Official Paper

SSC JE (Civil Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 04 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Complete the analogy.

K : M :: R : ?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

2

Complete the analogy.

BAF : DGJ :: EHL : ?

  1. ((a))

    GNP

  2. ((b))

    INR

  3. ((c))

    IRN

  4. ((d))

    AIR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GNP

3

Find the missing term in the series: P, Q, S, T, V, W, ?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

4

Find the missing term in the series: C, E, H, L, ?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

5

Find the missing number in the series: 2, 6, 10, 14, ?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

6

Find the missing number in the series: 2, 4, 12, 48, ?

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    220

  3. ((c))

    240

  4. ((d))

    250

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200

7

Complete the analogy.

Doctor : Diagnosis :: Judge : ?

  1. ((a))

    Court

  2. ((b))

    Law

  3. ((c))

    Judgment

  4. ((d))

    Punishment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Court

8

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Copper, Iron, Silver, Wood

  1. ((a))

    Wood

  2. ((b))

    Silver

  3. ((c))

    Iron

  4. ((d))

    Copper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wood

9

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Sodium, Calcium, Iron, Silver

  1. ((a))

    Sodium

  2. ((b))

    Silver

  3. ((c))

    Iron

  4. ((d))

    Calcium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sodium

10

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified. Arctic Circle, Prime Meridian, Polar Region, Antarctic Circle

  1. ((a))

    Arctic Circle

  2. ((b))

    Prime Meridian

  3. ((c))

    Polar Region

  4. ((d))

    Antarctic Circle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arctic Circle

11

Complete the analogy. 7:343::9:?7 : 343 :: 9 : ?

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    72

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    729

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27

12

Complete the analogy. 343 : 7 :: 512 : ? 

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    64

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

13

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

$, €, £, @

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

    @

  3. ((c))

    £

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

In a certain code, vowels are replaced with their previous letter, consonants with the next letter, and then the whole word is reversed.

How is DOCUMENT written?

  1. ((a))

    OFNVDNTE

  2. ((b))

    UODNTDNE

  3. ((c))

    PENVNFOE

  4. ((d))

    OFNVMDOE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OFNVDNTE

15

If NOSE is coded as OPTF, how is EAR coded?

  1. ((a))

    EBS

  2. ((b))

    FAS

  3. ((c))

    FBR

  4. ((d))

    FBS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EBS

16

A sudden increase in fish deaths is noticed in a river. What could be the probable cause?

  1. ((a))

    Tourists are visiting riverbanks more

  2. ((b))

    Rainfall has increased recently

  3. ((c))

    Industrial waste is discharged into the river

  4. ((d))

    Fishing festivals are popular in the area

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tourists are visiting riverbanks more

17

Statement: "All trains must have fire extinguishers in every coach." Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Rail coaches have become smaller

  2. ((b))

    Passengers will misuse extinguishers

  3. ((c))

    Only new trains need safety measures

  4. ((d))

    Fire incidents can happen on trains

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rail coaches have become smaller

18

If your friend is nervous before a job interview, you should:

  1. ((a))

    Share calming tips

  2. ((b))

    Say nothing

  3. ((c))

    Mock their anxiety

  4. ((d))

    Tell them you are better prepared

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Share calming tips

19

Which word comes last in the dictionary? LATEST, LATER, LATEX, LATITUDE

  1. ((a))

    LATEST

  2. ((b))

    LATER

  3. ((c))

    LATEX

  4. ((d))

    LATITUDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LATEST

20

Which of the following words ranks second in alphabetical order?

CHRONIC, CHRYSALIS, CHROME, CHROMA

  1. ((a))

    CHROMA

  2. ((b))

    CHRONIC

  3. ((c))

    CHRYSALIS

  4. ((d))

    CHROME

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CHROMA

21

If 3x+5=203x + 5 = 20, find xx.

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

22

A 150 m train crosses a platform in 25 secand a signal pole in 15 sec. Find the length of the platform.

  1. ((a))

    150 m

  2. ((b))

    300 m

  3. ((c))

    250 m

  4. ((d))

    100 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150 m

23

You help a colleague finish work and they thank you. What’s the best reply?

  1. ((a))

    "Happy to help"

  2. ((b))

    "It was nothing, but you should improve"

  3. ((c))

    "You owe me"

  4. ((d))

    "Ignore them"

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"Happy to help"

24

The manager shares an idea you believe has flaws.

What’s the high social intelligence way to respond?

  1. ((a))

    Discuss with others later but not with the manager

  2. ((b))

    Respectfully share your concern with reasons

  3. ((c))

    Say nothing to avoid conflict

  4. ((d))

    Tell them openly it’s a bad idea

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Discuss with others later but not with the manager

25

Using all the letters of S T A L O C, which valid English word can be created?

  1. ((a))

    CASTOL

  2. ((b))

    COSTAL

  3. ((c))

    LOCSTA

  4. ((d))

    CLOSTA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CASTOL

26

Using all letters of S C E N I T, which valid English word can be created?

  1. ((a))

    CENTIS

  2. ((b))

    CESTIN

  3. ((c))

    ENSTIC

  4. ((d))

    INSECT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CENTIS

27

You are offered a higher-paying job but relocation will affect your family.

What is the best next step?

  1. ((a))

    Reject it immediately

  2. ((b))

    Accept without thinking

  3. ((c))

    Discuss with family before deciding

  4. ((d))

    Move alone without telling family

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reject it immediately

28

You receive two conflicting instructions from different senior managers.

What do you do?

  1. ((a))

    Choose either instruction

  2. ((b))

    Ignore both

  3. ((c))

    Start both tasks separately

  4. ((d))

    Seek clarification from both managers jointly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Choose either instruction

29

In a sales company, seniority bonuses are awarded to employees with 10+ years’ service, but almost all recipients are from one ethnic group, despite others with equal tenure. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    That ethnic group has better performance

  2. ((b))

    Other ethnicities joined recently

  3. ((c))

    Bonus process favours one ethnic group

  4. ((d))

    Bonus is random

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

That ethnic group has better performance

30

Hospital patient count rose 1515%, but the number of doctors did not change. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Patient recovery improved

  2. ((b))

    Hospital expanded

  3. ((c))

    Equipment improved

  4. ((d))

    Doctor workload increased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Patient recovery improved

31

A candidate scores high in theory but low in practicals.

How should the examiner judge?

  1. ((a))

    Candidate is good at theory only

  2. ((b))

    Candidate lacks practical skills

  3. ((c))

    Candidate is dishonest

  4. ((d))

    Candidate studied only theory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Candidate is good at theory only

32

Traffic congestion reduced by 1515% after introducing staggered office timings. Which is the most valid judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Fewer vehicles on the road during peak hours

  2. ((b))

    Offices closed early

  3. ((c))

    Public transport decreased

  4. ((d))

    Road width increased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fewer vehicles on the road during peak hours

33

Find the value of [[(96-64)÷\div8+5]×\times[81÷\div9+7]].

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    84

  4. ((d))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

96

34

Find the value of (90÷15+7)×(36÷63)(90 \div 15+7) \times (36 \div 6-3).

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    39

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

35

If @ = division, # = subtraction, % = addition, and  $ = multiplication, then evaluate 15 @ 5 # 3 % 2 $ 4.

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

36

If * = addition, @ = subtraction,  =multiplication,and  = multiplication, and % = division, then find 22 3 @ 5 * 16 % 4.

  1. ((a))

    65

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    55

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65

37

If @ = addition, # = subtraction, =multiplication,and = multiplication, and % = division, then calculate {72 2@18}#{144% 12 @ 6}.

  1. ((a))

    144

  2. ((b))

    140

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    148

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

144

38

Student enrolment was 800, 840, 882, and 926. 1 over 4 years. Expected enrolment in the 6th year will be

  1. ((a))

    1000

  2. ((b))

    1044

  3. ((c))

    1030

  4. ((d))

    1021

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000

39

The value of a stock falls by 1515% annually. The current price is 120. What is the approx. price after 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    71

  2. ((b))
    1. 3
  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    74

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

71

40

Pointing to a boy, Pratap said, "He is the only son of my father’s father", How is the boy related to Pratap?

  1. ((a))

    Father of Pratap

  2. ((b))

    Brother of Pratap

  3. ((c))

    Uncle of Pratap

  4. ((d))

    Cousin of Pratap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father of Pratap

41

If 4 workers complete a job in 12 days, how long will 6 workers take at the same rate?

  1. ((a))

    6 days

  2. ((b))

    7 days

  3. ((c))

    8 days

  4. ((d))

    9 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 days

42

The cost price of 15 books = the selling price of 12 books. Find the profit percent.

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    3313\frac{1}{3}%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

43

In the following question, a statement is followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statement.

Statement:

All students like to play.

Conclusions:

I. All those who like to play are students.

II. Some students do not like to play.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

44

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

Some doctors are women.

All women are nurses.

Conclusions:

I. Some doctors are nurses.

II. All nurses are doctors.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

45

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All A are B.

No B is C.

Conclusions:

A. No A is C

B. All A are C

C. Some C are B

D. Some A are C

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All rivers are water bodies.

No water body is solid.

Conclusions:

I. No river is solid

II. Some solids are rivers

III. All solids are rivers

IV. Some rivers are solid

  1. ((a))

    I and II

  2. ((b))

    I and III

  3. ((c))

    Only I

  4. ((d))

    Only IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and II

47

A public transport system has fewer vehicles operating in minority neighbourhoods. What is a reasonable inference?

  1. ((a))

    Lower demand in minority areas

  2. ((b))

    More taxis in those areas

  3. ((c))

    Neglect of minority areas

  4. ((d))

    Vehicles are more crowded

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower demand in minority areas

48

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others; >> , << , \uparrow , \leq

  1. ((a))

    >>

  2. ((b))

    <<

  3. ((c))

    \uparrow

  4. ((d))

    \leq

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

>>

49

You’re feeling stressed before a presentation.

What’s the most emotionally intelligent action?

  1. ((a))

    Blame others for the stress

  2. ((b))

    Cancel the presentation

  3. ((c))

    Keep worrying silently

  4. ((d))

    Take deep breaths and focus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blame others for the stress

50

During a heated office debate, you notice two colleagues avoid making eye contact or speaking up.

What should you do?

  1. ((a))

    Invite their opinion in a supportive way

  2. ((b))

    Assume they agree by silence

  3. ((c))

    Ignore their participation

  4. ((d))

    Ask others to take sides

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Invite their opinion in a supportive way

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

How does the Human Development Index (HDI) contribute to policymaking?

  1. ((a))

    It only affects economic policy.

  2. ((b))

    It highlights areas where human development lags.

  3. ((c))

    It only affects military policy.

  4. ((d))

    It only affects tourism policy.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It only affects economic policy.

52

At which Air Quality Index (AQI) level is the air quality classified as "good"?

  1. ((a))

    0-50

  2. ((b))

    51-100

  3. ((c))

    101-150

  4. ((d))

    151-200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0-50

53

What is the primary purpose of the Aditya-L1 mission launched by ISRO in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Study of Earth’s atmosphere

  2. ((b))

    Study of the Moon

  3. ((c))

    Study of the Sun

  4. ((d))

    Study of Mars

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Study of Earth’s atmosphere

54

Which of the following is NOT an example of capital receipts?

  1. ((a))

    Market loans

  2. ((b))

    T-bills

  3. ((c))

    Recoveries of loans & advances

  4. ((d))

    Tax received

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Market loans

55

Which writ is issued to stop a lower court from going beyond its jurisdiction?

  1. ((a))

    Prohibition

  2. ((b))

    Mandamus

  3. ((c))

    Certiorari

  4. ((d))

    Habeas Corpus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prohibition

56

The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha under which Article of the Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Article 85

  2. ((b))

    Article 82

  3. ((c))

    Article 75

  4. ((d))

    Article 86

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 85

57

Which body is responsible for preparing the electoral rolls for the general elections in India?

  1. ((a))

    The President of India

  2. ((b))

    The Election Commission

  3. ((c))

    The Ministry of Law

  4. ((d))

    The Cabinet Secretariat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The President of India

58

The Chola naval expedition against Srivijaya was launched during the reign of:

  1. ((a))

    Rajaraja I

  2. ((b))

    Rajendra I

  3. ((c))

    Kulottunga I

  4. ((d))

    Aditya I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajaraja I

59

The first known Sultan to assume the title of ’Shadow of God’ (Zill-e-Ilahi) was:

  1. ((a))

    Iltutmish

  2. ((b))

    Balban

  3. ((c))

    Alauddin Khalji

  4. ((d))

    Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iltutmish

60

Which Article provides for the protection of states against external aggression and internal disturbance?

  1. ((a))

    Article 255

  2. ((b))

    Article 256

  3. ((c))

    Article 355

  4. ((d))

    Article 365

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 255

61

Which Article provides the framework for the appointment of state governors?

  1. ((a))

    Article 157

  2. ((b))

    Article 156

  3. ((c))

    Article 158

  4. ((d))

    Article 155

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 157

62

Which Article provides for the appointment of state Governors?

  1. ((a))

    Article 155

  2. ((b))

    Article 156

  3. ((c))

    Article 158

  4. ((d))

    Article 157

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 155

63

_______ is a new initiative aimed at enhancing educational cooperation among the five BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) member countries, focusing on research and innovation.

  1. ((a))

    BRICS University

  2. ((b))

    BRICS Connectivity

  3. ((c))

    BRICS Network University

  4. ((d))

    BRICS Campus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BRICS University

64

What is the largest sea in the Indian Ocean?

  1. ((a))

    Andaman Sea

  2. ((b))

    Red Sea

  3. ((c))

    Arabian Sea

  4. ((d))

    Timor Sea

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andaman Sea

65

Which of the following is a potential challenge to implementing the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor)?

  1. ((a))

    Geopolitical tensions and regional instability

  2. ((b))

    Lack of technological innovation

  3. ((c))

    Over-reliance on existing infrastructure

  4. ((d))

    Lack of interest from European nations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Geopolitical tensions and regional instability

66

The "Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy" of India has evolved over time. Which of the following sectors has generally witnessed significant liberalization in FDI norms?

  1. ((a))

    Atomic energy and related industries

  2. ((b))

    Agriculture (excluding certain plantation crops)

  3. ((c))

    Retail trading (especially multi-brand retail)

  4. ((d))

    Railways infrastructure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Atomic energy and related industries

67

Consider the following statements regarding the "Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban)":

I. Its primary focus is on achieving Open Defecation Free (ODF) status in urban areas.

II. It aims to promote scientific processing and disposal of solid waste in cities.

III. It encourages the construction of individual household toilets but not community toilets.

IV. It includes components for improving the cleanliness of public spaces and promoting citizen engagement.

Which of the above statements accurately reflect the objectives and components of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban)?

  1. ((a))

    I and III only

  2. ((b))

    I, II, and IV only

  3. ((c))

    I, III, and IV only

  4. ((d))

    II, III, and IV only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III only

68

Which Indian state is known for its traditional martial art, Thang-Ta?

  1. ((a))

    Manipur

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Sikkim

  4. ((d))

    Tripura

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manipur

69

With which sport is Arjuna Awardee, Tulsidas Balaram associated?

  1. ((a))

    Wrestling

  2. ((b))

    Football

  3. ((c))

    Athletics

  4. ((d))

    Archery

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wrestling

70

The first-ever Indian professional golf tournament was held in Kolkata. Which golf course was the venue?

  1. ((a))

    Royal Calcutta Golf Club

  2. ((b))

    Tollygunge Club

  3. ((c))

    Fort William Golf Course

  4. ((d))

    Calcutta South Club

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Royal Calcutta Golf Club

71

India’s only Olympic medal in lawn tennis came in 1996. Which format of tennis did it belong to?

  1. ((a))

    Mixed Doubles

  2. ((b))

    Men’s Singles

  3. ((c))

    Men’s Doubles

  4. ((d))

    Women’s Singles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mixed Doubles

72

The Kalinga Stadium, famous for hosting the Hockey World Cup, is located in which Indian city?

  1. ((a))

    Bhubaneswar

  2. ((b))

    Ranchi

  3. ((c))

    Lucknow

  4. ((d))

    Guwahati

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhubaneswar

73

What is a key difference between Mathura and Gandhara schools of art and architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Mathura art used bronze, while Gandhara used sandstone.

  2. ((b))

    Gandhara emphasized ornamental jewelry, Mathura emphasized naturalistic features.

  3. ((c))

    Gandhara art was more Indian in style, while Mathura was Greco-Roman.

  4. ((d))

    Mathura focused on indigenous elements, while Gandhara reflected Greco-Roman influence.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mathura art used bronze, while Gandhara used sandstone.

74

Which of the following regions is known for wooden temple architecture with sloping roofs?

  1. ((a))

    Himachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Himachal Pradesh

75

Which of the following programs was introduced for National Rural Employment during the 7th Five-Year Plan (1985-1990)?

  1. ((a))

    IRDP

  2. ((b))

    NREP

  3. ((c))

    RLEGP

  4. ((d))

    JRY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IRDP

76

Who was the first Indian woman to publish a novel in English?

  1. ((a))

    Toru Dutt

  2. ((b))

    Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

  3. ((c))

    Krupabai Satthianadhan

  4. ((d))

    Cornelia Sorabji

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Toru Dutt

77

Which African author, born in Nigeria, won the Orange Prize for Fiction in 2007 for "Half of a Yellow Sun"?

  1. ((a))

    Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

  2. ((b))

    Buchi Emecheta

  3. ((c))

    Chinua Achebe

  4. ((d))

    Tsitsi Dangarembga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

78

In the context of India’s First Five-Year plan (1951-1956) that was formulated under the guidance of the Harrod-Domar model, what was the proportion of the total plan outlay allocated to the industrial sectors?

  1. ((a))

    8.4%

  2. ((b))

    13%

  3. ((c))

    22%

  4. ((d))

    38%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.4%

79

What chess term is used when two rooks attack in the same file?

  1. ((a))

    Pin

  2. ((b))

    Fork

  3. ((c))

    Battery

  4. ((d))

    Skewer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pin

80

Which category of prohibited substances in sports includes synthetic versions of the male hormone testosterone?

  1. ((a))

    Stimulants

  2. ((b))

    Diuretics

  3. ((c))

    Anabolic Agents

  4. ((d))

    Beta-Blockers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stimulants

81

The Rowlatt Act, which faced widespread opposition in India, aimed to:

  1. ((a))

    Introduce separate electorates for different religious communities.

  2. ((b))

    Provide for the better governance of India by increasing Indian representation in legislatures.

  3. ((c))

    Suppress revolutionary activities by allowing detention without trial.

  4. ((d))

    Regulate land revenue systems in the presidencies.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Introduce separate electorates for different religious communities.

82

The British policy of "Divide and Rule" in India is often cited as a key factor in the growth of communalism. While the strategy involved exploiting existing social and religious differences, its implementation and impact were complex. Which of the following best describes a sophisticated manifestation of this policy beyond simply favoring one religious group over another?

  1. ((a))

    The consistent and unwavering support for the demands of the majority religious community to suppress minority aspirations.

  2. ((b))

    The strategic creation and manipulation of political institutions, such as separate electorates and differential representation, that institutionalized religious identities as primary political categories.

  3. ((c))

    The complete segregation of different religious communities in all aspects of social and economic life, preventing any form of interaction or cooperation.

  4. ((d))

    The direct and forceful suppression of any political organization that sought to unite different religious groups under a common nationalist banner.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The consistent and unwavering support for the demands of the majority religious community to suppress minority aspirations.

83

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Removal of oral evidence as primary proof

  2. ((b))

    Inclusion of digital and forensic evidence

  3. ((c))

    Recognition of electronic records as admissible evidence

  4. ((d))

    Presumption of guilt in certain offenses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Removal of oral evidence as primary proof

84

What is the total number of sections in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. ((a))

    299

  2. ((b))

    356

  3. ((c))

    358

  4. ((d))

    511

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

299

85

Who was appointed as the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India after General Bipin Rawat’s tenure?

  1. ((a))

    General Manoj Mukund Naravane

  2. ((b))

    General Anil Chauhan

  3. ((c))

    Air Chief Marshal R.K.S. Bhadauria

  4. ((d))

    Admiral R. Hari Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

General Manoj Mukund Naravane

86

Who was the first Indian woman officer to lead an all-male Republic Day contingent in 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Tanya Shergill

  2. ((b))

    Preeti Choudhary

  3. ((c))

    Divya Tyagi

  4. ((d))

    Shaliza Dhami

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tanya Shergill

87

Who was appointed as the Chief Executive Officer of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) in April 2025?

  1. ((a))

    KK Pathak

  2. ((b))

    Bhuvnesh Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Abhishek Singh

  4. ((d))

    Rajesh Kumar Sinha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KK Pathak

88

Who among the following was the queen of Ullal and fought against the Portuguese?

  1. ((a))

    Rani Velu Nachiyar

  2. ((b))

    Rani Abbakka

  3. ((c))

    Begum Hazrat Mahal

  4. ((d))

    Rani Gaidinliu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rani Velu Nachiyar

89

The poem ’Jhansi Ki Rani’ describing the life of Rani Lakshmi Bai was written by which Indian freedom fighter?

  1. ((a))

    Sucheta Kripalani

  2. ((b))

    Rajkumari Gupta

  3. ((c))

    Begum Hazrat Mahal

  4. ((d))

    Subhadra Kumari Chauhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sucheta Kripalani

90

Which of the following freedom fighters was the first female deputy finance minister under the Union Cabinet led by Jawaharlal Nehru?

  1. ((a))

    Sarala Devi Chaudhurani

  2. ((b))

    Tarkeshwari Sinha

  3. ((c))

    Captain Lakshmi Sehgal

  4. ((d))

    Usha Mehta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sarala Devi Chaudhurani

91

Which of the following dance forms had an influence on the development of Sattriya dance?

  1. ((a))

    Bharatanatyam

  2. ((b))

    Devadasi and Ojapali

  3. ((c))

    Kathak

  4. ((d))

    Odissi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bharatanatyam

92

In the context of the Harappan Civilization, what was Lapis Lazuli primarily used for?

  1. ((a))

    Making weapons

  2. ((b))

    Making Terracotta Toys

  3. ((c))

    Making jewelry and ornaments

  4. ((d))

    Building structures

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Making weapons

93

Which Chalcolithic culture is noted for the earliest evidence of the domestication of the horse in the Indian subcontinent?

  1. ((a))

    Ahar-Banas Culture

  2. ((b))

    Malwa Culture

  3. ((c))

    Swat Culture

  4. ((d))

    Jorwe Culture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ahar-Banas Culture

94

Which of the following states is the largest producer of Mica in India?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karnataka

95

Which of the following is a significant contribution of Pandit Bhatkhande to Hindustani classical music?

  1. ((a))

    Development of the 72-mela system

  2. ((b))

    Introduction of the ’bol’ technique in vocal music

  3. ((c))

    The codification of ragas and their melodic structure

  4. ((d))

    Popularization of dhrupad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Development of the 72-mela system

96

What does the term ’prabandha’ refer to in Indian classical music?

  1. ((a))

    A free-form improvisation

  2. ((b))

    A fixed rhythm

  3. ((c))

    A structured musical composition

  4. ((d))

    A type of raga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A free-form improvisation

97

Which of the following states has the lowest population density in India, as per 2011 Census?

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Sikkim

  3. ((c))

    Mizoram

  4. ((d))

    Uttarakhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arunachal Pradesh

98

According to the Census of India 2011, _________ recorded the highest female literacy rate among all Union Territories.

  1. ((a))

    Puducherry

  2. ((b))

    Chandigarh

  3. ((c))

    Daman and Diu

  4. ((d))

    Lakshadweep

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Puducherry

99

What percentage of India’s total geographical area is covered by the forest, as in 2023?

  1. ((a))
    1. 76 %
  2. ((b))
    1. 75%
  3. ((c))
    1. 71%
  4. ((d))
    1. 79 %
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 76 %
100

Consider the following statements about the Evolution of the Himalayan Drainage system.

  1. It evolved from the river Shivalik or the Indo-Brahma river that traversed the entire longitudinal extent of the Himalaya from Assam to Punjab and onwards to Sind.
  2. Down-thrusting of the Malda gap, the area between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau, diverted the Ganga and the Brahmaputra system to flow towards the Bay of Bengal.

Choose the CORRECT statements from above.

  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

General Engineering (100 questions)

101

The most suitable type of bond for constructing a one-brick thick wall is _____ .

  1. ((a))

    English bond

  2. ((b))

    Flemish bond

  3. ((c))

    Header bond

  4. ((d))

    Stretcher bond

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

English bond

102

What is the dry volume of 1 m3m^3 of wet concrete (considering bulking and wastage)?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2 m3m^3
  2. ((b))
    1. 33 m3m^3
  3. ((c))
    1. 54 m3m^3
  4. ((d))
    1. 75 m3m^3
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2 m3m^3
103

Which of the following trees yields hardwood?

  1. ((a))

    Sal

  2. ((b))

    Pine

  3. ((c))

    Fir

  4. ((d))

    Deodar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sal

104

Which shake originates from the pith and extends outward like rays?

  1. ((a))

    Heart shake

  2. ((b))

    Cup shake

  3. ((c))

    Wind shake

  4. ((d))

    Ring shake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heart shake

105

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the correct option:

Assertion(A) : Artificial seasoning of timber is faster than natural seasoning.

Reason(R) : Artificial seasoning is done by exposing timber to open air and sunlight.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

106

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the correct option:

Assertion(A) : Hydraulic lime sets even under water.

Reason(R) : It contains silica and alumina that react with water to form cementitious compounds.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

107

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the correct option:

Assertion (A): A newly constructed brick wall begins to develop white, powdery patches during its first rainy season.

Reason (R): Soluble salts present in bricks migrate to the surface through capillary action and crystallize upon drying.

  1. ((a))

    A is true, R is true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    A is true, R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A is true, R is true, and R is the correct explanation of A

108

Read the statements given below and choose the correct option:

I. The water-cement ratio influences both the strength and durability of concrete.

II. Increasing water-cement ratio increases concrete strength.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only Statement I is correct

  3. ((c))

    Only Statement II is correct

  4. ((d))

    Neither statement is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are correct

109

A room has dimensions 6 m×4 m6 \text{ m} \times 4 \text{ m}. If the size of each tile is 0.5 m×0.5 m0.5 \text{ m} \times 0. 5 \text{ m}, calculate the number of tiles required to cover the floor of the room.

  1. ((a))

    100 tiles

  2. ((b))

    120 tiles

  3. ((c))

    96 tiles

  4. ((d))

    150 tiles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 tiles

110

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).

Select the correct option

Assertion (A) : Hydraulic lime is used in the construction of buildings exposed to water or extreme weather conditions.

Reason (R) : Hydraulic lime sets and hardens through a reaction with water, making it ideal for wet conditions.

  1. ((a))

    Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

  2. ((b))

    Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

  3. ((c))

    The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

  4. ((d))

    The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

111

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the correct option:

Assertion(A) : The addition of lime to cement improves its workability and makes it easier to handle during construction.

Reason(R) : Lime increases the water retention capacity of the cement mix, which reduces shrinkage and cracking during curing.

  1. ((a))

    Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

  2. ((b))

    Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

  3. ((c))

    The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

  4. ((d))

    The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

112

If a map is prepared to a scale of 1:4000, what is the length of 0. 5 cm on the map in real-world measurements?

  1. ((a))

    2 m

  2. ((b))

    20 m

  3. ((c))

    200 m

  4. ((d))

    2 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 m

113

In plane table surveying, Lehmann’s rule is associated with:

  1. ((a))

    Solution of all types of resection problems

  2. ((b))

    Method of resection after orientation by compass

  3. ((c))

    Method of resection by two-point problem

  4. ((d))

    Method of resection by three-point problem

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solution of all types of resection problems

114

What does the Bearing of a line represent?

  1. ((a))

    The angle between the survey line and the equator

  2. ((b))

    The horizontal angle between the reference meridian and the survey line

  3. ((c))

    The angle between the true north and the reference line

  4. ((d))

    The vertical angle between two points on a map

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The angle between the survey line and the equator

115

Which of the following is the correct relationship between Fore Bearing (F.B.) and Back Bearing (B.B.) in the W.C.B. system?

  1. ((a))

    Back Bearing = Fore Bearing ±180\pm 180^\circ

  2. ((b))

    Back Bearing = Fore Bearing - 180180^\circ

  3. ((c))

    Back Bearing = Fore Bearing + 9090^\circ

  4. ((d))

    Back Bearing = Fore Bearing - 9090^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Back Bearing = Fore Bearing ±180\pm 180^\circ

116

Which of the following is accurate regarding the closure of contour lines on a map?

  1. ((a))

    Contour lines must form a continuous loop without any gaps

  2. ((b))

    Contour lines must close but can remain outside the visible limits of the map

  3. ((c))

    Contour lines must always close within the borders of the map and cannot extend beyond the edges

  4. ((d))

    Contour lines can be truncated at the map’s edge if necessary

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Contour lines must form a continuous loop without any gaps

117

A compaction curve shifts upwards and to the left after adding 55% cement to silty sand. The cause is:

  1. ((a))

    Increase in the soil’s moisture content

  2. ((b))

    Increase in the soil’s plasticity

  3. ((c))

    Increase in the dry density and decrease in the optimum moisture content.

  4. ((d))

    Increase in permeability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in the soil’s moisture content

118

In a flow net, Nf = 4, Nd = 8, H = 3 m, k = 2×1042 \times 10^{-4} m/s. Seepage (m3/sm^3/s) per m width is:

  1. ((a))

    2×1042 \times 10^{-4}

  2. ((b))

    3×1043 \times 10^{-4}

  3. ((c))

    4×1044 \times 10^{-4}

  4. ((d))

    5×1045 \times 10^{-4}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2×1042 \times 10^{-4}

119

What is the main purpose of a sedimentation tank in water treatment?

  1. ((a))

    To remove dissolved gases

  2. ((b))

    To remove suspended solids by gravity

  3. ((c))

    To add chemicals for coagulation

  4. ((d))

    To disinfect the water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To remove dissolved gases

120

Which type of water treatment process is most effective for removing heavy metals from water?

  1. ((a))

    Activated carbon adsorption

  2. ((b))

    Chlorination

  3. ((c))

    Chemical precipitation

  4. ((d))

    Boiling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Activated carbon adsorption

121

What is the primary purpose of a green building rating system like LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design)?

  1. ((a))

    To reduce construction costs

  2. ((b))

    To improve building aesthetics

  3. ((c))

    To reduce environmental impact

  4. ((d))

    To increase energy consumption

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reduce construction costs

122

The standard oxygen demand (BOD) of water can be determined by measuring which parameter?

  1. ((a))

    The amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by bacteria

  2. ((b))

    The amount of total suspended solids

  3. ((c))

    The concentration of nitrogen compounds

  4. ((d))

    The turbidity of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by bacteria

123

In municipal solid waste management, which of the following is the most efficient method for reducing volume and weight?

  1. ((a))

    Incineration

  2. ((b))

    Composting

  3. ((c))

    Recycling

  4. ((d))

    Landfilling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Incineration

124

A wastewater treatment plant treats 50,000m3/day50,000 m^{3}/day of water. If the BOD of incoming water is 300mg/L300 mg/L and the effluent BOD is 20mg/L20 mg/L, calculate the BOD load removed per day.

  1. ((a))

    10,000 kg

  2. ((b))

    14,000 kg

  3. ((c))

    15,000 kg

  4. ((d))

    20,000 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10,000 kg

125

What is the primary concern when trains move at different speeds on the same track?

  1. ((a))

    The track will be unable to accommodate all types of trains

  2. ((b))

    The actual cant to be provided must be chosen based on the speed of the trains

  3. ((c))

    The passengers will not be able to feel the centrifugal force

  4. ((d))

    Maintenance of the track becomes easier

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The track will be unable to accommodate all types of trains

126

Which gauge is used in areas with inadequate funds and lower revenue prospects?

  1. ((a))

    Broad Gauge

  2. ((b))

    Metre Gauge

  3. ((c))

    Narrow Gauge

  4. ((d))

    Ultra Wide Gauge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Broad Gauge

127

What is the ideal water-cement ratio for maximum strength in concrete?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 4
  3. ((c))
    1. 15
  4. ((d))
    1. 73
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
128

Negative slip in reciprocating pump occurs when:

  1. ((a))

    Actual discharge is less than theoretical

  2. ((b))

    Suction head is zero

  3. ((c))

    Actual discharge is more than theoretical

  4. ((d))

    Pump is running at high speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Actual discharge is less than theoretical

129

For a Pelton wheel, the jet is deflected by the bucket through an angle of:

  1. ((a))

    6060^{\circ} to 9090^{\circ}

  2. ((b))

    9090^{\circ} to 120120^{\circ}

  3. ((c))

    160160^{\circ} to 170170^{\circ}

  4. ((d))

    120120^{\circ} to 135135^{\circ}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6060^{\circ} to 9090^{\circ}

130

In a multistage pump, the impellers are arranged to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase velocity

  2. ((b))

    Increase head

  3. ((c))

    Reduce slip

  4. ((d))

    Decrease discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase velocity

131

Negative pressure in pipes may result in;

  1. ((a))

    Increased discharge

  2. ((b))

    Better efficiency.

  3. ((c))

    Cavitation

  4. ((d))

    Laminar flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased discharge

132

The efficiency of the draft tube is calculated by:

  1. ((a))

    Inlet velocity / outlet velocity

  2. ((b))

    Gain in pressure head / velocity head at inlet

  3. ((c))

    Loss in head / discharge

  4. ((d))

    Input / output ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inlet velocity / outlet velocity

133

The relation between critical depth and specific energy (E) is:

  1. ((a))

    E is maximum at critical depth

  2. ((b))

    E is minimum at critical depth

  3. ((c))

    E is zero at critical depth

  4. ((d))

    E is negative at critical depth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E is maximum at critical depth

134

In a flow net, the angle between streamlines and equipotential lines is:

  1. ((a))

    00

  2. ((b))

    450

  3. ((c))

    900

  4. ((d))

    1800

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

00

135

If a rectangular section of beam is inverted (depth becomes width), how does bending stress vary under same moment?

  1. ((a))

    Increases

  2. ((b))

    Decreases

  3. ((c))

    Unchanged

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases

136

Which of the following is not a property of a good structural material?

  1. ((a))

    High elasticity

  2. ((b))

    Low creep

  3. ((c))

    High brittleness

  4. ((d))

    Good ductility

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High elasticity

137

For prismatic members, when the far end is fixed, the stiffness factor is:

  1. ((a))

    2EIL\frac{2EI}{L}

  2. ((b))

    3EIL\frac{3EI}{L}

  3. ((c))

    4EIL\frac{4EI}{L}

  4. ((d))

    AEIL\frac{AEI}{L}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2EIL\frac{2EI}{L}

138

A column may be defined as a member of a structure:

  1. ((a))

    In any position carrying a compressive load

  2. ((b))

    In any position carrying a tensile load

  3. ((c))

    Inclined at 9090^{\circ} to the horizontal, carrying an axial compression load

  4. ((d))

    Inclined at 9090^{\circ} to the horizontal, carrying an axial tensile load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In any position carrying a compressive load

139

The moment area method is a method for determining the:

  1. ((a))

    Bending moment at a point

  2. ((b))

    Shear force at a point

  3. ((c))

    Slope and bending moment at a point

  4. ((d))

    Slope and deflection at a point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bending moment at a point

140

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good baseline in chain surveying?

  1. ((a))

    It should be as long as possible.

  2. ((b))

    Should be easy to measure

  3. ((c))

    Should pass through rough terrain

  4. ((d))

    Should be straight

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It should be as long as possible.

141

The included angle in compass surveying is:

  1. ((a))

    Difference of two successive bearings

  2. ((b))

    Sum of bearings

  3. ((c))

    Difference of magnetic declinations

  4. ((d))

    Sum of interior angles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Difference of two successive bearings

142

The alidade in plane table surveying is used for:

  1. ((a))

    Measuring horizontal distances

  2. ((b))

    sighting purpose

  3. ((c))

    Levelling the instrument

  4. ((d))

    Holding the plane table

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Measuring horizontal distances

143

In precise leveling, the procedure to eliminate systematic errors is called:

  1. ((a))

    Reciprocal levelling

  2. ((b))

    Fly levelling

  3. ((c))

    Profile levelling

  4. ((d))

    Differential levelling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reciprocal levelling

144

How is the plasticity index calculated?

  1. ((a))

    Liquid limit + Plastic limit

  2. ((b))

    Liquid limit - Plastic limit

  3. ((c))

    Plastic limit - Liquid limit

  4. ((d))

    Liquid limit ×\times Plastic limit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Liquid limit + Plastic limit

145

Soil liquefaction is mainly caused by:

  1. ((a))

    Increase in effective stress

  2. ((b))

    Sudden drop in pore water pressure

  3. ((c))

    Cyclic loading such as earthquakes

  4. ((d))

    Chemical contamination

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in effective stress

146

Which of the following is NOT an Atterberg limit?

  1. ((a))

    Liquid limit

  2. ((b))

    Plastic limit

  3. ((c))

    Shrinkage limit

  4. ((d))

    Slump limit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Liquid limit

147

Which process converts volatile organic compounds (VOCs) into less harmful substances in pollution control?

  1. ((a))

    Condensation

  2. ((b))

    Catalytic oxidation

  3. ((c))

    Adsorption

  4. ((d))

    Incineration

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Condensation

148

The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was primarily caused by leakage of:

  1. ((a))

    Carbon monoxide

  2. ((b))

    Sulphur dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Methyl isocyanate

  4. ((d))

    Hydrogen sulphide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Carbon monoxide

149

A filter has a backwash flow of 700 L/m2m^2/min. For a 20 m2^2 area, calculate the volume used in 10 minutes.

  1. ((a))

    140,000 L

  2. ((b))

    120,000 L

  3. ((c))

    100,000 L

  4. ((d))

    130,000 L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

140,000 L

150

A city with a population of 250,000 generates solid waste at 0. 55 kg/person/day. Calculate daily waste generation.

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 tonnes
  2. ((b))
    1. 0 tonnes
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 tonnes
  4. ((d))
    1. 0 tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 tonnes
151

The permissible noise level in residential areas during nighttime as per CPCB guidelines is:

  1. ((a))

    55 dB

  2. ((b))

    45 dB

  3. ((c))

    40 dB

  4. ((d))

    30 dB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55 dB

152

What is the value of transition length for V=80 km/hV=80 \text{ km/h}, R=300 mR=300 \text{ m}, with the rate of change of centrifugal acceleration C=0.5C=0.5?

  1. ((a))

    52 m52 \text{ m}

  2. ((b))

    73 m73 \text{ m}

  3. ((c))

    94 m94 \text{ m}

  4. ((d))

    103 m103 \text{ m}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

52 m52 \text{ m}

153

How much is the jam density if bumper-to-bumper spacing = 5 m5 \text{ m}?

  1. ((a))

    200 veh/km

  2. ((b))

    250 veh/km

  3. ((c))

    300 veh/km

  4. ((d))

    350 veh/km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 veh/km

154

Scrap value refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Cost of repair

  2. ((b))

    Maintenance charges

  3. ((c))

    Sale value of dismantled parts

  4. ((d))

    Resale value

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cost of repair

155

The annual rent fixed by government for tax purposes is:

  1. ((a))

    Fair rent

  2. ((b))

    Market rent

  3. ((c))

    Standard rent

  4. ((d))

    Assessed rent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fair rent

156

Which of the following is NOT measured in square metres?

  1. ((a))

    Plastering

  2. ((b))

    Flooring

  3. ((c))

    Whitewashing

  4. ((d))

    Brick masonry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plastering

157

A plinth area is 180 m2m^{2} and cost rate is ₹16,000/m2m^{2}. What is the estimated cost (including 5% contingency)?

  1. ((a))

    ₹28,80,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹30,24,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹29,90,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹30,00,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹28,80,000

158

A building earns ₹50,000 annually. If the capitalization rate is 5%, the capitalized value is:

  1. ((a))

    ₹10,00,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹12,00,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹15,00,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹25,00,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹10,00,000

159

The density of no-fines concrete made with conventional aggregates is typically in the range of:

  1. ((a))

    1000 - 1200 kg/m3\text{kg/m}^3

  2. ((b))

    1200 - 1500 kg/m3\text{kg/m}^3

  3. ((c))

    1600 - 1900 kg/m3\text{kg/m}^3

  4. ((d))

    2200 - 2500 kg/m3\text{kg/m}^3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000 - 1200 kg/m3\text{kg/m}^3

160

Which modulus of elasticity is most commonly used for concrete?

  1. ((a))

    Tangent modulus

  2. ((b))

    Secant modulus

  3. ((c))

    Initial tangent modulus

  4. ((d))

    Chord modulus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tangent modulus

161

Why is compressive strength usually measured in the field instead of tensile strength?

  1. ((a))

    Tensile strength is always higher

  2. ((b))

    Compressive strength is easier and more convenient to test

  3. ((c))

    Tensile strength does not affect structural design

  4. ((d))

    Compressive strength is always independent of water-cement ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tensile strength is always higher

162

Which of the following is the correct expression for the Darcy-Weisbach equation in fluid flow?

  1. ((a))

    ΔP=ρgh\Delta P = \rho gh

  2. ((b))

    ΔP=f(L/D)(ρv2/2)\Delta P = f * (L/D) * (\rho v^2 / 2)

  3. ((c))

    Q=AvQ = A * v

  4. ((d))

    ΔP=(ρgh)/A\Delta P = (\rho * g * h) / A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ΔP=ρgh\Delta P = \rho gh

163

What does the Chezy’s formula relate to in the case of open channel flow?

  1. ((a))

    Velocity of flow

  2. ((b))

    Pipe friction factor

  3. ((c))

    Hydraulic radius

  4. ((d))

    Flow discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Velocity of flow

164

The critical depth in an open channel flow occurs when:

  1. ((a))

    The flow velocity is minimum

  2. ((b))

    The flow is uniform

  3. ((c))

    The Froude number is equal to 11

  4. ((d))

    The Reynolds number is equal to 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The flow velocity is minimum

165

What type of flow is present when the velocity head is less than the critical velocity in an open channel?

  1. ((a))

    Subcritical flow

  2. ((b))

    Supercritical flow

  3. ((c))

    Critical flow

  4. ((d))

    Steady flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Subcritical flow

166

In a pipe flow, the head loss due to friction can be minimized by:

  1. ((a))

    Increasing the pipe length

  2. ((b))

    Decreasing the pipe diameter

  3. ((c))

    Using smoother pipe material

  4. ((d))

    Increasing the fluid velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increasing the pipe length

167

A fluid flow has only convective acceleration. Which of the following conditions is true?

  1. ((a))

    The flow is steady and uniform.

  2. ((b))

    The flow is unsteady non-uniform.

  3. ((c))

    The flow is steady non-uniform.

  4. ((d))

    The flow is steady and uniform, but velocity varies along a streamline

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The flow is steady and uniform.

168

Which of the following sources is most appropriate for determining unit cost in a detailed estimate for a specialized construction project in a remote location?

  1. ((a))

    Past project rates from urban sites

  2. ((b))

    Current market rates from local suppliers

  3. ((c))

    Standard schedule of rates from government agencies

  4. ((d))

    Average rates from national construction databases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Past project rates from urban sites

169

Which valuation method is most appropriate when a building is owner-occupied, rent is not fixed, and the structure has undergone depreciation?

  1. ((a))

    Rental method

  2. ((b))

    Plinth area method

  3. ((c))

    Cost depreciation method

  4. ((d))

    Income capitalization method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rental method

170

In a detailed estimate, the approximate quantity of cement required for 1 m3m^3 of 1 : 2 : 4 concrete mix is:

  1. ((a))

    200 kg

  2. ((b))

    240 kg

  3. ((c))

    317 kg

  4. ((d))

    350 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 kg

171

A residential plot has an area of 500 m2500 \text{ m}^2. If the permissible FSI is 1.81.8, what is the maximum built-up area allowed?

  1. ((a))

    750  m2\text{ m}^2

  2. ((b))

    900  m2\text{ m}^2

  3. ((c))

    1000  m2\text{ m}^2

  4. ((d))

    1200  m2\text{ m}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

750  m2\text{ m}^2

172

Drip irrigation is most effective for :

  1. ((a))

    Field crops

  2. ((b))

    Orchards and vineyards

  3. ((c))

    Rice paddy cultivation

  4. ((d))

    Large open fields with uniform terrain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Field crops

173

What does the Thiessen polygon method calculate?

  1. ((a))

    Average rainfall

  2. ((b))

    Stream discharge

  3. ((c))

    Hydrometer measurements

  4. ((d))

    Surface runoff

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Average rainfall

174

What is the significance of the base flow in hydrograph analysis?

  1. ((a))

    It represents the total runoff

  2. ((b))

    It is the part of the runoff that remains constant over time

  3. ((c))

    It is the portion of runoff due to groundwater

  4. ((d))

    It helps in determining the peak discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It represents the total runoff

175

The time of concentration of a catchment depends primarily on:

  1. ((a))

    Average annual rainfall only

  2. ((b))

    Length and slope of the longest travel path and surface roughness

  3. ((c))

    Mean air temperature

  4. ((d))

    Type of rain gauge used

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Average annual rainfall only

176

In a triangular channel, the top width and depth of flow are 2. 0 m and 0. 9 m, respectively. What is the discharge in the channel if the velocity measurements indicated velocities of 0. 60 m/sm/s and 0. 40 m/sm/s at 18 cm and 72 cm below the water surface?

  1. ((a))
    1. 90 m3/sm^3/s
  2. ((b))
    1. 80 m3/sm^3/s
  3. ((c))
    1. 45 m3/sm^3/s
  4. ((d))
    1. 80 m3/sm^3/s
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 90 m3/sm^3/s
177

In a river carrying a discharge of 142 m3/s142 \text{ m}^3/\text{s}, the stage at a station A is 3.6 m3.6 \text{ m}, and the surface slope is 1 in 60001 \text{ in } 6000. If during a flood, the stage at A is 3.6 m3.6 \text{ m}, and the surface slope is 1 in 30001 \text{ in } 3000, what was the flood discharge approximately?

  1. ((a))

    284 m3/s284 \text{ m}^3/\text{s}

  2. ((b))

    200 m3/s200 \text{ m}^3/\text{s}

  3. ((c))

    164 m3/s164 \text{ m}^3/\text{s}

  4. ((d))

    96 m3/s96 \text{ m}^3/\text{s}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

284 m3/s284 \text{ m}^3/\text{s}

178

A stream has a cross-sectional area of 100 m2100\ m^2, a velocity of 3 m/s3\ m/s, and a roughness coefficient of 0.030.03. Calculate the discharge of the stream.

Given:

Area = 100 m2100\ m^2

Velocity = 3 m/s3\ m/s

Roughness coefficient = 0.030.03

  1. ((a))

    300 m3/s300\ m^3/s

  2. ((b))

    208 m3/s208\ m^3/s

  3. ((c))

    120 m3/s120\ m^3/s

  4. ((d))

    234 m3/s234\ m^3/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300 m3/s300\ m^3/s

179

A steel rod of 15 mm diameter and 1 m length is subjected to a tensile load of 30 kN. If E=2×105E = 2 \times 10^5 MPa, the extension of the rod will be approximately:

  1. ((a))
    1. 25 mm
  2. ((b))
    1. 85 mm
  3. ((c))
    1. 7 mm
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 mm
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25 mm
180

A well-graded sand has coefficient of uniformity (Cu) greater than :

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

181

Soil with high liquidity index (>1>1) is :

  1. ((a))

    Very soft

  2. ((b))

    Medium stiff

  3. ((c))

    Hard

  4. ((d))

    Dense

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Very soft

182

Coefficient of permeability in anisotropic soil depends on :

  1. ((a))

    Direction of flow

  2. ((b))

    Soil temperature only

  3. ((c))

    Soil color

  4. ((d))

    Moisture content alone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Direction of flow

183

Shear box test is suitable for :

  1. ((a))

    shear strength of soil

  2. ((b))

    Permeability measurement

  3. ((c))

    Consolidation control

  4. ((d))

    Compaction control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

shear strength of soil

184

In soil subjected to cyclic loading, pore pressure buildup is greatest in :

  1. ((a))

    Loose saturated sand

  2. ((b))

    Dense sand

  3. ((c))

    Clay

  4. ((d))

    Gravel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Loose saturated sand

185

In anisotropic clay, horizontal permeability is :

  1. ((a))

    Greater than vertical

  2. ((b))

    Equal to vertical

  3. ((c))

    Negligible

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greater than vertical

186

Blaney-Criddle method for ET estimation primarily uses :

  1. ((a))

    Radiation

  2. ((b))

    Temperature and daylight hours

  3. ((c))

    Wind speed

  4. ((d))

    Humidity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Radiation

187

Project command area is defined as :

  1. ((a))

    Area irrigated by rainfall

  2. ((b))

    Total area that can be irrigated under project

  3. ((c))

    Area submerged by reservoir

  4. ((d))

    Crop area only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Area irrigated by rainfall

188

The top diameter, bottom diameter, and height of the mould used for slump test are _______.

  1. ((a))

    100mm, 300mm, 200mm

  2. ((b))

    200mm, 100mm, 300mm

  3. ((c))

    200mm, 300mm, 100mm

  4. ((d))

    100mm, 200mm, 300mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100mm, 300mm, 200mm

189

Which of the following statement is correct ______.

  1. ((a))

    Duff Abram’s law is valid only when the concrete is of workable plasticity

  2. ((b))

    If the water -cement ratio is less, the strength of concrete will be less

  3. ((c))

    The strength of concrete decreases with age

  4. ((d))

    A rich mix of concrete provides low strength than a lean mix.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Duff Abram’s law is valid only when the concrete is of workable plasticity

190

Normally, the tensile strength of concrete is about _______ of its compressive strength.

  1. ((a))

    10 to 15 %

  2. ((b))

    15 to 20 %

  3. ((c))

    20 to 25 %

  4. ((d))

    25 to 30 %

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 to 15 %

191

The deep beams are designed for _______.

  1. ((a))

    shear force only

  2. ((b))

    bending moment only

  3. ((c))

    both shear force and bending moment

  4. ((d))

    bearing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

shear force only

192

The maximum shear stress in a rectangular beam is _______ times the average shear stress.

  1. ((a))

    1.15

  2. ((b))

    1.25

  3. ((c))

    1.5

  4. ((d))

    1.75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.15

193

For a reinforced concrete beam section, the shape of the shear stress diagram is ____________.

  1. ((a))

    parabolic over the whole section with maximum value at the neutral axis

  2. ((b))

    parabolic above the neutral axis and rectangular below the neutral axis

  3. ((c))

    linearly varying as the distance from the neutral axis

  4. ((d))

    dependent on the magnitude of shear reinforcement provided

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

parabolic over the whole section with maximum value at the neutral axis

194

For reinforcing bars in compression, the average bond stress can be increased by __________.

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10%

195

In a reinforced concrete column, the cross sectional area of steel bar is AsA_s and that of concrete is AcA_c. The equivalent area of the section in terms of concrete is equal to _______.

  1. ((a))

    AsA_s+mAcA_c

  2. ((b))

    AcA_c+mAsA_s

  3. ((c))

    AsA_s-mAcA_c

  4. ((d))

    AcA_c-mAsA_s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AsA_s+mAcA_c

196

The live load to be considered for an accessible roof is _________.

  1. ((a))

    100 kg/m2\text{kg/m}^2

  2. ((b))

    75 kg/m2\text{kg/m}^2

  3. ((c))

    150 kg/m2\text{kg/m}^2

  4. ((d))

    200 kg/m2\text{kg/m}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 kg/m2\text{kg/m}^2

197

For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate span length is ______ .

  1. ((a))
    1. 6
  2. ((b))
    1. 7
  3. ((c))
    1. 8
  4. ((d))
    1. 9
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6
198

The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof is ________.

  1. ((a))

    75kg/m2

  2. ((b))

    150kg/m2

  3. ((c))

    200kg/m2

  4. ((d))

    300kg/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75kg/m2

199

If the effective length of a 32cm diameter R.C.C column is 4. 4m, its slenderness ratio, is _________.

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    55

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40

200

The effective depth of a singly reinforced rectangular beam is 300 mm\text{mm}. The section is over-reinforced and the neutral axis is 120 mm\text{mm} below the top. If the maximum stress attained by concrete is 5 N/mm2\text{N/mm}^2 and the modular ratio is 18, then the stress developed in the steel will be ___________.

  1. ((a))

    130 N/mm2\text{N/mm}^2

  2. ((b))

    135 N/mm2\text{N/mm}^2

  3. ((c))

    160 N/mm2\text{N/mm}^2

  4. ((d))

    180 N/mm2\text{N/mm}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

130 N/mm2\text{N/mm}^2

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt