the following group is directly impacted by the Uniform Civil Code?

  1. ((a))

    Only government employees

  2. ((b))

    Only residents of urban areas

  3. ((c))

    All Indian citizens

  4. ((d))

    Only Hindus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only government employees

82

Which of the following type of documentary evidence is admissible without further proof?

  1. ((a))

    Handwritten anonymous letter

  2. ((b))

    Audio recordings without context

  3. ((c))

    Certified copies of public documents

  4. ((d))

    Scanned copy without metadata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Handwritten anonymous letter

83

Who became the first woman to be appointed as the Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?

  1. ((a))

    Kiran Bedi

  2. ((b))

    Nina Singh

  3. ((c))

    Archana Ramasundaram

  4. ((d))

    Meera Borwankar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kiran Bedi

84

Which Indian state launched the ’Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana’ for the welfare of women?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

85

Who assumed charge as the Chief of the Air Staff in 2024 after serving as the Vice Chief of Air Staff?

  1. ((a))

    Air Marshal Narmdeshwar Tiwari

  2. ((b))

    Air Marshal Amar Preet Singh

  3. ((c))

    Air Marshal R.K.S. Bhadauria

  4. ((d))

    Air Marshal Sujeet Pushpakar Dharkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air Marshal Narmdeshwar Tiwari

86

Who was the first woman freedom fighter from Uttarakhand to be jailed during the freedom struggle?

  1. ((a))

    Tulsi Devi Rawat

  2. ((b))

    Vijaylakshmi Pandit

  3. ((c))

    Bishni Devi Shah

  4. ((d))

    Durga Devi Pant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tulsi Devi Rawat

87

Who among the following was the first woman chief minister of Uttar Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Sucheta Kripalani

  2. ((b))

    Aruna Asaf Ali

  3. ((c))

    Usha Mehta

  4. ((d))

    Matangini Hazra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sucheta Kripalani

88

Which tribal community is primarily associated with the Jhumar dance in Jharkhand?

  1. ((a))

    Santhal

  2. ((b))

    Gond

  3. ((c))

    Oraon

  4. ((d))

    Bhil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Santhal

89

What are the ’Navarasas’ in dance?

  1. ((a))

    Dance styles

  2. ((b))

    Nine emotions portrayed in dance

  3. ((c))

    Dance costumes

  4. ((d))

    Classical instruments used in dance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dance styles

90

Which among the following animals were NOT known to the Harappans?

  1. ((a))

    Elephant

  2. ((b))

    Sheep

  3. ((c))

    Cow

  4. ((d))

    Horse

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elephant

91

Identify the correct pairs related to social structure.

  1. Brahmana - Ritual priest
  2. Vaishya - Warrior class
  3. Shudra - Service provider
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

92

Which of the following regions does NOT constitute the hinterland of Mumbai port?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

93

Which of the given statements is CORRECT with reference to Paradip Port?

  1. ((a))

    It is situated on the Krishna-Godavari Delta.

  2. ((b))

    It is a deep-water port in India.

  3. ((c))

    It was developed mainly for petroleum exports.

  4. ((d))

    The main hinterland of this port is Andhra Pradesh.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is situated on the Krishna-Godavari Delta.

94

With reference to the location of Industries, consider the following statements:

  1. Heavy machines, machine tools, and heavy chemical industries are located near the high-demand areas, as these are market-oriented industries.
  2. Cotton textile industry and industries based on perishable raw materials are located near the source of raw materials because they use perishable raw materials, which need immediate processing.
  3. Aluminium manufacturing industries are located near sources of power because they are power-intensive and require a huge quantum of electricity.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

95

What does ’svar’ mean in the context of Indian music?

  1. ((a))

    Tone or note

  2. ((b))

    Rhythm cycle

  3. ((c))

    Scale

  4. ((d))

    Melody

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tone or note

96

The Kamaicha is a bowed lute traditionally played in which region of India?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab

97

The Katkari Tribes, sometimes seen in the news, is largely found in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

98

What is the CORRECT order to arrange the states in descending order according to the population density in India (2011)?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

99

Which of the following rivers is an example of inland drainage in India?

  1. ((a))

    Ghaggar River

  2. ((b))

    Mahi River

  3. ((c))

    Tapi River

  4. ((d))

    Krishna River

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ghaggar River

100

The river that rises near Rohtang Pass in Kullu, draining the western slope of the Pir Panjal and the northern slope of the Dhauladhar Range, is the ______ River.

  1. ((a))

    Chenab

  2. ((b))

    Sutlej

  3. ((c))

    Indus

  4. ((d))

    Ravi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chenab

Electrical Engineering (100 questions)

101

An electronic component that stores electrical energy in an electric field is known as a(n):

  1. ((a))

    Diode

  2. ((b))

    Inductor

  3. ((c))

    Capacitor

  4. ((d))

    Transistor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Diode

102

A 10 μF\mu F capacitor and a 20 μF\mu F capacitor are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series with a 30 μF\mu F capacitor. What is the total equivalent capacitance of the circuit?

  1. ((a))

    25 μF\mu F

  2. ((b))

    10 μF\mu F

  3. ((c))

    15 μF\mu F

  4. ((d))

    60 μF\mu F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 μF\mu F

103

Which of the following is an example of a secondary battery?

  1. ((a))

    Lithium-ion battery

  2. ((b))

    Alkaline battery

  3. ((c))

    Mercury battery

  4. ((d))

    Zinc-carbon battery

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lithium-ion battery

104

A battery pack is made of three cells connected in series. Each cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5V1.5 V and a capacity of 2.5Ah2.5 Ah. What is the total energy stored in the battery pack?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25 Wh
  2. ((b))
    1. 75 Wh
  3. ((c))
    1. 25 Wh
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 Wh
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25 Wh
105

A series RL circuit is connected to an a.c. supply. If the voltage across the resistor is 30 V and the applied voltage is 50 V, what is the voltage measured across the inductor?

  1. ((a))

    60 V

  2. ((b))

    20 V

  3. ((c))

    40 V

  4. ((d))

    80 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 V

106

A resistor of 10 Ω\Omega has a current of 3 A flowing through it. How much power is dissipated by the resistor?

  1. ((a))

    100 W

  2. ((b))

    90 W

  3. ((c))

    30 W

  4. ((d))

    60 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 W

107

What is the term for the loss that occurs due to the resistance of the transformer windings?

  1. ((a))

    Eddy current loss

  2. ((b))

    Friction loss

  3. ((c))

    Copper loss

  4. ((d))

    Hysteresis loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Eddy current loss

108

A transformer is used to change a 12V12 V AC supply to a 120V120 V AC supply. What type of transformer is this?

  1. ((a))

    Autotransformer

  2. ((b))

    Isolation

  3. ((c))

    Step-down

  4. ((d))

    Step-up

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Autotransformer

109

What is the purpose of laminating the core of a transformer?

  1. ((a))

    To increase the magnetic flux

  2. ((b))

    To reduce eddy current losses

  3. ((c))

    To increase the resistance of the windings

  4. ((d))

    To provide better insulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase the magnetic flux

110

Which type of DC machine has its field winding connected in parallel with the armature winding?

  1. ((a))

    A separately excited DC machine

  2. ((b))

    A shunt DC machine

  3. ((c))

    A compound DC machine

  4. ((d))

    A series DC machine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A separately excited DC machine

111

What happens to the speed of a DC motor if the applied voltage is increased?

  1. ((a))

    It stays the same

  2. ((b))

    It stops completely

  3. ((c))

    It decreases

  4. ((d))

    It increases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It stays the same

112

In a DC motor, what is the name of the stationary part that houses the field windings?

  1. ((a))

    Armature

  2. ((b))

    Rotor

  3. ((c))

    Commutator

  4. ((d))

    Stator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Armature

113

Which of the following describes the operation of a single-phase induction motor?

  1. ((a))

    It runs at a speed faster than the synchronous speed

  2. ((b))

    It can start on its own without any auxiliary windings

  3. ((c))

    It requires two AC sources to start and run

  4. ((d))

    It is not self-starting and requires a starting mechanism like an auxiliary winding.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It runs at a speed faster than the synchronous speed

114

What is the key component of an AC generator (alternator) that is used to create the main magnetic field?

  1. ((a))

    The armature winding

  2. ((b))

    The commutator

  3. ((c))

    The field winding on the rotor

  4. ((d))

    The yoke

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The armature winding

115

The rotating magnetic field in a three-phase AC machine rotates at a speed known as the:

  1. ((a))

    Torque speed

  2. ((b))

    Rotor speed

  3. ((c))

    Synchronous speed

  4. ((d))

    Slip speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Torque speed

116

A 6-pole, three-phase induction motor is connected to a 50 Hz supply. The motor runs at 960 rpm under full load. What is the slip of the motor?

  1. ((a))

    6%

  2. ((b))

    3%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    4%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6%

117

A three-phase, 400 V synchronous motor is operating at a leading power factor of 0. 8 while drawing a line current of 20 A. What is the reactive power drawn by the motor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 71 kVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 31 kVAR
  3. ((c))
    1. 31 kVAR
  4. ((d))
    1. 51 kVAR
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 71 kVAR
118

A series circuit consists of a 24 V battery, a 4 Ω\Omega resistor, and a 2 Ω\Omega resistor. An ammeter with an internal resistance of 0. 5 Ω\Omega is used to measure the current. What is the reading on the ammeter?

  1. ((a))
    1. 12 A
  2. ((b))

    5 A

  3. ((c))
    1. 69 A
  4. ((d))

    6 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 12 A
119

An AC circuit has a true power of 500 W and an apparent power of 625 VA. What is the power factor of the circuit?

  1. ((a))

    1.25

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))
    1. 8
  4. ((d))
    1. 5
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.25

120

A power factor of 11 (unity) indicates that the circuit is primarily:

  1. ((a))

    Capacitive

  2. ((b))

    Reactive

  3. ((c))

    Resistive

  4. ((d))

    Inductive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Capacitive

121

A balanced three-phase load draws a line current of 25 A at a line voltage of 400 V. If the power factor is 0. 9 lagging, what is the total real power consumed by the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 02 kW
  2. ((b))
    1. 32 kW
  3. ((c))
    1. 58 kW
  4. ((d))

    25 kW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 02 kW
122

The working principle of a moving coil galvanometer is based on the effect of a magnetic field on a:

  1. ((a))

    Insulator

  2. ((b))

    Stationary charge

  3. ((c))

    Moving magnet

  4. ((d))

    Current-carrying conductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Insulator

123

The time period of oscillation of a galvanometer coil is 2 s. If the torsional constant of the suspension fiber is increased by a factor of 4 and the moment of inertia of the coil is halved, what is the new time period of oscillation?

  1. ((a))
    1. 707 s
  2. ((b))
    1. 825 s
  3. ((c))
    1. 796 s
  4. ((d))
    1. 645 s
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 707 s
124

How is the current coil of an analog wattmeter connected in a circuit?

  1. ((a))

    In series with the voltage coil.

  2. ((b))

    In parallel with the load

  3. ((c))

    In series with the load

  4. ((d))

    Only at the power source

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In series with the voltage coil.

125

A lagging power factor is typically caused by which type of load?

  1. ((a))

    Purely reactive loads

  2. ((b))

    Inductive Loads

  3. ((c))

    Capacitive loads

  4. ((d))

    Resistive loads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Purely reactive loads

126

What is the most common method used to improve a lagging power factor?

  1. ((a))

    Installing inductors in parallel with the load.

  2. ((b))

    Installing capacitors in parallel with the load

  3. ((c))

    Installing resistors in series with the load

  4. ((d))

    Installing transformers to increase voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Installing inductors in parallel with the load.

127

A load with an apparent power of 25 kVA and a power factor of 0. 8 lagging needs to be improved to a power factor of 0. 95 lagging. What is the new apparent power (in kVA) after correction?

  1. ((a))

    25 kVA

  2. ((b))

    20 kVA

  3. ((c))
    1. 5 kVA
  4. ((d))
    1. 05 kVA
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 kVA

128

8 A load with an impedance of (5+j12)Ω\Omega is connected to a 200 V source. A parallel capacitor is added to bring the power factor to unity. What is the value of the capacitance in µF if the frequency is 50 Hz?

  1. ((a))

    42.8 μF

  2. ((b))

    226 µF

  3. ((c))

    56.2 µF

  4. ((d))

    74.6 µF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42.8 μF

129

Which of the following statements about the reverse saturation current in a p-n junction diode is most accurate?

  1. ((a))

    It is equal to the forward current when the diode is in forward bias.

  2. ((b))

    It increases significantly with an increase in reverse bias voltage.

  3. ((c))

    It is highly dependent on the temperature of the diode.

  4. ((d))

    It is primarily due to the diffusion of majority carriers across the junction.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is equal to the forward current when the diode is in forward bias.

130

In a mercury arc rectifier, what is the primary function of the anodes?

  1. ((a))

    To heat the mercury vapor to start the rectification process

  2. ((b))

    To attract the positive mercury ions to maintain the arc

  3. ((c))

    To collect the electrons emitted from the cathode

  4. ((d))

    To serve as the main source of electron emission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To heat the mercury vapor to start the rectification process

131

What is the RMS value of a sinusoidal current with a peak value of 10 A?

  1. ((a))

    10 A

  2. ((b))

    5 A

  3. ((c))
    1. 37 A
  4. ((d))
    1. 07 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 A

132

The RMS value of a triangular wave is what fraction of its peak value?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    12\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    13\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

133

Which of the following is a major factor contributing to the ’Depreciation Factor’ (or Maintenance Factor) in lighting calculations?

  1. ((a))

    The age and wear of the luminaire housing

  2. ((b))

    The reduction in the lamp’s luminous output over its lifetime

  3. ((c))

    The type of ballast used with the luminaire

  4. ((d))

    The color temperature change of the lamp over time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The age and wear of the luminaire housing

134

What is the standard voltage supply for a single-phase residential electrical installation?

  1. ((a))

    230 v

  2. ((b))

    415 v

  3. ((c))

    50 v

  4. ((d))

    110 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

230 v

135

According to IE Rules, what is the standard frequency of alternating current (AC) supply in India?

  1. ((a))

    60 Hz

  2. ((b))

    50 Hz

  3. ((c))

    25 Hz

  4. ((d))

    100 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 Hz

136

An industrial plant with a total load of 750kW at a power factor of 0. 75 lagging is to have its power factor improved to 0. 95 lagging. Calculate the total kVAR of the capacitor bank needed.

  1. ((a))

    510 kVAR

  2. ((b))

    600 kVAR

  3. ((c))

    350 kVAR

  4. ((d))

    415 kVAR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

510 kVAR

137

A high voltage (HV) overhead line with a declared voltage of 11 kV crosses a public road. According to IE Rule 77, what is the minimum vertical clearance required from the ground for a wire that is not earthed?

  1. ((a))
    1. 0 m
  2. ((b))
    1. 8 m
  3. ((c))
    1. 1 m
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 m
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0 m
138

What does IE Rule 66 address in an electrical installation?

  1. ((a))

    The size of the main switch.

  2. ((b))

    The number of light bulbs in a room

  3. ((c))

    The type of fuse to be used

  4. ((d))

    Precaution against excess leakage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The size of the main switch.

139

The earthing grid in a substation is primarily designed to control which two types of dangerous potentials?

  1. ((a))

    Voltage potential and Current potential

  2. ((b))

    Touch potential and Step potential

  3. ((c))

    Surge potential and Lightning potential

  4. ((d))

    Phase potential and Neutral potential

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voltage potential and Current potential

140

How is the current coil of an energy meter connected in a circuit?

  1. ((a))

    In parallel with the supply

  2. ((b))

    In series with the load

  3. ((c))

    In parallel with the load

  4. ((d))

    In series with the voltage coil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In parallel with the supply

141

Which of the following is not a common cause of internal faults in a transformer?

  1. ((a))

    Winding short circuits

  2. ((b))

    Core heating

  3. ((c))

    Overloading

  4. ((d))

    Insulation breakdown

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Winding short circuits

142

Which of the following types of faults is the most common in a power system?

  1. ((a))

    Three-phase faults

  2. ((b))

    Phase-to-phase faults

  3. ((c))

    Single line-to-ground faults

  4. ((d))

    Double line-to-ground faults

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three-phase faults

143

In a substation, which of the following protection schemes provides the fastest and most reliable protection for a fault within a transformer’s winding?

  1. ((a))

    Differential protection

  2. ((b))

    Earth fault relays

  3. ((c))

    Overcurrent relays

  4. ((d))

    Distance relays

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Differential protection

144

What does the term ’attenuation’ mean in the context of a coaxial cable?

  1. ((a))

    The speed at which a signal travels through the cable

  2. ((b))

    The ability of the cable to resist external interference

  3. ((c))

    The amount of power the cable can safely handle

  4. ((d))

    The loss of signal strength over a certain length of cable

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The speed at which a signal travels through the cable

145

A coaxial cable has a velocity factor (VF) of 0. 78. What length of this cable is required to have a total propagation delay of 500 ns? Assume the speed of light c=3×1083 \times 10^8 m/s.

  1. ((a))

    117 m

  2. ((b))

    100 m

  3. ((c))

    150 m

  4. ((d))

    125 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

117 m

146

What happens to the load angle (δ\delta) of an alternator connected to a busbar when its real power output is increased?

  1. ((a))

    The load angle becomes zero

  2. ((b))

    The load angle decreases

  3. ((c))

    The load angle increases

  4. ((d))

    The load angle remains constant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The load angle becomes zero

147

In a servomotor, the controller compares the commanded position to the actual position from the encoder to generate an error signal. This is a fundamental concept of:

  1. ((a))

    Feedback control

  2. ((b))

    Motor braking

  3. ((c))

    Open-loop control

  4. ((d))

    Torque control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feedback control

148

The induced EMF in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage. This is a statement of:

  1. ((a))

    Lenz’s Law

  2. ((b))

    Ampere’s Law

  3. ((c))

    Faraday’s Law of Induction

  4. ((d))

    Ohm’s Law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lenz’s Law

149

According to Lenz’s Law, the direction of the induced current in a conductor is such that it:

  1. ((a))

    Opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it

  2. ((b))

    Is always in the same direction as the magnetic field

  3. ((c))

    Aids the change in magnetic flux

  4. ((d))

    Creates a magnetic field that is perpendicular to the conductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it

150

Two alternators are operating in parallel and sharing a total load of 500 kW500 \text{ kW}. Alternator 1 has a droop characteristic of 4 Hz/MW4 \text{ Hz/MW} and Alternator 2 has a droop of 6 Hz/MW6 \text{ Hz/MW}. The no-load frequency of both is 50 Hz50 \text{ Hz}. What is the load shared by Alternator 1?

  1. ((a))

    250 kW250 \text{ kW}

  2. ((b))

    300 kW300 \text{ kW}

  3. ((c))

    200 kW200 \text{ kW}

  4. ((d))

    400 kW400 \text{ kW}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

250 kW250 \text{ kW}

151

If a coil with 100 turns has a flux of 0. 05 Wb when a current of 2 A flows through it, what is its self-inductance?

  1. ((a))

    10H

  2. ((b))

    250H

  3. ((c))
    1. 5H
  4. ((d))
    1. 025H
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10H

152

A toroidal core has a mean circumference of 30cm, a cross-sectional area of 2cm2^2, and a relative permeability of 1000. A coil with 500 turns is wound on the core. What is the reluctance of the magnetic circuit?

  1. ((a))
    1. 39 x 105^5 A-t/Wb
  2. ((b))
    1. 19 x 106^6 A-t/Wb
  3. ((c))
    1. 19 x 105^5 A-t/Wb
  4. ((d))
    1. 39 x 106^6 A-t/Wb
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 39 x 105^5 A-t/Wb
153

What is the ripple frequency of a full-wave rectifier with a 50 Hz input signal?

  1. ((a))

    200 Hz

  2. ((b))

    25 Hz

  3. ((c))

    50 Hz

  4. ((d))

    100 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 Hz

154

In a half-wave rectifier with a filter capacitor, what is the effect of increasing the value of the capacitor?

  1. ((a))

    The ripple voltage increases

  2. ((b))

    The ripple frequency increases

  3. ((c))

    The ripple voltage decreases

  4. ((d))

    The DC output voltage decreases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The ripple voltage increases

155

What is the primary purpose of Thevenin’s theorem?

  1. ((a))

    To determine the current flowing through a short circuit

  2. ((b))

    To find the maximum power transfer to a load

  3. ((c))

    To simplify a complex circuit to a single voltage source and a single series resistor

  4. ((d))

    To find the voltage across an open circuit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To determine the current flowing through a short circuit

156

What is the primary purpose of Norton’s theorem?

  1. ((a))

    To find the maximum power that can be delivered to a load

  2. ((b))

    To simplify a complex circuit to a single current source and a single parallel resistor

  3. ((c))

    To find the resistance of the circuit with all sources turned on

  4. ((d))

    To find the voltage across an open circuit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To find the maximum power that can be delivered to a load

157

A Norton equivalent circuit has an IN of 10 A and an RN of 5Ω5\Omega. If a 5Ω5\Omega load is connected, what is the current through the load?

  1. ((a))

    2 A

  2. ((b))

    5 A

  3. ((c))

    0 A

  4. ((d))

    10 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 A

158

When can you use the voltage divider rule to find the Thevenin voltage (Vth)(V_{th})?

  1. ((a))

    When the circuit is short-circuited

  2. ((b))

    When the circuit contains only a single voltage source and resistors in series

  3. ((c))

    When the circuit contains dependent sources

  4. ((d))

    When the circuit has multiple voltage sources

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When the circuit is short-circuited

159

An alternating current has a waveform such that it has a value of ImI_m for half a cycle and zero for the next half. What is the average value of this waveform?

  1. ((a))
    1. 637 ImI_m
  2. ((b))
    1. 707 ImI_m
  3. ((c))

    ImI_m

  4. ((d))
    1. 5 ImI_m
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 637 ImI_m
160

An AC voltage is given by v(t)=200sin⁡(377t)v(t)=200 \sin(377t) V. What is the RMS value of the voltage?

  1. ((a))

    200 v

  2. ((b))
    1. 8 v
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 v
  4. ((d))
    1. 3 v
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 v

161

A half-wave rectified sine wave has a peak value of 20 V. What is its average value?

  1. ((a))
    1. 74 V
  2. ((b))

    20 V

  3. ((c))
    1. 14 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 37 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 74 V
162

An electric traction motor drives a train with a total mass of 50,000 kg50,000 \text{ kg}. The train accelerates from rest to a speed of 60 km/h60 \text{ km/h} in 30 seconds30 \text{ seconds}. If the tractive effort is constant and there are no losses, what is the value of the tractive effort?

  1. ((a))

    27.8 kN27.8 \text{ kN}

  2. ((b))

    55.6 kN55.6 \text{ kN}

  3. ((c))

    46.8 kN46.8 \text{ kN}

  4. ((d))

    35.2 kN35.2 \text{ kN}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27.8 kN27.8 \text{ kN}

163

A resistance welding machine is used to weld two steel plates. A current of 5000 A flows through the weld. If the resistance of the weld joint is 150 μΩ\mu\Omega, what is the heat generated at the weld in 0. 5 seconds?

  1. ((a))
    1. 75 kJ
  2. ((b))
    1. 75 kJ
  3. ((c))
    1. 875 kJ
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 kJ
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 75 kJ
164

A three-phase electric furnace with a star-connected resistive load of 20 Ω20~\Omega per phase is connected to a 400 V400~V line-to-line a.c. supply. What is the total heat generated by the furnace in 3030 minutes?

  1. ((a))
    1. 80 MJ
  2. ((b))
    1. 4 MJ
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 MJ
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 MJ
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 80 MJ
165

A steel component with a surface area of 0.2m20.2 m^2 is to be electroplated with a 20μm20 \mu m thick layer of copper. A current of 50A50 A is passed through a copper sulfate solution. The density of copper is 8960kg/m38960 kg/m^3, and the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 0.329mg/C0.329 mg/C. How long will the electroplating process take?

  1. ((a))
    1. 3 minutes
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 minutes
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 minutes
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 minutes
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 3 minutes
166

A three-phase transformer is connected in a star-delta (Y−Δ)(Y-\Delta) configuration. The line voltage on the star side is 11 kV, and the transformer has a turns ratio per phase of 20:1. What is the line voltage on the delta side?

  1. ((a))
    1. 7 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 3 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 8 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 7 V
167

A three-phase transformer has a rating of 150kVA150 kVA. The line voltages are 11kV11 kV on the primary and 400V400 V on the secondary. If the transformer is star-connected on both sides, what is the phase current on the primary side?

  1. ((a))
    1. 62 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 87 A
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 A
  4. ((d))
    1. 6 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 62 A
168

A 100 kVA, 11000/400 v transformer has an iron loss of 800 W. The full-load copper loss is 1200 W. At what load (in kVA) will the efficiency be maximum?

  1. ((a))
    1. 7 kVA
  2. ((b))
    1. 2 kVA
  3. ((c))
    1. 65 kVA
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 kVA
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 7 kVA
169

A 5 kw, 200 v d.c. motor has total losses of 1 kW. What is the efficiency of the motor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 70%
  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))
    1. 30%
  4. ((d))
    1. 48%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 70%
170

A 250 V d.c. series generator with a total internal resistance of 0. 2 Ω\Omega delivers a load current of 50 A. What is the generated EMF?

  1. ((a))

    255 V

  2. ((b))

    260 V

  3. ((c))

    250 V

  4. ((d))

    265 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

255 V

171

A 220 V d.c. shunt motor runs at 1500 rpm at no load. The armature resistance is 0.4Ω0.4 \Omega and the field resistance is 110Ω110 \Omega. When the motor is loaded, it takes a line current of 50 A from the supply. What is the full-load speed?

  1. ((a))

    1369 rpm

  2. ((b))

    1380 rpm

  3. ((c))

    1400 rpm

  4. ((d))

    1450 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1369 rpm

172

A 3-phase, 4-pole, 400 V, 50 Hz induction motor has an equivalent rotor resistance and reactance at standstill of 0.15Ω0.15 \Omega and 0.8Ω0.8 \Omega per phase, respectively. The stator impedance is negligible. If the motor is fed from a 200 V, 25 Hz source, what is the ratio of the starting torque to the maximum torque?

  1. ((a))
    1. 1875
  2. ((b))
    1. 354
  3. ((c))
    1. 655
  4. ((d))
    1. 925
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1875
173

A 240 V DC shunt generator has an armature resistance of 0. 1 Ω\Omega. At a load current of 50 A, the generated EMF is 248 V. What is the voltage drop due to armature reaction?

  1. ((a))

    3 v

  2. ((b))

    5 v

  3. ((c))

    8 v

  4. ((d))

    11 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3 v

174

A 50 Hz synchronous generator is connected to an infinite busbar. The generator has a synchronous reactance of 1. 8 Ω\Omega per phase, and the busbar voltage is 11 kV (line-to-line). If the generator’s induced EMF is 13. 2 kV (line-to-line), what is the reactive power supplied by the generator per phase?

  1. ((a))
    1. 54 MVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 85 MVAR
  3. ((c))
    1. 48 MVAR
  4. ((d))
    1. 12 MVAR
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 54 MVAR
175

A 250 V DC shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.15Ω. At no-load, it draws an armature current of 5 A at 1200 rpm. The field current is constant. At full load, the armature current is 50 A. If the demagnetizing effect of armature reaction reduces the flux by 8 %, what is the new speed of the motor at full load?

  1. ((a))

    1269 rpm

  2. ((b))

    1156 rpm

  3. ((c))

    1200 rpm

  4. ((d))

    1310 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1269 rpm

176

Two coils are wound on the same core. Coil 1 has 100 turns, and a current of 2 A produces a flux of 1×10−41 \times 10^{-4} Wb. The self-inductance of Coil 2 is 20 mH. The coupling coefficient between the coils is 0. 6. What is the mutual inductance?

  1. ((a))

    8×10−38 \times 10^{-3}H

  2. ((b))

    6×10−36 \times 10^{-3}H

  3. ((c))

    5×10−35 \times 10^{-3}H

  4. ((d))

    7×10−37 \times 10^{-3}H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8×10−38 \times 10^{-3}H

177

A magnetic core consists of two legs. The main leg has a cross-sectional area of 6 cm2cm^2 and a mean path length of 30 cm, while the second leg has a cross-sectional area of 4 cm2cm^2 and a mean path length of 20 cm. Both legs have a relative permeability of 1500. A coil with 400 turns is wound on the main leg. What is the total reluctance of the magnetic circuit if the second leg is in parallel with the main leg?

  1. ((a))
    1. 33 ×\times 10510^5 A - turns/Wb
  2. ((b))
    1. 65 ×\times 10510^5 A - turns/Wb
  3. ((c))
    1. 18 ×\times 10510^5 A - turns/Wb
  4. ((d))
    1. 3 ×\times 10510^5 A - turns/Wb
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 33 ×\times 10510^5 A - turns/Wb
178

A single-phase load consists of a 10 kW resistive heater and a motor operating at 85% efficiency, drawing 12 kVA at a power factor of 0. 75 lagging. The supply voltage is 240 V. What is the total power factor of the combined load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 77 lagging
  2. ((b))
    1. 81 lagging
  3. ((c))
    1. 86 lagging
  4. ((d))
    1. 925 lagging
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 77 lagging
179

A generator rated at 75 MVA\text{MVA} and 13. 8 kV\text{kV} has a subtransient reactance of 15%. If a three-phase short circuit occurs at the generator terminals, what is the initial symmetrical short-circuit current?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 kA\text{kA}
  2. ((b))
    1. 6 kA\text{kA}
  3. ((c))
    1. 9 kA\text{kA}
  4. ((d))
    1. 2 kA\text{kA}
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 kA\text{kA}
180

A silicon PN junction diode has a forward voltage drop of 0.7 V0.7 \text{ V}. If the diode is in series with a 100Ω100 \Omega resistor and a 10 V10 \text{ V} DC power supply, what is the current flowing through the circuit?

  1. ((a))

    100 mA

  2. ((b))

    70 mA

  3. ((c))

    93 mA

  4. ((d))

    107 mA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 mA

181

Given a coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 75Ω75\Omega, an inner conductor diameter of 1.5mm1.5mm, and a dielectric constant of 2.02.0, calculate the outer conductor diameter.

  1. ((a))
    1. 67 mm
  2. ((b))
    1. 54 mm
  3. ((c))
    1. 23 mm
  4. ((d))
    1. 81 mm
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 67 mm
182

A high load factor in a power station indicates:

  1. ((a))

    The station has a very low maximum demand

  2. ((b))

    The station has frequent breakdowns

  3. ((c))

    The station is only used during peak load hours

  4. ((d))

    The station is running at full capacity continuously

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The station has a very low maximum demand

183

The Load Factor of a power plant is a measure of its:

  1. ((a))

    Maximum power output

  2. ((b))

    Operational efficiency and utilization

  3. ((c))

    Total connected load of the entire system

  4. ((d))

    Number of consumers served

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximum power output

184

A nuclear power plant generates 800MWh in a day. The plant's daily load factor is 85%. What is the plant's maximum demand for that day?

  1. ((a))

    19.45MW

  2. ((b))

    39.22MW

  3. ((c))

    57.80MW

  4. ((d))

    82.73MW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19.45MW

185

A plant with an installed capacity of 150MW has a plant capacity factor of 60%. The load factor is 80%. What is the maximum demand on the plant?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5MW
  2. ((b))
    1. 5MW
  3. ((c))
    1. 5MW
  4. ((d))
    1. 5MW
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5MW
186

A consumer uses 1200 kWh of energy in a month. If their maximum demand is 20 kW, what is their monthly Load Factor? (Assume 1 month = 30 days)

  1. ((a))
    1. 0456
  2. ((b))
    1. 0672
  3. ((c))
    1. 0833
  4. ((d))
    1. 991
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0456
187

A power plant has an annual Load Factor of 0. 75. If the total energy generated in a year is 6,570,000 kWh, what is the maximum demand on the plant?

  1. ((a))

    1000 kW

  2. ((b))

    2000 kW

  3. ((c))

    3000 kW

  4. ((d))

    4000 kW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000 kW

188

A 20 kW three-phase inductive load operates at a power factor of 0. 7 lagging. What is the reactive power drawn by the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 4 kVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 7 kVAR
  3. ((c))
    1. 8 kVAR
  4. ((d))
    1. 9 kVAR
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 4 kVAR
189

The Ferranti effect in a long transmission line is a phenomenon where:

  1. ((a))

    The receiving end voltage is higher than the sending end voltage.

  2. ((b))

    The voltage and current are in phase

  3. ((c))

    The line losses are higher than normal

  4. ((d))

    The receiving end voltage is lower than the sending end voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The receiving end voltage is higher than the sending end voltage.

190

The receiving end voltage becomes equal to the sending end voltage at:

  1. ((a))

    No-load condition with a short line

  2. ((b))

    Full load condition

  3. ((c))

    The surge impedance loading (SIL) of the line

  4. ((d))

    Unity power factor load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No-load condition with a short line

191

A 50 Hz50 \text{ Hz} transmission line has an inductance of 2 mH/km2 \text{ mH/km}. If the line is 100 km100 \text{ km} long, what is the total inductive reactance?

  1. ((a))
    1. 68Ω\Omega
  2. ((b))
    1. 34Ω\Omega
  3. ((c))
    1. 83Ω\Omega
  4. ((d))
    1. 74Ω\Omega
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 68Ω\Omega
192

A 150 km long transmission line operates at 60 Hz and has a shunt capacitance of 0.02µF/km. Given that the line-to-neutral voltages is 13.2 kV, what is the total capacitive charging current for the line?

  1. ((a))

    5.48 A

  2. ((b))

    14.93 A

  3. ((c))

    27.64 A

  4. ((d))

    45.36 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.48 A

193

A long transmission line is operating at a voltage of 380 kV with a surge impedance of 400Ω400\Omega. What is the surge impedance loading (SIL)?

  1. ((a))

    186 MW

  2. ((b))

    361 MW

  3. ((c))

    572 MW

  4. ((d))

    893 MW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

186 MW

194

A Megger measures an insulation resistance of 200 MΩ\Omega between a conductor and ground when a voltage of 1000 V is applied. What is the leakage current?

  1. ((a))

    5 μ\muA

  2. ((b))

    10 μ\muA

  3. ((c))

    15 μ\muA

  4. ((d))

    20 μ\muA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 μ\muA

195

An energy meter disc makes 600 revolutions per kWh. A load is connected for 20 minutes and the disc makes 40 revolutions. Calculate the power of the load in watts.

  1. ((a))

    100 W

  2. ((b))

    200 W

  3. ((c))

    300 W

  4. ((d))

    400 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 W

196

An RL circuit has R = 10 Ω\Omega and L = 0. 5 H at 50 Hz. What is the inductive reactance?

  1. ((a))

    100 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    157 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    314 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    25 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 Ω\Omega

197

Determine the load resistance for maximum power transfer if source resistance is 8Ω8\Omega.

  1. ((a))

    4Ω4\Omega

  2. ((b))

    8Ω8\Omega

  3. ((c))

    12Ω12\Omega

  4. ((d))

    16Ω16\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4Ω4\Omega

198

In a single-phase AC circuit, if the current is doubled and voltage remains the same, the active power:

  1. ((a))

    Doubles

  2. ((b))

    Quadruples

  3. ((c))

    Halves

  4. ((d))

    Remains the same

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Doubles

199

In a circuit containing both an inductor and capacitor, resonance occurs when:

  1. ((a))

    XL=XCXL = XC

  2. ((b))

    XL>XCXL > XC

  3. ((c))

    XL<XCXL < XC

  4. ((d))

    R=0R = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XL=XCXL = XC

200

A battery’s internal resistance causes:

  1. ((a))

    Increase in terminal voltage

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in terminal voltage under load

  3. ((c))

    No effect on current

  4. ((d))

    Voltage oscillations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in terminal voltage

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