Official Paper

SSC JE (Civil Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 05 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

600319, 601402, 620310, 601213

  1. ((a))

    600319

  2. ((b))

    601402

  3. ((c))

    620310

  4. ((d))

    601213

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600319

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

920818, 921223, 921419, 930101

  1. ((a))

    920818

  2. ((b))

    921223

  3. ((c))

    921419

  4. ((d))

    930101

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

920818

3

Complete the analogy. ABD : CEF :: GIK : ?

  1. ((a))

    HJL

  2. ((b))

    JKL

  3. ((c))

    JLQ

  4. ((d))

    ILM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HJL

4

Complete the analogy.

AEIM : BFJN :: CGKO : ?

  1. ((a))

    DHLP

  2. ((b))

    DGJM

  3. ((c))

    DGLN

  4. ((d))

    EIKN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DHLP

5

Find the missing term in the series: D, F, I, M, ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

6

Find the missing term in the series: C, D, F, I, M, ?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

7

Find the missing number in the series: 5, 7, 10, 15, 22, ?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

8

Find the missing number in the series: 4, 11, 30, 67, ?

  1. ((a))

    128

  2. ((b))

    130

  3. ((c))

    125

  4. ((d))

    121

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

128

9

Complete the analogy.

Odometer : Distance :: Thermometer : ?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure

  2. ((b))

    Temperature

  3. ((c))

    Time

  4. ((d))

    Heat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure

10

Complete the analogy.

Obfuscate : Clarity :: Prevaricate : ?

  1. ((a))

    Honesty

  2. ((b))

    Activity

  3. ((c))

    Intention

  4. ((d))

    Invention

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Honesty

11

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Apple, Banana, Litchi, Carrot

  1. ((a))

    Apple

  2. ((b))

    Banana

  3. ((c))

    Litchi

  4. ((d))

    Carrot

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Apple

12

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Copper, Gold, Silver, Plastic

  1. ((a))

    Copper

  2. ((b))

    Gold

  3. ((c))

    Silver

  4. ((d))

    Plastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper

13

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Cabbage, Spinach, Potato, Cauliflower

  1. ((a))

    Cabbage

  2. ((b))

    Potato

  3. ((c))

    Spinach

  4. ((d))

    Cauliflower

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cabbage

14

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified. Moon, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus

  1. ((a))

    Moon

  2. ((b))

    Jupiter

  3. ((c))

    Saturn

  4. ((d))

    Uranus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Moon

15

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Bureaucracy, Opposition, Cabinet, Media

  1. ((a))

    Bureaucracy

  2. ((b))

    Opposition

  3. ((c))

    Cabinet

  4. ((d))

    Media

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bureaucracy

16

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

17, 19, 21, 23

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

17

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 81, 125, 343, 729

  1. ((a))

    81

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    343

  4. ((d))

    729

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

81

18

Four people, P, Q, R, and S, live on floors 1-4. S is immediately below Q; P is not on floor 4; S is exactly two floors above R. Who lives on floor 1?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

19

Five people, P, Q, R, S, and T, live in the houses 21, 23, 25, 27, 29: R lives just above Q; P is the lowest; S lives above R but not the highest; T is the highest.

Who lives at house 27?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

20

In a certain code, ROSE is written as SPTF, then WORD will be coded as:

  1. ((a))

    XPQD

  2. ((b))

    XPRE

  3. ((c))

    XPRF

  4. ((d))

    XPSE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XPQD

21

In a certain code, MONDAY is written as NNOCBX. How is FRIDAY coded?

  1. ((a))

    GSJEBZ

  2. ((b))

    GRIEBZ

  3. ((c))

    GSJEBY

  4. ((d))

    GQJCBX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GSJEBZ

22

City’s air pollution levels drop sharply over a week. What could be the most probable reason?

  1. ((a))

    All factories doubled production

  2. ((b))

    Citizens bought more air purifiers

  3. ((c))

    Rainfall was delayed this season

  4. ((d))

    Strict vehicle movement restrictions were imposed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All factories doubled production

23

Statement: "Foreign tourists will be offered free city tour buses on weekends." Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Foreign tourists can travel without guides

  2. ((b))

    Free tours will attract more tourists

  3. ((c))

    Hotels will provide these tours

  4. ((d))

    Weekdays are more popular than weekends

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Foreign tourists can travel without guides

24

Four travellers, V, W, X, and Y, visited cities on 7th, 9th, 11th, and 13th December. X visited before W; Y visited immediately after V; V did not visit on the 7th; W did not visit on the 13th. Who visited on the 11th?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

25

Five friends - D, R, S, T, and K - went to a city on the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th, and 10th of August. R went on the 4th. K went on the 10th. T did not go on the 2nd. T went before D. S did not go immediately after R. Who went on the 8th?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

26

A colleague shares that they made a small mistake at work. What’s the best first reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Criticise them

  2. ((b))

    Laugh about it

  3. ((c))

    Reassure and help fix it

  4. ((d))

    Ignore it

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Criticise them

27

In a team, one member dominates conversations. How do you ensure others’ contributions?

  1. ((a))

    Gently invite others to share views

  2. ((b))

    Stop the person mid-sentence

  3. ((c))

    Ignore the imbalance

  4. ((d))

    Leave the meeting early

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gently invite others to share views

28

A man spends 13\frac{1}{3} of his salary on rent and 15\frac{1}{5} on food. If the salary is ₹30,000, then how much remains?

  1. ((a))

    ₹14,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹16,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹18,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹20,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹14,000

29

Find the missing term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    41

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

30

If 12 men can reap a field in 8 days working 7 hours/day, then how many hours/day must 16 men work to reap the same field in 6 days?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

31

In a group, one person dominates the conversation about a shared problem.

How do you involve others?

  1. ((a))

    Acknowledge them and invite others’ views

  2. ((b))

    Interrupt and talk over

  3. ((c))

    Wait silently for them to finish

  4. ((d))

    Ask them to stop talking

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acknowledge them and invite others’ views

32

From the letters L A P N E T, which valid word can be made?

  1. ((a))

    PLANET

  2. ((b))

    PLANTE

  3. ((c))

    PANTLE

  4. ((d))

    PALENT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PLANET

33

While shopping, you end up short of money at the counter. What is the best decision?

  1. ((a))

    Argue with the cashier

  2. ((b))

    Leave some items and pay

  3. ((c))

    Ask to take goods on credit

  4. ((d))

    Leave the store angry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Argue with the cashier

34

After introducing flexible hours, productivity stays the same but employee satisfaction rises. What’s your best decision as HR head?

  1. ((a))

    Cancel flexible hours

  2. ((b))

    Retain a flexible schedule

  3. ((c))

    Reduce pay

  4. ((d))

    Make hours stricter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cancel flexible hours

35

A university research grant is given mainly to projects led by senior professors, though junior faculty proposals have equal merit scores. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Senior professors are favoured

  2. ((b))

    Juniors avoid applying

  3. ((c))

    Only seniors can handle grants

  4. ((d))

    Senior research is cheaper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Senior professors are favoured

36

Public transport fares fell 1010% and passenger numbers rose 2525%%. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Lower fares attracted more passengers

  2. ((b))

    More buses were bought

  3. ((c))

    City traffic reduced

  4. ((d))

    Pollution dropped

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower fares attracted more passengers

37

Sales of winter clothing dropped 2020%, though winter was colder than usual. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Prices increased significantly

  2. ((b))

    Quality improved

  3. ((c))

    People had enough clothing from the previous year

  4. ((d))

    Advertising increased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prices increased significantly

38

A store has sales increasing but customer complaints are rising too. What should be inferred?

  1. ((a))

    Sales growth means good service

  2. ((b))

    Complaints are from competitors

  3. ((c))

    Complaints mean problems to fix

  4. ((d))

    Complaints do not matter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sales growth means good service

39

Online store sales rose 2020%, but customer complaints about delivery time doubled. Which is the most valid judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Sales growth causes delivery issues

  2. ((b))

    Complaints are false

  3. ((c))

    Delivery service improved

  4. ((d))

    Deliveries became faster

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sales growth causes delivery issues

40

Calculate [(225÷15)+(196÷14)]×[(100÷5)−(81÷9)][(225 \div 15)+(196 \div 14)] \times [(100 \div 5)-(81 \div 9)].

  1. ((a))

    319

  2. ((b))

    108

  3. ((c))

    210

  4. ((d))

    421

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

319

41

If @ = multiplication, % = subtraction, $ addition, and # = division, then find the value of 8 @ 5 % 6 $ 10 # 2.

  1. ((a))

    38

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38

42

A man points to a woman and says, "Her mother is the wife of my father".

How is the woman related to the man?

  1. ((a))

    Cousin

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Niece

  4. ((d))

    Sibling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cousin

43

Pointing to a woman, Madan said, "Her son is my father’s only grandson".

How is the woman related to Madan?

  1. ((a))

    Sister of Madan

  2. ((b))

    Aunt of Madan

  3. ((c))

    Wife of Madan

  4. ((d))

    Grandmother of Madan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister of Madan

44

A clock shows the time as 3:30. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?

  1. ((a))

    75∘^\circ

  2. ((b))

    90∘^\circ

  3. ((c))

    105∘^\circ

  4. ((d))

    120∘^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75∘^\circ

45

A can complete work in 15 days, and B in 20 days. If both work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work remains?

  1. ((a))

    715\frac{7}{15}

  2. ((b))

    815\frac{8}{15}

  3. ((c))

    1115\frac{11}{15}

  4. ((d))

    1315\frac{13}{15}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

715\frac{7}{15}

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All buses are vehicles.

Some vehicles are cars.

Conclusions:

I. All cars are buses.

II. Some cars are vehicles.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All chairs are wooden.

No wooden thing is cheap.

Conclusions:

I. No chair is cheap.

II. All cheap things are wooden.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

48

Female employees report higher stress and fewer rest breaks than male employees.

What conclusion can be drawn?

  1. ((a))

    Women tolerate stress better

  2. ((b))

    Women get less rest, possible bias

  3. ((c))

    Job roles differ by gender

  4. ((d))

    Women work harder

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women tolerate stress better

49

Someone approaches you during break with a complaint about the cafeteria food.

What’s the socially intelligent reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Listen and suggest who to contact

  2. ((b))

    Tell them to stop complaining

  3. ((c))

    Say "It’s not my problem"

  4. ((d))

    Walk away

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Listen and suggest who to contact

50

Evaluate (120÷4−12)×(15−9)(120 \div 4 - 12) \times (15 - 9).

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    108

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

How does the World Happiness Report collect data?

  1. ((a))

    Through surveys conducted by Gallup

  2. ((b))

    Through economic indicators only

  3. ((c))

    Through life expectancy data alone

  4. ((d))

    Through perception of corruption surveys

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Through surveys conducted by Gallup

52

How do wildfires heavily impact the Air Quality Index (AQI) levels?

  1. ((a))

    Primarily by increasing SO2SO_2 concentrations.

  2. ((b))

    Primarily by increasing ground-level ozone.

  3. ((c))

    Primarily by increasing particulate matter concentrations.

  4. ((d))

    Wildfires rarely affect the Air Quality Index (AQI) levels.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Primarily by increasing SO2SO_2 concentrations.

53

What is the objective of launching satellites like Cartosat?

  1. ((a))

    Communication

  2. ((b))

    Space exploration

  3. ((c))

    Earth surface imaging

  4. ((d))

    Solar studies

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Communication

54

Which ISRO facility is used for satellite assembly, integration and testing?

  1. ((a))

    URSC, Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    ISTRAC, Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    VSSC, Thiruvananthapuram

  4. ((d))

    SHAR, Sriharikota

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

URSC, Bengaluru

55

Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    Article 124

  2. ((b))

    Article 126

  3. ((c))

    Article 125

  4. ((d))

    Article 123

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 124

56

What is the aim of IN-SPACe?

  1. ((a))

    Regulating foreign satellites over India

  2. ((b))

    Launching defense satellites

  3. ((c))

    Promoting private participation in the space sector

  4. ((d))

    Training Indian astronauts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regulating foreign satellites over India

57

The Chief Justice of India is appointed by :

  1. ((a))

    The President

  2. ((b))

    The Lok Sabha

  3. ((c))

    The Prime Minister

  4. ((d))

    The Parliament

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The President

58

The Palk Strait separates which two South Asian countries?

  1. ((a))

    India and Pakistan

  2. ((b))

    India and Sri Lanka

  3. ((c))

    Bangladesh and Myanmar

  4. ((d))

    Maldives and India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India and Pakistan

59

Who proposed the concept of QUAD?

  1. ((a))

    Japanese Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe

  2. ((b))

    Australian Prime Minister, John Howard

  3. ((c))

    Indian Prime Minister, Manmohan Singh

  4. ((d))

    US President, George W. Bush

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Japanese Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe

60

The Quad is generally seen as a counter to the growing influence of which country?

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    Brazil

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Russia

61

Chabahar Port is part of which international transport corridor?

  1. ((a))

    INSTC (The International North-South Transport Corridor)

  2. ((b))

    The belt and road initiative

  3. ((c))

    The Trans-Siberian Railway

  4. ((d))

    The Pan-American Highway

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

INSTC (The International North-South Transport Corridor)

62

Which government policy aims to promote the manufacturing of goods in India and attract foreign investment in the manufacturing sector?

  1. ((a))

    Digital India

  2. ((b))

    Make in India

  3. ((c))

    Smart Cities Mission

  4. ((d))

    National Health Policy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Digital India

63

Which government initiative aims to conserve and rejuvenate major rivers in the country?

  1. ((a))

    Namami Gange Programme

  2. ((b))

    National Clean Air Programme

  3. ((c))

    Jal Jeevan Mission

  4. ((d))

    Swachh Bharat Mission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Namami Gange Programme

64

The "Competition Commission of India (CCI)" is a statutory body established for a specific purpose. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the CCI?

  1. ((a))

    To promote and regulate foreign trade agreements.

  2. ((b))

    To ensure fair competition in the market and prevent anti-competitive practices.

  3. ((c))

    To oversee the functioning of public sector banks and financial institutions.

  4. ((d))

    To set standards for product quality and consumer safety.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To promote and regulate foreign trade agreements.

65

What is the name of India’s top domestic football competition for states and government institutions?

  1. ((a))

    Durand Cup

  2. ((b))

    Ranji Trophy

  3. ((c))

    Santosh Trophy

  4. ((d))

    I-League

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Durand Cup

66

Which city is Eden Gardens, a famous cricket ground, located in?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai

67

The Guru Gobind Singh Stadium, known for various sports, is located in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Jalandhar

  2. ((b))

    Amritsar

  3. ((c))

    Ludhiana

  4. ((d))

    Patiala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jalandhar

68

Which Indian golfer was the first to win a European Tour title?

  1. ((a))

    Jeev Milkha Singh

  2. ((b))

    Anirban Lahiri

  3. ((c))

    Arjun Atwal

  4. ((d))

    Shiv Kapur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jeev Milkha Singh

69

Which cricketing competition is named after a legendary Indian captain and focuses on the one-day format?

  1. ((a))

    Ranji Trophy

  2. ((b))

    Duleep Trophy

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Hazare Trophy

  4. ((d))

    Irani Cup

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ranji Trophy

70

The first Pro Kabaddi League final was played in Mumbai. Which specific indoor stadium hosted the event?

  1. ((a))

    NSCI Dome

  2. ((b))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Indoor Stadium

  3. ((c))

    Brabourne Stadium Indoor Facility

  4. ((d))

    Andheri Sports Complex Indoor Arena

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NSCI Dome

71

The first IPL final was hosted in which stadium?

  1. ((a))

    Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    Chinnaswamy Stadium, Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    DY Patil Stadium, Navi Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Eden Gardens, Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai

72

The highest-ever individual score in an ODI by an Indian was achieved in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai

73

Which of the following is commonly found at the top of a Buddhist stupa, symbolizing enlightenment?

  1. ((a))

    Kalasha

  2. ((b))

    Amalaka

  3. ((c))

    Mandapa

  4. ((d))

    Harmika with a Chhatra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalasha

74

The Jagannath Temple at Puri follows which architectural style?

  1. ((a))

    Dravidian

  2. ((b))

    Indo-Saracenic

  3. ((c))

    Vesara

  4. ((d))

    Nagara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dravidian

75

Which of the following features is the most distinct in the Vesara style of temple architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Tall gopurams

  2. ((b))

    Fusion of Dravidian and Nagara styles

  3. ((c))

    Use of white marble

  4. ((d))

    Curvilinear shikhara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tall gopurams

76

Which of these authors won the International Booker Prize for a translated work in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  2. ((b))

    Arundhati Roy

  3. ((c))

    Geetanjali Shree

  4. ((d))

    Anuradha Roy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jhumpa Lahiri

77

Which Booker Prize-winning novel by Hilary Mantel is centered on the rise of Thomas Cromwell in Henry VIII’s court?

  1. ((a))

    Bring Up the Bodies

  2. ((b))

    Wolf Hall

  3. ((c))

    The Mirror and the Light

  4. ((d))

    The Children’s Book

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bring Up the Bodies

78

Which Indian woman athlete won the silver medal in 100m hurdles at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. ((a))

    Jyothi Yarraji

  2. ((b))

    Hima Das

  3. ((c))

    Dutee Chand

  4. ((d))

    Anju Bobby George

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jyothi Yarraji

79

What does "En Passant" refer to in chess?

  1. ((a))

    King side castling

  2. ((b))

    Capturing a pawn that moved two squares

  3. ((c))

    Double check

  4. ((d))

    Forced draw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

King side castling

80

When was the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award) first awarded?

  1. ((a))

    1985-86

  2. ((b))

    1991-92

  3. ((c))

    1998-99

  4. ((d))

    2010-11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1985-86

81

In which Indian state is the "Sitalsasthi" festival celebrated to mark the divine marriage of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

82

What is the "Pooram" festival in Kerala famous for?

  1. ((a))

    Fire walking

  2. ((b))

    Decorated elephants and fireworks

  3. ((c))

    Traditional food fairs

  4. ((d))

    Boat races

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fire walking

83

The primary objective of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam is :

  1. ((a))

    To abolish evidence in trials

  2. ((b))

    To modernize and digitize rules of evidence

  3. ((c))

    To increase court fees

  4. ((d))

    To promote oral evidence only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To abolish evidence in trials

84

What is one major benefit expected from implementing the Uniform Civil Code across India?

  1. ((a))

    Legal monopoly of a single religion

  2. ((b))

    Equal rights for all citizens in personal matters

  3. ((c))

    Abolition of the judiciary

  4. ((d))

    Increased religious divisions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Legal monopoly of a single religion

85

What is considered digital harassment as per the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 ?

  1. ((a))

    Sending unsolicited emails about new services

  2. ((b))

    Downloading software from unofficial websites

  3. ((c))

    Using public Wi-Fi for browsing

  4. ((d))

    Sending threatening or obscene messages to a person over the internet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sending unsolicited emails about new services

86

Which state became the first in India to implement the ’Right to Health’ Act?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

87

Who was appointed as the Director General (DG) of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Rajesh Kumar Singh

  2. ((b))

    Mangi Lal Jat

  3. ((c))

    Trilochan Mohapatra

  4. ((d))

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajesh Kumar Singh

88

Who is appointed as a full-time member of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) in April 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Abhishek Singh

  2. ((b))

    Poonam Gupta

  3. ((c))

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

  4. ((d))

    Ajay Seth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abhishek Singh

89

Which is the earliest recorded evidence of dance poses in ancient India?

  1. ((a))

    The Vedas

  2. ((b))

    Bronze statuette from Mohenjodaro

  3. ((c))

    Inscriptions from the Maurya period

  4. ((d))

    Temples of South India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Vedas

90

Who is credited with the conception of the Rasleela dance form in Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    King Churachand Singh

  2. ((b))

    King Ranjit Singh

  3. ((c))

    Maharaja Koireng Singh

  4. ((d))

    King Bhagyachandra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

King Churachand Singh

91

Which 12th^{\text{th}}-century poem by Jayadeva significantly influenced the Odissi dance style?

  1. ((a))

    Ashtapadi

  2. ((b))

    Gita Govinda

  3. ((c))

    Mahabharata

  4. ((d))

    Ramayana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ashtapadi

92

Which of the following statements is/are related to the benefits of Agroforestry in India?

  1. Increment in soil nutrients through the addition and decomposition of litterfall.
  2. Reduction in the incidence of total crop failure, common to single-cropping or monoculture systems.
  3. Improvement in nutrition and health due to increased quality and diversity of food outputs.
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

93

Temperature is a critical factor in growing this crop as it has no tolerance for frost. Yet, after the plant matures, slightly lower temperatures help increase the amount of sugar in it. Which one of the following crops is described in the passage mentioned above?

  1. ((a))

    Tomatoes

  2. ((b))

    Spinach

  3. ((c))

    Sugarcane

  4. ((d))

    Mustard

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tomatoes

94

Which of the following is a renowned female vocalist from the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana?

  1. ((a))

    Girija Devi

  2. ((b))

    Ashwini Bhide-Deshpande

  3. ((c))

    Anjanibai Malpekar

  4. ((d))

    Kaushiki Chakraborty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Girija Devi

95

What does the term ’vadi’ refer to in the context of a raga?

  1. ((a))

    The rhythm of the raga

  2. ((b))

    The most important note in a raga

  3. ((c))

    The composition based on a raga

  4. ((d))

    The melodic ornamentation used in a raga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The rhythm of the raga

96

In the Natya Shastra, which category of instruments includes the drum and percussion instruments?

  1. ((a))

    Tata Vadya

  2. ((b))

    Sushira Vadya

  3. ((c))

    Avanaddha Vadya

  4. ((d))

    Ghana Vadya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tata Vadya

97

Which among the following states has the smallest gap in percentage rates between male and female literacy as per 2011 census?

  1. ((a))

    Mizoram

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Meghalaya

  4. ((d))

    Nagaland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mizoram

98

According to the Census (2011), which state has the highest number of ST population in India?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Madhya Pradesh

99

’Sorrow of Bengal’ is another name of which of the following rivers?

  1. ((a))

    The Koshi

  2. ((b))

    The Mayurakhi

  3. ((c))

    The Damodar

  4. ((d))

    The Ajay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Koshi

100

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines "farm forestry"?

  1. ((a))

    Planting ecologically friendly crops on farms to protect soil moisture.

  2. ((b))

    Protecting soil moisture by covering it with farm residue.

  3. ((c))

    Planting tree belts for commercial purposes on the margins of agricultural fields.

  4. ((d))

    Promoting eco-friendly techniques in exploitation of forest resource.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Planting ecologically friendly crops on farms to protect soil moisture.

General Engineering (100 questions)

101

Pressure head is given by pressure divided by:

  1. ((a))

    Density x Gravity

  2. ((b))

    Density / Gravity

  3. ((c))

    Gravity / Density

  4. ((d))

    Pressure / Density

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Density x Gravity

102

The total energy line lies above hydraulic gradient line by:

  1. ((a))

    Velocity head

  2. ((b))

    Pressure head

  3. ((c))

    Datum head

  4. ((d))

    Total head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Velocity head

103

Discharge of a centrifugal pump increases with:

  1. ((a))

    Increase in head

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in speed

  3. ((c))

    Increase in speed

  4. ((d))

    Use of small impeller

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in head

104

Which fluid has the highest viscosity?

  1. ((a))

    Water

  2. ((b))

    Air

  3. ((c))

    Honey

  4. ((d))

    Petrol

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water

105

For most efficient trapezoidal channel section, the top width is equals to:

  1. ((a))

    Half the length of sloping side

  2. ((b))

    Length of sloping side

  3. ((c))

    Twice the length of sloping side

  4. ((d))

    Thrice the length of sloping side

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Half the length of sloping side

106

Hydraulic jump is characterized by:

  1. ((a))

    Sudden increase in velocity

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in depth

  3. ((c))

    Increase in energy

  4. ((d))

    Sudden increase in depth and loss of energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sudden increase in velocity

107

Which of the following best explains why the center of pressure lies below the centroid for a vertical submerged surface?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure is uniform throughout the surface

  2. ((b))

    Pressure increases with depth

  3. ((c))

    Fluid density decreases with depth

  4. ((d))

    Velocity of fluid increases with depth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure is uniform throughout the surface

108

In laminar flow through a circular pipe, the kinetic energy correction factor is:

  1. ((a))

    Less than 11

  2. ((b))

    Between 11 and 1.51.5

  3. ((c))

    Exactly 22

  4. ((d))

    Greater than 22

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Less than 11

109

Flow net is a graphical representation of:

  1. ((a))

    Velocity field only

  2. ((b))

    Streamlines and equipotential lines

  3. ((c))

    Pressure gradient

  4. ((d))

    Shear force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Velocity field only

110

The flow is said to be critical when the Froude number is:

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    <1< 1

  3. ((c))

    =1= 1

  4. ((d))

    >1> 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

111

When a flow net is drawn, the quantity of flow between two adjacent streamlines is:

  1. ((a))

    Constant

  2. ((b))

    Varies linearly

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    Infinite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constant

112

For maximum transmission of power through a pipe, head lost due to friction should be:

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Total available head

  3. ((c))

    One-third of the total head

  4. ((d))

    Two-thirds of the total head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

113

A flow is said to be irrotational if:

  1. ((a))

    Flow velocity is zero

  2. ((b))

    Vorticity is zero

  3. ((c))

    Flow is unsteady

  4. ((d))

    Velocity gradient is zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flow velocity is zero

114

The value of the bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is :

  1. ((a))

    Maximum

  2. ((b))

    Minimum

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    Depends on loading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximum

115

A short column fails due to:

  1. ((a))

    Bending

  2. ((b))

    Buckling

  3. ((c))

    Torsion

  4. ((d))

    Direct compression

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bending

116

In the conjugate beam method, what represents the slope in the real beam?

  1. ((a))

    Shear force in conjugate beam

  2. ((b))

    Moment in conjugate beam

  3. ((c))

    Deflection in conjugate beam

  4. ((d))

    Load in real beam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shear force in conjugate beam

117

In the Izod impact test, how is the specimen supported?

  1. ((a))

    Vertical cantilever

  2. ((b))

    Horizontal cantilever

  3. ((c))

    Simply supported

  4. ((d))

    Near to hammer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vertical cantilever

118

By pure bending of a beam, we mean that:

(i) Shear force in the beam is uniform throughout

(ii) Bending moment in the beam is uniform throughout

(iii) Shear force in the beam is zero

(iv) Bending moment in the beam is zero

The correct statements are:

  1. ((a))

    (i) & (ii)

  2. ((b))

    (ii) & (iii)

  3. ((c))

    (iii) & (iv)

  4. ((d))

    (i) & (v)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(i) & (ii)

119

The static indeterminacy of a propped cantilever beam is:

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

120

Net irrigation requirement (NIR) is:

  1. ((a))

    CWR - Effective rainfall

  2. ((b))

    Effective rainfall + conveyance losses

  3. ((c))

    NIR = WR ×\times application efficiency

  4. ((d))

    CWR + runoff losses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CWR - Effective rainfall

121

The Muskingum method is used for:

  1. ((a))

    Sediment transport modeling

  2. ((b))

    Evapotranspiration calculation

  3. ((c))

    Flood routing in rivers

  4. ((d))

    Rainfall-runoff computation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sediment transport modeling

122

If the canal capacity is 20 m3/sm^3/s and velocity is 1. 5 m/sm/s, find the required cross-sectional area.

  1. ((a))

    15 m2m^2

  2. ((b))
    1. 33 m2m^2
  3. ((c))

    20 m2m^2

  4. ((d))

    10 m2m^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 m2m^2

123

The thickness of the sub-base course in a flexible pavement is primarily determined by:

  1. ((a))

    Traffic volume

  2. ((b))

    Subgrade strength

  3. ((c))

    Climate conditions

  4. ((d))

    Aesthetic considerations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Traffic volume

124

In the context of rigid pavement design, the modulus of subgrade reaction (k)(k) is typically determined using which method?

  1. ((a))

    Plate load test

  2. ((b))

    Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

  3. ((c))

    Standard Proctor Test

  4. ((d))

    California Bearing Ratio Test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plate load test

125

A 20 m chain contains how many links?

  1. ((a))

    66

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66

126

Backsight is the reading taken on a staff held at a:

  1. ((a))

    Unknown point

  2. ((b))

    Benchmark or known point

  3. ((c))

    Arbitrary point

  4. ((d))

    Mid-point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unknown point

127

Magnetic declination is the angle between:

  1. ((a))

    True meridian and magnetic meridian

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic meridian and grid meridian

  3. ((c))

    True north and azimuth

  4. ((d))

    Grid north and compass north

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

True meridian and magnetic meridian

128

The resection method is used to:

  1. ((a))

    Locate a station whose position is known

  2. ((b))

    Orient the plane table

  3. ((c))

    Locate an unknown point

  4. ((d))

    Plot traverses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Locate a station whose position is known

129

Which type of fault is typically formed due to tensile (extensional) stress in the Earth’s crust?

  1. ((a))

    Reverse fault

  2. ((b))

    Strike-slip fault

  3. ((c))

    Normal fault

  4. ((d))

    Oblique fault

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reverse fault

130

The multiplying constant in tacheometry is:

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))
    1. 5
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

131

The formula for horizontal distance in stadia surveying is:

  1. ((a))

    D = k ×\times s + C

  2. ((b))

    D = k / s + C

  3. ((c))

    D = s ×\times C + k

  4. ((d))

    D = C ×\times s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D = k ×\times s + C

132

Tacheometric surveying is preferred over chain surveying when:

  1. ((a))

    Terrain is flat

  2. ((b))

    Terrain is rough and hilly

  3. ((c))

    For small areas

  4. ((d))

    For cadastral surveys

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Terrain is flat

133

The combined correction for curvature and refraction is approximately:

  1. ((a))

    -0.067×\times(d^2\) meters

  2. ((b))

    +0.067×\times(d^2\) meters

  3. ((c))

    -0.078×\times(d^2\) meters

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-0.067×\times(d^2\) meters

134

If the included angles in a traverse do not satisfy the angle sum condition, the error is called:

  1. ((a))

    Closing error in angles

  2. ((b))

    Local attraction

  3. ((c))

    Systematic error

  4. ((d))

    Random error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Closing error in angles

135

Which test is generally used for the quick determination of the undrained shear strength of cohesive soils?

  1. ((a))

    Direct shear test

  2. ((b))

    Unconfined compression test

  3. ((c))

    Consolidated drained triaxial test

  4. ((d))

    Permeability test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Direct shear test

136

What is the effect of increasing grain size on soil permeability?

  1. ((a))

    Decreases permeability

  2. ((b))

    Increases permeability

  3. ((c))

    No effect

  4. ((d))

    Permeability fluctuates irregularly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decreases permeability

137

Which mineral is commonly the most abundant constituent of soils?

  1. ((a))

    Quartz

  2. ((b))

    Feldspar

  3. ((c))

    Mica

  4. ((d))

    Calcite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quartz

138

Among the following, which soil type generally has the lowest permeability?

  1. ((a))

    Gravel

  2. ((b))

    Sand

  3. ((c))

    Silt

  4. ((d))

    Clay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gravel

139

What is the major challenge in urban water management?

  1. ((a))

    Low population

  2. ((b))

    Proper rainfall

  3. ((c))

    High demand and poor infrastructure

  4. ((d))

    Desertification

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low population

140

Soil consolidation refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase in soil volume due to water uptake

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in soil volume due to expulsion of pore water under load

  3. ((c))

    Change in soil particle size

  4. ((d))

    Chemical hardening

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in soil volume due to water uptake

141

What is the role of wetlands in water management?

  1. ((a))

    Cause pollution

  2. ((b))

    Act as natural filters

  3. ((c))

    Reduce biodiversity

  4. ((d))

    Increase salinity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cause pollution

142

Identify the sedimentary rock from the following,

  1. ((a))

    Shale

  2. ((b))

    Marble

  3. ((c))

    Gabbro

  4. ((d))

    Quartzite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shale

143

Which soil classification system uses the term "fines" for particles smaller than 0.0750.075 mm?

  1. ((a))

    USDA system

  2. ((b))

    USCS

  3. ((c))

    AASHTO system

  4. ((d))

    IS Soil Classification

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

USDA system

144

Which soil test directly measures the particle size distribution?

  1. ((a))

    Atterberg limits test

  2. ((b))

    Sieve analysis

  3. ((c))

    Proctor compaction test

  4. ((d))

    Triaxial test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Atterberg limits test

145

What is the function of a check dam?

  1. ((a))

    Store drinking water

  2. ((b))

    Filter wastewater

  3. ((c))

    Reduce water flow and increase groundwater recharge

  4. ((d))

    Measure rainfall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Store drinking water

146

Which practice is environmentally best for managing organic waste?

  1. ((a))

    Burning

  2. ((b))

    Landfilling

  3. ((c))

    Composting

  4. ((d))

    Dumping in rivers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Burning

147

What does SCADA stand for in water distribution?

  1. ((a))

    Secure Control and Data Access

  2. ((b))

    Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

  3. ((c))

    Safe Canal and Drainage Authority

  4. ((d))

    State Control and Dam Authority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Secure Control and Data Access

148

Which of the following solid waste management techniques reduces volume but can release pollutants?

  1. ((a))

    Composting

  2. ((b))

    Recycling

  3. ((c))

    Incineration

  4. ((d))

    Landfilling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Composting

149

The following pollutants can cause methemoglobinemia in infants?

  1. ((a))

    Lead

  2. ((b))

    Nitrates

  3. ((c))

    Fluorides

  4. ((d))

    Sulphates

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lead

150

The most common cause of algal bloom in freshwater bodies is:

  1. ((a))

    Excess calcium

  2. ((b))

    Low dissolved oxygen

  3. ((c))

    High nitrate and phosphate levels

  4. ((d))

    Acid rain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Excess calcium

151

The Montreal Protocol is associated with:

  1. ((a))

    Air quality improvement

  2. ((b))

    Reduction of carbon emissions

  3. ((c))

    Ozone layer protection

  4. ((d))

    Control of water pollution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air quality improvement

152

Estimate water demand (in m3m^3/day) for a town with a population of 90,000 using the 135 LPCD standard.

  1. ((a))

    10,800 m3m^3/day

  2. ((b))

    12,150 m3m^3/day

  3. ((c))

    11,200 m3m^3/day

  4. ((d))

    9,600 m3m^3/day

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10,800 m3m^3/day

153

If chlorine demand is 15 mg/L\text{mg/L} and residual chlorine required is 5 mg/L\text{mg/L}, what is the dosage?

  1. ((a))

    15 mg/L\text{mg/L}

  2. ((b))

    20 mg/L\text{mg/L}

  3. ((c))

    10 mg/L\text{mg/L}

  4. ((d))

    18 mg/L\text{mg/L}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 mg/L\text{mg/L}

154

If OSD = 450 m450 \text{ m}, what is the recommended minimum overtaking zone length?

  1. ((a))

    1350  m\text{ m}

  2. ((b))

    1450  m\text{ m}

  3. ((c))

    1550  m\text{ m}

  4. ((d))

    1650  m\text{ m}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1350  m\text{ m}

155

What is the capacity of a traffic lane, if velocity, V=60km/hV = 60 km/h, and average spacing S=30mS = 30 m?

  1. ((a))

    1600 veh/hr

  2. ((b))

    2000 veh/hr

  3. ((c))

    2200 veh/hr

  4. ((d))

    2500 veh/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1600 veh/hr

156

The primary assumption in the limit state approach of RCC design is:

  1. ((a))

    Plane sections remain plane after bending

  2. ((b))

    Concrete is elastic in tension

  3. ((c))

    Steel has no ductility

  4. ((d))

    Concrete has equal tensile and compressive strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plane sections remain plane after bending

157

For M25 concrete, the modulus of elasticity as per IS 456 can be estimated by:

  1. ((a))

    5000fck5000 \sqrt{fck}

  2. ((b))

    500fck500 \sqrt{fck}

  3. ((c))

    5700fck5700 \sqrt{fck}

  4. ((d))

    2000fck2000 \sqrt{fck}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5000fck5000 \sqrt{fck}

158

The modular ratiom=280/(3σ\sigmacbc) is used in:

  1. ((a))

    Working stress method

  2. ((b))

    Limit state method

  3. ((c))

    Ultimate load methods

  4. ((d))

    All methods

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Working stress method

159

For a reinforced concrete section with an effective depth of d=500 mmd = 500 \text{ mm} and using Fe415\text{Fe}415 steel, what is the maximum depth of the neutral axis, Xu,maxX_{u, max}, as per IS 456:2000?

  1. ((a))

    230 mm

  2. ((b))

    240 mm

  3. ((c))

    210 mm

  4. ((d))

    205 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

230 mm

160

A two-way slab panel (short span = 4 m, long span = 5 m) is simply supported and subjected to factored load 12 kN/m2^2. Using moment coefficient 0. 086 for short span, compute design moment per m width in short span.

  1. ((a))
    1. 7 kNm/m
  2. ((b))
    1. 7 kNm/m
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 kNm/m
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 kNm/m
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 7 kNm/m
161

A sinking fund is:

  1. ((a))

    Maintenance cost

  2. ((b))

    Reserve for future replacement

  3. ((c))

    Repairing cost

  4. ((d))

    Contractor profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maintenance cost

162

The formula for depreciation under the Straight line Method is:

  1. ((a))

    Depreciation = Total costLife\frac{\text{Total cost}}{\text{Life}}

  2. ((b))

    Depreciation = (Cost - Salvage)Life\frac{\text{(Cost - Salvage)}}{\text{Life}}

  3. ((c))

    Depreciation = LifeCost\frac{\text{Life}}{\text{Cost}}

  4. ((d))

    Depreciation = Cost ×\times Life

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Depreciation = Total costLife\frac{\text{Total cost}}{\text{Life}}

163

Which estimate includes complete specifications of items?

  1. ((a))

    Preliminary estimate

  2. ((b))

    Abstract estimate

  3. ((c))

    Detailed estimate

  4. ((d))

    Lump sum estimate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Preliminary estimate

164

Which unit is used to measure RCC work in estimation?

  1. ((a))

    Square metre

  2. ((b))

    Cubic metre

  3. ((c))

    Running metre

  4. ((d))

    Kilogram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Square metre

165

The cost of centering and shuttering is usually included in:

  1. ((a))

    Labour charges only

  2. ((b))

    Concrete rate

  3. ((c))

    Formwork item

  4. ((d))

    Contractor profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Labour charges only

166

Which of the following is NOT required for preparing an approximate estimate?

  1. ((a))

    Soil test report

  2. ((b))

    Plinth area

  3. ((c))

    Standard rate

  4. ((d))

    Type of construction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil test report

167

The estimation method using built-up area multiplied by rate is called:

  1. ((a))

    Cube rate method

  2. ((b))

    Unit base method

  3. ((c))

    Plinth area method

  4. ((d))

    Carpet area method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cube rate method

168

The deduction in plastering area for an opening less than 0. 5 m2\text{m}^2 is:

  1. ((a))

    Full deduction

  2. ((b))

    No deduction

  3. ((c))

    Half deduction

  4. ((d))

    Double deduction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Full deduction

169

Approximately how many bricks are required for 15 cubic meters of brickwork?

  1. ((a))

    6000

  2. ((b))

    6500

  3. ((c))

    7000

  4. ((d))

    7500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6000

170

For a sandy soil of k=1.5×10−3k = 1. 5 \times 10^{-3} cm/s, what is the discharge velocity under 2 m head over 1 m length?

  1. ((a))

    3×10−13 \times 10^{-1} cm/s

  2. ((b))

    3×10−23 \times 10^{-2} cm/s

  3. ((c))

    3×10−33 \times 10^{-3} cm/s

  4. ((d))

    3×10−43 \times 10^{-4} cm/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3×10−13 \times 10^{-1} cm/s

171

In SPT, the N-value increases with :

  1. ((a))

    Depth and soil density

  2. ((b))

    Plasticity only

  3. ((c))

    Moisture content only

  4. ((d))

    Shear strength only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Depth and soil density

172

The mid-season crop coefficient (Kc mid\text{Kc mid}) is highest for :

  1. ((a))

    Wheat

  2. ((b))

    Cotton

  3. ((c))

    Paddy

  4. ((d))

    Groundnut

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wheat

173

The main drawback of perennial irrigation is :

  1. ((a))

    Soil salinity

  2. ((b))

    Low cropping intensity

  3. ((c))

    High rainfall dependence

  4. ((d))

    Flood losses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soil salinity

174

Return period TT in flood frequency is defined as :

  1. ((a))

    T=1/exceedance probabilityT = 1/\text{exceedance probability}

  2. ((b))

    T=1/non-exceedance probabilityT = 1/\text{non-exceedance probability}

  3. ((c))

    T=1/mean rainfallT = 1/\text{mean rainfall}

  4. ((d))

    T=log⁡(peak discharge)T = \log(\text{peak discharge})

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T=1/exceedance probabilityT = 1/\text{exceedance probability}

175

Pressure-compensating emitters in drip irrigation are designed to :

  1. ((a))

    Reduce clogging

  2. ((b))

    Deliver constant discharge over pressure range

  3. ((c))

    Increase irrigation frequency

  4. ((d))

    Optimize fertigation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduce clogging

176

Lateral friction loss (hf)(h_f) in drip laterals is calculated using :

  1. ((a))

    Darcy-Weisbach equation

  2. ((b))

    Manning’s equation

  3. ((c))

    Hazen-Williams equation

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Darcy-Weisbach equation

177

The unit hydrograph for a watershed with significant storage is :

  1. ((a))

    Directly proportional to rainfall

  2. ((b))

    Delayed and attenuated

  3. ((c))

    Shorter in duration

  4. ((d))

    Same as small watershed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Directly proportional to rainfall

178

Glass is classified as a :

  1. ((a))

    Crystalline material

  2. ((b))

    Amorphous solid

  3. ((c))

    Polycrystalline

  4. ((d))

    Composite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Crystalline material

179

Which artificial construction material is classified as a thermosetting polymer?

  1. ((a))

    PVC

  2. ((b))

    Epoxy resin

  3. ((c))

    Polyethylene

  4. ((d))

    Polystyrene

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PVC

180

Which natural material is chemically classified as metamorphic rock?

  1. ((a))

    Marble

  2. ((b))

    Granite

  3. ((c))

    Basalt

  4. ((d))

    Limestone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marble

181

The grade of wood tar used for grouting purposes is.

  1. ((a))

    RT-1

  2. ((b))

    RT-2

  3. ((c))

    RT-4

  4. ((d))

    RT-5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RT-1

182

The major drawback of natural timber as a construction material is :

  1. ((a))

    High compressive strength

  2. ((b))

    Anisotropy

  3. ((c))

    Elasticity

  4. ((d))

    Durability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High compressive strength

183

Which additive improves the fire resistance of gypsum plaster?

  1. ((a))

    Alum

  2. ((b))

    Borax

  3. ((c))

    Fly ash

  4. ((d))

    Silica fume

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alum

184

Argillaceous rocks have their main constituent as.

  1. ((a))

    carbonates of lime

  2. ((b))

    clay or alumina

  3. ((c))

    silica or sand

  4. ((d))

    slate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

carbonates of lime

185

The most powerful explosive used in blasting is.

  1. ((a))

    blasting powder

  2. ((b))

    dynamite

  3. ((c))

    gun cotton

  4. ((d))

    cordite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

blasting powder

186

A first class brick should have a minimum crushing strength of.

  1. ((a))

    7MN/m2\text{m}^2

  2. ((b))
    1. 5MN/m2\text{m}^2
  3. ((c))
    1. 5MN/m2\text{m}^2
  4. ((d))

    14MN/m2\text{m}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7MN/m2\text{m}^2

187

The deterioration of marble in urban environments is mainly due to :

  1. ((a))

    Abrasion by dust

  2. ((b))

    Freezing and thawing

  3. ((c))

    Sulfation from SO2SO_2 in atmosphere

  4. ((d))

    Thermal expansion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abrasion by dust

188

Gypsum plaster cannot be used in damp locations because :

  1. ((a))

    It expands in presence of heat

  2. ((b))

    It loses strength on prolonged exposure to moisture

  3. ((c))

    It hardens too quickly

  4. ((d))

    It undergoes carbonation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It expands in presence of heat

189

The steel mould used for slump test is in the form of a __________ .

  1. ((a))

    cube

  2. ((b))

    cylinder

  3. ((c))

    frustrum of a cone

  4. ((d))

    square

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

cube

190

The test intended to study the resistance of aggregates to weathering action is _______ .

  1. ((a))

    Abrasion test

  2. ((b))

    Crushing test

  3. ((c))

    Soundness test

  4. ((d))

    Impact test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abrasion test

191

For Ordinary Portland Cement, the maximum expansion by Le Chatelier’s method should not exceed ______.

  1. ((a))

    2mm

  2. ((b))

    5mm

  3. ((c))

    8mm

  4. ((d))

    10mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2mm

192

In preliminary test, the concrete is placed in the mould in ____ layers of equal volume.

  1. ((a))

    two

  2. ((b))

    three

  3. ((c))

    four

  4. ((d))

    five

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

two

193

If the fineness modulus of sand is 2.52.5, it is graded as _________.

  1. ((a))

    very coarse sand

  2. ((b))

    fine sand

  3. ((c))

    coarse sand

  4. ((d))

    medium sand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

very coarse sand

194

The cyclopean aggregate has a size more than __________ .

  1. ((a))
    1. 75mm
  2. ((b))

    20mm

  3. ((c))

    55mm

  4. ((d))

    75mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 75mm
195

A twisted bar has about ______ more yield stress than an ordinary mild steel bar.

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10%

196

In an over-reinforced section ________.

  1. ((a))

    steel reinforcement is not fully stressed to its permissible value

  2. ((b))

    concrete is not fully stressed to its permissible value

  3. ((c))

    either (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    both (a) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

steel reinforcement is not fully stressed to its permissible value

197

The moment of resistance of an over-reinforced section is determined on the basis of _________.

  1. ((a))

    tensile force developed in steel

  2. ((b))

    compressive force developed in concrete

  3. ((c))

    both (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    either (a) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

tensile force developed in steel

198

For M 20 grade concrete, maximum shear stress is 

  1. ((a))

    2.8 N/mm2^2

  2. ((b))

    3 N/mm2^2

  3. ((c))

    3.5 N/mm2^2

  4. ((d))

    4 N/mm2^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.8 N/mm2^2

199

An R.C.C lintel is spanning an opening of 2m span in a brick wall. The height of the roof is 2. 9m above the floor level and that of opening is 2. 1m above the floor level. The lintel is to be designed for self weight plus _______.

  1. ((a))

    Triangular load of the wall

  2. ((b))

    UDL of wall

  3. ((c))

    UDL of wall+load from the roof

  4. ((d))

    Triangular load+load from the roof

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Triangular load of the wall

200

A ribbed slab is not provided for _______

  1. ((a))

    A plain ceiling

  2. ((b))

    Thermal insulation

  3. ((c))

    Acoustic insulation

  4. ((d))

    locations with very high live loads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A plain ceiling

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