Official Paper

SSC JE (Civil Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

440117, 440223, 440398, 400211

  1. ((a))

    440117

  2. ((b))

    440223

  3. ((c))

    440398

  4. ((d))

    400211

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

440117

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

540413, 540721, 550329, 540112

  1. ((a))

    540413

  2. ((b))

    540721

  3. ((c))

    550329

  4. ((d))

    540112

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

540413

3

Complete the analogy.

HJ : LN :: TV : ?

  1. ((a))

    ZB

  2. ((b))

    XB

  3. ((c))

    XZ

  4. ((d))

    VX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ZB

4

Find the missing term in the series:

<br>

C, F, I, L, ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

5

Find the missing term in the series:

<br>

B, H, N, T, ?

  1. ((a))

    Y

  2. ((b))

    Z

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Y

6

Find the missing number in the series:

<br>

6, 11, 21, 36, ?

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    63

  3. ((c))

    61

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

51

7

Find the missing number in the series:

<br>

1, 2, 6, 24, 120, ?

  1. ((a))

    720

  2. ((b))

    600

  3. ((c))

    840

  4. ((d))

    960

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

720

8

Complete the analogy.

Inertia : Motion :: Insulation : ?

  1. ((a))

    Heat

  2. ((b))

    Electricity

  3. ((c))

    Water

  4. ((d))

    Cold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heat

9

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Rose, Lotus, Lily, Mango

  1. ((a))

    Mango

  2. ((b))

    Lotus

  3. ((c))

    Lily

  4. ((d))

    Rose

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mango

10

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Bacteria, Virus, Amoeba, Wheat

  1. ((a))

    Bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Wheat

  3. ((c))

    Virus

  4. ((d))

    Amoeba

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bacteria

11

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Parrot, Pigeon, Bat, Crow

  1. ((a))

    Parrot

  2. ((b))

    Pigeon

  3. ((c))

    Bat

  4. ((d))

    Crow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Parrot

12

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Rat, Elephant, Monkey, Tiger

  1. ((a))

    Rat

  2. ((b))

    Elephant

  3. ((c))

    Monkey

  4. ((d))

    Tiger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rat

13

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Platinum, Mercury, Copper, Lead

  1. ((a))

    Platinum

  2. ((b))

    Mercury

  3. ((c))

    Copper

  4. ((d))

    Lead

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Platinum

14

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

124, 248, 372, 465

  1. ((a))

    124

  2. ((b))

    248

  3. ((c))

    372

  4. ((d))

    465

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

124

15

Four people, A-D, live on floors 1-4. B is on 3; A is on 1; D lives lower than B but not on floor 1.Who lives on floor 4?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

16

Four friends, Merry, Neel, Olga, and Peter, live on floors 1-4. Merry lives just above Neel. Olga lives just below Peter. Neel does not live on the ground floor (floor 1).

Who lives on floor 3?

  1. ((a))

    Neel

  2. ((b))

    Merry

  3. ((c))

    Olga

  4. ((d))

    Peter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neel

17

If PLAY is coded as QMBZ, how is GAME coded?

  1. ((a))

    HBNF

  2. ((b))

    GBNE

  3. ((c))

    HBMF

  4. ((d))

    HAMB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HBNF

18

If CLOCK is coded as DMPDL, then WATCH is coded as:

  1. ((a))

    XBVJD

  2. ((b))

    XBUDI

  3. ((c))

    XBUJE

  4. ((d))

    XATJD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XBVJD

19

Statement: "The city council will reward citizens who segregate waste at home".

Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Citizens never segregated waste before

  2. ((b))

    Only rewards can make citizens work

  3. ((c))

    Waste collectors will work faster

  4. ((d))

    Waste segregation improves recycling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Citizens never segregated waste before

20

Statement: "Metro fares will be reduced by 2020% during off-peak hours to manage crowding.

" Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    All passengers dislike high fares

  2. ((b))

    Lower fares will shift some passengers to off-peak times

  3. ((c))

    Off-peak metro trains are always empty

  4. ((d))

    Passengers will travel only during peak hours now

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All passengers dislike high fares

21

Four travellers, E, F, G, and H, travel to a city on 1st, 4th, 7th, and 10th October; H travelled after G, F travelled before G, and E is not the last to travel.

Who travelled on the 10th?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

22

Five people - N, R, O, S, and T - travelled to different cities on the 1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, and 9th of May. R travelled on the 5th. N travelled two days after R. O did not travel before T. S did not go on the 3rd or 5th. T did not travel on the 3rd.

Who travelled on the 9th?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

23

Your teammate looks tired after extra work.

What should you say?

  1. ((a))

    "That’s not my problem"

  2. ((b))

    "You work too slowly"

  3. ((c))

    "You should take a short break"

  4. ((d))

    Stay silent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"That’s not my problem"

24

A colleague disagrees with your idea in a meeting.

The best response is to:

  1. ((a))

    Defend loudly

  2. ((b))

    Listen and ask clarifying questions

  3. ((c))

    Ignore them

  4. ((d))

    Say they are wrong without reason

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Defend loudly

25

Which one is odd?

2, 6, 12, 20, 31, 42

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

26

The sum of two numbers is 50 and their difference is 10. The larger number is:

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

27

The average age of 8 men increases by 2 years when one is replaced by a new man.

The new man is how many years older than the one replaced?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

28

A new person joins your team and looks lost during the first meeting.

What’s the best social response?

  1. ((a))

    Wait for them to speak

  2. ((b))

    Introduce yourself and brief them

  3. ((c))

    Ignore them

  4. ((d))

    Give them extra work immediately

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wait for them to speak

29

You meet an important client who appears rushed.

What is the correct approach?

  1. ((a))

    Ask them to relax first

  2. ((b))

    Avoid discussing business

  3. ((c))

    Continue with small talk

  4. ((d))

    Greet briefly and get to the main point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ask them to relax first

30

Using all letters of R E T S A C, which valid English word can be formed?

  1. ((a))

    CREATS

  2. ((b))

    CASTRE

  3. ((c))

    CRATES

  4. ((d))

    SECTOR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CREATS

31

Sales figures drop sharply after a pricing change and customer complaints rise.

What’s the right first step?

  1. ((a))

    Reduce prices back immediately

  2. ((b))

    Increase advertisements

  3. ((c))

    Fire sales staff

  4. ((d))

    Gather customer feedback and analyse impact

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduce prices back immediately

32

A valued client requests a major last-minute change that will delay delivery by a week. What’s the best response?

  1. ((a))

    Reject the request instantly

  2. ((b))

    Explain the impact and negotiate feasible deadlines

  3. ((c))

    Accept change without discussion

  4. ((d))

    Charge a penalty without communication

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reject the request instantly

33

In a city’s road repair plan, most projects are done in affluent areas, while poorer areas are repeatedly delayed.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Roads in poor areas last longer

  2. ((b))

    Authorities prioritise rich areas

  3. ((c))

    Poorer areas refuse repairs

  4. ((d))

    Rich areas pay more tax

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Roads in poor areas last longer

34

In a university panel, professors from urban backgrounds are given 70% of speaking opportunities at national conferences, though they make up only 40% of the faculty.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Urban professors are more qualified

  2. ((b))

    Selection favours urban professors

  3. ((c))

    Rural professors refuse to speak

  4. ((d))

    Urban professors teach better

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Urban professors are more qualified

35

Company revenue rose 1212% but profit rose only 22%. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Costs increased

  2. ((b))

    Sales volume reduced

  3. ((c))

    Product prices rose

  4. ((d))

    Tax rates dropped

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Costs increased

36

A hospital treated 1010% more patients this year than last, but the total medical staff was reduced by 55%. Patient satisfaction ratings remained unchanged.

Which inference is most valid?

  1. ((a))

    Staff productivity per person increased

  2. ((b))

    Hospital reduced treatment quality

  3. ((c))

    Patients waited for less time

  4. ((d))

    Hospital expanded its facilities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Staff productivity per person increased

37

A colleague frequently interrupts others in meetings.

What should be concluded?

  1. ((a))

    They are confident leaders

  2. ((b))

    They want to help

  3. ((c))

    They lack listening skills

  4. ((d))

    They are shy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are confident leaders

38

If a software shows errors only during peak hours, what should be concluded?

  1. ((a))

    Software is faulty

  2. ((b))

    Server overload causes errors

  3. ((c))

    Users are slow

  4. ((d))

    Errors are fake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Software is faulty

39

Calculate (84÷76)×(9+3÷3)(84 \div 7-6) \times (9+3 \div 3).

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

40

If % = division, $ = multiplication, # = subtraction, and @ = addition, then calculate 60 % 5 $ 3 # 12 @ 8.

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

41

Rahul says, "She is the daughter of my father’s only son".

How is she related to Rahul?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Sister

  3. ((c))

    Niece

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Daughter

42

Pointing to a woman, Nina said, "She is the wife of my mother’s brother".

How is the woman related to Nina?

  1. ((a))

    Aunt of Nina

  2. ((b))

    Sister of Nina

  3. ((c))

    Mother of Nina

  4. ((d))

    Cousin of Nina

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aunt of Nina

43

A car covers 240 km in 4 hours.

Find its speed in km/h\text{km/h}.

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    55

  3. ((c))

    65

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

44

A sum amounts to ₹530 in 2 years and ₹585 in 3 years at simple interest. Find the principal.

  1. ((a))

    ₹500

  2. ((b))

    ₹510

  3. ((c))

    ₹420

  4. ((d))

    ₹550

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹500

45

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

Some pens are blue.

All blue things are cheap.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are cheap.

II. No pen is cheap.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

No fruits are vegetables.

Some vegetables are green.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some fruits are green.

II. Some vegetables are not fruits.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

47

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

17, 23, 29, 35

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    29

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

48

Complete the analogy.

BAC : EDF :: GIH : ?

  1. ((a))

    JKL

  2. ((b))

    JMK

  3. ((c))

    LJK

  4. ((d))

    JLK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JKL

49

Complete the analogy.

Drought : Famine :: Heavy Rain : ?

  1. ((a))

    Hunger

  2. ((b))

    Flood

  3. ((c))

    Plantation

  4. ((d))

    Storm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hunger

50

The average of 10, 20, and 30 is:

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

What is the role of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) in the Air Quality Index (AQI) calculations?

  1. ((a))

    They are directly measured and reported in the Air Quality Index (AQI).

  2. ((b))

    They contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone.

  3. ((c))

    They primarily affect water quality, not air quality.

  4. ((d))

    They are only relevant in industrial settings.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are directly measured and reported in the Air Quality Index (AQI).

52

Who was the first Indian woman to go into space?

  1. ((a))

    Kalpana Chawla

  2. ((b))

    Sunita Williams

  3. ((c))

    Ritu Karidhal

  4. ((d))

    Tessy Thomas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalpana Chawla

53

Which initiative is increasingly being emphasized by governments to improve Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) through digital means?

  1. ((a))

    Increased tariffs on digital imports.

  2. ((b))

    Increasing paperwork requirements for online transactions.

  3. ((c))

    Restricting internet access for businesses.

  4. ((d))

    Implementation of national single window systems.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased tariffs on digital imports.

54

What is the primary goal of the ISRO-developed "Humanoid Vyommitra"?

  1. ((a))

    Assist in lunar soil sampling

  2. ((b))

    Operate payloads on interplanetary missions

  3. ((c))

    Function as a ground-based AI robot for mission control

  4. ((d))

    Simulate human functions in uncrewed Gaganyaan test flights

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assist in lunar soil sampling

55

Which Article in the Indian Constitution ensures equality before the law?

  1. ((a))

    Article 14

  2. ((b))

    Article 16

  3. ((c))

    Article 19

  4. ((d))

    Article 21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 14

56

Who has been credited as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  4. ((d))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahatma Gandhi

57

What are the objectives of the Indian Space Policy 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Abolish all government involvement in space

  2. ((b))

    Merge ISRO with NASA

  3. ((c))

    Provide a regulatory framework to boost private space activities and innovation

  4. ((d))

    Limit private sector entry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abolish all government involvement in space

58

The capital city of Russia, a BRICS member state, is _______.

  1. ((a))

    St. Petersburg

  2. ((b))

    Novosibirsk

  3. ((c))

    Vladivostok

  4. ((d))

    Moscow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

St. Petersburg

59

What is the capital city of the BRICS country Brazil?

  1. ((a))

    Rio de Janeiro

  2. ((b))

    São Paulo

  3. ((c))

    Brasilia

  4. ((d))

    Salvador

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rio de Janeiro

60

Which of the following oceans is the third-largest ocean in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Pacific Ocean

  2. ((b))

    Atlantic Ocean

  3. ((c))

    Indian Ocean

  4. ((d))

    Arctic Ocean

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pacific Ocean

61

Which of the following is an expected outcome of the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) project?

  1. ((a))

    Increased global isolation

  2. ((b))

    Stronger economic ties

  3. ((c))

    Increased global conflict

  4. ((d))

    Reduction of technological advancement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased global isolation

62

Which government scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers to purchase fertilizers and seeds before each cropping season?

  1. ((a))

    Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana

  3. ((c))

    Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

  4. ((d))

    Soil Health Card Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

63

Which government initiative aims to promote energy efficiency and conservation across various sectors in India?

  1. ((a))

    National Solar Mission

  2. ((b))

    National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE)

  3. ((c))

    National Wind Energy Mission

  4. ((d))

    National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Solar Mission

64

While the "Smart Cities Mission" aims to improve urban infrastructure and quality of life, it has faced certain criticisms regarding its implementation and impact. Which of the following is a significant and often cited concern about the Smart Cities Mission?

  1. ((a))

    Its overwhelming focus on greenfield projects rather than retrofitting existing urban areas.

  2. ((b))

    Issues of equity and inclusivity, with concerns that the benefits might disproportionately accrue to certain sections of the population and areas within the selected cities.

  3. ((c))

    A lack of technological integration in the planning and execution of smart solutions.

  4. ((d))

    Excessive decentralization of decision-making, leading to a lack of coordination and standardization across cities.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Its overwhelming focus on greenfield projects rather than retrofitting existing urban areas.

65

In which year did Vishwanathan Anand become India’s first Chess Grandmaster?

  1. ((a))

    1988

  2. ((b))

    1987

  3. ((c))

    1991

  4. ((d))

    1993

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1988

66

In which year did India win the Junior Hockey World Cup for the first time?

  1. ((a))

    2001

  2. ((b))

    2005

  3. ((c))

    2016

  4. ((d))

    2021

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2001

67

In which year did the Indian Badminton League start?

  1. ((a))

    2011

  2. ((b))

    2013

  3. ((c))

    2015

  4. ((d))

    2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2011

68

In traditional Indian wrestling (Kushti), bouts are often held in which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Wooden platform

  2. ((b))

    Clay or mud pit

  3. ((c))

    Rubber mat

  4. ((d))

    Grass court

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wooden platform

69

After a seven-year hiatus, which western Indian state reignited the National Games in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasthan

70

The 2003 Afro-Asian Games were held in Hyderabad. Which specific sports complex was the primary venue?

  1. ((a))

    Gachibowli Sports Complex

  2. ((b))

    Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium

  3. ((c))

    Fateh Maidan Sports Complex

  4. ((d))

    Kotla Vijay Bhaskar Reddy Stadium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gachibowli Sports Complex

71

In which city did Sachin Tendulkar play his last international match in 2013?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kolkata

72

The Syed Modi International Badminton Championship is held annually in which Indian city?

  1. ((a))

    Lucknow

  2. ((b))

    Hyderabad

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lucknow

73

Which region is known for its terracotta temple architecture featuring intricate brick carvings?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

74

Who built Fatehpur Sikri?

  1. ((a))

    Babur

  2. ((b))

    Akbar

  3. ((c))

    Shah Jahan

  4. ((d))

    Jahangir

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Babur

75

Which famous stepwell in Gujarat is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

  1. ((a))

    Rani ki Vav

  2. ((b))

    Agrasen ki Baoli

  3. ((c))

    Adalaj ni Vav

  4. ((d))

    Dada Harir Vav

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rani ki Vav

76

The Inheritance of Loss, which won the Man Booker Prize in 2006, was written by:

  1. ((a))

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  2. ((b))

    Arundhati Roy

  3. ((c))

    Kiran Desai

  4. ((d))

    Anita Desai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jhumpa Lahiri

77

Which Japanese author has been longlisted multiple times for the Nobel Prize but has NOT yet won it?

  1. ((a))

    Haruki Murakami

  2. ((b))

    Yukio Mishima

  3. ((c))

    Kenzaburo Oe

  4. ((d))

    Banana Yoshimoto

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haruki Murakami

78

Kho-Kho originated in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

79

Who was the only Indian woman to win a gold medal at the 2018 Commonwealth Games in table tennis?

  1. ((a))

    Manika Batra

  2. ((b))

    Mouma Das

  3. ((c))

    Sutirtha Mukherjee

  4. ((d))

    Madhurika Patkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manika Batra

80

Which of the following Indian chess players defeated Magnus Carlsen in a classical game for the first time in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Vidit Gujrathi

  2. ((b))

    Arjun Erigaisi

  3. ((c))

    D Gukesh

  4. ((d))

    Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vidit Gujrathi

81

In which Indian state is the Hornbill Festival, often referred to as the "Festival of Festivals," celebrated?

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Meghalaya

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arunachal Pradesh

82

The tribal festival "Bhagoria" involves a unique form of ____.

  1. ((a))

    snake worship

  2. ((b))

    matchmaking

  3. ((c))

    fire rituals

  4. ((d))

    moon worship

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

snake worship

83

Which law was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 ?

  1. ((a))

    Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)

  2. ((b))

    Indian Evidence Act

  3. ((c))

    Code of Civil Procedure

  4. ((d))

    Indian Penal Code

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)

84

Which of the following is not covered under the ambit of Uniform Civil Code?

  1. ((a))

    Inheritance

  2. ((b))

    Marriage

  3. ((c))

    Murder

  4. ((d))

    Divorce

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inheritance

85

What is a major reform introduced under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 regarding electronic evidence?

  1. ((a))

    Electronic evidence is not admissible in criminal trials

  2. ((b))

    Only government data is considered reliable

  3. ((c))

    Screenshots are the only accepted digital form

  4. ((d))

    Electronic records, if properly authenticated, are fully admissible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Electronic evidence is not admissible in criminal trials

86

Who was the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) from June 2021 to June 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

  2. ((b))

    Justice V Ramasubramanian

  3. ((c))

    Justice Prafulla Chandra Pant

  4. ((d))

    Justice H.L. Dattu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

87

As of May 2024, who was appointed as the Chairperson of the Grappling Committee of India for the Jammu and Kashmir region?

  1. ((a))

    Vinod Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Ravi Kant

  3. ((c))

    Saniyaa Kadree

  4. ((d))

    Swati Saxena

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vinod Sharma

88

Who is appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India on March 17, 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Joymalya Bagchi

  2. ((b))

    Sanjiv Khanna

  3. ((c))

    Hima Kohli

  4. ((d))

    S. Ravindra Bhat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Joymalya Bagchi

89

What feature of Kathak distinguishes its footwork technique?

  1. ((a))

    Use of sharp bends and curving body movements

  2. ((b))

    Weight distribution along the horizontal and vertical axis

  3. ((c))

    Extensive use of the toe and ball of the foot

  4. ((d))

    Energetic, expressive free form movement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Use of sharp bends and curving body movements

90

Which of the following characters in Kathakali represents a noble hero and is depicted with green makeup?

  1. ((a))

    Pacha

  2. ((b))

    Kathi

  3. ((c))

    Kari

  4. ((d))

    Minukku

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pacha

91

Which dance is performed to express love for nature by the Bodo tribe of Assam?

  1. ((a))

    Bihu

  2. ((b))

    Bagurumba

  3. ((c))

    Dhol Cholom

  4. ((d))

    Mayur Nritya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihu

92

Which of the given statements is/are CORRECT regarding Uranium exploration in India?

  1. Most of the uranium deposits of India occur in the Dharwar deposits.
  2. Uranium mines are located along the Singhbhum copper belt.
  3. Uranium can be obtained from the monazite sands, which occur in the coastal regions of India.
  1. ((a))

    2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 2 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 and 3 only

93

Consider the following statements about Coal bed methane (CBM):

  1. India has the largest proven coal reserves in the world and thus holds significant prospects for exploration and exploration of CBM.
  2. It is employed in the manufacturing of cement and methanol and used as compressed natural gas.
  3. The Gondwana sediments of eastern India host all the current CBM-producing blocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    2 only

  4. ((d))

    3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

94

Which folk music from Goa is known for its themes of love and historical narratives?

  1. ((a))

    Mando

  2. ((b))

    Bhavageete

  3. ((c))

    Kolattam

  4. ((d))

    Kummi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mando

95

What is the primary use of "Ovi" music in Maharashtra and Goa?

  1. ((a))

    For storytelling during festivals

  2. ((b))

    For performing rituals

  3. ((c))

    For women’s daily chores and celebrations

  4. ((d))

    For political protests

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

For storytelling during festivals

96

Which of the following best describes the main instrument used in "Khongjom Parva" music of Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    Tabla

  2. ((b))

    Flute

  3. ((c))

    Dhol

  4. ((d))

    Mridangam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tabla

97

Which of the following factors will determine the type of rural settlements in a country?

1 Nature of terrain

2 Social structure

3 Defence

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

98

Which of the following can be classified as an urban agglomeration?

  1. University Campus
  2. Railway Colony
  3. A Military Cantonment
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 2 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

99

What is the name of the portion of the Himalayas located between the Sutlej and Kali rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab Himalayas

  2. ((b))

    Nepal Himalayas

  3. ((c))

    Assam Himalayas

  4. ((d))

    Kumaon Himalayas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab Himalayas

100

Which of the following states is known as the ’Land of rolling hills’?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Manipur

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

General Engineering (100 questions)

101

Which of the following stones is most suitable for use in high-load bearing structures?

  1. ((a))

    Granite

  2. ((b))

    Shale

  3. ((c))

    Sandstone

  4. ((d))

    Lime stone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Granite

102

In structural timber, the "Modulus of Elasticity" measures:

  1. ((a))

    Fire resistance

  2. ((b))

    Durability

  3. ((c))

    Stiffness

  4. ((d))

    Flexibility

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fire resistance

103

Reactive powder concrete is notable for its:

  1. ((a))

    Poor workability

  2. ((b))

    Use of large aggregates

  3. ((c))

    Extremely high strength

  4. ((d))

    Low cost

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Poor workability

104

The following is an example of a phase-change material used in building construction?

  1. ((a))

    Concrete

  2. ((b))

    Gypsum

  3. ((c))

    Paraffin wax

  4. ((d))

    Cementitious materials

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Concrete

105

The primary reason for using fiber-reinforced polymers (FRP) in construction is?

  1. ((a))

    To improve the thermal conductivity of materials

  2. ((b))

    To reduce the overall weight of structures

  3. ((c))

    To increase the fire resistance of materials

  4. ((d))

    To enhance aesthetic appeal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To improve the thermal conductivity of materials

106

The continuity equation is based on the principle of:

  1. ((a))

    Conservation of energy

  2. ((b))

    Conservation of mass

  3. ((c))

    Conservation of momentum

  4. ((d))

    Conservation of pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Conservation of energy

107

A venturimeter measures:

  1. ((a))

    Pressure

  2. ((b))

    Flow rate

  3. ((c))

    Velocity

  4. ((d))

    Force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure

108

Velocity of flow in a circular channel is maximum when depth of flow is:

  1. ((a))
    1. 81 D
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 D
  3. ((c))
    1. 3 D
  4. ((d))
    1. 1 D
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 81 D
109

Piezometer can only measure:

  1. ((a))

    Total pressure

  2. ((b))

    Vacuum pressure

  3. ((c))

    High pressure

  4. ((d))

    Gauge pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Total pressure

110

In gradually varied flow, the water surface profile is governed by:

  1. ((a))

    Euler’s equation

  2. ((b))

    Navier-Stokes equation

  3. ((c))

    Continuity equation only

  4. ((d))

    Dynamic equation of gradually varied flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Euler’s equation

111

The Froude number is used to characterize:

  1. ((a))

    Compressible flow

  2. ((b))

    Subsonic flow

  3. ((c))

    Flow in open channels

  4. ((d))

    Turbulent pipe flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compressible flow

112

Water hammer in a pipeline results due to:

  1. ((a))

    Friction loss

  2. ((b))

    Sudden valve closure

  3. ((c))

    Steady flow

  4. ((d))

    Long pipelines

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friction loss

113

Which instrument is used to measure low pressures with high accuracy?

  1. ((a))

    Bourdon gauge

  2. ((b))

    U-tube manometer

  3. ((c))

    McLeod gauge

  4. ((d))

    Barometer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bourdon gauge

114

The slope of energy grade line (EGL) represents:

  1. ((a))

    Hydraulic gradient

  2. ((b))

    Loss of energy per unit length

  3. ((c))

    Pressure variation

  4. ((d))

    Datum variation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hydraulic gradient

115

The flow in a rapidly varied region such as a hydraulic jump is governed by:

  1. ((a))

    Bernoulli’s equation

  2. ((b))

    Energy conservation

  3. ((c))

    Momentum equation

  4. ((d))

    Continuity equation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bernoulli’s equation

116

A Pelton wheel operates under a net head of 400 m. What is the velocity of the jet striking the buckets (neglecting all losses)?

  1. ((a))
    1. 6 m/s
  2. ((b))
    1. 0 m/s
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 m/s
  4. ((d))
    1. 6 m/s
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6 m/s
117

Which of the following materials is most ductile?

  1. ((a))

    Mild Steel

  2. ((b))

    Cast Iron

  3. ((c))

    Glass

  4. ((d))

    Concrete

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mild Steel

118

The strain energy in bending is directly proportional to:

  1. ((a))

    1EI\frac{1}{EI}

  2. ((b))

    EI

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1EI\frac{1}{EI}

119

The stiffness of a spring is doubled. What happens to its strain energy for the same deflection?

  1. ((a))

    Halved

  2. ((b))

    Doubled

  3. ((c))

    Remains same

  4. ((d))

    Becomes one-fourth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Halved

120

The product of Young’s modulus (EE) and the moment of inertia (II) of a beam is called:

  1. ((a))

    Modulus of rigidity

  2. ((b))

    Section modulus

  3. ((c))

    Polar modulus

  4. ((d))

    Flexural rigidity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Modulus of rigidity

121

The secant formula is used for:

  1. ((a))

    Short columns under eccentric loading

  2. ((b))

    Long columns under eccentric loading

  3. ((c))

    Short columns under axial loading

  4. ((d))

    Long column under axial loading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Short columns under eccentric loading

122

A beam 3m long, simply supported at its ends, is carrying a point load W at the centre. If the slope at the ends of the beam should not exceed 11^{\circ}. The deflection at the centre of the beam is :

  1. ((a))
    1. 45 mm
  2. ((b))
    1. 25 mm
  3. ((c))

    15 mm

  4. ((d))
    1. 5 mm
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 45 mm
123

The device used to measure soil moisture is called:

  1. ((a))

    Anemometer

  2. ((b))

    Tensiometer

  3. ((c))

    Hygrometer

  4. ((d))

    Rain gauge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anemometer

124

Consumptive use of water includes:

  1. ((a))

    Evaporation + seepage

  2. ((b))

    Percolation only

  3. ((c))

    Evaporation + transpiration

  4. ((d))

    Runoff + rainfall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Evaporation + seepage

125

A barrage differs from a weir in that:

  1. ((a))

    Barrage stores water

  2. ((b))

    Barrage is constructed with gates

  3. ((c))

    Weir is taller

  4. ((d))

    Weir cannot divert water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Barrage stores water

126

Interlinking of rivers in irrigation planning aims to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase dam height

  2. ((b))

    Generate electricity

  3. ((c))

    Balance water supply between surplus and deficit basins

  4. ((d))

    Divert floods to urban areas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase dam height

127

The structure used to remove sediment near the riverbed before entering the canal is called:

  1. ((a))

    Canal fall

  2. ((b))

    Silt ejector

  3. ((c))

    Silt excluder

  4. ((d))

    Guide bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Canal fall

128

For a 100-year flood, the probability of exceedance in any given year is:

  1. ((a))

    1%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))
    1. 1%
  4. ((d))

    5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1%

129

In hydrology, the term "return period" signifies:

  1. ((a))

    Frequency of flood warnings

  2. ((b))

    Average time interval between floods of specific magnitude

  3. ((c))

    Time taken for a flood to recede

  4. ((d))

    Time for water to reach soil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Frequency of flood warnings

130

The time of concentration is defined as the time:

  1. ((a))

    For entire catchment to saturate

  2. ((b))

    For rainfall to reach peak intensity

  3. ((c))

    For water from the remotest point to reach the outlet

  4. ((d))

    For baseflow to start

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

For entire catchment to saturate

131

In the context of pavement design, the term ’modulus of subgrade reaction’ refers to:

  1. ((a))

    The stiffness of the subgrade soil

  2. ((b))

    The compressive strength of the base material

  3. ((c))

    The tensile strength of the surface course

  4. ((d))

    The shear strength of the sub-base

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The stiffness of the subgrade soil

132

In rigid pavement design, the modulus of subgrade reaction (k) is a critical parameter. What is the typical unit of measurement for k?

  1. ((a))

    kN/m2^2

  2. ((b))

    kN/m3^3

  3. ((c))

    kN/m·mm

  4. ((d))

    kN·m/m2^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

kN/m2^2

133

The principle of chain surveying is based on:

  1. ((a))

    Triangulation

  2. ((b))

    Trilateration

  3. ((c))

    Traversing

  4. ((d))

    Intersection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Triangulation

134

The difference in elevation between two points is determined using:

  1. ((a))

    Plane table

  2. ((b))

    Compass

  3. ((c))

    Level and staff

  4. ((d))

    Theodolite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plane table

135

A benchmark is a:

  1. ((a))

    Horizontal angle

  2. ((b))

    Reference point of known elevation

  3. ((c))

    Point of magnetic north

  4. ((d))

    Type of compass

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Horizontal angle

136

A prismatic compass gives:

  1. ((a))

    Bearings in quadrantal system

  2. ((b))

    Whole circle bearing

  3. ((c))

    Relative bearing

  4. ((d))

    Reduced bearing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bearings in quadrantal system

137

For a normally consolidated clay exhibiting ϕ=0\phi = 0 under undrained conditions, what is expected under drained conditions?

  1. ((a))

    ϕ\phi remains 0

  2. ((b))

    ϕ\phi becomes negative

  3. ((c))

    ϕ\phi increases

  4. ((d))

    ϕ=c=0\phi = c = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ϕ\phi remains 0

138

A Differential leveling can be used to determine:

  1. ((a))

    Only relative elevations

  2. ((b))

    Horizontal distances

  3. ((c))

    Angular bearings

  4. ((d))

    Magnetic declination

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only relative elevations

139

A consistency index greater than one indicates:

  1. ((a))

    Semi-solid state

  2. ((b))

    Plastic state

  3. ((c))

    Liquid state

  4. ((d))

    Gaseous State

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Semi-solid state

140

Among the following, which type of compaction equipment is best suited for sandy soils?

  1. ((a))

    Pneumatic roller

  2. ((b))

    Sheepsfoot roller

  3. ((c))

    Vibratory roller

  4. ((d))

    Smooth wheel roller

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pneumatic roller

141

What Atterberg limit defines the water content where soil starts behaving like a liquid rather than plastic?

  1. ((a))

    Plastic limit

  2. ((b))

    Liquid limit

  3. ((c))

    Shrinkage limit

  4. ((d))

    Plasticity index

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plastic limit

142

When a soil is described as “well-graded,” what does it mean about its coefficient of uniformity (Cu)?

  1. ((a))

    It is less than 22

  2. ((b))

    It equals 11

  3. ((c))

    It is greater than 44 (for gravel)

  4. ((d))

    It is less than 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is less than 22

143

In tacheometry, the staff intercept is the:

  1. ((a))

    Distance between stadia hairs on the staff

  2. ((b))

    Distance between the instrument and staff

  3. ((c))

    Vertical staff reading

  4. ((d))

    Horizontal distance measured directly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Distance between stadia hairs on the staff

144

The azimuth is the angle measured from:

  1. ((a))

    North in clockwise direction

  2. ((b))

    South in clockwise direction

  3. ((c))

    East in anticlockwise direction

  4. ((d))

    Magnetic north only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North in clockwise direction

145

Increasing compaction energy generally:

  1. ((a))

    Decreases maximum dry density

  2. ((b))

    Increases maximum dry density

  3. ((c))

    Has no effect on dry density

  4. ((d))

    Causes dry density to fluctuate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decreases maximum dry density

146

The critical state of soil refers to a condition where:

  1. ((a))

    Soil stops deforming

  2. ((b))

    Soil continuously deforms at constant volume and shear stress

  3. ((c))

    Soil liquefies

  4. ((d))

    Soil cracks suddenly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil stops deforming

147

In an unconfined compression test, the confining pressure is:

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Equal to axial pressure

  3. ((c))

    Negative

  4. ((d))

    100 kPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

148

A soil sample has a dry density of 1.90extg/cc1.90 ext{ g/cc} and a specific gravity of 2.702.70. Calculate the void ratio.

  1. ((a))
    1. 42
  2. ((b))
    1. 42
  3. ((c))
    1. 42
  4. ((d))
    1. 42
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 42
149

The standard penetration test (SPT) number is used to estimate:

  1. ((a))

    Permeability

  2. ((b))

    Shear strength

  3. ((c))

    Soil density

  4. ((d))

    Plasticity index

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Permeability

150

The primary cause of immediate settlement in foundations is:

  1. ((a))

    Soil consolidation

  2. ((b))

    Shear failure

  3. ((c))

    Elastic deformation of soil 

  4. ((d))

    Chemical change in soil 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil consolidation

151

In composting, what conditions must be maintained?

  1. ((a))

    High oxygen and moisture

  2. ((b))

    No light and oxygen

  3. ((c))

    High pressure

  4. ((d))

    Acidic pHpH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High oxygen and moisture

152

Which gas is dangerous and can catch fire in landfills?

  1. ((a))

    Oxygen

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Methane

  4. ((d))

    Nitrogen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Oxygen

153

Which color bin is usually used for biodegradable waste?

  1. ((a))

    Blue

  2. ((b))

    Green

  3. ((c))

    Red

  4. ((d))

    Yellow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blue

154

What is the primary cause of acid rain?

  1. ((a))

    Water vapor

  2. ((b))

    CO2\text{CO}_2 and O2\text{O}_2

  3. ((c))

    Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides

  4. ((d))

    Dust

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water vapor

155

Which of these is a major source of groundwater contamination?

  1. ((a))

    River erosion

  2. ((b))

    Treated wastewater

  3. ((c))

    Leaching of fertilizers and pesticides

  4. ((d))

    Cloud seeding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

River erosion

156

Solid waste from construction activities is best managed through:

  1. ((a))

    Open burning

  2. ((b))

    Landfilling only

  3. ((c))

    Recycling and reuse on-site

  4. ((d))

    Dumping in rivers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Open burning

157

The population of a town in 2021 is 50,000, and in 2011 it was 40,000. Estimate the population in 2031 using the arithmetic increase method.

  1. ((a))

    60000

  2. ((b))

    62000

  3. ((c))

    70000

  4. ((d))

    65000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60000

158

A 300 mm diameter pipe carries water at 2. 0 m/s\text{m/s}. What is the discharge?

  1. ((a))
    1. 14 m3/s\text{m}^3/\text{s}
  2. ((b))
    1. 16 m3/s\text{m}^3/\text{s}
  3. ((c))
    1. 18 m3/s\text{m}^3/\text{s}
  4. ((d))
    1. 22 m3/s\text{m}^3/\text{s}
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 14 m3/s\text{m}^3/\text{s}
159

In a rapid sand filter, a filtration rate of 5000L/m2/hr5000 L/m^2/hr is applied. If the area of the filter is 25m225 m^2, how much water is filtered per day?

  1. ((a))
    1. 0 MLD
  2. ((b))
    1. 8 MLD
  3. ((c))
    1. 2 MLD
  4. ((d))
    1. 6 MLD
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0 MLD
160

A composting plant processes 45,000 kg/day of waste. If 30% is converted to compost, what is the compost output?

  1. ((a))

    12,000 kg/day

  2. ((b))

    13,500 kg/day

  3. ((c))

    14,000 kg/day

  4. ((d))

    15,000 kg/day

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12,000 kg/day

161

The phenomenon of ’breakpoint chlorination’ refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Deactivation of bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Removal of chlorine residual

  3. ((c))

    Complete oxidation of ammonia and organic matter

  4. ((d))

    Maximum permissible chlorine addition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deactivation of bacteria

162

In the Indian Roads Congress (IRC) method of flexible pavement design, traffic is considered in terms of _______.

  1. ((a))

    PCU

  2. ((b))

    Million Standard Axles (MSA)

  3. ((c))

    Equivalent Daily Traffic (EDT)

  4. ((d))

    Annual Average Daily Traffic (AADT)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PCU

163

What is the total traffic volume in PCU/hour if there are 600 two-wheelers (0.50.5 PCU each) and 800 cars (1.01.0 PCU each)?

  1. ((a))

    900

  2. ((b))

    1100

  3. ((c))

    1300

  4. ((d))

    1500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

900

164

The unit of bending moment is:

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    N/mN/m

  3. ((c))

    NmN \cdot m

  4. ((d))

    m2m^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N

165

The design bond stress for plain bars in tension is:

  1. ((a))

    Higher than deformed bars

  2. ((b))

    Lower than deformed bars

  3. ((c))

    Equal to deformed bars

  4. ((d))

    Negligible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Higher than deformed bars

166

In beams, the section at maximum shear force is generally located:

  1. ((a))

    At midspan

  2. ((b))

    Near supports

  3. ((c))

    At L/3L/3 from supports

  4. ((d))

    At quarter span

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At midspan

167

For an RCC column of 300×300300 \times 300 mm, 22% steel, M25 concrete and Fe-415 steel, the ultimate axial load capacity is:

  1. ((a))

    1300 KN

  2. ((b))

    1500 KN

  3. ((c))

    1400 KN

  4. ((d))

    2100 KN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1300 KN

168

An RCC footing has plan size 2 m ×\times 2 m and carries safe bearing capacity of 200 kN/m2^2. The total safe load is:

  1. ((a))

    700 KN

  2. ((b))

    600 KN

  3. ((c))

    800KN

  4. ((d))

    900 KN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

700 KN

169

If 15  KN/m\text{ KN/m} UDL is applied to a cantilever beam of span 2.5 m2.5 \text{ m}, what is the moment caused at the fixed end?

  1. ((a))
    1. 0  KNm\text{ KNm}
  2. ((b))
    1. 2  KNm\text{ KNm}
  3. ((c))
    1. 88  KNm\text{ KNm}
  4. ((d))
    1. 5  KNm\text{ KNm}
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0  KNm\text{ KNm}
170

A beam section with width b=300 mmb = 300\ mm and effective depth d=450 mmd = 450\ mm has a shear force of 120 kN120\ kN at the section. The average shear stress τv (N/mm2)\tau_v\ (N/mm^2) is:

  1. ((a))

    0.67 N/mm20.67\ N/mm^2

  2. ((b))

    0.74 N/mm20.74\ N/mm^2

  3. ((c))

    0.889 N/mm20.889\ N/mm^2

  4. ((d))

    1.00 N/mm21.00\ N/mm^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.67 N/mm20.67\ N/mm^2

171

For a reinforced concrete beam with a width of 300 mm and an effective depth of 450 mm, if the required area of tension steel As=1800mm21800 mm^2, what is the percentage of steel (p)?

  1. ((a))
    1. 80%
  2. ((b))
    1. 33%
  3. ((c))
    1. 66%
  4. ((d))
    1. 00%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 80%
172

What is the unit of measurement commonly used for plastering work?

  1. ((a))

    m2^2

  2. ((b))

    m3^3

  3. ((c))

    m

  4. ((d))

    kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

m2^2

173

What is valuation in civil engineering?

  1. ((a))

    Calculating project schedule

  2. ((b))

    Estimating project cost

  3. ((c))

    Estimating present worth of a property

  4. ((d))

    Analysing tender documents

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calculating project schedule

174

Quantity of steel is measured in:

  1. ((a))

    m2m^2

  2. ((b))

    m3m^3

  3. ((c))

    kg or quintals

  4. ((d))

    running metres

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

m2m^2

175

For earthwork in excavation, the most commonly used method is:

  1. ((a))

    Plinth area

  2. ((b))

    Mid-section area method

  3. ((c))

    Service unit method

  4. ((d))

    Crossing method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plinth area

176

Rate analysis is defined as the process of:

  1. ((a))

    Analyzing site conditions

  2. ((b))

    Breaking down unit cost into components

  3. ((c))

    Reviewing contractor’s bids

  4. ((d))

    Preparing Gantt charts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Analyzing site conditions

177

If the original cost of an asset is ₹5,50,000, its salvage value is ₹50,000, and its useful life is 50 years, what is the annual depreciation using the straight-line method?

  1. ((a))

    ₹10,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹11,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹12,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹10,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹10,000

178

If sand costs 1,000\text{₹}1,000 per cubic meter and cement costs 400\text{₹}400 per bag, and 1 cubic meter of mortar requires 0.40.4 cubic meters of sand and 6 bags of cement, what is the total cost per cubic meter of mortar?

  1. ((a))

    3,400\text{₹}3,400

  2. ((b))

    3,800\text{₹}3,800

  3. ((c))

    2,800\text{₹}2,800

  4. ((d))

    4,000\text{₹}4,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3,400\text{₹}3,400

179

Which of the following is considered as ’outgoing’ in valuation?

  1. ((a))

    Sinking fund

  2. ((b))

    Gross rent

  3. ((c))

    Capitalized value

  4. ((d))

    Book value

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sinking fund

180

Which document forms the official basis for standard rate analysis in India?

  1. ((a))

    Building Code

  2. ((b))

    Tender form

  3. ((c))

    CPWD Schedule of Rates

  4. ((d))

    Labour Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Building Code

181

The maximum efficiency of a hydraulic turbine is obtained when the flow velocity at outlet is:

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Equal to the inlet velocity

  3. ((c))

    Half the inlet velocity

  4. ((d))

    Maximum possible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

182

A 9090^\circ triangular notch has a head of 0.30.3 m over the crest. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.60.6, what is the theoretical discharge?

  1. ((a))

    0.110.11 m3^3/s

  2. ((b))

    0.210.21 m3^3/s

  3. ((c))

    0.320.32 m3^3/s

  4. ((d))

    0.070.07 m3^3/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.110.11 m3^3/s

183

The condition for the figure to be a plane in chain surveying is:

  1. ((a))

    An angle is less than 20° or greater than 130°

  2. ((b))

    An angle is less than 50° or greater than 100°

  3. ((c))

    An angle is less than 25° or greater than 150°

  4. ((d))

    No angle is less than 30° or greater than 120°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An angle is less than 20° or greater than 130°

184

The disadvantage of the radiation method is:

  1. ((a))

    It requires many tie lines

  2. ((b))

    It needs frequent orientation

  3. ((c))

    It is difficult for large areas

  4. ((d))

    It requires many instrument setups

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It requires many tie lines

185

Live storage for a multipurpose reservoir is calculated as :

  1. ((a))

    Sum of irrigation, power, and flood control requirements

  2. ((b))

    Dead storage + flood storage

  3. ((c))

    Only irrigation volume

  4. ((d))

    Only power generation volume

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sum of irrigation, power, and flood control requirements

186

The thermal conductivity of lightweight concrete is :

  1. ((a))

    Lower than dense concrete

  2. ((b))

    Equal to dense concrete

  3. ((c))

    Higher than dense concrete

  4. ((d))

    Negligible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower than dense concrete

187

The rocks formed due to alteration of original structure under heat and excessive pressure are called.

  1. ((a))

    aqueous rocks

  2. ((b))

    sedimentary rocks

  3. ((c))

    metamorphic rocks

  4. ((d))

    igneous

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

aqueous rocks

188

Out of following, Jhama bricks are said to be.

  1. ((a))

    well burnt having smooth and even surface

  2. ((b))

    slightly overburnt having rough surface

  3. ((c))

    underburnt and can be easily broken

  4. ((d))

    overburnt with irregular shape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

well burnt having smooth and even surface

189

Timber becomes spongy and brittle when affected by :

  1. ((a))

    Blue stain fungi

  2. ((b))

    Dry rot

  3. ((c))

    Knots

  4. ((d))

    Termites

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blue stain fungi

190

Eminently hydraulic lime is one in which the percentage of silica,alumina and iron oxide is.

  1. ((a))

    5 to 10%

  2. ((b))

    10 to 25%

  3. ((c))

    25 to 30%

  4. ((d))

    30 to 40%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 to 10%

191

The vulcanizing agent used in rubber is.

  1. ((a))

    wax

  2. ((b))

    rosin oil

  3. ((c))

    zinc

  4. ((d))

    sulphur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

wax

192

What are the colours of Ordinary Portland Cement and Portland Pozzolana Cement _________.

  1. ((a))

    white, black

  2. ((b))

    brown, grey

  3. ((c))

    grey, light grey

  4. ((d))

    black, grey

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

white, black

193

The rule of water-cement ratio was established by _________.

  1. ((a))

    Duff abram

  2. ((b))

    plowman

  3. ((c))

    W. simms

  4. ((d))

    Dr. Karl Terzaghi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Duff abram

194

If sea water is used for preparing concrete mix, select the incorrect statement.

  1. ((a))

    reduces strength

  2. ((b))

    corrodes steel reinforcement

  3. ((c))

    causes efflorescence

  4. ((d))

    improves the strength of steel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reduces strength

195

The specific surface of OPC is determined by _________.

  1. ((a))

    Le Chatelier’s apparatus

  2. ((b))

    air-permeability method

  3. ((c))

    autoclave method

  4. ((d))

    sieve analysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Le Chatelier’s apparatus

196

The presence of calcium chloride in water ____.

  1. ((a))

    Accelerates setting and hardening of cement

  2. ((b))

    Decelerates setting and hardening of cement

  3. ((c))

    Causes little effect on quality of concrete

  4. ((d))

    Accelerates the hardening of cement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accelerates setting and hardening of cement

197

The formation of Bogue’s compounds for Ordinary Portland Cement from the raw materials is completed _______.

  1. ((a))

    At the mid length of kiln

  2. ((b))

    In the preheater

  3. ((c))

    Only after leaving the kiln

  4. ((d))

    At the end of kiln

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At the mid length of kiln

198

The neutral axis of a balanced section is called ___________.

  1. ((a))

    balanced neutral axis

  2. ((b))

    critical neutral axis

  3. ((c))

    equivalent neutral axis

  4. ((d))

    2 times of neutral axis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

balanced neutral axis

199

The moment of resistance of an under-reinforced section is computed on the basis of ______________.

  1. ((a))

    compressive force developed in concrete

  2. ((b))

    tensile force developed in steel

  3. ((c))

    both (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    Either of (a) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

compressive force developed in concrete

200

If the percentage of steel in a beam increases, the depth of neutral axis _________.

  1. ((a))

    Increases

  2. ((b))

    Decreases

  3. ((c))

    No change

  4. ((d))

    can’t be predicted

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases

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