Official Paper

SSC JE (Civil Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 03 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Complete the analogy.

Z : X :: T : ?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

2

Complete the analogy.

RQPO : TSUV :: LKJI : ?

  1. ((a))

    UVWX

  2. ((b))

    NMOP

  3. ((c))

    XYZQ

  4. ((d))

    OPQR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UVWX

3

Find the missing term in the series:

A, B, D, G, ?

  1. ((a))

    J

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

J

4

Find the missing term in the series:

B, D, G, K, P, ?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

5

Find the missing number in the series: 1,3,5,7,?1, 3, 5, 7, ?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

6

Find the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 10, 22, ?

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

46

7

Complete the analogy.

Hospital : Treatment :: School : ?

  1. ((a))

    Education

  2. ((b))

    Agriculture

  3. ((c))

    Transportation

  4. ((d))

    Manufacturing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Education

8

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Chair, Table, Window, Bench

  1. ((a))

    Chair

  2. ((b))

    Table

  3. ((c))

    Window

  4. ((d))

    Bench

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chair

9

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Mercury, Lead, Bromine, Silver

  1. ((a))

    Mercury

  2. ((b))

    Lead

  3. ((c))

    Bromine

  4. ((d))

    Silver

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mercury

10

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified. Hexagon, Octagon, Heptagon, Circle

  1. ((a))

    Hexagon

  2. ((b))

    Octagon

  3. ((c))

    Heptagon

  4. ((d))

    Circle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hexagon

11

Complete the analogy. $ : Dollar :: £ : ?

  1. ((a))

    Rupee

  2. ((b))

    Euro

  3. ((c))

    Pound

  4. ((d))

    Yen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rupee

12

Complete the analogy.

Odd : Even :: Negative : ?

  1. ((a))

    Minus

  2. ((b))

    Number

  3. ((c))

    Positive

  4. ((d))

    Integer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minus

13

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 8, 27, 64, 81

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    64

  4. ((d))

    81

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

14

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

<,>,/,<, >, /, \ge

  1. ((a))

    //

  2. ((b))

    <<

  3. ((c))

    >>

  4. ((d))

    \ge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

//

15

If HAND is coded as IBOE, how is FOOT coded?

  1. ((a))

    GPPS

  2. ((b))

    GPPT

  3. ((c))

    GPPU

  4. ((d))

    GPPV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GPPS

16

If NUMBER is written as OTNAFQ, then how is FIGURE coded?

  1. ((a))

    GJHTSD

  2. ((b))

    GJHTQD

  3. ((c))

    GJHTSE

  4. ((d))

    GHHTSD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GJHTSD

17

Statement: "Water supply timings in the city will be reduced to 44 hours a day to conserve resources". Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Citizens waste water if given all day

  2. ((b))

    Rainfall will be heavy this year

  3. ((c))

    All citizens have water storage tanks

  4. ((d))

    Water charges will be increased soon

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Citizens waste water if given all day

18

Sales of raincoats triple in a week. What is the most probable cause?

  1. ((a))

    Floods have affected neighbouring towns

  2. ((b))

    Prices of umbrellas increased slightly

  3. ((c))

    Summer vacations started early

  4. ((d))

    The weather department predicted continuous rain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Floods have affected neighbouring towns

19

Your manager is in a bad mood.

How should you communicate urgent work?

  1. ((a))

    Avoid them all day

  2. ((b))

    Send a rude email

  3. ((c))

    Speak politely and clearly

  4. ((d))

    Wait until it’s too late

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avoid them all day

20

A teammate misses a deadline due to a family emergency. What’s the proper reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Ask them to work extra hours immediately

  2. ((b))

    Criticise them for being unprofessional

  3. ((c))

    Ignore their explanation

  4. ((d))

    Show understanding and discuss solutions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ask them to work extra hours immediately

21

Which comes last in the dictionary? PUMP, PUMPKIN, PUMPKINS, PUMPING

  1. ((a))

    PUMP

  2. ((b))

    PUMPKIN

  3. ((c))

    PUMPKINS

  4. ((d))

    PUMPING

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PUMP

22

Identify the word that appears last in alphabetical order: SPARK, SPAWN, SPARROW, SPADE

  1. ((a))

    SPARK

  2. ((b))

    SPAWN

  3. ((c))

    SPARROW

  4. ((d))

    SPADE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SPARK

23

6 men finish a job in 8 days. If only 4 men are working, how many days will they take to finish the same job?

  1. ((a))

    10 days

  2. ((b))

    12 days

  3. ((c))

    14 days

  4. ((d))

    8 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 days

24

Find the odd one out: 121, 134, 169, 196, 225

  1. ((a))

    121

  2. ((b))

    196

  3. ((c))

    169

  4. ((d))

    134

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

121

25

You meet someone from another department at a company event. What should you do to build a connection?

  1. ((a))

    Ask about their role

  2. ((b))

    Talk only about yourself

  3. ((c))

    Wait silently

  4. ((d))

    Hand them a business card and walk away

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ask about their role

26

A colleague from another country mispronounces your name in front of a group. Your best reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Ignore and later gossip

  2. ((b))

    Laugh at them

  3. ((c))

    Politely correct them and continue

  4. ((d))

    Publicly criticise them

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ignore and later gossip

27

During a cross-team meeting, one person becomes overly critical of another’s ideas.

As team lead, what’s the best way to keep discussions productive?

  1. ((a))

    Allow debate to continue unchecked

  2. ((b))

    Ask for constructive suggestions and redirect focus

  3. ((c))

    Criticise the negative person in public

  4. ((d))

    Ignore the situation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Allow debate to continue unchecked

28

Rearrange the letters E C T I S U J to make a valid English word.

  1. ((a))

    CUESTIJ

  2. ((b))

    JICUEST

  3. ((c))

    JUSCITE

  4. ((d))

    JUSTICE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CUESTIJ

29

From the letters L E V O R S, which valid word can be made?

  1. ((a))

    SOLVER

  2. ((b))

    LOVRES

  3. ((c))

    ROVELS

  4. ((d))

    VOLESR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SOLVER

30

You find a wallet full of cash in the office cafeteria. What should you do first?

  1. ((a))

    Hand over to HR or lost & found

  2. ((b))

    Keep it

  3. ((c))

    Ask colleagues if it’s theirs

  4. ((d))

    Take the money, return the wallet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hand over to HR or lost & found

31

Project progress slows due to persistent technical bugs. What is the logical next step as project lead?

  1. ((a))

    Allocate resources to solve bugs before the next stage

  2. ((b))

    Blame team

  3. ((c))

    Cancel project

  4. ((d))

    Extend the deadline without changes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Allocate resources to solve bugs before the next stage

32

A bank has equally qualified male and female managers, but only male managers handle VIP clients. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Only males are trained

  2. ((b))

    Possible gender bias in client allocation

  3. ((c))

    Females avoid VIP clients

  4. ((d))

    Female managers are new

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only males are trained

33

An international firm has 4040%% female engineers, but in overseas projects, only 55%% of assigned engineers are women despite equal qualifications and experience levels.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Overseas work needs male skills

  2. ((b))

    Policy favours men for overseas roles

  3. ((c))

    Women decline overseas work

  4. ((d))

    Men adapt better abroad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Overseas work needs male skills

34

A grocery store reduced prices by 55%, but sales revenue remained the same. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    More units were sold

  2. ((b))

    Customers preferred other shops

  3. ((c))

    Sales volume reduced

  4. ((d))

    Store made more profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

More units were sold

35

You observe that a team member often works late but misses deadlines.

What is a good judgement?

  1. ((a))

    More hours mean more output

  2. ((b))

    They are highly committed

  3. ((c))

    They may be inefficient

  4. ((d))

    They work on personal tasks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

More hours mean more output

36

A school introduced smartboards in all classes, but student performance statistics stayed the same.

Which is the fair conclusion?

  1. ((a))

    Smartboards are useless

  2. ((b))

    Students dislike technology

  3. ((c))

    Subjects became harder

  4. ((d))

    Teachers may not be using them effectively

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Smartboards are useless

37

Evaluate 144÷(18÷3)+256÷(1612){144 \div (18 \div 3)} + {256 \div (16 - 12)}.

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    104

  3. ((c))

    96

  4. ((d))

    88

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

38

What is the correct result of 40(24÷4)×340-(24\div4)\times3?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    34

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

39

If @ = division, % = addition, # = subtraction, and $ = multiplication, what is the value of 

{(200 @ 4) $ 5} % {(72 # 8) @ 8}?

  1. ((a))

    288

  2. ((b))

    258

  3. ((c))

    234

  4. ((d))

    178

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

288

40

If =subtraction, = subtraction, % = division, @ = addition, and # = multiplication, then calculate 100 40 % 2 @ 5 # 3.

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    95

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55

41

If =multiplication, = multiplication, % = addition, @ = subtraction, and # = division, then find 25 4 % 10 @ 6 # 2.

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    38

  3. ((c))

    107

  4. ((d))

    42

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36

42

The rainfall in a region over five years is 800, 850, 900, 950, and 1000 mm. What is the expected rainfall in the seventh year if the trend continues?

  1. ((a))

    1050

  2. ((b))

    1125

  3. ((c))

    1150

  4. ((d))

    1100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1050

43

A machine depreciates 25% each year. If its value is 200000 now, what will be its value after three years?

  1. ((a))

    84000

  2. ((b))

    81200

  3. ((c))

    84375

  4. ((d))

    82145

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84000

44

X is the sister of Y. Y is the father of Z.

How is Z related to X?

  1. ((a))

    Niece / Nephew

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Son

  4. ((d))

    Uncle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Niece / Nephew

45

A train moves at 90 km/h. How long will it take to cover 270 km?

  1. ((a))

    2 hrs

  2. ((b))
    1. 5 hrs
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 hrs
  4. ((d))

    3 hrs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 hrs

46

A shopkeeper offers a 1010% discount on the marked price and still earns a 2020% profit. If the cost price is 450\text{₹}450, find the marked price.

  1. ((a))

    600\text{₹}600

  2. ((b))

    650\text{₹}650

  3. ((c))

    700\text{₹}700

  4. ((d))

    750\text{₹}750

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600\text{₹}600

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

Some flowers are yellow.

All yellow things are bright.

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are bright.

II. All flowers are bright.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

48

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

No glass is plastic.

All plastic is synthetic.

Conclusions:

I. No glass is synthetic.

II. All synthetics are plastic.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

49

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

Some books are pens.

All pens are pencils.

Conclusions:

I. Some books are pencils

II. All books are pencils

III. No book is pencil

IV. Some pens are books

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Only II

  3. ((c))

    Both I and IV

  4. ((d))

    Only IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

50

Statements:

Some teachers are writers.

Some writers are singers.

Which of these conclusions logically follows?

  1. ((a))

    Some teachers are singers

  2. ((b))

    All singers are teachers

  3. ((c))

    Some writers are teachers

  4. ((d))

    Cannot say

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Some teachers are singers

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

In the framework of the World Happiness Report, what does the conceptual entity "Dystopia" most accurately denote?

  1. ((a))

    Nations identified as crisis zones due to acute turmoil, warfare, or systemic collapse

  2. ((b))

    A representation of the country that ranks at the bottom in overall happiness

  3. ((c))

    A hypothetical country used to set a minimum score baseline

  4. ((d))

    A global index measuring average levels of unhappiness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nations identified as crisis zones due to acute turmoil, warfare, or systemic collapse

52

Which of the following health issues is primarily associated with exposure to nitrogen dioxide (NO2\text{NO}_2)?

  1. ((a))

    Respiratory problems

  2. ((b))

    Skin irritation

  3. ((c))

    Vision problems

  4. ((d))

    Digestive issues

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Respiratory problems

53

Which ISRO mission aims to send humans into space for the first time?

  1. ((a))

    Gaganyaan

  2. ((b))

    Shukrayaan

  3. ((c))

    Mangalyaan

  4. ((d))

    Chandrayaan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gaganyaan

54

Which of the following denotes the rate at which a consumer is prepared to exchange goods X and Y, holding the level of satisfaction constant?

  1. ((a))

    Consumer surplus

  2. ((b))

    Marginal rate of substitution

  3. ((c))

    Producer surplus

  4. ((d))

    Demand curve

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Consumer surplus

55

The right to constitutional remedies is granted by which article of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Article 32

  2. ((b))

    Article 35

  3. ((c))

    Article 14

  4. ((d))

    Article 19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 32

56

Which Article allows for the impeachment of the President of India?

  1. ((a))

    Article 61

  2. ((b))

    Article 75

  3. ((c))

    Article 124

  4. ((d))

    Article 89

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 61

57

What is the Indian President’s term of office?

  1. ((a))

    4 years

  2. ((b))

    7 years

  3. ((c))

    6 years

  4. ((d))

    5 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 years

58

Which sultan introduced the Diwan-i-Kohi to encourage agriculture?

  1. ((a))

    Muhammad bin Tughlaq

  2. ((b))

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

  3. ((c))

    Alauddin Khalji

  4. ((d))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Muhammad bin Tughlaq

59

Which Sultan introduced the market control system (Diwan-i-Riyasat)?

  1. ((a))

    Iltutmish

  2. ((b))

    Alauddin Khalji

  3. ((c))

    Balban

  4. ((d))

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iltutmish

60

Which constitutional article mandates that the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers shall remain collectively accountable to the Lok Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    Article 74

  2. ((b))

    Article 163

  3. ((c))

    Article 75

  4. ((d))

    Article 164

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 74

61

Which Article stipulates that the Union government may assume control of a state if there is a breakdown of constitutional machinery?

  1. ((a))

    Article 352

  2. ((b))

    Article 356

  3. ((c))

    Article 360

  4. ((d))

    Article 368

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 352

62

Under which Article does the President summon Parliament sessions?

  1. ((a))

    Article 80

  2. ((b))

    Article 84

  3. ((c))

    Article 85

  4. ((d))

    Article 356

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 80

63

What is the name of the naval exercise that the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) nations participate in?

  1. ((a))

    Operation Atlantic Resolve

  2. ((b))

    Malabar

  3. ((c))

    Operation enduring freedom

  4. ((d))

    Operation desert storm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Operation Atlantic Resolve

64

Which country is a large island nation located in the Indian Ocean?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    Madagascar

  3. ((c))

    Iceland

  4. ((d))

    Cuba

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Japan

65

Which organization is responsible for maritime security in the Indian Ocean?

  1. ((a))

    North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

  2. ((b))

    The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)

  3. ((c))

    Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)

  4. ((d))

    Arctic Council

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

66

The "Smart Cities Mission" focuses on urban development across India. Which of the following is a key feature or objective of this mission?

  1. ((a))

    To construct a large number of new satellite towns around existing metropolitan cities.

  2. ((b))

    To apply smart solutions and technology to improve urban infrastructure and services.

  3. ((c))

    To primarily focus on the development of heritage cities and tourist destinations.

  4. ((d))

    To ensure uniform urban planning regulations across all states in India.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To construct a large number of new satellite towns around existing metropolitan cities.

67

Consider the following statements regarding the "Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme":

I. It provides financial incentives based on the incremental sales of domestically manufactured goods.

II. The scheme is applicable uniformly across all sectors of the Indian economy.

III. A primary goal is to attract foreign investment and boost domestic manufacturing capabilities.

IV. The incentives are primarily targeted towards Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Which of the above statements are generally true about the PLI scheme?

  1. ((a))

    I and III only

  2. ((b))

    II and IV only

  3. ((c))

    I and IV only

  4. ((d))

    II and III only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III only

68

What is the name of the prestigious football tournament held in India, named after a British official?

  1. ((a))

    Ranji Trophy

  2. ((b))

    Durand Cup

  3. ((c))

    Santosh Trophy

  4. ((d))

    IPL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ranji Trophy

69

In which year did Mary Kom win her first World Boxing Championship title?

  1. ((a))

    2000

  2. ((b))

    2002

  3. ((c))

    2005

  4. ((d))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000

70

Which Indian Olympian later served as a central government minister for youth and sports?

  1. ((a))

    Gagan Narang

  2. ((b))

    Sushil Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Abhinav Bindra

  4. ((d))

    Rajyavardhan Rathore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gagan Narang

71

Guwahati and Shillong jointly hosted the 2016 South Asian Games. Which stadium in Guwahati was the primary venue for athletics?

  1. ((a))

    Indira Gandhi Athletic Stadium

  2. ((b))

    Nehru Stadium

  3. ((c))

    Sarusajai Sports Complex

  4. ((d))

    Bongaigaon Stadium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indira Gandhi Athletic Stadium

72

The first-ever international marathon in India, the Mumbai Marathon, was started in which year?

  1. ((a))

    2004

  2. ((b))

    1998

  3. ((c))

    2010

  4. ((d))

    2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2004

73

Which of the following Mughal structures demonstrates the culmination of Persian, Timurid, and Indian architectural styles?

  1. ((a))

    Humayun’s Tomb

  2. ((b))

    Buland Darwaza

  3. ((c))

    Agra Fort

  4. ((d))

    Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Humayun’s Tomb

74

In which famous Indian building can the Indo-Gothic architectural style be found?

  1. ((a))

    Sun Temple, Konark

  2. ((b))

    Lotus Temple, Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (CST), Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Parliament House, Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sun Temple, Konark

75

________ played a key role in financing the trade and industrial activities during the 6th Five-Year Plan.

  1. ((a))

    NITI Aayog

  2. ((b))

    Planning Commission

  3. ((c))

    IMF

  4. ((d))

    IDBI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NITI Aayog

76

Neither "The Suitable Boy" nor "A Fine Balance" was published before 1990. Who authored the latter?

  1. ((a))

    Rohinton Mistry

  2. ((b))

    Vikram Seth

  3. ((c))

    V.S. Naipaul

  4. ((d))

    Jhumpa Lahiri

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rohinton Mistry

77

Which South American author’s work "One Hundred Years of Solitude" is credited with pioneering magical realism?

  1. ((a))

    Mario Vargas Llosa

  2. ((b))

    Jorge Luis Borges

  3. ((c))

    Pablo Neruda

  4. ((d))

    Gabriel Garcia Marquez

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mario Vargas Llosa

78

What was the primary goal of prioritizing small, tiny, and village industries in the Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985-1990)?

  1. ((a))

    To compete with large-scale industries

  2. ((b))

    To reduce rural-urban migration

  3. ((c))

    To enhance employment opportunities on a large scale

  4. ((d))

    To focus exclusively on export markets

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To compete with large-scale industries

79

In which year did Abhinav Bindra win Olympic gold?

  1. ((a))

    2000

  2. ((b))

    2004

  3. ((c))

    2008

  4. ((d))

    2012

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000

80

Which state defeated Maharashtra to win the women’s Kabaddi gold at the 2022 National Games with a score of 27-22?

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haryana

81

The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, primarily introduced:

  1. ((a))

    Complete self-governance for India.

  2. ((b))

    The system of separate electorates for Muslims.

  3. ((c))

    The abolition of the East India Company.

  4. ((d))

    The establishment of a federal court in India.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Complete self-governance for India.

82

The legislative framework established by the British Raj in India, particularly through acts like the Indian Councils Acts and the Government of India Acts, progressively introduced elements of Indian representation. However, these reforms were often strategically designed with underlying objectives. Which of the following best synthesizes the primary, overarching strategic objective behind the gradual inclusion of Indian representation in these legislative bodies?

  1. ((a))

    To genuinely empower Indian self-governance and pave the way for a swift and complete transfer of power based on democratic principles.

  2. ((b))

    To effectively co-opt emerging nationalist sentiments by providing limited avenues for participation, thereby maintaining British control while appearing responsive to Indian demands.

  3. ((c))

    To foster a unified Indian identity and encourage collaboration across different religious and regional groups in the legislative process.

  4. ((d))

    To primarily enhance the efficiency and legitimacy of British administration by incorporating local knowledge and perspectives in policy formulation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To genuinely empower Indian self-governance and pave the way for a swift and complete transfer of power based on democratic principles.

83

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which major procedural reform has been introduced?

  1. ((a))

    No scope for FIRs

  2. ((b))

    Mandatory use of video recording in search and seizure

  3. ((c))

    Removal of police remand

  4. ((d))

    Trial in absentia made mandatory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No scope for FIRs

84

What is the purpose of digitizing evidence collection under Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

  1. ((a))

    Delay trials

  2. ((b))

    Eliminate witness testimonies

  3. ((c))

    Increase cost

  4. ((d))

    Improve accuracy and reduce tampering

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delay trials

85

Who was appointed as the Attorney General of India in 2022 for a period of 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    K.K. Venugopal

  2. ((b))

    R. Venkataramani

  3. ((c))

    Mukul Rohatgi

  4. ((d))

    Harish Salve

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K.K. Venugopal

86

The Speaker of Lok Sabha who was re-elected for a second term in June 2024 is:

  1. ((a))

    Om Birla

  2. ((b))

    Meira Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Sumitra Mahajan

  4. ((d))

    Venkaiah Naidu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Om Birla

87

Who was appointed as the chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Justice Sanjiv Khanna

  2. ((b))

    Justice Hima Kohli

  3. ((c))

    Justice Dinesh Maheshwari

  4. ((d))

    Justice Joymalya Bagchi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Justice Sanjiv Khanna

88

Who among the following was a revolutionary leader during the Telangana rebellion and worked actively against the feudal landlords?

  1. ((a))

    Chityala Ilamma

  2. ((b))

    Rukmini Lakshmipathi

  3. ((c))

    Baru Alivelamma

  4. ((d))

    Maganti Annapurna Devi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chityala Ilamma

89

Who was the oldest retired fighter pilot of the Indian Air Force who passed away in April, 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Mehar Singh

  2. ((b))

    D. S. Majithia

  3. ((c))

    Subroto Mukerjee

  4. ((d))

    K.K. Majumdar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mehar Singh

90

Who was the first Indian to win an Olympic medal in badminton?

  1. ((a))

    P V Sindhu

  2. ((b))

    Saina Nehwal

  3. ((c))

    Dipankar Bhattacharjee

  4. ((d))

    Madhumita Bisht

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P V Sindhu

91

What is the main feature of the Ghodemodni dance from Goa?

  1. ((a))

    Women balancing pots on their heads

  2. ((b))

    Performers dressed as warriors riding decorated horses

  3. ((c))

    Women forming a circle

  4. ((d))

    Dancers wearing colorful masks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women balancing pots on their heads

92

Which of the following is NOT part of the Tripitaka, the sacred Buddhist texts?

  1. ((a))

    Vinaya Pitaka

  2. ((b))

    Hinaya Pitaka

  3. ((c))

    Abhidhamma Pitaka

  4. ((d))

    Sutta Pitaka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vinaya Pitaka

93

Match the following:

Column AColumn B
1. Kalibangana. Horse remains
2. Lothalb. Dockyard
3. Surkotadac. Ploughed fields
4. Ropard. Bone tools
  1. ((a))

    1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

  2. ((b))

    1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

  3. ((c))

    1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

  4. ((d))

    1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

94

Which of the given pairs of thermal power plants and states is matched CORRECTLY?

S. No.Power PlantsStates
1Ukai Power PlantGujarat
2Rihand Power PlantUttar Pradesh
3Korba Power PlantJharkhand
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 2 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

95

Which form of Hindustani music emphasizes ’lyrical’ and ’emotional’ expression?

  1. ((a))

    Thumri

  2. ((b))

    Dhrupad

  3. ((c))

    Alaap

  4. ((d))

    Tappa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thumri

96

Which of the following is considered one of the most authoritative ancient texts on Indian classical music, dance and drama?

  1. ((a))

    Natya Shastra

  2. ((b))

    Sangeet Ratnakar

  3. ((c))

    Rigveda

  4. ((d))

    Arthashastra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Natya Shastra

97

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding patterns of rural settlements?

1 Linear rural settlements are formed along roads and railways.

2 Rectangular patterns of rural settlements are found in wide intermontane valleys.

3 Cruciform settlements are developed around a river.

  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 2 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

98

The percentage of the population in the age group 20 years and above out of the total population of India as per the 2011 Census is:

  1. ((a))
    1. 29%
  2. ((b))
    1. 81%
  3. ((c))
    1. 05%
  4. ((d))
    1. 17%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 29%
99

What separates the Great Andaman group of islands from the Nicobar group of islands?

  1. ((a))

    Palk Strait

  2. ((b))

    Ten Degree Channel

  3. ((c))

    Duncan Passage

  4. ((d))

    Nine Degree Channel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Palk Strait

100

What type of soil is formed under the conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods?

  1. ((a))

    Black soil

  2. ((b))

    Red soil

  3. ((c))

    Arid soil

  4. ((d))

    Laterite soil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Black soil

General Engineering (100 questions)

101

In brick masonry, the frog of the brick is generally kept _____.

  1. ((a))

    On the top face

  2. ((b))

    On the bottom face

  3. ((c))

    On the side face

  4. ((d))

    On the inner face

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

On the top face

102

Which test is used to determine the hardness of stones?

  1. ((a))

    Attrition test

  2. ((b))

    Crushing test

  3. ((c))

    Smith’s test

  4. ((d))

    Brinell hardness test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Attrition test

103

The setting time of cement is tested using ______.

  1. ((a))

    Le Chatelier apparatus

  2. ((b))

    Vicat apparatus

  3. ((c))

    Slump cone

  4. ((d))

    Rebound hammer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Le Chatelier apparatus

104

What is the standard size (in cm) of modular bricks recommended by BIS (including mortar thickness)?

  1. ((a))

    20×10×1020 \times 10 \times 10

  2. ((b))

    19×9×919 \times 9 \times 9

  3. ((c))

    19×9×419 \times 9 \times 4

  4. ((d))

    20×10×520 \times 10 \times 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20×10×1020 \times 10 \times 10

105

____________ is formed by metamorphic action on limestone.

  1. ((a))

    Marble

  2. ((b))

    Quartzite

  3. ((c))

    Slate

  4. ((d))

    Schist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marble

106

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).

Select the correct option:

Assertion(A) : Timber should be seasoned before use in construction.

Reason(R) : Seasoning improves strength, durability, and reduces weight.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

107

In a structural wall requiring maximum lateral stability and uniform distribution of vertical loads, which bond is structurally most effective?

  1. ((a))

    Flemish bond

  2. ((b))

    Header bond

  3. ((c))

    Rat-trap bond

  4. ((d))

    English bond

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flemish bond

108

Match the column :

Column A (Components of Timber)Column B (Description)
A. Xylem1. The central, non-living part of the tree that provides strength.
B. Phloem2. The tissue responsible for transporting water from the roots to the leaves.
C. Cambium3. The living part of the tree that carries nutrients from the leaves to other parts.
D. Heartwood4. The growing layer between the bark and the wood that is responsible for growth.
  1. ((a))

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  2. ((b))

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  3. ((c))

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  4. ((d))

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

109

Which of the following statements about concrete is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Concrete with a high water-cement ratio will be stronger than concrete with a low water-cement ratio.

  2. ((b))

    Concrete can be used for structural elements like beams and columns without reinforcement.

  3. ((c))

    The addition of more cement to concrete mix will always increase its strength.

  4. ((d))

    Concrete’s strength is primarily determined by the water-cement ratio rather than the amount of cement used.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Concrete with a high water-cement ratio will be stronger than concrete with a low water-cement ratio.

110

Which of the following statements about concrete is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Concrete can resist both compression and tension without reinforcement.

  2. ((b))

    The presence of air in concrete improves its strength and makes it more durable.

  3. ((c))

    Concrete is a poor conductor of heat, which makes it ideal for thermal insulation.

  4. ((d))

    Concrete is best suited for compressive applications but requires reinforcement for tensile stress.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Concrete can resist both compression and tension without reinforcement.

111

Directions: In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the correct option:

Assertion(A): The compressive strength of concrete is significantly influenced by the water-cement ratio.

Reason(R): A higher water-cement ratio leads to more hydration, resulting in increased compressive strength of concrete.

  1. ((a))

    Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

  2. ((b))

    Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

  3. ((c))

    The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

  4. ((d))

    The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

112

What is the number of links in a 30 m30 \text{ m} metric chain?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

113

The term "offset" in surveying refers to:

  1. ((a))

    A Circular measurement

  2. ((b))

    A vertical measurement

  3. ((c))

    A short distance measured from a chain line to a point

  4. ((d))

    An angular measurement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A Circular measurement

114

In plane table surveying, the intersection method is used to:

  1. ((a))

    Determine the location of a point from two known points

  2. ((b))

    Determine the location of a point from three known points

  3. ((c))

    Measure the distance between two points

  4. ((d))

    Measure the height of a point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Determine the location of a point from two known points

115

Which of the following is the main advantage of using a plane table for surveying?

  1. ((a))

    It is accurate for long-distance measurements

  2. ((b))

    It allows direct plotting of the survey details

  3. ((c))

    It requires minimal setup time

  4. ((d))

    It is suitable for measuring elevations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is accurate for long-distance measurements

116

A 50m50 m long steel tape standardised with a pull of 120N120 N was used for measuring baseline length of 1500m1500 m. The pull exerted while measuring is 150N150 N. The correction, CpCp, due to pull is given by (the area of cross section of the tape = AA; Young’s modulus= EE)

  1. ((a))

    Cp=(30N)(1500m)AECp = \frac{(30N)(1500m)}{AE}

  2. ((b))

    Cp=(20N)(1100m)AECp = \frac{(20N)(1100m)}{AE}

  3. ((c))

    Cp=(40N)(1200m)AECp = \frac{(40N)(1200m)}{AE}

  4. ((d))

    Cp=(15N)(1400m)AECp = \frac{(15N)(1400m)}{AE}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cp=(30N)(1500m)AECp = \frac{(30N)(1500m)}{AE}

117

The R.L. of point A is 100.0100.0 m. If the backsight reading at point A is 2.02.0 m and the foresight reading at point B is 1.51.5 m, what is the R.L. of point B?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 m
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 m
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 m
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 m
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 m
118

Match the following:

Column 1Column 2
A) Magnetic Declination1) The angle between magnetic north and true north.
B) Plane Table Surveying2) A method of surveying where the table is used to plot points.
C) Theodolite3) An instrument for measuring angles in both horizontal and vertical planes.
D) Base Line4) The longest line measured in a triangulation system for large surveys.
  1. ((a))

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  2. ((b))

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  3. ((c))

    A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

  4. ((d))

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

119

What is the primary purpose of the cross-section method in surveying?

  1. ((a))

    To plot the contour lines

  2. ((b))

    To measure horizontal distances only

  3. ((c))

    To record the elevations at regular interval

  4. ((d))

    To calculate the area of the land

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To plot the contour lines

120

In soil stabilization, what is the effect of adding lime to clayey soil?

  1. ((a))

    Increases the plasticity index of soil

  2. ((b))

    Increases the permeability of soil

  3. ((c))

    Decreases the plasticity index and improves the strength

  4. ((d))

    Reduces the cohesion between soil particles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases the plasticity index of soil

121

In a sandy soil with a shallow foundation, which of the following methods is used to improve bearing capacity?

  1. ((a))

    Increasing the depth of the foundation

  2. ((b))

    Adding more sand to the soil

  3. ((c))

    Using a heavier foundation material

  4. ((d))

    Installing piles to transfer the load to deeper soil layers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increasing the depth of the foundation

122

For a given soil, if the void ratio increases, what happens to the porosity?

  1. ((a))

    It increases

  2. ((b))

    It decreases

  3. ((c))

    It remains the same

  4. ((d))

    It becomes zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It increases

123

A soil sample has a void ratio of 0.60.6. What is its porosity?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    0.60.6

  3. ((c))

    0.370.37

  4. ((d))

    0.750.75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

124

In a soil specimen, 8080% of particles pass through a 4.75 mm4.75 \text{ mm} sieve, and 3030% of particles pass through a 75-micron75\text{-micron} sieve. The uniformity coefficient is 1212, and the coefficient of curvature is 22. As per IS classification, this soil is classified as:

  1. ((a))

    SW

  2. ((b))

    MH

  3. ((c))

    OH

  4. ((d))

    SC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SW

125

Which of the following is NOT a direct consequence of soil compaction?

  1. ((a))

    Increase in soil strength.

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in air voids in the soil.

  3. ((c))

    Increase in water retention.

  4. ((d))

    Decrease in soil’s ability to compact further.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in soil strength.

126

A wet soil sample weighs 210 g and after oven drying weighs 180 g. Find its moisture content (%).

  1. ((a))
    1. 3%
  2. ((b))
    1. 7%
  3. ((c))
    1. 2%
  4. ((d))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 3%
127

A soil has volume of solids 0.35m30.35 m^3 and volume of voids 0.15m30.15 m^3. Find its porosity (%).

  1. ((a))
    1. 5%
  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    40%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5%
128

A soil has specific gravity (6s) = 2.65 and void ratio (e) = 0.6 Find its dry unit weight (kN/m³), Yw = 9.81kN / (m ^ 3)

  1. ((a))

    15.3

  2. ((b))

    16.25

  3. ((c))

    17.23

  4. ((d))

    18.1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15.3

129

During field compaction, a clayey embankment shows MDD lower than lab Proctor value despite same compact ive effort. Which is the most likely reason?

  1. ((a))

    Variation in soil mineralogy

  2. ((b))

    Inadequate moisture control

  3. ((c))

    Higher compactive energy in field

  4. ((d))

    Reduction in air voids

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Variation in soil mineralogy

130

In a standard Proctor test, MDD = 1.85 g/cc1.85 \text{ g/cc}, OMC = 1212%. In the field, dry density achieved = 1.73 g/cc1.73 \text{ g/cc}. Degree of compaction (%) is:

  1. ((a))

    91.391.3%

  2. ((b))

    93.593.5%

  3. ((c))

    9595%

  4. ((d))

    96.596.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

91.391.3%

131

What is the primary environmental issue linked to the use of chlorine for water disinfection?

  1. ((a))

    Creation of chloramines

  2. ((b))

    Formation of trihalomethanes

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen depletion

  4. ((d))

    Acidification of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Creation of chloramines

132

What is the primary pollutant released by vehicles that contributes to photochemical smog?

  1. ((a))

    Nitrogen oxides

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Sulfur dioxide

  4. ((d))

    Ozone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nitrogen oxides

133

What is the primary environmental risk associated with hydraulic fracturing (fracking) for natural gas extraction?

  1. ((a))

    Groundwater contamination

  2. ((b))

    Air pollution

  3. ((c))

    Soil erosion

  4. ((d))

    Noise pollution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Groundwater contamination

134

Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when the pHpH range of water is:

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 to 4. 5
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 to 6
  3. ((c))

    7 to 8

  4. ((d))

    8 to 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 to 4. 5
135

The presence of which of the following compounds in water is an indicator of pollution from industrial effluents?

  1. ((a))

    Ammonia

  2. ((b))

    Chlorides

  3. ((c))

    Sodium

  4. ((d))

    Potassium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ammonia

136

In environmental management, which of the following techniques is used to assess the environmental impact of a proposed project?

  1. ((a))

    Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)

  2. ((b))

    Risk Assessment

  3. ((c))

    Health Impact Assessment (HIA)

  4. ((d))

    Carbon Footprint Analysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)

137

A chemical plant discharges 150,000 m3m^{3}/hr of wastewater containing 200 mg/L of sulfur compounds. What is the mass of sulfur compounds discharged per hour?

  1. ((a))

    30,000 kg

  2. ((b))

    40,000 kg

  3. ((c))

    50,000 kg

  4. ((d))

    60,000 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30,000 kg

138

Which of the following methods is used for in-situ remediation of contaminated groundwater?

  1. ((a))

    Air Sparging

  2. ((b))

    Bioremediation

  3. ((c))

    Soil Vapor Extraction

  4. ((d))

    Chemical Oxidation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air Sparging

139

In air pollution control, the most efficient scrubber for removing fine particulate matter is:

  1. ((a))

    Venturi Scrubber

  2. ((b))

    Wet Scrubber

  3. ((c))

    Electrostatic Precipitator

  4. ((d))

    Cyclone Separator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Venturi Scrubber

140

Which of the following is the most effective technique for controlling nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions from power plants?

  1. ((a))

    Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR)

  2. ((b))

    Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR)

  3. ((c))

    Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD)

  4. ((d))

    Low-NOx Burners

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR)

141

In the terms of carbon capture and storage (CCS), which of the following is the most likely method for storing carbon dioxide long-term?

  1. ((a))

    Ocean storage

  2. ((b))

    Geologic sequestration

  3. ((c))

    Biomass sequestration

  4. ((d))

    Carbonation of concrete

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ocean storage

142

What shape is preferred for the camber when vehicles need to frequently cross the crown line during overtaking?

  1. ((a))

    Circular shape

  2. ((b))

    Parabolic or elliptical shape

  3. ((c))

    Rectangular shape

  4. ((d))

    Zig-zag shape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Circular shape

143

What is the primary advantage of using longer rails in railway construction?

  1. ((a))

    They are easier to transport

  2. ((b))

    They reduce the number of joints and fittings

  3. ((c))

    They increase the cost of maintenance

  4. ((d))

    They require more frequent replacements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are easier to transport

144

Which of the following is the primary method for determining the Modulus of Rupture for concrete?

  1. ((a))

    Direct tension test

  2. ((b))

    Flexural test

  3. ((c))

    Compression test

  4. ((d))

    Split-cylinder test

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Direct tension test

145

Which physical property of cement refers to the ability of cement to not shrink upon hardening?

  1. ((a))

    Consistency

  2. ((b))

    Soundness

  3. ((c))

    Strength

  4. ((d))

    Bulk Density

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Consistency

146

The hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is classified based on:

  1. ((a))

    Reynolds number

  2. ((b))

    Froude number

  3. ((c))

    Weber number

  4. ((d))

    Mach number

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reynolds number

147

In a gradually varied flow, the control section is located at:

  1. ((a))

    Upstream only

  2. ((b))

    Downstream only

  3. ((c))

    Where Froude number = 11

  4. ((d))

    At the highest point of the channel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Upstream only

148

The head developed by a pump is independent of:

  1. ((a))

    Pump speed

  2. ((b))

    Diameter of impeller

  3. ((c))

    Liquid density

  4. ((d))

    Flow rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pump speed

149

A fixed beam is subjected to a couple of moment M0M_0 applied at the centre. The corresponding fixed-end moment at each support is:

  1. ((a))

    M0M_0

  2. ((b))

    M02\frac{M_0}{2}

  3. ((c))

    M04\frac{M_0}{4}

  4. ((d))

    M08\frac{M_0}{8}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M0M_0

150

Electronic Distance Measurement (EDM) uses:

  1. ((a))

    Sound waves

  2. ((b))

    Light waves or infrared rays

  3. ((c))

    Magnetic fields

  4. ((d))

    Laser only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sound waves

151

What is the value of SSD on a 3% descending grade for V=70V=70 km/h, t=2.5t=2.5 sec, f=0.35f=0.35?

  1. ((a))

    96 m

  2. ((b))

    102 m

  3. ((c))

    109 m

  4. ((d))

    120 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

96 m

152

What is the value of Mean headway for 600 veh/h?

  1. ((a))

    4 s

  2. ((b))

    5 s

  3. ((c))

    6 s

  4. ((d))

    7 s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 s

153

Which aggregate type has been reported to achieve strength up to 125125 MPa with a water-cement ratio of 0.320.32?

  1. ((a))

    Natural gravel

  2. ((b))

    Crushed stone aggregate

  3. ((c))

    ALAG (Cementitious aggregate)

  4. ((d))

    Recycled aggregate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Natural gravel

154

In flexural strength testing, which method shows less variability of results?

  1. ((a))

    Central point loading

  2. ((b))

    Third-point loading

  3. ((c))

    Both give equal variability

  4. ((d))

    None of the options

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Central point loading

155

For a modulus of elasticity E=2.5×104N/mm2E = 2. 5 \times 10^4 N/mm^2 and thermal strain = 200×106200 \times 10^{-6}, the induced tensile stress is:

  1. ((a))

    3.5N/mm23.5 N/mm^2

  2. ((b))

    4.0N/mm24.0 N/mm^2

  3. ((c))

    5.0N/mm25.0 N/mm^2

  4. ((d))

    6.0N/mm26.0 N/mm^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.5N/mm23.5 N/mm^2

156

Which of the following is not a primary factor affecting the flow of fluid in a pipe?

  1. ((a))

    Diameter of the pipe

  2. ((b))

    Length of the pipe

  3. ((c))

    Fluid viscosity

  4. ((d))

    Velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Diameter of the pipe

157

How does pozzolana help in resisting sulphate attack?

  1. ((a))

    By increasing permeability of concrete

  2. ((b))

    By reducing hydration temperature

  3. ((c))

    By converting calcium hydroxide into insoluble compounds

  4. ((d))

    By increasing C3AC_{3}A content in cement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By increasing permeability of concrete

158

Which of the following quantities is conserved in steady flow according to Bernoulli’s equation?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure energy

  2. ((b))

    Kinetic energy

  3. ((c))

    Total energy

  4. ((d))

    Potential energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure energy

159

The net positive suction head (NPSH) for a pump is:

  1. ((a))

    The pressure required to prevent cavitation

  2. ((b))

    The energy required to operate the pump

  3. ((c))

    The total head required by the pump

  4. ((d))

    The velocity head at the pump inlet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The pressure required to prevent cavitation

160

The pressure exerted by a fluid at rest in a vessel is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Dynamic pressure

  2. ((b))

    Hydrostatic pressure

  3. ((c))

    Atmospheric pressure

  4. ((d))

    Kinetic pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dynamic pressure

161

Hydrostatic pressure in a fluid at a given depth is directly proportional to:

  1. ((a))

    Fluid density

  2. ((b))

    Fluid velocity

  3. ((c))

    Fluid temperature

  4. ((d))

    Viscosity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fluid density

162

In which of the following cases does the flow in a pipe become fully developed?

  1. ((a))

    When the velocity profile is fully formed and the flow is steady

  2. ((b))

    When the pipe diameter increases significantly

  3. ((c))

    When the Reynolds number is less than 20002000

  4. ((d))

    When the flow is unsteady

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When the velocity profile is fully formed and the flow is steady

163

Which of the following is true regarding laminar flow in a pipe?

  1. ((a))

    The velocity profile is parabolic

  2. ((b))

    The flow is characterized by large swirling eddies

  3. ((c))

    The Reynolds number is greater than 40004000

  4. ((d))

    The friction factor is constant and independent of Reynolds number

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The velocity profile is parabolic

164

In open channel flow, which geometric condition must be met for a channel to be considered hydraulically most efficient (i.e., to carry the maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and slope)?

  1. ((a))

    The hydraulic radius is maximized.

  2. ((b))

    The Froude number is equal to 1.

  3. ((c))

    The specific energy is minimized.

  4. ((d))

    The velocity of flow is equal to the critical velocity.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The hydraulic radius is maximized.

165

The Froude number in open channel flow is used to determine which of the following characteristics of the flow?

  1. ((a))

    The relationship between gravitational forces and inertial forces, which helps classify the flow as subcritical, supercritical, or critical, with respect to the flow depth and velocity

  2. ((b))

    The variation of the velocity profile across the flow section, by analyzing the depth-averaged velocity and hydraulic radius

  3. ((c))

    The discharge capacity of the channel, accounting for channel shape, roughness, and slope, in addition to Froude number

  4. ((d))

    The intensity of turbulence and the onset of flow separation, particularly in channels with varying roughness and steep gradients

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The relationship between gravitational forces and inertial forces, which helps classify the flow as subcritical, supercritical, or critical, with respect to the flow depth and velocity

166

At a point on a streamline, the velocity of the fluid is 5 m/s5 \text{ m/s}, and the radius of curvature is 2 m2 \text{ m}. If the rate of change of velocity along the streamline is 2 m/s22 \text{ m/s}^2, what is the total acceleration at this point?

  1. ((a))

    6 m/s26 \text{ m/s}^2

  2. ((b))

    15.56 m/s215.56 \text{ m/s}^2

  3. ((c))

    12.65 m/s212.65 \text{ m/s}^2

  4. ((d))

    10 m/s210 \text{ m/s}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 m/s26 \text{ m/s}^2

167

Which of the following is not included in detailed estimates?

  1. ((a))

    Material cost

  2. ((b))

    Labour cost

  3. ((c))

    Future market trends

  4. ((d))

    Contingencies

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Material cost

168

Rate analysis involves calculation of:

  1. ((a))

    Only materials

  2. ((b))

    Only labour

  3. ((c))

    Materials, labour, and overheads

  4. ((d))

    Only equipment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only materials

169

A rectangular building plan has external dimensions of 10 m×8 m10 \text{ m} \times 8 \text{ m}. If all the walls are 0.3 m0.3 \text{ m} thick, what is the total length of the walls using the Centreline Method?

  1. ((a))

    36.4 m36.4 \text{ m}

  2. ((b))

    36.0 m36.0 \text{ m}

  3. ((c))

    35.4 m35.4 \text{ m}

  4. ((d))

    34.8 m34.8 \text{ m}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36.4 m36.4 \text{ m}

170

Carpet area is also known as:

  1. ((a))

    Net usable area

  2. ((b))

    Built-up area

  3. ((c))

    Super built-up area

  4. ((d))

    Gross floor area

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Net usable area

171

In carpet area measurement, which of the following is not included?

  1. ((a))

    Kitchen

  2. ((b))

    Toilets

  3. ((c))

    Balcony

  4. ((d))

    Bedrooms

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kitchen

172

Which component typically causes the greatest variation between built-up and carpet areas in flats of similar plinth size?

  1. ((a))

    Flooring thickness

  2. ((b))

    Wall thickness and service ducts

  3. ((c))

    Number of bathrooms

  4. ((d))

    Ceiling height

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flooring thickness

173

A flat has a carpet area of 95 m2^2. The thickness of walls and balcony together add 18 %. What is the built-up area ?

  1. ((a))

    105 m2^2

  2. ((b))

    110 m2^2

  3. ((c))

    112 m2^2

  4. ((d))

    118 m2^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

105 m2^2

174

In an apartment, the super built-up area is 125 m2m^{2} while the built-up area is 100 m2m^{2}. The common-area loading is:

  1. ((a))

    15 %

  2. ((b))

    20 %

  3. ((c))

    25 %

  4. ((d))

    30 %

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 %

175

For a building costing 25\text{₹}25 lakh with a scrap value 5\text{₹}5 lakh and annual depreciation \(6\text{%}\), find approximate life to reach scrap value.

  1. ((a))

    30 years

  2. ((b))

    26 years

  3. ((c))

    35 years

  4. ((d))

    20 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 years

176

Which of the following methods is used to check the consistency of rainfall data ?

  1. ((a))

    Normal rainfall method

  2. ((b))

    Mass curve method

  3. ((c))

    Double-mass curve method

  4. ((d))

    Depth duration frequency method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Normal rainfall method

177

An exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) less than 15, indicates that the soil is:

  1. ((a))

    Saline

  2. ((b))

    Sodic

  3. ((c))

    Alkaline

  4. ((d))

    Basic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Saline

178

The most efficient irrigation system, which allows for precise water application, is:

  1. ((a))

    Drip irrigation

  2. ((b))

    Flood irrigation

  3. ((c))

    Sprinkler irrigation

  4. ((d))

    Furrow irrigation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Drip irrigation

179

The process of water movement from the plants to the atmosphere is called:

  1. ((a))

    Infiltration

  2. ((b))

    Evaporation

  3. ((c))

    Precipitation

  4. ((d))

    Transpiration

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infiltration

180

Which of the following statements is true about evaporation and precipitation?

  1. Over oceans, there is more evaporation than precipitation.
  2. On land, there is more precipitation than evapotranspiration.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

181

Which of the following best describes the primary application of a hydrograph in hydrological analysis?

  1. ((a))

    Monitoring long-term evaporation trends across seasons

  2. ((b))

    Evaluating the temporal distribution of stream discharge in response to precipitation

  3. ((c))

    Assessing thermal fluctuations within a watershed ecosystem

  4. ((d))

    Determining subsurface water purity levels over time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Monitoring long-term evaporation trends across seasons

182

In unit hydrograph theory, the base flow is separated to-

  1. ((a))

    Include interflow in direct runoff

  2. ((b))

    Exclude losses due to infiltration only

  3. ((c))

    Account only for surface runoff in direct runoff computation

  4. ((d))

    Increase the peak discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Include interflow in direct runoff

183

Three storms of 2 cm, 2.5 cm, and 3 cm occur successively with negligible base flow and a ϕ\phi-index of 0. 5 cm/hr for 1-hr duration each. What is the total direct runoff?

  1. ((a))

    4 cm

  2. ((b))

    5 cm

  3. ((c))

    6 cm

  4. ((d))

    7 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 cm

184

During a 33-hour storm, 22 cm of rainfall infiltrates the soil, and 11 cm is lost as evaporation. The average rainfall intensity is 2.52.5 cm/hr. What is the average runoff rate ?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2 cm/hr.
  2. ((b))
    1. 4 cm/hr.
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 cm/hr.
  4. ((d))
    1. 8 cm/hr.
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2 cm/hr.
185

Which of the following expressions represents the section modulus of a rectangular beam having a breadth b and depth d?

  1. ((a))

    bd312\frac{bd^3}{12}

  2. ((b))

    bd26\frac{bd^2}{6}

  3. ((c))

    bd36\frac{bd^3}{6}

  4. ((d))

    bd212\frac{bd^2}{12}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bd312\frac{bd^3}{12}

186

A cube of side 150 mm is immersed in oil and subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 5 MPa. If the bulk modulus of the material is 150 GPa, what is the volumetric strain produced?

  1. ((a))

    3.33×1053.33 \times 10^{-5}

  2. ((b))

    1.33×1041.33 \times 10^{-4}

  3. ((c))

    2.33×1032.33 \times 10^{-3}

  4. ((d))

    1.67×1051.67 \times 10^{-5}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.33×1053.33 \times 10^{-5}

187

Creep is the gradual increase of strain in a material when subjected to:

  1. ((a))

    Constant load and constant temperature

  2. ((b))

    Varying load and constant temperature

  3. ((c))

    Constant strain and varying load

  4. ((d))

    Constant load and varying temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constant load and constant temperature

188

A propped cantilever of length LL carries a central point load WW. The maximum positive bending moment is:

  1. ((a))

    \( \frac{WL}{8}\)

  2. ((b))

    \( {WL}/{4}\)

  3. ((c))

    \( {WL}/{2}\)

  4. ((d))

    \( {WL}/{12}\)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

\( \frac{WL}{8}\)

189

For a cantilever beam of span L subjected to a couple M at its free end, what is the maximum slope at the free end?

  1. ((a))

    MLEI\frac{ML}{EI}

  2. ((b))

    ML22EI\frac{ML^2}{2EI}

  3. ((c))

    MEI\frac{M}{EI}

  4. ((d))

    ML33EI\frac{ML^3}{3EI}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MLEI\frac{ML}{EI}

190

Which exposure class describes concrete surfaces protected from weather/aggressive conditions?

  1. ((a))

    Moderate

  2. ((b))

    Severe

  3. ((c))

    Mild

  4. ((d))

    Very severe

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Moderate

191

For a reinforced concrete (RCC) beam with a width (b) of 200 mm and an effective depth (d) of 300 mm, constructed using M20 grade concrete and Fe415 grade steel, what is the value of the limiting moment of resistance (Mu,limM_{u, lim})?

  1. ((a))

    40 kNm

  2. ((b))

    50 kNm

  3. ((c))

    60 kNm

  4. ((d))

    70 kNm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 kNm

192

What is the limiting moment of resistance (Mu,limM_{u}, lim) formula or expression used for a singly reinforced rectangular beam section designed with Fe415Fe415 grade steel?

  1. ((a))

    0.149fckbd20.149f_{ck}bd^{2}

  2. ((b))

    0.138fckbd20.138f_{ck}bd^{2}

  3. ((c))

    0.143fckbd20.143f_{ck}bd^{2}

  4. ((d))

    0.87fckbd20.87f_{ck}bd^{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.149fckbd20.149f_{ck}bd^{2}

193

What is the minimum required area of tension reinforcement (As,minA_{s,min}) for a reinforced concrete beam with a width (b) of 230 mm and an effective depth (d) of 450 mm, using Fe415 grade steel (where the yield strength, fyf_y, is 415 MPa)?

  1. ((a))

    160 mm2mm^2

  2. ((b))

    212 mm2mm^2

  3. ((c))

    255 mm2mm^2

  4. ((d))

    300 mm2mm^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

160 mm2mm^2

194

What is the Final setting time of OPC?

  1. ((a))

    300 min

  2. ((b))

    600 min

  3. ((c))

    720 min

  4. ((d))

    900 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300 min

195

The short-term static modulus of elasticity of M25 grade concrete, as per IS 456:2000, is approximately:

  1. ((a))

    20 GPa

  2. ((b))

    25 GPa

  3. ((c))

    30 GPa

  4. ((d))

    35 GPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 GPa

196

The chances of diagonal tension cracks in R.C.C. member reduce when ________.

  1. ((a))

    only shear force act

  2. ((b))

    flexural and shear force act

  3. ((c))

    axial tension and shear force act simultaneously

  4. ((d))

    axial compression and shear force act simultaneously

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

only shear force act

197

When hooks are formed in deformed bars, the internal radius of the bend should be at least ____ times the diameter of the bar.

  1. ((a))

    two

  2. ((b))

    three

  3. ((c))

    four

  4. ((d))

    six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

two

198

The side face reinforcement, if required, in a T-beam will be ______.

  1. ((a))
    1. 1 % of the web area
  2. ((b))
    1. 15 % of the web area
  3. ((c))
    1. 2 % to 0. 3 % of the web area depending upon the breadth of the slab
  4. ((d))

    half the longitudinal reinforcement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1 % of the web area
199

If ’HH’ is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base slab usually provided is _______.

  1. ((a))
    1. HH
  2. ((b))

    0.2  HH

  3. ((c))
    1. HH
  4. ((d))
    1. 6 HH
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. HH
200

When the T-beam is continuous, the assumed overall depth of the beam of heavy loads is taken as ________.

  1. ((a))

    110\frac{1}{10} to 112\frac{1}{12} of span

  2. ((b))

    112\frac{1}{12} to 115\frac{1}{15} of span

  3. ((c))

    115\frac{1}{15} to 120\frac{1}{20} of span

  4. ((d))

    120\frac{1}{20} to 125\frac{1}{25} of span

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

110\frac{1}{10} to 112\frac{1}{12} of span

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