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SSC JE Electrical 07 Jun 2024 Shift 3 Official Paper - 1 (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

E, F, G, H, P, Q, and R, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only three people sit between P and G when counted from the right of P. Only F sits between R and P when counted from the left of P. Only two people sit between R and E when counted from the left of R. H is NOT an immediate neighbour of G. How many people sit between F and Q when counted from the left of F?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

2

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pairs of numbers.

100 : 90

70 : 60

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole number, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    90 : 70

  2. ((b))

    130 : 110

  3. ((c))

    150 : 145

  4. ((d))

    130 : 120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90 : 70

3

What should come in place of? in the given series?

6, 30, 174, ?, 6222, 37326

  1. ((a))

    1058

  2. ((b))

    1098

  3. ((c))

    1008

  4. ((d))

    1038

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1058

4

'AC 2' is related to 'DF 8' in a certain way based on the English alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, 'IK 5' is related to 'LN 125'. To which of the following is 'PR 7' related following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    SU 343

  2. ((b))

    TU 216

  3. ((c))

    SU 216

  4. ((d))

    RU 343

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SU 343

5

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements: All girls are honest. Priya is honest.

Conclusion 1: Priya is a girl.

Conclusion 2: All honest people are girls.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusion (1) and conclusion (2) follow

  2. ((b))

    None of the conclusions follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion (2) follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion (1) follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusion (1) and conclusion (2) follow

6

In a certain code language, 'GROW' is coded as '5397' and 'WILD' is coded as '6942'. What is the code for 'W' in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

7

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All parrots are rats.

Some rats are lambs.

No lamb is a horse.

Conclusions:

(I) All rats are horses.

(II) Some lambs are parrots.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion (I) follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

8

Select the triad in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers of the given triads.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(12, 9, 96)

(14, 7, 84)

  1. ((a))

    (15, 8, 130)

  2. ((b))

    (17, 12, 170)

  3. ((c))

    (18, 11, 180)

  4. ((d))

    (10, 12, 120)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(15, 8, 130)

9

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

MOK, LNJ, KMI, JLH, ?

  1. ((a))

    HJG

  2. ((b))

    IKG

  3. ((c))

    IKH

  4. ((d))

    HPJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HJG

11

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

11, 18, 25, 32, 39, ?

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    46

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

13

18 is related to 162 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 16 is related to 144. To which of the following is 25 related to following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    215

  2. ((b))

    225

  3. ((c))

    235

  4. ((d))

    245

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

215

14

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

LOR, PSV, TWZ, XAD, BEH, ?

  1. ((a))

    FJM

  2. ((b))

    FIL

  3. ((c))

    EIM

  4. ((d))

    GKL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

FJM

16

This question consists of a pair of words which have a certain relationship to each other. Select the pair which has the same relationship.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Brazil : Real

  1. ((a))

    Kenya : Yen

  2. ((b))

    Indonesia : Rial

  3. ((c))

    Malaysia : Ringgit

  4. ((d))

    Cuba : Euro

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kenya : Yen

17

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

18

Sandeep starts walking towards the north from a point and walks 30 m. He turns to the right and walks 30 m. He turns to the left and walks 20 m. He turns to the left and walks 30 m. Finally, he turns to the left and walks 30 m. How far is he now from the starting point? (AlI turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)

  1. ((a))

    20 m

  2. ((b))

    15 m

  3. ((c))

    30 m

  4. ((d))

    10 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 m

19

If A means +, B means -, C means × and D means ÷, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

21 D 7 C 4 A 10 B 13 = ?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

20

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

UTW, SRU, QPS, ONQ, MLO, ?

  1. ((a))

    KJM

  2. ((b))

    LKN

  3. ((c))

    LJM

  4. ((d))

    KJN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KJM

21

14 is related to 54 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 24. To which of the following is 21 related following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    90

  3. ((c))

    89

  4. ((d))

    99

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

96

22

What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

10 ÷ 8 × 4 - 6 + 2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26

23

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

(165 ÷ 3) + (135 ÷ 5) - 45 + 33 = 66

(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)

  1. ((a))

    45 and 33

  2. ((b))

    165 and 135

  3. ((c))

    45 and 3

  4. ((d))

    33 and 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45 and 33

24

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

Manoj starts from his home and drives 4 km towards the north. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns right, and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and turns left then drives 5 km to reach his office.

In which direction is the office with respect to his home? (All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)

  1. ((a))

    North-east

  2. ((b))

    West

  3. ((c))

    South-east

  4. ((d))

    North-west

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North-east

26

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

LSC, NVG, PYK, RBO, ?

  1. ((a))

    WHI

  2. ((b))

    TES

  3. ((c))

    QDU

  4. ((d))

    UGT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

WHI

27

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at OG as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18, 30, 42, 54, 66, ?

  1. ((a))

    73

  2. ((b))

    70

  3. ((c))

    78

  4. ((d))

    82

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

73

29

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Greece : Athens

  1. ((a))

    Ireland : Dublin

  2. ((b))

    Jordan : Tokyo

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia : Tehran

  4. ((d))

    Norway : Muscat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ireland : Dublin

30

In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the mother of B',

'A - B' means 'A is the brother of B',

'A × B' means 'A is the sister of B', and

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the husband of B'.

How is H related to E if 'A - B ÷ H + C × D + E'?

  1. ((a))

    Mother's mother

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Mother's sister

  4. ((d))

    Mother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother's mother

31

EHDL is related to ILZH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TFRA is related to XJNW. To which of the following is JUIP related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    NYEL

  2. ((b))

    NZEK

  3. ((c))

    MZDK

  4. ((d))

    MYDL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NYEL

32

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(9, 100, 90)

(11, 120, 110)

  1. ((a))

    (15, 130, 120)

  2. ((b))

    (13, 260, 130)

  3. ((c))

    (14, 164, 154)

  4. ((d))

    (12, 130, 120)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(15, 130, 120)

33

In a certain code language, 'HOPE' is coded as '7395' and 'OURS' is coded as '6582'. What is the code for 'O' in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

34

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word HARDEST is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

35

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

HKI, GLH, FMG, ENF ?

  1. ((a))

    DUE

  2. ((b))

    DOE

  3. ((c))

    CDE

  4. ((d))

    POE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DUE

36

Select the figure that is embedded as a part of the main figure (X). (Rotation is NOT allowed.)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37

2 is related to 26 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 52. To which of the following is 7 related following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    91

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

38

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing away from the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only 3 people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D. B sits second to the left of E. G sits to the immediate right of C. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.

Who is sitting to the immediate right of E?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

39

DCHE is related to HFPJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CABF is related to FBDL. To which of the following is FIHE related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    PLRJ

  2. ((b))

    PRLJ

  3. ((c))

    LRPJ

  4. ((d))

    LPRG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PLRJ

40

PTOS is related to NRMQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JNIM is related to HLGK. To which of the following is MQLP related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    KONJ

  2. ((b))

    OKJN

  3. ((c))

    OKNJ

  4. ((d))

    KOJN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KONJ

41

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if '+' and '×' are interchanged and '-' and '÷', interchanged?

4 + 11 × 48 - 6 ÷ 3 = ?

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    49

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    53

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

51

42

In a certain code language, 'CASE' is coded as '8426' and 'SLIP' is coded as '9275'. What is the code for 'S' in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

43

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

FIK, GJL, HKM, ILN, ?

  1. ((a))

    JMO

  2. ((b))

    OJM

  3. ((c))

    JOM

  4. ((d))

    OMJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JMO

44

In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the wife of B',

'A - B' means 'A is the father of B',

'A × B' means 'A is the sister of B', and

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the mother of B'.

How is Q related to Y if 'Q + K - T × D ÷ Y'?

  1. ((a))

    Father's father

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Mother's mother

  4. ((d))

    Mother's brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father's father

45

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ABSOLUTE is arranged in the reverse of the English alphabetical order?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

46

DGFB is related to EFGA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EGHC is related to FFIB. To which of the following is FDHB related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    GCAS

  2. ((b))

    GCAO

  3. ((c))

    GCIA

  4. ((d))

    GCER

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GCAS

47

In a certain code language, 'LVCO' is coded as '12-22-3-15' and 'GIPN' is coded as '7-9-16-14'. What is the code for 'ZAPG' in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    22-2-11-5

  2. ((b))

    24-5-14-8

  3. ((c))

    22-5-15-6

  4. ((d))

    26-1-16-7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22-2-11-5

48

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Cockroach
  2. Owl
  3. Ant
  4. Horse
  5. Fox
  1. ((a))

    3, 5, 4, 1, 2

  2. ((b))

    3, 2, 5, 4, 1

  3. ((c))

    3, 4, 1, 2, 5

  4. ((d))

    3, 1, 2, 5, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3, 5, 4, 1, 2

49

Six babies Ria, Sia, Tia, Urja, Vani and Winnie are born one after the other but not necessarily in the same order. All of them were born in different cities. Only two babies were born before the one who was born in Raipur. Only one baby was born between Sia, who was born in Delhi and the baby born in Raipur. Tia was born before Urja and just after the baby born in Haridwar. Tia was not born in Raipur. Ria was born in Bhopal and just before Vani. Tia is born immediately before the baby born in Ballia. Winnie was not born in Pune. Who was born just after Sia and in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Tia, Pune

  2. ((b))

    Urja, Raipur

  3. ((c))

    Vani, Raipur

  4. ((d))

    Ria, Bhopal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tia, Pune

50

Arrange the following words in which they appear in an English dictionary and select the correct option.

  1. Helical
  2. Helium
  3. Heighten
  4. Hellenic
  5. Heiress
  1. ((a))

    35124

  2. ((b))

    41352

  3. ((c))

    53412

  4. ((d))

    43152

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35124

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Who among the following eminent musicians is a famous tabla player?

  1. ((a))

    Ustad Moinuddin Khan

  2. ((b))

    Ustad Bade Gulam Ali Khan

  3. ((c))

    Ustad Abdul Rashid Khan

  4. ((d))

    Ustad Zakir Hussain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ustad Moinuddin Khan

52

Who among the following became the first woman Chief Executive and Chairperson of the Railway Board on 1 September 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Maria Kalavathy

  2. ((b))

    Surekha Bhosale

  3. ((c))

    Jaya Varma Sinha

  4. ((d))

    Kabitha Mathur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maria Kalavathy

53

Which of the following is a popular email client software?

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft Word

  2. ((b))

    Adobe Photoshop

  3. ((c))

    Mozilla Firefox

  4. ((d))

    Microsoft Outlook

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microsoft Word

54

Which of the following is the domestic first-class cricket championship in India?

  1. ((a))

    Santosh Trophy

  2. ((b))

    Thomas Cup

  3. ((c))

    Durand Cup

  4. ((d))

    Ranji Trophy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Santosh Trophy

55

According to Article 243 I of the Constitution, the Governor of a state constitutes the Finance Commission for every ________.

  1. ((a))

    2 years

  2. ((b))

    3 years

  3. ((c))

    5 years

  4. ((d))

    7 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 years

56

What is the value of 1 electron volt (eV), which is especially used for nuclear science?

  1. ((a))

    2.202 × 10-11 joules

  2. ((b))

    1.202 × 10-15 joules

  3. ((c))

    1.602 × 10-19 joules

  4. ((d))

    1.902 × 10-10 joules

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.202 × 10-11 joules

57

What is the unit of electric current?

  1. ((a))

    Watt 

  2. ((b))

    Ohm

  3. ((c))

    Ampere

  4. ((d))

    Volt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Watt 

58

Which Article of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race and caste?

  1. ((a))

    Article 15

  2. ((b))

    Article 16

  3. ((c))

    Article 17

  4. ((d))

    Article 18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 15

59

Which of the following are NOT contents of soil?

  1. ((a))

    Steroids

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria and fungi

  3. ((c))

    Grains of stones

  4. ((d))

    Minerals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steroids

60

Who introduced the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill in the Lok Sabha on 3 August 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

  2. ((b))

    Piyush Goyal

  3. ((c))

    Anurag Singh Thakur

  4. ((d))

    Ashwini Vaishnaw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

61

Which sulphur containing preservative is used to increase the shelf life of meat products such as fresh sausages and burgers?

  1. ((a))

    Sodium metabisulphite

  2. ((b))

    Sodium polysulfides

  3. ((c))

    Sodium thiosulfate

  4. ((d))

    Sodium phenyl sulfide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sodium metabisulphite

62

Which of the following does NOT affect the changes in the states of matter?

A) Changing the kinetic energy in the particles of the matter

B) Changing the temperature of the matter

C) Changing the pressure on the matter

D) Changing the colour of the matter

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

63

In how many different combinations do the standard ASCII codes come?

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    128

  4. ((d))

    256

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

64

64

Which of the following is a simple monocarboxylic acid containing two carbons?

  1. ((a))

    Capric acid

  2. ((b))

    Acetic acid

  3. ((c))

    Palmitic acid

  4. ((d))

    Valeric acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Capric acid

65

________, a woman educated at home at Poona, published a book, Stripurushtulna, criticising the social differences between men and women.

  1. ((a))

    Pandita Ramabai

  2. ((b))

    Kadambini Devi

  3. ((c))

    Tarabai Shinde

  4. ((d))

    Savitribai Phule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pandita Ramabai

66

Who said, "Literacy in itself is not Education"?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  4. ((d))

    B R Ambedkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahatma Gandhi

67

The process of measuring various physical and chemical properties of the rocks and fluids within a wellbore is known as:

  1. ((a))

    well logging

  2. ((b))

    drilling

  3. ((c))

    reservoir modelling

  4. ((d))

    enhanced oil recovery techniques

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

well logging

68

According to Census of India 2011, which state/union territory has the second highest sex ratio?

  1. ((a))

    Chandigarh

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Puducherry

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chandigarh

69

According to Census of India 2011, which is the second most populated state?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar

70

What is the difference between a somatic cell and a reproductive cell?

  1. ((a))

    Somatic cells undergo mitotic cell division while reproductive cells undergo meiotic cell division.

  2. ((b))

    The somatic cells have mitochondria but the reproductive cells do not have any mitochondria.

  3. ((c))

    Somatic cells do not contain any chromosome while reproductive cells have their own chromosome.

  4. ((d))

    The somatic cell and reproductive cell are neither diploid nor haploid.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Somatic cells undergo mitotic cell division while reproductive cells undergo meiotic cell division.

71

Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions about enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

  1. ((a))

    Article 138

  2. ((b))

    Article 140

  3. ((c))

    Article 142

  4. ((d))

    Article 144

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 138

72

In which of the following countries was the revolutionary Ghadar Party formed?

  1. ((a))

    Germany

  2. ((b))

    England

  3. ((c))

    The US

  4. ((d))

    Switzerland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Germany

73

Which is the correct formula to calculate the formula unit mass of a compound?

  1. ((a))

    Multiplication of all the atomic masses of all the atoms within the formula

  2. ((b))

    Summation of all the atomic weights of all the atoms within the formula

  3. ((c))

    Summation of all the atomic masses of all the atoms within the formula

  4. ((d))

    Multiplication of all the atomic weights of all the atoms within the formula

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Multiplication of all the atomic masses of all the atoms within the formula

74

Which agency supported the Bihar State Rural Livelihoods Mission (Jeevika) in developing digital financial services?

  1. ((a))

    SBI

  2. ((b))

    RBI

  3. ((c))

    SIDBI

  4. ((d))

    SEBI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SBI

75

How does the 'Shram Suvidha Portal' of the Ministry of Labour and Employment contribute to transparency in labour law enforcement?

  1. ((a))

    By providing child care centres

  2. ((b))

    By allowing women to work night shifts

  3. ((c))

    By uploading inspection reports within 48 hours

  4. ((d))

    By ensuring minimum wages for all employees

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By providing child care centres

76

In which of the following Olympic Games did Dipa Karmakar participate?

  1. ((a))

    Rio 2016

  2. ((b))

    London 2012

  3. ((c))

    Athens 2004

  4. ((d))

    Beijing 2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rio 2016

77

The Battle of Chandawar was fought between Muhammad Ghori and _______, a ruler of the Gahadavala dynasty, in 1194.

  1. ((a))

    Jaichand

  2. ((b))

    Govindachandra

  3. ((c))

    Vijayachandra

  4. ((d))

    Harishchandra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jaichand

78

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added three new words to the Preamble i.e. socialist, secular and _________.

  1. ((a))

    democratic

  2. ((b))

    fraternity

  3. ((c))

    integrity

  4. ((d))

    republic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

democratic

79

When was the 'Mahatma Gandhi Series' of Indian Bank notes started?

  1. ((a))

    1996

  2. ((b))

    2000

  3. ((c))

    1991

  4. ((d))

    1994

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1996

80

Where is the headquarters of the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)?

  1. ((a))

    Bhubaneshwar

  2. ((b))

    Bhopal

  3. ((c))

    Lucknow

  4. ((d))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhubaneshwar

81

The ________ Health Card Scheme was launched by the Government of India in the year 2014-15.

  1. ((a))

    Mineral

  2. ((b))

    Water

  3. ((c))

    Soil

  4. ((d))

    Forest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mineral

82

Rank the following states in descending order of their percentage share of the population in the country's population, as per Census 2011.

Bihar, West Bengal, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan-Madhya Pradesh-Bihar-West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh-Bihar-Rajasthan-West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Bihar-West Bengal-Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Bihar-Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan-West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasthan-Madhya Pradesh-Bihar-West Bengal

83

The Y-shaped proteinaceous structure produced by the immune cells to defend our body against harmful bacteria and viruses are known as:

  1. ((a))

    immunoglobulin

  2. ((b))

    amino acids

  3. ((c))

    collagen

  4. ((d))

    haemoglobin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

immunoglobulin

84

Eukaryotic organisms can have very complex functions to sustain themselves. At the cellular level, these involve several different types of chemical functions like energy production, metabolism etc. What are the membrane-bound structures called, which are present within the cell to keep each of these functionalities separate?

  1. ((a))

    Cytoplasm

  2. ((b))

    Plasma gel

  3. ((c))

    Organelles

  4. ((d))

    Nucleoid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cytoplasm

85

Why is it safer for our hands to use a wooden spoon while cooking in a hot pan instead of using a metallic spoon?

  1. ((a))

    Wood is a good conductor of heat and helps in cooking.

  2. ((b))

    Wood adds nice flavours to the food being cooked.

  3. ((c))

    Wood is an insulator and does not heat up.

  4. ((d))

    Wood helps the food cook faster.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wood is a good conductor of heat and helps in cooking.

86

When did the government launch Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    2020

  2. ((b))

    2021

  3. ((c))

    2022

  4. ((d))

    2023

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2020

87

Which term refers to the increasing concentration of toxins within each successive link in the food chain?

  1. ((a))

    Denitrification

  2. ((b))

    Biomagnification

  3. ((c))

    Facilitation

  4. ((d))

    Stratification

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Denitrification

88

Who was sworn in as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh on 24 February 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Gulab Chand Kataria

  2. ((b))

    Pratap Shukla

  3. ((c))

    S Abdul Nazeer

  4. ((d))

    Acharya Dev Vrat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gulab Chand Kataria

89

Which ministry introduced the Press and Registration of Periodicals (PRP) Bill in Rajya Sabha on 1 August 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

90

Which of the following is NOT an animal of Phylum Chordate?

  1. ((a))

    Earthworm

  2. ((b))

    Snake

  3. ((c))

    Frog

  4. ((d))

    Rabbit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Earthworm

91

Who is the governor of Reserve Bank of India as of May 2023?

  1. ((a))

    YV Patel

  2. ((b))

    Raguram Rajan

  3. ((c))

    Shaktikanta Das

  4. ((d))

    Urijit Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YV Patel

92

Who among the following related to Patiala gharana?

  1. ((a))

    Amir Khan

  2. ((b))

    Ghagge Nazir Khan

  3. ((c))

    Fateh Ali Khan and Ali Baksh Khan

  4. ((d))

    Goswami Lalji Mahara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amir Khan

93

The central government, in 2021, set up an eight-member panel for framing a new law for drugs, cosmetics and medical devices. Who headed that panel?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. VG Somani

  2. ((b))

    Rajiv Wadhawan

  3. ((c))

    NL Meena

  4. ((d))

    AK Pradhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dr. VG Somani

94

It is hot outside. It is cloudy and raining most of the time. It is the month of June. Which season is it?

  1. ((a))

    Winter

  2. ((b))

    Summer

  3. ((c))

    Monsoon

  4. ((d))

    Spring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Winter

95

Which organelle contains enzymes that help break down fatty acids and detoxify certain compounds in the cell?

  1. ((a))

    Centriole

  2. ((b))

    Peroxisome

  3. ((c))

    Vacuole

  4. ((d))

    Lysosome

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centriole

96

Identify the incorrect pair (River and its origin) from the following.

  1. ((a))

    Godavari - Nasik district

  2. ((b))

    Tapi - Satpura ranges

  3. ((c))

    Krishna - Brahmagri range

  4. ((d))

    Narmada - Amarkantak hills

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Godavari - Nasik district

97

Certain grass-eating animals complete the digestion of food in two processes. First, they swallow partially digested food and then they regurgitate and chew upon that food again. What are such animals known as?

  1. ((a))

    Heterotrophs

  2. ((b))

    Regurgitates

  3. ((c))

    Autotrophs

  4. ((d))

    Ruminants

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heterotrophs

98

Which directive principle was added by the 97th Amendment Act 2011?

  1. ((a))

    Uniform civil code for the citizens

  2. ((b))

    Separation of judiciary from executive

  3. ((c))

    Promotion of co-operative societies

  4. ((d))

    Organisation of village panchayats

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniform civil code for the citizens

99

Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP, the cell's energy currency?

  1. ((a))

    Nucleus

  2. ((b))

    Mitochondria

  3. ((c))

    Golgi apparatus

  4. ((d))

    Endoplasmic reticulum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nucleus

100

Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of an organism?

  1. ((a))

    ATP

  2. ((b))

    Mitochondria

  3. ((c))

    Nucleus

  4. ((d))

    Cell

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ATP

Electrical Engineering (100 questions)

101

Consider the following statements regarding Brushless DC motors and select the correct option.

(i) In Brushless motors, there is a provision of permanent magnets that will rotate around a moving armature.

(ii) The brush-commutator assembly of a conventional DC motor is replaced by an electronic controller in the Brushless DC motors.

(iii) For same kW rating, the Brushless DC motor is less expensive than the Brushed conventional DC motor.

  1. ((a))

    (ii) and (iii) are false

  2. ((b))

    (i) and (iii) are false

  3. ((c))

    Only (ii) is false

  4. ((d))

    (i) and (ii) are false

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(ii) and (iii) are false

102

What is the meaning of the term 'load factor'?

  1. ((a))

    The ratio of total energy consumption to total energy production

  2. ((b))

    The ratio of peak load to average load over a year

  3. ((c))

    The ratio of average load to peak load over a year

  4. ((d))

    The ratio of total energy production to total energy consumption

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The ratio of total energy consumption to total energy production

103

How many types of dependent sources are there?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

104

In a brake test, the DC motor took 20 A from a 200 V supply mains. The brake pulley of radius 10 cm had an effective load of 20 kg and the speed was 10 rps. The value of BHP (in metric) is _______.

  1. ((a))

    0.2 π 

  2. ((b))

    0.5 π

  3. ((c))

    8.8 π

  4. ((d))

    1.3 π

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.2 π 

105

Which of the following materials is widely used for high-temperature heating (1500°C) applications such as in industrial furnaces and kilns?

  1. ((a))

    Nickel chromium alloy

  2. ((b))

    Bronze

  3. ((c))

    Stainless steel

  4. ((d))

    Silicon carbide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nickel chromium alloy

106

A 4 pole, 50 Hz IM operates at 7% slip. The frequency of EMF induced in the rotor will be ________.

  1. ((a))

    0.5 Hz

  2. ((b))

    2.5 Hz

  3. ((c))

    1.5 Hz

  4. ((d))

    3.5 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5 Hz

107

When is the error under testing of energy meter directly obtained?

  1. ((a))

    The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants are zero.

  2. ((b))

    The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants are 1.

  3. ((c))

    The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants are same.

  4. ((d))

    The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants are different.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants are zero.

108

Which of the following is true for the performance analysis of medium transmission line using end condenser method?

  1. ((a))

    The voltage across the load is lower than the voltage across the each different distributed line capacitance.

  2. ((b))

    The voltage across the load is higher than the voltage across the each different distributed line capacitance.

  3. ((c))

    The voltage across the load is equal to the voltage across the lumped line capacitance.

  4. ((d))

    The voltage across the load is higher than the voltage across the lumped line capacitance.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The voltage across the load is lower than the voltage across the each different distributed line capacitance.

109

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Fault can be easily located in underground cables.

  2. ((b))

    Overhead lines are more costly as compared to underground cables.

  3. ((c))

    The location of the fault in overhead lines can be found easily.

  4. ((d))

    The possibility of supply interruption due to lightning is more with underground cables.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fault can be easily located in underground cables.

110

Which of the following factors will NOT affect the selection of a resistor?

  1. ((a))

    Thermal resistivity

  2. ((b))

    Frequency range

  3. ((c))

    Tolerance

  4. ((d))

    Power rating (in watts)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thermal resistivity

111

In electromagnetism of parallel magnetic circuits, the reluctance offered for two parallel paths will be _______.

  1. ((a))

    half for each path

  2. ((b))

    quarter for each path

  3. ((c))

    cube for each path

  4. ((d))

    square for each path

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

half for each path

112

If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is increased 10 times and the area is reduced to one-fourth, then its capacitance _______.

  1. ((a))

    becomes 140\frac{1}{40} times

  2. ((b))

    becomes 40 times

  3. ((c))

    increases 2.5 times

  4. ((d))

    becomes one half

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

becomes 140\frac{1}{40} times

113

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the principle of operation of a switched reluctance motor?

  1. The motor relies on the interaction of magnetic fields to produce rotational motion.

  2. The motor uses brushes and a commutator to produce rotational motion.

  3. The motor uses permanent magnets to produce rotational motion.

  4. The motor uses a series of switches to control the flow of current through its coils.

  1. ((a))

    Both 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    Both 2 and 4

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    Only 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both 1 and 2

114

The scattering of molten metal droplets outside the weld zone, which can lead to surface irregularities is called weld ______.

  1. ((a))

    slag inclusions

  2. ((b))

    under fill

  3. ((c))

    burn-through

  4. ((d))

    spatter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

slag inclusions

115

Which of the following is correct with reference to phasing out test on transformers? 

  1. ((a))

    This test is carried out both on 1Φ and 3Φ transformers to identify high-voltage winding.

  2. ((b))

    This test is carried out both on 1Φ and 3Φ transformers to identify the primary and secondary winding.

  3. ((c))

    This test is carried out only on the 3Φ transformer to identify primary and secondary winding in the same phase.

  4. ((d))

    This test is carried out only on 1Φ transformer to identify primary and secondary winding.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

This test is carried out both on 1Φ and 3Φ transformers to identify high-voltage winding.

116

Transmission efficiency of a transmission line increases with the _______.

  1. ((a))

    decrease in power factor and voltage

  2. ((b))

    increase in voltage only power factor remains constant

  3. ((c))

    increase in power factor and voltage

  4. ((d))

    increase in power factor but the decrease in voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

decrease in power factor and voltage

117

A sinusoidal alternating voltage of time period 36 ms has the maximum value of 250 V. Its value will reach -125 V (half the value of negative maximum) after ______ milliseconds.

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21

118

A 400 V, 30 kVA, single-phase alternator has an effective armature resistance of 0.3 Ω. An excitation current of 20 A produces 266 A armature current on short-circuit and an EMF of 400 V on open-circuit. The synchronous impedance and synchronous reactance of the alternator are, respectively, ________.

  1. ((a))

    1.46 Ω and 1.5 Ω

  2. ((b))

    20 Ω and 0.3 Ω

  3. ((c))

    0.3 Ω and 20 Ω

  4. ((d))

    1.5 Ω and 1.46 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.46 Ω and 1.5 Ω

119

Ten resistors having the same value of resistance i.e. 10 ohm, are connected in parallel. What will be the equivalent resistance of this connection?

  1. ((a))

    1 ohm

  2. ((b))

    100 ohm

  3. ((c))

    5 ohm

  4. ((d))

    2 ohm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 ohm

120

A Lissajous patterns on a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) has 8 vertical maximum values and 4 horizontal maximum values. The frequency of the horizontal input is 1600 Hz. Determine the frequency of the vertical input?

  1. ((a))

    200 Hz

  2. ((b))

    800 Hz

  3. ((c))

    600 Hz

  4. ((d))

    400 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 Hz

121

The line voltage of a delta connected three phase circuit is 415 V. The phase voltage is:

  1. ((a))

    415 V

  2. ((b))

    230 V

  3. ((c))

    240 V

  4. ((d))

    220 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

415 V

122

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about auxiliary motor starting in synchronous motors?

A) The function of the auxiliary motor is to run the synchronous motor at a speed less than its synchronous speed.

B) The rating of the auxiliary motor is much lower than that of the synchronous motor.

C) This method is used only for loaded synchronous motors.

D) Auxiliary motor starting is not a commonly used starting method in modern days.

  1. ((a))

    A and C

  2. ((b))

    A and D

  3. ((c))

    B and D

  4. ((d))

    A, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and C

123

The total inductance of two coupled coils in the series opposing and series aiding connections are 12 mH and 38 mH, respectively. Find the mutual inductance between the coils.

  1. ((a))

    10 mH

  2. ((b))

    26 mH

  3. ((c))

    6.5 mH

  4. ((d))

    13 mH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 mH

124

Which of the following statement is true regarding End Condenser method used for the performance analysis of medium transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    Line capacitance is considered distributed parameter during the analysis.

  2. ((b))

    Line capacitance is lumped at the sending endduring the analysis.

  3. ((c))

    Line capacitance is lumped at the receiving endduring the analysis.

  4. ((d))

    Line capacitance is lumped between resistance and Inductance during analysis.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Line capacitance is considered distributed parameter during the analysis.

125

The method which can be used for the speed control of an induction motor from the stator side is _______.

  1. ((a))

    V/R control

  2. ((b))

    V/F control

  3. ((c))

    adding rheostats in rotor circuit

  4. ((d))

    V/Z control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V/R control

126

Which of the following statements is correct about inert gas metal arc welding?

  1. ((a))

    This method is particularly suitable for welding heavy metals.

  2. ((b))

    In this method, concentration of heat is difficult.

  3. ((c))

    In this method, concentration of heat is easily possible.

  4. ((d))

    In this method, flux is required.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

This method is particularly suitable for welding heavy metals.

127

Two inductively coupled coils have self-inductance L1 = 20H and L2 = 320H. Find the maximum possible mutual inductance between the coils.

  1. ((a))

    80 H

  2. ((b))

    40 H

  3. ((c))

    100 H

  4. ((d))

    10 H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80 H

128

Which of the following statements related to the speed control of DC shunt and series motors is correct?

  1. ((a))

    In series-parallel control, the motors are joined in parallel at lower speeds and series at higher speeds.

  2. ((b))

    In the Rheostatic control methods of shunt motors, the series resistor must be connected between the line and the motor.

  3. ((c))

    Field diverters and tapped field control methods are mostly used in DC shunt motors.

  4. ((d))

    In a tapped field control when all the field turns are present in the circuit, the motor runs at the lowest speed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In series-parallel control, the motors are joined in parallel at lower speeds and series at higher speeds.

129

The efficiency of a 60 Hz, 6-pole, 1000 rpm 3-phase induction motor is _______.

  1. ((a))

    69.3%

  2. ((b))

    83.4%

  3. ((c))

    75.5%

  4. ((d))

    94.2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

69.3%

130

Determine the force required to separate two magnetic surfaces with a contact area of 4π cm2 and the magnetic flux density across the surface is 1 wb/m2.

  1. ((a))

    1000 N

  2. ((b))

    500 N

  3. ((c))

    800 N

  4. ((d))

    100 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000 N

131

At higher forward voltages, a junction diode is likely to ________.

  1. ((a))

    become noisy

  2. ((b))

    break down

  3. ((c))

    burn out

  4. ((d))

    get saturated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

become noisy

132

What is the formula for calculating the magnitude of the mechanical force experienced by a current-carrying conductor perpendicular to the magnetic field, where B = magnetic flux density, I = Current and L = Length of the conductor?

  1. ((a))

    F = B2LI\rm \frac{B^2}{LI}

  2. ((b))

    F = B2LI

  3. ((c))

    F = BI2L

  4. ((d))

    F = BIL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F = B2LI\rm \frac{B^2}{LI}

133

The operating point of a transistor known as _______.

  1. ((a))

    active point

  2. ((b))

    quiescent point

  3. ((c))

    cut-off point

  4. ((d))

    threshold point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

active point

134

The torque developed in the squirrel cage induction motor with auto-starter is _______.

  1. ((a))

    K2 × torque with direct switching

  2. ((b))

    k2/torque with direct switching

  3. ((c))

    K × torque with direct switching

  4. ((d))

    k/torque with direct switching

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K2 × torque with direct switching

135

In the context of electromagnetism, if a conductor is held in the right hand with the thumb pointing in the direction of the current, then the other fingers will point towards the _______.

  1. ((a))

    current flowing through the conductor

  2. ((b))

    length of the conductor

  3. ((c))

    direction of the magnetic field

  4. ((d))

    magnetic field intensity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

current flowing through the conductor

136

How does the load factor impact the cost of a unit (kWh) of electricity?

  1. ((a))

    Load factor only affects the demand charges, not the generation costs.

  2. ((b))

    Higher load factor leads to higher generation costs per unit.

  3. ((c))

    Higher load factor leads to lower generation costs per unit.

  4. ((d))

    Load factor has no impact on the generation costs per unit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Load factor only affects the demand charges, not the generation costs.

137

What is the function of the pressure spring in a three-phase energy meter?

  1. ((a))

    It provides deflection torque to the moving member.

  2. ((b))

    It maintains a constant pressure between the aluminium discs and the disc spindles.

  3. ((c))

    It provides mechanical support.

  4. ((d))

    It moves the aluminium discs in response to the torque generated by the magnetic field.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It provides deflection torque to the moving member.

138

Two coupled inductors L1 = 8H and L2 = 32H have coefficient of coupling K = 0.4. The mutual inductance between them is

  1. ((a))

    40 H

  2. ((b))

    64 H

  3. ((c))

    102.4 H

  4. ((d))

    6.4 H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 H

139

A coil having 100 turns is placed in the magnetic field of 1m wb. Find the average EMF induced if the coil is moved in 0.2 seconds from the given field to a field of 0.4m wb.

  1. ((a))

    0.3 volt

  2. ((b))

    30 volts

  3. ((c))

    3 volts

  4. ((d))

    10 volts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.3 volt

140

In magnetism, the measure of the ease with which magnetic flux can pass through a material is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    permeance

  2. ((b))

    flux density

  3. ((c))

    reluctance

  4. ((d))

    MMF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

permeance

141

Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to delta-star type distribution transformers application?

  1. ((a))

    In delta-star type transformer, large, unbalanced loads can be handled without any difficulty.

  2. ((b))

    In delta-star type transformer, no distortion is produced by third harmonic components.

  3. ((c))

    In delta-star type transformer, secondary voltage is in phase with the primary voltages.

  4. ((d))

    In delta-star type transformer, fault protection is one of the primary advantages.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In delta-star type transformer, large, unbalanced loads can be handled without any difficulty.

142

In thermal power plant, the fire tube and water tube boilers are classified based on

  1. ((a))

    steam formation rate

  2. ((b))

    the combustion product formation

  3. ((c))

    state of fuel

  4. ((d))

    tubular heating surface

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

steam formation rate

143

Which of the following factors will NOT affect the selection of an inductor?

  1. ((a))

    Power loss

  2. ((b))

    Quality factor

  3. ((c))

    Current rating

  4. ((d))

    Dielectric constant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Power loss

144

Which of the following represents the value of parameters A and D for a transmission line in end condenser method?

  1. ((a))

    A = 1 - ZY; D = 1 + ZY

  2. ((b))

    A = 1; D = 1 + ZY

  3. ((c))

    A = 1 + YZ, D = 1

  4. ((d))

    A = 1 + ZY; D = 1 + ZY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A = 1 - ZY; D = 1 + ZY

145

The AC ripples can be reduced in a rectifier circuit by using capacitive filter by _______ the capacitance value and by _______ the input frequency.

  1. ((a))

    decreasing; decreasing

  2. ((b))

    increasing; decreasing

  3. ((c))

    increasing; increasing

  4. ((d))

    decreasing; increasing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

decreasing; decreasing

146

In heating effect, if 'I' is the current flowing through the conductor in 't' seconds having a resistance 'R', then the electrical energy supplied is _______.

  1. ((a))

    IR2t joules

  2. ((b))

    I2R/t joules

  3. ((c))

    I2Rt joules

  4. ((d))

    IR2/t joules

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IR2t joules

147

A three-phase star-connected synchronous alternator of rating 22 kVA, 20 kV, 50 Hz has synchronous reactance of 8 per phase. The induced voltage per phase is 20 kV and the phase terminal voltage is 15 kV. Find the 3-phase maximum power of the machine.

  1. ((a))

    121.5 MW

  2. ((b))

    112.5 MW

  3. ((c))

    37.5 MW

  4. ((d))

    211.5 MW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

121.5 MW

148

In case of installations in commercial buildings, evenly distributed lights can be obtained by the use of lenses, which reduces _______.

  1. ((a))

    spot light

  2. ((b))

    decoration

  3. ((c))

    colour

  4. ((d))

    brightness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

spot light

149

What will be the stored energy by a 100 mH inductor when 1 A current is flowing through it?

  1. ((a))

    0.001 J

  2. ((b))

    0.01 J

  3. ((c))

    0.05 J

  4. ((d))

    0.005 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.001 J

150

The receiving end voltage of a radial distribution network is 24 kV. What will be the sending end voltage, if the voltage drop is calculated 25% of receiving end voltage?

  1. ((a))

    30 kV

  2. ((b))

    18 kV

  3. ((c))

    36 kV

  4. ((d))

    32 kV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 kV

151

To prevent rusting in electric iron, the plates of the bottom surface and edges are made of ________.

  1. ((a))

    asbestos

  2. ((b))

    mica

  3. ((c))

    heavy chromium

  4. ((d))

    heavy iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

asbestos

152

Chargeable expenses are occasionally also termed as _______.

  1. ((a))

    overhead expense

  2. ((b))

    lump sum expense

  3. ((c))

    direct expense

  4. ((d))

    major expense

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

overhead expense

153

In internal wiring estimation, if the connected load is 2 kW and the supply voltage is 240 V, then the maximum load current will be _______.

  1. ((a))

    8.33 A

  2. ((b))

    1.14 A

  3. ((c))

    4.33 A

  4. ((d))

    80 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.33 A

154

In the context of electrical signals, if the signal generated has a definite pattern that repeats itself at regular intervals of time, such a signal is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    periodic signal

  2. ((b))

    non-periodic signal

  3. ((c))

    dependent signal

  4. ((d))

    independent signal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

periodic signal

155

A moving iron ammeter with a range of 0 to 1 amps has an internal resistance of 50 mΩ and an inductance of 0.1 mH. To increase the range to 0-10 Ampere for all operational frequencies, a shunt coil is connected. The shunt coils resistance in mΩ and time constant in milliseconds are each given as:

  1. ((a))

    11.1; 2

  2. ((b))

    2; 1

  3. ((c))

    5.55, 2

  4. ((d))

    2; 0.55

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11.1; 2

156

Which of the following is an example of an electrostatic type instrument?

  1. ((a))

    Hot wire instrument

  2. ((b))

    Energy meter

  3. ((c))

    Kelvin multicellular voltmeter

  4. ((d))

    Wattmeter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hot wire instrument

157

Which of the following types of materials shows a movement from a weaker region to a stronger region of a non-uniform magnetic field?

  1. ((a))

    Non-magnetic material

  2. ((b))

    Paramagnetic material

  3. ((c))

    Insulating material

  4. ((d))

    Diamagnetic material

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Non-magnetic material

158

Which modulation technique is commonly used in power modulators to achieve variable power output?

  1. ((a))

    Delta modulation

  2. ((b))

    Amplitude modulation

  3. ((c))

    Frequency modulation

  4. ((d))

    Pulse-width modulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delta modulation

159

An R-L series circuit, where R = 10 Ω and L = 0.056 H, is connected to an AC supply of frequency 50 Hz. The magnitude of impedance of the circuit is:

  1. ((a))

    30.23 Ω

  2. ((b))

    5.23 Ω

  3. ((c))

    20.23 Ω

  4. ((d))

    10.23 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30.23 Ω

160

A coil of inductance 10 H and resistance 40 ohm is connected in series with a capacitance and supplied by a source of variable frequency. If the maximum current is found at frequency 1000 rad/sec, then Q-factor of the circuit will be _______.

  1. ((a))

    250

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

250

161

A Kaplan turbine is used for _______.

  1. ((a))

    low heads and large quantities of water

  2. ((b))

    low heads and low quantities of water

  3. ((c))

    high heads and low quantities of water

  4. ((d))

    high heads and large quantities of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

low heads and large quantities of water

162

In a parallel resonant circuit, the input impedance of the circuit is _______.

  1. ((a))

    maximum

  2. ((b))

    minimum

  3. ((c))

    zero

  4. ((d))

    infinite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

maximum

163

In CE configuration, the collector supply voltage VCC = 10 v, and RC = 8 ΚΩ. Determine the Quiescent point Q for zero signal if the base current is IB = 15 μA and β = 40.

  1. ((a))

    IC = 1 mA and VCE = 7 V

  2. ((b))

    IC = 0.6 mA and VCE = 6 V

  3. ((c))

    IC = 0.6 mA and VCE = 5.2 V

  4. ((d))

    IC = 1 mA and VCE = 5.2 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IC = 1 mA and VCE = 7 V

164

In a magnetic circuit, when magnetic flux is passing across the air gap, then effective area of the gap increases and magnetic flux density decreases in the gap. This effect is known as ________.

  1. ((a))

    magnetic hysteresis

  2. ((b))

    magnetising force

  3. ((c))

    magnetic leakage

  4. ((d))

    magnetic fringing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

magnetic hysteresis

165

In regard to estimation and costing of public lighting, which of the following factors is NOT a fundamental criterion for the quality of public lighting?

  1. ((a))

    Level of luminance

  2. ((b))

    Optical guidance

  3. ((c))

    Looping-in method

  4. ((d))

    Limitations of glare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Level of luminance

166

Which of the following triggers the failure of successive parts?

  1. ((a))

    Brown out

  2. ((b))

    Non-cascade tripping

  3. ((c))

    Incipient fault in power transformer

  4. ((d))

    Load shedding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brown out

167

A combination of integral-cycle control and switching-instant control on the applied voltage wave is employed in IM for _______.

  1. ((a))

    frequency control

  2. ((b))

    rotor resistance control only

  3. ((c))

    stator resistance control

  4. ((d))

    smooth speed control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

frequency control

168

A 4 Ω resistor has a specified maximum power dissipation of 784 W. Calculate its maximum current level.

  1. ((a))

    16 A

  2. ((b))

    196 A

  3. ((c))

    14 A

  4. ((d))

    10 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 A

169

Which of the following facts is correct for KCL? 

  1. ((a))

    Possibility of charge accumulation at node

  2. ((b))

    Charge accumulation may or may not be possible

  3. ((c))

    Energy may be stored at the node

  4. ((d))

    Zero charge accumulation at node

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Possibility of charge accumulation at node

170

Which of the following statements regarding biochemical-based power plants is/are true?

A) Methane is emitted along with carbon dioxide in aerobic digestion.

B) Sewage gas represents a mix of carbon dioxide, methane and trace gas.

C) Syngas is generated as a result of gasification in such a plant.

  1. ((a))

    Only A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only A and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A and B

171

Which of the following statements are true for synchronous motor losses?

A) Friction and windage losses increase with the cube of speed.

B) The Eddy current loss is reduced by laminating the core.

C) Copper losses are independent of load.

D) Core losses increase with the square of the load.

  1. ((a))

    B and C

  2. ((b))

    A and B

  3. ((c))

    A and D

  4. ((d))

    C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B and C

172

If the value of the common base current gain (α) is 0.98, then the value of the common collector current gain (γ) is ________.

  1. ((a))

    98

  2. ((b))

    0.02

  3. ((c))

    49

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

98

173

Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding a nuclear power plant.

  1. ((a))

    Heavy water can be used as a coolant.

  2. ((b))

    Graphite and Boron carbides are used as control rods.

  3. ((c))

    The fuel rods contain pellets of uranium.

  4. ((d))

    The ordinary water is used as a moderator only after it is enriched with uranium.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heavy water can be used as a coolant.

174

Which of the following statements is/are NOT true for the damper windings in alternators?

I)These are useful in preventing the hunting in alternators.

II) Usually, damper windings are provided in smooth cylindrical type rotor alternators.

III) Under normal working conditions, i.e., if machine is at synchronous speed, damper winding do not carry any currents.

IV) Damper windings are also used to provide starting torque in alternators.

  1. ((a))

    I

  2. ((b))

    IV

  3. ((c))

    III

  4. ((d))

    II & IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I

175

What is the advantage of using the current grading in relay systems? 

  1. ((a))

    It ensures quick tripping of the faulty circuit.

  2. ((b))

    It improves the frequency stability of the power system.

  3. ((c))

    It overcomes the long time delays occurring in graded time lag systems.

  4. ((d))

    It reduces the impedance between two sub-stations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It ensures quick tripping of the faulty circuit.

176

The value of a series resistor required to limit the current through an electric bulb to 40 mA with a forward voltage drop of 4V when connected to 16 V supply is ________.

  1. ((a))

    20 Ω 

  2. ((b))

    100 Ω

  3. ((c))

    1000 Ω

  4. ((d))

    300 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 Ω 

177

The range of signal generating frequencies for a function generator is ________.

  1. ((a))

    0.01 kHz to 100 kHz

  2. ((b))

    0.01 Hz to 100 kHz

  3. ((c))

    0.01 Hz to 100 Hz

  4. ((d))

    0.01 kHz to 100 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.01 kHz to 100 kHz

178

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding symmetrical balanced three phase supply:

  1. Instantaneous values of power in all of the 3 phases become zero at same instant.

  2. Phase displacement between different phases of an n-phase system is (360n)∘,\left(\frac{360}{n}\right)^\circ,electrical except for the two-phase system.

  1. ((a))

    Both 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Only 1

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both 1 and 2

179

In the estimation and costing of public installations, which of the following factors is required, especially in long stretches of the road and even more on complicated intersections?

  1. ((a))

    Limitations of glare

  2. ((b))

    Level of luminance

  3. ((c))

    Visual guidance

  4. ((d))

    Width of illumination Limitation of glare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Limitations of glare

180

A battery source of 20 V when connected to a load of 19 Ω draws a current of 1 A. What is the value of internal resistance of battery?

  1. ((a))

    0.5 Ω

  2. ((b))

    2 Ω

  3. ((c))

    39 Ω

  4. ((d))

    1 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5 Ω

181

In the context of electromagnetism, the magnetic polarity of a coil of several turns can be determined by the _______.

  1. ((a))

    right-hand rule

  2. ((b))

    mechanism of force production

  3. ((c))

    molecular theory

  4. ((d))

    left-hand rule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

right-hand rule

182

The equivalent electrical circuit of a solar PV cell has a _______.

  1. ((a))

    transistor

  2. ((b))

    diode

  3. ((c))

    capacitor

  4. ((d))

    inductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

transistor

183

During the tender in estimation and costing, the guarantee of the tenderer to deposit the required security and enter in to the required agreement on intimation of the acceptance of his tender is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    valid money

  2. ((b))

    earnest money

  3. ((c))

    deposit money

  4. ((d))

    earned money

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

valid money

184

The collector to the base bias configuration of a common emitter transistor implicitly employs:

  1. ((a))

    voltage series positive feedback

  2. ((b))

    voltage shunt negative feedback

  3. ((c))

    current shunt negative feedback

  4. ((d))

    current series negative feedback

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

voltage series positive feedback

185

In order to prevent creeping in an energy meter, which of the following measures is adopted?

  1. ((a))

    Two, diametrically opposite holes are drilled on the aluminium disc. 

  2. ((b))

    A shading band is provided on the central limb of the shunt magnet. 

  3. ((c))

    Two, diametrically opposite holes are drilled on the central limb.

  4. ((d))

    A temperature shunt is used on the brake magnet.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two, diametrically opposite holes are drilled on the aluminium disc. 

186

In regard to the construction of a synchronous alternator, hydro alternators have _______.

  1. ((a))

    high speed and smaller diameter

  2. ((b))

    larger diameter and low speed

  3. ((c))

    low speed and smaller diameter

  4. ((d))

    larger diameter and high speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

high speed and smaller diameter

187

The back EMF in a DC motor opposes the supply voltage. This is explained by _______.

  1. ((a))

    Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction

  2. ((b))

    Lenz's law

  3. ((c))

    Fleming's left hand rule

  4. ((d))

    Fleming's right hand rule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction

188

If the speed of a 3-phase, 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor is tripled, the efficiency of the machine will _______.

  1. ((a))

    become zero

  2. ((b))

    reduce to one-third

  3. ((c))

    remain constant

  4. ((d))

    become 3 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

become zero

189

In regard to installations of street lighting, what is the average illumination level of Class A1 installations used in important shopping centres and at road junctions?

  1. ((a))

    30 lumens/m2

  2. ((b))

    20 lumens/m2

  3. ((c))

    10 lumens/m2

  4. ((d))

    40 lumens/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 lumens/m2

190

What will be the total active power consumed by a 3-phase, delta-connected system, which is supplied with a line voltage of 230 V, when the value of the phase current is 15 A and the current lags the voltage by 30°?

  1. ((a))

    8.963 kW

  2. ((b))

    10.25 kW

  3. ((c))

    12.26 kW

  4. ((d))

    14.63 kW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.963 kW

191

Medium transmission lines CANNOT be analysed by using which of the following methods?

  1. ((a))

    Cognitive method

  2. ((b))

    Nominal Pi method

  3. ((c))

    Load end capacitance

  4. ((d))

    Nominal T method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cognitive method

192

Three identical impedances are connected in delta. The load is supplied by a 3-phase supply of 300 V. The line current is 303,A\rm 30\sqrt3,A. Calculate the impedance per phase.

  1. ((a))

    30 Ω 

  2. ((b))

    10 Ω

  3. ((c))

    10310\sqrt3 Ω

  4. ((d))

    20 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 Ω 

193

Which of the following statements are correct about the maintenance factor?

I) It is the ratio of illumination under normal working condition to the total lumen given out by the lamp.

II) It is the ratio of illumination under normal working condition to the illumination when the things are perfectly clean.

III) The accumulation of dust, dirt and smoke on the lamp decreases the maintenance factor.

IV) It is the ratio of illumination when the things are perfectly clean to the illumination under normal working condition.

  1. ((a))

    Only Statement II

  2. ((b))

    Statements I and III

  3. ((c))

    Statements III and IV

  4. ((d))

    Statements II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Statement II

194

How does the power factor affect the reading of a wattmeter if voltage and current are unaltered?

  1. ((a))

    The reading increases with the increase in power factor.

  2. ((b))

    The reading decreases with the increase in power factor.

  3. ((c))

    The reading is independent of the power factor.

  4. ((d))

    The reading increases with square of the power factor.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The reading increases with the increase in power factor.

195

The value of inductance needed to store 4kWh of energy in a coil carrying a 2000A current is:

  1. ((a))

    7.2 H

  2. ((b))

    7.2 × 106 H

  3. ((c))

    72 H

  4. ((d))

    720 H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.2 H

196

Which statement is NOT true for fixed drum type biogas power plant?

  1. ((a))

    It has constant pressure of biogas.

  2. ((b))

    It has no corrosion problem.

  3. ((c))

    The gas production per cubic metre of digester is less.

  4. ((d))

    It has a lower cost.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It has constant pressure of biogas.

197

In the circuit shown here, the 20 V source has an internal resistance of 1 Ω. While the current source is ideal, the value of current I is _______.

  1. ((a))

    -1 A

  2. ((b))

    10 A

  3. ((c))

    5 A

  4. ((d))

    1 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-1 A

198

What does the area under the Load Duration Curve represent?

  1. ((a))

    The total number of units generated for the period considered

  2. ((b))

    The load factor of the power station

  3. ((c))

    The total electricity consumption of consumers during the day

  4. ((d))

    The total power generated by a power plant during the day

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The total number of units generated for the period considered

199

Which of the following testing methods is NOT used to test an AC energy meter?

  1. ((a))

    Creep test

  2. ((b))

    Braking test

  3. ((c))

    Starting test

  4. ((d))

    Long period dial test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Creep test

200

Select the correct statement for a medium overhead transmission line. 

  1. ((a))

    Load current is inversely proportional to the square of load power factor.

  2. ((b))

    Load current is directly proportional to the square of load power factor.

  3. ((c))

    Load current is directly proportional to the load power factor.

  4. ((d))

    Load current is inversely proportional to the load power factor.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Load current is inversely proportional to the square of load power factor.

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