Official Paper

SSC JE Electrical 06 Jun 2024 Shift 2 Official Paper - 1 (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(12, 216, 6)

(17, 408, 8)

  1. ((a))

    (8, 86, 12)

  2. ((b))

    (19, 190, 5)

  3. ((c))

    (14, 210, 5)

  4. ((d))

    (11, 220, 5)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(8, 86, 12)

2

What should come in place of the two question marks (?) in the given series in the same order?

42, 43, 47, 56, ?, 97, ?

  1. ((a))

    72, 133

  2. ((b))

    74, 135

  3. ((c))

    70, 131

  4. ((d))

    71, 132

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72, 133

3

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only 2 people sit between A and D when counted from the left of A. E sits to the immediate left of D. G sits to the immediate left of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of D. F sits to the immediate left of C.

What is the position of B with respect to C?

  1. ((a))

    Second to the left

  2. ((b))

    Second to the right

  3. ((c))

    Third to the left

  4. ((d))

    Third to the right

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second to the left

4

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some peacocks are robins.

All robins are sparrows.

All sparrows are owls.

Conclusions:

(I) No owl is a peacock.

(II) All sparrows are peacocks.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

  2. ((b))

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion (I) follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

5

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

18 is related to 126 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 28 is related to 196. To which of the following is 48 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    366

  2. ((b))

    336

  3. ((c))

    380

  4. ((d))

    320

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

366

8

Select the option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in meaningful and logical order.

  1. Town
  2. Village
  3. Country
  4. State
  5. City
  1. ((a))

    1, 3, 2, 4, 5

  2. ((b))

    2, 1, 5, 4, 3

  3. ((c))

    5, 1, 3, 2, 4

  4. ((d))

    4, 1, 3, 2, 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 3, 2, 4, 5

9

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

Pillar E is to the east of Pillar D. Pillar A is to the west of Pillar D. Pillar B is to the north of Pillar A. Pillar C is to the south of Pillar A. What is the position of Pillar C with respect to Pillar E?

  1. ((a))

    South-West

  2. ((b))

    North-West

  3. ((c))

    South

  4. ((d))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South-West

11

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Hematologists : Blood

  1. ((a))

    Pathologist : Eye

  2. ((b))

    Cardiologist : Lungs

  3. ((c))

    Nephrologist : Nervous System

  4. ((d))

    Oncologist : Cancer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pathologist : Eye

12

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

RDKW, WIPB, BNUG, GSZL, ?

  1. ((a))

    LKJU

  2. ((b))

    LXDE

  3. ((c))

    LXEQ

  4. ((d))

    LQSW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LKJU

13

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

If A means +, B means -, C means × and D means ÷, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

7 C 5 B 32 D 8 A 6 = ?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    37

  4. ((d))

    31

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

15

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if '÷' and '×' are interchanged?

104 × 8 ÷ 11 + 33 - 47 = ?

  1. ((a))

    135

  2. ((b))

    137

  3. ((c))

    124

  4. ((d))

    129

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

135

16

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

17

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Running
  2. Crawling
  3. Cycling
  4. Walking
  5. Driving
  1. ((a))

    2, 1, 5, 4, 3

  2. ((b))

    2, 4, 1, 3, 5

  3. ((c))

    2, 3, 4, 5, 1

  4. ((d))

    2, 5, 3, 1, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2, 1, 5, 4, 3

18

In a certain code language, 'let us eat' is written as 'de hj kn' and 'let us play' is written as 'de kn cx'. How is 'eat' written in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    de

  2. ((b))

    cx

  3. ((c))

    hj

  4. ((d))

    kn

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

de

19

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given number triads.

39-36-33

67-64-61

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole number, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    64-54-50

  2. ((b))

    98-95-92

  3. ((c))

    120-116-105

  4. ((d))

    100-94-90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

64-54-50

20

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

146, 218, 340, 512, 734, ?

  1. ((a))

    1134

  2. ((b))

    1146

  3. ((c))

    1128

  4. ((d))

    1006

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1134

21

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

FDI, HEK, JFM, LGO, ?

  1. ((a))

    MHQ

  2. ((b))

    NHQ

  3. ((c))

    NOP

  4. ((d))

    MNQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MHQ

22

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

23

In a certain code language, 'bring him here' is coded as 'gy ct bo' and 'here is there' is coded as 'bo di yk'. How is 'here' coded in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    ct

  2. ((b))

    gy

  3. ((c))

    bo

  4. ((d))

    yk

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ct

24

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ZBL, YDM, XFN, WHO, ?

  1. ((a))

    UJP

  2. ((b))

    VJP

  3. ((c))

    RKL

  4. ((d))

    RKN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UJP

25

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '÷' are interchanged and '×' and '-' are interchanged?

24 + 6 - 11 × 15 ÷ 12 = ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    41

  3. ((c))

    61

  4. ((d))

    51

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

26

ADVN is related to GJPH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WHUB is related to CNOV. To which of the following is RFMJ related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    XMGE

  2. ((b))

    XLGD

  3. ((c))

    WLFD

  4. ((d))

    WMFE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XMGE

27

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ADVISER is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

28

23 is related to 69 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 41 is related to 123. To which of the following is 52 related following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    126

  2. ((b))

    136

  3. ((c))

    146

  4. ((d))

    156

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

126

29

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '×' are interchanged and '÷' and '-' are interchanged?

18 - 6 + 3 × 20 ÷ 9 = ?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

30

AD 17 is related to CF 13 in a certain way. In the same way, EH 29 is related to GJ 25. To which of the following is IL 38 related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    TZ 35

  2. ((b))

    KN 34

  3. ((c))

    XZ 34

  4. ((d))

    TY 35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TZ 35

31

UPSN is related to LGJE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WRUP is related to NILG. To which of the following is SNQL related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    JEHC

  2. ((b))

    JECH

  3. ((c))

    EJCH

  4. ((d))

    EJHC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JEHC

32

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letter in the word AMPLIFY is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

33

CYTV is related to DZUW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GKOS is related to HLPT. To which of the following is BAHG related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    PLIY

  2. ((b))

    ALPO

  3. ((c))

    MJGH

  4. ((d))

    CBIH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PLIY

34

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

FOT, HLV, JIX, LFZ, NCB, ?

  1. ((a))

    ODC

  2. ((b))

    NCB

  3. ((c))

    MDE

  4. ((d))

    PZD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ODC

35

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(23, 60)

(13, 30)

  1. ((a))

    (11, 26)

  2. ((b))

    (9, 20)

  3. ((c))

    (12, 28)

  4. ((d))

    (10, 21)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(11, 26)

36

E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting around a circular table with their backs facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). J is sitting to the immediate left of G. K is sitting to the immediate right of E. H is sitting to the immediate right of K. I is sitting to the immediate right of H and immediate left of F. F is sitting to the immediate left of J. Who is an immediate neighbour of both E and J?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

37

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements: Some bowls are spoons. All spoons are plates.

Conclusion 1: Some spoons are bowls.

Conclusion 2: Some bowls are plates.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions (1) and (2) follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion (2) follows

  3. ((c))

    None of the conclusions follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion (1) follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusions (1) and (2) follow

38

A, B, C, D. E, F and G are seven students from a college who appeared for an exam and scored different marks each. D scored the second highest marks. C scored immediately lower marks than D and immediately higher marks than F. E scored higher than only B. G scored less marks than four of the fellow students. Who scored the highest marks?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

39

In a certain code language, 'CMPX' is coded as 'EONV' and 'WBFK' is coded as 'YDDI'. What is the code for 'XAOD' in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    YDND

  2. ((b))

    ZCMB

  3. ((c))

    XDOD

  4. ((d))

    XBMC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YDND

40

In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the father of B', 

'A - B' means 'A is the mother of B',

'A × B' means 'A is the wife of B', and

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the brother of B'.

How is P related to T if 'P ÷ Q - R × S + T'?

  1. ((a))

    Sister's husband

  2. ((b))

    Mother's mother's brother

  3. ((c))

    Daughter's husband

  4. ((d))

    Mother's brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister's husband

41

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ITV, EPR, ALN, WHJ, ?

  1. ((a))

    QBH

  2. ((b))

    RCH

  3. ((c))

    QCG

  4. ((d))

    SDF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QBH

42

Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(376, 234)

(354, 212)

  1. ((a))

    (281, 139)

  2. ((b))

    (328, 283)

  3. ((c))

    (294, 145)

  4. ((d))

    (349, 217)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(281, 139)

43

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44

In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the mother of B',

'A - B' means 'A is the brother of B',

'A × B' means 'A is the sister of B', and

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the husband of B'.

How is F related to Z if 'D ÷ F × G ÷ H + N - Z'?

  1. ((a))

    Husband's sister

  2. ((b))

    Mother's sister

  3. ((c))

    Father's sister

  4. ((d))

    Sister

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Husband's sister

45

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

4, 10, 28, 82, 244, ?

  1. ((a))

    730

  2. ((b))

    698

  3. ((c))

    680

  4. ((d))

    714

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

730

46

OKRN is related to UQXT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KGNJ is related to QMTP. To which of the following is NJQM related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    TPSW

  2. ((b))

    TPWS

  3. ((c))

    PTWS

  4. ((d))

    PTSW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TPSW

47

EJFI is related to KPLO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, INJM is related to OTPS. To which of the following is LQMP related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    SWVR

  2. ((b))

    RWSV

  3. ((c))

    SWRV

  4. ((d))

    RWVS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SWVR

48

In a certain code language, 'oh my god' is written as 'jk sr qw', and 'god is good' is written as 'dk zx sr'. How is 'god' written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    sr

  2. ((b))

    jk 

  3. ((c))

    dk

  4. ((d))

    qw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sr

49

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GCR, HEU, IGX, JIA, ?

  1. ((a))

    GLC

  2. ((b))

    MNB

  3. ((c))

    KKD

  4. ((d))

    JMC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GLC

50

Vikram walked 10 m towards the north. Then he turned right and walked 20 m. Then he turned right and walked 25 m. Then he turned left and walked 5 m. In what direction is he facing?

  1. ((a))

    West

  2. ((b))

    East

  3. ((c))

    North

  4. ((d))

    South

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

West

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Why is it always emphasised NOT to touch any electric switch board with wet hands?

  1. ((a))

    Water can erode the switchboard.

  2. ((b))

    Combination of water and our body is a good conductor of electricity.

  3. ((c))

    Wet hands can fade away the colour coat of the switchboard.

  4. ((d))

    Wet hands might slip from the switch.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water can erode the switchboard.

52

What is the minimum age prescribed for a person to be eligible to become Vice-President of India?

  1. ((a))

    25 years

  2. ((b))

    30 years

  3. ((c))

    35 years

  4. ((d))

    40 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 years

53

According to Census of India 2011, in which Union Territory was the highest population growth rate recorded?

  1. ((a))

    Dadra and Nagar Haveli

  2. ((b))

    Daman and Diu

  3. ((c))

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  4. ((d))

    Chandigarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dadra and Nagar Haveli

54

Which of the following trees is NOT found in the tropical evergreen forests of India?

  1. ((a))

    Ebony

  2. ((b))

    Mahogany

  3. ((c))

    Amaltas

  4. ((d))

    Rosewood

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ebony

55

Where in India was the Indian music director and classical flautist Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia born?

  1. ((a))

    Prayagraj

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Banaras

  4. ((d))

    Jhansi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prayagraj

56

The Arabian Sea is connected to the Red Sea, through the Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb and the Gulf of Eden, and the Persian Gulf via the _______.

  1. ((a))

    Gulf of Oman

  2. ((b))

    Gulf of Riga

  3. ((c))

    Gulf of Alaska

  4. ((d))

    Gulf of Mexico

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gulf of Oman

57

Which of the following is a colourless liquid whose formula is CHCI3, which evaporates rapidly and turns into gas?

  1. ((a))

    Ethanol

  2. ((b))

    Acetone

  3. ((c))

    Ammonia

  4. ((d))

    Chloroform

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ethanol

58

It is difficult to carry a heavy shopping bag with thin handles by hand, but slightly easier when the handles are covered with a thick piece of cloth. What is the reason behind that?

  1. ((a))

    Handles become stronger

  2. ((b))

    Cloth is colourful

  3. ((c))

    Increase in surface area reduces the force exerted

  4. ((d))

    Chances of tearing are eliminated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Handles become stronger

59

Which of the following animals is NOT a mammal?

  1. ((a))

    Dolphin

  2. ((b))

    Lizard

  3. ((c))

    Bat

  4. ((d))

    Elephant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dolphin

60

Under which of the following ministries does 'VAIBHAV' Fellowship Programme announced by the Government of India in June 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Urban Development

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Rural Development

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Human Resource Development

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Science & Technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Urban Development

61

A cricket ball of mass 160 grams was dropped from a height of 50 metres. What would be its kinetic energy just before touching the ground? [use the value of acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2]

  1. ((a))

    50 joules

  2. ((b))

    80 joules

  3. ((c))

    8 joules

  4. ((d))

    160 joules

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 joules

62

Name a sublimable substance that can be converted into gas without passing through any intermediate liquid phase.

  1. ((a))

    Naphthalene

  2. ((b))

    Rust

  3. ((c))

    Alum

  4. ((d))

    Chalk Powder

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Naphthalene

63

Which of the following is a popular cloud storage service on the internet?

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft Word

  2. ((b))

    Google Drive

  3. ((c))

    Adobe Photoshop

  4. ((d))

    Internet Explorer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microsoft Word

64

Which freedom is protected by Article 19(d) of the Constitution? 

  1. ((a))

    Freedom of speech and expression

  2. ((b))

    Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India

  3. ((c))

    Freedom to assemble peacefully

  4. ((d))

    Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Freedom of speech and expression

65

The Project Great Indian Bustard was launched by the Government of _______ in June 2013.

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Uttarakhand

  4. ((d))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar

66

Which of the following is the chemical formula of baking soda?

  1. ((a))

    Na2CO3.10H2O

  2. ((b))

    NaOH

  3. ((c))

    CaOCl2

  4. ((d))

    NaHCO3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Na2CO3.10H2O

67

The Government launched a 'Scheme for Expansion and Modernisation of Fire Services in the States' in July 2023 under the ________ for strengthening fire services in the States.

  1. ((a))

    National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)

  2. ((b))

    National Disaster Relief Fund (NDRF)

  3. ((c))

    National Disaster Regulation Fund (NDRF)

  4. ((d))

    National Disaster Research Fund (NDRF)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)

68

Pramila Malik was in news to become the first woman Speaker of which state assembly in September 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

69

Which disease causes bone pain, stunted growth and soft, weak bones that can lead to skeletal deformities due to not having enough vitamin D?

  1. ((a))

    Rickets

  2. ((b))

    Pertussis

  3. ((c))

    Dementia

  4. ((d))

    Polio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rickets

70

If a windmill farm has to be set up, setting up it near a coastal area seems like a good idea. What could be the main reason behind this?

  1. ((a))

    No water scarcity

  2. ((b))

    Heavily populated

  3. ((c))

    Land and sea breezes

  4. ((d))

    Chances of storms

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No water scarcity

71

Some simple multicellular organisms reproduce by first splitting into multiple pieces. Then each of these pieces grow up into a new individual. What is this method of reproduction known as?

  1. ((a))

    Regeneration

  2. ((b))

    Binary fission

  3. ((c))

    Multiple fission

  4. ((d))

    Fragmentation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regeneration

72

What is the purpose of 'customs duty' in international trade?

  1. ((a))

    To encourage unlimited imports

  2. ((b))

    To protect domestic industries by taxing imports

  3. ((c))

    To standardise products internationally

  4. ((d))

    To regulate the export of goods

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To encourage unlimited imports

73

Which of the following is/are Pteridophyta?

  1. ((a))

    Fern

  2. ((b))

    Mosses

  3. ((c))

    Hornworts

  4. ((d))

    Lichens

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fern

74

Which of the following demineralises the enamel of the teeth?

  1. ((a))

    Soft toothbrush

  2. ((b))

    Acids produced by bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Saliva

  4. ((d))

    Toothpaste

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soft toothbrush

75

Dribbling skills are NOT used in which of the following sports?

  1. ((a))

    Basketball

  2. ((b))

    Hockey

  3. ((c))

    Football

  4. ((d))

    Chess

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Basketball

76

Which group of beneficial bacteria is commonly used in fermented dairy products?

  1. ((a))

    Streptomyces rhizobium

  2. ((b))

    Lactobacillus acidophilus

  3. ((c))

    Staphylococcus aureus

  4. ((d))

    Campylobacter jejuni

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Streptomyces rhizobium

77

According to Census of India 2011, which of the following states recorded apopulation density of more than 1100 persons per km2?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasthan

78

Who said, "A single shelf of a good European library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia"?

  1. ((a))

    Thomas Macaulay

  2. ((b))

    Max Mueller

  3. ((c))

    W Hunter

  4. ((d))

    William Jones

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thomas Macaulay

79

According to which of the following constitutional articles in India does the government need to present the estimated receipts and expenditures before the parliament?

  1. ((a))

    Article 212

  2. ((b))

    Article 112

  3. ((c))

    Article 312

  4. ((d))

    Article 412

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 212

80

If wildlife sanctuaries are there to protect wild animals, then what do biosphere reserves protect?

  1. ((a))

    Forests of the area

  2. ((b))

    Water animals of the area

  3. ((c))

    Entire biodiversity of the area

  4. ((d))

    Native trees and plants

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Forests of the area

81

The Rourkela Steel plant was set up in the year _______ in Odisha state.

  1. ((a))

    1969

  2. ((b))

    1955

  3. ((c))

    1959

  4. ((d))

    1973

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1969

82

In which location were the inaugural National Games, previously known as the 'All India Olympic Games,' held before the independence of India?

  1. ((a))

    Lahore

  2. ((b))

    Poona

  3. ((c))

    Bombay

  4. ((d))

    Patiala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lahore

83

In which of the following Articles is fundamental duties, like protecting public property and renouncing violence, stated?

  1. ((a))

    Article 11 A

  2. ((b))

    Article 36 A

  3. ((c))

    Article 51A

  4. ((d))

    Article 72 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 11 A

84

Prime Minister Narendra Modi officially launched the Central Sector Scheme ________, for artisans and crafts persons across India in September 2023.

  1. ((a))

    PM Hastshilpi

  2. ((b))

    PM Kaamgaar

  3. ((c))

    PM Karigar

  4. ((d))

    PM Vishwakarma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PM Hastshilpi

85

A milliamp is a unit of measurement of electric current, which is equal to how many amps?

  1. ((a))

    0.001 AMP

  2. ((b))

    0.0001 AMP

  3. ((c))

    0.01 AMP

  4. ((d))

    0.00001 AMP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.001 AMP

86

What is the meaning of the word 'Taraf' under the Bahmani Sultanate?

  1. ((a))

    Tax

  2. ((b))

    Merchant

  3. ((c))

    Province

  4. ((d))

    Horse

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tax

87

Mr Ajit Pawar became the Deputy Chief Minister of which state on 2nd July 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Goa

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Goa

88

Which of the following health campaigns was launched by President Draupadi Murmu through a virtual event on 13 September 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Ayushman Bhav

  2. ((b))

    Ayurveda for One Health

  3. ((c))

    Yoga for Mental Health

  4. ((d))

    Health For All

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ayushman Bhav

89

Who was honoured with the National Kalidas Samman 2022 award for sitar playing?

  1. ((a))

    Budhaditya Mukherjee

  2. ((b))

    Nishat Khan

  3. ((c))

    Niladri Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Purbayan Chatterjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Budhaditya Mukherjee

90

Limitations Law of 1859 is related to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Arms

  2. ((b))

    Social reform

  3. ((c))

    Indigo cultivation

  4. ((d))

    Loan bonds

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arms

91

Who can operate a blog?

  1. ((a))

    Only large corporations

  2. ((b))

    Only businesses

  3. ((c))

    Only individuals

  4. ((d))

    Individuals or small groups of people

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only large corporations

92

Which of the following schemes focuses on reduced imports, increased exports and grassroot campaigns that support local initiatives towards self-reliance?

  1. ((a))

    Samarth Scheme

  2. ((b))

    Vocal for Local

  3. ((c))

    Mission Karmayogi

  4. ((d))

    Skill India Mission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Samarth Scheme

93

What makes countries near the equator hotter than those which are away from the equator?

  1. ((a))

    Areas near the equator receive direct and more sunlight.

  2. ((b))

    Areas near the equator have more volcanoes.

  3. ((c))

    The equator is a hot line.

  4. ((d))

    The equator is near the earth's core.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Areas near the equator receive direct and more sunlight.

94

Vitamin B12 is also known as:

  1. ((a))

    biotin

  2. ((b))

    cyanocobalamin

  3. ((c))

    pyridoxine

  4. ((d))

    pantothenic acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

biotin

95

Which of the following is an important step towards offering primary education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14?

  1. ((a))

    Sarva Siksha Abhiyan

  2. ((b))

    Mid-day meal

  3. ((c))

    Adult Education Programme

  4. ((d))

    Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sarva Siksha Abhiyan

96

Which is the essential non-justiciable feature of the Indian Constitution associated with the welfare and well-being of the common man?

  1. ((a))

    Directive principles of State Policy

  2. ((b))

    Federalism

  3. ((c))

    Parliamentary Sovereignty

  4. ((d))

    Fundamental Rights

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Directive principles of State Policy

97

Which of the following are the features of the Parliamentary form of government?

  1. The President is the nominal or de jure executive.

  2. The Prime Minister is the titular executive.

  3. The President is the head of state.

  4. The Prime Minister is the head of government.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1, 3 and 4

  2. ((b))

    Only 1, 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 1, 2 and 4

  4. ((d))

    Only 2, 3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1, 3 and 4

98

What is the primary reason for a government to implement a Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  1. ((a))

    To simplify the tax structure

  2. ((b))

    To eliminate all indirect taxes

  3. ((c))

    To discourage all kinds of consumption

  4. ((d))

    To increase the complexity of the tax system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To simplify the tax structure

99

Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton? 

  1. ((a))

    Protein synthesis

  2. ((b))

    Cell division

  3. ((c))

    ATP production

  4. ((d))

    Cell support and shape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Protein synthesis

100

Who called off the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the Chauri Chaura incidence? 

  1. ((a))

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  2. ((b))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    Rajendra Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Chittaranjan Das

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lala Lajpat Rai

Electrical Engineering (100 questions)

101

In a transistor, the _______ region is the widest and the _______ region is the thinnest of all.

  1. ((a))

    collector; emitter

  2. ((b))

    emitter; base

  3. ((c))

    collector; base

  4. ((d))

    base; collector

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

collector; emitter

102

In an induction motor, the relationship between gross mechanical power developed and rotor input is _______.

  1. ((a))

    Gross mechanical power developed = (2 - S) × Rotor input

  2. ((b))

    Gross mechanical power developed = S × Rotor input

  3. ((c))

    Gross mechanical power developed = (1/S) × Rotor input

  4. ((d))

    Gross mechanical power developed = (1 - S) × Rotor input

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gross mechanical power developed = (2 - S) × Rotor input

103

In regard to estimation and costing, the accurate estimate in which the quantity of each item of work is calculated is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    approximate estimate

  2. ((b))

    detailed estimate

  3. ((c))

    rough estimate

  4. ((d))

    supplementary estimate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

approximate estimate

104

Which of the following statements are correct about armature leakage reactance of alternator?

I. It is dependent on load current.

II. It does not depend on load current.

III. It is dependent on the phase angle between armature current and terminal voltage.

IV. It does not depend on the phase angle between load current and terminal voltage.

  1. ((a))

    Only statements II and III are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only statements I and IV are correct 

  3. ((c))

    Only statements I and III are correct

  4. ((d))

    Only statements II and IV are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only statements II and III are correct

105

A single phase transmission line is transmitting 1,100 KW power at 11 kV and at unity power factor. If it has a total resistance of 5 Ω, what is the efficiency of the transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    80.96%

  2. ((b))

    95.65%

  3. ((c))

    89.65%

  4. ((d))

    100%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80.96%

106

The consumer associated with the ring main distribution scheme experiences _______ as compared to the radial distribution scheme.

  1. ((a))

    no copper loss

  2. ((b))

    unity power factoralways

  3. ((c))

    less voltage fluctuations

  4. ((d))

    less reliable power supply

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

no copper loss

107

In case of electrical installations, if cable conductors are spiralling, then the resistance/unit length will _______.

  1. ((a))

    decrease

  2. ((b))

    remain the same

  3. ((c))

    become zero

  4. ((d))

    increase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

decrease

108

What do you understand by fundamental period of a signal?

  1. ((a))

    Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal

  2. ((b))

    Time taken to complete every cycle of a periodic signal 

  3. ((c))

    Time taken to complete every cycle of an aperiodic signal

  4. ((d))

    Time taken to complete first cycle of a periodic signal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal

109

Which of the following materials is most commonly used for the filaments in incandescent lamps?

  1. ((a))

    Iron

  2. ((b))

    Aluminium

  3. ((c))

    Tungsten

  4. ((d))

    Gold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iron

110

Which of the following statements about equivalent circuit with core losses of single-phase motor is/are true?

  1. The current drawn by the induction motor when it is not coupled to the driven equipment is called no load current of the motor.
  2. The no load current produces the magnetic field in the motor.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1 is true

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2 are not true

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 are true

  4. ((d))

    Only 2 is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 is true

111

In the context of magnetic circuits, if a bar magnet is placed on paper and iron filings are sprinkled around the magnet, the iron filings form closed lines. These lines are called lines of _______.

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic carrying force

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic Angle

  3. ((c))

    Magnetic flux

  4. ((d))

    Magnetic Fringing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnetic carrying force

112

The magnetic flux through a 150 turns coil increases at the rate of 0.08 wb/s. What is the induced EMF between the ends of the coil?

  1. ((a))

    24 volts

  2. ((b))

    12 volts

  3. ((c))

    20 volts

  4. ((d))

    120 volts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24 volts

113

Which of the following types of installations is NOT a part of NEC (National Electrical Code)?

  1. ((a))

    Agriculture premises

  2. ((b))

    Sports buildings

  3. ((c))

    Traction

  4. ((d))

    Medical establishments

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Agriculture premises

114

In an electrostatic instrument, the sensitivity can be increased by _________.

  1. ((a))

    using a magnetic damping mechanism

  2. ((b))

    increasing the distance between the plates

  3. ((c))

    increasing the area of the plates

  4. ((d))

    using a phase-shifting capacitor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

using a magnetic damping mechanism

115

The starting torque of a slip ring induction motor is maximum when rotor resistance/phase is ________ rotor reactance/phase.

  1. ((a))

    not equal to

  2. ((b))

    equal to

  3. ((c))

    less than

  4. ((d))

    more than

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

not equal to

116

The total capacitance between points P and Q in the figure is:

  1. ((a))

    1 F

  2. ((b))

    11 F

  3. ((c))

    436\frac{43}{6} F

  4. ((d))

    10 F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 F

117

To determine the voltage regulation of synchronous generators, the direct load test is suitable only for alternators with power rating:

  1. ((a))

    less than 5 kVA

  2. ((b))

    less than 2 KVA

  3. ((c))

    less than 3 KVA

  4. ((d))

    more than 5 KVA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

less than 5 kVA

118

The thermal efficiency of a steam plant is defined as ________.

  1. ((a))

    the ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft

  2. ((b))

    the ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of coal

  3. ((c))

    the ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft to the heat of combustion of coal

  4. ((d))

    the ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft

119

Which of the following coefficients gives the relation between the electric field intensity, and the transmitted wave for the incident wave in the medium of origin?

  1. ((a))

    Field reflection

  2. ((b))

    Signal attenuation

  3. ((c))

    Free space

  4. ((d))

    Fresnel reflection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Field reflection

120

Choose the correct option regarding Electric Iron.

  1. ((a))

    Magnesium oxide powder is used for insulation purposes in heating elements.

  2. ((b))

    Halogen bulb is used in electric iron.

  3. ((c))

    The heating element is made of chromium.

  4. ((d))

    The Thermostat used in electric irons uses a metal strip.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnesium oxide powder is used for insulation purposes in heating elements.

121

Which of the following statements are true regarding parts of a transformer?

(i) The thickness of laminations varies from 0.35 mm to 0.5 mm.

(ii) The material used for breather is blue in colour when it is damp and whitish pink when dry.

(iii) For a constant input voltage, the output voltage can be varied over a small range by providing few tapings.

  1. ((a))

    (i), (ii) and (iii)

  2. ((b))

    (i) and (ii)

  3. ((c))

    (ii) and (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (i) and (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(i), (ii) and (iii)

122

The built-in potential of a p-n junction _______.

  1. ((a))

    depends on doping concentration only

  2. ((b))

    depends on both temperature and doping concentration

  3. ((c))

    does not depend on temperature and doping concentration

  4. ((d))

    depends on temperature only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

depends on doping concentration only

123

In a solar power plant, the output terminals of the solar photo-voltaic array can be directly connected to the _______.

  1. ((a))

    AC to DC converter

  2. ((b))

    DC bus bar

  3. ((c))

    AC bus bar

  4. ((d))

    AC load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC to DC converter

124

Damper winding in synchronous motors is used to ________.

A) Prevent the effect of hunting

B) Make synchronous motors self-starting

C) Reduce the speed of synchronous motors

D) Provide constant synchronous motor torque

  1. ((a))

    A and D

  2. ((b))

    C and D

  3. ((c))

    B and C

  4. ((d))

    A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and D

125

As per the diffusion principle of street lighting installations, which of the following methods is used to calculate the illumination at any point on the road surface?

  1. ((a))

    Watt per square metre method

  2. ((b))

    Specular reflection method

  3. ((c))

    Inverse-square law method

  4. ((d))

    Light flux method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Watt per square metre method

126

Select the correct statement regarding coal-fired boilers.

  1. ((a))

    Water-tube boilers are less expensive compared to fire-tube boilers.

  2. ((b))

    Water-tube boilers are more efficient than fire-tube boilers.

  3. ((c))

    Fire-tube boilers are typically used for high-pressure applications.

  4. ((d))

    Fire-tube boilers have higher thermal efficiency compared to water-tube boilers.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water-tube boilers are less expensive compared to fire-tube boilers.

127

If the field winding, armature winding are connected in parallel and the combination is connected in parallel with the supply, then it is called ______.

  1. ((a))

    Short Shunt Compound Motor

  2. ((b))

    Long Shunt Compound Motor

  3. ((c))

    Shunt Motor

  4. ((d))

    Series Motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Short Shunt Compound Motor

128

In case of a p-n junction diode, the change in temperature due to heating ________.

  1. ((a))

    affects only the forward resistance of the p-n junction diode

  2. ((b))

    affects the entire V-I characteristics of the p-n junction diode

  3. ((c))

    affects only the reverse resistance of the p-n junction diode

  4. ((d))

    causes no change in the resistance of the p-n junction diode

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

affects only the forward resistance of the p-n junction diode

129

In an electrical circuit, the sum of EMFs of all the sources met on the way plus the voltage drops in the resistances must be zero. This can be explained by _________.

  1. ((a))

    Ohm's law

  2. ((b))

    Laplace's law

  3. ((c))

    Kirchhoff's current law

  4. ((d))

    Kirchhoff's voltage law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ohm's law

130

A lamp of 80 watt with efficiency of 80% of watt/CP is suspended, The illumination at a point on a working plane directly below the lamp is 25 lumens/m2. Determine the height at which the lamp is suspended?

  1. ((a))

    4 meters

  2. ((b))

    3.2 meters

  3. ((c))

    2 meters

  4. ((d))

    1.6 meters

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 meters

131

Which of the following is NOT a method for solution of medium transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    Nominal-H method

  2. ((b))

    End condenser method

  3. ((c))

    Nominal-T method

  4. ((d))

    Nominal-π method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nominal-H method

132

The value of Thevenin's voltage across terminal a - b will be ______.

  1. ((a))

    12 V

  2. ((b))

    0 V

  3. ((c))

    50 V

  4. ((d))

    62 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 V

133

In stator resistance starter, if applied voltage across motor terminals is reduced by 50%, then torque is reduced to ________ of the full voltage value.

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    12.5%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75%

134

Stability factors are defined as the rate of change of _______ with respect to the _______, keeping both the base current and the current gain β constant.

  1. ((a))

    collector base leakage current; emitter current

  2. ((b))

    collector base leakage current; collector current

  3. ((c))

    collector current; collector base leakage current

  4. ((d))

    emitter current; collector base leakage current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

collector base leakage current; emitter current

135

Which of the following is a key indicator of better weld quality?

  1. ((a))

    A good weld should be uneven throughout its length.

  2. ((b))

    There is no crater cracking at the weld.

  3. ((c))

    The depth of weld penetration is minimum.

  4. ((d))

    The weld metal burns through the base material.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A good weld should be uneven throughout its length.

136

Which of the following is the importance of better welds?

I) Better welds provide strong and reliable bond between metal components.

II) High quality welds require rework, repairs etc.

III) They help in reducing fatigue, corrosion and wear, contributing to the longevity of structures.

IV) Better welds not only provide functional benefits but also contribute to the appearance of finished products.

  1. ((a))

    II and III

  2. ((b))

    II and IV

  3. ((c))

    I and IV

  4. ((d))

    I and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

II and III

137

Which of the following plays an important role in determining the transmitting end and receiving end voltage in a ring main AC distribution scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Breakdown voltage of distribution transformer oil

  2. ((b))

    Hysteresis loss

  3. ((c))

    Power factor

  4. ((d))

    Eddy current loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Breakdown voltage of distribution transformer oil

138

In terms of heating effect of electric appliances, what is the percentage of chromium in the stainless steel coils used in space heaters?

  1. ((a))

    17% to 23%

  2. ((b))

    13% to 26%

  3. ((c))

    10% to 20%

  4. ((d))

    15% to 19%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17% to 23%

139

The peak value of the output waveform for the sinusoidal input of 30V peak to the circuit is _______.

  1. ((a))

    20 V

  2. ((b))

    40 V

  3. ((c))

    10 V

  4. ((d))

    30 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 V

140

What is the drawback of a Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) instrument? 

  1. ((a))

    Absence of effective and efficient current damping

  2. ((b))

    Low torque / weight ratio

  3. ((c))

    Relatively high-cost as compared to moving iron instruments

  4. ((d))

    High power consumption

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Absence of effective and efficient current damping

141

The average power delivered to an AC series circuit is given by:

  1. ((a))

    I(max)x V(max)

  2. ((b))

    Vrms × Irms cos θ

  3. ((c))

    I(max) × V(max) × Sin(θ)

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I(max)x V(max)

142

In a parallel circuit, if 'n' resistors, each of 'R' Ω, are connected in parallel, then the total resistance is equal to ______.

  1. ((a))

    R/n

  2. ((b))

    (R2)/n

  3. ((c))

    R × n

  4. ((d))

    R + n

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R/n

143

A 415 V, 3-phase voltage is applied to a balanced star connected purely resistive load of 10 Ω. What is the ratio of reactive power to active power?

  1. ((a))

    Infinity

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infinity

144

The connections of three-phase energy metre for measuring three-phase power, three wire energy is similar to the connections of _______.

  1. ((a))

    three wattmeter for power measurement

  2. ((b))

    two wattmeter for power measurement

  3. ((c))

    two wattmeter for voltage measurement

  4. ((d))

    three wattmeter for voltage measurement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

three wattmeter for power measurement

145

Two identical coils A and B have 400 turns placed such that 60% of flux produced by one coil links with the other. If a current of 10A flowing in coil A produces a flux of 20 mWb in it, find the mutual inductance between coil A and B.

  1. ((a))

    10 H

  2. ((b))

    0.48 H

  3. ((c))

    480 H

  4. ((d))

    100 H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 H

146

The ring main distribution system is preferred over radial distribution system because _______.

  1. ((a))

    there is no Ohmic loss

  2. ((b))

    it always possesses unity power factor

  3. ((c))

    it has fewer voltage fluctuation at consumers side

  4. ((d))

    there is no requirement of distribution transformer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

there is no Ohmic loss

147

Which of the following conditions is favourable for the application of radial distribution network?

  1. ((a))

    Power is generated at low voltage and substation is located very far away from load centre

  2. ((b))

    Power is generated at low voltage and substation is located at the load centre

  3. ((c))

    Power is generated at high voltage and substation is located very far away from the load centre

  4. ((d))

    Power is generated at high voltage and substation is located at the load centre

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Power is generated at low voltage and substation is located very far away from load centre

148

The speed-torque characteristics of which motor whose speed falls when there is increase in load torque is suitable to the application?

  1. ((a))

    DC compound motor

  2. ((b))

    DC shunt motor

  3. ((c))

    DC differential compound motor

  4. ((d))

    DC series motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DC compound motor

149

A particular consumer has loads of 200 kW, 400 kW and 300 kW, which are operating continuously. If the maximum demand of the consumer is 600 kW, find the demand factor of the system.

  1. ((a))

    42.5%

  2. ((b))

    66.67%

  3. ((c))

    33.33%

  4. ((d))

    16.67%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42.5%

150

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding superposition theorem?

(a) It can be used to calculate voltage, current and power.

(b) It can be used to calculate voltage and current in a circuit containing resistor, capacitor, inductor and diode.

(c) It can be used to calculate current in a circuit having linear elements resistor, capacitor and inductor.

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (b) only

  3. ((c))

    (c) only

  4. ((d))

    (c) and (b) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b) and (c)

151

The value of unknown current in CRO is measured by:

  1. ((a))

    ratio of voltage measured on CRO to resistance of the CRO

  2. ((b))

    ratio of voltage measured on CRO to standard resistance

  3. ((c))

    ratio of voltage measured on CRO to resistance of Aquadag

  4. ((d))

    ratio of voltage measured across the unknown resistance to that unknown resistance itself

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ratio of voltage measured on CRO to resistance of the CRO

152

In a drive system, which requires a high starting torque, which of the following electric motors is more suitable?

  1. ((a))

    Synchronous motor

  2. ((b))

    DC cumulative compound motor

  3. ((c))

    DC Series motor

  4. ((d))

    Double cage induction motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Synchronous motor

153

A DC source of EMF E volts and internal resistance R ohms is connected to a variable load and it is adjusted such that the load absorbs maximum power from the source. The current drawn from the source is:

  1. ((a))

    2ER\rm \frac{2E}{R}

  2. ((b))

    ER\rm \frac{E}{R}

  3. ((c))

    4ER\rm \frac{4E}{R}

  4. ((d))

    E2R\rm \frac{E}{2R}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2ER\rm \frac{2E}{R}

154

Shaded-pole induction motors have which of the following properties?

  1. ((a))

    High starting torque

  2. ((b))

    Very high starting torque

  3. ((c))

    Medium starting torque

  4. ((d))

    Low starting torque

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High starting torque

155

What is the diversity factor in a power system?

  1. ((a))

    The ratio of the maximum demand of the power station to the sum of average demands of all consumers connected to it

  2. ((b))

    The ratio of the maximum demand of the power station to the sum of individual minimum demands of all consumers

  3. ((c))

    The ratio of maximum demand of the power station to the sum of individual maximum demands of all consumers connected to it

  4. ((d))

    The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of all consumers to the maximum demand of the power station

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The ratio of the maximum demand of the power station to the sum of average demands of all consumers connected to it

156

In the estimation and costing, utmost importance is given for the payment of suppliers in an agreed time in order to maintain ______.

  1. ((a))

    the contract

  2. ((b))

    flexibility

  3. ((c))

    deposit security

  4. ((d))

    the guarantee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the contract

157

A 400V, 3-phase, star-connected synchronous motor has an armature current of 200A at an effective resistance of 0.04 OHMS. The short circuit load loss at half-full load will be _________.

  1. ((a))

    2100 W

  2. ((b))

    2000 W

  3. ((c))

    1000 W

  4. ((d))

    1200 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2100 W

158

An electrical network contains only one loop and no other mesh. How many KVL equations can be formed for the circuit?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

159

In electric power, if a body makes N rpm and the torque acting is T newton-meter, then work done per minute will be _______.

  1. ((a))

    (2πNT)/60 joules

  2. ((b))

    2πNT joules

  3. ((c))

    mgh joules

  4. ((d))

    m × g joules

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(2πNT)/60 joules

160

According to the principles of estimating and costing, if the quantity of material required for the job is not ready, the minimum order quantity required will be requested in _______.

  1. ((a))

    Purchase Order

  2. ((b))

    Purchase enquiry

  3. ((c))

    Tender Inquiry

  4. ((d))

    Comparative statements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Purchase Order

161

A _______ is a failure in a power system of interconnected parts in which the failure of a part can trigger the failure of successive parts.

  1. ((a))

    brown out

  2. ((b))

    black out

  3. ((c))

    black out and cascade tripping

  4. ((d))

    cascade tripping

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

brown out

162

Lissajous patterns on a CRO has ten vertical maximum values and eight horizontal maximum values. The frequency of the horizontal input is 1000 Hz. Determine the frequency of the vertical input?

  1. ((a))

    800 Hz

  2. ((b))

    1000 Hz

  3. ((c))

    1256 Hz

  4. ((d))

    1344 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

800 Hz

163

Calculate the inductance of an air core solenoid of length 400 cm, area of cross-section (2π)m2\rm \left(\frac{2}{\pi}\right)m^2 and having 200 turns.

  1. ((a))

    8 mH

  2. ((b))

    10 H

  3. ((c))

    8 H

  4. ((d))

    0.08 H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 mH

164

In a semiconductor diode, the ratio of change in the forward biased voltage across the diode to change in the current in the diode is called ______.

  1. ((a))

    DC reverse resistance

  2. ((b))

    DC forward resistance

  3. ((c))

    AC forward resistance

  4. ((d))

    AC reverse resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DC reverse resistance

165

The power dissipated in the 6Ω resistor is _______.

  1. ((a))

    1000 W

  2. ((b))

    1024 W

  3. ((c))

    1536 W

  4. ((d))

    3456 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000 W

166

The calculation of sending and receiving end voltage in an AC ring layout considers the voltage drop of:

  1. ((a))

    capacitance alone

  2. ((b))

    combined effects of resistance, inductance and capacitance

  3. ((c))

    resistance alone

  4. ((d))

    inductance alone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

capacitance alone

167

What is the significance of having hot reserve capacity in a power system?

  1. ((a))

    To ensure power system stability and reliability during emergencies or unexpected events.

  2. ((b))

    To provide backup power in case of a complete power outage.

  3. ((c))

    To act as a secondary power source during peak demand periods.

  4. ((d))

    To meet sudden fluctuations in electricity demand and maintain grid balance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To ensure power system stability and reliability during emergencies or unexpected events.

168

The polar form of a vector is 10∠30. What is the rectangular form of this vector?

  1. ((a))

    103+j2\rm 10\sqrt3 + j2

  2. ((b))

    53+j5\rm 5\sqrt3 + j5

  3. ((c))

    3+j5\rm \sqrt3 + j5

  4. ((d))

    153+j3\rm 15\sqrt3 + j3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

103+j2\rm 10\sqrt3 + j2

169

How is the resistance of a wire related to the length of the wire?

  1. ((a))

    Inversely proportional

  2. ((b))

    Proportional to square of length

  3. ((c))

    Directly proportional

  4. ((d))

    Not related

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inversely proportional

170

The current amplification factor for a transistor in a common base configuration is 0.75. If the emitter current is 4A, find the base current.

  1. ((a))

    0 A

  2. ((b))

    3 A

  3. ((c))

    1 A

  4. ((d))

    5 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0 A

171

Which of the following statements is correct for the radial distribution network's distributors load change?

  1. ((a))

    The consumer situated at the middle of the distributor will be subjected with serious voltage fluctuations.

  2. ((b))

    The consumer situated at the distant end of the distributor will be subjected with serious voltage fluctuations.

  3. ((c))

    No consumer in the distribution network will be subjected with any voltage fluctuations.

  4. ((d))

    The consumer situated at very close to the distributor will be subjected with serious voltage fluctuations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The consumer situated at the middle of the distributor will be subjected with serious voltage fluctuations.

172

A 3-phase voltage of 220 V is applied to a balanced, delta-connected, 3-phase, purely resistive load. Calculate the ratio of the reactive power to the active power.

  1. ((a))

    0.5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    0

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5

173

An induction motor can be treated as a transformer with ______.

  1. ((a))

    open circuited secondary winding

  2. ((b))

    open circuited primary winding

  3. ((c))

    short circuited secondary winding

  4. ((d))

    short circuited primary winding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

open circuited secondary winding

174

Which of the following statements about the hysteresis loop of magnetic materials is correct?

  1. ((a))

    The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material as well as a soft material is not dependent on temperature.

  2. ((b))

    The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material is greater than that of the soft material.

  3. ((c))

    The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material is less than that of the soft material.

  4. ((d))

    The hysteresis loops of hard and soft materials are of the same area.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material as well as a soft material is not dependent on temperature.

175

If Δ is the phase angle between supply voltage and pressure coil flux, which of the following statements is correct about the adjustable resistance used in the energy meter?

  1. ((a))

    It has very low resistance to adjust Δ to 0°.

  2. ((b))

    It has very high resistance to adjust Δ to 0°.

  3. ((c))

    It has very high resistance to adjust Δ to 90°.

  4. ((d))

    It has very low resistance to adjust Δ to 90°.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It has very low resistance to adjust Δ to 0°.

176

Which of the following types of cooling is employed in small and medium distribution transformers?

  1. ((a))

    Water filled oil cooled

  2. ((b))

    Oil filled water cooled

  3. ((c))

    Water filled self-cooled

  4. ((d))

    Oil filled self-cooled

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water filled oil cooled

177

What is the purpose of a maximum power point tracker (MPPT) in a PV system?

  1. ((a))

    To increase the open circuit voltage (Voc) of the PV cells

  2. ((b))

    To reduce the power losses within the PV cells

  3. ((c))

    To convert DC current to AC current

  4. ((d))

    To maximise the electrical power output of the PV system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase the open circuit voltage (Voc) of the PV cells

178

In a capacitor, if a charge of 1 coulomb accumulates on each plate when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied across the plates, then the capacitance will be _______.

  1. ((a))

    1 picofarad

  2. ((b))

    1 farad

  3. ((c))

    1 microfarad

  4. ((d))

    1 nano-farad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 picofarad

179

Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to full load testing of a single-phase transformer?

  1. ((a))

    This test is used to determine voltage regulation of the transformer.

  2. ((b))

    In Sumpner's test, two identical transformers are taken, in which primary windings are connected in parallel whereas secondary windings are connected in series but in phase opposition.

  3. ((c))

    In Sumpner's test, two identical transformers are taken, in which primary windings are connected in parallel whereas secondary windings are connected in series.

  4. ((d))

    This test is used to determine temperature rise and efficiency of the transformer.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

This test is used to determine voltage regulation of the transformer.

180

What are bushings in transformers used for?

  1. ((a))

    They are used to cool the transformer oil.

  2. ((b))

    They are used to filter contaminants from the transformer oil.

  3. ((c))

    They are used to connect the transformer to the power grid.

  4. ((d))

    They are used to insulate the transformer leads as they come out through the tank.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are used to cool the transformer oil.

181

Lambert's Cosine Law describes the relationship between _______.

  1. ((a))

    total lumen on the work plane and lumen emitted by lamp

  2. ((b))

    illumination and the angle of light incidence on a surface

  3. ((c))

    the wavelength of light and its speed in a medium

  4. ((d))

    illumination and the distance of light it travels

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

total lumen on the work plane and lumen emitted by lamp

182

Which of the following statements is true regarding the setting of an earth fault relay?

  1. ((a))

    The setting should always be equal to the rated full-load current of the line.

  2. ((b))

    The setting should always be greater than the rated full-load current of the line.

  3. ((c))

    The setting does not depend upon the rated full-load current of the line.

  4. ((d))

    The setting should always be less than the rated full-load current of the line.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The setting should always be equal to the rated full-load current of the line.

183

In any electric circuit, if i1 and i3 are incoming currents and i2 and i4 are outgoing currents from a node, then according to KCL which is the correct answer?

  1. ((a))

    i4 - i1 = i2 + i3

  2. ((b))

    i1 + i2 = i3 + i4

  3. ((c))

    i1 - i2 = i3 - i4

  4. ((d))

    i1 + i3 = i2 + i4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

i4 - i1 = i2 + i3

184

Power measured using 2 wattmeter method from a three-phase balanced/unbalanced load where line voltage = VP, Line current = VL, Phase voltage = VP and Phase current = lP is given by:

  1. ((a))

    √3 VL IL Cos φ

  2. ((b))

    √3 VP IP Sin φ

  3. ((c))

    √3 VP IP Cos φ

  4. ((d))

    3VL IL Cos φ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

√3 VL IL Cos φ

185

In an electrostatic instrument, the controlling torque can be adjusted by:

I. Changing the spring constant

II. Changing the length of the pointer needle

III. Changing the distance between the plates

IV. Changing the position of the instrument

  1. ((a))

    Only III and IV

  2. ((b))

    Only I and IV

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III

  4. ((d))

    Only I and II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only III and IV

186

In a metal oxide semiconductor FET, the metal oxide layer acts as a/an _______.

  1. ((a))

    electric field

  2. ((b))

    capacitor

  3. ((c))

    dielectric

  4. ((d))

    gate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

electric field

187

Which of the following factors is NOT related to the reluctance of the magnetic circuit?

  1. ((a))

    Nature of the magnetic material

  2. ((b))

    Magnetomotive force

  3. ((c))

    Length of the magnetic circuit

  4. ((d))

    Area of the cross-section of the circuit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nature of the magnetic material

188

The average demand of a plant is 55 MW. Find the maximum energy that can be produced if the plant is running at full load according to the operating schedule. The plant use factor is 60%.

  1. ((a))

    92 MWh

  2. ((b))

    792 MWh

  3. ((c))

    2200 MWh

  4. ((d))

    33 MWh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

92 MWh

189

In a fixed bias circuit silicon NPN transistor, common emitter configuration with β = 50 is used. Calculate VCE at quiscent point when RB = 106 Ω, R= 5 kΩ and VCC = 10V.

  1. ((a))

    7.67 V

  2. ((b))

    8.50 V

  3. ((c))

    7.50 V

  4. ((d))

    6.67 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.67 V

190

The energy consumed by a 5Ω resistor carrying a 20A current in 10 minutes will be _______

  1. ((a))

    120 KJ

  2. ((b))

    1200 KJ

  3. ((c))

    2000 J

  4. ((d))

    120 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120 KJ

191

The advantage of using soft starter for an induction motor is for protection against _______.

  1. ((a))

    only undercurrent

  2. ((b))

    only phase failure

  3. ((c))

    only overcurrent

  4. ((d))

    phase failure, overcurrent, and undercurrent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

only undercurrent

192

In electrical circuits, the equivalent resistance of a complicated network of conductors is determined by applying _______.

  1. ((a))

    Laplace's law

  2. ((b))

    the direct method

  3. ((c))

    Kirchhoff's law

  4. ((d))

    Ampere's circuital law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Laplace's law

193

Back EMF is a significant quantity during operation of a DC motor. Which of the following statements regarding the concept of Back EMF is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Back EMF increases considerably while loading the motor.

  2. ((b))

    At no load, the back EMF is zero.

  3. ((c))

    Back EMF is not necessary for the electromechanical energy conversion in a motor.

  4. ((d))

    The back EMF decreases considerably while loading the motor.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Back EMF increases considerably while loading the motor.

194

The susceptance of the circuit given in the diagram is ________.

  1. ((a))

    j47S\rm \frac{j4}{7} S

  2. ((b))

    (110j74)S\rm \left(\frac{1}{10}- \frac{j7}{4}\right)S

  3. ((c))

    j74S\rm \frac{j7}{4}S

  4. ((d))

    (110+j74)S\rm \left(\frac{1}{10}+ \frac{j7}{4}\right)S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

j47S\rm \frac{j4}{7} S

195

If two identical 2 A, 2 Ω Norton equivalent circuits are connected in parallel with like polarity connected to like polarity, the combined Norton equivalent circuit is:

  1. ((a))

    2A, 4 Ω

  2. ((b))

    4A, 4 Ω

  3. ((c))

    4 A, 1 Ω

  4. ((d))

    0 A, 1 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2A, 4 Ω

196

In CRO, the measurement of time period is obtained by the product of the number of divisions occupied by one cycle and _______.

  1. ((a))

    Division/cycle

  2. ((b))

    Time/Division

  3. ((c))

    Time/cycle

  4. ((d))

    Division/time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Division/cycle

197

In regard to estimation and costing of public lighting, which of the following should be adequate to provide visibility that guarantees for the user the maximum safety and sufficient visual comfort?

  1. ((a))

    Optical guidance

  2. ((b))

    Level of luminance

  3. ((c))

    Uniformity of luminance

  4. ((d))

    Limitations of glare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Optical guidance

198

Core loss is neglected in single-phase induction motor. The excitation branch consists of only ________.

  1. ((a))

    exciting reactance

  2. ((b))

    load resistance

  3. ((c))

    load reactance

  4. ((d))

    no load resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

exciting reactance

199

Rotor current frequency = Fractional slip × ______

  1. ((a))

    Supply frequency

  2. ((b))

    Rotor speed

  3. ((c))

    No. of poles

  4. ((d))

    EMF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Supply frequency

200

In the measurement of RMS value of a voltage in CRO, the peak-to-peak voltage is divided by which of the following values?

  1. ((a))

    222\sqrt2

  2. ((b))

    22\frac{2}{\sqrt2}

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{\sqrt2}

  4. ((d))

    2\sqrt2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

222\sqrt2

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