Official Paper

SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 1)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following Venn diagram, the 'Circle' stands for 'Lawyers', the 'Hexagon' stands for 'Females' and the 'Rectangle' stands for 'Food-lovers'. The given numbers represent the number of persons in that particular category. How many females are both food-lovers and lawyers?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

From the given diagram, 

The shaded part represents the females who are both food-lovers and lawyers = 12

Hence, the correct answer is 12.

2

In a code language, if 'fast and furious' is written as 'co mo jo', 'do it fast' is written as 'cha mo ga', and 'she did it' is written as 'ga la nop', then what will be the code for the word 'do' in this language?

  1. ((a))

    nop

  2. ((b))

    ga

  3. ((c))

    mo

  4. ((d))

    cha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

cha

According to the given information,

Code for 'it' is 'ga'.

Code for 'fast' is 'mo'

So, the remaining word is 'do' and remaining code is 'cha'

Code for 'do' is 'cha'.

Hence, the correct answer is cha.

3

In a code language, 'PLUM' is written as 'KQOMFVNN'. How will 'BIG' be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    YCRKTM

  2. ((b))

    YCRJTH

  3. ((c))

    CYRJGT

  4. ((d))

    XCSJTH

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

YCRJTH

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

Hence, "YCRJTH"  is the correct answer.

4

'A # B' means 'A is the husband of B'.

'A @ B' means 'A is the sister of B'.

'A & B' means 'A is the mother of B'.

'A % B' means 'A is the son of B'.

If S # Z @ R % K # J & T # N, then which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. ((a))

    K is the father - in - law of N.

  2. ((b))

    R and T are brothers.

  3. ((c))

    Z is the sister of T.

  4. ((d))

    J is the mother of S.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

J is the mother of S.

Members: S, Z, R, K, J, T, N

Let us first decode the symbols and then draw a family tree.

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningHusbandSisterMotherSon
Of B

 

S # Z @ R % K # J & T # N;

Family Chart,

Family tree according to the given information,

K is the father - in - law of N, R and T are brothers, Z is the sister of T, J is the mother - in - law of S.

So, J is the mother - in - law of S.

Hence, "J is the mother of S" is NOT correct.

Important Points

  • Z is the wife of S, R is the brother of Z, K is the father of R and J is the wife of K.
5

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here:-

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Alternate Method 

The star symbol is moving Anti-clockwise and each time it is increasing by +1 so on, and the circle is moving clockwise by increasing +1 each time.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

6

Select the number that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

160, 183, 213, 252, 303, ? , 446

  1. ((a))

    333

  2. ((b))

    367

  3. ((c))

    361

  4. ((d))

    379

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

367

Logic

Hence, the correct answer is "367".

7

Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

BEST : WVHE :: CROP : ?

  1. ((a))

    SRVG

  2. ((b))

    RTUF

  3. ((c))

    SRUF

  4. ((d))

    PRUM

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

SRUF

The pattern followed is:-

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "SRUF".

8

When a number is added to its next number and another such number that is four times its next number, the sum of these three numbers is 95. Find that number.

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15

Let the number be x

Next number = x + 1

Given that,

x + ( x + 1 ) + 4 ( x + 1 ) = 95

x + x + 1 + 4x + 4 = 95

6x + 5 = 95

6x = 90

x = 15

Hence, the required number is "15".

9

Preeti is the only sister of Virat. Manoj is the son of Dileep, who is the husband of Maaya. Virat is the son of Devansh. Devansh is Manoj's father-in-law. How is Maaya related to Preeti?

  1. ((a))

    Mother-in-law

  2. ((b))

    Sister-in-law

  3. ((c))

    Daughter-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Mother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother-in-law

The family chart is as below:

According to the given information, the family diagram is as below:

Devansh is Manoj's father-in-law, so Manoj is married to Preeti.

Manoj's mother is Maaya, so Maaya is Preeti's mother-in-law.

Hence, the correct answer is "Mother-in-law".

10

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The paper when unfolded, appears as:

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

11

A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which of the following pairs of letters will be on opposite sides?

  1. ((a))

    A and Z

  2. ((b))

    A and E

  3. ((c))

    R and X

  4. ((d))

    Q and X

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

R and X

The opposite sides of the cube are:

E and Z 

X and R

Q and A

(i) A and Z (When folded, the two sides are adjacent to each other.)

(ii) A and E (When folded, the two sides are adjacent to each other.)

(iii) R and X (When folded, they are opposite to each other.)

(iv) Q and X (When folded, the two sides are adjacent to each other.)

Hence, the correct answer is R and X**.**

12

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Pristine
  2. Precious
  3. pressure
  4. Presume
  5. Precaution
  1. ((a))

    1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  2. ((b))

    5, 2, 3, 4, 1

  3. ((c))

    5, 2, 4, 3, 1

  4. ((d))

    5, 3, 2, 4, 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5, 2, 3, 4, 1

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

The correct order of the given words is:

v) Precaution

ii) Precious

iii) Pressure

iv) Presume

i) Pristine

Hence, the correct answer is "5, 2, 3, 4, 1".

Important Points 

  1. First of all, check the common letter in all.
  2. Arrange them according to the alphabet they come first. 
  3. When common letters are arranged, then go for the rest.
13

Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the given letter-cluster series.

KOY, JPX, IQW, HRV, ?

  1. ((a))

    GSV

  2. ((b))

    GRU

  3. ((c))

    GSU

  4. ((d))

    ETU

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

GSU

The pattern followed is,

hence the correct answer is 'GSU'

14

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pattern here is :

In the given pattern, the symbol in the middle part comes to the bottom left corner, the bottom left symbol goes to the top left corner, the top left symbol comes to the middle part in the next box.

Now,

The symbols in the bottom right and top right are interchanging their position in every next box.

Hence, the correct answer to this question is "Option (4)".

15

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

3, 12, 52, 159, 640, ?

  1. ((a))

    1923

  2. ((b))

    1910

  3. ((c))

    1731

  4. ((d))

    1863

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1923

The pattern in the given series is:

Hence, "1923" is the correct answer.

16

In a code language, 'BLOCK' is written as '31316412'. How will 'SUPREME' be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    192116185605

  2. ((b))

    202317206146

  3. ((c))

    192217196156

  4. ((d))

    202217196146

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

202217196146

The logic behind this code language is as follows

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "202217196146".

17

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line, all facing the North. F is sitting between D and G. B is sitting between H and A. E is third to the left of G, who is sitting at one of the corners. H is third to the left of C. Who is sitting between A and E?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    H

  4. ((d))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a straight line facing North.

I) E is third to the left of G, who is sitting at one of the corners (According to this statement G is sitting at the right corner because E is sitting left side of G).

II) F is sitting between D and G.

III) H is third to the left of C (This statement implies that H is at the corner).

IV) B is sitting between H and A.

According to the arrangement, C is sitting between A and E.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

Confusion Points

Use of the word "Who" / "AND". 

Suppose for an example 

1. 

In a circular seating arrangement facing center, Pis fourth to the left of Q, (WHILE / AND / BUT ) 2nd to the left of R.

2. 

In a circle seating arrangement facing center Pis 3rd to the right of Q (WHILE / WHOM / WHO) is 2nd to the left of R.

18

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

36 × 12 + 48 ÷ 6 - 18 = 202

  1. ((a))

    6 and 12

  2. ((b))

    36 and 48

  3. ((c))

    6 and 18

  4. ((d))

    36 and 18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 and 12

Given equation,

36 × 12 + 48 ÷ 6 - 18 = 202

Interchanging numbers and using the BODMAS rule,

(i)  6 and 12 

36 × 6 + 48 ÷ 12 - 18

= 36 × 6 + 4 - 18

= 216 + 4 - 18

= 220 - 18

= 202 = 202

(ii) 36 and 48 

48 × 12 + 36 ÷ 6 - 18

= 48 × 12 + 6 - 18

= 576 + 6 - 18

= 582 - 18

= 564 ≠ 202

(iii) 6 and 18 

36 x 12 + 48 ÷ 18 - 6 

= 36 × 12 + 2.67 - 6

= 432 + 2.67 - 6

= 434.67 - 6

= 428.67 ≠ 202

(iv) 36 and 18

18 x 12 + 48 ÷ 6 - 36 

= 18 × 12 + 8 - 36

= 216 + 8 - 36 

= 224 - 36

= 188 ≠ 202

Hence, the correct answer is "6 and 12".

19

Select the option figure which is embedded in the figure (X) given below (rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The highlighted portion of the embedded figure is given below:

  

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

20

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

1741?
152429
4910685
  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

28

Logic:- (1st row of 1st column × 2) + 2nd row of 1st column = Third row of 1st column.

The pattern followed here is,

(17 × 2) + 15 = 49

(41 × 2) + 24 = 106

Similarly,

(? × 2) + 29 = 85

? × 2 = 85 - 29

? × 2 = 56

? = 56 / 2

? = 28

Hence, "28" is the correct answer.

21

Select the correct option that indicated the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Kilogram
  2. Gram
  3. Quintal
  4. Decigram
  5. Milligram
  1. ((a))

    4, 5, 2, 3, 1

  2. ((b))

    4, 5, 2, 1, 3

  3. ((c))

    5, 4, 2, 1, 3

  4. ((d))

    5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5, 4, 2, 1, 3

Given words are the Weight Measurement Units.

According to the arrangement the sequence is:- Miligram < Decigram < Gram < Kilogram < Quintal.

Hence, the correct sequence is "5, 4, 2, 1, 3".

Important Points

Converting all the values in grams,

Miligram = 10-3 grams

Centigram = 10-2 grams

Decigram = 10-1 grams

Gram = 100 grams

Decagram = 101 grams

Hectogram = 102 grams

Kilogram = 103 grams

Quintal = 105 grams

Tonne (Megagram) = 106 grams.

22

Bismita walks 200 m towards the East and then turns right and walks 210 m to reach a hospital. What is the shortest distance between the starting point and the hospital?

  1. ((a))

    290 m

  2. ((b))

    260 m

  3. ((c))

    220 m

  4. ((d))

    310 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

290 m

According to the given infomation the possible diagram is:

By applying Pythagoras's theorem,

(X)= 2002 + 2102

(X)= 40000 + 44100

(X)2 = 84100

Taking square root both the side,

X = 290 m

Hence, the correct answer is "290m".

23

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

24, 25, 33, 60, ?, 249

  1. ((a))

    147

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    133

  4. ((d))

    121

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

124

The pattern followed here is: 

24 + 1= 25

25 + 2= 33

33 + 3= 60

60 + 4= 124

124 + 5= 249

Hence, the correct answer is 124.

24

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The Correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' is

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

In a mirror image Left changes to right and the right changes to left vice-versa.

When placement of mirror not given, By default we will assume it in Vertical direction.

The Letter adjacent to the mirror after the mirror image will adjacent to it just with the left change to right and right change to left vice-versa.

The starting letter of the word will be at last after the mirror image drawn with left changes to right and right changes to left.

25

In a code language, 'OBESITY' is written as 'EBOHYTI'. How will 'FIXTURE' be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    XIFGEUS

  2. ((b))

    XIFMERU

  3. ((c))

    XIFGERU

  4. ((d))

    IFYGERU

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

XIFGERU

The pattern here is :

 

Similarly,

 

Hence, the correct answer is "XIFGERU".

 

Important Points

The middle terms are the positional opposites of each other (the sum of their positional values is 27)

26

Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

As we can see the given figure is embedded in Option 1

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

27

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic Follows here is:

We can see that The Circle is rotating clockwise and the shaded part is changing as a mirror image of it

The lines are rotating clockwise and in each rotation number of lines is increasing by +1.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

28

Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the given letter-cluster series.

THC, DIU, VJE, FKW, XLG, ?

  1. ((a))

    GMX

  2. ((b))

    FKX

  3. ((c))

    HMY

  4. ((d))

    HNZ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

HMY

The pattern in the given series is 

Hence, the correct answer is "HMY".

29

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

125864
275572
135?288
  1. ((a))

    208

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    110

  4. ((d))

    192

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

110

The pattern follows here is: 

125, 27, 135

5= 125

5 × 27 = 135

8, 55, 110

23 = 8

2 × 55 = 110

64, 72, 288

4= 64

4 × 72 = 288

Hence, the correct answer is 110.

30

Three of the following four letter-cluster are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    ZCGL

  2. ((b))

    HKOT

  3. ((c))

    KNRW

  4. ((d))

    ORVB

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ORVB

The pattern that follows here is :

      

As it is clear that ORVB doesn't follow the same pattern, it is the odd one in the given cluster.

Hence, the correct answer is "ORVB".

31

Two statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement

Statements :

No tree is a plum.

All pomegranates are trees.

Conclusions :

I. No pomegranate is a plum.

II. No plum is a tree.

III. Some trees are pomegranates.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusions I and III follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusions II and III follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    All of the conclusions follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All of the conclusions follow

The least possible Venn diagram for the statements is as below:

Conclusions:

I. No pomegranate is a plum → True (It is true as "all pomegranate are tree" and "no tree is a plum" so no pomegranate is a plum)

II. No plum is a tree → True (It is true as "no tree is a plum" so plum cannot be a tree)

III. Some trees are pomegranate → True (It is true as "all pomegranates are trees" so some trees are definitely pomegranate)

Hence, the correct answer is "All the conclusions follow".

32

If the minute hand of a clock points towards the South at 12.00 a.m., then in which direction will the minute hand point at 3.00 a.m. in the same clock?

  1. ((a))

    West

  2. ((b))

    North

  3. ((c))

    East

  4. ((d))

    South

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

South

The minute hand at 12:00 a.m. and at 3:00 a.m. is in the same direction. So, the minute hand at 3 a.m. also points towards the south direction.

Hence, the correct answer is the South.

33

In a group of 73 friends, 14 friends go to Gym and Karate classes both, whereas 7 friends neither go to Gym class nor to Karate class. If a total of 36 friends go to Gym class, then how many friends go to only Karate class?

  1. ((a))

    44

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

30

Total Person = 73, 

Whereas 7 friends neither go to Gym class nor to Karate class = 73 - 7 = 66.

Friends who go to Gym = 36,

Friends who go to only Karate class = Total friends(except 7) - Total friends go to Gym

= 66 - 22 - 14

= 30.

Hence, the correct answer is "30".

34

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

65, 62, 56, 47, 35, ?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20

The pattern follows here is:

Each term is decreased as a difference between them in a multiple of 3.

62 = First Term - 3

62 = 65 - 3

62 = 62

Now,

56 = Second Term - 6

56 = 62 - 6

56 = 56

Now,

47 = Third Term - 9

47 = 56 - 9

47 = 47

Now,

35 = Fourth Term - 12

35 = 47 - 12

35 = 35

Similarly,

x = Fifth Term - 15

x = 35 - 15

x = 20.

Hence, the correct answer is "20".

35

Two statements are given, following by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All farmers are doctors.

All doctors are magicians.

Conclusions:

I. All farmers are magicians.

II. No farmer is a magician.

  1. ((a))

    Both the conclusions follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion I follows

Venn diagram for the given condition is as follows :

Conclusion (I) : All farmers are magician → True ("All farmers are doctor" and "All doctors are magicians" are given implying all farmers are magician. Hence, it is true).

Conclusion (II) : No farmer is a magician → False ("All farmers are doctor" and "All doctors are magicians" are given. So, that part of doctors who are farmers is definitely Magician. Hence, it is false).

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion (I) follows".

36

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs from left to right to balance the following equation.

15 * 5 * 24 * 140 * 7 * 71

  1. ((a))

    ×, -, ÷, +, =

  2. ((b))

    ×, -, +, ÷, =

  3. ((c))

    ×, ÷, +, -, =

  4. ((d))

    ÷, +, -, ×, =

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

×, -, +, ÷, =

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

Option 1→ ×, -, ÷, +, =

15 × 5 - 24 ÷ 140 + 7 = 71 

15 × 5 - 0.171 + 7 = 71

 75 - 0.171 + 7 = 71

82 - 0.171 = 71

81.829 ≠ 71

Option 2→ ×, -, +, ÷, =

15 × 5 - 24 + 140 ÷ 7 = 71 

15 × 5 - 24 + 20 = 71

75 - 24 + 20 = 71

95 - 24 = 71

71 = 71 

Option 3→ ×, ÷, +, -, =

15 × 5  ÷ 24 + 140 - 7 = 71

15 × 0.208 + 140 - 7 

3.12 + 140 - 7 = 71

143.12 - 7 = 71

136.12  ≠ 71

Option 4→ ÷, +, -, ×, =

15 ÷ 5 + 24 - 140 × 7 = 71

3 + 24 - 140 × 7 = 71

3 + 24 - 980 = 71

27 - 980 = 71

-953  ≠ 71

Hence, Option 2 is the correct answer.

37

If 'A' denotes 'addition', 'B' denotes 'multiplication', 'C' denotes 'subtraction', and 'D' denotes 'division', then what will be the value of the following expression?

50 D (2 B 5) A 3 B(15 A 12) C 2 B(18 C 15) = ?

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    127

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    89

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80

Given equation,

50 D (2 B 5) A 3 B (15 A 12) C 2 B (18 C 15) = ?

Decoding the given information,

LetterDenotes
A+
B×
C-
D÷

 

50 ÷ (2 × 5) + 3 × (15 + 12) - 2 × (18 - 15) = ?

Using BODMAS rule,

50 ÷ 10 + 3 × 27 - 2 × 3

= 5 + 3 × 27 - 2 × 3 

= 5 + 81 - 6

= 86 - 6

= 80

Hence, the correct answer is 80.

38

Select the number - pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number - pair.

14 : 588

  1. ((a))

    12 : 665

  2. ((b))

    20 : 980

  3. ((c))

    11 : 344

  4. ((d))

    18 : 972

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18 : 972

Logic :-  Square of number × 3 = The next number.

The pattern followed here is,

Given number - pair, 

(14)2 × 3 = 588,

(I) (12)2 × 3 = 432

(II) (20)× 3 = 1200

(III) (11)× 3 = 363

(IV) (18)2 × 3 = 972

Hence, (18 : 972)  is the correct answer.

39

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed in 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The mirror image of the given text when the mirror is placed in "PQ" is as follows :

Hence, the correct answer is "OPTION (3)".

40

Three different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the face showing '1'.

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

In 2nd and 3rd Dice, 2 and 6 numbers are common.

then, 4 is the opposite face of 1.

Similarly,

In 1st and 3rd Dice, 4 and 6 numbers are common.

then, 3 is the opposite face of 2.

Hence, "4" is the correct answer.

41

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

171819
2122?
396437520
  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25

Logic :- (1st row of 1st column × 2nd row of 1st column + 1st row of 1st column + 2nd row of 1st column) +1 = 3rd row of 1st column.

The pattern followed here is,        

(17 × 21 + 17 + 21) + 1 = 396

(18 × 22 + 18 + 22) + 1 = 437

Similarly,

(19 × ? + 19 + ?) + 1 = 520

19 × ? + 19 + ? + 1 = 520

19 × ? + ? + 20 = 520

? × (19 + 1) = 520 - 20

? × (20) = 500

? = 500 / 20

? = 25

Hence, "25" is the correct answer.

42

Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the first letter-cluster is related to the second letter-cluster.

VOWEL : ZPAFP :: FRICK : ?

  1. ((a))

    JVGOK

  2. ((b))

    JVMGO

  3. ((c))

    JVJGO

  4. ((d))

    OGMVH

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

JVJGO

Logic:

The following point mentioned below must be observed very carefully, there is a catch in this:

Every vowel is added by +1.

Every consonant is added by +4.

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is JVJGO.

Here, 1 and 4 are NOT added alternately. While 1 is added to Vowel, 4 is added to the consonant.

43

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    GTKX

  2. ((b))

    MNRT

  3. ((c))

    BYFC

  4. ((d))

    SHWL

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

MNRT

The pattern followed here is:

The first two letters are opposite to each other.

The first letter plus 4 gives the third letter and the second letter plus 4 gives the fourth letter.

Option 1) GTKX

<br>

Option 2) MNRT

<br>

Option 3) BYFC

<br>

Option 4) SHWL

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is MNRT.

44

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

1426182
2416192
?22187
  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

17

The logic followed here is :-

1st row of 1st column × 1st row of 2nd column ÷ 2 = 1st row of 3rd column, 

14 × 26 ÷ 2 = 182 

24 × 16 ÷ 2 = 192

Similarly,

? × 22 ÷ 2 = 187

? × 11 = 187

? = 187 / 11

? = 17

Hence, the correct answer is "17".

45

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

When the paper is unfolded it will appear like :-

Hence, answer is the figure given below

46

In a code language, if 'I like chocolates' is written as '958', 'we bought chocolates' is written as '153', and 'we like them' is written as '816', then how would 'I bought them' be written in this language?

  1. ((a))

    936

  2. ((b))

    251

  3. ((c))

    951

  4. ((d))

    859

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

936

According to the given information,

Code for "I" is 9.

Code for "bought" is 3.

Code for "them" is 6.

So, "I bought them" is written as '936'.

Hence, the correct answer is 936.

47

Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the given letter-cluster series.

UKS, ZPX, EUC, JZH, ?

  1. ((a))

    PEM

  2. ((b))

    ODM

  3. ((c))

    ODN

  4. ((d))

    OEM

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

OEM

The pattern followed is

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is OEM.

48

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Infants, Fathers, Males

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The relation between the given classes is:

Infants can be female and male.

Fathers are always male.

The Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between Infants, Fathers and Males is

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

49

What was the day of the week on 14th March 2010?

  1. ((a))

    Tuesday

  2. ((b))

    Sunday

  3. ((c))

    Saturday

  4. ((d))

    Monday

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sunday

The logic follows here is:

No. of Odd daysSimple yearLeap year
365 ÷ 7 = 52 weeks + 1 odd day366 ÷ 7 = 52 weeks + 2 odd day
YearsNo. of odd days
100 years5
200 years3
300 years1
400 years0

 

Note: Multiple of 400 years i.e. 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 have 0 odd days.

Calculating leap year: For Finding the number of leap year (1-99) years, divide the number of years by 4 and the quotient will be the number of leap years.

Code for weekdays:

 

No. of odd daysDay
0Sunday
1Monday
2Tuesday
3Wednesday
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday

 

Total odd days = 0 + 4 + 0 + 3 = 7 = 1 week and 0 odd days

0 is the code for "Sunday"

Hence, the correct answer is "Sunday".

50

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. P is the second to right of S. Q is sitting to the immediate right of T. P is sitting between R and U. S is sitting to the immediate left of R. Who is sitting between P and S?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

R

Arranging them according to the given information,

Six fiends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table,

1. P is the second to right of S. 2. S is sitting to the immediate left of R, 3. P is sitting between R & U,

  1. Q is sitting to the immediate right of T.

So, 'R' is sitting between P and S.

Hence, the correct answer is "R".

General Knowledge and General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Who among the following is the only Indian shuttler to have won a Summer Olympics silver medal?

  1. ((a))

    Prakash Padukone

  2. ((b))

    Pulela Gopichand

  3. ((c))

    Saina Nehwal

  4. ((d))

    PV Sindhu

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

PV Sindhu

The Correct Answer is PV Sindhu.

 

Key Points

  • 19 August in 2016, PV Sindhu became the first Indian shuttler to win an Olympics silver medal.
  • She lost to Carolina Marin in the final.

 

Additional Information

  • India has won 28 medals at the Olympic Games since the 1900 edition.
  • In 2008 Vijender Singh became the first Indian boxer in history to win an Olympic medal.
  • In 2012 Saina Nehwal became the first Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal.
52

1 horse power is equal to approximately ______ watts.

  1. ((a))

    500

  2. ((b))

    750

  3. ((c))

    1000

  4. ((d))

    250

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

750

The Correct Answer is 750.

 

Key Points

  • Watt is a small unit of power.
  • Another unit of power is called ‘horse power’ (h.p.) which is equal to 746 watts.
  • 1 horse power = 746 watts
  • 1 h.p. = 746 W
  • This means that 1 horsepower is equal to about 0.75 kilowatts (0.75 kW)

 

Additional Information

  • Sometimes bigger units of power called kilowatt (kW) and megawatt (MW) are also used.
  • 1 kilowatt = 1000 watts or 1 kW = 1000 W
  • 1 megawatt = 1000,000 watts.
53

Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions for:

  1. ((a))

    Citizenship

  2. ((b))

    Fundamental Rights

  3. ((c))

    Directive Principles of State Policy

  4. ((d))

    Elections

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Directive Principles of State Policy

The correct answer is the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

  • Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of our State Policy (DPSP).
  • The provisions contained in DPSP cannot be enforced by any court.
  • However, it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
  • The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
  • While most of the Fundamental Rights are negative obligations on the state, DPSPs are positive obligations on the state, though not enforceable in a court of law.

Important Points

  • **Part II (Articles 5 to 11)**of the Indian Constitution deals with citizenship.
  • The President of India is termed the first Citizen of India.
  • Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Indian Constitution talks about Fundamental Rights.
  • There are six categories of Fundamental Rights (FR).
  • Seven fundamental rights were originally provided by the Constitution
  • Right to equality
  • Right to freedom
  • Right against exploitation
  • Right to freedom of religion
  • Cultural and educational rights
  • Right to property (Repealed)
  • Right to constitutional remedies
  • Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India, and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
54

‘Bathukamma’ and ‘Bonalu’ are state festivals of:

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Telangana

The Correct Answer is Telangana.

 

Key Points

  • Bathukamma is a festival of Telangana and celebrated by women, with flowers that grow exclusively in each region.
  • The festival begins a week before the grand ‘Saddula Bathukamma’ (the grand finale of the Bathukamma festival) which falls two days before Dussehra.
  • Bathukamma celebrates the inherent relationship between earth, water, and human beings.
  • Bonalu is an annual festival celebrated in the twin cities Hyderabad and Secunderabad and other parts of Telangana state.
  • Bonalu is celebrated usually during Ashada Masam that falls in July/August.
  • Goddess Mahakali is worshipped in Bonalu festival.
55

Which among the following organisations releases Index of Economic Freedom?

  1. ((a))

    Heritage Foundation

  2. ((b))

    Fraser Institute

  3. ((c))

    International Monetary Fund

  4. ((d))

    World Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heritage Foundation

The correct answer is Heritage Foundation.

Key Points

  • The Index of Economic Freedom is an annual index and ranking which measure the degree of economic freedom in the world's nations.
  • Heritage Foundation releases Index of Economic Freedom.
  • Heritage Foundation -  a conservative public policy research organization of The United States with its headquarter in Washington D.C. was founded in 1973 by Edwin Feulner and Paul Weyrich.
  • India's rank is 120 for 2020 Index of Economic Freedom.

Important Points

  • Economic freedom is the fundamental right of every human to control his or her own labor and property. In an economically free society, individuals are free to work, produce, consume, and invest in any way they please.
  • In economically free societies, governments allow labor, capital, and goods to move freely, and refrain from coercion or constraint of liberty beyond the extent necessary to protect and maintain liberty itself.

Additional Information

  • International Monetary Fund is an international financial institution founded in July 1944, its headquarter is in Washington D.C, U.S.​​
  • It is part of the United Nations system but independent in its function.
  • It promotes international financial stability and monetary cooperation.
  • It also facilitates international trade, promotes employment and sustainable economic growth, and helps to reduce global poverty.
  • The IMF is governed by and accountable to its 190 member countries.
  • World Bank is an international financial institution founded in 1944, its headquarter is​ in Washington D.C, U.S.​​
  • It is part of the United Nations system but independent in its function.
  • ​It helps developing countries by offering loans and tailored knowledge and advice.
  • ​It works with country governments, the private sector, civil society organizations, regional development banks, think tanks, and other international institutions on issues ranging from climate change, conflict, and food security to education, agriculture, finance, and trade.
  • It has 189 member countries.
  • Fraser Institute is public policy think tank and registered charity founded in 1974, its headquartered is in Vancouver, Canada.
  • It's work is to improve the quality of life for Canadians, their families, and future generations by studying, measuring, and broadly communicating the effects of government policies, entrepreneurship, and choice on their well-being.
  • Fraser Institute has rank 14 in the top think tanks worldwide and rank1 in the top think tanks in Mexico and Canada according to the January 2020 Global Go To Think Tank Index Report.
56

With which sport would you associate the name Sathish Sivalingam?

  1. ((a))

    Wrestling

  2. ((b))

    Weightlifting

  3. ((c))

    Boxing

  4. ((d))

    Hockey

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Weightlifting

The Correct Answer is Weightlifting.

 

Key Points

  • Sathish Sivalingam is a weightlifter from Tamilnadu.
  • He won gold medals in the men's 77 kg weight category at both the 2014 and the 2018 Commonwealth Games.
  • Sathish also had qualified for the 2016 Rio Olympics in the Men's 77 kg category, where he finished 11th in the field of 14 lifters.

 

Additional Information

Other Indian Weight Lifters

  • Vikas Thakur
  • Gurdeep Singh
  • Katulu Ravi Kumar
  • Ragala Venkat Rahul
  • Deepak Lather
57

Kalinjar Fort, which was strategically important during medieval times, is located in:

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Sind

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uttar Pradesh

The Correct Answer is Uttar Pradesh.

 

Key Points

  • Kalinjar is a fortress-city in the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh.
  • Kalinjar is located in Banda District of Uttar Pradesh state.
  • It is located near the temple-city and World Heritage Site of Khajuraho.
  • This fort is built by the Chandelas.
  • The Neelkanth Temple is located near Kalinjar was built by Chandela ruler Paramaditya Dev.

 

Additional Information

  • Forts of Rajasthan in the list of World Heritage Site of UNESCO.
  • Amber (Jaipur)
  • Kumbhalgarh
  • Chittorgarh
  • Jaisalmer
  • Ranthambhore (Sawai Madhopur)
  • Gagaron (Jhalawar)
  • The Sheesh Mahal or the 'Palace of Mirrors' in Patiala (Punjab) was built by Maharaja Narinder Singh (1845-1862) behind the main Moti Bagh Palace is located in Punjab.
58

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) – which has replaced the Central and State indirect taxes such as VAT, excise duty and service tax in India – was implemented on:

  1. ((a))

    2 October 2017

  2. ((b))

    15 September 2017

  3. ((c))

    15 August 2017

  4. ((d))

    1 July 2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 July 2017

The correct answer is 1 July 2017.

 

Key Points

  • The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of goods and services tax - GST in the country.
  • The GST was implemented with effect from 1 July 2017.
  • The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
  • The GST is paid by consumers, but it is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.

 

Additional Information

GST Council

  • Article 279-A in the Constitution empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order.
  • Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.
  • The council is devised in such a way that the center will have 1/3rd voting power and the states have 2/3rd.
  • The decisions are taken by the 3/4th majority.
59

Which of the following Viceroys appointed the Hunter Commission in 1882?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Mayo

  2. ((b))

    Lord Ripon

  3. ((c))

    Lord Lytton

  4. ((d))

    Lord Minto

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lord Ripon

The correct answer is Lord Ripon.

Key Points

  • The Hunter Commission of 1882 was presided by Sir William Hunter.
  • This Commission was appointed for the enquiry of education in India which was earlier given by Wood’s Despatch in 1854.
  • Recommendations of the Hunter Commission:
  • Preference was given to literate candidates for government jobs in the lower levels, along with the expansion of primary schools in backward districts.
  • District and municipal boards were entrusted with the management of primary education under the Local Self Government Act. The funds were separated for rural and urban areas to avoid funds earmarked for rural schools being misappropriated by urban schools.
  • Secondary schools were to be established by private parties with funds provided by the government. Model schools fully run by the government were to be opened in each district to guide such private schools.
  • The secondary school curriculum was also revised with academic and vocational courses diversified into different branches.
  • Missionary schools were discouraged, and Indian participation in the private school system was solicited by the raj. Special care was supposed to be taken in advancing the education of girls and women.

Additional Information

Important Events Under these Viceroys.

Lord Mayo- First Non-synchronous Census was conducted in India in 1872 during the reign of Governor-General Lord Mayo.
Lord Minto- Morley-Minto reforms created the demand for separate electorates.
Lord Lytton- Passage of the Vernacular Press Act

Confusion Points

Hunter Commission 1919

  • The government formed a committee of inquiry to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh shootings. On October 14, 1919, the Government of India announced the formation of the Disorders Inquiry Committee. The committee was commonly known as Hunter Commission after the name of chairman, Lord William Hunter.
  • Avoid the confusion between the two Hunter commissions
60

Leukaemia is a cancer of the:

  1. ((a))

    uterus

  2. ((b))

    blood

  3. ((c))

    lungs

  4. ((d))

    skin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

blood

The correct answer is blood.

 

Key Points

  • Leukaemia is a cancer of blood-forming tissues that hinders the body's ability to fight infection.
  • For slow-growing leukaemias, treatment may include monitoring.
  • For aggressive leukaemias, treatment includes chemotherapy that's sometimes followed by radiation and a stem-cell transplant.

 

Additional Information

  • There are two primary types of uterine cancer:
  • Endometrial cancer, which is more common, and uterine sarcoma, which is rare.
  • In endometrial cancer, cancer cells form in the endometrium, which is the lining of the uterus.
  • Causes of lung cancer include smoking, second-hand smoke, exposure to certain toxins and family history.
  • There are three major types of skin cancer - basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma and melanoma.
61

According to the Groundnut Crop Survey Report 2018, which of the following states is the largest producer of groundnuts?

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat.

 

Key Points

  • The major groundnut growing states are Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
  • Gujarat is the largest producing state accounting for 40% of the total groundnut produced in the country.
  • According to the All India crop coverage report 2018, groundnut has been sown in about 40.13 lakh hectares.
  • In Gujarat, it has been sown in 14.67 lakh hectares followed by Andhra Pradesh (6.61 lakh ha) and Rajasthan (6.07 lakh ha).

 

Additional Information

  • Groundnut in India occupies first in terms of area and second position in terms of production.
  • China is the largest producer as well as consumer of groundnut in the world with 166.24 lakh tonnes followed by India (68.57 lakh tonnes), Nigeria (30.28 lakh tonnes), and the United States (25.78 lakh tonnes).
62

The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is located at which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Bhilai

  2. ((b))

    Jamshedpur

  3. ((c))

    Durgapur

  4. ((d))

    Rourkela

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jamshedpur

The correct answer is Jamshedpur.

 

Key Points

  • Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was founded by Jamsetji Tata and established by Dorabji Tata on 26 August 1907.
  • TISCO is located in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.
  • TISCO started pig iron production in 1911 and began producing steel in 1912 as a branch of Jamsetji's Tata Group.

 

Important Points

  • The Bhilai Steel Plant was established in 1955 with the help of the USSR.
  • Durgapur Steel Plant is one of the integrated steel plants of Steel Authority of India Limited, located in Durgapur, West Bengal.
  • It was set up with the help of the United Kingdom.
  • Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP), the first integrated steel plant in the public sector in India, was set up with German collaboration with an installed capacity of 1 million tonnes.
63

In which year did the first SAARC summit take place?

  1. ((a))

    1972

  2. ((b))

    1992

  3. ((c))

    1990

  4. ((d))

    1985

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1985

The correct answer is 1985.

 

Key Points

  • The first summit of SAARC was held in Dhaka, Bangladesh on 7–8 December 1985.
  • It was attended by Bangladesh, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bhutan Nepal, and India.

 

Important Points

  • The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
  • The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu on 16 January 1987.
  • SAARC comprises of eight-member States:
  • Afghanistan
  • Bangladesh
  • Bhutan
  • India
  • Maldives
  • Nepal
  • Pakistan
  • Sri Lanka

 

Additional Information

  • You can remember the names of SAARC Countries using the mnemonic.
  • "MBBS PAIN" for Maldives, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Afghanistan, India, Nepal.
64

The National Anthem of India, ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was first sung at the ______ Session of the Indian National Congress.

  1. ((a))

    Calcutta

  2. ((b))

    Lahore

  3. ((c))

    Belgaum

  4. ((d))

    Tripuri

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calcutta

The correct answer is Calcutta.

 

Key Points

  • The National Anthem of India, ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.

 

Important Points

  • The National Anthem of India Jana-Gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore.
  • It was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950.

 

Additional Information

Lahore session

  • The Lahore session was held in the year 1929.
  • President: Jawahar Lal Nehru
  • It passed the resolution on ‘Poorna Swaraj.’
  • Civil Disobedience movement for complete independence to be launched.
  • It was also decided that 26 January to be observed as ‘Independence Day’.

Belgaum Session (1924)

  • Belgaum Session was the only Session presided over by Mahatma Gandhi.

Tripuri Session (1939)

  • Subhash Chandra Bose was re-elected the President of INC at the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating the Gandhi Ji's Candidate Pattabhai Sitaramaiyya.
  • He resigned in April 1939, and announced, in May 1939, the formation of the Forward Bloc within the Congress.
65

Which of the following terms is associated with the anatomy of the human heart?

  1. ((a))

    Cerebrum

  2. ((b))

    Cerebellum

  3. ((c))

    Medulla

  4. ((d))

    Aorta

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aorta

The Correct Answer is Aorta.

Key Points

  • The aorta is the main artery that carries blood away from the heart to the rest of your body.
  • After the blood leaves the heart through the aortic valve, it travels through the aorta, making a cane-shaped curve that connects with other major arteries to deliver oxygen-rich blood to the brain, muscles, and other cells.

Important Points

Cerebrum

  • The cerebrum is the uppermost part of the brain.
  • The cerebrum itself contains the major lobes of the brain and is responsible for receiving and giving meaning to information from the sense organs, as well as controlling the body.

Cerebellum

  • The cerebellum is a major structure of the hindbrain that is located near the brainstem.
  • This part of the brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements.
  • It is also responsible for a number of functions including motor skills such as balance, coordination, and posture.

Medulla

  • The medulla oblongata makes up the lower part of the brainstem.
  • It is anterior and partially inferior to the cerebellum.
  • It is a cone-shaped neuronal mass responsible for autonomic (involuntary) functions, ranging from vomiting to sneezing.
  • Fibrous Skeleton of the Heart: Anatomic Overview and Evaluation of  Pathologic Conditions with CT and MR Imaging | RadioGraphics
66

The ‘Kathasaritsagara’ is written by:

  1. ((a))

    Kalidasa

  2. ((b))

    Bhasa

  3. ((c))

    Jayadeva

  4. ((d))

    Somadeva

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Somadeva

The correct answer is Somdeva.    

Key Points

  • The Kathasaritsagara is also known as Ocean of the Streams of Stories is a famous 11th-century collection of Indian legends, fairy tales and folk tales as retold in Sanskrit by Somadeva.
  • While the Kathasaritsagara itself is a compilation of many stories and legends, there is a great emphasis on the story of Udayana and his son.

 

Important Points

  • Somadeva was an 11th century CE writer from Kashmir.
  • He was believed to be the court poet to King Ananta of Kashmir.

 

Additional Information

  • Kalidasa one of the “nine gems” at the court of the king Vikramaditya of Ujjain.
  • Few works of Kalidasa are
  • Abhjnanashakuntala (“The Recognition of Shakuntala”)
  • Vikramorvashi (“Urvashi Won by Valour”),
  • Malavikagnimitra (“Malavika and Agnimitra”)
  • The epic poems Raghuvamsha (“Dynasty of Raghu”) and Kumarasambhava (“Birth of the War God”); and the lyric “Meghaduta” (“Cloud Messenger”).
  • Bhasa is one of the earliest known Sanskrit dramatists of ancient India.
  • Jayadeva has written the Sanskrit poem Gita Govinda (“Song of the Cowherd [Krishna]”).
67

The approximate period between two consecutive new moons is ______ days.

  1. ((a))

    15.5

  2. ((b))

    29.5

  3. ((c))

    14.5

  4. ((d))

    28.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

29.5

The correct answer is 29.5.

Key Points

  • The new moon is the first lunar phase, when the Moon and Sun have the same ecliptic longitude.
  • The approximate period between two consecutive new moons is 29.5 days.
  • The full moon is the lunar phase when the Moon appears fully illuminated from Earth.
  • The lunar phase between new moon to full moon is know as waxing phase.
  • The lunar phase between full moon to new moon is know as waning phase.
68

What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of calcium bicarbonate?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2

The Correct Answer is 2.

Key Points

  • Calcium bicarbonate also called calcium hydrogen carbonate.
  • It has a chemical formula Ca(HCO3)2.
  • From the above formula, we can say calcium bicarbonate has 2 hydrogen atoms.

 

Additional Information

  • It is an ionic compound of calcium, hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen.
  • Though it is not a naturally occurring solid, it forms in the water of rivers, lakes, and streams when carbonate, bicarbonate, and calcium ions are dissolved with carbon dioxide.
69

Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India prohibits employment of children in factories etc.?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

24

The correct answer is 24.

Key Points

  • Article 24 prohibits child labour.
  • It mandates that No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Important Points

  • Article 31 states that no person shall be deprived of his/her property, except by authority of law.
  • It is also mentioned that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes.
  • Article 31 with the subheading “Right to Property” has been omitted by the Constitution Forty-Fourth Amendment Act 1978.
  • Article 31(1) has been shifted to article 300A as a new insertion in Chapter IV in part XII of the constitution.
  • Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability in any form.
  • According to the provision of Article 17, “enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability” is a punishable offence in accordance with the law.
  • Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to every individual.
  • It states that "No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
70

In the context of Sri Lankan Civil War, what does the first ‘T’ in LTTE stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil

  2. ((b))

    Tarantulas

  3. ((c))

    Tigers

  4. ((d))

    Triumph

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tigers

The correct answer is Tigers.

Key Points

  • LTTE stand for Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam.
  • It is a militant organization that sought to establish an independent Tamil state, Eelam, in northern and eastern Sri Lanka.
  • The LTTE was established in 1976 by Velupillai Prabhakaran.
  • The number of civil-war-related deaths in Sri Lanka since the early 1980s was estimated at between 70,000 and 80,000, with many tens of thousands more displaced by the fighting.
71

The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located at:

  1. ((a))

    Bonn

  2. ((b))

    Geneva

  3. ((c))

    Dubai

  4. ((d))

    Paris

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Geneva

The correct answer is Geneva.

Key Points

  • World Trade Organization(WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that is concerned with the regulation of international trade between nations founded in 1995.
  • Its headquarter is in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • It has 164 member countries.
  • It assists its members on a daily basis to ensure, among other things, that negotiations progress smoothly, and that the rules of international trade are correctly applied and enforced.

Its main function is trade negotiations, implementation and monitoring trade policies, dispute settlement between member countries, and building trade capacity for its member countries.

Additional Information

  • Paris is the capital and most populous city of France.
  • United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has its headquarter in Paris.
  • Dubai is the most populous city in the United Arab Emirates and the capital of the UAE is Abu Dhabi.
72

Which section of the RBI Act empowers the Central Government to supersede the RBI board and issue directions considered to be ‘necessary in public interest’ to the RBI, after consulting the Governor of the bank?

  1. ((a))

    Section 5

  2. ((b))

    Section 1

  3. ((c))

    Section 3

  4. ((d))

    Section 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Section 7

The correct answer is Section 7.

 

Key Points

  • According to Section 7 of the RBI Act, the central government may from time to time give such directions to the RBI as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest.
  • This implies that the government can invoke the Section 7 to get the central bank to take decisions on matters where it would otherwise be reluctant.

 

Important Points

  • Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 is the legislative act under which the Reserve Bank of India was formed.
  • This act along with the Companies Act, which was amended in 1936, was meant to provide a framework for the supervision of banking firms in India.
  • There is a total of 61 sections in the Reserve Bank of India Act 1934.

 

Additional Information

  • Section 5 of the RBI defines banking process, banking company and banking policy .
  • Section 3 in The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 states that "A bank to be called the Reserve Bank of India shall be constituted for the purposes of taking over the management of the currency from the Central Government and of carrying on the business of banking in accordance with the provisions of this Act."
  • Section 1 of the RBI act mentions the Short title, extent, and commencement of RBI.
73

Which among the following are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom?

  1. ((a))

    Pteridophytes

  2. ((b))

    Gymnosperms

  3. ((c))

    Bryophytes

  4. ((d))

    Liverworts

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bryophytes

The correct answer is Bryophytes.

 

Key Points

  • Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
  • Even though these plants live in soil, and they require water for sexual reproduction.
  • The bryophyte sperm, which is antherozoids is flagellate and requires water to swim into the eggs.
  • The plant body is commonly differentiated to form the stem and leaf-like structures.
  • However, there is no specialized tissue for the conduction of water and other substances from one part of the plant body to another.

 

Important Points

Pteridophytes

  • Pteridophytes are commonly known as Ferns.
  • The plant's body is differentiated into roots, stems, and leaves and has specialized tissue for the conduction of water and other substances from one part of the plant body to another.
  • Some examples are marsilea, ferns, and horse-tails.

Gymnosperms

  • The plants of this group bear naked seeds [ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall] and are usually perennial, evergreen and woody.
  • The seeds that develop post-fertilization are naked too.
  • Examples are pines, such as deodar.

Liverworts 

  • Liverworts are a group of non-vascular plants similar to mosses.
  • They do not produce seeds, flowers, fruit or wood, and even lack vascular tissue.
  • Instead of seeds, liverworts produce spores for reproduction.
74

Vailankanni (Velankanni) is a pilgrim centre located in the ______ district of Tamil Nadu.

  1. ((a))

    Salem

  2. ((b))

    Nagapattinam

  3. ((c))

    Madurai

  4. ((d))

    Theni

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nagapattinam

The Correct Answer is Nagapattinam.

 

Key Points

  • Velankanni has one of the country's biggest Catholic pilgrimage centres located in Nagapattinam, Tamilnadu.
  • The Basilica of Our Lady of Good Health is popularly known as the "Lourdes of the East".
  • Its origins can be traced back to the 16th century.
  • The church's founding is attributed to three miracles: the apparition of Mary and Jesus to a slumbering shepherd boy, the curing of a lame buttermilk vendor, and the survival of Portuguese sailors assaulted by a violent sea storm.
  • It is built in the Gothic style, was modified by Portuguese and then further expanded later on due to the influx of pilgrims.
  • The church building was raised to the status of basilica in 1962 by Pope John XXIII.
75

The Silent Valley Movement was started in 1973 in the state of:

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • The Silent Valley Movement was started in 1973 by an NGO led by school teachers and the Kerala Sastra Sahithya Parishad(KSSP) to save Silent Valley from being flooded by a hydroelectric project.
  • In 1970 the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB) proposes a hydroelectric dam across the Kunthipuzha River that runs through Silent Valley, that will submerge 8.3 sq km of untouched moist evergreen forest.
  • Silent Valley is an evergreen tropical forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India.
  • The valley was declared as Silent Valley National Park in 1985.

Additional Information

  • In 1973 Chipko movement, was started in the Himalayan regions of U.P. (now in Uttarakhand).
  • The aim of this movement was forest conservation and increase social awareness and the need to save trees, increase ecological awareness, and demonstrate the viability of people power.
  • Sunderlal Bahuguna and Gaura Devi are the key people of this movement.
  • Sunderlal Bahuguna gave the slogan "Ecology is the permanent economy".
76

Who was the 24th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. ((a))

    C Rangarajan

  2. ((b))

    YV Reddy

  3. ((c))

    Urjit Patel

  4. ((d))

    Bimal Jalan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Urjit Patel

The correct answer is Urjit Patel.

Key Points

  • Urjit Patel was the 24th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 4 September 2016 to10 December 2018.
  • He had also served as Deputy Governor of RBI from 11 January 2013 to 4 September 2016.
  • Presently he is the Chairman of National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP) is an autonomous research institute under Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • Urjit Patel was the Chairman of Expert Committee to Revise and Strengthen the Monetary Policy Framework, appointed by RBI on September 12, 2013.
  • Expert Committee to Revise and Strengthen the Monetary Policy Framework:
  • Objective of the Committee is to recommend what needs to be done to revise and strengthen the current monetary policy framework with a view to, inter alia, making it transparent and predictable.
  • Suggestion: The Committee suggested a five-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) - three members from the RBI and two nominated by the Government.
  • Presently the committee comprises six members - three officials of the RBI and three external members nominated by the Government of India.
  • The Governor of RBI is the ex officio chairperson of the committee.
  • They need to observe a "silent period" seven days before and after the rate decision for "utmost confidentiality". Decisions are taken by majority with the Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.
  • The current mandate of the committee is to maintain 4% annual inflation until 31 March 2021 with an upper tolerance of 6% and a lower tolerance of 2%.

Additional Information

  • C Rangarajan was the 19th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • He had also served as Chairman of the Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council, from August 2009 to May 2014.
  • He was the Chairman of the Twelfth Finance Commission of India.
  • Y V Reddy was the 21st Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • He was the chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission of India.
  • Bimal Jalan was the 20th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • He has also been the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister between January 1991 to September 1992.
77

Which among the following is NOT true about a solution and the solute concerned?

  1. ((a))

    The particles of the solute settle down at the bottom when the solution is kept undisturbed.

  2. ((b))

    The particles of the solute do not scatter a beam of light.

  3. ((c))

    The particles of the solute cannot be seen with unaided eyes.

  4. ((d))

    A solution is a homogeneous mixture.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The particles of the solute settle down at the bottom when the solution is kept undisturbed.

The correct answer is The particles of the solute settle down at the bottom when the solution is kept undisturbed.

Key Points

  • A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances in which the particle size is smaller than 1 nm.

Important Points

  • Properties of a Solution
  • A solution is a homogeneous mixture.
  • The size of solute particles in a solution too small having diameter less than 1 nanometer.
  • A solution cannot be separated by filtration.
  • The particles of the solute cannot be seen with unaided eyes
  • The solute particles do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a solution is stable.
  • A true solution does not scatter light because its particles are tiny enough to do so.
  • Common examples of solutions are the Salt solution, Sugar solution, Vinegar, etc.
78

Vibration of which among the following produces only odd harmonics?

  1. ((a))

    An air column in a closed organ pipe

  2. ((b))

    A vibrating rod fixed at two ends

  3. ((c))

    An air column in an open organ pipe

  4. ((d))

    A vibrating string fixed at two ends

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An air column in a closed organ pipe

The Correct Answer is An air column in a closed organ pipe.

 

Key Points

  • In a closed pipe, only odd harmonics are produced.
  • The frequencies of harmonics are in the ratio of 1: 3: 5.....

 

Important Points

  • Each natural frequency that an object or instrument produces has its own characteristic vibrational mode or standing wave pattern.
  • A harmonic is an integer (whole number) multiple of the fundamental frequency.
  • The harmonics generated depend on the note or chord being played, and each frequency will produce different harmonics.
  • The harmonics heard are based on the fundamental frequency being played and produce a lower amplitude (or volume) as they increase from 1st to 8th harmonic.

 

Additional Information

  • When a string is fixed at both ends, two waves travelling in opposite directions simply bounce back and forth between the ends.
  • This will produce even harmonics.
  • When air is blown into the open organ pipe, the air column vibrates in the fundamental mode.
  • Antinodes are formed at the ends and a node is formed in the middle of the pipe.
  • The frequencies of harmonics are in the ratio of 1: 2 : 3...
79

How many natural satellites does the planet Venus have?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

0

The correct answer is 0.

 

Key Points

  • Venus (and the planet Mercury) are the only two planets that don't have a single natural moon orbiting them.

Important Points

  • Venus is only a little smaller than the Earth.
  • Venus is the second closest planet to the sun at a distance of about 108 million km (67 million miles) or 0.72 AU.
  • One day on Venus lasts as long as 243 Earth days (the time it takes for Venus to rotate or spin once).

Additional Information

  • Moons are also known as natural satellites that orbit planets and asteroids in our solar system.
80

Standing in an open ground on a cloudless day, at what time will your shadow be the shortest?

  1. ((a))

    15:00

  2. ((b))

    07:00

  3. ((c))

    12:00

  4. ((d))

    09:00

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12:00

The Correct Answer is 12:00.

 

Key Points

  • From sunrise to sunset, the sun traces an arc across the sky and reaches its highest point in the sky at local noon.
  • As the sun moves through the sky, the shadow cast by an object is constantly changing in length.
  • The shortest shadow occurs when the sun reaches its highest point, at local noon.

 

Additional Information

  • Shadows are longest in the early morning and late afternoon/early evening when the sun appears low in the sky.
  • As the Earth rotates on its axis, the sun hits each location in the morning at an angle.
  • This makes the shadow appear long.
81

The tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah, inlaid with Pietra dura decoration, is located at:

  1. ((a))

    Ajmer

  2. ((b))

    Aurangabad

  3. ((c))

    Agra

  4. ((d))

    Alwar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Agra

The correct answer is Agra.

 

Key Points

  • The tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah is located along the banks of the Yamuna at Agra.
  • It was built by the Mughal queen Noor Jahan, wife of Emperor Jehangir.
  • The tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah is often regarded as a draft of the Taj Mahal.
  • It is known for the first use of the pietra dura (floral design made up of semiprecious stone).
  • Tomb of Jahangir in Lahore is supposed to be the result of Noor Jahan vision.

Important Points

  • Agra is known for Taj Mahal (Tomb of Mumtaz Mahal, built by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan for the memory of his favourite wife).
  • The Taj Mahal is in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1983.
  • Ustad Ahmad Lahauri was the chief architect of Taj mahal.
  • Agra Fort is a historical fort in the city of Agra in India. It was the main residence of the emperors of the Mughal Dynasty until1638.
  • Moti Masjid inside Agra Fort was built by Mughal emperor Shah jahan.
  • Moti Masjid inside Red Fort, Delhi was built by Aurangzeb.
  • The tomb of Akbar is at Sikandra, approximately 8 km from the main city of Agra.
  • Fatehpur Sikri is a town in the Agra District, known for Buland Darwaza, and Tomb of Salim Chishti, the city itself was founded as the capital of Mughal Empire in 1571 by Emperor Akbar to 1585.
82

In which of the following places is the Govardhan Math located?

  1. ((a))

    Puri

  2. ((b))

    Dwarka

  3. ((c))

    Sringeri

  4. ((d))

    Badrinath

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Puri

The Correct Answer is Puri.

 

Key Points

  • Govardhan Math is located in Puri in Odisha.
  • It was established by philosopher-saint Adi Shankara to preserve and propagate Sanatana Dharma and Advaita Vedanta.

 

Additional Information

  • The other Peeths are 
  • The Sringeri Sarada Pitham (Karnataka) in the South.
  • Dwarka Sarada Pitham (Gujarat) in the West.
  • Badari Jyotirmaṭha Pitham (Uttarakhand) in the North.
83

With reference to the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals, which of the following is SDG 10?

  1. ((a))

    Reduced inequalities

  2. ((b))

    Zero hunger

  3. ((c))

    Climate action

  4. ((d))

    Decent work and economic growth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduced inequalities

The correct Answer is Reduced inequalities.  

Key Points

  • Sustainable Development Goal 10 aims at reducing inequality within and among countries.
  • This SDG calls for reducing inequalities in income as well as those based on age, sex, disability, race, ethnicity, origin, religion, or economic status within a country.
  • To bring about sustainable development, the United Nations (UN) launched the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and SDGs.
  • There are 17 goals and 169 specific targets to be achieved by 2030.
  • SDGs are not legally binding.

Additional InformationSDG Goals are: 

  • SDG 1: No Poverty
  • SDG 2: Zero Hunger
  • SDG 3: Good Health & Well-being
  • SDG 4: Quality Education
  • SDG 5: Gender Equality
  • SDG 6: Clean Water & Sanitation
  • SDG 7: Affordable & Clean Energy
  • SDG 8: Decent Work & Economic Growth
  • SDG 9: Industry, Innovation & Infrastructure
  • SDG 10: Reduced Inequalities
  • SDG 11: Sustainable Cities & Communities
  • SDG 12: Responsible Consumption & Production
  • SDG 13: Climate Action
  • SDG 14: Life Below Water
  • SDG 15: Life on Land
  • SDG 16: Peace, Justice & Strong Institutions
  • SDG 17: Partnerships for the Goals
84

Who is the author of the book ‘We Are Displaced’?

  1. ((a))

    Amrita Pritam

  2. ((b))

    Malala Yousafzai

  3. ((c))

    Arnab Goswami

  4. ((d))

    Amrit Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Malala Yousafzai

The correct answer is Malala Yousafzai.

 

Key Points

  • We have Displaced: My Journey and Stories from Refugee Girls Around the World is a 2019 book by Malala Yousafzai.
  • The book follows Yousafzai's own experience being displaced in Pakistan and later forced to move to England, and tells stories from nine other displaced people around the world.

 

Important Points

  • Malala Yousafzai
  • Malala Yousafzai is a Pakistani activist for female education and the youngest Nobel Prize laureate.
  • She is known for human rights advocacy, especially the education of women and children in her native Swat Valley in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, northwest Pakistan.
  • Amrita Pritam
  • Amrita Pritam was an Indian novelist, essayist, and poet, who wrote in Punjabi and Hindi.
  • In 1956, she became the first woman to win the Sahitya Akademi Award for her magnum opus, a long poem, Sunehade (Messages).
  • Arnab Goswami
  • Arnab Goswami is an Indian news anchor and managing director and editor-in-chief of Republic Media Network.
85

Who among the following is the founder of the social activist organisation called ‘Global March Against Child Labour’?

  1. ((a))

    Baba Amte

  2. ((b))

    Kailash Satyarthi

  3. ((c))

    Kiran Bedi

  4. ((d))

    Anna Hazare

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kailash Satyarthi

The correct answer is Kailash Satyarthi.

 

Key Points

  • Global March Against Child Labour is founded by Kailash Satyarthi in 1998.
  • The Global March Against Child Labour (Global March) is a worldwide network of trade unions, teachers’ and civil society organisation.
  • It works towards the shared development goals of eliminating and preventing all forms of child labour, slavery and trafficking and ensuring access by all children to free, meaningful and good quality public education.

 

Additional Information

  • In 2014, Kailash Satyarthi was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize jointly with Malala Yousafzai for their contribution towards child education.
  • Baba Amte was an Indian social worker and social activist known particularly for his work for the rehabilitation and empowerment of people suffering from leprosy.
  • Kiran Bedi was the first female IPS officer and started her service in 1972.
  • She is the incumbent Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry (2020).
  • Anna Hazare is a social activist who led movements to promote rural development, increase government transparency, and investigate and punish corruption in public life.
86

In respect of classification of algae, the members of Phaeophyceae are commonly called:

  1. ((a))

    red algae

  2. ((b))

    white algae

  3. ((c))

    green algae

  4. ((d))

    brown algae

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

brown algae

The Correct Answer is brown algae.

 

Key Points

  • Algae can be classified on the basis of pigments present in them.
  • Chlorophyceae – green algae
  • Phaeophyceae – brown algae
  • Rhodophyceae – red algae

 

Important Points

  • Brown algae is a  class of about 1,500 species of algae in the division Chromophyta, common in cold waters along continental coasts.
  • Brown algae are an important source of algin, a colloidal gel used as a stabilizer in the baking and ice-cream industries.

 

Additional Information

  • Red algae are red because of the presence of the pigment phycoerythrin; this pigment reflects red light and absorbs blue light.
  • They are found in water bodies.
  • Green algae have chloroplasts that contain chlorophyll a and b, giving them a bright green colour.
  • The cell walls of green algae usually contain cellulose, and they store carbohydrates in the form of starch.
87

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is accorded annually by the:

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Human Resource Development, Govt. of India

  2. ((b))

    Indian National Congress

  3. ((c))

    Rajiv Gandhi Memorial Trust

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Govt. of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Govt. of India

The correct answer is the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Govt. of India.

 

Key Points

  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • The recipient(s) is/are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and are honored for their "spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years" at the international level.

 

Important Points

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award:

  • This award was instituted in 1991-92.
  • Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was the first recipient of this award.
  • The winner of the Khel Ratna Award gets a reward of 25 lac rupees.
  • This award is given annually to those sportspersons who make the country proud at international events.

  

Additional Information 

  • The National Sports Day is celebrated on August 29, the birth anniversary of hockey wizard Dhyan Chand.
88

Viticulture refers to the _______________.

  1. ((a))

    commercial rearing of silkworm

  2. ((b))

    growing of vegetables

  3. ((c))

    breeding of fish

  4. ((d))

    cultivation of grapes

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

cultivation of grapes

The correct answer is cultivation of grapes.

Key Points

  • Viticulture refers to the branch of science, which involves the study and cultivation of grapes.
  • When the grapes are used for winemaking, it is also known as viniculture.

Additional Information

  • The rearing of silkworms to produce raw silk is called sericulture.
  • Olericulture is the science of vegetable growing, dealing with the culture of non-woody plants for food.
  • The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture.
89

Which of the following persons won the Sultan Padamsee Playwriting Award for his first play ‘Larins Sahib’?

  1. ((a))

    Ramchandra Guha

  2. ((b))

    Gurcharan Das

  3. ((c))

    Amitav Ghosh

  4. ((d))

    Shashi Tharoor

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gurcharan Das

The correct answer is Gurcharan Das.

 

Key Points

  • Gurcharan Das won the Sultan Padamsee Playwriting Award for his first play ‘Larins Sahib’.
  • Larins Sahib is a historical play set in the confused period after the death of Ranjit Singh when the British first arrived in Punjab.
  • This play traces the development of hubris, which brings about the hero's downfall.

 

Important Points

  • Sultan Padamsee Playwriting Award was initiated in 1966 by Theatre Group Bombay.
  • It was named after its founder, the Sultan Padamsee.
  • Playwriting Awards have been among the most prestigious for English language dramatists in India.

  

Additional Information

  • Ramchandra Guha is a renowned Indian writer whose research interests include environmental, social, economics, political, contemporary and cricket history.
  • Some of his notable works are India after Gandhi, Gandhi Before India, Makers of Modern India, Gandhi Before India, Patriots and Partisans, Verdicts on Nehru:-The Rise and Fall of A Reputation, etc.
  • He is the recipient of Padma Bhushan in 2009.
  • He has won 2011 Sahitya Akademi Award for his book India after Gandhi.
  • Amitav Ghosh is a renowned is an Indian writer. 
  • Some of his notable works are The Shadow Lines, The Circle of ReasonThe Calcutta Chromosome, Sea of Poppies, River of Smoke, The Imam and the Indian, Dancing in Cambodia and at Large in Burma, The Great Derangement: Climate Change and the Unthinkable etc.
  • He is the recipient of  Padma Shri in 2007.
  • He has won Sahitya Akademi Award (1988) and Ananda Puraskar for his novel The Shadow Lines.
  • He has won 54th Jnanpith Award for his outstanding contribution towards literature.
  • Shashi Tharoor is a politician, writer and former international diplomat and has been serving as Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha from Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, since 2009.
  • Some of his famous books are An Era of Darkness:-The British Empire in India, India:-From Midnight to the Millennium, Nehru: The Invention of India, Pax Indica:-India and the World of the 21st Century, The Paradoxical Prime Minister, The Battle of Belonging, etc.
  • He has won 2019 Sahitya Akademi Award for his book, An Era of Darkness:-The British Empire in India.
90

The Summer Olympic Games 2000 were held at:

  1. ((a))

    Paris

  2. ((b))

    Sydney

  3. ((c))

    Seoul

  4. ((d))

    Athens

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sydney

Key Points

  • The 2000 Summer Olympics was an international multi-sport event held from 15 September to 1 October 2000 in Sydney, New South Wales, Australia.
  • It was the second time the Summer Olympics were held in Australia, and in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • The United States topped the medal table, followed by Russia and China.

Important Points 

 India in Olympics:

  • India first participated in the Olympic Games in 1900.
  • India participated with a lone athlete Norman Pritchard winning two medals, both silver, in athletics.
  • He became the first Asian nation to win an Olympic medal.
  • The nation first sent a team to the Summer Olympic Games in 1920.
  • India has participated in every Summer Games since then.
  • India has also competed at several Winter Olympic Games beginning in 1964
91

Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from ______ to ______.

  1. ((a))

    1947; 1989

  2. ((b))

    1947; 1962

  3. ((c))

    1947; 1971

  4. ((d))

    1947; 1958

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1947; 1971

The correct answer is 1947; 1971.

 

Key Points

  • Bangladesh (East-Pakistan) was part of Pakistan from 1947 to 1971.
  • The Government of India decided on 3rd December 1971, that India would go to war with Pakistan to save Bengali Muslims and Hindus.
  • On 16th December 1971, the chief of the Pakistani forces with 93,000 soldiers had surrendered unconditionally to the allied forces consisting of the Indian Army and Mukti Bahini in Dhaka.

 

Additional Information

  • Vijay Diwas is observed on 16th December every year in Bangladesh and India, to observe Bangladesh’s victory over Pakistan in War of 1971 for the liberation of Bangladesh from Pakistan and to show the respect to Freedom fighters, and Martyrs who take part to free the Bangladesh from atrocious rule of Pakistan.
  • 26 March is celebrated as the Independence Day of Bangladesh.
92

Which of the following persons was the recipient of the inaugural Infosys Prize for Social Sciences – History, 2009?

  1. ((a))

    Amlan Datta

  2. ((b))

    Upinder Singh

  3. ((c))

    Krishna Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Hari Vasudevan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Upinder Singh

The Correct Answer is Upinder Singh.

  • The Infosys Prize in Social Sciences – History for the year 2009 was awarded to Professor Upinder Singh in recognition of her contributions as an outstanding historian of ancient and early medieval Indian history.

 

Important Points

  • The Infosys Prize is an annual award given to scientists, researchers, engineers, and social scientists of Indian origin (not necessarily born in India) by the Infosys Science Foundation.
  • Prachi Deshpande was awarded the Infosys Prize in Social Sciences for the year 2020.

 

Additional Information

  • Amlan Datta was an economist and educationist from West Bengal, India.
  • Hari Vasudevan was an Indian scholar notable for his work on the history of Russia and Europe, and India-Russia relations.
93

Kamban wrote the Ramayana in which of the following languages?

  1. ((a))

    Telugu

  2. ((b))

    Malayalam

  3. ((c))

    Kannada

  4. ((d))

    Tamil

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tamil

The correct answer is Tamil.

 

Key Points

  • The Ramayana in Tamil known as Ramavataram was written by the Tamil poet Kamban during the 12th century.

  

Important Points

  • The Sri Ranganatha Ramayanam was adapted by Gona Budda Reddy and is the Telugu version of the Ramayana.
  • Adhyathmaramayanam Kilippattu is the most popular Malayalam version of the Sanskrit epic Ramayana.
  • It is believed to have been written by Thunchaththu Ramanujan Ezhuthachan in the early 17th century.
  • Kannada versions of the Ramayana – the Kumudendu Ramayana(a Jain version), written in the 13th century and the Kumara-Valmiki Torave Ramayana, written in the 16th century.
94

The 90 degree East Meridian does NOT pass through:

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Sikkim

  3. ((c))

    Bhutan

  4. ((d))

    Meghalaya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sikkim

The Correct Answer is Sikkim.

 

Key Points

  • The meridian 90° east of Greenwich is a line of longitude that extends from the North Pole to the South Pole.
  • It passes across the Arctic Ocean, Asia, the Indian Ocean, the Southern Ocean, and Antarctica to the South Pole.
  • It passes through the State of Assam and Meghalaya in India.
  • It also passes through Bhutan and Bangladesh.

 

Additional Information

Co-ordinatesCountry, territory, or seaNotes
90°0′N 90°0′EArctic Ocean
81°9′N 90°0′EKara SeaPassing just west of Schmidt Island, Krasnoyarsk Krai,  Russia
77°7′N 90°0′ERussiaKrasnoyarsk Krai — Kirov Islands
77°6′N 90°0′EKara Sea
75°33′N 90°0′ERussiaKrasnoyarsk Krai Tuva Republic — from 51°40′N 90°0′E
50°1′N 90°0′EMongoliaBayan-Ölgii Province
47°53′N 90°0′EPeople's Republic of ChinaXinjiang
Qinghai — from 36°10′N 90°0′E Tibet — from 33°42′N 90°0′E
28°19′N 90°0′EBhutan
26°44′N 90°0′EIndiaAssam - passing just east of Dhubri Meghalaya — from 25°50′N 90°0′E
25°16′N 90°0′EBanglasdesh
95

Which part of the brain is instrumental in making it possible for a person to perform activity such as picking up a pencil from the floor?

  1. ((a))

    Cranium

  2. ((b))

    Cerebellum

  3. ((c))

    Cerebrum

  4. ((d))

    Hypothalamus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cerebellum

The correct answer is Cerebellum.

 

Key Points

  • The cerebellum helps in maintaining posture and balance of the body.
  • It also enables us to make precise and accurate movements.
  • The cerebellum coordinates smooth body movements such as walking, dancing, riding a bicycle and picking up a pencil, etc.

 

Important Points

  • The brain is the highest coordinating center in the body.
  • The brain is broadly divided into three regions: forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
  • The forebrain consists mainly of the cerebrum.
  • The midbrain does not have any further divisions.
  • The hindbrain consists of three centres called pons, cerebellum and medulla.
  • The cerebrum (or forebrain) is the main thinking part of the brain.
  • It is the site of our faculties such as learning, reasoning, intelligence, personality and memory.
  • All the voluntary actions of the body are coordinated by the cerebrum.
  • The midbrain controls reflex movements of the head, neck and trunk in response to visual and auditory stimuli.
  • It also controls the reflex movements of the eye muscles, changes in pupil size and shape of the eye lens.

 

Additional Information

  • Cranium is the top portion of the skull, which protects the brain.
  • The cranium includes the frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones.
  • The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain.
  • It's located at the base of the brain, near the pituitary gland.
  • The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in releasing hormones, regulating body temperature etc.
96

Who was the coach of the Indian men’s football team at the Intercontinental Cup, 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Stephen Constantine

  2. ((b))

    Baichung Bhutia

  3. ((c))

    Igor Stimac

  4. ((d))

    Prasanta Banerjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Igor Stimac

The Correct Answer is Igor Stimac.

 

Key Points

  • Igor Stimac is a Croatian football manager and former player who played as a centre back.
  • He is the current coach of the India national football team.

 

Important Points

  • The 2019 Intercontinental Cup was the second edition of Hero Intercontinental Cup that was held in Ahmedabad in July 2019.
  • The tournament was organized by the AIFF.
  • North Korea won the title by a 1–0 victory over Tajikistan in the final.

 

Additional Information

  • Stephen Constantine is an English professional football coach and former player.
  • He coached the Indian Football team from 2015 to 2019.
  • Bhaichung Bhutia is a former Indian professional footballer who played as a striker.
97

The Rig Veda is divided into ______ books or mandalas.

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • The Rigveda is divided into 10 mandalas (books).
  • The first and tenth Mandalas are the youngest and the longest.
  • The Gayatri mantra is in Rig Veda is taken ffrom Mandala 3.
  • Mandala 9 is completely devoted to Soma.
  • The 10th mandala contains the Purusha Sukta which explains the 4 Varnas that were born from the Mouth, arms, thighs, and feet of the Brahma or Purusha.
  • Nasadiya Sukta which talks about the origin of the Universe is in the 10th Mandala.

Additional Information

  • Vedas are supposed to be the first religious text of the Hindu religion.
  • Veda means knowledge.
  • There are four Vedas namely:
  • Rig Veda - Rig Veda contains hymns about mythology
  • Yajur Veda - Only Veda, which is divided into two parts (i.e. Krishna Yajur Veda and Shukla Yajur Veda), contains the knowledge of all sacrificial formulas and weapons.
  • Sam Veda - It is the Origin of Indian classical music.
  • Atharva Veda - It contains the knowledge of Ayurveda, also charms and spells hence it is known as black Veda.
98

What is the meaning of the Greek origin word, ‘Elektron’?

  1. ((a))

    Ebonite

  2. ((b))

    Amber

  3. ((c))

    Charge

  4. ((d))

    Negative

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Amber

The Correct Answer is Amber.

 

Key Points

  • The word "elektron" in Greek means amber.
  • Amber is the yellow fossilized resin of evergreen trees, a "natural plastic material" already known to the ancient Greeks.
  • It was known that when amber was rubbed with a dry cloth, it could attract light objects, such as bits of paper.
  • When J.J. Thomson discovered the light particle which carried that charge, the name "electron" was applied to it.
99

The princely state of Hyderabad was brought under the Indian Union in the year ______.

  1. ((a))

    1948

  2. ((b))

    1950

  3. ((c))

    1952

  4. ((d))

    1963

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1948

The correct answer is 1948.

 

Key Points

  • At the time of independence, India comprised two categories of political units,
  • The British provinces (under the direct rule of the British government).
  • The princely states (under the rule of native princes but subject to the paramountcy of the British Crown).
  • Of the 552 princely states situated within the geographical boundaries of India, 549 joined India and the remaining 3 (Hyderabad, Junagarh, and Kashmir) refused to join India.
  • However, in course of time, they were also integrated with India–Hyderabad by means of police action, Junagarh by means of referendum, and Kashmir by the Instrument of Accession.

 

Important Points

  • On 13 September 1948, the Indian Army, launched a campaign, code-named "Operation Polo".
  • Indian troops invaded Hyderabad from all points of the compass.
  • on 17 September 1948 the Nizam's army surrendered.
  • India then incorporated the state of Hyderabad and ended the rule of the Nizam.
100

Who among the following did NOT belong to the Rajput kingdom of Marwar?

  1. ((a))

    Rao Chanda

  2. ((b))

    Rao Jodha

  3. ((c))

    Rana Kumbha

  4. ((d))

    Maldeva

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rana Kumbha

Rana Kumbha is NOT correct.

  • Rana Kumbha was the ruler of the Mewar kingdom.
  • He belonged to the Sisodia clan.
  • He was the 48th Rana of Mewar and succeeded Rana Mokal Singh in the year 1433 CE as the ruler of Mewar.

Additional Information

  • Rao Chanda:
  • Rao Chanda/Chundarj secured Marwar and founded the kingdom of Jodhpur.
  • She was killed in battle by the forces of Salim Shah of Multan.
  • Rao Jodha:
  • He is the son of Rao Chanda and is considered the first fully independent Rathore king of Jodhpur & Marwar.
  • Construction on the fort of Mehran Garh (or Mehrangarh) began during his reign.
  • Rao Maldeva:
  • He expanded the kingdom, taking Ajmer, Merta, & Nagore under his control.

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

101

The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of 450 employees in an organization. Read the pie chart and answer the question that follows.

If 75% of the employees in department D are males, how many female employees are there in that department?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    27

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

Given:

Percentage distribution of employees in an organization

Department A = 20%

Department B = 14%

Department C = 16%

Department D = 8%

Department E = 20% 

Department F = 22%

Total employees in the organization = 450 = 100%

Calculations:

Number of employees in Department D = (8 × 450)/100 = 36

75% of employees of Department D are male 

So, 25% of employees of Department D are female

Number of female Employees in Department D = (25 × 36)/100 = 9

∴ The number of female employees in Department D is 9.

102

The given histogram shows the frequency distribution of the speed of cars passing through a particular spot on a highway. Read the graph and answer the following question.

What is the ratio of the number of cars with speed less than 60 km/h to the number of cars with speed more than 70 km/h?

  1. ((a))

    13 : 8

  2. ((b))

    8 : 5

  3. ((c))

    8 : 13

  4. ((d))

    5 : 8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 : 13

Given:

Number of cars between 40-50 speed = 50 

Number of cars between 50-60 speed = 70

Number of cars between 60-70 speed = 85

Number of cars between 70-80 speed = 90

Number of cars between 80-90 speed = 60

Number of cars between 90-100 speed = 45

Calculations: 

Total number of cars with speed less than 60 km/h = 50 + 70 = 120

Total  number of cars with speed more than 70 km/h = 90 + 60 + 45 = 195 km/h

The ratio of the number of cars with a speed less than 60 km/h to the number of cars with speed more than 70 km/h = 120/195

⇒ 8 ∶ 13

∴ The ratio of the number of cars with a speed less than 60 km/h to the number of cars with speed more than 70 km/h is 8 ∶ 13.

103

A bus covers a 60 kilometre distance in 1 hour 30 minutes, whereas the same distance is covered by a car in 45 minutes. What is the ratio of the speed of the car to the speed of the bus?

  1. ((a))

    5 : 3

  2. ((b))

    1 : 2

  3. ((c))

    2 : 1

  4. ((d))

    3 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2 : 1

Given:

Distance covered by bus and car = 60 km.

Time taken by bus to cover the distance = 1 hour 30 minutes.

Time taken by car to cover the same distance = 45 minutes.

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/time

Calculation:

Time taken by bus = 1hr 30 min.

⇒ T = (1 + 30/60) = 3/2 hr.

Time taken by car to cover the same distance = 45 minutes.

⇒ T = 45/60 hr = 3/4 hr.

According to question:

Speed of car ∶ Speed of bus 

⇒ [60/(3/4)] ∶ [60/(3/2)] 

⇒ 80 ∶ 40

⇒ 2 ∶ 1

∴ The ratio of the speed of car and bus is 2 : 1

Alternate Method

Concept used:

When the distance is constant, then the speed is inversely proportional to time.

Calculation:

Time covered by bus = 1hr 30 min.

⇒ T2 = (1 + 30/60) hr.

⇒ T2 = 3/2 hr.

again,

Time covered by car = 45 min

⇒ T= 45/60 hr.

⇒  T1 = 3/4 hr.

S∶ S2 = (1/T1) ∶ (1/T2)

⇒ 1/(3/4) ∶ 1/(3/2)

⇒ 4/3 ∶ 2/3 = 2 ∶ 1

 The ratio of the speed of car and bus is 2 : 1

104

A and B started a business investing amounts of Rs. 92,500 and Rs. 1,12,500, respectively. If B's share in the profit earned by them is Rs. 9,000, what is the profit (in Rs.) earned by A?

  1. ((a))

    10,000

  2. ((b))

    11,240

  3. ((c))

    7,400

  4. ((d))

    9,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7,400

Given:

Amount invested by A =Rs. 92,500

Amount invested by B = Rs. 1,12,500

B's share in profit = Rs. 9,000

Concept used:

Divide the total profit according to investment ratio.

Calculation:

Let the profit earned by A be Rs. X

According to the question,

(92500/112500) = (X/9000)

⇒ X = (92500 × 9000)/112500

⇒ X =  37 × 200

⇒ X = 7400

∴ The profit earned by A is Rs. 7400

105

The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of 450 employees in an organisation. Read the pie chart and answer the question that follows.

What is the number of employees working in department F?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    99

  3. ((c))

    63

  4. ((d))

    72

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

99

Given:

Employees working in department F = 22%

Total percent population = 100%

Calculation:

Out of 100%, 22% of Employees work in the department 'F'

Total number of Employees in Department 'F' = (22/100) × 450 = 99

∴ Total number of Employees in Department 'F' is 99

106

A person covers a distance of 300 km and then returns to the starting point. The time taken by him for the outward journey is 5 hours more than time taken for the return journey. If he returned at a speed of 10 km/h more than the speed of going. What was the speed (in km/h) for the outward journey?

  1. ((a))

    15 km/h

  2. ((b))

    20 km/h

  3. ((c))

    30 km/h

  4. ((d))

    25 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20 km/h

Given:

Distance covered by the person in a single journey = 300km

Time taken by him for the outward journey = 5 hours more than the time taken for the return journey.

The return speed is 10km/h more than the speed of going.

Formula used:

Distance covered = Speed × Time taken

Calculation:

Let the speed of outward journey be ‘x’ km/h

Hence, the speed of return journey will be (x + 10) km/h

So, time taken in return journey = 300/(x + 10) hours

Time taken in outward journey = (300/x) hours

According to the question,

⇒ (300/x) – 300/(x + 10) = 5

⇒ [300(x + 10) – 300x]/x(x + 10) = 5

⇒ [300x + 3000 – 300x] = 5x(x + 10)

⇒ 3000 = 5x2 + 50x

⇒ 5x2 + 50x – 3000 = 0

⇒ x2 + 10x – 600 = 0

⇒ x2 + 30x – 20x – 600 = 0

⇒ x(x + 30) – 20(x + 30) = 0

⇒ (x – 20)(x + 30) = 0

⇒ x = 20, -30

⇒ x = 20km/h as negative speed is not possible.

 The speed for the outward journey is 20km/h

Shortcut Trick Concept:

[(Speed 1 × Speed 2) / Speed difference] × Time difference = Total distance

Calculation:

Let the speed of outward journey be ‘x’ km/h

Hence, the speed of return journey will be (x + 10) km/h

So, 

x×(x+10)10×5=300\frac{x \times (x+10)}{10} \times 5 = 300

⇒ x×(x+10)=600x \times (x+10) = 600

⇒ x×(x+10)=20×30x \times (x+10) = 20 \times 30

⇒ x = 20

∴ The speed for the outward journey is 20km/h

107

The length of the shadow of a vertical pole on the ground in 36 m. If the angle of elevation of the sun at that time is θ, such that secθ = (13/12) then what is the height (in m) of the pole?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15

Given:

Length of shadow = 36m.

Let the height of pole = (x) m.

Formula Used:

sec2θ = tan2θ + 1

tanθ = P/B 

Where, 

P = Perpendicular 

B =Base

Calculations:

secθ = 13/12  

⇒ sec2θ = tan2θ + 1

⇒ (13/12)2 = tan2θ + 1

⇒ tan2θ = 1 - (13/12)2  

⇒ tan2θ = 1 - 169/144

⇒ tan2θ = 25/144

⇒ tanθ = 5/12  

tanθ = P/B 

tanθ = x/36

⇒ 5/12 = x/36

⇒ x = 36 × (5/12)

⇒ x = 15

∴ The height of pole is 15 m.

108

PA and PB are two tangents from a point P outside the circle with center O at the point A and B on it. If ∠APB = 130°, then ∠OAB is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    45° 

  2. ((b))

    65°

  3. ((c))

    35°

  4. ((d))

    50°

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

65°

Given:

∠APB = 130°

Formula Used:

Sum of angles of quadrilateral = 360° 

Sum of angles of triangle = 180° 

Concept Used:

The radius of a circle always perpendicular to the tangent of the circle

In a triangle opposite angle of two equal sides always equal 

Calculation:

∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°       ----(Radius of a circle always perpendicular to the tangent of the circle)

Now consider □OAPB,

∠OAP + ∠APB + ∠PBO + ∠BOA = 360°

⇒ 90° + 130° + 90° + ∠BOA = 360°

⇒ 310° + ∠BOA = 360°

⇒ ∠BOA = 50°    

In ΔOAB,

OA = OB (Radius of the circle)

So, ∠OAB = ∠OBA      ----(In a triangle opposite angle of two equal side always equal )

⇒ ∠OAB + ∠ABO + ∠BOA = 180°

⇒ 2∠OAB + 50° = 180°

⇒ 2∠OAB = 130°

⇒ ∠OAB = 65°

∴ The value of ∠OAB is 65°        

Shortcut Trick

∠OAB = ∠OBA  = (1/2) × ∠APB 

⇒ ∠OAB = (1/2) × 130 = 65°

∴ The value of ∠OAB is 65°

109

A person's salary has increased from Rs. 7,000 to Rs. 12,000. What is the percentage increase in his salary?

  1. ((a))

    611761 \frac{1}{7}%

  2. ((b))

    764776 \frac{4}{7}%

  3. ((c))

    691769 \frac{1}{7}%

  4. ((d))

    713771 \frac{3}{7}%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

713771 \frac{3}{7}%

Given:

Initial salary = Rs. 7000

Increased salary = Rs. 12,000

Calculation:

Increase in salary = Rs. 12000 – Rs. 7000 = Rs. 5000

Increase % in salary = (5000/7000) × 100 

7137⇒ 71\frac{3}{7}%

∴ The percentage increase in the salary is 713771\frac{3}{7}%

Shortcut Trick Increase % in salary = (5000/7000) × 100 

⇒ 713771\frac{3}{7}%

110

In ΔABC, AB and AC are produced to points D and E, respectively. If the bisectors of ∠CBD and ∠BCE meet at the point O, and ∠BOC = 57°, then ∠A is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    66° 

  2. ((b))

    93°

  3. ((c))

    114°

  4. ((d))

    57°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66° 

Given:

BO and CO is the angle bisector of ∠CBD and ∠BCE respectively

∠ BOC = 57° 

Concept used:

BO and CO is the angle bisector of ∠CBD and ∠BCE respectively.

Then ∠BOC = 90° – (∠BAC/2)

Calculations:

∠BOC = 57° 

⇒ ∠BOC = 90° – (∠BAC/2)

⇒ ∠BAC/2 = 90 – 57

⇒ ∠BAC/2 = 33° 

⇒ ∠BAC = 66° 

∴ The value of ∠BAC is 66° 

Shortcut Trick  ∠BOC = 90° – (∠BAC/2)

⇒ ∠BAC/2 = 90 – 57

⇒ ∠BAC/2 = 33° 

⇒ ∠BAC = 66°

111

If the annual rate of simple interest increases from 11% to 171217 \frac{1}{2}%, then a person's yearly income increases by Rs. 1,071.20. The simple interest (in Rs.) on the same sum at 10% for 5 years is:

  1. ((a))

    9,120

  2. ((b))

    8,240

  3. ((c))

    16,480

  4. ((d))

    7,250

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8,240

Given:

Rate of interest changes from 11% to 171217\frac{1}{2}%

Due to change of rate of interest yearly income increases by Rs. 1071.20

Formula used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T)/100

Where,

P → Principal 

R → Rate 

T → Time

Calculation:

Difference between two interest rates = 171217\frac{1}{2}% – 11% = (13/2)%

⇒ Increased income = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 1071.20 = (P × (13/2) × 1)/100

⇒ (107120 × 2)/13 = P

⇒ P = 16480 

Simple Interest = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ (16480 × 10 × 5)/100

⇒ 1648 × 5

⇒ 8240 Rs.

∴ The simple interest for five years at 10% is 8240 Rs.

Alternate Method Difference between two interest rates = 171217\frac{1}{2}% – 11% = (13/2)%

Increased income = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 1071.20 = (P × (13/2) × 1)/100

⇒ P = 16480 

Simple Interest = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ (16480 × 10 × 5)/100

⇒ 8240

112

If six - digit number 5x2y6z is divisible by 7, 11 and 13, then the value of (x – y + 3z) is:

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7

Ans: 3

Given:

5x2y6z is divisible by 7, 11 and 13

Concept used:

7 × 11 × 13 = 1001, when any 3 digit number multiplied by 1001 then it repeats itself and always completely divisible by 7,11 and 13.

Calculation:

Let 3 digit number be pqr.

⇒ pqr × 1001 = 5x2y6z

⇒ pqrpqr = 5x2y6z

Compare both sides

⇒ p = 5, q = 6 and r = 2

Hence, that number is 562562.

⇒ 5x2y6z = 562562

by comparing both numbers, x = 6, y = 5, and z = 2 

Required value = (x – y + 3z)

⇒ 6 – 5 + 3 × 2

⇒ 7

∴ The required value is 7.

Alternate Method When any 3 digit number multiplied by 1001 then it repeats itself and always completely divisible by 7,11 and 13.

Let 3 digit number be PQR.

⇒ PQRPQR = 5x2y6z

⇒ p = 5, q = 6 and r = 2

Hence, that number is 562562.

⇒ 5x2y6z = 562562

⇒ x = 6, y = 5, and z = 2 

Required value = (x – y + 3z)

⇒ 6 – 5 + 3 × 2

⇒ 7

113

The remainder when 72 × 73 × 78 × 76 is divided by 35 is: 

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

Given:

(72 × 73 × 78 × 76) divided by 35

Concept Used:

We divide every number individually by 35 and remainder left will be operated as signs given in the original equation, and if the operated value is more than 35 then we will divide it further till we get values less than 35 and that value will be remainder for the given equation.

Calculation:

(72 × 73 × 78 × 76)/35

⇒ (2 × 3 × 8 × 6)/35

⇒ 288/35

⇒ 8/35

Since 8 cannot be divided further by 35

∴ The remainder of the given equation is 8

114

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral such that AB is a diameter of the circle circumscribing it and ∠ADC = 118°. What is the measure of ∠BAC?

  1. ((a))

    32° 

  2. ((b))

    28°

  3. ((c))

    45°

  4. ((d))

    30°

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

28°

Given: 

AB is a diameter.

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which ∠ADC = 118°

Concept used:

The angle formed by the diameter of the circle at the circumference of the circle is always 90°   

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral 

So, ∠ADC + ∠ABC = 180° 

Calculation:

In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of each pair of opposite angles is 180 degrees.

⇒ ∠ADC + ∠ABC = 180°

⇒ 118° + ∠ABC = 180°

⇒ ∠ABC = 62°

∠ACB = 90°      ----(The angle formed by the diameter of the circle at the circumference of the circle always 90°)

In ΔABC,

∠BAC + ∠ACB + ∠ABC = 180°

⇒ ∠BAC + 90° + 62° = 180°

⇒ ∠BAC = 28°

∴ The value of ∠BAC is 28°

115

Asha and Suman's mud forts have heights 9 cm and 16 cm. If the fort tops are at 25 cm apart from each other, then the distance (in cm) between two forts is:

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24

Given :

Asha fort height  = 9 cm

Suman fort height = 16 cm

Distance between the top of the forts = 25 cm 

Formula Used:

Pythagoras theorem: (Base)2 + (Perpendicular)2  = (Hypotenuous)2  

Calculation:

Let the distance between the fort  CD be x

From the above diagram

Height of the Suman fort AC = 16 cm 

Height of the Asha fort ED = 9 cm 

Here the BCDE forms a rectangle 

The opposite side is equal BE = CD = x and BC = DE = 9 cm                                            

By Pythagoras theorem 

AB2 + BE2  = AE2 

⇒ 72 + x2 = 252

⇒ x2 = 625 – 49 

⇒ x = √576

⇒ x = 24 

∴ The Distance between forts = 24 cm

116

The students of a class donated a sum of Rs. 2,809 to the Fund. Each student donated as many rupees as the number of students in the class. The number of students in the class is:

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    53

  3. ((c))

    49

  4. ((d))

    47

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

53

Given:

Class donated a sum of Rs. 2,809

Each student donated as many rupees as the number of students in the class.

Calculation:

Let the total number of the students be 'x'

Each student will donate 'x' amount of rupees.

So, total class fund = Donation of each student × Total number of students

⇒ 2,809 = x × x

⇒ 2,809 = x2 

⇒ x = 53

∴ Total number of students in class is 53

117

The value of sin230+cos260+sec45.sin45sec60+cosec30\frac{{{{\sin }^2}30^\circ + {{\cos }^2}60^\circ + sec45^\circ .sin45^\circ }}{{sec60^\circ + cosec30^\circ }} is:

  1. ((a))

    14\frac{1}{4}

  2. ((b))

    38\frac{3}{8}

  3. ((c))

    14-\frac{1}{4}

  4. ((d))

    38-\frac{3}{8}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

38\frac{3}{8}

Given:

sin230+cos260+sec45.sin45sec60+cosec30\frac{{{{\sin }^2}30^\circ + {{\cos }^2}60^\circ + sec45^\circ .sin45^\circ }}{{sec60^\circ + cosec30^\circ }}

Important Trigonometric Identities:

Calculation:

[(12)2+;(12)2+(2 × 12)]2 + 2\frac{{\left[ {{{\left( {\frac{1}{2}} \right)}^2} + ;{{\left( {\frac{1}{2}} \right)}^2} + \left( {\sqrt 2 \ \times\ \frac{1}{{\sqrt 2 }}} \right)} \right]}}{{2\ + \ 2}}

= (3/2)/4

= 3/8

∴ Simplified value of given equation is 3/8

118

If sin3x = cos(3x – 45°), 0° < 3x < 90°, then x is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    27.5° 

  2. ((b))

    45°

  3. ((c))

    35°

  4. ((d))

    22.5°

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22.5°

Given:

sin3x = cos(3x – 45°)

Formula Used :

sin(90° – θ) = cosθ 

Calculations:

sin3x = cos(3x – 45°)

⇒ cos(90° – 3x) = cos(3x – 45°)

⇒ 90° – 3x = 3x – 45°

⇒ 6x = 135°

⇒ x = 22.5

∴  The value of x is 22.5°

119

Let Δ ABC ∼ Δ RPQ and ar(ΔABC)ar(ΔRPQ)=49\frac{{ar(\Delta ABC)}}{{ar(\Delta RPQ)}} = \frac{4}{9}. If AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm and AC = 5 cm, then RP (in cm) is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    4.5 cm

  2. ((b))

    12 cm 

  3. ((c))

    5 cm

  4. ((d))

    6 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.5 cm

Given:

Δ ABC ∼ Δ RPQ

ar(ABC)ar(RPQ)\frac{{ar\left( {ABC} \right)}}{{ar\left( {RPQ} \right)}} =  49\frac{4}{9}

AB = 3 cm

BC = 4 cm

AC = 5 cm

Concept used:

Δ ABC ∼ Δ RPQ

 ABRP=;BCPQ=;ACQR=ar(ABC)ar(RPQ)\frac{{AB}}{{RP}} = ;\frac{{BC}}{{PQ}} = ;\frac{{AC}}{{QR}} = √\frac{{ar\left( {ABC} \right)}}{{ar\left( {RPQ} \right)}}

Calculation: 

AB/RP = √(4/9)

⇒ AB/RP = 2/3 

⇒ RP = (3/2) × AB

⇒ (3/2) × 3 = 4.5

∴ The value of RP is 4.5 cm.

Shortcut TrickΔ ABC ∼ Δ RPQ

AB/RP = √(4/9) 

RP = 3/2 × 3  (∵ AB = 3)

RP = 4.5

120

The two parallel sides of a trapezium are 17 cm and 15 cm, respectively. If the height of the trapezium is 6 cm, then its area (in m2) is:

  1. ((a))

    0.96 m2

  2. ((b))

    0.0096 m2

  3. ((c))

    9.6 m2

  4. ((d))

    960 m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.0096 m2

Given:

L= 17 cm

L2 = 15 cm

Height (H) = 6 cm

Concept used:

Area of trapezium = (1/2) × (Sum of parallel side) × Height 

1 cm = (1/100) m 

Calculation:

Let two parallel side be L1 and L2

Area of trapezium = (1/2) × (17 + 15) × 6

⇒ 96 cm2

⇒ 96/10000 m2 = 0.0096 m2

∴ The area of the trapezium is 0.0096 m2.

Shortcut Trick Area of trapezium = (1/2) × (17 + 15) × 6

⇒ 96 cm2

= 0.0096 m2

121

A rectangular lawn whose length is twice of its breadth is extended by having four semi-circular portions on its sides. What is the total area (in m2) of the lawn if the smaller side of the rectangle is 12 m? (Take π = 3.14)

  1. ((a))

    548.32

  2. ((b))

    444

  3. ((c))

    853.2

  4. ((d))

    308.64

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

853.2

Given: 

Breadth of rectangle (B) = 12 m

Length of rectangle (L) = 2 × Breadth = 24 m

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = L × B

Area of semicircle = πr2/2

Where, 

L → Length of the rectangle 

B → Breadth of the rectangle 

r → Radius of circle 

Calculation:

Four semi-circular portions are constructed on the sides of the rectangle

Let radius of small semi-circle be r and big semi-circle be R

⇒ AD = 2r and AB = 2R

⇒ r = 6 and R = 12

Total area of the newly constructed lawn = Area of rectangle + Area of the four semi-circles

⇒ L × B + 2(small semi-circle area) + 2(Big semi-circle area)

⇒ 12 × 24 + 2(3.14 × 36)/2 + 2(3.14 × 144)/2

⇒ 288 + (3.14 × 36) + (3.14 × 144)

⇒ 288 + 3.14 × 180

⇒ 288 + 565.2

⇒ 853.2 m2

∴ Total area of lawn is 853.2 m2

Alternate Method Breadth of rectangle (B) = 12 m

Length of rectangle (L) = 2 × Breadth = 24 m

⇒ AD = 2r and AB = 2R

⇒ r = 6 and R = 12

Total area of the newly constructed lawn = Area of rectangle + Area of the four semi-circles

⇒ L × B + 2(small semi-circle area) + 2(Big semi-circle area)

⇒ 12 × 24 + 2(3.14 × 36)/2 + 2(3.14 × 144)/2

⇒ 288 + (3.14 × 36) + (3.14 × 144)

⇒ 288 + 565.2

⇒ 853.2 m2

122

The area of a field in the shape of a hexagon is 1944√3 m2. What will be the cost (in Rs.) of fencing it at the rate of Rs. 11.50 per metre?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2,256

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2,785

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,484

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 2,484

Given:

Area of the hexagon field = 19443√ {3} m2  

Rate of fencing the area = 11.50 per metre 

Formula Used :

Area of the hexagon = 3√3 × (a2/2)

The perimeter of the hexagon = 6a

Cost of the fencing = 6a × Rate per metre

Where,

a → side of the hexagon

Calculation:

Substituting the values in the Formula

3√3 × (a2/2) = 1944√3

⇒ a = 36 m

The perimeter of the hexagon = 6a = 6 × 36 = 216 m 

Cost of fencing = 216 × 11.50 = Rs. 2,484

∴ Cost of fencing field in the shape of a hexagon is Rs. 2,484

123

The value of 213÷212 of 135+(38+17×134)2 \frac{1}{3} \div 2 \frac{1}{2} \ of \ 1 \frac{3}{5} + (\frac{3}{8} + \frac{1}{7} \times 1 \frac{3}{4}) is:

  1. ((a))

    25/24

  2. ((b))

    29/24

  3. ((c))

    35/24

  4. ((d))

    5/24

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

29/24

Given:

213÷212 of 135+(38+17×134)2 \frac{1}{3} ÷ 2 \frac{1}{2} \ of \ 1 \frac{3}{5} + (\frac{3}{8} + \frac{1}{7} \times 1 \frac{3}{4})

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculations:

213÷212 of 135+(38+17×134)2 \frac{1}{3} ÷ 2 \frac{1}{2} \ of \ 1 \frac{3}{5} + (\frac{3}{8} + \frac{1}{7} \times 1 \frac{3}{4})

⇒ (7/3) ÷ (5/2) of (8/5) + {(3/8) + (1/7) × (7/4)}                

⇒ (7/3)/(4) + {(3/8) + (1/4)}

⇒ (7/12) + (5/8)

⇒ (14 + 15)/24 = 29/24

∴ The correct value is (29/24).

124

If house tax is paid before the due date, one gets a reduction of 12% on the amount of the bill. By paying the tax before the due date, a person got a reduction of Rs. 2,100. The amount (in Rs.) of house tax paid was:

  1. ((a))

    25,000

  2. ((b))

    21,000

  3. ((c))

    15,400

  4. ((d))

    17,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15,400

Given:

Percentage reduction on the amount of bill if paid before due date = 12%

Reduction amount = Rs.2100

Formula Used: 

Total Tax Amount = (100/reduction%) × reduction amount 

Tax amount paid = Total Tax amount - reduced amount

Calculation:

Total tax amount = (100/12) × 2100 = Rs .17500

Total amount paid = 17500 – 2100 = Rs.15400

∴ The amount of house tax paid was is Rs. 15400

125

The least number which is exactly divisible by 4, 5, 8, 10 and 12 is:

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    240

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120

Given:

Numbers 4, 5, 8, 10, 12

Concept Used:

Least Number divisible by a set of Number = Least common multiple (LCM) of that set of numbers

Calculation:

4 = 22

5 = 51

8 = 23

10 = 21 × 51

12 = 22 × 31

Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 4, 5, 8, 10, 12 = 23 × 31 × 51 

⇒ 8 × 3 × 5 = 120

∴ 120 is the least number which is exactly divisible by 4, 5, 8, 10, 12.

Additional Information

Least common multiple: The least common multiple of numbers is the smallest non-zero common numbers which are the multiple of all the numbers.

126

The given bar graph represents the number of boys and girls in five different schools. Read the graph and answer the question that follows.

In which school is the percentage of boys more than 55%?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

E

Calculations:

Percentage of boys in school A = (600/1100) × 100 = 54.54%

Percentage of boys in school B = (450/1000) × 100 = 45%

Percentage of boys in school C = (750/1400) × 100 = 53.57%

Percentage of boys in school D = (700/1300) × 100 = 53.84%

Percentage of boys in school E = (800/1450) × 100 = 55.68%

∴ In school E percentage of boys is more than 55%

127

If x2 + 8y2 + 12y - 4xy + 9 = 0, then the value of (7x + 8y) is:

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    -33

  3. ((c))

    -9

  4. ((d))

    33

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

-33

Given:

x2 + 8y2 + 12y – 4xy + 9 = 0

Formula used:

(A - B)2 = A2 – 2AB + B2

(A + B)2 = A2 + 2AB + B2

Calculation:

x2 + 8y2 + 12y – 4xy + 9 = 0

⇒ x2 – 4xy + 4y2 + 4y2 + 12y + 9 = 0

⇒ (x – 2y)2 + (2y + 3)2 = 0

⇒ x – 2y = 0, 2y + 3 = 0  

⇒ x = 2y, 2y = -3  

⇒ x = -3, y = -3/2

Now,

7x + 8y = 7 × (-3) + 8 × (-3/2)

⇒ -21 – 12 = -33

∴ The correct answer is -33

128

A sum of Rs. 8,200 was divided among A, B and C in such a way that A had Rs. 500 more than B and C had Rs. 300 more than A. How much C's share (in Rs.)?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2,300

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 3,100

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,800

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 3,100

Given :

Total sum of money = 8200

A had Rs. 500 more than B and C had Rs. 300 more than A.

Concept used:

Using linear equation. 

Calculation :

Let the money of B be 'x'

So, money of A = x + 500

Now, money of C = x + 500 + 300 = x + 800

According to the Question ,

x + x + 500 + x + 800 = 8200

⇒ 3x + 1300 = 8200

⇒ 3x = 8200 – 1300

⇒ 3x = 6900

⇒ x = 2300

So, C's share = 2300 + 800 = Rs. 3100

∴ C's share is Rs. 3100.

129

A single discount equivalent to three successive discounts of 6%, 15% and 14% is:

  1. ((a))

    34.357%

  2. ((b))

    17.5%

  3. ((c))

    68.714%

  4. ((d))

    31.286%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

31.286%

Given:

Successive discount = 6%, 15% and 14%

Concept used:

S.P = M.P × (100 – D1)/100 × (100 – D2)/100 × (100 – D3)/100

Discount = M.P – S.P 

Discount% = ((Discount)/(M.P)) × 100

Calcualtions:

Let MP be 100x

⇒ S.P = 100x × (100 – 6)/100 × (100 – 15)/100 × (100 – 14)/100

⇒ (100x × 94 × 85 × 86)/100 × 100 × 100)

⇒ 68.714x

Discount = 100x – 68.714x = 31.286x

Discount% = (31.286x/100x) × 100 = 31.286%

∴ The equivalent discount% is 31.286%

Alternate Method Let MP be 100x

⇒ S.P = 100x × (100 – 6)/100 × (100 – 15)/100 × (100 – 14)/100

⇒ (100x × 94 × 85 × 86)/100 × 100 × 100)

⇒ 68.714x

Discount = 100x – 68.714x = 31.286x

Discount% = (31.286x/100x) × 100 = 31.286%

130

A and B can do a piece of work in 25 days. B alone can do 662366 \frac{2}{3}% of the same work in 30 days. In how many days can A alone do (4/15) part of same work?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

15

Given:

Days taken by  A and  B together to do total work = 25 days

Days taken by B to do 662366\frac{2}{3}% of total work = 30 days

Formula used:

No of days taken = (Total work)/(Efficiency)

Calculation:

Days taken by B to do (662366\frac{2}{3}% = 2/3) ​of total work = 30

⇒ Days taken by B to do total work = 30 × 3/2 = 45 days

Total work = LCM of (25, 45) = 225 

The efficiency of A and B together = 225/25 = 9

The efficiency of  B  = 225/45 = 5

The efficiency of  A = 9 – 5 = 4

Days taken by A to do (4/15) part of total work = (225/4) × (4/15) = 15 days

∴ Time taken by A to do (4/15) part of the total work is 15 days

Alternate Method 

 Days taken by  A and  B together to do total work = 25 days

 Days taken by B to do total work = 30 × 3/2 = 45 days

Total work = LCM of (25, 45) = 225

The efficiency of A and B together = 225/25 = 9

The efficiency of  B  = 225/45 = 5

The efficiency of  A = 9 – 5 = 4

Days taken by A to do (4/15) part of total work = (225/4) × (4/15) = 15 days

131

A solid metallic cube of side 9 cm and a solid metallic cuboid having dimensions 5 cm, 13 cm, 31 cm are melted to from a single cube. How much (in Rs.) is the cost to polish the new cube at a rate of Rs. 10 per cm2?

  1. ((a))

    8,650

  2. ((b))

    11,760

  3. ((c))

    13,620

  4. ((d))

    27,440

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11,760

Given:

Dimensions of a solid metallic cube = 9 cm

Dimensions of a solid metallic cuboid = 5 cm, 13 cm, 31 cm

Rate of Polishing a new cube = Rs. 10 per cm2

Formula Used:

Total Surface area of a cube = 6(side)2

Volume of cube = (side)3

Volume of cuboid = (length × breadth × height)

Amount to polish the cube = Rate × Total surface area of cube

Calculation:

Volume of the new cube = Volume of solid metallic cube + Volume of solid metallic cuboid

Volume of solid metallic cube = (9 cm)3 = 729 cm3

Volume of solid metallic cuboid = (5 cm × 13 cm × 31 cm) = 2015 cm3

⇒ Volume of the new cube = (729 cm3 + 2015 cm3) = 2744 cm3 

⇒ (side)3 = 2744 cm3 

⇒ side of new cube = 14 cm  

Total surface area of the new cube = 6(14 cm)2 = 6 × 196 cm2 = 1176 cm2

Amount to polish the cube = Rs. 10 per cm2 × 1176 cm2 = Rs. 11,760

∴ Cost to polish the new cube is Rs. 11,760

132

The given histogram shows the frequency distribution of the speed of cars passing through a particular spot on a highway. Read the graph and answer the following question.

What percentage of cars were running with the speed of 90 km/hr and above?

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    21.25%

  3. ((c))

    11.25%

  4. ((d))

    15.75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

11.25%

Given: 

Number of cars having speed between (40-50)kmph = 50 

Number of cars having speed between (50-60)kmph = 70 

Number of cars having speed between (60-70)kmph = 85 

Number of cars having speed between (70-80)kmph = 90 

Number of cars having speed between (80-90)kmph = 60 

Number of cars having speed between (90-100)kmph = 45 

Calculations:

Total cars on highway = 50 + 70 + 85 + 90 + 60 + 45 = 400

Cars running with the speed of 90 km/hr and above = 45

Percentage of cars running with the speed of 90km/hr and above = (45/400) × 100 = 11.25%

11.25% cars were running with the speed of 90 km/hr and above.

133

If the difference between the compounded interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then compound interest (in Rs.) is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5,533.50

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2,735.50

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5,100

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 5,533.50

Given:

R = 17%

Difference between compound interest and simple interest for 2 years = Rs. 433.50

Formula used:

Difference between compound interest and simple interest for 2 years = P × R/100 × R/100

Compound interest = P × (1 + R/100)- P

Calculation:

Difference between compound interest and simple interest for 2 years = P × R/100 × R/100

⇒ 433.50 = P × 17/100 × 17/100

⇒ 43350 × 100 = P × 289

⇒ P = 4335000/289 = 15000

Compound interest = P × (1+R/100)T - P

⇒ 15000 × (1 + 17/100)2 - 15000

⇒ 15000 × [(117/100 × 117/100) – 1]

⇒ 15000 × (13689 – 10000)/10000

⇒ (15 × 3689)/10

⇒ Rs. 5533.5

∴ Compound interest for two years is Rs. 5533.5 

Alternate Method

2 years Effective rate for S.I. = RT 

⇒ 17 × 2 = 34% 

2 years Effective rate for C.I = 2R + R2/100 

⇒ 2 × 17 + 172/100

⇒ 34 + 2.89 = 36.89% 

Difference in rates = 36.89% – 34% = 2.89% 

Now, 2.89% = 433.50 

Here we have to find C.I so = (433.50/2.89) × 36.89 = 5533.5 

∴ The compound interest for two years is Rs. 5533.5

134

A solid sphere of radius 11 cm is melted and recast into small solid spheres of radius 2 cm each. How many maximum number (in integer) of such spheres can be made?

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    166

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

166

Given:

Radius of solid sphere = 11 cm

Radius of small solid sphere = 2 cm 

Formula Used:

Volume of a sphere = (4/3)πr3

Number of small sphere = (Volume of solid sphere)/(Volume of small solid sphere)

Where, r = Radius of the sphere 

Calculation:

Volume of the solid sphere with radius 11 cm = (4/3) × π × 113

Volume of the small solid sphere with radius 2 cm = (4/3) × π × 23

Number of small solid sphere = (4/3) × π × 113/(4/3) × π × 23 = 1331/8 = 166.37 ≈ 166

∴ Maximum 166 of such spheres can be made.

135

The monthly salary of a person was Rs. 75,000. He used to spend on Family Expenses (E), Taxes (T), Charity (C) and rest were his savings. E was 60% of the income, T was 20% of E, and C was 15% of T. When his salary got raised by 40% he maintained the percentage level of E, but T became 30% of E and C became 20% of T. The ratio of the savings of his earlier salary to that of his present salary is:

  1. ((a))

    337 : 325

  2. ((b))

    644 : 655

  3. ((c))

    655 : 644

  4. ((d))

    325 : 337

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

655 : 644

Given:

The monthly salary of a person = Rs. 75,000

E was 60% of the income, T was 20% of E, and C was 15% of T

When his salary got raised by 40% he maintained the percentage level of E, but T

became 30% of E and C became 20% of T.

Calculation :

Family expense (E) = 60% of income

⇒ 60% of 75000 = (60 × 75000)/100 = 45000

Taxes (T) = 20% of (E)

⇒ 20% of 45000 = (20 × 45000)/100 = 9000

Charity (C) = 15% of (T)

⇒ 15% of 9000 = (15 × 9000)/100 = 1350

Total saving = 75000 – (45000 + 9000 + 1350) = 75000 – 55350 = 19650

New salary = 75000 + 40% of 75000

⇒ 75000 + (40 × 75000)/100 = 75000 + 30000 = 105000

Family expense (E) = 60% of income

⇒ 60% of 105000 = (60 × 105000)/100 = 63000

Taxes (T) = 30% of (E)

⇒ (30 × 63000)/100 = 18900

Charity (C) = 20% of (T)

= (20 × 18900)/100

= 3780

Total saving = 105000 – (63000 + 18900 + 3780) = 19320

Ratio of the savings of his earlier salary to that of his present salary = 19650 ∶ 19320

= 655 ∶ 644

∴ Ratio of the savings of his earlier salary to that of his present salary is 655 ∶ 644.

136

The given histogram shows the frequency distribution of the speed of cars passing through a particular spot on a highway. Read the graph and answer the following questions.

The number of cars with speed (km/h) in the interval (60 - 70) km/h is what percentage less than the number of cars with speed (km/h) in the interval (70 - 80) km/h? (correct to one decimal place)

  1. ((a))

    5.6%

  2. ((b))

    8.6%

  3. ((c))

    7.5%

  4. ((d))

    5.9%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.6%

Given:

Speed Of Cars (In Km/h)Number of Cars
40 – 5050
50 – 6070
60 – 7085
70 – 8090
80 – 9060
90 - 10045

 

Calculation:

Number of Cars Between the Speed Interval of (60 - 70) Km/h = 85

Number of Cars between the Speed Interval of (70 - 80) Km/h = 90

Difference between the Two Speed Intervals = 90 – 85 = 5

Less Percentage = (Difference/Number of Cars between Interval (70 - 80)Km/h) × 100

⇒ Less Percentage = (5/90) × 100

⇒ 50/9 = 5.6%

∴ The Number of Cars between speed intervals (60 - 70) Km/h is 5.6% less than the Number of Cars between speed intervals (70 - 80) Km/h

137

The given bar graph represents the number of boys and girls in five different schools. read the graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the girls from schools A, B and C taken together to the boys from all schools taken together?

  1. ((a))

    59 : 66

  2. ((b))

    33 : 17

  3. ((c))

    66 : 59

  4. ((d))

    17 : 33

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

17 : 33

Total number of girls from A,B and C = 500 + 550 + 650 = 1700

Total number of boys from all school = 600 + 450 + 750 + 700 + 800 = 3300

⇒ 1700/3300 = 17/33

∴ The required ratio is 17 ∶ 33

138

The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of 450 employees in an organisation. Read the pie chart and answer the question that follows.

What is the central angle of the sector representing the number of employees in department E?

  1. ((a))

    36° 

  2. ((b))

    108°

  3. ((c))

    90°

  4. ((d))

    72°

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

72°

Given:

Total numbers of employee = 450

Concept used :

Central angle = [(Value)/(sum of the total values)] × 360° 

Calculation:

Number of employees in department E = 20% of 450

⇒ Required number = (20 × 450)/ 100

⇒ 90

The central angle of the employees in department E = (90/450) × 360°

⇒ 72° 

∴ The central angle of the employees in department E is 72°

139

When operated separately, pipe A takes 5 hours less than pipe B to fill a cistern, and when operated together, the cistern gets filled in 6 hours. In how much time (in hours) will pipe A fill the cistern, if operated separately?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10

Given:

The cistern gets filled together (A + B) in 6 hours.

Concept used:

Effeciency = 1/(Total time)

Calculation:

Let the time taken by B be X hr.

Work done by B in 1 hr. = 1/X

Now, time taken by A = (X – 5) hr.

So, work done by in 1 hr. = 1/(X – 5) hr.

Again, work done by (A +B) in 1 hr = 1/6

According to the question:

(1/X) + 1/(X – 5) = 1/6

⇒(X – 5 + X)/{X × (X – 5)} = 1/6

⇒ 6(2X – 5) = X2 – 5X

⇒ 12X - 30 = X2 – 5X

⇒ X2 – 5X – 12X + 30 = 0

⇒ X2 – 17X + 30 = 0

⇒ X2 – 15X – 2X + 30 = 0

⇒ X (X – 15) – 2 (X – 15) = 0

⇒ (X – 2) (X – 15) = 0

⇒ X – 2 = 0

⇒ X = 2 (B can never fill the tank in 2 hours because if it fills it in 2 hours that means time taken by A in negative and it is not possible)

Either,

X – 15 = 0

⇒ X = 15

⇒ A = 15 – 5 = 10 hr.

∴ Time taken by A is 10 hr.

140

The given bar graph represents the number of boys and girls in five different schools. Read the graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the average number of students (girls and boys) in schools A, B, C, D and E?

  1. ((a))

    596

  2. ((b))

    1250

  3. ((c))

    625

  4. ((d))

    660

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1250

Concept used:

Average = (Total sum)/(Total numbers)

Calculations:

Total number of girls and boys in school

⇒ 600 +500 + 450 + 550 + 750 + 650 + 700 + 600 + 800 + 650 = 6250

⇒ Average = 6250/5 = 1250

∴ The required average is 1250

141

If the average price of three chairs is Rs. 14,014 and their prices are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 7, then the highest price (in Rs.) of chair is:

  1. ((a))

    15,015

  2. ((b))

    3,003

  3. ((c))

    9,009

  4. ((d))

    21,021

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

21,021

Given:

Average Price of Three Chairs = Rs. 14,014

Ratio of the Prices of three Chairs = 3 : 4 : 7

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of Prices of Articles/ Number of Articles

Concept Used:

Sum of Ratios will be equal to the Sum of Prices of All Chairs

Calculation:

14,014 = Sum of Prices of Chairs/3

⇒ Sum of Prices Of chairs = 14,014 × 3 = 42,042

Sum of Prices of Chairs is also equal to the sum of Ratios given

i.e. 3 + 4 + 7 = 14 Units

⇒ 14 Units = Rs. 42,042

⇒ 1 Unit = 42,042/14 = Rs. 3003

Since, we have to find the Value of Highest Price Chair i.e. 7 Units

⇒ 7 Units = 3003 × 7 = Rs. 21021

∴ The Highest price of Chair is Rs. 21,021

142

The value of 0.325 × 0.325 + 0.175 × 0.175 + 25 × 0.004555 × 0.0065 × 3.25  7 × 0.175 × 0.025 + 0.51.5\frac{0.325 \ \times \ 0.325\ + \ 0.175 \ \times\ 0.175\ + \ 25\ \times \ 0.00455}{5 \ \times \ 0.0065 \ \times \ 3.25\ - \ 7\ \times \ 0.175\ \times\ 0.025}\ + \ \frac{0.5}{1.5} is:

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    73\frac{7}{3}

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    113\frac{11}{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

113\frac{11}{3}

Given:

0.325 × 0.325 + 0.175 × 0.175 + 25 × 0.004555 × 0.0065 × 3.25  7 × 0.175 × 0.025 + 0.51.5\frac{0.325 \ \times \ 0.325\ + \ 0.175 \ \times\ 0.175\ + \ 25\ \times \ 0.00455}{5 \ \times \ 0.0065 \ \times \ 3.25\ - \ 7\ \times \ 0.175\ \times\ 0.025}\ + \ \frac{0.5}{1.5}

Formula Used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

(a2 – b2) = (a + b) (a - b)

Concept Used:

We need to identify the numbers to fit them into the above-stated formula.

Calculation:

Let a = 0.325 and b = 0.175

In the numerator,

25 × 0.00455 = 2 × 0.325 × 0.175 = 2ab

In the denominator,

5 × 0.0065 × 3.25 = (0.325)2 = a2

7 × 0.175 × 0.025 = (0.175)2 = b2

On Comparing Formulas with a given equation we get,

(0.325 + 0.175)2(0.325 + 0.175)(0.325  0.175)+0.51.5⇒ \frac{{{{\left( {0.325\ + \ 0.175} \right)}^2}}}{{\left( {0.325\ +\ 0.175} \right)\left( {0.325\ -\ 0.175} \right)}} + \frac{{0.5}}{{1.5}}

⇒ (0.325+0.175)(0.3250.175)+0.51.5\frac{(0.325 + 0.175)}{(0.325 - 0.175)} + \frac{0.5}{1.5}

=0.50.15+0.51.5= \frac{{0.5}}{{0.15}} + \frac{{0.5}}{{1.5}}

= (5.5)/(1.5)

= 11/3

∴ The simplified Value of this Expression is 11/3

143

If x2 – 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of (x4+1x2)÷(x2+1)(x^4 + \frac{1}{x^2}) \div (x^2+1) is:

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6

Given:

x2 - 3x + 1 = 0

Formula used:

x3 + 1/x3 = (x + 1/x)3 – 3(x + 1/x)

Calculation:

x2 – 3x + 1 = 0

⇒ x2 + 1 = 3x

⇒ x + 1/x = 3

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 = (x + 1/x)3 – 3(x + 1/x)

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 = 27 – 9

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 = 18

Required value = (x4 + 1/x2) ÷ (x2 + 1)

⇒ x(x+ 1/x3) ÷ x(x + 1/x)

⇒ (x3 + 1/x3) ÷ (x + 1/x)

⇒ 18 ÷ 3 = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6

144

The average weight of a group of 3 people A, B and C is 70 kg. When D joins this group, the average becomes 60 kg. E's weight is 5 kg more than that of D, replaces A and the average weight of B, C, D, and E now becomes 59 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of A, D and E? (Correct to the nearest integer)

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

35

Given:

Average weight of A, B and C = 70 kg

Average weight of A, B, C and D = 60 kg

Weight of E = Weight of D + 5 kg

Average Weight of B, C, D and E = 59 kg

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of Values)/(Total Number) 

Calculation:

Sum of weight of A, B and C = 3 × 70 kg = 210 kg

Sum of weight of A, B, C and D = 4 × 60 kg = 240 kg

Weight of D = (Sum of weight of A, B, C and D) – (Sum of weight of A, B, and C)

⇒ Weight of D =  (240 – 210) = 30 kg

Weight of E = 30 kg + 5 kg = 35 kg

Sum of weight of B, C, D and E = 4 × 59 kg = 236 kg

Weight of A = (Sum of weight of A, B, C and D + Weight of E) – (Sum of weight of B, C, D and E)

⇒ Weight of A = 240 kg + 35 kg – 236 kg = 39 kg

Average weight of A, D and E = (Sum of weight of A, D and E)/3 = (39 kg + 30 kg + 35 kg)/3

⇒ Average weight of A, D and E = (104 kg)/3 = 34.66 kg ≈ 35 kg

∴ Average weight of A, D and E is 35 kg.

145

A man spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 28% and his expenditure increases by 20%, then what is the increase or decrease percentage in his savings?

  1. ((a))

    13% increase

  2. ((b))

    52% decrease

  3. ((c))

    13% decrease

  4. ((d))

    52% increase

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

52% increase

Given:

Man spends 75% of his income.

Income increases by 28% 

Expenditure increases by 20%

Concept:

Saving = Income – Expenditure 

Solution:

Let the Income of a man = 100

Expenditure = 75% of 100

⇒ (75/100) × 100 = 75

Saving = Income – Expenditure 

Initial Saving = 100 – 75 = 25      ----(1)

Now as per the question,

His income increased by 28%

⇒ His new income = Old income + 28% of Old income

⇒ His new income = (128/100) × 100 = 128

Similarly, his expenditure increased by 20%

⇒ His new expenditure = (120/100) × 75

⇒ His new expenditure = 90

Saving(new) = Income(new) – Expenditure(new)

⇒ Saving(new) = 128 - 90 = 38      ----(2)

Now, % increase in savings = {(38 – 25)/25} × 100      ----(from 1 and 2)

⇒ 13 × 4 = 52%

∴ The % increase in saving is 52%

Shortcut Trick

IncomeexpenditureSaving
1007525
12875 + 75× 20/100 = 90128 - 90 = 38

 

∴ The % increase in saving = (38 - 25) ×  100/25 = 13 × 4 = 52%

146

A and B can do a piece of work in 36 days. B and C can do the same work in 60 days. A and C can do the same work in 45 days. In how many days can B alone complete the same work?

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

90

Given:

A and B can do a piece of work in 36 days,

B and C can do the same work in 60 days,

A and C can do the same work in 45 days.

Concept used:

Efficiency = 1/(Total time)

Calculation:

(A + B)’s 1 day work = 1/36      ----(i) 

(B + C)’s 1 day work = 1/60      ----(ii) 

(C + A)’s 1 day work = 1/45      ----(iii)

From equations (i), (ii) and (iii),

2(A + B + C)’s 1 day work = 1/36 + 1/60 + 1/45

⇒ (5 + 3 + 4)/180 = 1/15

⇒ (A + B + C)’s 1 day work = 1/(15 × 2) = 1/30      ----(iv)

From equations (iii) and (iv) we get

B’s 1 day work = 1/30 – 1/45 = (3 – 2)/90 = 1/90

Time taken by B alone to complete the work = 90

B alone can complete the same work in 90 days

 Alternate Method

Let us find the LCM of  36, 60 and 45

LCM of 36, 60 and 45 = 180

Let the total work be 180 units. 

A + B can do = 180/36 = 5 units/day      ----(i)

B + C can do = 180/60 = 3 units/day      ----(ii)

C + A can do = 180/45 = 4 units/day      ----(iii) 

Adding the above equations, we get 

2(A + B + C) = 5 + 3 + 4 

⇒ A + B + C = 12/2 = 6      ----(iv)

Subtracting equation (iii) from (iv) 

B = 6 - 4 = 2units/day 

⇒ Time taken by B = 180/2 = 90days

∴ B alone can complete the same work in 90 days

147

A man bought an article and sold it at a gain of 10%. If he had bought the article at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 1,000 more, he would have made a profit of 40%. The earlier selling price of the article (in Rs.) is:

  1. ((a))

    50,000

  2. ((b))

    40,000

  3. ((c))

    55,000

  4. ((d))

    60,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

55,000

Given:

A man sold an article at a gain of 10% and if he had bought the article at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 1000 more, he would have made a profit of 40%.

Formula used:

S.P = C.P × (1 + P%/100)

P = S.P – C.P

P% = (P/C.P) × 100

Where,

S.P = Selling price 

C.P = Cost price 

P = Profit

Calculation:

Let CP be x

Then, SP = 110x/100 = 11x/10

New CP = 80% of x = 80x/100 = 4x/5

Gain = 40%

New SP = 140% of 4x/5 = (140/100) × 4x/5 = 28x/25

According to the question,

(28x/25) – (11x/10) = 1000

⇒ (56x – 55x)/50 = 1000

⇒ x/50 = 1000

⇒ x = Rs. 50,000

Hence, CP = Rs. 50,000

And SP = (11/10) × 50000 = Rs. 55000

The earlier selling price of the article is Rs. 55000

148

Pipes A, B and C can fill an empty tank in (30/7) hours if all the three pipes are opened simultaneously. A and B are filling pipes and C is an emptying pipe. Pipe A can fill the tank in 15 hours and pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. In how long (in hours) can pipe B alone fill the empty tank?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Given:

Pipes A, B and C can fill an empty tank in 30/7 hours

A and B are filling pipes and C is an emptying pipe.

Time taken by A and B together to fill the tank = 15 hours 

Time taken by C to empty the tank alone = 12 hours 

Concept:

Efficiency = 1/(Total time)

Calculation: 

let time taken by B be X hr.

Work done by B in 1 hr = 1/X hr.

Work done by  (A + B – C) in 1 hr = 7/30

According to the question:

⇒ (1/15) + (1/X) – (1/12) = 7/30

⇒ 1/X = (7/30) + (1/12) – (1/15)

⇒ 1/X = (14 + 5 – 4)/60

⇒ 1/X = 15/60

⇒ 1/X = 1/4

⇒ X = 4

∴ Time taken by B is 4 hr.

Alternate Method 

TimeTotal WorkEfficiency
A15604
(-)C12-5
A + B + C30/714

 

A + B + C = 14 (Total Efficiency)

⇒ 4 + B + (-5) = 14

⇒ B = 15

Total work done by B = 60/15 = 4hr

∴ Time taken by B is 4 hr.

149

If x + y + z = 17, xyz = 171 and xy + yz + zx = 111, then the value of (x3+y3+z3+xyz)3\sqrt[3]{{(x^3+y^3+z^3+xyz)}} is:

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    -4

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    -64

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

-4

Given:

x + y + z = 17

xy + yz + zx = 111

xyz = 171 

Concept used:

1.) (x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + zx)

2.) x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z)[x2 + y2 + z2​ – (xy + yz + zx)]

Calculations:

(x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + zx)

⇒ 172 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 × 111

⇒ x2 + y2 + z = 289 – 222

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2  = 67

Using algebraic identity

x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z)[x2 + y2 + z2​ – (xy + yz + zx)]

⇒ x3 + y3 + z3 – 3 × 171 = 17 × (67 – 111)

⇒ x3 + y3 + z3 – 513 = -748

⇒ x3 + y3 + z3 = -748 + 513

⇒ x3 + y3 + z3 = -235

(x3+y3+z3+xyz)3\sqrt[3]{{(x^3+y^3+z^3+xyz)}} = ∛(-235 + 171)

⇒ -4

∴ The correct answer is -4

150

The value of ;(514;÷;3;7of;12)÷(519778;÷;9920)×1121(5÷2;of12);\left( {5\frac{1}{{4;}} \div ;\frac{{3;}}{7}of;\frac{1}{2}} \right) \div \left( {5\frac{1}{9} - 7\frac{7}{{8;}} \div ;9\frac{9}{{20}}} \right) \times \frac{{11}}{{21}} - \left( {5 \div 2;of\frac{1}{2}} \right)is:

  1. ((a))

    3524\frac{35}{24}

  2. ((b))

    1528\frac{15}{28}

  3. ((c))

    -2

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

-2

Given:

;(514;÷;3;7of;12)÷(519778;÷;9920)×1121(5÷2;of12);\left( {5\frac{1}{{4;}} ÷ ;\frac{{3;}}{7}of;\frac{1}{2}} \right) ÷ \left( {5\frac{1}{9} - 7\frac{7}{{8;}} ÷ ;9\frac{9}{{20}}} \right) × \frac{{11}}{{21}} - \left( {5 ÷ 2;of\frac{1}{2}} \right)

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

;(514;÷;3;7of;12)÷(519778;÷;9920)×1121(5÷2;of12);\left( {5\frac{1}{{4;}} ÷ ;\frac{{3;}}{7}of;\frac{1}{2}} \right) ÷ \left( {5\frac{1}{9} - 7\frac{7}{{8;}} ÷ ;9\frac{9}{{20}}} \right) × \frac{{11}}{{21}} - \left( {5 ÷ 2;of\frac{1}{2}} \right)

⇒ [(21/4) ÷ (3/14)] ÷ [(46/9) – (63/8) ÷ (189/20)] × 11/21 – (5 ÷ 1)

⇒ [(21/4) × (14/3)] ÷ [(46/9) – (63/8) × (20/189)] × 11/21 – 5

⇒ (49/2) ÷ [(46/9 – 5/6)] × (11/21) – 5

⇒ (49/2) ÷ [(92 – 15)/18] × (11/21) – 5

⇒ (49/2) ÷ (77/18) × (11/21) – 5

⇒ (49/2 × 18/77 × 11/21) – 5

⇒ 3 – 5

⇒ –2

∴ The value of ? is –2.

English Comprehension (50 questions)

151

Select the most appropriate antonym of the below word.

DEPREDATION

  1. ((a))

    plunder

  2. ((b))

    devastation

  3. ((c))

    construction

  4. ((d))

    pillage

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

construction

The correct answer is "Construction."

Key Points

  • The word 'depredation' refers to the act of attacking or plundering, causing widespread destruction. ("लूटपाट".)
  • For example, the depredation of the invading army left the village in ruins.
  • The word 'construction' means the act of building something. ("निर्माण".)
  • For example, the construction of the new bridge brought much-needed connectivity to the remote village.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

  • 'plunder,' means to steal goods, typically using force and in a time of disorder. ("लूट").
  • 'devastation,' means severe and widespread damage or destruction. ("विनाश").
  • 'pillage,' means to rob using violence, especially during wartime. ("लूटपाट").
152

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.

I had to hold on to the wall to steady itself or I could have fallen.

  1. ((a))

    I had to hold on

  2. ((b))

    to the wall

  3. ((c))

    to steady itself

  4. ((d))

    could have fallen

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

to steady itself

The correct answer is- to steady itself​​.

Key Points

  • Reflexive pronouns are words ending in -self or -selves that are used when the subject and the object of a sentence are the same.
  • The nine English reflexive pronouns are:
  • myself, yourself, himself, herself, oneself, itself, ourselves, yourselves, and themselves.
  • Example: 
  • Jack decided to reward himself with a dinner out.
  • As the personal pronoun 'I' has been used in the former part of the sentence, 'myself' will replace 'itself' in the 3rd option.​

Correct sentence- I had to hold on to the wall to steady myself or I could have fallen.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  

  • Reflexive pronouns do not work as the main subject but the subject pronoun does.
  • Example:
  • Myself will conduct today’s meeting. (incorrect)
  • I will conduct today’s meeting. (correct)

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Necessity, they say, is the mother of invention. Dr Burjor P Banaji, pioneer of Lasik surgery in India has (1)______ over a dozen surgical instruments. When (2)______ senior eye surgeon at Max Eye Care started Lasik, there were (3)______ surgeons doing it worldwide and no (4)______ instruments were available either. "As I want things (5)______, I designed a whole slew of instruments that made my surgery more efficient," says Banaji.

153

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

  1. ((a))

    those

  2. ((b))

    the

  3. ((c))

    they

  4. ((d))

    these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

the

The correct answer is- the​.

Key Points​​

  • ​Articles are words that define a noun as specific or unspecific.
  • The definite article 'the' is used with the name of things that are unique or already mentioned before.
  • The article 'a' is used with the name of things that are not specific.
  • The article 'an' is used with the words having the first letter as a vowel and having the sound of a vowel.
  • In the part given in the 3rd option, the article 'the' will be used before the adjective 'senior' as the name of the given doctor is already mentioned before in the cloze test.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  ​​

  • Any abbreviation having the sound of a vowel will be preceded by the article 'an'.
  • For example:
  • He is a MLA.

  • He is an MLA.

154

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

MUSTER

  1. ((a))

    Disperse

  2. ((b))

    Convene

  3. ((c))

    Assemble

  4. ((d))

    Mobilize

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Disperse

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Muster" means to gather together or assemble, especially for inspection or in preparation for battle or an event. (इकट्ठा करना)
  • Example: The general mustered his troops for the upcoming battle.
  • "Disperse" refers to the action of distributing or spreading over a wide area; to go or move in different directions. (छितराना)
  • Example: The police ordered the crowd to disperse after the protest.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Muster' is 'Disperse'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Convene (आमंत्रित करना): To come together or assemble, usually for a formal meeting.
  • Example: The board will convene next week to discuss the new policy.
  • Assemble (इकट्ठा होना): To gather together in one place for a common purpose.
  • Example: The students assembled in the auditorium for the morning assembly.
  • Mobilize (सक्रिय करना): To prepare and organize troops for active service.
  • Example: The government decided to mobilize the army in response to the crisis.
155

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

GAUDY

  1. ((a))

    simple

  2. ((b))

    plain

  3. ((c))

    proper

  4. ((d))

    flashy

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

flashy

The correct answer is 'flashy'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given word and marked option:
  • Gaudy- extravagantly bright or showy, typically so as to be tasteless.(असाधारण रूप से उज्ज्वल या दिखावटी, आमतौर पर बेस्वाद होने के लिए)
  • Flashy- ostentatiously attractive or impressive.(दिखावटी रूप से आकर्षक या प्रभावशाली)

 

Additional Information 

  • ​Let's look at the meanings of the other given options:
  • Simple- easily understood or done; presenting no difficulty.(आसानी से समझा या किया हुआ; कोई कठिनाई पेश नहीं)
  • Plain- not decorated or elaborate; simple or ordinary in character.(सजाया या विस्तृत नहीं; स्वभाव में सरल या साधारण)
  • Proper- truly what something is said or regarded to be; genuine.(वास्तव में क्या कुछ कहा या माना जाता है; असली)
  • ​Hence from the given meanings, we find that gaudy and flashy are synonyms.
156

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.

One of the proposals received by us seem very interesting.

  1. ((a))

    seem very interesting

  2. ((b))

    received by us

  3. ((c))

    the proposals

  4. ((d))

    One of

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

seem very interesting

The correct answer is- seem very interesting.

Key Points

  • ​​'One of/only one of' is always followed by a noun/pronoun in the plural form and verb in the singular form.
  • For example:
  • One of my friends are a dancer.

  • One of my friends is a dancer.

  • As per the rule and example given above, 'seems' will replace 'seem' in the 1st option.

Correct Sentence: One of the proposals received by us seems very interesting.

 

  

  • ​If a subject and a verb are joined by a relative pronoun, the verb will agree with the antecedent to the relative pronoun.
  • Example:
  • He is one of those men who trust everybody whom he socializes with.
157

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

______ of our success depends on our own efforts.

  1. ((a))

    Few

  2. ((b))

    Many

  3. ((c))

    Less

  4. ((d))

    Much

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Much

The correct answer is- Much.

Key Points

  • ​An adjective is any member of a class of words that modify nouns and pronouns.
  • ​Let's have a look at the meanings of the given adjectives:
  • Few- a small number of
  • Many- a large number of
  • Less- a smaller amount of; not as much
  • Much- a great amount or quantity of
  • The adjectives 'few' and 'many' are used with plural countable nouns.
  • The adjectives 'less' and 'much' are used with uncountable nouns.
  • Since the noun 'success' is an uncountable noun, the adjective 'much' is an appropriate choice as 'less' doesn't fit in as per the context.

Correct Sentence: Much of our success depends on our own efforts.

Additional Information  ​

  • ​​Let's look at the difference between the following adjectives:
  • few- hardly any. (used in a negative sense)
  • a few- some but not many.
  • the few- not many but all that is available.
  • All of these adjectives are used with plural countable nouns.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

Greek religious traditions encompassed a large pantheon of gods, complex mythologies, rituals, and cult practices. Greece was a polytheistic society and looked to its gods and mythology to explain natural mysteries as well as current events. Religious festivals and ceremonies were held throughout the year, and animal sacrifice and votive offerings were popular ways to appease and worship the gods. Religious life, rituals, and practices were one of the unifying aspects of Greece across regions and poleis (cities, or city-states, such as Athens and Sparta).

Greek gods were immortal beings who possessed human-like qualities and were represented as completely human in visual art. They were moral and immoral, petty and just, and often vain. The gods were invoked to intervene and assist in all matters large, small, private, and public.

City-states claimed individual gods and goddesses as their patrons. Temples and sanctuaries to the gods were built in every city. Many cities became cult sites due to their connection with a god or goddess and specific myths. For instance, the city of Delphi was known for its oracle and sanctuary of Apollo, because Apollo was believed to have killed a dragon that inhabited Delphi.

The history of the Greek pantheon begins with the primordial deities Gaia (Mother Earth) and Uranus (Father Sky), who were the parents of the first of twelve giants known as Titans. Among these Titans were six males and six females. The males were named Oceanus, Hyperion, Coeus, Crius, Iapetus, and Kronos. The females were named Themis, Mnemosyne, Tethys, Theia, Phoebe, and Rhea.

Kronos eventually overthrew Uranus and ruled during a mythological Golden Age. Over time, he and Rhea had twelve children who would become the Olympian gods. However, Kronos heard a prophecy that his son would overthrow him, as he did to Uranus. In an effort to avert fate, he ordered Rhea to allow him to devour each of the children upon their birth. Best known among the pantheon are the twelve Olympian gods and goddesses who resided on Mt. Olympus in northern Greece. Zeus, the youngest son of Rhea and Kronos, was hidden from his father, instead of being swallowed. Once he became a man, he challenged his father’s rule, forcing Kronos to regurgitate the rest of his swallowed children. These children were Zeus’s siblings, and together they overthrew Kronos, making Zeus the father of gods and men.

158

How did Zeus bring back his siblings?

  1. ((a))

    by making Kronos vomit the swallowed children

  2. ((b))

    by worshipping the sanctuary of Apollo

  3. ((c))

    by reviving them with an elixir

  4. ((d))

    by challenging and slaying Crius

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

by making Kronos vomit the swallowed children

The correct answer is- by making Kronos vomit the swallowed children​​​.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the last and the 2nd last sentence from the 5th paragraph:
  • "Once he became a man, he challenged his father’s rule, forcing Kronos to regurgitate the rest of his swallowed children. These children were Zeus’s siblings, and together they overthrew Kronos, making Zeus the father of gods and men."
  • ​Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that Zeus brought back his siblings by making Kronos vomit the swallowed children​​​.
159

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

REVIVE

  1. ((a))

    arouse

  2. ((b))

    console

  3. ((c))

    ruin

  4. ((d))

    renew

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ruin

The correct answer is: ruin.

Key Points

  • The word "revive" means to bring back to life, consciousness, or activity; to restore. (पुनर्जीवित करना)
  • Example: The doctor managed to revive the patient who had fainted.
  • "Ruin" refers to causing great and often irreparable damage or harm to something; to destroy. (बर्बाद करना)
  • Example: The heavy rains ruined the crops.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'revive' is 'ruin'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ruin.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Arouse (जगाना): To evoke or awaken a feeling, emotion, or response.
  • Example: The movie aroused a lot of emotions in the audience.
  • Console (सांत्वना देना): To comfort someone at a time of grief or disappointment.
  • Example: She tried to console her friend after the loss of her pet.
  • Renew (नवीनीकरण करना): To resume an activity after an interruption; to re-establish.
  • Example: They decided to renew their wedding vows on their anniversary.
160

Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words.

A large bedroom for a number of people in an institution

  1. ((a))

    dormitory

  2. ((b))

    auditorium

  3. ((c))

    chamber

  4. ((d))

    apartment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

dormitory

The correct answer is - dormitory.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • dormitory- a large bedroom for a number of people in a school or institution
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • auditorium- the part of a theater, concert hall, or other public building in which the audience sits
  • chamber- a large room used for formal or public events
  • apartment- a suite of rooms forming one residence, typically in a building containing a number of these
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that dormitory is the correct one-word substitute.
161

Direction: Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    pursue

  2. ((b))

    vicious

  3. ((c))

    tyrrany

  4. ((d))

    resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

tyrrany

The correct answer is - tyrrany.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct spelling and meaning of the marked option:
  • tyranny- government by a ruler or small group of people who have unlimited power over the people in their country or state and use it unfairly and cruelly
  • Example: 
  • This, the president promised us, was a war against tyranny.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options:
  • pursue- follow (someone or something) in order to catch or attack them
  • vicious- deliberately cruel or violent
  • resistance- the refusal to accept or comply with something; the attempt to prevent something by action or argument

  • Tyranny- शासक या छोटे समूह के लोगों द्वारा सरकार, जिनके देश या राज्य में लोगों के पास असीमित शक्ति है और इसका इस्तेमाल गलत और क्रूरता से करते हैं
  • Pursue- उन्हें पकड़ने या हमला करने के लिए (किसी या कुछ) का पालन करें
  • Vicious- जानबूझकर क्रूर या हिंसक
  • Resistance- किसी चीज को स्वीकार या अनुपालन करने से इनकार; कार्रवाई या तर्क द्वारा कुछ को रोकने का प्रयास
162

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    commotion

  2. ((b))

    cammosion

  3. ((c))

    camotion

  4. ((d))

    comosion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

commotion

The correct answer is - commotion.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct spelling and meaning of the marked option:
  • commotion- a sudden, short period of noise, confusion, or exciting movement
  • Example: 
  • His arrival caused quite a commotion.
163

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Make one’s mark

  1. ((a))

    leave a clue

  2. ((b))

    attain recognition

  3. ((c))

    claim a right

  4. ((d))

    sign a deal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

attain recognition

The correct answer is- attain recognition.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Make one’s mark- attain recognition or distinction
  • Example: 
  • It took four years of struggle before we managed to make our mark.

​ ​​​​

Additional Information  

  • Let's look at the origin of the idiom:
  • This expression transfers a written or printed symbol to a strong impression.
164

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

MENACE

  1. ((a))

    peril

  2. ((b))

    threat

  3. ((c))

    comfort

  4. ((d))

    balance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

comfort

The correct answer is: Comfort.

Key Points

  • The word "menace" means a person or thing that is likely to cause harm; a threat or danger. (खतरा)
  • Example: The escaped convict was considered a menace to society.
  • "Comfort" refers to a state of physical ease and freedom from pain or constraint. (सुकून)
  • Example: After a long day at work, she found comfort in reading her favorite book.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'menace' is 'comfort'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Comfort.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Peril (खतरा): Serious and immediate danger.
  • Example: The climbers faced great peril as they ascended the mountain.
  • Threat (धमकी): A statement of an intention to inflict pain, injury, damage, or other hostile action.
  • Example: The threat of a storm caused the event to be postponed.
  • Balance (संतुलन): An even distribution of weight enabling someone or something to remain upright and steady.
  • Example: She lost her balance and fell off the beam.
165

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.

You cannot lead a healthy life although you stop smoking.

  1. ((a))

    a healthy life

  2. ((b))

    although you

  3. ((c))

    stop smoking

  4. ((d))

    You cannot lead

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

although you

The correct answer is- although you​.

Key Points​​

  • A conjunction is a word which is used to connect clauses or sentences or to coordinate words in the same clause.
  • When the 'although/though' clause comes after the main clause, it can also mean 'but it is also true that'.
  • Unless is used in the context of a precondition and means if this condition is not met.
  • The clause followed by unless/until is always positive as unless/until are negative conjunctions.
  • Example:
  • Karan is coming to stay next week although I’m not sure what day she is coming.
  • I will not go there unless I am free.
  • As per the possible context of the sentence, one has to quit smoking to lead a healthy life.
  • In the given scenario, the conjunction 'until' would serve the intended meaning better than the conjunction 'Although'.

​Thus the correct sentence is: You cannot lead a healthy life until you stop smoking.

​​​​

Additional Information

  • ​​The conjunction 'so...that' can be used instead of 'too...to' as given below:
  • She is too clumsy to handle glassware carefully.
  • ​She is so clumsy that she can't handle glassware carefully.
166

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

SUMPTUOUS

  1. ((a))

    Bereft

  2. ((b))

    Meager

  3. ((c))

    Stingy

  4. ((d))

    Opulent

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Opulent

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Opulent.

Key Points

  • The word "sumptuous" means extremely costly, rich, luxurious, or magnificent. (शानदार)
  • Example: The banquet was a sumptuous feast, with an array of delicacies from around the world.
  • "Opulent" refers to something that is ostentatiously rich and luxurious or lavish. (समृद्ध)
  • Example: The opulent mansion was adorned with crystal chandeliers and marble floors.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'sumptuous' is 'opulent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Opulent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Bereft (विहीन): Deprived of or lacking something.
  • Example: After the storm, the village was bereft of electricity for several days.
  • Meager (अल्प): Lacking in quantity or quality; insufficient.
  • Example: The charity's meager resources were stretched thin during the crisis.
  • Stingy (कंजूस): Unwilling to spend money; miserly.
  • Example: Despite his wealth, he was known to be stingy with his donations.
167

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.

I was sorry to be hearing of his misfortune.

  1. ((a))

    sorry to

  2. ((b))

    of his misfortune

  3. ((c))

    I was

  4. ((d))

    be hearing

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

be hearing

The correct answer is - be hearing​.

Key Points

  • The simple present tense is used when an action is happening right now, to state or ask about things in general, or when it happens regularly or unceasingly.
  • The structure is given below:
  • Subject + V1 + object.
  • The verb will take 's/es' if the given noun/pronoun (3rd person) is singular.
  • Example:
  • ​He plays badminton daily.
  • Certain verbs used only in the simple present tense are given below:
  • ​verbs of perception (see, hear, smell, etc.), think, know, has/have, possess, like, want, desire, hate, seem, imagine, etc.
  • Example:
  • ​My brother is owning a car. (incorrect)
  • ​My brother owns a car. (correct)
  • We have a verb that shows perception, the verb 'hear' will replace 'be hearing' in the 4th option.

Correct Sentence: I was sorry to hear of his misfortune.

168

Which of the following statements about Greek Gods is NOT true?

  1. ((a))

    Some of them were immoral, petty and vain.

  2. ((b))

    Greek Gods were mortals.

  3. ((c))

    They possessed human qualities.

  4. ((d))

    They were invoked to aid in all matters.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Greek Gods were mortals.

The correct answer is- Greek Gods were mortals.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the 1st sentence from the 2nd paragraph:
  • "Greek gods were immortal beings who possessed human-like qualities and were represented as completely human in visual art."
  • ​Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that Greek Gods were immortals.
169

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The mare hurt its hooves when running to the forest.

  1. ((a))

    while running through

  2. ((b))

    with running across

  3. ((c))

    No substitution required

  4. ((d))

    when running into

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

while running through

The correct answer is- while running through​.

Key Points

  • ​Let's understand the difference between the adverbs given below:
  • When- at or on which (referring to a time or circumstance)
  • While- during the time that; at the same time as
  • We use 'while' with two continuous actions and 'when' with two single actions.
  • Example:
  • He was playing while I was studying. (two continuous actions)
  • I picked up the phone when it rang.​ (two single actions)
  • Since two events are taking place simultaneously (the mare getting hurt and running), 'while' will be used in the underlined part.

Correct Sentence: The mare hurt its hooves while running through the forest.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  ​​

  • ​Let's understand the difference between the adverbs given below:
  • Hard- With a great amount of effort.
  • Hardly- scarcely (used to qualify a statement by saying that it is true to an insignificant degree).
  • For example:
  • He hard does any work*.*

  • He hardly does any work.

170

Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words.

The dates when days and nights are of equal length

  1. ((a))

    equinox

  2. ((b))

    solstice

  3. ((c))

    eclipse

  4. ((d))

    stellar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

equinox

The correct answer is - equinox.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • equinox- the time or date (twice each year) at which the sun crosses the celestial equator, when day and night are of approximately equal length (about September 22 and March 20)
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • solstice- the time or date (twice each year) at which the sun reaches its maximum or minimum declination, marked by the longest and shortest days (about June 21 and December 22)
  • eclipse- an obscuring of the light from one celestial body by the passage of another between it and the observer or between it and its source of illumination
  • stellar- relating to a star or stars
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that equinox is the correct one-word substitute.
171

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’

The forecast predicts that there will be little rain in the month of July.

  1. ((a))

    must be a little rain

  2. ((b))

    would be few rain

  3. ((c))

    should be many rain

  4. ((d))

    No substitution required

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

No substitution required

The correct answer is- No substitution required​.

Key Points​​

  • ​Let's look at the difference between the following adjectives:
  • little- hardly any. (used in a negative sense)
  • a little- some but not much.
  • the little- not much but all that is available.
  • All of these adjectives are used with uncountable nouns.
  • Whereas the adjectives 'few' and 'many' are used with plural countable nouns.
  • As 'rain' is an uncountable noun, 'little' will be used in the underlined part of the sentence.
  • The modal verb 'must' is inappropriate as a prediction may be true or false.
  • Thus the 4th option will be the correct choice.

​Correct Sentence: The forecast predicts that there will be little rain in the month of July.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  ​​

  • ​​Let's look at the difference between the following adjectives:
  • few- hardly any. (used in a negative sense)
  • a few- some but not many.
  • the few- not many but all that is available.
  • All of these adjectives are used with plural countable nouns.
172

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Kith and kin

  1. ((a))

    family relations

  2. ((b))

    colleagues

  3. ((c))

    distant enemies

  4. ((d))

    neighbours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

family relations

The correct answer is- family relations.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Kith and kin- friends and relatives
  • Example: 
  • It certainly did not differ in kind from the attitudes displayed by the rest of his kith and kin.

​ ​​​​

Additional Information  

  • Let's look at the origin of the idiom:
  • Kith comes from a word of Germanic origin meaning 'known'.
  • Kin is also of Germanic origin, from an Indo-European root meaning 'give birth to'.
173

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.

She has been working tirelessly since hours.

  1. ((a))

    been working

  2. ((b))

    She has

  3. ((c))

    since hours

  4. ((d))

    tirelessly

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

since hours

The correct answer is- since hours​​.

Key Points

  • The present perfect continuous is a verb tense that shows something which started in the past and is continuing at the present time.
  • The structure is given below:
  • Subject + has/have been + V1 + -ing + since/for + object.
  • Since is used for a point of time (1982, last month, etc.) whereas for is used for any duration (4 days, 6 months, etc.).
  • Example:
  • ​He has been walking for two hours.

Correct Sentence: She has been working tirelessly for hours.

174

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Every year the family goes for a pilgrim to the temple at Tirupathi.

  1. ((a))

    at the pilgrim

  2. ((b))

    from the pilgrimage

  3. ((c))

    on a pilgrimage

  4. ((d))

    No substitution required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

on a pilgrimage

The correct answer is- on a pilgrimage​.

Key Points

  • ​Let's understand the difference between the adverbs given below:
  • pilgrim- a person who journeys to a sacred place for religious reasons
  • pilgrimage- a journey to a place associated with someone or something well known or respected
  • For example:
  • He went on a pilgrim to Varanasi last year*.*

  • He went on a pilgrimage to Varanasi last year.

  • As per the context of the sentence, the above-mentioned family goes on a religious visit to Tirupathi every year.
  • Hence in the underlined part of the given question, 'on a pilgrimage' will be the correct choice.

Correct Sentence: Every year the family goes on a pilgrimage to the temple at Tirupathi.

175

Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words.

Harsh or discordant sound

  1. ((a))

    monotony

  2. ((b))

    harmony

  3. ((c))

    cacophony

  4. ((d))

    symphony

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

cacophony

The correct answer is - cacophony.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • cacophony- a harsh discordant mixture of sounds
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • monotony- lack of variety and interest; tedious repetition and routine
  • harmony- the quality of forming a pleasing and consistent whole
  • symphony- an elaborate musical composition for full orchestra, typically in four movements, at least one of which is traditionally in sonata form
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that cacophony is the correct one-word substitute.
176

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    vengance

  2. ((b))

    wengence

  3. ((c))

    vengeance

  4. ((d))

    wengeance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

vengeance

The correct answer is - vengeance.

Key Points

  • Among all the given options, vengeance is correctly spelt.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • vengeance- punishment inflicted or retribution exacted for an injury or wrong
  • Example:
  • On the day after the terrorist attack, the overall mood in the town was one of vengeance.
177

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Rise to the occasion

  1. ((a))

    Take a big risk in order to succeed

  2. ((b))

    Assess a critical situation carefully

  3. ((c))

    Show you can deal with a situation successfully

  4. ((d))

    Challenge an opponent who is strong

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Show you can deal with a situation successfully

The correct answer is- Show you can deal with a situation successfully.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Rise to the occasion- perform better than usual in response to a special situation or event
  • Example: ​In the exam, she rose to the occasion and wrote a brilliant essay.

Hence, the correct choice is option 3.​​​​

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the origin of the idiom:
  • The meaning of the given idiom is evident from the prominent words used in it i.e. Rise & occasion.
178

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Pocket an insult

  1. ((a))

    bear an insult quietly

  2. ((b))

    resent an affront

  3. ((c))

    express true feelings

  4. ((d))

    plan a revenge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bear an insult quietly

The correct answer is- bear an insult quietly.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Pocket an insult- to receive an affront without open resentment, or without seeking redress
  • Example: 
  • When her friend insulted her she pocketed this insult.
179

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

A large swarm of dogs was blocking the way.

  1. ((a))

    pack of

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    herd of

  4. ((d))

    school of

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pack of

The correct answer is - pack of​.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • pack- a group of wild animals, especially wolves or dogs, living and hunting together
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • swarm- a large or dense group of insects, especially flying ones
  • herd- a large group of animals, especially hoofed mammals, that live, feed, or migrate together or are kept together as livestock
  • school- a large group of fish or sea mammals
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that pack is the correct collective noun for 'dogs'.

Correct sentence: A large pack of dogs was blocking the way.

Additional Information

  • Collective nouns take a singular verb with them.
  • For example:
  • The herd of cows are grazing in the farms.

  • The herd of cows is grazing in the farms.

  • If there is a division among the members of the collective noun, a plural verb and plural pronoun are used.
  • Example:
  • The audience have been arguing inside the theatre for an hour.
180

Kronos devoured his children at birth because:

  1. ((a))

    he was a titan who hated children

  2. ((b))

    it was a cult practice to please the gods

  3. ((c))

    his son was predicted to overthrow him

  4. ((d))

    he did not have faith in his wife

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

his son was predicted to overthrow him

The correct answer is- his son was predicted to overthrow him​.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the 3rd and the 4th sentence from the 5th paragraph:
  • "However, Kronos heard a prophecy that his son would overthrow him, as he did to Uranus. In an effort to avert fate, he ordered Rhea to allow him to devour each of the children upon their birth."
  • ​Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that Kronos devoured his children at birth as his son was predicted to overthrow him​.
181

Directions: Four words have been given and one of these words is correctly spelt. Identify the word with the correct spelling and mark the answer.

  1. ((a))

    momentery

  2. ((b))

    momentary

  3. ((c))

    mommentary

  4. ((d))

    momentory

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

momentary

The correct answer is - momentary.

Key Points

  • Among all the given options, momentary is correctly spelt.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • momentary- lasting for a very short time
  • Example:
  • The familiar vision of a central self should be replaced with that of an emergent self that is both momentary and developing.

Hinglish

  • सभी दिए गए विकल्पों में से momentary सही वर्तनी है।
  • आइए चिह्नित विकल्प का अर्थ देखें:
  • Momentary - बहुत कम समय तक चलने वाला
182

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’

Have either of you been to the planetarium before?

  1. ((a))

    Have everyone

  2. ((b))

    Has either

  3. ((c))

    Has both

  4. ((d))

    No substitution required

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Has either

The correct answer is- Has either​.

Key Points

  • 'Neither/either' is used when we have to choose between the two options.
  • Whereas 'None/one' is used when we have to choose between more than two options.
  • For example:
  • Either of the 15 students is not present today.

  • One of the 15 students is not present today.

  • The adjectives 'neither/none' are used when the speaker is certain of something.
  • In case of uncertainty, the adjectives 'either/one' will be used.
  • ​​'One/either/neither of' is always followed by a noun/pronoun in the plural form and a verb in the singular form.
  • Thus the auxiliary verb will be singular i.e. Has.
  • In the underlined part of the given question, 'Has either' will be used as the speaker is uncertain or unconvinced.

Correct Sentence: Has either of you been to the planetarium before?

 ​​​​

Additional Information  

  • If the main subject is followed by the following words/phrases, the verb/noun/pronoun used will be singular:
  • Each, every/everyone, someone/somebody, none/ nobody, one, any, many a, more than one, etc.​​
  • For example:
  • Many a leaders are doing their work properly.

  • Many a leader is doing his work properly.

183

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

______ you deserve credit for the success of the show.

  1. ((a))

    No less

  2. ((b))

    Such that

  3. ((c))

    None but

  4. ((d))

    Only if

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

None but

The correct answer is**-** None but.

Key Points

  • ​In a sentence, the verb is used according to person and number.
  • If the main subject is followed by the following words/phrases, the verb will conform to the nearest subject:
  • Neither-nor, either-or, not only-but also, none but, nor, or, etc.​
  • For example:
  • ​Either Sam or Eric are coming to the wedding.

  • ​Either Sam or Eric is coming to the wedding.

  • In the blank part of the given question, 'None but' will be used as none of the other options makes sense.

Correct Sentence: None but you deserve credit for the success of the show.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  ​

  • If an article is placed just before the 1st subject only, it means the person/thing is the same for which two nouns are used. Hence singular verb will be used.
  • Example:
  • Jawaharlal Nehru was a great orator and articulate politician of his time.
184

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

  1. ((a))

    punitive

  2. ((b))

    prolific

  3. ((c))

    popular

  4. ((d))

    perfect

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

perfect

The correct answer is - perfect.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given words:
  • punitive- inflicting or intended as punishment
  • prolific- (of a plant, animal, or person) producing much fruit or foliage or many offspring
  • popular- liked, admired, or enjoyed by many people or by a particular person or group
  • perfect- having all the required or desirable elements, qualities, or characteristics; as good as it is possible to be
  • As per the given sentence of the cloze test, Dr. Burjor P Banaji wanted his instruments to be flawless/impeccable.
  • In the current scenario, the adjective 'perfect' is the correct choice in the given blank.
185

Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words.

Arrangement of events according to the dates of occurrence

  1. ((a))

    analogy

  2. ((b))

    chronology

  3. ((c))

    trilogy

  4. ((d))

    theology

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

chronology

The correct answer is - chronology.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • chronology- the arrangement of events or dates in the order of their occurrence
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • analogy- a comparison between two things, typically for the purpose of explanation or clarification
  • trilogy- a group of three related novels, plays, films, operas, or albums
  • theology- the study of the nature of God and religious belief
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that chronology is the correct one-word substitute.
186

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

Eggs are sold ______ the dozen.

  1. ((a))

    at

  2. ((b))

    to

  3. ((c))

    by

  4. ((d))

    in

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

by

The correct answer is- by.

Key Points

  • ​There are some fixed prepositional phrases given below:
  • ​by the dint of, out of jealousy, in danger, by the dozen, owing to, on a trip, for a change, etc.
  • For example:
  • ​I went on a trip to Goa last month.
  • ​Hence according to the phrases given above, the preposition 'by' will be the correct choice.

Correct Sentence: Eggs are sold by the dozen.

Additional Information

  • There are some verbs/nouns/adjectives which are followed by fixed preposition given below:
  • ​Exonerate from, refrain from, suspicious of, interested in, inured to, accused of, predilection for, respite from, vexed at, etc.
  • Example:
  • After spending some time on the island they became inured to the hardships.
187

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

DESPISE

  1. ((a))

    Adore

  2. ((b))

    Admire

  3. ((c))

    Abhor

  4. ((d))

    Approve

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Abhor

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "DESPISE" means to feel contempt or a deep repugnance for someone or something. (घृणा करना)
  • Example: She despises dishonesty and always values truthfulness.
  • "Abhor" refers to regard with disgust and hatred. (घृणा करना)
  • Example: He abhors violence in any form and always advocates for peace.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'DESPISE' is 'Abhor'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Adore (पूजा करना): To love and respect someone deeply.
  • Example: She adores her grandmother and visits her every weekend.
  • Admire (प्रशंसा करना): To regard with respect or warm approval.
  • Example: I admire his dedication to his work.
  • Approve (मंजूरी देना): To officially agree to or accept as satisfactory.
  • Example: The committee will approve the budget next week.
188

Directions: Choose the correct form of adjective for the given sentence:

______ of living life on his own terms, he made few compromises.

  1. ((a))

    Desired

  2. ((b))

    Desirous

  3. ((c))

    Desiring

  4. ((d))

    Desire

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Desirous

The correct answer is- Desirous.

Key Points

  • ​An adjective is any member of a class of words that modify nouns and pronouns.
  • ​Let's have a look at the meaning of the root verb:
  • Desire- strongly wish for or want (something)
  • The words given in all of the options are various verb forms except the 2nd option i.e. Desirous.
  • The word 'desirous' is an adjective which means having or characterized by desire. It is always followed by the preposition 'of'.
  • Example:
  • The Pope was desirous of peace in Europe​.
  • Thus in the given blank, we need an adjective i.e. Desirous to qualify the noun i.e. life.

Correct Sentence: Desirous of living life on his own terms, he made few compromises.

Additional Information  

  • ​The following adjectives are always followed by 'to' and not 'than':
  • Junior, senior, superior, inferior, prior, prefer/preferable, anterior, posterior.
  • For example:
  • My sister is junior than me.

  • My sister is junior to me.

189

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Strike when the iron is hot

  1. ((a))

    wait patiently for the results

  2. ((b))

    sort out differences promptly

  3. ((c))

    grab a favourable opportunity promptly

  4. ((d))

    torture someone with a hot iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

grab a favourable opportunity promptly

The correct answer is- grab a favourable opportunity promptly.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Strike when the iron is hot- to take advantage of an opportunity as soon as it exists, in case the opportunity goes away and does not return
  • Example: 
  • He doesn't often make such offers - I'd strike while the iron is hot if I were you.

​ ​​​​

Additional Information  

  • Let's look at the origin of the idiom:
  • The phrase comes from a profession where a blacksmith strikes iron while it is hot to be able to mould it to his advantage.
190

Direction: Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    beguile

  2. ((b))

    bemoan

  3. ((c))

    bereave

  4. ((d))

    beseige

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

beseige

The correct answer is - beseige.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct spelling and meaning of the marked option:
  • besiege- to surround a place, especially with an army, to prevent people or supplies getting in or out
  • Example: 
  • The town had been besieged for two months but still resisted the aggressors.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options:
  • beguile- charm or enchant (someone), sometimes in a deceptive way
  • bemoan- express discontent or sorrow over (something)
  • bereave- be deprived of a loved one through a profound absence, especially due to the loved one's death

  • Besiege- किसी स्थान को घेरना, विशेष रूप से सेना के साथ, लोगों को रोकने या अंदर जाने के लिए
  • Beguile- आकर्षण या जादू (किसी), कभी-कभी भ्रामक तरीके से
  • Bemoan- (कुछ) पर असंतोष या दुःख व्यक्त करना
  • Bereave अभावों से वंचित रह जाना, विशेषकर प्रियजन की मृत्यु के कारण
191

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. ((a))

    founded

  2. ((b))

    invented

  3. ((c))

    recovered

  4. ((d))

    discovered

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

invented

The correct answer is - invented.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given words:
  • founded- establish or originate (an institution or organization), especially by providing an endowment
  • invented- create or design (something that has not existed before); be the originator of
  • recovered- return to a normal state of health, mind, or strength
  • discovered- find (something or someone) unexpectedly or in the course of a search
  • As per the first two lines of the cloze test, Dr. Burjor P Banaji created/made more than a dozen surgical instruments.
  • In the current scenario, the verb 'invented' is the correct choice in the given blank.
192

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

  1. ((a))

    specific

  2. ((b))

    limited

  3. ((c))

    exact

  4. ((d))

    correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

specific

The correct answer is - specific.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given words:
  • specific- clearly defined or identified
  • limited- restricted in size, amount, or extent; few, small, or short
  • exact- not approximated in any way; precise
  • correct- free from error; in accordance with fact or truth
  • As per the given sentence of the cloze test, there were no precise/well-defined instruments available back then.
  • In the current scenario, the adjective 'specific' is the correct choice in the given blank.
193

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

WRENCH

  1. ((a))

    Supply

  2. ((b))

    Reject

  3. ((c))

    Deter

  4. ((d))

    Wrest

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Wrest

The correct answer is- Wrest.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given word and marked option:
  • Wrench- a sudden violent twist or pull
  • Wrest- forcibly pull (something) from a person's grasp
  • ​Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • Supply- make (something needed or wanted) available to someone; provide
  • Reject- dismiss as inadequate, inappropriate, or not to one's taste
  • Deter- discourage (someone) from doing something by instilling doubt or fear of the consequences
  • ​Hence from the given meanings, we find that Wrench and Wrest are synonyms.

  • आइए दिए गए शब्द और चिह्नित विकल्प के अर्थ देखें:
  • Wrench- अचानक हिंसक मोड़ या खींच
  • Wrest- किसी व्यक्ति की समझ से जबरन (कुछ) खींचना
  • अन्य दिए गए विकल्पों के अर्थ में आइए नज़र:
  • Supply - किसी को कुछ उपलब्ध कराना (उसकी आवश्यकता या चाह) प्रदान करें
  • Reject- अपर्याप्त, अनुचित, या किसी के स्वाद के रूप में खारिज न करें
  • Deter- किसी को संदेह या परिणाम के डर से कुछ करने से हतोत्साहित करना (किसी को)
  • इसलिए दिए गए अर्थ से, हम पाते हैं कि Wrench और Wrest समानार्थक शब्द हैं।
194

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

Second-hand furniture ______ here at reasonable prices.

  1. ((a))

    are sold

  2. ((b))

    were selling

  3. ((c))

    has sold

  4. ((d))

    is sold

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

is sold

The correct answer is*-* is sold.

Key Points

  • There are some uncountable nouns (followed by a singular verb) which don't take the articles 'a/an', many, few, and plural form:​
  • Furniture, scenery, luggage, temper, hair, knowledge, equipment, pottery, music, jewelry, etc.​
  • Example:
  • ​The sceneries at my friend's house enchanted me.

  • The scenery at my friend's house enchanted me.

  • Since the noun 'furniture' precedes the blank part of the sentence, 'is sold' will be used as per the rule given above.

Correct sentence: Second-hand furniture is sold here at reasonable prices.

Additional Information

  • The nouns given below seem plural in form but in actuality are singular:
  • ​news, billiards, summons, physics, measles, innings, etc.
  • Example: 
  • ​Physics is an interesting subject.
195

Animal sacrifices were made to Gods to:

  1. ((a))

    pacify and worship them

  2. ((b))

    understand nature’s mysteries

  3. ((c))

    know about future events

  4. ((d))

    enrage and challenge them

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pacify and worship them

The correct answer is- pacify and worship them​​​​.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the 3rd sentence from the 1st paragraph:
  • "Religious festivals and ceremonies were held throughout the year, and animal sacrifice and votive offerings were popular ways to appease and worship the gods."
  • ​Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that animal sacrifices were made to Gods to pacify and worship them​​​​.
196

The twelve Olympian Gods and Goddesses were the children of:

  1. ((a))

    Gaia and Uranus

  2. ((b))

    Kronos and Rhea

  3. ((c))

    Zeus and Phoebe

  4. ((d))

    Hyperion and Theia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kronos and Rhea

The correct answer is- Kronos and Rhea​​.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the 1st and the 2nd sentence from the 5th paragraph:
  • "Kronos eventually overthrew Uranus and ruled during a mythological Golden Age. Over time, he and Rhea had twelve children who would become the Olympian gods."
  • ​Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that the twelve Olympian Gods and Goddesses were the children of Kronos and Rhea​​.
197

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

DISTRACT

  1. ((a))

    divert

  2. ((b))

    beguile

  3. ((c))

    clarify

  4. ((d))

    perplex

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

clarify

The correct answer is: clarify.

Key Points

  • The word "distract" means to divert attention from something. (ध्यान भटकाना)
  • Example: The noise outside distracted her from her studies.
  • "Clarify" means to make something clear or easier to understand. (स्पष्ट करना)
  • Example: The teacher clarified the complex topic for the students.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'distract' is 'clarify'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: clarify.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Divert (ध्यान हटाना): To change the direction or use of something.
  • Example: The company decided to divert resources to a new project.
  • Beguile (मोहित करना): To charm or enchant someone, sometimes in a deceptive way.
  • Example: He beguiled the audience with his smooth and captivating speech.
  • Perplex (उलझाना): To confuse or puzzle someone.
  • Example: The complex puzzle perplexed all the participants.
198

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

  1. ((a))

    more

  2. ((b))

    little

  3. ((c))

    any

  4. ((d))

    few

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

few

The correct answer is- few​.

Key Points​​

  • ​​Let's look at the difference between the following adjectives:
  • few- hardly any. (used in a negative sense)
  • a few- some but not many.
  • the few- not many but all that is available.
  • All of these adjectives are used with plural countable nouns.
  • Whereas the adjective 'any' is used with singular countable nouns.
  • As 'surgeons' is a plural countable noun, 'few' will be used in the blank part of the sentence.
  • Thus the 4th option will be the correct choice.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  ​​​

  • ​Let's look at the difference between the following adjectives:
  • little- hardly any. (used in a negative sense)
  • a little- some but not much.
  • the little- not much but all that is available.
  • All of these adjectives are used with uncountable nouns.
199

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

FASTEN

  1. ((a))

    allow

  2. ((b))

    affix

  3. ((c))

    halt

  4. ((d))

    hurry

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

affix

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "fasten" means to attach or join securely in place. (जोड़ना या बांधना)
  • Example: Please fasten your seatbelt before the flight takes off.
  • "Affix" refers to attaching or sticking something to something else. (संलग्न करना)
  • Example: Please affix the stamp on the top right corner of the envelope.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Allow (अनुमति देना): To permit something to happen.
  • Example: The teacher allows students to use calculators during the exam.
  • Halt (रोकना): To stop the movement or progress of something.
  • Example: The sudden rain caused the match to halt.
  • Hurry (जल्दी करना): To move or act with haste.
  • Example: She had to hurry to catch the last bus home.
200

Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words.

A person who is trained for travelling into space

  1. ((a))

    scientist

  2. ((b))

    pilot

  3. ((c))

    physicist

  4. ((d))

    astronaut

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

astronaut

The correct answer is - astronaut.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • astronaut- a person who is trained to travel in a spacecraft
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • scientist- a person who is studying or has expert knowledge of one or more of the natural or physical sciences
  • pilot- a person who operates the flying controls of an aircraft
  • physicist- an expert in or student of physics
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that astronaut is the correct one-word substitute.

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