Official Paper

SSC JE (Civil Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 05 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

220312, 220415, 220829, 240716

  1. ((a))

    220312

  2. ((b))

    220415

  3. ((c))

    220829

  4. ((d))

    240716

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220312

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

920325, 920512, 930213, 920419

  1. ((a))

    920325

  2. ((b))

    920512

  3. ((c))

    930213

  4. ((d))

    920419

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

920325

3

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

701098, 700534, 700199, 900301

  1. ((a))

    701098

  2. ((b))

    700534

  3. ((c))

    700199

  4. ((d))

    900301

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

701098

4

Complete the analogy.

A : Z :: B : ?

  1. ((a))

    X

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    Y

  4. ((d))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X

5

Complete the analogy.

DFH : HJL :: JLN : ?

  1. ((a))

    MPO

  2. ((b))

    NPT

  3. ((c))

    OQS

  4. ((d))

    NPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MPO

6

Find the missing term in the series: B, C, E, H, L, ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

7

Find the missing term in the series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

  1. ((a))

    EV

  2. ((b))

    FU

  3. ((c))

    GV

  4. ((d))

    EW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EV

8

Find the missing term in the series: X-3, U-6, R-9, O-12, ?

  1. ((a))

    K-15

  2. ((b))

    L-15

  3. ((c))

    K-16

  4. ((d))

    L-16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K-15

9

Find the missing number in the series: 1, 8, 27, 64, ?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    81

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

10

Find the missing number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

11

Find the missing number in the series: 10, 15, 25, 45, ?

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    85

  4. ((d))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75

12

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Mercury, Venus, Pluto, Mars

  1. ((a))

    Mercury

  2. ((b))

    Venus

  3. ((c))

    Pluto

  4. ((d))

    Mars

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mercury

13

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Ozone, Carbon dioxide, Helium, Oxygen

  1. ((a))

    Ozone

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Helium

  4. ((d))

    Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ozone

14

Complete the analogy.

5:25::6:?5 : 25 :: 6 : ?

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

15

Complete the analogy.

576 : 24 :: 1024 : ?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

16

Complete the analogy. 8128 : 496 :: 496 : ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    31

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

17

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 17, 27, 45, 81

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    81

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

18

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

125, 216, 343, 521

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    216

  3. ((c))

    343

  4. ((d))

    521

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

125

19

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 343, 512, 2197, 1331

  1. ((a))

    343

  2. ((b))

    512

  3. ((c))

    2197

  4. ((d))

    1331

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

343

20

Statement: "School will organise practical workshops for all science topics this term." Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Teachers are unhappy with the current curriculum

  2. ((b))

    Students dislike theory completely

  3. ((c))

    Practical learning improves understanding

  4. ((d))

    Exams will only have practical questions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Teachers are unhappy with the current curriculum

21

Statement: "The government will ban burning of crop waste to reduce winter air pollution."

Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    All pollution is caused by farmers

  2. ((b))

    Crop burning is a major source of winter pollution

  3. ((c))

    Farmers have stopped growing certain crops

  4. ((d))

    Winter pollution will be completely eliminated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All pollution is caused by farmers

22

Statement: "All hospitals in the city will conduct free medical check-up camps during the festival week." Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    Authorities want more people to get health check-ups

  2. ((b))

    Hospitals will close after the festival week

  3. ((c))

    Patients will avoid check-ups at other times

  4. ((d))

    Only poor patients use free camps

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Authorities want more people to get health check-ups

23

Select the word that appears first in dictionary order: DRAW, DRAIN, DRAGON, DRAMA

  1. ((a))

    DRAGON

  2. ((b))

    DRAIN

  3. ((c))

    DRAMA

  4. ((d))

    DRAW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DRAGON

24

Which comes first in the dictionary? THANK, THINE, THIRD, THIRST?

  1. ((a))

    THANK

  2. ((b))

    THINE

  3. ((c))

    THIRD

  4. ((d))

    THIRST

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

THANK

25

Arrange as per dictionary order and select the word that comes third: TRAVEL, TRAVESTY, TRAVERSE, TRAVIS

  1. ((a))

    TRAVEL

  2. ((b))

    TRAVERSE

  3. ((c))

    TRAVESTY

  4. ((d))

    TRAVIS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TRAVEL

26

If in a code CAT=3120, then DOG=4157, then BAT=?

  1. ((a))

    2120

  2. ((b))

    2130

  3. ((c))

    3121

  4. ((d))

    2121

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2120

27

The average of 25, 35, and 45 is:

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

28

Rearrange the letters R O T C A R T into a valid English word.

  1. ((a))

    TROCART

  2. ((b))

    CONTRACT

  3. ((c))

    TRACTOR

  4. ((d))

    CARTRON

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TROCART

29

From the letters A R G N E M T, which valid word can be formed?

  1. ((a))

    MEGRANT

  2. ((b))

    GARMENT

  3. ((c))

    REMGNAT

  4. ((d))

    MARGENT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MEGRANT

30

In a team, women are assigned to less visible projects than men. What is a valid inference?

  1. ((a))

    Women choose less visible work

  2. ((b))

    Men are forced into visible projects

  3. ((c))

    Women face workplace bias

  4. ((d))

    Projects assigned randomly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women choose less visible work

31

Teachers from rural schools get fewer opportunities to attend educational seminars compared to urban school teachers of the same subjects.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Seminar selection favours urban staff

  2. ((b))

    Urban teachers are more capable

  3. ((c))

    Rural teachers are busier

  4. ((d))

    Urban schools have more students

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seminar selection favours urban staff

32

Crop yield rose 2020% after introducing drip irrigation, with the same rainfall.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Fertiliser use increased

  2. ((b))

    Farmers worked longer hours

  3. ((c))

    Irrigation improved water use

  4. ((d))

    Crop variety changed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fertiliser use increased

33

You hear a rumour about a company merger. What is the best judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Accept it as fact

  2. ((b))

    Spread the rumour wider

  3. ((c))

    Ignore all news

  4. ((d))

    Check reliable sources

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accept it as fact

34

A student’s attendance is 9898%, and test scores are consistently low.

Which is the fair judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Student is lazy

  2. ((b))

    Student struggles with understanding despite regularity

  3. ((c))

    Tests are too hard

  4. ((d))

    Student studies less

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Student is lazy

35

Employees worked 1010% more hours but output remained constant.

Which is the best conclusion?

  1. ((a))

    Machines slowed down

  2. ((b))

    Employees wasted time

  3. ((c))

    Output target reduced

  4. ((d))

    Work was inefficiently managed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Machines slowed down

36

If % multiplication, # = subtraction, =addition,and@=division,thenfind25 = addition, and @ = division, then find 25 % 2 # 8 10 @ 5.

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    43

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

37

If % = multiplication, $ = subtraction, * = addition, and # = division, then what is 15 % 3 $ 5 * 8 # 4?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    42

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

38

If * = subtraction, % = addition, =multiplication,and@=division,thenfind48 = multiplication, and @ = division, then find 48 2 * 6 % 10 @ 5.

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    92

  3. ((c))

    81

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

39

A company’s profit decreased by 1515% each year from 200000. What will be the profit after four years?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 25
  3. ((c))
    1. 25
  4. ((d))
    1. 25
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
40

The sales of a company in five years were 1500, 1650, 1815, 1996. 5, and 2196. 15 units. What is the expected sales in the seventh year?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 35
  3. ((c))
    1. 34
  4. ((d))
    1. 74
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
41

Company expenses were 2,000, 2,200, 2,420, and 2,662 for four years. What is the estimated project expense of the sixth year?

  1. ((a))

    3200

  2. ((b))

    3221

  3. ((c))

    3500

  4. ((d))

    3250

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3200

42

A man said, "She is the wife of the only son of my father".

How is the woman related to the man?

  1. ((a))

    Sister

  2. ((b))

    Wife

  3. ((c))

    Mother

  4. ((d))

    Daughter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister

43

Pointing to a woman, Ritika said, "She is the wife of my brother’s father".

How is the woman related to Ritika?

  1. ((a))

    Cousin of Ritika

  2. ((b))

    Aunt of Ritika

  3. ((c))

    Sister of Ritika

  4. ((d))

    Mother of Ritika

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cousin of Ritika

44

A man spends ₹2400 from his ₹6000 salary. What percentage of salary is left?

  1. ((a))

    65%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65%

45

A car’s value depreciates by 1010% annually. If its present value is ₹486,000\text{₹}486,000, what was its value 2 years ago?

  1. ((a))

    ₹6,00,000\text{₹}6,00,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹5,80,000\text{₹}5,80,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹5,90,000\text{₹}5,90,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹5,40,000\text{₹}5,40,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹6,00,000\text{₹}6,00,000

46

The average weight of 8 men increases by 1.5kg1.5 kg when one man weighing 65kg65 kg is replaced by a new man.

What is the weight of the new man?

  1. ((a))

    75 kg

  2. ((b))

    76 kg

  3. ((c))

    77 kg

  4. ((d))

    78 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75 kg

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

All trees are plants.

Some plants are flowers.

<br>

Conclusions:

A. All trees are flowers

B. Some flowers are trees

C. All plants are trees

D. Some trees are plants

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B

48

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All keys are metal objects.

No metal object is edible.

Conclusions:

I. No key is edible

II. Some keys are edible

III. All edible things are keys

IV. Cannot say

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    Both II and III

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II

  4. ((d))

    IV only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

49

Statements:

No books are gadgets.

Some gadgets are tools.

<br>

Which conclusion logically follows?

  1. ((a))

    Some books are tools

  2. ((b))

    All tools are gadgets

  3. ((c))

    Some tools are books

  4. ((d))

    Cannot say

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Some books are tools

50

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Cricket, Football, Chess, Reading

  1. ((a))

    Cricket

  2. ((b))

    Football

  3. ((c))

    Chess

  4. ((d))

    Reading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cricket

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

The "human development as freedom" perspective, championed by Amartya Sen, argues for:

  1. ((a))

    Government control over individual choices.

  2. ((b))

    The expansion of people’s capabilities does not choose lives they value.

  3. ((c))

    The standardization of cultural values.

  4. ((d))

    The expansion of people’s capabilities to choose lives they value.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Government control over individual choices.

52

The collective ownership, the absence of consumer choice, and the absence of competition are all features of a ____ economy.

  1. ((a))

    socialist

  2. ((b))

    mixed

  3. ((c))

    free market

  4. ((d))

    capitalist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

socialist

53

What kind of energy is mainly used to power satellites?

  1. ((a))

    Solar energy

  2. ((b))

    Wind energy

  3. ((c))

    Water energy

  4. ((d))

    Nuclear energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solar energy

54

What role does the ISRO-developed IRNSS system (now NAVIC) primarily serve?

  1. ((a))

    Deep-space tracking

  2. ((b))

    Geostationary weather monitoring

  3. ((c))

    Regional satellite navigation for India

  4. ((d))

    Satellite-based telephone services

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deep-space tracking

55

What does the MUDRA Bank stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Macro Units Development and Reserve Agency

  2. ((b))

    Micro Units Development and Reserve Agency

  3. ((c))

    Macro Units Development and Refinance Agency

  4. ((d))

    Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Macro Units Development and Reserve Agency

56

In case of perfectly elastic demand, what is the value of elasticity?

  1. ((a))

    ∞\infty

  2. ((b))

    =1=1

  3. ((c))

    =0=0

  4. ((d))

    >1>1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

∞\infty

57

Which of the following is the additional cost incurred to produce an additional unit of a commodity?

  1. ((a))

    Average variable cost

  2. ((b))

    Average fixed cost

  3. ((c))

    Marginal cost

  4. ((d))

    Total cost

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Average variable cost

58

The battle of Talikota (1565 AD) led to the downfall of:

  1. ((a))

    Bahmani Sultanate

  2. ((b))

    Chalukyas

  3. ((c))

    Vijayanagara Empire

  4. ((d))

    Maratha Confederacy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bahmani Sultanate

59

The founder of the Sur dynasty who briefly ended Mughal rule in India was:

  1. ((a))

    Bairam Khan

  2. ((b))

    Ibrahim Lodi

  3. ((c))

    Sher Shah Suri

  4. ((d))

    Daulat Khan Lodi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bairam Khan

60

What is the eighth planet in the solar system?

  1. ((a))

    Neptune

  2. ((b))

    Saturn

  3. ((c))

    Pluto

  4. ((d))

    Uranus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neptune

61

The effect by which Earth became a layered planet is:

  1. ((a))

    Orbital differentiation

  2. ((b))

    Gravitational differentiation

  3. ((c))

    Tectonic differentiation

  4. ((d))

    Inversion differentiation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Orbital differentiation

62

Which article enables Parliament to form new states or alter the boundaries of existing states?

  1. ((a))

    Article 1

  2. ((b))

    Article 4

  3. ((c))

    Article 3

  4. ((d))

    Article 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 1

63

What is known as the surface of ice and snow on planet earth?

  1. ((a))

    Biosphere

  2. ((b))

    Cryosphere

  3. ((c))

    Atmosphere

  4. ((d))

    Stratosphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Biosphere

64

What is the SI unit of force?

  1. ((a))

    Watt

  2. ((b))

    Joule

  3. ((c))

    Newton

  4. ((d))

    Pascal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Watt

65

Which government initiative primarily focuses on improving the efficiency and sustainability of agricultural practices in India?

  1. ((a))

    Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

  3. ((c))

    Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

  4. ((d))

    National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

66

The phenomenon of polarization proves that light is:

  1. ((a))

    A longitudinal wave

  2. ((b))

    A transverse wave

  3. ((c))

    Composed of particles

  4. ((d))

    A form of energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A longitudinal wave

67

Entropy in a system refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Its potential energy

  2. ((b))

    Pressure variation

  3. ((c))

    Level of disorder or randomness

  4. ((d))

    Chemical composition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Its potential energy

68

In which year did India win the Hockey World Cup?

  1. ((a))

    1971

  2. ((b))

    1975

  3. ((c))

    1982

  4. ((d))

    1986

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1971

69

Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the fastest double century in ODIs?

  1. ((a))

    Rohit Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Virender Sehwag

  3. ((c))

    Virat Kohli

  4. ((d))

    Ishan Kishan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rohit Sharma

70

The "Kalaripayattu" martial art, originating in Kerala, is known for its variations. Which specific style emphasizes weaponry over empty-hand techniques?

  1. ((a))

    Vadakkan Kalari

  2. ((b))

    Thekkan Kalari

  3. ((c))

    Tulunadan Kalari

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Kalari

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vadakkan Kalari

71

Which of the following architectural styles features the "Shikhara"?

  1. ((a))

    Dravidian

  2. ((b))

    Indo-Saracenic

  3. ((c))

    Nagara

  4. ((d))

    Gothic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dravidian

72

Which of the following temples in Odisha is designed as a colossal chariot?

  1. ((a))

    Jagannath Temple

  2. ((b))

    Sun Temple, Konark

  3. ((c))

    Rajarani Temple

  4. ((d))

    Mukteswar Temple

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jagannath Temple

73

The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in which of the following Five-Year Plans to support rural banking?

  1. ((a))

    3rd Five-Year Plan

  2. ((b))

    4th Five-Year Plan

  3. ((c))

    5th Five-Year Plan

  4. ((d))

    6th Five-Year Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3rd Five-Year Plan

74

Which Indian author was awarded the Neustadt International Prize for Literature in 2012?

  1. ((a))

    Amitav Ghosh

  2. ((b))

    Rohinton Mistry

  3. ((c))

    Vinod Kumar Shukla

  4. ((d))

    Salman Rushdie

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amitav Ghosh

75

Which of the following posed a significant obstacle to the effective execution of the Five-Year Plans?

  1. ((a))

    Systematic over-fulfillment of sectoral growth benchmarks

  2. ((b))

    Bureaucratic inefficiencies, resource constraints, and unforeseen external shocks

  3. ((c))

    Uninterrupted and efficient intergovernmental coordination

  4. ((d))

    Perfect alignment between private sector ambitions and planned economic goals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Systematic over-fulfillment of sectoral growth benchmarks

76

Which Indian writer did NOT win the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in 2011?

  1. ((a))

    Debachand

  2. ((b))

    Gayatribala Panda

  3. ((c))

    Vikram Sampath

  4. ((d))

    Meena Kandasamy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Debachand

77

Which of the following most accurately characterizes the principal factor behind the establishment of integrated steel complexes such as Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela during the Second Five-Year Plan?

  1. ((a))

    A surge in large-scale private sector investments facilitated by extensive government deregulation

  2. ((b))

    The execution of bilateral arrangements with both socialist and Western bloc nations to secure technical know-how and financial support for industrialization

  3. ((c))

    An explicit policy orientation towards fostering export-driven industries to augment foreign exchange reserves

  4. ((d))

    The existence of plentiful indigenous iron ore and coal reserves, combined with advanced domestic technological expertise

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A surge in large-scale private sector investments facilitated by extensive government deregulation

78

Krebs cycle is also known as _________.

  1. ((a))

    TCA

  2. ((b))

    C3

  3. ((c))

    C4

  4. ((d))

    CAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TCA

79

What term is used when a Kabaddi raider scores three or more points in a single raid?

  1. ((a))

    Bonus Raid

  2. ((b))

    Super Raid

  3. ((c))

    Do-or-Die

  4. ((d))

    Chain Raid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bonus Raid

80

In a light-dependent reaction, formation of _______ and _______ takes place.

  1. ((a))

    ATP ; NADPH

  2. ((b))

    ATP ; CO2CO_2

  3. ((c))

    NADPH ; CO2CO_2

  4. ((d))

    ATP ; H2OH_2O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ATP ; NADPH

81

In which year did PV Sindhu win her first Olympic medal?

  1. ((a))

    2012

  2. ((b))

    2016

  3. ((c))

    2020

  4. ((d))

    2021

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2012

82

Which edition of the Commonwealth Games was the first to include para-sports as a fully integrated part of the program?

  1. ((a))

    1998 Kuala Lumpur

  2. ((b))

    2002 Manchester

  3. ((c))

    2010 Delhi

  4. ((d))

    2014 Glasgow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1998 Kuala Lumpur

83

Which of the following Indian classical dance forms is performed during the festival of Navratri in Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Kathak

  2. ((b))

    Garba

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi

  4. ((d))

    Bharatanatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kathak

84

In which Indian state is the unique festival of Lai Haraoba celebrated for worshipping the ancient gods and goddesses of the Meitei community?

  1. ((a))

    Manipur

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manipur

85

The passing of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 led to:

  1. ((a))

    The complete integration of all princely states into India.

  2. ((b))

    The establishment of a unified and undivided India.

  3. ((c))

    The partition of British India into India and Pakistan.

  4. ((d))

    The continuation of British rule under a constitutional monarchy.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The complete integration of all princely states into India.

86

The "Universities Act" of 1904, enacted under Lord Curzon, had specific objectives concerning higher education in India. Which of the following best describes the primary aim of this Act?

  1. ((a))

    To promote mass literacy and expand primary education across India.

  2. ((b))

    To grant greater autonomy to Indian universities in their administration and curriculum.

  3. ((c))

    To bring universities under closer government control and regulate their functioning, citing concerns about standards and nationalist activities.

  4. ((d))

    To establish specialized institutions for technical and vocational training.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To promote mass literacy and expand primary education across India.

87

Which of the following sectors witnessed the greatest regulatory transformation during the post-1991 liberalization era, marked by the formation of independent regulators and the dismantling of state monopolies?

  1. ((a))

    Telecommunications

  2. ((b))

    Education

  3. ((c))

    Retail

  4. ((d))

    Health

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telecommunications

88

Which institutional change during India’s 1991 reforms best illustrates the transition from state-controlled mechanisms to market-based regulation in the capital markets?

  1. ((a))

    Setting up of NABARD to oversee capital inflows into rural infrastructure

  2. ((b))

    Empowerment of SEBI as a statutory body with regulatory authority over stock exchanges

  3. ((c))

    The merger of UTI with SEBI to manage investor grievances in mutual funds

  4. ((d))

    Delegation of stock market oversight to the Ministry of Finance for centralized control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Setting up of NABARD to oversee capital inflows into rural infrastructure

89

Which reform allows charge sheets and summons to be delivered electronically?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Evidence Act

  2. ((b))

    Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

  3. ((c))

    Right to Information Act

  4. ((d))

    Consumer Protection Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian Evidence Act

90

Which famous Indian airline launched the world’s longest non-stop flight from India in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Indigo

  2. ((b))

    Vistara

  3. ((c))

    Air India

  4. ((d))

    SpiceJet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indigo

91

Which state is known for the folk dance ’Mayil Attam’?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

92

Which dance form from Punjab is known for its high-energy footwork, lively music, and colorful costumes, traditionally performed by men during harvest festivals?

  1. ((a))

    Giddha

  2. ((b))

    Bhangra

  3. ((c))

    Dandiya Raas

  4. ((d))

    Raslila

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Giddha

93

Which dance involves balancing a pot on the head and is performed in Tamil Nadu?

  1. ((a))

    Karagattam

  2. ((b))

    Kolattam

  3. ((c))

    Oyilattam

  4. ((d))

    Mayil Attam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karagattam

94

Which among the following is wrongly matched about Rig Vedic Gods?

  1. ((a))

    Soma - God of Plants

  2. ((b))

    Agni - God of Fire

  3. ((c))

    Varuna - God of Water

  4. ((d))

    Indra - God of Wisdom

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soma - God of Plants

95

Which among the following is not a sacrifice ritual performed by the Later Vedic period kings to confer supreme power?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasuya

  2. ((b))

    Ashvamedha

  3. ((c))

    Brahmopadesha

  4. ((d))

    Vajapeya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasuya

96

Match the following archaeological sites with their modern-day states.

Column A | Column B

  1. Dholavira | a. Haryana
  2. Rakhigarhi | b. Gujarat
  3. Kalibangan | c. Rajasthan
  4. Lothal | d. Gujarat
  1. ((a))

    1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

  2. ((b))

    1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

  3. ((c))

    1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

  4. ((d))

    1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

97

With reference to hydrogen as a fuel, consider the following statements:

  1. The first pilot project of the National Hydrogen Mission is based on green hydrogen.
  2. Hydrogen can potentially replace coal and coke in iron and steel production.
  3. Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen fuel produce no tailpipe emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    2 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 2 only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 only

98

Which folk music style from Chhattisgarh narrates tales from the Mahabharata?

  1. ((a))

    Bhatiali

  2. ((b))

    Kolattam

  3. ((c))

    Ovi

  4. ((d))

    Pandavani

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhatiali

99

Which type of folk music is performed during the Lai Haraoba festival in Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    Ghasivari Geet

  2. ((b))

    Heijing Hirao

  3. ((c))

    Rasiya

  4. ((d))

    Shakunakhhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ghasivari Geet

100

What is the role of ’graha’ in the structure of a raga?

  1. ((a))

    It defines the scale

  2. ((b))

    It is the starting note of a phrase

  3. ((c))

    It is the ending note of a phrase

  4. ((d))

    It is a variant of the main note

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It defines the scale

General Engineering (100 questions)

101

Superplasticizers are frequently made from:

  1. ((a))

    Polycarboxylate ethers

  2. ((b))

    Polyvinyl alcohol

  3. ((c))

    Silicate ions

  4. ((d))

    Gypsum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Polycarboxylate ethers

102

What makes slate a good roofing material?

  1. ((a))

    High thermal conductivity

  2. ((b))

    Low cost

  3. ((c))

    Split-ability into thin sheets

  4. ((d))

    High compressive strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High thermal conductivity

103

The compressive strength of granite generally lies in which range?

  1. ((a))

    10-30 MPa

  2. ((b))

    30-70 MPa

  3. ((c))

    70-130 MPa

  4. ((d))

    150-200 MPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10-30 MPa

104

Which pozzolanic material is known for ultra-fine particle size and contributes significantly to strength?

  1. ((a))

    Rice husk ash

  2. ((b))

    Fly ash

  3. ((c))

    Silica fume

  4. ((d))

    GGBS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rice husk ash

105

Which special concrete uses industrial waste and does not contain traditional Portland cement?

  1. ((a))

    Lightweight concrete

  2. ((b))

    High-performance concrete

  3. ((c))

    Geopolymer concrete

  4. ((d))

    Ready-mix concrete

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lightweight concrete

106

Basalt fiber is considered better than glass fiber because of:

  1. ((a))

    Lower tensile strength

  2. ((b))

    Higher density

  3. ((c))

    Better corrosion resistance

  4. ((d))

    Increased water absorption

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower tensile strength

107

Artificial marble is made using a mixture of:

  1. ((a))

    Cement and limestone

  2. ((b))

    Natural stone and clay

  3. ((c))

    Marble dust, polyester resin, and pigments

  4. ((d))

    Lime and wood ash

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cement and limestone

108

The function of carbon fiber-reinforced polymer (CFRP) in construction is?

  1. ((a))

    Increasing the fire resistance of concrete

  2. ((b))

    Strengthening and retrofitting existing structures

  3. ((c))

    Reducing the environmental impact of construction

  4. ((d))

    Improving the aesthetics of concrete

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increasing the fire resistance of concrete

109

The materials commonly used to create high-strength, low-weight concrete for aerospace applications is?

  1. ((a))

    Fly ash

  2. ((b))

    Glass aggregates

  3. ((c))

    Aerated concrete

  4. ((d))

    Steel fibers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fly ash

110

How does the use of recycled concrete aggregates (RCA) impact the strength of concrete?

  1. ((a))

    It significantly increases the strength of the concrete

  2. ((b))

    It typically results in lower strength compared to natural aggregates

  3. ((c))

    It has no impact on the strength of concrete

  4. ((d))

    It increases the curing time of concrete

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It significantly increases the strength of the concrete

111

The natural material commonly used for waterproofing in ancient and modern construction is ?

  1. ((a))

    Bitumen

  2. ((b))

    Gypsum

  3. ((c))

    Concrete

  4. ((d))

    Marble

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bitumen

112

Cavity walls are constructed as external walls to shield the structure from the heat or cold outside since the void between two walls serves as a _______.

  1. ((a))

    Destructive material

  2. ((b))

    Burning material

  3. ((c))

    Building material

  4. ((d))

    Insulating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Destructive material

113

The device used to measure pressure in pipes is:

  1. ((a))

    Venturimeter

  2. ((b))

    Orifice meter

  3. ((c))

    Manometer

  4. ((d))

    Pitot tube

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Venturimeter

114

One standard atmosphere (atm) of pressure is approximately:

  1. ((a))

    760 mm Hg

  2. ((b))

    540 mm Hg

  3. ((c))

    100 mm Hg

  4. ((d))

    200 mm Hg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

760 mm Hg

115

The velocity distribution in laminar flow in a pipe is:

  1. ((a))

    Uniform

  2. ((b))

    Parabolic

  3. ((c))

    Linear

  4. ((d))

    Turbulent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniform

116

A hydraulic jump is a phenomenon found in:

  1. ((a))

    Pipe flow

  2. ((b))

    Turbine

  3. ((c))

    Open channels

  4. ((d))

    Pumps

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pipe flow

117

Friction factor in Darcy-Weisbach equation is:

  1. ((a))

    Dimensionless

  2. ((b))

    Has units of m/s\text{m/s}

  3. ((c))

    Equal to Reynolds number

  4. ((d))

    Always zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dimensionless

118

A steel rod under axial tension experiences elastic deformation. The ratio of axial stress to corresponding strain in this elastic region is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Poisson’s ratio

  2. ((b))

    Shear modulus

  3. ((c))

    Young’s modulus

  4. ((d))

    Bulk modulus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Poisson’s ratio

119

Which of the following represents Poisson’s ratio?

  1. ((a))

    Lateral strain to longitudinal strain

  2. ((b))

    Stress to strain

  3. ((c))

    Axial stress to shear stress

  4. ((d))

    Bending stress to axial stress

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lateral strain to longitudinal strain

120

In the bending equation M/I=f/y=E/RM/I = f/y = E/R, which quantity remains constant for a given beam material and section?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    f/y

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

121

In a fixed beam, the slopes at the ends are:

  1. ((a))

    Minimum

  2. ((b))

    Maximum

  3. ((c))

    Similar at the centre

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minimum

122

Euler’s buckling formula is applicable for:

  1. ((a))

    Short columns

  2. ((b))

    Medium columns

  3. ((c))

    Long columns

  4. ((d))

    Struts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Short columns

123

In a hinged beam, the moments at the ends are:

  1. ((a))

    Minimum

  2. ((b))

    Maximum

  3. ((c))

    Same at the center

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minimum

124

The moment distribution method in structural analysis is:

  1. ((a))

    An iterative method

  2. ((b))

    An exact method

  3. ((c))

    An approximate method

  4. ((d))

    An experimental method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An iterative method

125

The moment distribution method is best suited for:

  1. ((a))

    Statically determinate structures

  2. ((b))

    Highly indeterminate structures with non-prismatic members

  3. ((c))

    Continuous beams and rigid frames of moderate indeterminacy

  4. ((d))

    Trusses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statically determinate structures

126

Which type of irrigation system mimics natural rainfall?

  1. ((a))

    Surface irrigation

  2. ((b))

    Drip system

  3. ((c))

    Sprinkler system

  4. ((d))

    Canal irrigation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Surface irrigation

127

Which of the following is a type of micro irrigation?

  1. ((a))

    Surface irrigation

  2. ((b))

    Furrow irrigation

  3. ((c))

    Drip irrigation

  4. ((d))

    Flood irrigation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Surface irrigation

128

Which crop can be classified as drought-tolerant?

  1. ((a))

    Paddy

  2. ((b))

    Sugarcane

  3. ((c))

    Pearl millet

  4. ((d))

    Banana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Paddy

129

Which of the following helps in river training near headworks?

  1. ((a))

    Guide banks

  2. ((b))

    Storage reservoirs

  3. ((c))

    Drops

  4. ((d))

    Canals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Guide banks

130

Live storage in a reservoir refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Water that is not usable

  2. ((b))

    Total capacity above spillway crest

  3. ((c))

    Water stored between minimum and maximum levels

  4. ((d))

    Water stored in dead storage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water that is not usable

131

The following is not a function of an irrigation project?

  1. ((a))

    Soil salinity control

  2. ((b))

    Crop production enhancement

  3. ((c))

    Industrial wastewater management

  4. ((d))

    Groundwater recharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil salinity control

132

The field capacity of soil is the:

  1. ((a))

    Minimum water it holds

  2. ((b))

    Water drained out

  3. ((c))

    Maximum water soil retains after drainage

  4. ((d))

    Water available for evaporation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minimum water it holds

133

The critical hydraulic gradient as per ’Khosla theory’ for alluvial soils is equal to:

  1. ((a))
    1. 0
  2. ((b))

    1.5

  3. ((c))
    1. 0
  4. ((d))
    1. 5
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0
134

Which of the following is not a factor affecting crop water requirement?

  1. ((a))

    Soil texture

  2. ((b))

    Crop growth stage

  3. ((c))

    Leaf size

  4. ((d))

    Pipe diameter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil texture

135

The Rational Method of estimating peak discharge is best suited for:

  1. ((a))

    Large basins (>500 km2>500 \text{ km}^2)

  2. ((b))

    Mountainous catchments

  3. ((c))

    Urban small catchments

  4. ((d))

    Glacial watersheds

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Large basins (>500 km2>500 \text{ km}^2)

136

The most economical section of a canal implies:

  1. ((a))

    Least hydraulic radius

  2. ((b))

    Maximum perimeter

  3. ((c))

    Maximum velocity for a given discharge

  4. ((d))

    Minimum wetted perimeter for a given area

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Least hydraulic radius

137

The upstream floor length in a barrage is governed by:

  1. ((a))

    Lacey’s silt theory

  2. ((b))

    Scour depth

  3. ((c))

    Exit gradient

  4. ((d))

    Flow velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lacey’s silt theory

138

A farm receives 20 cm depth of water. The runoff and deep percolation losses are 4 cm and 3 cm respectively.

Calculate field application efficiency.

  1. ((a))

    65%

  2. ((b))

    70%

  3. ((c))

    75%

  4. ((d))

    85%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65%

139

The primary function of a tack coat in pavement construction is to:

  1. ((a))

    Provide waterproofing

  2. ((b))

    Bond the existing surface to the new layer

  3. ((c))

    Enhance aesthetic appeal

  4. ((d))

    Increase road strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Provide waterproofing

140

The primary purpose of providing a shoulder on a highway is to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase the road width

  2. ((b))

    Provide space for emergency stopping

  3. ((c))

    Enhance aesthetic appeal

  4. ((d))

    Reduce construction cost

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase the road width

141

The term ’cross slope’ in road design refers to:

  1. ((a))

    The slope of the road surface in the longitudinal direction.

  2. ((b))

    The slope of the road surface in the transverse direction.

  3. ((c))

    The slope of the road surface at intersections.

  4. ((d))

    The slope of the road surface at curves.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The slope of the road surface in the longitudinal direction.

142

The Superpave PG system classifies asphalt binders based on:

  1. ((a))

    Penetration only

  2. ((b))

    High and low temperature performance limits

  3. ((c))

    Aggregate size

  4. ((d))

    Viscosity only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Penetration only

143

Inadequate drainage in flexible pavements can lead to:

  1. ((a))

    Increased stiffness and reduced rutting

  2. ((b))

    Accelerated fatigue cracking and reduced structural capacity

  3. ((c))

    Improved skid resistance and surface friction

  4. ((d))

    Enhanced thermal stability and reduced cracking

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased stiffness and reduced rutting

144

Increasing design life of a pavement from 10 to 20 years generally requires:

  1. ((a))

    Doubling the pavement thickness

  2. ((b))

    Increasing the pavement thickness by a factor of about 1. 3

  3. ((c))

    No change in the pavement design

  4. ((d))

    Halving the thickness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Doubling the pavement thickness

145

A survey conducted to determine property lines is called:

  1. ((a))

    Engineering survey

  2. ((b))

    Cadastral survey

  3. ((c))

    Geodetic survey

  4. ((d))

    Topographic survey

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Engineering survey

146

In a modified Proctor test, what trend is observed when the compactive effort increases?

  1. ((a))

    OMC Increases and MDD Increases

  2. ((b))

    OMC Decreases and MDD Decreases

  3. ((c))

    OMC Increases and MDD Decreases

  4. ((d))

    OMC Decreases and MDD Increases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OMC Increases and MDD Increases

147

What is the primary benefit of conducting a consolidated drained (CD) triaxial test on soils?

  1. ((a))

    Fast testing

  2. ((b))

    Quick strength estimation

  3. ((c))

    Effective stress parameters

  4. ((d))

    Total stress evaluation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fast testing

148

A line of collimation is:

  1. ((a))

    Line between instrument and staff

  2. ((b))

    Line of sight of the levelling instrument

  3. ((c))

    Chain line in levelling

  4. ((d))

    Horizontal distance line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Line between instrument and staff

149

For a layered soil with equal thicknesses, if horizontal permeability khk_h is 10−310^{-3} cm/s and vertical permeability kvk_v is 10−510^{-5} cm/s, the anisotropy ratio is:

  1. ((a))
    1. 1
  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1
150

The magnetic needle points towards:

  1. ((a))

    True north

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic north

  3. ((c))

    Grid north

  4. ((d))

    Geographic north

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

True north

151

The intrusive equivalent of rhyolite is:

  1. ((a))

    Basalt

  2. ((b))

    Andesite

  3. ((c))

    Granite

  4. ((d))

    Gabbro

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Basalt

152

What is the effect of a bubble not being centered in a spirit level during leveling?

  1. ((a))

    No effect on readings

  2. ((b))

    Causes systematic error in staff readings

  3. ((c))

    Causes random errors in staff readings

  4. ((d))

    Causes errors only if staff is sloped

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No effect on readings

153

For saturated clay under undrained conditions, which factor contributes most to shear strength?

  1. ((a))

    Cohesion

  2. ((b))

    Friction angle

  3. ((c))

    Unit weight

  4. ((d))

    Soil permeability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cohesion

154

Which factor among the following does NOT affect the bearing capacity of a shallow foundation?

  1. ((a))

    Depth of foundation

  2. ((b))

    Size of footing

  3. ((c))

    Soil cohesion

  4. ((d))

    Shape of soil particles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Depth of foundation

155

Which of the following best describes the effect of increasing clay content on permeability?

  1. ((a))

    Permeability increases exponentially

  2. ((b))

    Permeability decreases significantly

  3. ((c))

    Permeability remains unchanged

  4. ((d))

    Permeability varies randomly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Permeability increases exponentially

156

Which of the following is a primary sedimentary structure?

  1. ((a))

    Fault

  2. ((b))

    Joint

  3. ((c))

    Cross-bedding

  4. ((d))

    Fold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fault

157

What effect does increasing the plasticity index have on soil behaviour?

  1. ((a))

    Increases compressibility and decreases permeability

  2. ((b))

    Decreases compressibility and increases permeability

  3. ((c))

    No effect

  4. ((d))

    Increases permeability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases compressibility and decreases permeability

158

What is the major assumption in Terzaghi’s bearing capacity theory?

  1. ((a))

    Soil is layered and anisotropic

  2. ((b))

    Soil is homogeneous and isotropic

  3. ((c))

    Soil has no cohesion

  4. ((d))

    Soil is fully saturated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil is layered and anisotropic

159

Which international agreement aims to reduce global warming?

  1. ((a))

    Geneva Convention

  2. ((b))

    Kyoto Protocol

  3. ((c))

    UNESCO Treaty

  4. ((d))

    NATO Agreement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Geneva Convention

160

Which gas is a major contributor to the greenhouse effect?

  1. ((a))

    Nitrogen

  2. ((b))

    Helium

  3. ((c))

    Carbon dioxide

  4. ((d))

    Hydrogen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nitrogen

161

Waste-to-energy plants are most effective when:

  1. ((a))

    Waste has high moisture content

  2. ((b))

    Waste is already composted

  3. ((c))

    Waste is dry and has high calorific value

  4. ((d))

    Waste is non-combustible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Waste has high moisture content

162

Which of the following is classified as inert waste?

  1. ((a))

    Plastic bottles

  2. ((b))

    Broken concrete

  3. ((c))

    Food scraps

  4. ((d))

    Paper waste

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plastic bottles

163

The main environmental impact of improper e-waste disposal is:

  1. ((a))

    Greenhouse gas emission

  2. ((b))

    Soil contamination with heavy metals

  3. ((c))

    Increase in water flow

  4. ((d))

    Organic decomposition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greenhouse gas emission

164

The Sludge Volume Index (SVI) gives an idea about:

  1. ((a))

    Organic loading

  2. ((b))

    Filtration rate

  3. ((c))

    Settleability of sludge

  4. ((d))

    Oxygen demand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Organic loading

165

Which method is most widely used for designing flexible pavements in India?

  1. ((a))

    Westergaard Method

  2. ((b))

    Benkelman Beam Method

  3. ((c))

    CBR Method

  4. ((d))

    AASHTO Method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Westergaard Method

166

The headway distribution in traffic flow follows:

  1. ((a))

    Negative exponential distribution

  2. ((b))

    Binomial distribution

  3. ((c))

    Normal distribution

  4. ((d))

    Poisson distribution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Negative exponential distribution

167

The selection and design of a beam section are primarily based on which of the following criteria?

  1. ((a))

    Section modulus and shear

  2. ((b))

    Section modulus and deflection

  3. ((c))

    Deflection and shear

  4. ((d))

    Section modulus, deflection and shear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Section modulus and shear

168

Beams are required to be designed and checked against which factors?

  1. ((a))

    Strength, serviceability and stability

  2. ((b))

    Strength and serviceability

  3. ((c))

    Strength and stability

  4. ((d))

    Serviceability and stability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strength, serviceability and stability

169

Which of the following loads is not to be considered in the gantry girder design?

  1. ((a))

    Lateral loads

  2. ((b))

    Gravity loads

  3. ((c))

    Wind loads

  4. ((d))

    Longitudinal loads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lateral loads

170

Determine the tensile strength of a steel member governed by the yielding of the gross cross-section.

Given: Gross area = 1984 mm2\text{mm}^2, Steel grade = Fe 410

  1. ((a))
    1. 91 kN
  2. ((b))
    1. 49 kN
  3. ((c))

    496 kN

  4. ((d))
    1. 44 kN
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 91 kN
171

For the end panel of a plate girder designed without considering tension field action, the aspect ratio should lie within the range of:

  1. ((a))
    1. 67 to 0. 85
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 to 0. 67
  3. ((c))
    1. 6 to 1. 0
  4. ((d))
    1. 85 to 1. 2
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 67 to 0. 85
172

The b/tfb/t_f and d/twd/t_w ratios of rolled section are 9. 8 and 78 respectively, the section will be classified as:

  1. ((a))

    Compact

  2. ((b))

    Semi-compact

  3. ((c))

    Slender

  4. ((d))

    Plastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compact

173

When using 22 mm diameter bolts to attach lacing flats to column sections, what is the minimum required width of the flat?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    54

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    66

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36

174

According to Indian Standard specifications, the initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be NOT less than:

  1. ((a))

    30 minutes

  2. ((b))

    1 hour

  3. ((c))

    24 hours

  4. ((d))

    2 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 minutes

175

According to IS specifications, the initial setting time for Low Heat Portland Cement should not be less than:

  1. ((a))

    30 minutes

  2. ((b))

    60 minutes

  3. ((c))

    24 hours

  4. ((d))

    10 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 minutes

176

The coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete is approximately equal to that of:

  1. ((a))

    Timber

  2. ((b))

    Brass

  3. ((c))

    Steel

  4. ((d))

    Copper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Timber

177

The minimum compressive strength of 53-grade Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) at 28 days is:

  1. ((a))

    43 N/mm2^2

  2. ((b))

    33 N/mm2^2

  3. ((c))

    53 kg/mm2^2

  4. ((d))

    53 N/mm2^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

43 N/mm2^2

178

Which compound in cement clinker is primarily responsible for providing the ultimate (long-term) strength of cement?

  1. ((a))

    2CaOSiO22CaO SiO_2

  2. ((b))

    2CaO2SiO2CaO_2 SiO

  3. ((c))

    3CaOAl2O33CaO Al_2O_3

  4. ((d))

    3CaOSiO23CaO SiO_2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2CaOSiO22CaO SiO_2

179

The assumed standard deviation for M20 grade concrete, used for calculating the target mean strength during mix design as per the IS method, is:

  1. ((a))

    1 N/mm2^2

  2. ((b))
    1. 5 N/mm2^2
  3. ((c))

    4 N/mm2^2

  4. ((d))
    1. 5 N/mm2^2
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 N/mm2^2

180

The best example of a synthetic derivative is __________ .

  1. ((a))

    Benzene sulphonate

  2. ((b))

    Calcium silicate

  3. ((c))

    Benzenes aluminate

  4. ((d))

    Calcium chloride

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Benzene sulphonate

181

Which type of cement is preferred for repair and rehabilitation work where speed of construction and early completion are required due to time limitations?

  1. ((a))

    Sulphate-resisting Portland cement

  2. ((b))

    Rapidly hardening cement

  3. ((c))

    Low-heat Portland cement

  4. ((d))

    White cement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sulphate-resisting Portland cement

182

What is the permissible reduction of water by using superplasticizers and plasticizers, respectively, without compromising workability?

  1. ((a))

    30% and 15%

  2. ((b))

    10% and 15%

  3. ((c))

    12% and 18%

  4. ((d))

    25% and 20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30% and 15%

183

The load factor for dead load in limit state design is:

  1. ((a))
    1. 0
  2. ((b))

    1.2

  3. ((c))

    1.5

  4. ((d))
    1. 0
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0
184

The main function of stirrups in beams is to:

  1. ((a))

    Resist bending

  2. ((b))

    Resist shear

  3. ((c))

    Provide ductility

  4. ((d))

    Reduce deflection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Resist bending

185

A one-way slab is designed with a dead load of 4 KN/m2KN/m^2 and a live load of 3 KN/m2KN/m^2. The factored load (limit state) is:

  1. ((a))

    14 KN/m2KN/m^2

  2. ((b))
    1. 5 KN/m2KN/m^2
  3. ((c))

    12 KN/m2KN/m^2

  4. ((d))

    7 KN/m2KN/m^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14 KN/m2KN/m^2

186

A simply supported beam with a span of 5.05.0 meters has a UDL of 30 KN/m30 \text{ KN/m}. Determine the maximum shear force at the support:

  1. ((a))

    50 KN50 \text{ KN}

  2. ((b))

    75 KN75 \text{ KN}

  3. ((c))

    90 KN90 \text{ KN}

  4. ((d))

    150 KN150 \text{ KN}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 KN50 \text{ KN}

187

The design compressive stress of concrete at the limit state of collapse (flexure) is determined by:

  1. ((a))
    1. 45fck
  2. ((b))
    1. 67fck
  3. ((c))
    1. 40fck
  4. ((d))
    1. 60fck
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 45fck
188

For M20 concrete (τc≈0.36 N/mm2\tau_c \approx 0. 36 \text{ N/mm}^2), a beam of b = 300 mm and d = 500 mm has shear strength Vc (kN) without stirrups approx:

  1. ((a))

    36 KN

  2. ((b))

    54 KN

  3. ((c))

    72 KN

  4. ((d))

    92 KN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36 KN

189

Prestressed sleepers for railways are generally made by:

  1. ((a))

    Post-tensioning

  2. ((b))

    Pre-tensioning

  3. ((c))

    Pre-cast RCC

  4. ((d))

    Composite method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Post-tensioning

190

The cost of work excluding contingencies and supervision is called:

  1. ((a))

    Total cost

  2. ((b))

    Net cost

  3. ((c))

    Direct cost

  4. ((d))

    Prime cost

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Total cost

191

The quantity sheet in a detailed estimate contains:

  1. ((a))

    Rates of items

  2. ((b))

    Unit costs

  3. ((c))

    Only material quantities

  4. ((d))

    Description, unit, quantity, and calculations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rates of items

192

Which method of estimation is most suitable for preliminary project approval?

  1. ((a))

    Plinth area method

  2. ((b))

    Cube rate method

  3. ((c))

    Detailed estimate method

  4. ((d))

    Revised estimate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plinth area method

193

Which component is excluded in calculating market value?

  1. ((a))

    Location

  2. ((b))

    Construction quality

  3. ((c))

    Sentimental value

  4. ((d))

    Age of building

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Location

194

As per IS 800:2007, what is the value of the partial safety factor for material resistance governed by yielding?

  1. ((a))

    1.10

  2. ((b))

    1.25

  3. ((c))
    1. 50
  4. ((d))
    1. 0
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.10

195

What is the effective length of a column with both ends hinged?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 L
  2. ((b))

    1 L

  3. ((c))
    1. 5 L
  4. ((d))

    2 L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 L
196

What is the primary mode of failure in a tension member?

  1. ((a))

    Crushing

  2. ((b))

    Yielding or rupture

  3. ((c))

    Buckling

  4. ((d))

    Bending

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Crushing

197

What is the purpose of intermediate stiffeners in plate girders?

  1. ((a))

    Resist axial load

  2. ((b))

    Prevent web buckling in panels

  3. ((c))

    Strengthen flange

  4. ((d))

    Support lateral bracing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Resist axial load

198

In a plate girder, the moment is resisted primarily by the following factors?

  1. ((a))

    Flanges

  2. ((b))

    Web

  3. ((c))

    Stiffeners

  4. ((d))

    End connections

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flanges

199

What type of stiffener is required at a concentrated load point on a plate girder web?

  1. ((a))

    Lateral stiffener

  2. ((b))

    Bearing stiffener

  3. ((c))

    Intermediate stiffener

  4. ((d))

    Longitudinal stiffener

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lateral stiffener

200

A bolted beam-to-column joint under cyclic loading must be designed considering which of the following factors?

  1. ((a))

    Plastic hinge

  2. ((b))

    Slip

  3. ((c))

    Fatigue and rotation capacity

  4. ((d))

    Bearing failure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plastic hinge

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