Official Paper

SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 9 December 2019 Shift 2)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The option in which the given figure is embedded is,

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

2

Four letter-cluster have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    deefFF

  2. ((b))

    uvVwWW

  3. ((c))

    mnNoOO

  4. ((d))

    pqQrRR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

deefFF

The pattern followed is,

The third letter in the given pair and the last two letters are capital letters.

All follow the same pattern, except ‘deefFF’.

Hence, “deefFF” is the odd one.

3

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The option in which the given figure is embedded is,

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

4

A, E, I, O, U, H, F, and W are sitting facing outwards around a circular table in clockwise manner in the same sequence at equal distances from each other. Then O and F interchange their positions. If H is facing the north, then which direction will O be facing?

  1. ((a))

    North-east

  2. ((b))

    South-west

  3. ((c))

    East

  4. ((d))

    West

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North-east

Arranging them according to the given information,

After interchanging places,

Here A, E, I, O, U, H, F, and W are in same sequence, H is facing to north, So that all are facing away from centre.

Thus, O will be facing North – East.

Hence, “north – east” is the correct answer.

5

A bus driver stared form a point ‘A’ and drove 25 km towards the east. He turned left and drove 30 km. He then turned left and drove 15 km. He again turned left and drove 30 km and reached a point ‘B’. How far and in which direction is the point ‘B’ from the point ‘A’?

  1. ((a))

    10 km, west 

  2. ((b))

    10 km, East 

  3. ((c))

    40 km, West 

  4. ((d))

    40 km, East 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 km, East 

Drawing diagram according to the given information,

‘B’ is 10 km East of ‘A’.

Hence, “10 km, East” is the correct answer.

6

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes.

Cows, Wild animals, Fox

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fox is a wild animal.

Whereas,

Cow is not a wild animal, so it is represented separately.

The correct Venn diagram representation is,

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

7

Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure, when mirror is placed to right side of the figure. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The mirror image, when mirror is placed to right side of the figure is,

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

8

Among the following words, which one will come fifth if they are arranged as per their order in a English dictionary?

  1. Wink, 2. Whip, 3. Weary, 4. Wing, 5. Weigh, 6. Weather
  1. ((a))

    Wink

  2. ((b))

    Whip

  3. ((c))

    Wing 

  4. ((d))

    Weather

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Wing 

Weary comes first in the order.

It is followed by Weather.

Weather is followed by Weigh.

Weigh is followed by Whip.

Whip is followed by Wing.

Wing is followed by Wink.

The correct dictionary order is,

Weary → Weather → Weigh → Whip → Wing → Wink

‘Wing’ comes fifth in the order.

Hence, “wing” is the correct answer.

9

How many triangles are there in the following figure?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24

The number of triangles in the given figure are,

Hence, “24” is the correct answer.

10

Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

  1. ((a))

    171

  2. ((b))

    209

  3. ((c))

    133

  4. ((d))

    195

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

195

171, 209 and 133 are multiples of 19.

While,

195 is not a multiple of 19.

Hence, “195” is the odd one.

11

If A indicates >; B indicates <; C indicates = ; D indicates + ; E indicates -; F indicates × ; G indicates /: then which of the following option is true?

  1. ((a))

    (35E15) C (5f5) A (20G4)

  2. ((b))

    (5D6) A (4D3) A (3D3)

  3. ((c))

    (27G3) C (75G5) C (6F2)

  4. ((d))

    (5D6) A (6D12) A (13D6)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(5D6) A (4D3) A (3D3)

According to given information,

A>
B<
C=
D+
E-
F×
G/

 

Verifying the given options,

Option 1 → (35E15) C (5f5) A (20G4)

( 35 – 15 ) = (5 × 5) > (20 /4)

20 = 25 > 5 is not correct.

Option 2 → (5D6) A (4D3) A (3D3)

(5 + 6 ) > (4 + 3) > (3 + 3)

11 > 7 > 6 is correct.

Option 3 → (27G3) C (75G5) C (6F2)

(27 / 3) = (75 / 5) = (6 × 2)

9 = 15 = 12 is not correct.

Option 4 → (5D6) A (6D12) A (13D6)

(5 + 6) > (6 + 12) > (13 + 6)

11 > 18 > 19 is not correct.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

12

Which number will appear on the bottom face in the last cube?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6

According to the given diagrams,

‘3’ will be facing opposite ‘5’

‘1’ will be facing opposite ‘2’

And,

‘4’ will be facing opposite ‘6’

‘6’ will appear on the bottom face of the last cube.

Hence, “6” is the correct answer.

13

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The pattern followed is,

The arrow symbol moves anti clockwise increasing its places by one, two and three simultaneously.

And,

The geometric figures move anti clockwise increasing their sides simultaneously.

In the first figure there is a triangle, in the second one there is a square, in the third figure there is a pentagon and in the fourth figure there should be a hexagon.

The figure that completes the given pattern is,

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

14

Four pairs of numbers have been given, out of which there are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    42, 72

  2. ((b))

    56, 63

  3. ((c))

    20, 42

  4. ((d))

    132, 182

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

56, 63

The pattern followed is,

Option 1 → 42 and 72 are even numbers.

Option 2 → 56 is an even number and 63 is an odd number.

Option 3 → 20 and 42 are even numbers.

Option 4 → 132 and 182 are even numbers.

All are in the same pattern, except ’56, 63’.

Hence, “56, 63” is the odd pair.

15

In the following figure, circle represents Surgeons, Triangle represents Doctors, rectangles represent Professionals and pentagon represents Indians. Which number represents Indian doctors who are also Surgeons?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

The shaded part represents Indian doctors who are also Surgeons.

‘5’ represents Indian doctors who are also Surgeons.

Hence, “5” is the correct answer.

16

In a certain code language ‘PAYCHECK’ is written as ‘YHQZFXZV’ and ‘TEACH’ IS WRITTEN AS ‘NXHZF’. How will ‘YACHT’ be written as in that language?

  1. ((a))

    YHZE

  2. ((b))

    QHZFN

  3. ((c))

    HQZFV

  4. ((d))

    QXZFN 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

QHZFN

According to the given information:

LetterPAYCHECK
CodeYHQZFXZV
<br>

And,

LetterTEACH
CodeNXHZF
<br>

Similarly,

LetterYACHT
CodeQHZFN
<br>

Hence, “QHZFN” is the correct answer.

17

In a certain code language. ‘KITE’ is written as ‘9’ and ‘MAGIC’ is written as ‘11’ How. Will ‘FELICITATION’ be written as in that language?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25

Pattern followed here is,

KITE has 4 letters, 4 × 2 + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9

MAGIC has 5 letters, 5 × 2 + 1 = 10 + 1 = 11

Similarly,

FELICITATION has 12 letters, 12 × 2 + 1 = 25

Hence, 25 is the correct answer.

18

Select the figure the will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The pattern followed is,

The number of figures keeps on increasing along with the number of sides.

In the first image there is only one circle, in the second image there are two triangles, in the third image there are three squares.

And,

The fourth image should consist of four figures, which are 4 pentagons.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

19

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The pattern followed is,

The image is moving anti – clock wise by 45°.

The figure which will come next is,

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

20

If ‘ × ’ stands for ‘ + ’ , ‘ + ’ stands for ‘ ÷ ’, ‘-‘ stands for ‘ × ’ and ‘ ÷ ’ stands for ‘-‘ then find the value of the given equation.

76 ÷ 5 – 6 + 3 × 4 = ?

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    70

  3. ((c))

    62

  4. ((d))

    65

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

70

According to given information:

+-×÷
Means
÷×+-
<br>

Interchanging the following signs and using BODMAS rule,

76 - 5 × 6 ÷ 3 + 4 = ?

76 – 5 × 2 + 4 = ?

76 – 10 + 4 = ?

80 – 10 = 70

Hence, “70” is the correct answer.

21

Which of the given options would be a logical sequence of the following measurement units?

  1. Furlong
  2. Mile
  3. inch
  4. Yard
  5. Foot
  1. ((a))

    2,1,4,3,5

  2. ((b))

    2,1,4,5,3

  3. ((c))

    1,4,2,5,3

  4. ((d))

    1,5,3,2,4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2,1,4,5,3

Mile comes first.

Mile is followed by furlong.

Furlong is followed by yard.

Yard is followed by foot.

Foot is followed by inch.

The correct logical order is,

2)Mile → 1) Furlong → 4)Yard → 5)Foot → 3)Inch

Hence, “2,1,4,5,3” is the correct answer.

22

Four letter-cluster have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

  1. ((a))

    AEONS

  2. ((b))

    PIOUS

  3. ((c))

    QUAIL

  4. ((d))

    PENAL 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

PENAL 

The pattern followed is,

AEONS, PIOUS and QUAIL have three vowels.

Whereas,

PENAL has only two vowels.

Hence, “PENAL” is the odd one.

23

In a certain code language ‘ULTERIOR’ is written as ‘33259969’. How will ‘NAVIGATION’ be written as in that language?

  1. ((a))

    1412297251

  2. ((b))

    1419712915

  3. ((c))

    5149722965

  4. ((d))

    5149712965

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5149712965

The pattern followed is,

The place values of letters in ULTERIOR are,

U → 21, 2 + 1 = 3

L → 12, 1 + 2 = 3

T → 20, 2 + 0 = 2

E → 5

R → 18, 1 + 8 = 9

I → 9

O → 15, 1 + 5 = 6

R → 18, 1 + 8 = 9

So,

ULTERIOR is coded as ‘33259969’.

Similarly,

The place values of letters in NAVIGATION are,

N → 14, 1 + 4 = 5

A → 1

V → 22, 2 + 2 = 4

I → 9

G → 7

A → 1

T → 20, 2 + 0 = 2

I → 9

O → 15, 1 + 5 = 6

N → 14, 1 + 4 = 5

So,

NAVIGATION is coded as ‘5149712965’.

Hence, “5149712965” is the correct answer.

24

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The paper when unfolded looks like,

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

25

In a certain code language, ‘dee duc tic’ is written as ‘roses are red’ , bil doe’ is written as ‘yellow carnations’, and ‘tic dur doe’ is written as ‘carnations are pink’. What is the code for ‘pink’ in that language?

  1. ((a))

    doe

  2. ((b))

    dee

  3. ((c))

    dur

  4. ((d))

    tic 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

dur

According to the given information,

‘Pink’ is coded as ‘dur’.

Hence, ‘dur’ is the correct answer.

26

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes.

Days, Hours, Weeks

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7 days form a week.

And,

24 hours form a day.

The correct Venn diagram representation is,

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

27

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

  1. ((a))

    Tin

  2. ((b))

    Zinc

  3. ((c))

    Steel

  4. ((d))

    Aluminium 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Steel

Tin, Zinc and Aluminium are metals.

Whereas,

Steel is an alloy, a mixture of one or more metals.

Hence, “steel” is the odd one out.

28

Select the correct equation after interchanging the operators ‘-‘and ‘ × ’ and the numbers ‘4’ and ‘3’.

  1. ((a))

    3 × 9 – 4 = 4

  2. ((b))

    4 – 3 × 9 = 4

  3. ((c))

    3 × 4 – 9 = 9

  4. ((d))

    9 –  4 × 3 = 21

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4 – 3 × 9 = 4

Interchanging operators ‘-‘ and ‘ × ’ and numbers ‘4’ and ‘3’

Option 1 → 4 - 9 × 3 = 4

4 – 27 is not equal to 4

Option 2 → 3 × 4 - 9 = 3

12 – 9 = 3

Option 3 → 4 – 3 × 9 = 9

4 – 27 is not equal to 9

Option 4 → 9 × 3 - 4 = 21

27 – 4 is not equal to 21

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

29

Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed to right side of the figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The mirror image when the mirror is placed to right side of the figure is,

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

30

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as shared by the given set of numbers.

(9, 28, 85)

  1. ((a))

    (11, 34, 102)

  2. ((b))

    (14, 52, 156)

  3. ((c))

    (3, 12, 37)

  4. ((d))

    (7, 22, 67)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(7, 22, 67)

The pattern followed is,

For,

(9, 28, 85)

9 × 3 = 27, 27 + 1 = 28

9 × 9 = 81, 81 + 4 = 85

Similarly,

The pair which follows the same pattern is,

(7, 22, 67)

7 × 3 = 21, 21 + 1 = 22

7 × 9 = 63, 63 + 4 = 67

Hence, “(7, 22, 67)” is the correct answer.

31

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statements:

  1. All petunias are flowers.
  2. No flower is black.

Conclusions:

I.Some petunias are black.

II. No petunia is black.

  1. ((a))

    Both the conclusion I and II follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows.

Drawing the Venn diagram,

Conclusion 1: Some petunias are black → False (This is definitely false)

Conclusion 2: No petunia is black → True (This is definitely true)

Hence, “only conclusion 2” follow.

32

Two statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, II and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statements:

  1. All papers are stationery.
  2. Some papers are books.

Conclusions:

I. Some stationery are papers.

II. No stationery is paper.

III. No book is stationery.

IV. Some books are papers.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusions I and II follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusions I, II and IV follow.

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusions I and IV follow.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II and III follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only conclusions I and IV follow.

Drawing the Venn diagram,

Conclusion 1: Some stationery are papers → True (This is definitely true)

Conclusion 2: No stationery is paper → False(This is definitely false)

Conclusion 3: No book is stationery → False (This is definitely false)

Conclusion 4: Some books are papers → True (This is definitely true)

Hence, “only conclusions 1 and 4” follow.

33

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is relatred to the first term.

SPORTS : 214 ∷ SOCIAL : ?

  1. ((a))

    116

  2. ((b))

    120

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    118

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

118

The pattern followed is,

The place values of SPORTS are,

S → 19, P → 16, O → 15, R → 18, T → 20, S → 19

SPORTS → 19 + 16 + 15 + 18 + 20 + 19 = 107, 107 × 2 = 214

So,

SPORTS : 214

Similarly,

For SOCIAL,

S → 19, O → 15, C → 3, I → 9, A → 1, L → 12

SOCIAL → 19 + 15 + 3 + 9 + 1 + 12 = 59, 59 × 2 = 118

So,

SOCIAL : 118

Hence, “118” is the correct answer.

34

In the following numbers series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Select the most appropriate option for these numbers in relation to their inclusion in the series.

1, 5, 17, (39), 65, 101, (145), 197

  1. ((a))

    The first bracketed number from the left is correct and the second bracketed number from the left is incorrect.

  2. ((b))

    Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

  3. ((c))

    Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect. 

  4. ((d))

    The first bracketed number from the left is incorrect and the second bracketed number from the left is correct. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The first bracketed number from the left is incorrect and the second bracketed number from the left is correct. 

The pattern followed is,

The number in the first bracket from the left is incorrect.

37 is the correct number which has to be in the first bracket, not 39.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

35

Select the word from the given options that is similar to the given words and hence belong to the same group.

Eagle, Ostrich, Kiwi

  1. ((a))

    bat

  2. ((b))

    Shark

  3. ((c))

    Sparrow

  4. ((d))

    unicorn 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sparrow

Eagle, Ostrich and Kiwi are birds.

Similarly,

Sparrow is a bird.

‘Sparrow’ is similar to the given words and hence belong to the same group.

Hence, “sparrow” is the correct answer.

36

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

3187
287135
4865?
6010898
  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21

The pattern followed is,

For first column:

48 – 28 = 20

3 × 20 = 60

And,

For second column:

71 – 65 = 6

18 × 6 = 108

Similarly,

For third column:

35 – 21 = 14

7 × 14 = 98

Hence, “21” is the correct answer.

37

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Camel: Howdah ∷ Horse : ?

  1. ((a))

    Saddle

  2. ((b))

    Seat

  3. ((c))

    Hoof

  4. ((d))

    Chariot

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Saddle

Howdah is a carriage which is positioned on the back of a camel to carry things.

Similarly,

A saddle is the seat fastened on the back of a horse for riding, which is made of leather.

‘Saddle’ is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “saddle” is the correct answer.

38

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Wall : Brick ∷ Fabric :?

  1. ((a))

    Mill

  2. ((b))

    Yarn

  3. ((c))

    Skirt

  4. ((d))

    Design 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Yarn

Wall is made of Bricks.

Similarly,

Fabric is made of Yarn.

Hence, “yarn” is the correct answer.

39

Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

Food : Chef

  1. ((a))

    Film : Producer

  2. ((b))

    Painter : Painting

  3. ((c))

    Hospital : Doctor

  4. ((d))

    Farmer : Field 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Film : Producer

Chef is a trained professional cook, who is proficient in all aspects of food preparation.

Similarly,

A producer is a person who oversees film production, plan and coordinate various aspects of film production.

‘Film : Producer’ share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

Hence, “film : producer” is the correct answer.

40

Four words have been given out of which tree are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    Fire

  2. ((b))

    Grill

  3. ((c))

    Roast

  4. ((d))

    Steam 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fire

Grill, Roast and Steam are different methods of cooking.

Whereas,

Fire is a process in which substances combine chemically with oxygen from the air and typically give bright light.

Hence, ‘Fire’ is odd one out.

41

Four pairs of numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

  1. ((a))

    25, 53

  2. ((b))

    19, 39

  3. ((c))

    68, 137

  4. ((d))

    37, 75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25, 53

The pattern followed is-

Option 1 → 25 × 2 + 3 = 53

Option 2 → 19 × 2 + 1 = 39

Option 3 → 68 × 2 + 1 = 137

Option 4 → 37 × 2 + 1 = 75

All follow the same pattern, except ’25, 53’.

Hence, “25, 53” is the correct answer.

42

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.

63 : 72

  1. ((a))

    188 : 216

  2. ((b))

    161 : 184

  3. ((c))

    152 : 133

  4. ((d))

    112 : 144

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

161 : 184

The pattern followed is,

9 × 7 : 9 × 8

So,

63 : 72

Similarly,

161 : 184

23 × 7 : 23 × 8

So,

161 : 184

Hence, “161 : 184” is the correct answer.

43

Four pairs of numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, While one is different. Choose out the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    6, 12

  2. ((b))

    12, 8

  3. ((c))

    24, 4

  4. ((d))

    6, 16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6, 12

The pattern followed is,

Option 1 → 6 × 12 = 72

Option 2 → 12 × 8 = 96

Option 3 → 24 × 4 = 96

Option 4 → 6 × 16 = 96

All other pairs when multiplied give 96 as a result, except ‘6, 12’.

Hence, “6, 12” is the odd pair.

44

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

289 : 324 :: 441: ?

  1. ((a))

    401

  2. ((b))

    484

  3. ((c))

    483

  4. ((d))

    529

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

484

The pattern followed is,

172 = 289

17 + 1 = 18

182 = 324

So,

289 : 324

Similarly,

212 = 441

21 + 1 = 22

222 = 484

So,

441 : 484                   

Hence, “484” is the correct answer.

45

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

10 : 142 ∷ 17 : 359 ∷ 21 : ?

  1. ((a))

    525

  2. ((b))

    529

  3. ((c))

    576

  4. ((d))

    527

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

527

The pattern followed is,

For 10 : 142

10 + 2 = 12

122 = 144

144 – 2 = 142

So,

10 : 142

And, For 17 : 359

17 + 2 = 19

192 = 361

361 – 2 = 359

So,

17 : 359

Similarly,

21 + 2 = 23

232 = 529

529 – 2 = 527

So,

21 : 527

Hence, “527” is the correct answer.

46

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

SUNDAY : RWKHVE ∷ ANNUAL: ?

  1. ((a))

    AOKXWR

  2. ((b))

    BPKYVQ

  3. ((c))

    ZPKYVR

  4. ((d))

    ZPLXVN

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ZPKYVR

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

Hence, “ZPKYVR” is the correct answer.

47

Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

14, 17, 23, 32, 44, 59, ?

  1. ((a))

    74

  2. ((b))

    78

  3. ((c))

    67

  4. ((d))

    77

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

77

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, “77” is the correct answer.

48

Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the given series.

CYB, FUG, IQL, LMQ, OIV, _____

  1. ((a))

    REA

  2. ((b))

    PFZ

  3. ((c))

    REZ

  4. ((d))

    PEA 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

REA

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “REA” is the correct answer.

49

Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

1, 1, 2, 3, 7, 22, ?

  1. ((a))

    152

  2. ((b))

    156

  3. ((c))

    157

  4. ((d))

    155

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

155

The pattern followed is,

1 × 1 + 1 = 2

1 × 2 + 1 = 3

2 × 3 + 1 = 7

3 × 7 + 1 = 22

7 × 22 + 1 = 155

Hence, “155” is the correct answer.

50

Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

B, C, E, ?, Q, G

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

I

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “I” is the correct answer.

General Knowledge and General Awareness (50 questions)

51

What is Jaduguda known for?

  1. ((a))

    One-horned rhinoceros

  2. ((b))

    Sandalwood forests

  3. ((c))

    Handloom industry

  4. ((d))

    Uranium deposits

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uranium deposits

  • Jaduguda is a village in the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand.
  • Jaduguda is known for its uranium mines and uranium deposits.
  • The exploitation of Uranium started in 1962.
  • Uranium is also found in the mines of Udaipur, Rajasthan.
  • Uranium is nuclear fuel with chemical symbol U and atomic number 92

52

Which protein protects the epithelial cells from damage?

  1. ((a))

    Elastin

  2. ((b))

    Keratin

  3. ((c))

    Actin

  4. ((d))

    Collagen

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Keratin

Keratin:-

  • Keratin protein protects the epithelial cells from damage.
  • Epithelial cells are a type of cell that lines the surfaces of your body.
  • They are found on your skin, blood vessels, urinary tract, and organs.
  • Keratin is the key structural material making up hair, nails, feathers, horns, claws, hooves, calluses, and the outer layer of skin among vertebrates.
  • Keratin proteins comprise the cytoskeletal component of these epithelia.
  • Keratin filaments are attached to the plasma membrane via desmosomes, and together these structural components form a three-dimensional array within the cytoplasm of epithelial cells and tissues.
53

The Governor-General of India was given the title of Viceroy for the first time in:

  1. ((a))

    1857

  2. ((b))

    1856

  3. ((c))

    1858

  4. ((d))

    1859

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1858

  • The Governor-General of India was given the title of Viceroy for the first time in 1858.
  • After the mutiny of 1857 the title of Viceroy was created in 1858.
  • Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India.
  • Government of India Act, 1858 was passed to end the rule of East India company and and transferred it to the British crown.
  • The act also ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
  • It also created a new office, Secretary of State for India.
54

The term 'Askaryan effect' is associated with which functional area of science?

  1. ((a))

    Physics

  2. ((b))

    Chemistry

  3. ((c))

    Biology

  4. ((d))

    Geology

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Physics

  • The term 'Askaryan effect' is associated with the Physics functional area of science.
  • It is called the Askaryan effect or Askaryan radiation.
  • The Askaryan effect is the phenomenon whereby a particle traveling faster than the phase velocity of light in a dense dielectric medium (such as salt, ice) produces a shower of secondary charged particles which contain a charge anisotropy and thus emits a cone of coherent radiation in the radio or microwave part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  • The Askaryan effect describes coherent electromagnetic radiation from high-energy cascades in dense media with a collective charge.
  • This effect is closely related to the Cherenkov effect.
  • Cherenkov radiation/effect is light produced by charged particles when they pass through an optically transparent medium at speeds greater than the speed of light in that medium.
55

Name the famous Indian painter who was honoured with the Kaisar-i-Hind gold medal by the British Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon.

  1. ((a))

    Abhanindranath Tagore

  2. ((b))

    Nandalal Bose

  3. ((c))

    Jamini Roy

  4. ((d))

    Raja Ravi Varma

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Raja Ravi Varma

  • Viceroy Lord Curzon bestowed the Kaiser-i- Hind gold medal to Raja Ravi Varma in 1904.
  • Shakuntala, Nair Lady Adorning Her Hair, There Comes Papa were notable works of Raja Ravi Verma.
  • Raja Ravi Varma was related to the royal family of Travancore.
  • Mahatma Gandhi was also awarded the Kaisar-i-Hind title for raising an Indian Ambulance Core during Boer wars.
  • Mahatma Gandhi returned the Kaisar-i-Hind title as a protest against the Jallianwala-Bagh massacre in 1919.
56

Who has become India’s first woman IPS officer to successfully complete the South Pole expedition?

  1. ((a))

    Chhanda Gayen

  2. ((b))

    Kalpana Dash

  3. ((c))

    Aparna Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Malavath Purna

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Aparna Kumar

  • Aparna Kumar became India’s first woman IPS officer to successfully complete the South Pole expedition.
  • Aparna Kumar is also an officer of Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP).
  • The first person to reach the south pole was Roald Amundsen.
  • Lieutenant Ram Charan of the Indian Navy, was the first Indian to visit the South Pole.
  • Colonel J.K. Bajaj became the first Indian to reach the South Pole at a 0-degree latitude in Antarctica, South Pole.
57

What will happen if a glass bottle is completely filled with water, sealed with a lid and put into a freezer?

  1. ((a))

    Nothing will happen

  2. ((b))

    Eventually, the ice will burst the glass bottle

  3. ((c))

    Weight of the glass bottle will increase after water freezes into ice

  4. ((d))

    The glass bottle will be deformed due to atmospheric pressure on the bottle after the water freezes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Eventually, the ice will burst the glass bottle

  • The Glass bottle constitutes a closed system and when it is filled with water, the water fills the bottle completely.
  • But when the water freezes, the ice expands and the volume of the water increases and the bottle breaks because it is made of glass and glass cannot endure tensile stress which the ice exerts on the bottle.
  • When ice expands its volume becomes 9-10% more than that of water. Hence, the glass bottle cannot accommodate the increase in the volume of 10% and hence it breaks.
  • All inelastic materials will break when tensile stress is acting on them.
58

As per the 2011 census, Hindi has retained its position as a predominant language spoken by about ______ of the population.

  1. ((a))

    39.36%

  2. ((b))

    46.25%

  3. ((c))

    37%

  4. ((d))

    43.63%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

43.63%

  • According to Census 2011, Hindi has retained its position as a predominant language spoken by about 43.63% of the population.
  • Bengali was the second most spoken language which is spoken by 8.03% of the population.
  • Marathi was at 3rd with 6.86% of speakers.
  • Out of 22 scheduled languages,13 were reported as the mother tongue by at least 1% of the population.
  • Sanskrit is spoken by nearly 25000 people.
  • The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides a list of all the officially recognized languages in India. It is found in Article 344(1) and 351 of the Constitution
  • As of now, there are 22 languages present that are officially recognized by the Indian government
  • They are 1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri
  • Information on the other schedules is given below
  • | Schedule | Description | | --- | --- | | Fifth | Administration Of Scheduled Areas and Tribes | | Ninth | Protection of land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights | | Twelfth | Contains powers, authorities and responsibilities of municipalities |
59

In which field has Balwant Moreshwar Purandare been conferred the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Folk dance

  2. ((b))

    Music-Flute

  3. ((c))

    Painting

  4. ((d))

    Art-Acting-Theatre

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Art-Acting-Theatre

  • Balwant Moreshwar Purandare was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award, for contribution in the field of art-acting-theatre.
  • He is popularly known as Babasaheb Purandare.
  • He is known for his books like 'Raja Shiv Chhatrapati', 'Purandaryanchi Daulat', 'Purandaryanchi Naubat' and 'Gadsanch'.
  • The Maharashtra government had bestowed the ‘Maharashtra Bhushan’, the state’s highest honour, on Purandare in 2015.
  • Along with him, 3 other people were awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2019.
NAMEFIELDSTATE
Ms Teejan BaiArt-Vocals-FolkChhattisgarh
Shri Ismail Omar Guelleh
(Foreigner)
Public AffairsDjibouti
Shri Anilkumar Manibhai
Naik
Trade & IndustryInfrastructureMaharashtra
Shri Balwant Moreshwar
Purandare
Art-Acting-TheatreMaharashtra
60

In which of the following sectors, 100% FDI in equity in India is NOT permitted as per India’s FDI policy?

  1. ((a))

    E-commerce activities

  2. ((b))

    Multi-brand product retail trading

  3. ((c))

    Wholesale trading

  4. ((d))

    Single-brand product retail trading

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Multi-brand product retail trading

  • In Multi-brand product retail trading, only 51% FDI is allowed.
  • There are two routes in India's FDI they are Automatic Route and Government Route.
  • In single-brand retail trading, 100 percent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is allowed.
  • In the wholesale trading, a 100 % FDI is allowed under the automatic route.
  • In India, foreign direct investment policy is governed by the Reserve Bank of India, under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 2000.
61

Which athlete won a Gold Medal for India in Men’s triple jump event after a gap of 48 years in the Asian Games?

  1. ((a))

    Amarjeet Singh

  2. ((b))

    Arpinder Singh

  3. ((c))

    Rakesh Babu

  4. ((d))

    Renjith Maheshwary

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Arpinder Singh

  • Arpinder Singh won a Gold Medal for India in Men’s triple jump event after a gap of 48 years in the Asian Games in Jakarta.
  • Before Arpinder, the previous champion was Mohinder Singh Gill in 1970.
  • Arpinder's last medal was bronze in the 2014 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow.
  • Ruslan Kurbanov of Uzbekistan won the silver while Shuo Cao of China was third with a bronze medal.
62

Sweating or perspiration is nature’s way of:

  1. ((a))

    releasing excess water from the body

  2. ((b))

    releasing excess salt from the body

  3. ((c))

    warding off harmful insects through the bad odour of the sweat

  4. ((d))

    lowering the internal temperature of the body

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

lowering the internal temperature of the body

  • Sweating is a process done by the body to regulate its temperature.
  • When the body perspires the moisture then evaporates and takes excess heat with it.
  • It leads to the lowering of internal temperature.
  • Sweat consists of water and salts.
  • The perspiration works on the principles of the First and second laws of thermodynamics.
  • Hypothalamus is responsible for sending the signal to the sweat-producing skin glands whenever the temperature of the body increases.
  • If the temperature decreases, such glands constrict so that the production of sweat also gets reduced.
  • Hypothalamus is also responsible for the dilation of blood vessels.
63

The process of transformation of a substance in a gaseous state into a liquid state due to change in pressure or temperature of the substance is called:

  1. ((a))

    transformation

  2. ((b))

    evaporation

  3. ((c))

    condensation

  4. ((d))

    saturation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

condensation

Key Points

  • The process of transformation of a substance in a gaseous state into a liquid state due to change in pressure or temperature of the substance is called "condensation".
  • Condensation is caused by the loss of heat.
  • When moist air is cooled, it may reach a level when its capacity to hold water vapor ceases.
  • Then, the excess water vapor condenses into liquid form.
  • If it directly condenses into solid form, it is known as sublimation.
  • Condensation also takes place when the moist air comes in contact with some colder object and it may also take place when the temperature is close to the dew point.
  • Condensation depends upon the amount of cooling and the relative humidity of the air.
  • Condensation is influenced by the volume of air, temperature, pressure, and humidity.
Name of the processesDefinition
PrecipitationPrecipitation is all liquid and solid water particles that fall from clouds and reach the ground.
EvaporationEvaporation is the process by which an element or compound transitions from its liquid state to its gaseous state below the temperature at which it boils.
DecantationDecantation is a process to separate mixtures by removing a liquid layer that is free of a precipitate.
CondensationIt is the deposition of a liquid or a solid from its vapor, generally upon a surface that is cooler than the adjacent gas
64

During the occurrence of thunder and lightning:

  1. ((a))

    lightning is seen before thunder is heard

  2. ((b))

    whether lightning is seen first or thunder is heard first will depend upon the distance and angle of the clouds vis-a-vis earth

  3. ((c))

    thunder is heard before lightning is seen

  4. ((d))

    lightning is seen at the same time as thunder is heard

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

lightning is seen before thunder is heard

Explanation:

Thundering: The continuous sound produced during the process of lightning.

  • During the occurrence of thunder and lightning, lightning is seen before thunder is heard as light travels faster than sound.
  • The speed of light is 3 x 10m/s and the speed of sound is 343 m/s.
  • When the positive and negative charges grow large enough, a giant spark or lightning occurs between the two charges within the cloud.

 

Lightning is an electrical discharge caused by imbalances between storm clouds and the ground, or within the clouds themselves.

  • Thunder is caused by lightning. When a lightning bolt travels from the cloud to the ground it actually opens up a little hole in the air.

 

Once the light is gone the air collapses back in and creates a sound wave that we perceive as thunder and so lightning is seen before thunder is heard.

65

The sun heats the earth through:

  1. ((a))

    convention

  2. ((b))

    radiation

  3. ((c))

    conduction

  4. ((d))

    fission

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

radiation

  • The sun heats the earth through radiation.
  • Radiation is energy traveling through space. The radiation form of energy does not require a medium to travel through.
  • Sunlight carries energy, which warms up the Earth, as the ground is heated by sunlight, it begins to radiate.
  • When the heat reaches the earth it warms the molecules of the atmosphere, and they warm other molecules and so on and this heat transfer is called conduction.
66

The 10 percent reservation in central government jobs under economically weaker sections (EWS) category is available to the persons whose family income is below:

  1. ((a))

    ₹6 lakh

  2. ((b))

    ₹8 lakh

  3. ((c))

    ₹5 lakh

  4. ((d))

    ₹7 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹8 lakh

  • The 10 percent reservation in central government jobs under economically weaker sections (EWS) category is available to the persons whose family income is below 8 lakhs.
  • The family or person should not possess agricultural land of size 5 acres or above.
  • The family or person should not own or possess a residential flat of area 1000 sq.feet or more.
  • The person or person's family should not own a residential plot of area 100 sq.yards or more in notified municipalities as per GOI.
67

Which of the following tribes belongs to Sikkim?

  1. ((a))

    Bhutia

  2. ((b))

    Angami

  3. ((c))

    Gond

  4. ((d))

    Chenchu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhutia

  • Bhutia tribes are of Tibetan origin, who migrated to Sikkim around the 16th century.
  • Bhutia tribes speak Sikkimese Lepcha, Bhutia, Nepali, English and Hindi.
  • Losar and Losoong are the main festivals celebrated among the Bhutia tribes. Most of them follow tantric Buddhism.
TribeStates
BhutiaSikkim
AngamiNagaland
GondMadhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, and Odisha.
ChenchuTelangana and Andhra Pradesh
68

Which king inscribed the Hathigumpha (Elephant Cave) inscription in Udayagiri Hills, Odisha?

  1. ((a))

    Vaduka

  2. ((b))

    Sobhanaraja

  3. ((c))

    Kharavela

  4. ((d))

    Galaveya

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kharavela

  • Kharavela, the then Emperor of Kalinga,  inscribed the Hathigumpha (Elephant Cave) inscription in Udayagiri Hills, Odisha during 2nd century BCE.
  • The Hathigumpha inscription situated near Bhubaneswar gives information about year-wise achievements of Kharavela.
  • The inscription starts with a version of the auspicious Jain Namokar Mantra.
  • The Inscription consists of seventeen lines in deep-cut Brahmi script.
  • The contents of the Hatigumpha Inscriptions are taken as true records of Kharavela’s reign.
  • The inscription gives a note on the political, religious, cultural and social condition of Kalinga during that glorious period.
69

Which Indian personality was given a knighthood by the British monarch but he returned it after the Jallianwala massacre?

  1. ((a))

    Aurobindo Ghosh

  2. ((b))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  3. ((c))

    Rabindranath Tagore

  4. ((d))

    Motilal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rabindranath Tagore

  • Rabindranath Tagore returned the knighthood after the Jallianwala massacre.
  • Rabindranath Tagore received the Knighthood for his Services to Literature.
  • The arrest of Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal led to unrest among the masses of Punjab
  • The unrest led to a peaceful meeting at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar.
  • General Reginald Dyer ordered the indiscriminate heavy firing on this masses leading to Jallianwala Bagh Massacre of 13th April 1919.
70

In which state is the Ponung folk dance practised?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Manipur

  4. ((d))

    Sikkim 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Arunachal Pradesh

Key Points

  • Ponung dance is a popular art form practiced in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • It is traditionally the folk dance of the Adis community.
  • It has women dancers and they often hold each other’s hand and dance in formations.
  • It is a lively dance accompanied by mesmerizing songs.
  • It is exhibited during the festival that is celebrated before the harvesting.
  • This dance is performed on all-important and auspicious occasions.
  • Costume: mainly comprises of a long skirt and Kurti.
  • The purpose of this dance festival is to seek a good harvest and welfare of the village community.
71

Who was the founder of the Satyashodhak Samaj in the 19th century?

  1. ((a))

    Jyotirao Phule

  2. ((b))

    BR Ambedkar

  3. ((c))

    Swami Vivekananda

  4. ((d))

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jyotirao Phule

The correct answer is Jyotirao Phule.

  • Jyotirao Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 in present-day Maharashtra.
  • The objective of the Samaj - to liberate the Shudras and to prevent their ‘exploitation’ by the upper caste Maratha.
  • It campaigned against idolatry, denounced the chaturvarnya system (the caste system) and rejected the need for a Brahman priestly class as educational and religious leaders.
  • Satyashodhak Samaj campaigned for the spread of rational thinking and rejected the need for priests.
  • Phule was a social activist and thinker, who pioneered women’s education in India, especially in Maharashtra.
  • He established this Samaj with the ideals of human well-being, happiness, unity, equality, and easy religious principles and rituals.
  • In 1873, he wrote a book named Gulamgiri, meaning slavery.
72

As per the data released by the Sample Registration System for the year 2016, what is the infant mortality rate in India?

  1. ((a))

    47 per 1000 live births

  2. ((b))

    23 per 1000 live births

  3. ((c))

    34 per 1000 live births

  4. ((d))

    43 per 1000 live births

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

34 per 1000 live births

  • The infant mortality rate in India in 2016 was 34 per 1,000 live births.
  • The infant mortality rate declined by 8% in 2016.
  • The highest decline was reported by Chandigarh which was of 7 points
  • The highest increase was reported by Arunachal Pradesh which was 6 points.
  • The Infant mortality rate (IMR) is defined as the number of deaths per 1,000 live births of children under one year of age.
73

With which sport is Dattu Bhokanal associated?

  1. ((a))

    Kabaddi

  2. ((b))

    Rowing

  3. ((c))

    Archery

  4. ((d))

    Equestrian

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rowing

  • Dattu Bhokanal is associated with Rowing.
  • Dattu Baban Bhokanal is an Indian rower who had qualified for the 2016 Rio Summer Olympics.
  • He qualified for the Olympics after winning a silver in the men's single sculls event at the FISA Asian and Oceania Olympic Qualification Regatta at Chung-ju in South Korea where he clocked 7 minutes and 07.63 seconds.
  • He is the only Indian rower to qualify for the Rio Olympics and is only the ninth rower to represent India in the Olympics.
  • He won the gold medal in the 2018 Asian Games in Men's Quadruple sculls.
74

Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for ______ year/s from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.

  1. ((a))

    five

  2. ((b))

    three

  3. ((c))

    one

  4. ((d))

    two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

five

The correct answer is five.

  • Every Panchayat can continue for 5 years from the date of its first meeting. It can be dissolved earlier in accordance with State law.
  • A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution, continues only for the remainder of the period. But if the remainder of the period is less than 6 months it is not necessary to hold elections.
  • The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • The Panchayati Raj system is for only those states having a population of more than 20 lakhs.
  • The first gram panchayat of India was at Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
75

Which of the following personalities was NOT a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

  2. ((b))

    Nanaji Deshmukh

  3. ((c))

    Pranab Mukherjee

  4. ((d))

    Bhupen Hazarika

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

  • Bharat Ratna Awards 2019 was conferred to Bhupen Hazarika, Nanaji Deshmukh, Pranab Mukherjee.
  • Bhupen Hazarika is an Assamese singer-composer.
  • Nanaji Deshmukh is a social activist from Maharashtra.
  • Pranab Mukherjee was Former President of India.
  • Shyama Prasad Mukherjee wasn't awarded the Bharat Ratna. He was a politician and a Union Minister in Jawaharlal Nehru cabinet.
76

In which city are the summer Olympic Games 2024 to be held?

  1. ((a))

    Los Angeles

  2. ((b))

    London

  3. ((c))

    Beijing

  4. ((d))

    Paris

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Paris

  • The summer Olympic Games 2024 to be held in Paris.
  • Paris will become the second city to host the Olympics three times, after London (1908, 1948, and 2012).
  • It was previously the host in the year 1900 and 1924. The year 2024 will mark the centenary of the Paris Games of 1924.
  • These will be the sixth Olympic Games hosted by France (three summer and three winter).
  • Paris was elected as the host city on September 13, 2017, at the 131st IOC Session in Lima, Peru.
  • Paris is the capital of France.
  • Currencies: Euro, CFP franc.
77

Which of the following styles of painting belongs to Maharashtra?

  1. ((a))

    Kalam

  2. ((b))

    Madhubani

  3. ((c))

    Warli

  4. ((d))

    Miniature

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Warli

The correct answer is Warli.

  • Warli is a traditional and tribal painting from Maharashtra.
  • The tribes who mostly indulged in Warli paintings are from the north of Sahyadri Range.
  • A painting is made using only white pigment made up of a mixture of rice paste and water, and the gum is used as a binder.
  • Madhubani Painting is famous in the state of Mithila in Nepal and Bihar in India.
  • Madhubani painting is done with tools which include fingers, twigs, brushes and matchsticks and natural dyes.
78

What was India’s rank in the Commonwealth Games 2018 in terms of number of gold medals won?

  1. ((a))

    Second

  2. ((b))

    Third

  3. ((c))

    Fourth

  4. ((d))

    First

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Third

  • India finished with 3rd rank in the 2018 Commonwealth Games with 26 Gold medals.
  • India won a total of 66 medals including 26 Gold, 20 Silver and 20 Bronze.
  • India's shooters won 16 medals and wrestlers bagged 12 medals at CWG 2018.
  • Table Tennis sensation Manika Batra was India's best athlete at the Gold Coast Games, winning 4 medals.
RANKNATIONGOLDSILVERBRONZETOTAL
1Australia805959198
2England454546136
3India26202066
4Canada15402782
5New Zealand15161546
79

Which Indian scientist has been chosen for the first Sheikh Saud International Prize for Materials Research by the Centre for Advanced Materials of the UAE?

  1. ((a))

    CNR Rao

  2. ((b))

    Jayant Narlikar

  3. ((c))

    Raghunath Anant Mashelkar

  4. ((d))

    Ashok Sen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CNR Rao

  • Professor Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao, popularly known as CNR Rao, of the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research, Bangalore was awarded the First Sheikh Saud International Prize for Materials Research given by the Centre for Advanced Materials of the UAE.
  • The prize includes a plaque, a medal and a cash prize of $100000.
  • Other awards of CNR Rao are Bharat Ratna (2014), Padma Shri (1974), Padma Vibhushan (1985) and Karnataka Ratna (2001), among other honors.
  • Jayant Vishnu Narlikar is an Indian astrophysicist who developed the conformal gravity theory with Sir Fred Hoyle, known as Hoyle–Narlikar theory.
  • Raghunath Anant Mashelkar, also known as Ramesh Mashelkar, is an Indian Chemical Engineer.
  • Ashoke Sen is an Indian theoretical physicist and professor.
80

Which film director was given the Kalamaharshi Baburao Painter Award in the seventh Kolhapur International Film Festival in February 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Mani Ratnam

  2. ((b))

    Govind Nihalani

  3. ((c))

    Rajkumar Hirani

  4. ((d))

    Ashutosh Gowariker

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Govind Nihalani

  • Cinematographer, screenwriter and filmmaker, Govind Nihalani honored with the 'Kalamaharshi Baburao Painter Award' for his contribution to the film industry at 2019 Kolhapur International Film Festival (KIFF).
  • The 7th edition of the film festival was held in February 2019.
  • The award is named after Baburao, a native of Kolhapur, Maharashtra, who was a painter, sculptor, and filmmaker of the silent film era.
  • Baburao was one of the leading stage painters for theatres in Western India during the period of 1910 and 1916.
81

The function of the retina is to:

  1. ((a))

    lubricate the eye by releasing tears in a controlled way

  2. ((b))

    close the eyes through the eyelids to prevent damage to the lens from excessive light

  3. ((c))

    process the information gathered by photoreceptor cells and send it to the brain to decide what the picture is

  4. ((d))

    adjust the focus of the lens for formation of a clear image

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

process the information gathered by photoreceptor cells and send it to the brain to decide what the picture is

The correct answer is option 3.

  • The function of the retina is to process the information gathered by photoreceptor cells and send them to the brain to decide what the picture is.
  • The retina is located near the optic nerve and is a thin layer of tissue that lines the back of the eye on the inside.
  • The purpose of the retina is to receive light that the lens has focused, convert the light into neural signals, and send these signals on to the brain for visual recognition.
  • The retina is a complex transparent tissue consisting of several layers, only one of which contains light-sensitive photoreceptor cells.
  • The light must pass through the overlying layers to reach the photoreceptor cells.
82

During whose reign did the Moroccan traveller Ibn Battuta visit India in the 14th century?

  1. ((a))

    Alauddin Khalji

  2. ((b))

    Jalaluddin Khalji

  3. ((c))

    Mohammad Bin Tughlaq

  4. ((d))

    Feroz Shah Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mohammad Bin Tughlaq

The correct answer is Mohammad Bin Tughlaq.

Key Points

  • Ibn Battuta visited India during the rule of Mohammed Bin Tughlaq.
  • Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan traveller.
  • Rihla was a book written by Ibn Batuta.
  • Rihla is a travelogue based upon the experiences of the travellers.

Additional Information

TravellerPeriodNationalityRulerswork
Deimachos320-273 BCGreekBindusara
Megasthenes302-298 B.C.GreekChandragupta Maurya.Indica.
Ptolemy130 A.D.GreekGeography of India
Fa-Hien405-411 A.D.ChineseChandragupta II VikramadityaFo-Kyo-Ki
Hiuen-Tsang630-645 A.D.ChineseHarshavardhanaSi-Yu-Ki
Al- Beruni1024-1030 A.D.AfghanMahmud Ghazni, Chandela DynastyKitab-ul-Hind
Marco Polo1292-1294 ADVenetianPandya DynastyThe Book of Sir Marco Polo
Ibn Batuta1333-1347 A.D.MorroccoMuhammad-Bin-TughlaqRehla/Rihla
83

As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a state having a population not exceeding:

  1. ((a))

    twelve lakh

  2. ((b))

    fifteen lakh

  3. ((c))

    twenty-five lakh

  4. ((d))

    twenty lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

twenty lakh

  • As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a state having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
  • PART IX Article 243(B) provides for Panchayati raj institutions in every village, district and state. It provides the conditions to be met for setting up a panchayat
  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act(1992) provided a Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India through the insertion of Article 243 to Part IX of Indian Constitution.
  • Part IX focused on organizing the 3 tier Panchayat system, which would be constituted in every state at the village level, intermediate level and district level.
84

In which state is the archaeological site of Surkotada situated?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

Surkotada is situated in Kutchh district of Gujarat.

  • It is the only Indus Valley site where the remains of a horse have actually been found.
  • Kalibangan is situated in Hanumangarh, Rajasthan.
  • Banawali is situated in Hisar, Haryana.
  • Mohenjo Daro is situated in Larkana, Sindh.
85

The power to enquire into and decide all doubts and disputes arising out of the election of the President is vested in the:

  1. ((a))

    Supreme Court

  2. ((b))

    Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

  3. ((c))

    High Court of Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Lokpal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Supreme Court

  • All disputes and doubts regarding the election of the President are adjudicated by the Supreme Court.
  • The decision given by the Supreme Court will not be challenged.
  • Article 54 of the Indian Constitution deals with Election of President and Article 61 deals with his impeachment.
  • The President is elected by members of the Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
  • The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
86

What is the maximum age for joining Atal Pension Yojana?

  1. ((a))

    45 years

  2. ((b))

    40 years

  3. ((c))

    35 years

  4. ((d))

    50 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

40 years

  • Correct answer is option 2 i.e 40 years.
  • Atal Pension Yojana is a pension scheme aimed at the unorganized sector, who join the National Pension System (NPS) and who are not members of any statutory social security scheme.
  • This scheme replaced the previous Swavalamban Yojana.
  • Benefits under APY: Fixed pension for the subscribers ranging between Rs. 1000 to Rs. 5000, if he joins and contributes between the age of 18 years and 40 years.
  • Age to join APY: Minimum - 18 years and maximum - 40 years. Under APY minimum period of contribution by the subscriber would be 20 years or more.
  • Eligibility: It is open to all bank account holders who are not members of any statutory social security scheme.
  • It is Government of India Scheme, which is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.
87

A wound stops bleeding due to the process of clot formation called:

  1. ((a))

    coagulation

  2. ((b))

    transfusion

  3. ((c))

    fermentation

  4. ((d))

    incubation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

coagulation

  • The process of clot formation is known as coagulation.
  • The process of coagulation is known as Hemostasis.
  • Hemostasis involves three steps that are avascular spasm, the formation of a platelet plug, and coagulation.
  • Platelets and proteins present in plasma helps in coagulation.
  • Vitamin K helps in blood clotting.
  • The process of transferring blood is called a Blood transfusion.
Name of the VitaminEssential forChemical Name
Vitamin Ahealthy vision, skin, bonesRetinol, retinal
Vitamin B12Keep the body's nerve and blood cells healthy and protect from AnaemiaCyanocobalamin, hydroxycobalamin, methylcobalamin
Vitamin KBlood Coagulationphylloquinone, menaquinones
Vitamin Dbone growthErgocalciferol, cholecalciferol
88

Identify the organ which is located on both sides in the human body.

  1. ((a))

    Kidney

  2. ((b))

    Bladder

  3. ((c))

    Spleen

  4. ((d))

    Liver

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kidney

  • The Kidneys are located on both sides of the human body.
  • The kidneys are bean-shaped organs, located against the back muscles in the upper abdominal area.
  • They sit opposite each other on both the left and right sides of the body.
  • Each kidney is about 4 or 5 inches long and their role is to filter the blood.
  • They remove waste, control the body's fluid balance, and keep the right levels of electrolytes.
  • The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.
  • Each human adult kidney contains around 1 million nephrons.

89

Which organisation is operating the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana of the Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    LIC of India

  2. ((b))

    State Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    Unit Trust of India

  4. ((d))

    Post Office

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LIC of India

The correct answer is LIC of India.

  • Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana is a pension scheme for senior citizens aged 60 or above.
  • The scheme has a rate of return of 8% annually for 10 years.
  • This scheme is being implemented through the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
  • The scheme was launched in July 2017.
  • It is exempted from goods and services (GST) tax
90

To which state does the Bagh style of textile art printing belong?

  1. ((a))

    Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh

Key Points

  • Bagh Print is a traditional Indian handicraft originating in Bagh, Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Bagh gets its name from the ancient Bagheshwari Devi temple situated there and is famous both for the ancient Bagh Caves.
  • The process of printing and fabric treatment is a multi-layered process that includes colour treatment, fabric soaking, boiling, drying, washing, and printing.
  • Bagh prints are made by hand applying natural and vegetable-based dyes using carved wood relief blocks.
  • Red and black dyes are most common, but indigo, mustard, and khaki dyes are also used.

Additional Information

  • Know about Madhya Pradesh:
  • Capital: Bhopal.
  • Formed in: 1 November 1956.
  • Official Language: Hindi.
  • Regional Festivals: Kumbha in Ujjain known as Simhastha, Aalami Tableegi Ijtima, fair of Ramlila, fair of Hira Bhumia, fair of Pir Budhan, fair of Nagaji, fair of Tejaji.
  • Art Forms:
  • Painting - Lok chitrakar, Chitravan, Mandana, Sanjhi, Thapa, Pithora.
  • Music - Relo, Gooning, Leja, Chait Parah, Dhankul.
  • Dance - Karma, Jawara, Tertali, Lehangi, Ahiri, Baredi, Gaur. Maria, Drum, Matki, Grida, Phulpati.
  • Geographical Indications: Chanderi Fabric, Leather Toys of Indore, Bagh Prints, Bell Metal Ware of Datia and Tikamgarh, Maheshwar Sarees & Fabrics, Ratlami Sev.
  • Tiger Reserve: Kanha, Pench, Bandhavgarh, Panna, Satpura, Sanjay-Dubri.
91

What is the maximum number of Starred Questions for oral answers admitted for discussion on a particular day in the Lok Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20

  • Starred Question is one for which an oral answer is required to be given by the Minister on the floor of the House.
  • The maximum number of Starred Questions for oral answers admitted for discussion on a particular day in the Lok Sabha is 20.
  • Unstarred Question is one for which the Minister lies on the table written answer.
  • Short Notice Question is one for which can be asked by members on matters of the public importance of an urgent nature.
  • In India, the first hour of every Parliamentary sitting is allotted for Question Hour.
  • In this hour, the Members of the Parliament raise questions related to the activity of the Administration.
  • Types Of Questions during Question Hour Method of Answer :
    1. Starred Oral reply
    1. Non- starred Written reply
92

As per the Constitution of India, the National Capital Territory of Delhi shall have a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ______ of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

  1. ((a))

    0.1

  2. ((b))

    0.15

  3. ((c))

    0.05

  4. ((d))

    0.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.1

  • The National Capital Territory of Delhi shall have Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% or 0.1, of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, including the Chief Minister.
  • 69th constitutional amendment Act made the Union territory of Delhi into a National capital region and provided for a state legislative assembly and a Lieutenant Governor.
  • As per the 91st constitutional amendment act, the strength of the council of ministers should not exceed 15% to that of Lok sabha.
  • Article 81 caps the number of Lok Sabha seats at 550 of which 20 members are to be elected from Union Territories.
93

What is the amount of insurance cover available for accidental death under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)?

  1. ((a))

    ₹3 lakh

  2. ((b))

    ₹2 lakh

  3. ((c))

    ₹4 lakh

  4. ((d))

    ₹1 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹2 lakh

  • The amount of insurance cover available for accidental death under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is ₹2 lakh.
  • PMSBY is a social security scheme announced by the Government of India in the 2015 Budget.
  • It is an accident insurance scheme, which offers a one-year accidental death and disability cover, which can be renewed.
  • The cover is for a one-year period, starting June 1 to May 31 of the subsequent year.
  • Under this scheme, the risk coverage available is Rs 2 lakh for accidental death & permanent total disability, and Rs 1 lakh for permanent partial disability.
  • Eligibility: All individual bank account holders in the 18-70 year age group are eligible to join PMSBY.
  • The premium payable is Rs 20 per annum per member.
94

The President may resign from his office by writing under his hand addressed to the:

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister

  2. ((b))

    Vice President

  3. ((c))

    Chief Election Commissioner

  4. ((d))

    Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vice President

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Vice President.

  • The President may resign from his office by writing a letter of resignation addressed to the Vice President of India.
  • The candidate should have completed 35 years of age to be eligible as a candidate for the presidential election.
  • Article 61, deals with the impeachment of President.
  • If the office falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then election to fill the vacancy should be completed within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.
  • Vice president gives his resignation to President
  • Chief Election commissioner gives his resignation to President.
95

Colour of the plants is green due to the presence of _________.

  1. ((a))

    Carbon dioxide

  2. ((b))

    Chlorophyll

  3. ((c))

    Urea

  4. ((d))

    Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chlorophyll

  • Colour of the plants is green due to the presence of Chlorophyll.
  • Chlorophyll is the green color pigment which absorbs wavelength from sunlight.
  • It helps leaves to capture the energy of the sunlight and this energy is used to synthesis food from carbon dioxide and water.
  • Since the synthesis of food occurs in the presence of sunlight, it is called photosynthesis.
  • Chlorophyll absorbs certain wavelengths of light within the visible light spectrum.
  • Chlorophyll absorbs light in the red and the blue regions of the visible light spectrum.
  • Greenlight is not absorbed but reflected, making the plant appear green.
  • Chlorophyll is found in the chloroplasts of plants.

96

The solar eclipse occurs when:

  1. ((a))

    the moon moves too far away from the sun

  2. ((b))

    the sun comes between the moon and the earth

  3. ((c))

    the moon comes between the earth and the sun

  4. ((d))

    an asteroid comes between the sun and the moon

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

the moon comes between the earth and the sun

  • A ‘solar eclipse’ occurs between sun rays and new moon when the moon passes directly in front of the sun so that its shadow lies on the earth.
  • The moon lies between the sun and the earth.
  • The ‘lunar eclipse’ takes place when the earth comes in between the sun and the moon. A lunar eclipse takes place on a full moon.

97

Who has been elected as the new king of Malaysia in January 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Sultan Abdullah

  2. ((b))

    Sultan Nazrin Shah

  3. ((c))

    Sultan Abdul Halim

  4. ((d))

    Sultan Mohammad V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sultan Abdullah

The correct answer is Sultan Abdullah.

Key Points

  • Sultan Abdullah was elected as Malaysia's new King on 24 January 2019, following the abdication of Sultan Muhammad V in January 2019.
  • He is the ruler of the Malaysian state of Pahang.
  • He will have a five-year term.
  • He is the current President of the Asian Hockey Federation and a council member of FIFA, the world football body.
  • Malaysia's King Muhammad V has abdicated after two years on the throne on 6 January 2019.
  • It is for the first time a king has resigned before completing their five-year tenure.
  • Malaysia is a constitutional monarchy and the king assumes a largely ceremonial role.
  • However, the king's assent is needed before the appointment of a Prime minister or senior public officials.

Additional Information

  • Capital of Malaysia- Kuala Lumpur
  • Currency of Malaysis- Malaysian ringgit
98

Which among the following is NOT one of the three parallel ranges of Himalayas in its longitudinal extent?

  1. ((a))

    Himshikha

  2. ((b))

    Himachal

  3. ((c))

    Himadri

  4. ((d))

    Shiwaliks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Himshikha

  • Himshikha is NOT one of the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas in its longitudinal extent.
  • The three parallel ranges of the Himalayas are 1) Himadri (Great or Inner Himalayas) 2) Himachal (Lesser Himalayas) 3) Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).
  • Himadri is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks and contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks.  The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite.
  • Himachal is the range lying to the south of the Himadri and is mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. This region is well known for its hill stations. Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range.
  • Shivalik is the outer most range of the Himalayas extends over a width of 10-50 Km . It is composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges located farther north.
99

Home to the snow leopard, the Hemis National Park, is located in:

  1. ((a))

    Ladakh

  2. ((b))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Lakshadweep

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ladakh

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Ladakh.

  • Hemis National Park is a high altitude national park in the eastern Ladakh Union Territory of the Republic of India.
  • The north of this protected area is enclosed by the banks of the Indus River.
  • It is named after the famous monastery, Hemis gompa that is situated 40 km southeast of Leh.
  • It is home to an immense population of snow leopards.
  • Apart from snow leopards, the flora includes bharal, argali, Asiatic ibex, Eurasian brown bear, Tibetan wolf, red fox, etc.
  • The Hemis National Park is the second-largest contiguous protected region of the country after the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
100

In which state is the Madai festival celebrated?

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Chhattisgarh

  4. ((d))

    Jammu and Kashmir

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chhattisgarh

  • Madai Festival is one of the most popular festivals of Chhattisgarh.
  • Madai Festival is celebrated by the Gond tribe.
  • It is celebrated from the beginning of December to the end of March.
  • Kurna and Charama tribes of Chhatisgarh celebrate the Madai festival.
  • Konark Festival, International sand art festival are festivals of Odisha.
  • Dosmuchey festival, Matho Narang, Gemis festival, Galdan Namchot are festivals of Jammu & Kashmir.

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

101

If (cosθ + sinθ) : (cosθ–sinθ) = (√3 + 1) : (√3 – 1),0° < θ 90°, then what is the value of secθ?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    √2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    (2√3)/3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(2√3)/3

(cosθ + sinθ)/(cosθ – sinθ) = (√3 + 1)/( √3 – 1)

Using dividendo and componendo,

⇒ (cosθ + sinθ + cosθ – sinθ)/(cosθ + sinθ – cosθ + sinθ) = (√3 + 1 + √3 – 1)/( √3 + 1 - √3 + 1)

⇒ 2cosθ/2sinθ = 2√3/2

⇒ cotθ = √3

⇒ cotθ = cot30

⇒ θ = 30

Now,

⇒ sec θ = sec 30 = 2/√3 = 2√3/3

Direction: Study the pie - chart and answer the question.

Distribution (degree - wise) of the number of employees of a company working in 5 departments A, B, C, D and E.

Total number of employees = 3200

102

The number of employees working in department C is what percentage more than the total number of employees working in D and E? (Your answer should be correct to one decimal place.)

  1. ((a))

    22.8

  2. ((b))

    23.2

  3. ((c))

    20.6

  4. ((d))

    21.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

21.4

Number of employees in department C = 122.4°

Total number of employees in department D and E = 64.8° + 36° = 100.8°

Required percentage = [(122.4 – 100.8°)/100.8] × 100 = 21.4%

103

Total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1848 cm2. The ratio of its total surface area to the curved surface area is 3 : 1 The volume of the cylinder is: (Take π = 22/7)

  1. ((a))

    4851 cm3

  2. ((b))

    4312 cm3

  3. ((c))

    4002 cm3

  4. ((d))

    3696 cm3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4312 cm3

Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr(r + h)

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh

⇒ 2πr(r + h)/2πrh = 3/1

⇒ (r + h)/h = 3

⇒ r + h = 3h

⇒ 2h = r

⇒ h = r/2

⇒ 2πr(r + h) = 1848

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × r × (r + r/2) = 1848

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × r × 3r/2 = 1848

⇒ r2 = 7 × 7 × 4

⇒ r = 7 × 2

⇒ r = 14

⇒ h = r/2

⇒ h = 14/2 = 7 cm

⇒ Volume of cylinder = πr2h = 22/7 × 14 × 14 × 7 = 4312 cm3

104

When 2388, 4309 and 8151 are divided by a certain 3 - digit number, the remainder in each case is the same. The remainder is:

  1. ((a))

    39

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

15

As we know,

4309 – 2388 = 1921

8151 – 4309 = 3842

8151 – 2388 = 5763

HCF of 1921, 3842 and 5763 is 1921.

As we know, 1921 = 17 × 113

So, the three - digit number is 113.

When we divide 2388, 4309 and 8151 by 113 we find remainder 15 in each case.

105

I is the in centre of ΔABC. If BIC = 108°, then ∠A = ?

  1. ((a))

    81°

  2. ((b))

    72° 

  3. ((c))

    54°

  4. ((d))

    36°

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

36°

Short Trick:

∠BIC = 90 + ∠A/2

108 = 90 + ∠A/2

∠A = 18 × 2 = 36

Detailed Method:

In △ BIC,

∠B/2 + ∠C/2 + ∠BIC = 180°

⇒ ∠BIC = 180° – (∠B + ∠C)/2

⇒ ∠BIC = 180° – (180° – ∠A)/2

⇒ ∠BIC = 180° – 90° – ∠A/2

⇒ 108° = 90° – ∠A/2

⇒ ∠A/2 = 108 – 90 = 18

⇒ ∠A = 18 × 2 = 36°

106

A can do 2/5 of a work in 6 days and B can do 2/3 of the same work in 12 days. A and B worked together for 6 days. C alone completes the remaining work in 8 days. A and C, working together, will compete the same work in:

  1. ((a))

    12 days

  2. ((b))

    10 days

  3. ((c))

    8 days

  4. ((d))

    9 days 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 days

A can do 2/5 of work in 6 days

A can complete the whole work in 6 × 5/2 = 15

B can do 2/3 of work in 12 days

B can complete the whole work in 12 × 3/2 = 18 days

Total work = 90

Work done by A and B in 6 days = (6 + 5) × 6 = 11 × 6 = 66

Remaining work = 90 – 66 = 24

Let efficiency of C be x.

⇒ 8 × x = 24

⇒ x = 24/8 = 3

So, efficiency of C is = 3

A and C will complete the same work in 90/(6 + 3) = 90/9 = 10 days

Direction: Study the graph and answer the question.

107

The number of workers in the factory whose daily wages are Rs. 500 or more but less than Rs. 650 is what percentage more than the number of workers whose daily wages are Rs. 650 or more but less than Rs. 750? (Your answer should be correct to one decimal place.)

  1. ((a))

    75.4

  2. ((b))

    45.8

  3. ((c))

    76.6

  4. ((d))

    84.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

84.5

The number of workers whose daily wages are Rs. 500 or more but less than Rs. 650 is = 58 + 72 + 60 = 190

Number of workers whose daily wages are Rs. 650 or more but less than Rs. 750 = 55 + 48 = 103

Required percentage = [(190 – 103)/103] × 100 = 84.466 ≈ 84.5%

108

Two trains running in opposite directions on parallel tracks, at speeds of 42 km/h and 57 km/h take 18 seconds to cross each other. If the length of one train is 270 m, then the length of the other train is:

  1. ((a))

    250 m

  2. ((b))

    225 m

  3. ((c))

    230 m

  4. ((d))

    242 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

225 m

Let the length of the second train be x cm.

Length of the firsttrain = 270 m

Speed of the first train = 42 km/h

Speed of the second train = 57 km/h

Time taken to cross each other = 18 sec

∵ Speed = Distance/Time

According to the question,

⇒ (57 + 42) × 5/18 = (270 + x)/18

⇒ 99 × 5 = 270 + x

⇒ x = 495 – 270

⇒ x = 225

∴ Length of second train 225 m.

109

The sides of a triangular park are 60 m, 112 m and 164 m. The cost of levelling the park at the rate of Rs. 8.50/m2 is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 17,136

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 18,164

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 17,085

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 18,316

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 17,136

As we know

S = (a + b + c)/2

Area of triangle = √{S (S – a) (S – b) (S – c)}

S = (60 + 112 + 164)/2 = 336/2 = 168

Area of triangle = √{168 (168 – 60) (168 – 112) (168 – 164)}

= √(168 × 108 × 56 × 4)

= √[2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 7 × 2 × 2]

= 2016 m2

Cost of levelling of 1 m2 of the park = 8.5

Cost of levelling of 2016 m2 of the park = 8.5 × 2016 = Rs. 17136

110

A person travels a distance of 240 km, partly by train and the rest by bus. He takes 3123\frac{1}{2} hours if he travels 150 km by train and the rest by bus. If he travels 140 km by bus and the rest by train, he takes 3233\frac{2}{3} hours. What is the speed of the train?

  1. ((a))

    70 km/h

  2. ((b))

    75 km/h

  3. ((c))

    72 km/h

  4. ((d))

    80 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

75 km/h

Let speed of train and bus x km/hr and y km/hr respectively

According to the question,

⇒ 150/x + 90/y = 7/2

Divided by 3

⇒ 50/x + 30/y = 7/6     ----(1)

100/x + 140/y = 11/3

Divided by 2

⇒ 50/x + 70/y = 11/6      ----((2)

Subtract equation (1) from equation (2)

⇒ 40/y = 4/6

⇒ y = 60 km/hr

From equation (1)

⇒ 50/x + 30/60 = 7/6

⇒ 50/x + 1/2 = 7/6

⇒ 50/x = 7/6 – 1/2

⇒ 50/x = (7 – 3)/6 = 4/6

⇒ x = 50 × (6/4)

⇒ x = 75 km/hr

Speed of train 75 km/hr

111

Pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 10, 15 and 30 hours, respectively. D is an emptying pipe which alone can empty the full tank in x hours. A, B and C are opened together for 3 hours and then closed. Now D is opened which alone empties the tank in 30 hours. What is the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

50

Total work = 30 unit

Work done by A, B and C in 3 hours = (3 + 2 + 1) × 3 = 6 × 3 = 18

Let the efficiency of Pipe D be x.

⇒ 30 × x = 18

⇒ x = 18/30 = 3/5

Pipe D alone empty the full tank in = 30/(3/5) = 50 hrs

112

The average of n numbers is 42. If 75% of the numbers are increased by 4 each and the remaining numbers are decreased by 8 each, then what is the average of the numbers, so obtained?

  1. ((a))

    42.5

  2. ((b))

    43.8

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    44

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

43

Given:

The average of n numbers is 42.

75% of the numbers are increased by 4 each and the remaining numbers are decreased by 8 each.

Formula used:

Average = sum of observations/Number of observations

Calculation:

Average of n numbers = 42

Sum of n numbers = 42n

New sum of n number = 42n + {n × (75/100) × 4} – {n × (25/100) × 8}

⇒ 42n + 3n – 2n

⇒ 43n

New average of n numbers = 43n/n

⇒ 43

∴ The average of the numbers, so obtained is 43.

113

If x2– √7x + 1 = 0, then (x3 + x - 3) = ?

  1. ((a))

    3√7

  2. ((b))

    4√7

  3. ((c))

    7√7

  4. ((d))

    10√7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4√7

x2 - √7x + 1 = 0

⇒ x - √7 + 1/x = 0

⇒ x + 1/x = √7

(x + 1/x)3 = x3  + 1/x3 + 3( x + 1/x)

⇒ (√7)3 = x3 + 1/x3 + 3√7

⇒ x3 + x - 3 = 7√7 - 3√7

⇒ x3 + x - 3 = 4√7

114

P is a point outside a circle with centre O, and it is 14 cm away from the centre. A secant PAB drawn from P intersects the circle at the points A and B such that PA = 10 cm and PB = 16 cm. The diameter of circle, is:

  1. ((a))

    13 cm

  2. ((b))

    10 cm

  3. ((c))

    12 cm

  4. ((d))

    11 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12 cm

Given, OP = 14 cm, PA = 10 cm, PB = 16 cm

Let radius of circle be r cm.

⇒ OQ = OE = r cm

⇒ PE = (14 – r) and PQ = (14 + r)

As we know,

PE × PQ = PA × PB

⇒ (14 – r) (14 + r) = 10 × 16

⇒ 142 – r2 = 160

⇒ 196 – r2 = 160

⇒ r2 = 196 – 160 = 36

⇒ r = √36

⇒ r = 6 cm

⇒ Diameter of the circle = 2 × 6 = 12 cm

115

The number of workers in the factory whose daily wages are Rs. 450 or more but less than Rs. 600 is ____. 

  1. ((a))

    180

  2. ((b))

    170

  3. ((c))

    148

  4. ((d))

    190

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

180

The number of workers whose daily wages are Rs. 450 or more but less than Rs. 600

= 50 + 58 + 72 = 180

116

If x + y + z = 10, xy + yz + zx = 25 and xyz = 100, then what is the value of (x3 + y3 + z3)?

  1. ((a))

    540

  2. ((b))

    550

  3. ((c))

    450

  4. ((d))

    570

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

550

x + y + z = 10, xy + yz + zx = 25 and xyz = 100

As we know,

x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z) [(x + y + z)2 – 3 (xy + yz + zx)]

x3 + y3 + z3 – 3 × 100 = 10 [102 – 3 × 25]

x3 + y3 + z3 – 300 = 10 (100 – 75) = 10 × 25 = 250

x3 + y3 + z3 = 250 + 300 = 550

117

If the ratio of male employees and female employees working in department D is 4 : 5 and that in department E is 9 : 11 then what is the ratio of the total male employees in D and E to the number of employees in B?

  1. ((a))

    7 : 8

  2. ((b))

    25 : 32

  3. ((c))

    15 : 16 

  4. ((d))

    31 : 32

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25 : 32

Number of male employees in department D = 64.8 × 4/9 = 28.8°

Number of male employees in department E = 36 × 9/20 = 16.2°

Total males employees in department D and E = 28.8° + 16.2° = 45°

Total number of employees in department B = 57.6°

Required ratio = 45° : 57.6° = 25 : 32

118

A circle touches the side BC of ΔABC at P and also touches AB and AC produced at Q and R, respectively. If the perimeter of ΔABC = 26.4 cm, then the length of AQ is;

  1. ((a))

    13.2 cm

  2. ((b))

    17.6 cm

  3. ((c))

    15.4 cm

  4. ((d))

    8.8 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13.2 cm

AQ = AR [Tangents]

BP = BQ [Tangents]

CP = CR [Tangents]

Perimeter of △ABC = AB + BP + PC + AC

26.4 = AB + BQ + CR + AC

26.4 = AQ + AR

26.4 = AQ + AQ

26.4 = 2AQ

AQ = 26.4/2

AQ = 13.2 cm

119

After allowing 10% discount on the marked price of an article, a person makes a profit of 16%. If the cost price of the article is Rs. 648, then is marked price is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 751.68

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 835.20

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 910.40

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 826.80

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 835.20

CP of the article = 648

SP of the article = 648 × (116/100)

MP of the article = 648 × (116/100) × (100/90) = Rs. 835.20

120

The value of (514÷37of12)÷(519778÷9920);×;1121;+;(2÷2;of12)\left( {5\frac{1}{4} \div \frac{3}{7}of\frac{1}{2}} \right) \div \left( {5\frac{1}{9} - 7\frac{7}{8} \div 9\frac{9}{{20}}} \right); \times ;\frac{{11}}{{21}}; + ;\left( {2 \div 2;of\frac{1}{2}} \right) is:

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    7/2

  4. ((d))

    9/4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated. 

(514÷37of12)÷(519778÷9920);×;1121;+;(2÷2;of12)\left( {5\frac{1}{4} \div \frac{3}{7}of\frac{1}{2}} \right) \div \left( {5\frac{1}{9} - 7\frac{7}{8} \div 9\frac{9}{{20}}} \right); \times ;\frac{{11}}{{21}}; + ;\left( {2 \div 2;of\frac{1}{2}} \right)

;(214÷37;×;12)÷(469638÷18920);×;1121;+;(2÷2;×;12) \Rightarrow {\rm{;}}\left( {\frac{{21}}{4} \div \frac{3}{7}{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{2}} \right) \div \left( {\frac{{46}}{9} - \frac{{63}}{8} \div \frac{{189}}{{20}}} \right){\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{{11}}{{21}}{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\left( {2 \div 2{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{2}} \right)

;(214÷314)÷(469638;×;20189);×;1121;+;(2÷1) \Rightarrow {\rm{;}}\left( {\frac{{21}}{4} \div \frac{3}{{14}}} \right) \div \left( {\frac{{46}}{9} - \frac{{63}}{8}{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{{20}}{{189}}} \right){\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{{11}}{{21}}{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\left( {2 \div 1} \right)

;(214;×;143)÷(46956);×;1121;+;2 \Rightarrow {\rm{;}}\left( {\frac{{21}}{4}{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{{14}}{3}} \right) \div \left( {\frac{{46}}{9} - \frac{5}{6}} \right){\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{{11}}{{21}}{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}2

⇒ (49/2) ÷ {(92 – 15)/18} × (11/21) + 2

⇒ (49/2) × (18/77) × (11/21) + 2

⇒ 3 + 2 = 5

121

A solid metallic sphere of radius 8.4 cm is melted and recast into a right circular cylinder of radius 12 cm. What is the height of the cylinder? (Your answer should be correct to one decimal place.)

  1. ((a))

    6.5 cm

  2. ((b))

    6.0 cm

  3. ((c))

    70 cm

  4. ((d))

    5.5 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5.5 cm

Shortcut Trick

When a sphere is melted and recast into a cylinder, the Volume remains constant.

Direct Ratio: h = (4/3) × (rsphere3 / rcylinder2)

h = (4/3) × (8.4 × 8.4 × 8.4) / (12 × 12)

h = (4 × 0.7 × 0.7 × 2.8) = 5.488 cm

Rounding to one decimal place, h ≈ 5.5 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 5.5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the metallic sphere (r1) = 8.4 cm

Radius of the right circular cylinder (r2) = 12 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × r3

Volume of Cylinder = π × r2 × h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of Sphere = Volume of Cylinder

⇒ (4/3) × π × (8.4)3 = π × (12)2 × h

⇒ (4/3) × 8.4 × 8.4 × 8.4 = 144 × h

⇒ h = (4 × 8.4 × 8.4 × 8.4) ÷ (3 × 144)

⇒ h = (4 × 592.704) ÷ 432

⇒ h = 2370.816 ÷ 432

⇒ h = 5.488 cm

⇒ h ≈ 5.5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5.5 cm.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Sphere

The total surface area of a sphere with radius r is given by 4 × π × r2.

Curved Surface Area of Cylinder

The curved surface area (CSA) of a cylinder with radius r and height h is 2 × π × r × h.

Volume Conservation

In melting and recasting problems, the total volume of the material remains constant regardless of the change in shape.

Hemisphere Properties

Volume of a hemisphere is (2/3) × π × r3 and its Total Surface Area is 3 × π × r2.

122

By selling an article for Rs. 1134, Anu suffers as much loss as she would have gained by selling it at 10% profit. If she sells it for Rs. 1354.50 then her profit percentage is:

  1. ((a))

    8.4

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    7.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7.5

SP of the article = Rs. 1134

CP of the article = 1134 × (100/90) = Rs. 1260

New SP of the article = 1354.50

Profit = 1354.5 – 1260 = 94.5

Profit % = (94.5/1260) × 100 = 7.5%

123

D is a point on the side BC of a ΔABC such that ∠ADC = ∠BAC. If CA = 10 cm and BC = 16 cm, then the length of CD is:

  1. ((a))

    6.5 cm

  2. ((b))

    7 cm

  3. ((c))

    6.25 cm

  4. ((d))

    6 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6.25 cm

△DCA ∼ △ACB

CD/AC = AC/BC

CD/10 = 10/16

CD = (10 × 10)/16 = 6.25 cm

124

From the top of a house A in a street, the angles of elevation and depression of the top and foot of another house B on the opposite side of the street are 60° and 45°, respectively. If the height of house A is 36m, then what is the height of house B?(Your answer should be nearest to an integer.)

  1. ((a))

    93 m

  2. ((b))

    94 m

  3. ((c))

    91 m

  4. ((d))

    98 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

98 m

Given, AP = 36m

In△PAB

⇒ tan45 = PA/AB

⇒ 1 = 36/AB

⇒ AB = 36

⇒ AB = PR = 36

In △PQR,

⇒ tan60 = QR/PR

⇒ √3 = QR/36

⇒ QR = 36√3 = 36 × 1.7 = 61.2

⇒ QB = QR + RB  [RB = PA]

⇒ QB = 61.2 + 36 = 97.2

⇒ QB ≈ 98

Direction: Study the graph and answer the question 

125

Total production of wheat in states A, B and E is what percentage less than the total production of rice in states C, D and E?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    11.1

  3. ((c))

    12.2

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

Total production of wheat in states A, B and E = 500 + 375 + 475 = 1350

Total production of rice in states C, D and E = 575 + 400 + 525 = 1500

Required percentage = [(1500 – 1350)/1500] × 100 = 10%

126

The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points on the ground at distance 32 m and 18 m from its base and in the same straight line with it are complementary. The height (in m) of the tower is ____.

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    28

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

Let ∠ACB = θ

∠ADB = (90 – θ)

DB = 18m and BC = 32m

In △ACB

tanθ = AB/BC

tanθ = AB/32    ----(1)

In △ADB

tan (90 – θ) = AB/BD

cotθ = AB/18    ----(2)

From equation (1) and equation (2)

tanθ cotθ = (AB/32) × (AB/18)

AB2 = 32 × 18

AB = √(32 × 18) = √(16 × 2 × 9 × 2) = 4 × 2 × 3

AB = 24m

Short trick :

Height of the tower AB = √(BD × BC)

Height of the tower AB = √(32 × 18) = 24 m

127

The radius of the base of a solid right circular cone is 8 cm and its height is 15 cm. The total surface area of the cone is:

  1. ((a))

    200 π

  2. ((b))

    136 π

  3. ((c))

    128 π

  4. ((d))

    120 π

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 π

r = 8 cm and h = 15 cm

As we know,

l2 = r2 + h2

l2 = 82 + 152

l2 = 64 + 225

l2 = 289

l = √289

l = 17

Total surface area of cone = πr (l + r) = π × 8 × (17 + 8) = π × 8 × 25 = 200 π

128

A, B and C can do a piece of work in 30 days, 45 days and 90 days, respectively. A starts the work and he is assisted by B and C together every third day. In how many days will the work be completed?

  1. ((a))

    221222\frac{1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

23

Total work = 90

Work done by A, B and C in 3 days = 3A + B + C = 3 × 3 + 2 + 1 = 12

Work done by A, B and C in 21 days = 12 × 7 = 84

Remaining work = 90 – 84 = 6

A will complete 6 unit work in 6/3 = 2 days

Total days = 21 + 2 = 23

129

If the total number of employees working in departments A and B exceeds the number of employees in department C by x, then x lies between:

  1. ((a))

    100 and 120 

  2. ((b))

    120 and 140 

  3. ((c))

    80 and 100

  4. ((d))

    140 and 160 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

120 and 140 

Total number of employees in department A and B = 79.2° + 57.6° = 136.8°

Total number of employees in department C = 122.4°

Number of employees in A and B is more than that of C by = 136.8° – 122.4° = 14.4°

Number of employees in A and B is more than C by = 3200 × 14.4/360 = 128

As we know, 128 lies between 120 and 140.

130

A sum of money becomes Rs. 35,680 after 3 years and Rs. 53, 520 after 6 years at a certain rate percentage p.a. interest compounded yearly. What is the compound interest on the same sum in the first case? (Your answer should be nearest to integer) 

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 10,842

  2. ((b))

    Rs.11,938

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 11,983

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 11,893

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 11,893

As we know

A = P(1 + r/100)t

⇒ 35680 = P( 1 + r/100)3

⇒ 35680/P = (1 + r/100)3    ----(1)

⇒ 53520 = 35680 (1 + r/100)3

⇒ 53520/35680 = (1 + r/100)3    ----(2)

From equation (1) and equation (2),

⇒ 35680/P = 53520/35680

⇒ P = (35680 × 35680)/53520

⇒ P = 23786.6

⇒ CI for first 3 years = 35680 – 23786.6 = 11893.3 ≈ Rs. 11893

131

When the price of sugar increased by 28%, a family reduced its consumption per month such that the expenditure on sugar was only 12% more than the earlier one. If the family consumed 18.4 kg of sugar per month earlier, then what is its new consumption of sugar per month?

  1. ((a))

    15.75 kg

  2. ((b))

    15.8 kg

  3. ((c))

    16.6 kg

  4. ((d))

    16.1 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16.1 kg

Short trick:

Let consumption of sugar be x kg.

⇒ x = (112/128) × 18.4 = 16.1 kg

Detailed Solution:

Let the price of sugar be 100x.

Price of sugar after increment = 100x × (128/100) = 128x

Price ratio of sugar = 100x : 128x

Consumption is inversely proportional to price.

Consumption ratio of sugar before to after = 128x : 100x

New price of sugar if family wants to increase in expenditure on sugar 12% only

= 100x × (112/100) = 112x

Now price ratio of sugar = 100x : 112x

Now Consumption ratio of sugar before to after = 112x : 100x

⇒ Consumption ratio of sugar before, at 12% increase in price and at 28% increase in price

= 128x : 112x : 100x

⇒ 128x = 18.4 kg

⇒ x = 18.4/128

⇒ 112x = (18.4/128) × 112 = 16.1 kg

132

The value of 1743\frac{1}{{\sqrt {7 - 4\sqrt 3 } }} is closest to;

  1. ((a))

    3.7

  2. ((b))

    4.2

  3. ((c))

    1.2

  4. ((d))

    4.1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.7

Shortcut Trick Identify 7 − 4√3 as the perfect square (2 − √3)2. The expression becomes 1 / (2 − √3). Rationalizing 1 / (2 − √3) gives its conjugate 2 + √3. Using the approximate value √3 ≈ 1.732. The result is 2 + 1.732 = 3.732, which is closest to 3.7. ∴ The correct answer is 3.7. Alternate Method Given: The expression is 1 / √(7 − 4√3). Method Used: Simplification of Surds and Rationalization. ⇒ First, simplify the denominator: √(7 − 4√3) ⇒ 7 − 4√3 can be written as 4 + 3 − 2 × 2 × √3 ⇒ 22 + (√3)2 − 2 × 2 × √3 = (2 − √3)2 ⇒ √(7 − 4√3) = √(2 − √3)2 = 2 − √3 ⇒ Now the expression is 1 / (2 − √3) ⇒ Rationalize by multiplying numerator and denominator by (2 + √3): ⇒ [1 × (2 + √3)] / [(2 − √3) × (2 + √3)] = (2 + √3) / (22 − (√3)2) ⇒ (2 + √3) / (4 − 3) = 2 + √3 ⇒ Taking √3 ≈ 1.732, value = 2 + 1.732 = 3.732 ∴ The correct answer is 3.7. Additional Information Square Root of a Surd For a surd in the form x − 2√y, if we find two numbers a and b such that a + b = x and ab = y, then √(x − 2√y) = √a − √b (where a > b). Rationalization To rationalize a denominator of the form (a − √b), multiply both numerator and denominator by its conjugate (a + √b) to use the identity (x − y)(x + y) = x2 − y2. Approximate Surd Values Common values for exams: √2 ≈ 1.414, √3 ≈ 1.732, √5 ≈ 2.236, and √10 ≈ 3.162.

133

The ratio of the number of workers in the factory whose daily wages are below Rs 600 to the number of workers whose daily wages are more than Rs. 650 but less than Rs. 800 is____.

  1. ((a))

    11 : 7

  2. ((b))

    2 : 1

  3. ((c))

    11 : 10

  4. ((d))

    17 : 14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11 : 7

The number of workers in the factory whose daily wages are below Rs. 600 = 40 + 50 + 58 + 72

= 220

The number of workers in the factory whose daily wages are more Rs. 650 = 55 + 48 + 37 = 140

Required ratio = 220 : 140 = 11 : 7

134

The circumference of a circle exceeds its diameter by 60 cm. The area of the circle is: (Take π = 22/7)

  1. ((a))

    536 cm2

  2. ((b))

    1078 m2

  3. ((c))

    616 cm2

  4. ((d))

    346.5 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

616 cm2

According to the question

2πr – 2r = 60

⇒ 2r(22/7 – 1) = 60

⇒ r × 15/7 = 30

⇒ r = 14 cm

Area of the circle = πr2 = 22/7 × 14 × 14 = 616 cm2

135

If A’s income is 40% of B’s income and B’s income is 24% more than C’s income, then by what percentage is C’s income more than A’s income? (Your answer should be correct to one decimal place.)

  1. ((a))

    101.6

  2. ((b))

    75.6

  3. ((c))

    50.4

  4. ((d))

    104.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

101.6

Let the income of C be 100x

Income of B = 100x × (124/100) = 124x

Income of A = 124x × (40/100) = 49.6x

Income of C is more than that of A by (%) = [(100x – 49.6x)/49.6x] × 100 = 101.6%

136

A certain sum (in Rs.) is invested at simple interest at y% per annum for 3123\frac{1}{2} years. Had it been invested at (y + 4)% per annum at simple interest, it would have fetched Rs. 4,452 more as interst. What is the sum?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 31,800

  2. ((b))

    Rs.30,400

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 42,800

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 42, 400

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 31,800

Short Trick:

Difference of rate for 1 year = 4%

Difference of rate for 3½ year = 4 × 7/2 = 14%

14% = 4452

100% = 4452 × (100/14) = Rs. 31800

Detailed method:

Let sum be Rs x

t = 3½ year

r = 4%

According to the question

Prt/100 = SI

[x × (y + 4 – y) × (7/2)] /100 = 4452

(x × 4 × 7)/(2 × 100) = 4452

x = (4452 × 2 × 100)/(4 × 7)

x = Rs. 31800

137

The number of states in which the production of wheat is more than 20% of the total production of rice in all five states is _____.

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3

Total production of rice of all five states = 350 + 450 + 575 + 400 + 525 = 2300

20% of the total production of rice of all five states = 2300 × 20/100 = 460

There are three states A, D, and E (500, 560, and 475 respectively)whose production is more than 20% of the total production of wheat.

138

The ratio of the total production of rice in states C and E to the total production of wheat in states B and D is ____.

  1. ((a))

    20 : 17

  2. ((b))

    11 : 10

  3. ((c))

    22 : 19

  4. ((d))

    13 : 12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 : 17

Total production of rice in states C and E = 575 + 525 = 1100

Total production of wheat in states B and D = 375 + 560 = 935

⇒ Required ratio = 1100 : 935 = 20 : 17

139

If x4 + x2 y2 + y4 = 21 and x2 + xy + y2 = 3, then what is the value of 4xy?

  1. ((a))

    -4

  2. ((b))

    -8

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

-8

x2 + xy + y2 = 3    ---(1)

As we know,

x4 + x2y2 + y4 = (x2 + xy + y2) (x2 – xy + y2)

21 = 3 (x2 – xy + y2)

x2 – xy + y2 = 21/3

x2 – xy + y2 = 7    ---(2)

From equation (1) and equation (2)

2xy =  -4

4xy = 2 × (-4)

4xy = (-8)

140

The average weight of some students in a class was 60.5 kg. When 8 students, whose average weight was 65 kg. Joined the class, then the average weight of all the students increased by 0.9kg. The number of students in the class, initially, was:

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

32

Let total number of students be x

Average weight of x students = 60.5 kg

Sum of weight of x students = 60.5x

Average weight of 8 students = 65

Sum of weight of 8 students = 65 × 8 = 520

According to the question

60.5x + 520 = (x + 8)(60.5 + 0.9)

60.5x + 520 = (x + 8) × 61.4

60.5x + 520 = 61.4x + 491.2

61.4x – 60.5x = 520 – 491.2

0.9x = 28.8

x = 28.8/0.9

x = 32

Short Trick :

0.9 kg weight increase for = 1 students

(65 – 60.5) × 8 kg weight increase for = (1/0.9) × 4.5 × 8 = 40 students

Number of students before = 40 – 8 = 32

141

Pipes A, B and C together can fill a cistern in 12 hours. All the three pipes are opened together for 4 hours and then C is close. A and B together take 10 hours to fill the remaining part of the cistern. C alone will fill two - thirds the cistern in:

  1. ((a))

    48 hours 

  2. ((b))

    50 hours

  3. ((c))

    60 hours

  4. ((d))

    40 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40 hours

Efficiency of (A + B + C) is 1 unit.

Let the total work be 12 units.

Work done by A, B and C together in 1 hr = 1 unit

Work done by A, B and C together in 4 hr = 4 unit

Remaining work = 12 – 4 = 8 unit

Let efficiency of A and B together be x.

⇒ 10 × x = 8

⇒ x = 8/10 = 0.8

⇒ Efficiency of C = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2

⇒ 2/3 of the cistern = 12 × 2/3 = 8

⇒ 2/3 of the cistern filled by C in = 8/(0.2) = 40 hrs

142

If the 7 – digit number x468y05 is divisible by 11, then what is the value of (x + y) ?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

Calculation:

Divisibility law of 11: If the difference of the alternating sum of digits of the number is a multiple of 11 (e.g. 2343 is divisible by 11 because (2 + 4) – (3 + 3) = 0, which is a multiple of 11).

x468Y05 is divided by 11, then

(x + 6 + y + 5) – (4 + 8 + 0) = 11

⇒ (x + y + 11) – 12 = 11

⇒ x + y – 1 = 11

⇒ x + y = 12

143

If 1cosecθ;+;1;+;1cosecθ1;=;2secθ,0<θ<90,\frac{1}{{{\rm{cosec\theta ;}} + {\rm{;}}1}}{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{{{\rm{cosec\theta }} - 1}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}2{\rm{sec\theta }},0^\circ < {\rm{\theta }} < 90^\circ , then the value of tanθ;+;2secθcosecθ\frac{{{\rm{tan\theta ;}} + {\rm{;}}2\sec {\rm{\theta }}}}{{{\rm{cosec\theta }}}} is:

  1. ((a))

    2;+;32\frac{{2{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\sqrt 3 }}{2}

  2. ((b))

    4;+;32\frac{{4{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\sqrt 3 }}{2}

  3. ((c))

    2;+;22\frac{{2{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\sqrt 2 }}{2}

  4. ((d))

    4;+;22\frac{{4{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\sqrt 2 }}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4;+;22\frac{{4{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}\sqrt 2 }}{2}

1/(cosecθ + 1) + 1/(cosecθ – 1) = 2 secθ

⇒ (cosecθ – 1 + cosecθ + 1)/(cosec2θ – 1) = 2 secθ

⇒ 2cosecθ/cot2θ = 2 secθ

⇒ (2/sinθ) × (sin2θ/cos2θ) = 2/cosθ

⇒ tanθ = 1

⇒ tanθ = tan45°

⇒ θ = 45°

Now,

⇒ (tanθ + 2secθ**)/**cosecθ

⇒ (tan45 + 2 sec45)/cosec45

⇒ {(1 + 2√2)/ √2} × (√2/√2)

⇒ (√2 + 4)/2

Short trick:

1/(cosecθ + 1) + 1/(cosecθ – 1) = 2 secθ

Put θ = 45

⇒ {1/(√2 + 1)} + {1/(√2 – 1)} = 2√2

⇒ (√2 – 1 + √2 + 1)/(2 – 1) = 2√2

⇒ 2√2 = 2√2 (Satisfied)

Now,

⇒ (tanθ + 2 secθ)/cosecθ

⇒ (tan45 + 2 sec45)/cosec45

⇒ {(1 + 2√2)/√2} × (√2/√2)

⇒ (√2 + 4)/2

144

The marked price of an article is Rs. 530. After two successive discounts, it is sold for Rs. 396.44. If the first discount is 15%, and the second discount is x%, then what is the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    12.5

  3. ((c))

    10.5

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12

MP of the article = 530

SP of the article after first discount = 530 × (85/100) = 450.5

Second discount = 450.5 – 396.44 = 54.06

Second discount = (54.06/450.5) × 100 = 12%

145

A, B and C started a business with their capitals in the ratio 4 : 2 : 9. At the end of every quarter, A halves his capital, Whereas B doubles his capital and C leaves his capital unchanged. If at the end of a year, A’s profit was Rs. 24,000, then what is the total profit (in Rs.)?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 230400

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 235200

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 225600

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 216000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 235200

Capital of A, B and C = 4 : 2 : 9

⇒ Suppose capital of A = 4

⇒ Suppose capital of B = 2

⇒ Suppose capital of C = 9

⇒ Total capital of A after end of the year = 4 × 3 + (4/2) × 3 + (4/4) × 3 + (4/8) × 3

= 12 + 6 + 3 + (3/2) = 45/2

⇒ Total capital of B after end of the year = 2 × 3 + 4 × 3 + 8 × 3 + 16 × 3 = 6 + 12 + 24 + 48

= 90

⇒ Total capital of C after end of the year = 9 × 12 = 108

⇒ Profit ratio of A, B and C = (45/2) : 90 : 108 = 5 : 20 : 24

⇒ 5 unit = 24000

⇒ 1 unit = 24000/5 = 4800

⇒ (5 + 20 + 24) unit = 49 unit = 4800 × 49 = Rs. 235200

⇒ Total profit = Rs. 235200

146

If 60% of (x - y) = 45% (x + y) and y = k% of x, then 21% of k is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

(x – y) × 60/100 = (x + y) × 45/100

⇒ (x – y) × 4 = (x + y) × 3

⇒ 4x – 4y = 3x + 3y

⇒ x = 7y

⇒ x/y = 7/1

Suppose x = 7 and y = 1

⇒ y = k% of x

⇒ 1 = k% × 7

⇒ k% = 1/7

⇒ k = 100/7

⇒ 21% of k

⇒ 21/100 × 100/7 = 3

147

The value of 0.325;×;0.325;+;0.175;×;0.17525;×;0.004555;×;0.0065;×;3.257;×;0.175;×;0.025\frac{{0.325; \times ;0.325; + ;0.175{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}0.175 - 25; \times ;0.00455}}{{5; \times ;0.0065; \times ;3.25 - 7; \times ;0.175; \times ;0.025}} lies between:

  1. ((a))

    0.25 and 0.35

  2. ((b))

    0.15 and 0.25

  3. ((c))

    0.35 and 0.45

  4. ((d))

    0.05 and0.15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.25 and 0.35

0.325;×;0.325;+;0.175;×;0.17525;×;0.004555;×;0.0065;×;3.257;×;0.175;×;0.025\frac{{0.325; \times ;0.325; + ;0.175{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}0.175 - 25; \times ;0.00455}}{{5; \times ;0.0065; \times ;3.25 - 7; \times ;0.175; \times ;0.025}}

;325;×;325;+;175;×;17525;×;45505;×;65;×;3257;×;175;×;25 \Rightarrow {\rm{;}}\frac{{325; \times ;325; + ;175{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}175 - 25; \times ;4550}}{{5; \times ;65; \times ;325 - 7; \times ;175; \times ;25}}

;325;×;325;+;175;×;17525;×;4550325;×;325175;×;175 \Rightarrow {\rm{;}}\frac{{325; \times ;325; + ;175{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}175 - 25; \times ;4550}}{{325; \times ;325 - 175; \times ;175}}

Suppose x = 325 and y = 175

⇒ [x2 + y2 – 2 xy]/[x2 – y2]

⇒ (x – y)2/{(x – y)(x + y)}

⇒ (x – y)/(x + y)

⇒ (325 – 175)/(325 + 175)

⇒ 150/500

⇒ 0.3

As we know,

0.3 lies between 0.25 and 0.35

148

Let x be the least 4–digit number which when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 leaves a remainder of 1 in each case. If x lies between 2800 and 3000, then what is the sum of the digits of x?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

Shortcut Trick The LCM of given divisors 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 is 420. The required number x leaving a remainder of 1 will be in the form (420k + 1). For k = 7, the number x = 420 × 7 + 1 = 2941, which perfectly lies between 2800 and 3000. Sum of the digits of x = 2 + 9 + 4 + 1 = 16. ∴ The correct answer is 16.

Alternate Method Given: Divisors = 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 Remainder = 1 in each case Range of number x = Between 2800 and 3000 Formula Used: Number = LCM(Divisors) × k + Remainder Calculation: ⇒ First, calculate the LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. ⇒ LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7) = 420 ⇒ Let the required number be x = 420k + 1 ⇒ According to the given condition: 2800 < 420k + 1 < 3000 ⇒ Subtracting 1 from all parts: 2799 < 420k < 2999 ⇒ Dividing by 420: 6.66 < k < 7.14 ⇒ Since k must be a whole integer, the only possible value for k is 7. ⇒ Substitute k = 7 into the equation for x: ⇒ x = 420 × 7 + 1 ⇒ x = 2940 + 1 = 2941 ⇒ Now, find the sum of the digits of x (2941). ⇒ Sum of digits = 2 + 9 + 4 + 1 = 16 ∴ The correct answer is 16.

Additional Information LCM Rule for Same Remainder When a number is divided by a, b, and c leaving the same remainder r in each case, the general form of the number is given by [LCM(a, b, c) × k] + r. LCM Rule for Different Remainders If divided by a, b, and c leaving remainders x, y, and z respectively such that the difference is constant (a − x = b − y = c − z = d), the number format is [LCM(a, b, c) × k] − d. HCF Rule for Same Remainder The greatest number dividing a, b, and c and leaving the same remainder r in each case is given by HCF(a − r, b − r, c − r).

149

The value of 5 ÷ [5 + 8 – {4 + (4 of 2 ÷ 4) – (2 ÷ 4 of 2)}] is:

  1. ((a))

    20/23

  2. ((b))

    20/29

  3. ((c))

    5/7

  4. ((d))

    5/8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20/29

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

5 ÷ [5 + 8 – {4 + (4 of 2 ÷ 4) – (2 ÷ 4 of 2)}]

⇒ 5 ÷ [5 + 8 – {4 + (8 ÷ 4) – (2 ÷ 8)}]

⇒ 5 ÷ [13 – {4 + 2 – (1/4)}]

⇒ 5 ÷ [13 – {(16 + 8 – 1)/4}]

⇒ 5 ÷ [13 – (23/4)]

⇒ 5 ÷ {(52 – 23)/4}

⇒ 5 ÷ (29/4)

⇒ 5 × (4/29)

⇒ 20/29

150

If x is subtracted from each of the numbers 20, 37, 54 and 105 then the numbers so obtained in same order are in proportion. What is the mean proportional between (7x – 5) and (x + 1)?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

Detailed solution∶

If x is subtracted from each 20, 37, 54 and 105, then numbers so obtained in this order are in proportion

According to the question

(20 – x)/(37 – x) = (54 – x)/(105 – x)

Using Dividendo and Componendo,

⇒ (20 – x + 37 – x)/(20 – x – 37 + x) = (54 – x + 105 – x)/(54 – x – 105 + x)

⇒ (57 – 2x)/(–17) = (159 – 2x)/(–51)

⇒ 3(57 – 2x) = 159 – 2x

⇒ 171 – 6x = 159 – 2x

⇒ 6x – 2x = 171 – 159

⇒ 4x = 12

⇒ x = 12/4

⇒ x = 3

Mean proportional = √[(7 × 3 – 5)(3 + 1)] = √{(21 – 5) × 4} = √(16 × 4) = 4 × 2 = 8

English Comprehension (50 questions)

151

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

Note down my phone number in case you needs to ring me up.

  1. ((a))

    to ring me up

  2. ((b))

    my phone number

  3. ((c))

    in case you needs

  4. ((d))

    Note down

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

in case you needs

The correct answer is option 3.

In the given sentence, the error lies in the wrong usage of the subject-verb agreement.

The pronoun 'you' doesn't take the base form of the verbs. So, replace 'needs' with 'need'.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'Note down my phone number in case you need to ring me up.'

152

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

I made them cleaning the room thoroughly.

  1. ((a))

    I make them cleaning

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    I made them clean

  4. ((d))

    I making them clean

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

I made them clean

The correct answer is option 3.

In the given sentence, the verb 'made' is a causative verb.

Rule: 'Have', 'get' and 'make' are the causative verbs. When we use these causative verbs in a sentence, the verbs followed by them should always be in the first form of the verb. For example, I made him do (V1) the whole work.

Therefore, according to the rule, the verb 'cleaning' should be replaced with 'clean'.

The correct sentence is 'I made them clean the room thoroughly.'

153

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, then select option 'No error'.

The J&K Administration has withdrew the advisory asking tourists to cut short their visit to Kashmir.

  1. ((a))

    No error

  2. ((b))

    has withdrew the advisory

  3. ((c))

    their visit to Kashmir

  4. ((d))

    asking tourists to cut short

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

has withdrew the advisory

The correct answer is option 2.

The error lies in the wrong usage of the verb 'withdrew'. 

The given sentence is in the present perfect tense. The structure followed in present perfect tense is 'subject + has/have + V3 + object'.

Therefore, replace 'withdrew' with 'withdrawn'.

Correct Sentence: The J&K Administration has withdrawn the advisory asking tourists to cut short their visit to Kashmir.

154

Select the most appropriate word which means the same as the group of words given.

A word formed from the initial letters of other words

  1. ((a))

    homonym

  2. ((b))

    toponym

  3. ((c))

    pseudonym

  4. ((d))

    acronym

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

acronym

The correct answer is option 4.

The word 'acronym' is the correct answer, as it means '​a word formed from the first letters of the words that make up the name of something. For example, ‘AIDS’ is an acronym for ‘acquired immune deficiency syndrome’'

The meaning of other words:

  • homonym: ​a word that is spelt like another word (or pronounced like it) but that has a different meaning.
  • toponym: a place name.
  • pseudonym: a name used by somebody, especially a writer, instead of their real name.
155

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Work against the clock

  1. ((a))

    work in great hurry

  2. ((b))

    work with concentration

  3. ((c))

    work against all problems

  4. ((d))

    work late in the night

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

work in great hurry

The correct answer is option 1.

The given idiom 'Work against the clock' means' means 'to do it as fast as possible and try to finish it before a certain time'. 

Example: They will have to work against the clock to finish their presentation in time for the convention.

Therefore, option 1 'work in great hurry' is the correct answer.

156

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Run around in circles

  1. ((a))

    to keep doing something without achieving much

  2. ((b))

    to remain busy with your work

  3. ((c))

    to keep running to set a record

  4. ((d))

    to work excessively hard by keeping two jobs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to keep doing something without achieving much

The correct answer is option 1.

The meaning of the given idiom 'Run around in circles' is 'to keep doing or talking about the same thing without achieving anything'.

Example: I've been running around in circles to get all the reports finished before the convention.

Therefore option 1 'to keep doing something without achieving much' is the correct answer.

157

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

When the PMC Bank failed many, people's lives were ruining.

  1. ((a))

    were ruined

  2. ((b))

    was ruined

  3. ((c))

    has ruined

  4. ((d))

    No substitution required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

were ruined

The correct answer is option 1.

The given sentence is in the passive voice**.**

In simple past tense of passive form, we always use the third form of the verb. So, replace 'ruining' with 'ruined'.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'When the PMC Bank failed many, people's lives were ruined.'

158

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

The Government is setting up a special surveillance cell for epidemic-prone diseases at flood-ravaged Bihar.

  1. ((a))

    a special surveillance cell

  2. ((b))

    for epidemic-prone diseases

  3. ((c))

    at flood-ravaged Bihar.

  4. ((d))

    The Government is setting up

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

at flood-ravaged Bihar.

The correct answer is option 3.

The error lies in the wrong usage of the preposition 'at'.

In the given sentence, it is saying about the place where the Government is setting up a special surveillance cell. So, the preposition 'in' should be used which is used to express 'at a point within an area or a space'.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'The Government is setting up a special surveillance cell for epidemic-prone diseases in flood-ravaged Bihar.'

159

Select the most appropriate word which means the same as the group of words given.

A government run by a king or a queen

  1. ((a))

    oligarchy

  2. ((b))

    monarchy

  3. ((c))

    plutocracy

  4. ((d))

    aristocracy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

monarchy

The correct answer is option 2.

The word 'monarchy' is the correct answer as it means 'a system of government run by a king or a queen'.

The meaning of other words:

  • oligarchy: a form of government in which only a small group of people hold all the power.
  • plutocracy: government by the richest people in a country.
  • aristocracy: people born in the highest social class, who have special titles.

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

After coffee had been served in different-sized cups and mugs, the chief rose (1)______ his place at the head of the table (2)______ a speech of welcome, (3)______ Aziz translated. Scott made a short (4), which was applauded even before Aziz had been given the (5) to interpret what he had said.

160

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 4.

  1. ((a))

    retort

  2. ((b))

    respond

  3. ((c))

    rejoin

  4. ((d))

    reply

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

reply

The correct answer is option 4.

The correct word that fits in the given context is 'reply' which means ' to say or write something'.

As the sentence is talking about the speech made by the chief, 'reply' is the correct answer.

Note: The meaning of the word retort is to say something in a sharp and angry manner in answer to a remark.

161

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 5.

  1. ((a))

    moment

  2. ((b))

    turning

  3. ((c))

    probability

  4. ((d))

    chance

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

chance

The correct answer is option 4.

In the given passage, it is said that Aziz was given the opportunity to translate the speech made by the chief.

So, the word that fits in the context is 'chance', which means 'a suitable time or situation when you have the opportunity to do something'

162

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, then select option 'No error'.

The prices of tomatoes has soared up to Rs. 65-70 per kg in many parts of the country.

  1. ((a))

    No error

  2. ((b))

    The prices of tomatoes has

  3. ((c))

    soared up

  4. ((d))

    in many parts of the country

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The prices of tomatoes has

The correct answer is option 2.

In the given sentence, the error lies in the wrong usage of the subject-verb agreement.

The subject 'prices' is in the plural form. So, the verb that followed should also be in its plural form - replace 'has' with 'have'.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'The prices of tomatoes have soared up to Rs. 65-70 per kg in many parts of the country.'

163

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 3.

  1. ((a))

    who

  2. ((b))

    whom

  3. ((c))

    which

  4. ((d))

    what

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

which

The correct answer is option 3.

The correct pronoun to be used in the given context is 'which', which is used to 'give more information about something**'**.

The given passage states that 'the speech' made by the chief is translated by 'Aziz'.

164

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

My mother speaks in so a low voice that it is difficult to understand what she is saying.

  1. ((a))

    My mother speaks

  2. ((b))

    what she is saying

  3. ((c))

    in so a low voice

  4. ((d))

    that it is difficult to understand

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

in so a low voice

The correct answer is option 3.

We need to use adverb such in place of so here.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'My mother speaks in such a low voice that it is difficult to understand what she is saying.'

165

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 2.

  1. ((a))

    to make

  2. ((b))

    made

  3. ((c))

    makes

  4. ((d))

    make

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to make

The correct answer is option 1.

In the given passage, it is said that the chief got up from his place. The preposition 'to' should be used before the verb to express the purpose why he got up from his place i.e. 'to make a welcome speech'.

Therefore, the answer is 'to make'.

166

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Left out in cold

  1. ((a))

    to be ignored

  2. ((b))

    to stand out

  3. ((c))

    to be indecisive

  4. ((d))

    to be criticised

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to be ignored

The correct answer is option 1.

The meaning of the given idiom 'Left out in cold' is 'to be ignored, forgotten, or excluded, as from a group, activity, benefit, etc.' 

Example: Developing countries might be left out in the cold in current world trade talks.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'to be ignored'.

167

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Up in the arms

  1. ((a))

    to be angry

  2. ((b))

    to be defensive

  3. ((c))

    to be nervous

  4. ((d))

    to be rude

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to be angry

The correct answer is option 1.

The given idiom 'Up in arms' means 'to be very angry'.

Example : The AP State Road Transport Corporation (APSRTC) Employees Union (EU) is up in arms against the management's “anti-worker” policies.

Therefore, option 1 'to be angry' is the correct answer.

168

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 1.

  1. ((a))

    on

  2. ((b))

    to

  3. ((c))

    from

  4. ((d))

    into

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

from

The correct answer is option 3.

Out of given alternatives, the correct preposition that fits in the context is 'from' which is used 'to show where somebody/something starts'.

In the sentence, it means that after the coffee had been served, the chief got up from his place.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

India generates at least 25,940 tonnes of plastic waste daily, equivalent to the weight of around 4,300 elephants. Of this, about 60% gets recycled, according to the Union environment ministry. The rest gets dumped in landfills, clogs drains, goes into the ocean as micro-plastics, or is burnt, leading to air pollution.

In the absence of a proper waste management system, the plastics that get recycled are often dirty, which makes the re-cycling process water-intensive and expensive. “It is the process of cleaning the plastics before recycling that makes it resource intensive. A lot of water is required to wash the collected plastics, especially if it is oily or greasy as it has to be cleaned with a solvent,” said Dr Suneel Pandey, director of environment and waste management, The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).

Experts say proper waste collection and management is at the core of ensuring more plastics get recycled instead of ending up in landfills and oceans.

Researchers from various institutes have come up with innovative ways to utilise the plastic waste that cannot be recycled further or are unrecyclable.

At IIT Delhi, a group of chemical engineers are working on chemically breaking down plastics to its smaller hydrocarbon molecules and then synthesising diesel out of it. The process uses packaging material, Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) bottles, polystyrene, and multi-layer packaging.

The fuel produced can currently be used as a blend in stationary diesel machines like generators and needs further testing and standardisation to be used as commercial diesel in vehicles.

A mix of plastic and stone has been used to create a block that can be used in flooring. A CSIR laboratory also used shredded plastics, chemically treated it and mixed with fillers to make tiles.

A German chemical producer called BASF is also breaking down waste plastic and using it as raw material for chemicals, instead of using material derived from fossil fuels. One cost-effective solution was developed by Dr Rajagopalan Vasudevan, professor at Thiagarajar College of Engineering in Madurai. The National Highways Authority of India is currently scaling up his technology to use plastic waste in making roads. He came up with the idea of mixing plastic waste with Bitumen used for constructing roads in 2001. “That year the Tamil Nadu government had planned to ban plastic and my concern began with the more than 1 lakh people employed by the industry. Since plastic is derived from petroleum just like Bitumen, I thought of using it for road construction. The result, not only plastic waste was getting utilised, the roads were cheaper and steadier,” he said. The plastic waste does not have to be segregated and even multi-layered plastics can be used in the mix. “All we need to do is collect the waste, dry it out and use it,” he said. The construction of every kilometre of road required nine tonnes of Bitumen and one tonne of plastic waste. This means for every kilometre of road, one-tonne Bitumen is saved, which costs about ₹30,000.

169

What has been developed by Dr Rajagopalan Vasudevan, professor at Thiagarajar College of Engineering in Madurai?

  1. ((a))

    method for making diesel from plastic waste

  2. ((b))

    method for using plastic to make tiles and blocks

  3. ((c))

    method for using plastic for road construction

  4. ((d))

    method for extracting raw material for chemicals

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

method for using plastic for road construction

The correct answer is option 3.

In the second line of the last paragraph, it is said that 'One cost-effective solution was developed by Dr Rajagopalan Vasudevan, professor at Thiagarajar College of Engineering in Madurai. The National Highways Authority of India is currently scaling up his technology to use plastic waste in making roads'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'method for using plastic for road construction'.

170

Which organization makes blocks and tiles from plastic waste?

  1. ((a))

    IIT, Delhi

  2. ((b))

    CSIR

  3. ((c))

    BASF

  4. ((d))

    TERI

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CSIR

The correct answer is option 2.

In the given passage, it is mentioned that 'A mix of plastic and stone has been used to create a block that can be used in flooring. A CSIR laboratory also used shredded plastics, chemically treated it and mixed with fillers to make tiles.'

Therefore, the CISR organisation makes blocks and tiles from plastic waste.

171

The above passage mainly talks about

  1. ((a))

    putting the plastic waste to use by recycling.

  2. ((b))

    the plastic waste generated in India

  3. ((c))

    the problems of recycling plastic waste.

  4. ((d))

    the need of research to manage plastic waste.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

putting the plastic waste to use by recycling.

The correct answer is option 1.

In the given passage, it is talking mainly about the reuse of plastic by recycling it.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'putting the plastic waste to use by recycling.'

172

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The fuel produced from plastic waste can be used as a blend in stationary diesel machines like generators.

  2. ((b))

    The National Highways Authority of India is planning to use plastic waste in making roads.

  3. ((c))

    India generates at least 25,940 tonnes of plastic waste daily.

  4. ((d))

    In the construction of one kilometer of road, nine tonnes of bitumen can be saved by using plastic waste.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

In the construction of one kilometer of road, nine tonnes of bitumen can be saved by using plastic waste.

The correct answer is option 4.

In the last paragraph, the second line from the last says that 'The construction of every kilometre of road required nine tonnes of Bitumen and one tonne of plastic waste.'

Therefore, the sentence 'In the construction of one kilometer of road, nine tonnes of bitumen can be saved by using plastic waste.' is not true, according to the given passage.

173

What makes the recycling of plastic resource-intensive?

  1. ((a))

    the cleaning of plastic waste

  2. ((b))

    the collection of plastic waste

  3. ((c))

    the breaking down of plastic in molecules

  4. ((d))

    the research required for recycling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the cleaning of plastic waste

The correct answer is option 1.

In the second line of the second paragraph, it is said that 'It is the process of cleaning the plastics before recycling that makes it resource-intensive'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'the cleaning of plastic waste'.

174

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

INITIATE

  1. ((a))

    begin

  2. ((b))

    finish

  3. ((c))

    commence

  4. ((d))

    trigger

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

finish

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given word 'INITIATE' is 'to make something begin'.
  • So, the most appropriate antonym is 'finish' which means 'to stop doing something'.
  • The meaning of other words:
  • begin:  to start doing something.
  • commence: to begin to happen.
  • trigger: to make something happen suddenly.
175

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

SUBSIDE

  1. ((a))

    diminish

  2. ((b))

    enlarge

  3. ((c))

    ease

  4. ((d))

    abate

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

enlarge

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given word 'SUBSIDE' is 'to become calmer, quieter or less intense'. (कम होना)
  • Out of the given alternatives, the word 'enlarge' is the antonym of the given word as it means 'to make something bigger; to become bigger'. (विस्तार)
  • The meaning of other words:
  • diminish: to make something smaller. (घटाना)
  • ease: make (something unpleasant or intense) less serious or severe. (आराम)
  • abate: to become less intense or severe; to make something less intense or severe. (रोक-थाम करना)
176

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

STABLE

  1. ((a))

    Reliable

  2. ((b))

    Tough

  3. ((c))

    Shaky

  4. ((d))

    Even

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shaky

The correct answer is shaky

Key Points

The meaning of the given word 'STABLE' is 'fixed or steady; not likely to move, change or fail'.

So, the word 'shaky' is the antonym of the given word as it means '​not stable, steady or safe; not certain'.

The meaning of other words:

  • reliable: that can be trusted to do something well; that you can rely on.
  • tough: having or causing problems or difficulties.
  • even: used to emphasize something unexpected or surprising.
177

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

CONSUME

  1. ((a))

    absorb

  2. ((b))

    save

  3. ((c))

    exhaust

  4. ((d))

    devour

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

save

The correct answer is option 2.

The given word 'CONSUME' means 'to use something, especially fuel, energy or time'.

So the word 'save' is the correct answer as it means 'to keep somebody/something safe from harm, loss, etc.' gives the opposite meaning to the given word.

The meaning of other words:

absorb: to use up a large supply of something, especially money or time.

exhaust: use up (resources or reserves) completely.

devour: to destroy somebody/something. It can also mean to eat something in a large amount.

178

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

CONTIGUOUS

  1. ((a))

    contractual

  2. ((b))

    adjoining

  3. ((c))

    separated

  4. ((d))

    neighbouring

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

separated

The correct answer is option 3.

The meaning of the given word 'CONTIGUOUS' is '​touching or next to something'.

So, the correct antonym is 'separated' as it means 'cause to move or be apart.'

The meaning of other words:

contractual: agreed in a contract.

adjoining: next to or joined to something.

neighbouring: located or living near or next to a place or person.

179

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

This is place where Krishna was born.

  1. ((a))

    This be the place

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    This is a place

  4. ((d))

    This is the place

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

This is the place

The correct answer is option 4.

The given sentence is representing a particular place where Krishna was born.

So, the definite article 'the' should be used to 'when explaining which person/place or thing one means'.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'This is the place where Krishna was born'.

180

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Handle with kid gloves

  1. ((a))

    to remove all hurdles to start something

  2. ((b))

    to treat someone with extreme care

  3. ((c))

    to show someone your creativity

  4. ((d))

    to accomplish something too ambitious

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to treat someone with extreme care

The correct answer is option 2.

The meaning of the given idiom 'Handle with kid gloves' is 'to deal with someone very gently or carefully'

Therefore, option 2 'to treat someone with extreme care' is the correct answer.

181

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Tomatoes sown around July in the southern states are harvested in October.

  1. ((a))

    No substitution required

  2. ((b))

    Tomatoes sown under July

  3. ((c))

    Tomatoes sowing around July

  4. ((d))

    Tomatoes sow around July

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No substitution required

The correct answer is option 1.

The original sentence, "Tomatoes sown around July in the southern states are harvested in October," correctly uses the phrase "sown around July" to indicate the time period when tomatoes are planted. The verb "sown" is the past participle of "sow," which means to plant seeds in the ground. The use of "around" appropriately suggests that the planting occurs approximately or near the month of July, without specifying an exact date. This phrasing is grammatically correct and accurately conveys the intended meaning.

Here's why the other options are not suitable:

  1. "Tomatoes sown under July" - The preposition "under" does not correctly convey the meaning of time around which an action occurs. It typically refers to being in a lower position or being subject to something, making it inappropriate in this context.
  2. "Tomatoes sowing around July" - This option changes the verb form incorrectly. "Sowing" is the present participle form of "sow," implying an ongoing action. However, the original sentence's context requires the use of the past participle "sown" to indicate that the action of planting has been completed.
  3. "Tomatoes sow around July" - This option incorrectly uses the present tense "sow," suggesting that the tomatoes are performing the action themselves, which is not possible. The correct form is "sown," indicating that the tomatoes have been planted.

Therefore, "No substitution required" is the correct choice as the original sentence is grammatically appropriate and conveys the intended meaning clearly and accurately.

182

Select the most appropriate word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who holds a post without any salary

  1. ((a))

    honorary

  2. ((b))

    samaritan

  3. ((c))

    highbrow

  4. ((d))

    hypocrite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

honorary

The correct answer is option 1.

The word 'honorary' is the correct answer as it means 'of an office or its holder (unpaid).' This gives the same meaning as the given group of words.

The meaning of other words:

  • samaritan: a person who gives help and sympathy to people who need it.
  • highbrow: ​interested in serious artistic or cultural ideas.
  • hypocrite: a person whose behaviour does not meet the moral standards or match the opinions that they claim to have.
183

Select the most appropriate word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who is easily deceived

  1. ((a))

    gullible

  2. ((b))

    infallible

  3. ((c))

    delible

  4. ((d))

    incorrigible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

gullible

The correct answer is option 1.

The word 'gullible' is the correct answer as it means '​too willing to believe or accept what other people tell you and therefore easily tricked' which in other words means one who can be easily deceived.

The meaning of other words:

infallible: never wrong; never making mistakes.

delible: capable of being deleted.

incorrigible: ​having bad habits that cannot be changed or improved.

184

Select the most appropriate word which means the same as the group of words given.

That cannot be approached easily

  1. ((a))

    Inaudible

  2. ((b))

    Inaccessible

  3. ((c))

    Invincible

  4. ((d))

    Inevitable

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inaccessible

The correct answer is option 2.

The word 'inaccessible' is the correct answer as it means 'difficult or impossible to reach, get or use' means the same as the given group of words.

The meaning of other words:

Inaudible: that you cannot hear.

Invincible: ​too strong to be defeated or changed.

Inevitable: that you cannot avoid or prevent.

185

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

You must apologize ______ the punishment.

  1. ((a))

    escapes

  2. ((b))

    to escape

  3. ((c))

    escape

  4. ((d))

    escaping

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to escape

The correct answer is option 2.

The preposition 'to' is used as a part of the infinitive. The infinitive 'to + V1' should be used in the given sentence to express the reason.

Therefore, out of given alternatives, option 2 'to escape' fits the given context.

The correct sentence is 'You must apologize to escape the punishment'.

186

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

______ the train was late by six hours, it made up three hours before reaching its destination.

  1. ((a))

    Because

  2. ((b))

    In case

  3. ((c))

    Although

  4. ((d))

    In spite of

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Although

The correct answer is option 3.

Out of given alternatives, the correct conjunction that fits in the given context is 'although', which is 'used for introducing a statement that makes the main statement in a sentence seem surprising'. It highlights the contrast expressed in the sentence. 

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'Although the train was late by six hours, it made up three hours before reaching its destination.'

187

Select the most appropriate word/s to fill in the blank.

Only ______ girls were present in the class today.

  1. ((a))

    several of

  2. ((b))

    many

  3. ((c))

    a few

  4. ((d))

    a lot of

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

a few

The correct answer is option 3.

The correct option that fits in the given blank is option 3 'a few' which is used to emphasize how small a number of people or things is.

In the given sentence, the use of 'only' means 'no/not more than something or somebody'. So 'a few' is the correct answer.

All other options represent a large number of something/somebody and hence, are incorrect.

188

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Please don't disturb me. I ______ to solve a sum.

  1. ((a))

    tried

  2. ((b))

    am trying

  3. ((c))

    have tried

  4. ((d))

    try

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

am trying

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points 

  • The sentence containing a blank is in the present continuous tense.
  • The structure followed in the present continuous tense is 'subject + is/am/are + V+ing + object'.
  • Therefore, option 2 'am trying' fits the given context.

Sentence: Please don't disturb me. I am trying to solve a sum.

189

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Do not meddle ______ the affairs of others.

  1. ((a))

    in

  2. ((b))

    at

  3. ((c))

    from

  4. ((d))

    to

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

in

The correct answer is option 1.

Out of given alternatives, the correct preposition that fits in the given context is 'in', which is used to mean 'involved in something; taking part in something'.

In the given sentence, 'do not meddle in' means not to involve in the affairs of others.

The correct sentence is 'Do not meddle in the affairs of others.'

190

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    ambitious

  2. ((b))

    nutritious

  3. ((c))

    capritious

  4. ((d))

    fictitious

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

capritious

The correct answer is option 3 'capritious'.

The correct spelling is 'capricious' which means '​showing sudden changes in attitude or behaviour'.

The meaning of other words:

  • ambitious: determined to be successful, rich, powerful, etc..
  • nutritious: containing many of the substances which help the body to grow.
  • fictitious: ​invented by somebody rather than true.
191

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Desert

  2. ((b))

    Descent

  3. ((c))

    Describe

  4. ((d))

    Descern

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Descern

The correct answer is option 4 'descern'.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is 'discern', which means '​to know, recognize or understand something, especially something that is not obvious'.
  • The meaning of other words:
  • Desert: ​a large area of land that has very little water and very few plants growing on it. Many deserts are covered by sand.
  • Descent: an action of coming or going down.
  • Describe: to say what somebody/something is like.
192

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    effigy

  2. ((b))

    effort

  3. ((c))

    effecient

  4. ((d))

    effect

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

effecient

The correct answer is option 3 'effecient'.

The correct spelling is 'efficient', which means 'doing something in a good, careful and complete way with no waste of time, money or energy'.

The meaning of other words:

  • effigy: a statue of a famous person, a saint or a god.
  • effort: an attempt to do something especially when it is difficult to do.
  • effect: a change that somebody/something causes in somebody/something else; a result.
193

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    benethe

  2. ((b))

    bench

  3. ((c))

    begin

  4. ((d))

    behold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

benethe

The correct answer is option 1 'benethe'.

Key Points

The correct spelling is 'beneath' which means 'in or to a lower position than somebody/something; under somebody/something'.

The meaning of other words:

  • bench: a long seat for two or more people, usually made of wood.
  • begin:  to start doing something; to do the first part of something.
  • behold: to look at or see somebody/something.
194

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    devine

  2. ((b))

    deviate

  3. ((c))

    divide

  4. ((d))

    dive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

devine

The correct answer is option 1: 'devine'.

Key Points

The correct spelling is 'divine' which means 'coming from or connected with God or a god'.

The meaning of other words:

  • deviate:  to be different from something; to do something in a different way from what is usual or expected.
  • divide: to separate into parts; to make something separate into parts.
  • dive:  to jump into water with your head and arms going in first.
195

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

No sooner did it begin to rain that all the guests ran inside.

  1. ((a))

    when all the guests

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    so that all the guests

  4. ((d))

    than all the guests

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

than all the guests

The correct answer is option 4.

The phrase 'no sooner' is followed by 'than'. 

So, option 4  'than all the guests' is the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct sentence is 'No sooner did it begin to rain than all the guests ran inside.'

196

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

CONDEMN

  1. ((a))

    compliment

  2. ((b))

    commend

  3. ((c))

    denounce

  4. ((d))

    approve

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

denounce

The correct answer is option 3.

The meaning of the given word 'CONDEMN' means 'to say very strongly that you think something is bad, usually for moral reasons'.

Therefore, the word 'denounce' is the correct synonym as it means 'to strongly criticize somebody/something that you think is wrong, illegal, etc.'

The meaning of other words:

compliment: a comment that expresses praise or approval of somebody.

commend:  to praise somebody/something, especially publicly.

approve: to think that somebody/something is good, acceptable or suitable

197

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

ENGULF

  1. ((a))

    inundate

  2. ((b))

    uncover

  3. ((c))

    neglect

  4. ((d))

    dry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

inundate

The correct answer is option 1.

The meaning of the given word 'ENGULF' is 'to surround or to cover somebody/something completely'.

So, the most appropriate synonym is 'inundate' which means 'to give or send somebody so many things that they cannot deal with them at all'.

  • uncover: to remove something that is covering something.
  • neglect:  to fail to take care of somebody/something.
  • dry: not wet or sticky; without water or moisture.
198

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

APPARENT

  1. ((a))

    doubtful

  2. ((b))

    dubious

  3. ((c))

    obvious

  4. ((d))

    obscure

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

obvious

The correct answer is 'obvious'

Key Points

  • APPARENT ' is 'easy to see or understand'. (स्पष्ट, स्पष्ट, या आसानी से देखा जाने वाला)
  • E.x- Her unhappiness was apparent to everyone
  • Obvious- easily perceived or understood; clear, self-evident, or apparent (देखने या समझने में आसान)
  • E.x.- It was obvious that things weren't working out
  • Thus according to the above mentioned meaning of both words it is clear that both are synonyms to each other.

Additional Information Let's look at the meaning of other options-

  • Doubtful- not sure; uncertain and feeling doubt. (निश्चित नहीं; अनिश्चित और संदेह महसूस कर रहा है।)
  • Dubious- not certain about something and suspecting that something may be wrong (झिझक या संदेह करना।)
  • Obscure- not well known. (स्पष्ट रूप से समझा या व्यक्त नहीं किया गया)
199

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

OFFEND

  1. ((a))

    Assist

  2. ((b))

    Assuage

  3. ((c))

    Aid

  4. ((d))

    Annoy

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Annoy

The correct answer is annoy

Key Points

The meaning of the given word 'OFFEND' is 'to make somebody feel upset because of something you say or do that is rude or embarrassing'.

So, the most appropriate synonym is 'annoy' which means 'to make somebody slightly angry or uncomfortable'.

The meaning of other words:

  • assist: to help somebody to do something.
  • assuage: to make an unpleasant feeling less severe.
  • aid: money, food, etc. that is sent to help countries in difficult situations.
200

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

PARSIMONY

  1. ((a))

    generosity

  2. ((b))

    readiness

  3. ((c))

    bounty

  4. ((d))

    frugality

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

frugality

The correct answer is option 4.

The meaning of the given word 'PARSIMONY' is '​the fact of being extremely unwilling to spend money'.

So, the word 'frugality' is the correct synonym which means '​a way of living in which you use only as much money or food as is necessary'.

The meaning of other words:

  • generous: the quality of being kind and generous.
  • readiness:  the state of being ready or prepared for something.
  • bounty: generous actions; something provided in large quantities.

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