Official Paper

SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held on: 12th March 2019 Shift 1)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right of the figure.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Hence the figure in option 4 is the correct answer.

Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
78 : 13
((b))
18 : 9
((c))
34 : 7
((d))
56 : 11

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

78 : 13

The pattern followed here is :

78 : 13 → 7 + 8 = 15 ≠ 13
18 : 9 → 1 + 8 = 9
34 : 7 → 3 + 4 = 7
56 : 11 → 5 + 6 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is 78 : 13.

In a code language, QUESTION is written as OPJUTFVR. How will FACTOR be written as in that language?

((a))
SUPEGB
((b))
BGDSPU
((c))
SPUDBG
((d))
QPUDBE

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

SPUDBG

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is SPUDBG.

Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers.

{15, 21, 27}

((a))
{25, 40, 56}
((b))
{20, 28, 36}
((c))
{40, 55, 75}
((d))
{12, 24, 32}

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

{20, 28, 36}

The pattern followed here is:

{15, 21, 27} → 21 - 15 = 6 and 27 - 21 = 6

Similarly,

{20, 28, 36} → 28 - 20 = 8 and 36 - 28 = 8

Hence, the correct answer is {20, 28, 36}.

In the following diagram, the triangle represents ‘rich’, the circle represents ‘doctor’ and the rectangle represents ‘happy’ persons. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons.

How many rich doctors are not happy?

((a))
15
((b))
26
((c))
9
((d))
17

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

No. of rich doctors who are not happy = 2 + 15 = 17.

Hence, the correct answer is 17.

Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?

8 ÷ 2 – 6 × 4 + 3 = 13

((a))
– and + , 6 and 4
((b))
÷ and + , 4 and 8
((c))
× and ÷, 8 and 6
((d))
× and -, 2 and 6

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

× and ÷, 8 and 6

After interchanging signs and numbers,

- and + , 6 and 4 → 8 ÷ 2 + 4 × 6 - 3 = 25
÷ and + , 4 and 8 → 4 + 2 - 6 × 8 ÷ 3 = - 10
× and -, 2 and 6 → 8 ÷ 6 × 2 - 4 + 3 = - 0.5
× and ÷, 8 and 6 → 6 × 2 - 8 ÷ 4 + 3 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is × and ÷, 8 and 6.

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
PYRU
((b))
CLEH
((c))
MKOH
((d))
TRVN

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

MKOH

PYRU → R - P = 2, Y - U = 4
CLEH → E - C = 2, L - H = 4
MKOH → O - M = 2, K - H = 3 ≠ 4
TRVN → V - T = 2, R - N = 4

Hence, the correct answer is MKOH.

After starting from her house, Sameera walked a few metres towards the East. From there, she took a right turn and she walked 100 m, and then took a left turn and walked 30 m. Finally, she took a left turn again and walked 40 m to reach the market. If the air distance between her house and the market is 100 m, how far did Sameera walk towards the East initially from her house?

((a))
30 m
((b))
50 m
((c))
60 m
((d))
80 m

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

50 m

Let Sameera’s house be denoted by A and the market by denoted by B.

OB = 100 - 40 = 60 m

AB = 100 m (given air distance)

We need to find the value of AX.

By Pythagoras’ theorem,

OA²= AB² - OB² = 6400

Hence OA = 80 m.

Therefore, AX = 80 - 30 = 50 m.

Hence the correct answer is 50 m.

Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in following word?

Memory : Amnesia

((a))
Cholera : Epidemic
((b))
Old age : Senility
((c))
Audition : Hearing
((d))
Vision : Blindness

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Vision : Blindness

Amnesia is loss of memory.

Similarly,

blindness is loss of vision.

Hence, vision : blindness is the correct answer.

Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

Probation
Selection
Application
Confirmation
Appointment

((a))
3, 2, 5, 1, 4
((b))
5, 1, 3, 2, 4
((c))
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
((d))
3, 2, 5, 4, 1

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3, 2, 5, 1, 4

The correct logical order is:

Application → Selection → Appointment → Probation → Confirmation

Hence, 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 is the correct answer.

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

3, 5, 7, 8, 15, ?, 31, 26

((a))
24
((b))
14
((c))
21
((d))
18

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is 14.

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

BYWD : DWUF : : AZYB

((a))
CXVB
((b))
BZXC
((c))
CXWD
((d))
BYWE

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CXWD

The pattern followed is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is CXWD.

Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

Sleep
Cold
Blanket
Winter
Warm
Shop

((a))
4, 2, 6, 3, 5, 1
((b))
4, 3, 6, 2, 1, 5
((c))
6, 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
((d))
4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

4, 2, 6, 3, 5, 1

The correct logical order is :

Winter → Cold → Shop → Blanket → Warm → Sleep

Hence the correct answer is 4, 2, 6, 3, 5, 1.

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

8 : 81 : : 10 : ?

((a))
100
((b))
121
((c))
120
((d))
111

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

121

8 : 81 = 8 : (8 + 1)²

Similarly,

10 : 121 = 10 : (10 + 1)²

Hence, the correct answer is 10 : 121.

In the following diagram the triangle represents ‘players’, the circle represent ‘student’ and the rectangle represents ‘high achievers’. The number in different segments show the number of persons.

How many high-achieving students are not players?

((a))
15
((b))
13
((c))
12
((d))
3

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

No. of high achieving students who are not players = 12

Hence, the correct answer is 12.

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A close up of a logoDescription automatically generated

Hence, the correct answer is figure in option 1.

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

BDFH : DWDS : : TVYZ : ?

((a))
VEBB
((b))
VDWB
((c))
UDWA
((d))
VEWA

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

VEWA

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is VEWA.

Which fraction will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

$\frac{1}{4},\frac{3}{5},\frac{6}{7},\frac{{10}}{{11}},;?$

((a))
15/23
((b))
15/19
((c))
17/27
((d))
17/21

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

15/19

Pattern in the Numerator: 1 + 2 = 3, 3 + 3 = 6, 6 + 4 = 10, 10 + 5 = 15

Pattern in the Denominator: 4 + 2⁰ = 5, 5 + 2¹ = 7, 7 + 2² = 11, 11 + 2³ = 19

Hence, the correct answer is $\frac{{15}}{{19}}$ .

Priya’s school bus was facing north-west when it reached her school. After starting from her house, the bus took one left turn. one right turn and another left turn to reach her school. In which direction was the bus facing when it left Priya’s house?

((a))
South-east
((b))
North-west
((c))
South-west
((d))
North-east

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

North-east

Suppose the bus was facing north when it left Priya’s house.

Thus, we see that the bus will be facing west when reaching the school.

By moving clockwise in an angle of 45°, the bus faces north-west when reaching the school.

Thus, the bus was facing north-east when it left Priya’s house.

Hence North-east is the correct answer.

If CAB = 12 and FED = 30, then HIDE = .

((a))
44
((b))
68
((c))
52
((d))
48

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CAB → 2 × (3 + 1 + 2) = 12

FED → 2 × (6 + 5 + 4) = 30

Similarly,

HIDE → 2 × (8 + 9 + 4 + 5) = 52

Hence, the correct answer is 52.

Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair.

5 : 9

((a))
10 : 29
((b))
25 : 79
((c))
17 : 65
((d))
12 : 33

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

17 : 65

The pattern followed here is:

5 : 9 → 2² + 1: 2³ + 1

Similarly,

17 : 65 → 42 + 1: 43 + 1

Hence, the correct answer is 17 : 65.

Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
6 : 18
((b))
8 : 32
((c))
12 : 72
((d))
14 : 94

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

14 : 94

The consequent is a multiple of the antecedent in the options 1, 2 and 3.

In option 4, 94 is not a multiple of 14.

Hence, the correct answer is 14 : 94.

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
ILOU
((b))
AEIU
((c))
EIOU
((d))
AIOU

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

ILOU

The letters in the options 2, 3 and 4 are vowels.

In option 1, L is a consonant.

Hence, the correct answer is L.

Two positions of the same dice are given. Which number will be at the top if '6' is at the bottom?

((a))
2
((b))
3
((c))
1
((d))
4

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1, 2, 4, and 6 are adjacent to 5.

Hence, 3 is opposite to 5.

4 is to the right of 5 in the first dice

Therefore 6 is to the left of 5 in the second dice.

Hence, the correct answer is 4.

Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers.

{7, 13, 20}

((a))
{10, 18, 24}
((b))
{9, 15, 23}
((c))
{12, 19, 29}
((d))
{4, 10, 17}

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

{4, 10, 17}

{7, 13, 20} → 13 - 7 = 6, 20 - 13 = 7

Similarly,

{4, 10, 17} → 10 - 4 = 6, 17 - 10 = 7

Hence {4, 10, 17} is the correct answer.

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

7, 10, 16, 19, 25, ?

((a))
29
((b))
33
((c))
31
((d))
28

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The pattern followed here is :

7 + 3 = 10

10 + 6 = 16

16 + 3 = 19

19 + 6 = 25

25 + 3 = 28

Hence, the correct answer is 28.

Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
14 : 33
((b))
8 : 25
((c))
5 : 15
((d))
9 : 23

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

8 : 25

The pattern followed here is:

2 × First Number + 5 = Second Number

14 : 33 → 2 × 14 + 5 = 33
8 : 25 → 2 × 8 + 5 = 21 ≠ 25
5 : 15 → 2 × 5 + 5 = 15
9 : 23 → 2 × 9 + 5 = 23

Hence, the correct answer is 8 : 25.

Two statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some plants are trees.

All trees are bushes.

Conclusions:

I. Some bushes are plants.

II. Al! bushes are plants.

III. No bush is a plant.

((a))
Only conclusion I follows
((b))
Only conclusion III follows
((c))
Only conclusions I and III follow
((d))
Only conclusions IT and ITI follow

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

I. Some bushes are plants → True (some plants are trees and all trees are bushes)

II. Al! bushes are plants → False (it is possible but not definite)

III. No bush is a plant → False (it is possible but not definite)

Hence only conclusion I follows.

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The pattern followed here is:

1^st figure → 3 vertices and 2 parts

2^nd figure → 4 vertices and 3 parts

3^rd figure → 5 vertices and 4 parts

4^th figure → 6 vertices and 5 parts

5^th figure → 7 vertices and 6 parts and so on.

Hence, the correct answer is figure in option 2.

Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

According to the positions of the figures in each step,

1^st - 1 (first symbol moves to the last, i.e., 5^th place)

2^nd + 1 (second symbol moves to the third place)

3^rd – 2 (third symbol moves to the first place)

4^th – 2 (fourth symbol moves to the second place)

5^th- 1 (fifth symbol moves to the fourth place)

Hence, the correct answer is figure 4.

In the following diagram, the triangle represents ‘dancers’, the circle represents ‘swimmers’, the rectangle represents 3 ‘students’ and the square represents ‘cricket fans’. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons.

How many student dancers are swimmers but not cricket fans?

((a))
15
((b))
10
((c))
3
((d))
13

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

No. of student dancers who are swimmers but not cricket fans is the shaded part i.e., 10.

Hence, the correct answer is 10.

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

4 + 8 × 12 ÷ 6 - 4 = 8

((a))
× and +
((b))
- and ÷
((c))
- and +
((d))
÷ and -

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

and ÷

The pattern followed here is:

- and + → 4 - 8 × 12 ÷ 6 + 4 = - 8
+ and ÷ → 4 ÷ 8 × 12 + 6 - 4 = 8
÷ and - → 4 + 8 × 12 - 6 ÷ 4 = 99.5
× and + → 4 × 8 + 12 ÷ 6 - 4 = 30

Hence, the correct answer is + and ÷.

Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

BZD, DXF, GUI, ?, PLR

((a))
KQM
((b))
MOQ
((c))
KPN
((d))
LRT

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

KQM

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is KQM.

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right of the figure.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Hence the figure in option 4 is the correct answer.

If HECK is coded as 94410 and DIG is coded as 588, then how will BIKE be coded as?

((a))
38124
((b))
38115
((c))
19113
((d))
39105

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

38124

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is 38124.

How many triangles are there in the following figure?

((a))
12
((b))
8
((c))
14
((d))
10

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Number of diagrams :

A picture containing buildingDescription automatically generated

Hence there are 12 triangles in the given figure.

Which letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

M, N, O, L, Q, J, ?, H

((a))
R
((b))
S
((c))
K
((d))
J

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Hence, the correct answer is S.

In a code language. BANKER is written as NABREK. How will STRING be written as in that language?

((a))
RSTGIN
((b))
RTSGNI
((c))
TSIRGN
((d))
RIGSNI

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

RTSGNI

The pattern followed here is :

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is ‘RTSGNI’.

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
Jealous
((b))
Weep
((c))
Sad
((d))
Angry

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Weep

Jealous, sad and angry are emotions whereas weep is an action.

Hence, weep is the odd one among the given options.

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The figure rotates in the anti-clockwise direction such that the striped portion alternately moves one space in one step, and two spaces in the next step. The stripe is alternately horizontal and vertical.

Hence, the correct answer is figure 4.

Tuesday’ is related to ‘Mars’ in the same way as ‘Thursday’ is related to ‘_________’.

((a))
Venus
((b))
Mercury
((c))
Saturn
((d))
Jupiter

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Jupiter

Tuesday is named after Tyr’s day, the Norse god of war associated with the planet Mars.

Similarly,

Thursday is named after Thor’s day, the god associated with the planet Jupiter.

Hence Jupiter is the correct answer.

Two statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, Q even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some mangoes are fruits.

No fruit is vegetable.

Conclusions:

I. Some mangoes are vegetables.

II. Some fruits are mangoes.

III. No vegetable is a mango.

((a))
Only conclusion II follows
((b))
Only conclusions II and III follow
((c))
Only conclusions I and III follow
((d))
Only conclusion I follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

I. Some mangoes are vegetables → False (it is possible but not definite)

II. Some fruits are mangoes → True (Some mangoes are fruits)

III. No vegetable is a mango → False (it is possible but not definite)

Hence only conclusion II follows.

Three of the following four number - pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the off one out.

((a))
10 : 99
((b))
5 : 26
((c))
4 : 17
((d))
9 : 82

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

10 : 99

The pattern followed here is:

10 : 99 → 10² + 1 = 101 ≠ 99
5 : 26 → 5² + 1 = 26
4 : 17 → 4² + 1 = 17
9 : 82 → 9² + 1 = 82

Hence, the correct answer is 10 : 99.

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
Carpenter
((b))
Blacksmith
((c))
Gardening
((d))
Tailor

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Gardening

Carpenter, Blacksmith and Tailor are persons whereas Gardening is not.

Hence gardening is the odd one among the given options

The sequence of folding a piece of square paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the figures X, Y and Z. How would this paper look when unfolded?

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Hence the correct answer is the figure in option 4.

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

15 : 25 : : 24

((a))
40
((b))
35
((c))
32
((d))
45

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The pattern followed here is :

15 : 25 = 3 × 5 : 5 × 5

Similarly,

24 : 40 = 3 × 8 : 5 × 8

Hence, the correct answer is 40.

Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word - pair.

Request : Order

((a))
Summer : Heat
((b))
Clean : Wash
((c))
Think : Thought
((d))
Whisper : Shout

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Whisper : Shout

The pattern followed here is:

Request and order are antonyms.

Similarly, whisper and shout are antonyms.

Hence, whisper : shout is the correct answer.

‘Meat’ is related to ‘Vegetarian’ in the same way as ‘Alcohol’ is related to ‘________’.

((a))
Teetotaller
((b))
Smoker
((c))
Water
((d))
Dietician

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Teetotaller

Vegetarian is a person who does not eat meat.

Similarly, teetotaller is a person who does not drink alcohol.

Hence teetotaller is the correct answer.

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equations correct?

6 × 3 – 8 ÷ 2 + 5 = 8 ÷ 2 + 3 × 5 - 6

((a))
6 and 2
((b))
8 and 6
((c))
5 and 6
((d))
3 and 5

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

5 and 6

After interchanging numbers,

6 and 2 → 2 × 3 - 8 ÷ 6 + 5 = 29/3; 8 ÷ 6 + 3 × 5 - 2 = 43/3
8 and 6 → 8 × 3 - 6 ÷ 2 + 5 = 26; 6 ÷ 2 + 3 × 5 - 8 = 10
5 and 6 → 5 × 3 - 8 ÷ 2 + 6 = 17; 8 ÷ 2 + 3 × 6 - 5 = 17
3 and 5 → 6 × 5 - 8 ÷ 2 + 3 = 29; 8 ÷ 2 + 5 × 3 - 6 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is option 5 and 6.

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.

((a))
((b))
((c))
((d))

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Hence, the correct answer is figure in option 2.

General Knowledge and General Awareness (50 questions)

Where is the Dachigam National Park located?

((a))
Jammu and Kashmir
((b))
Assam
((c))
Chhattisgarh
((d))
Karnataka

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Jammu and Kashmir

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Jammu and Kashmir.

Covering an area of 500 km², the Dachigam National Park is located in the Zabarwan Range of the Western Himalayas, around 22 km from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
The word "Dachigam" means "ten villages" and the park was so named in the memory of the 10 villages that were relocated due to the park.
The park was a protected area since 1910 but was upgraded to a National Park in 1981.
It is primarily known for hangul or the Kashmir stag which is a subspecies of elk.
Other animal species found in the park include Himalayan brown bear, Himalayan black bear, Musk deer, Himalayan serow, Yellow-throated marten, Jackal, etc.
Also, Himalayan monal, Black bulbul, Bearded vulture, Babbler, and Cinnamon sparrow are some of the common bird species.

Which team has won the inaugural Pro Volleyball League Title held in February 2019?

((a))
Calicut Heroes
((b))
Ahmedabad Defenders
((c))
Black Hawks Hyderabad
((d))
Chennai Spartans

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Chennai Spartans

Chennai Spartans won the inaugural Pro Volleyball League Title held in February 2019.
They defeated Calicut Heroes by 3-0.
The tournament is a men's volleyball league in India.

Pune-based organisation________ conducted a study using a 15% M - 15 methanol blend in vehicles and tested them for 3,000 km to evaluate emissions in real-world conditions as well as to check the performance of the vehicles.

((a))
Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI)
((b))
Research Association of India (RAI)
((c))
Automotive Organisation (AO)
((d))
Vehicle Organisation of India (VOI)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI)

Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI) is a Pune based organization that conducted a study in which it used 15% methanol M-15 and blended it with petrol and used it in BS-IV standard vehicles.
These vehicles were then tested for 3,000 km.
The objective of this study was to evaluate the emissions from the vehicles in real-world conditions and to check their performance.
It was found that the emission of carbon dioxide had reduced considerably and that there was also a marginal reduction in hydrocarbon emission.

_________ is the study of viruses.

((a))
Mycology
((b))
Virology
((c))
Protozoology
((d))
Parasitology

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Virology

Science is divided into a number of fields with each field focussing on specific entities. The given options are all branches of biology which study the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of a specific type of organism.

FIELD	STUDY OF
Virology	Viruses or virus-like agents
Mycology	Fungi
Protozoology	Protozoans
Parasitology	Parasites, their hosts and the relationship between them

Which of the following states does NOT share a border with Bangladesh?

((a))
Meghalaya
((b))
Manipur
((c))
Tripura
((d))
Mizoram

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Manipur

Bangladesh is a country in South Asia that shares its border with India to the north, east, and west, Myanmar to the east, and the Bay of Bengal to the south.
Among the Indian states, Bangladesh shares its border with West Bengal (west and north), Tripura (east), Mizoram (east), Assam (north), and Meghalaya (north).
It does NOT share a border with Manipur.

INDIAN STATES	BORDER LENGTH
West Bengal	2,217 km
Tripura	856 km
Meghalaya	443 km
Assam	262 km
Mizoram	180 km

The Governor of Tamil Nadu Banwarilal Purohit presented the 'Sansad Ratna Awards' in Chennai in January 2019. Which of the following MPs is NOT a recipient of Sansad Ratna Award?

((a))
Supriya Sule
((b))
Nishikant Dubey
((c))
Kirit Solanki
((d))
N K Premachandran

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Kirit Solanki

The Governor of Tamil Nadu Banwarilal Purohit presented the 'Sansad Ratna Awards' in Chennai in January 2019.
Kirit Solanki is not a recipient of the Sansad Ratna Award.
Supriya Sule, MP from Baramati, Maharashtra was honoured in overall tally, questions and women MPs categories.
Nishikant Dubey, MP from Godda, Jharkhand was awarded for his outstanding performance in private member bills.
N K Premachandran, MP from Kollam, Kerala was selected for his performance in initiating debates.
The awards were established in the year 2010.

The smallest Union Territory is ________.

((a))
Puducherry
((b))
Lakshadweep
((c))
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
((d))
Daman and Diu

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Lakshadweep

The smallest Union Territory is Lakshadweep.
It is spread across an area of 32 sq km and has 36 Islands.
Ladakh is the largest Union Territory (UT) in the country in terms of area, following the Centre’s move to bifurcate the State.
There are a total of 8 UTs in India which are- Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Delhi, Chandigarh, Pondicherry, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu,.

'________' is aimed at the welfare of areas and people affected by mining-related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).

((a))
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
((b))
Pradhan Mantri Digidhan Vyapar Yojana
((c))
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
((d))
Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana

Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana is aimed at the welfare of areas and people affected by mining-related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme that provided LPG connections to women Below Poverty Line.
Pradhan Mantri Digidhan Vyapar Yojana was launched to offer cash rewards to merchants and consumers.
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana enables a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training to help them in securing a better livelihood.

The sky appears blue due to ________.

((a))
Refraction of light
((b))
Dispersion of light
((c))
Scattering of light
((d))
Reflection of light

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Scattering of light

CONCEPT:

Rayleigh's law of scattering:

According to Rayleigh's law of scattering, the intensity of light of wavelength λ present in the scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of λ, provided the size of the scattering particles are much smaller than λ. Mathematically,

$I \propto \frac{1}{\lambda }$

Thus the scattered intensity is maximum for shorter wavelength.

EXPLANATION:

The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
These are more effective in scattering light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than the light of longer wavelengths at the red end.
The red light has a wavelength of about 1.8 times greater than blue light. Thus, when sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in the air scatter the blue colour (shorter wavelengths) more strongly than red.
The sky appears blue due to the scattering of light. Therefore option 3 is correct.

Important Points

If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any scattering.
Then, the sky would have looked dark. The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes, as scattering is not prominent at such heights.

"On the Origin of Species" was written by ________.

((a))
Charles Darwin
((b))
Carolus Linnaeus
((c))
Erasmus Darwin
((d))
William Paley

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Charles Darwin

Published on 24 November 1859, "On the Origin of Species" was a book written by English biologist Charles Robert Darwin.
The complete title of the book is "On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection or the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for Life".
The book lays the foundation of evolutionary biology by introducing the theory that through a process called natural selection, populations evolve over the course of generations.

NAME	NATIONALITY	OCCUPATION	BOOKS
Charles Darwin	English	Biologist, Naturalist, and Geologist	On the Origin of Species
Carolus Linnaeus	Swedish	Botanist, Zoologist, and Physician	Systema Naturae
William Paley	English	Philosopher, Christian apologist, Clergyman	Natural Theology or Evidence of the Existence and Attributes of the Deity
Erasmus Darwin	English	Physician	The Botanic Garden

A not -for-profit organisation 'Youth for Equality' has moved the Supreme Court by questioning the constitutional validity of the ________ Constitutional Amendment Act which provides 10% quota for economically weaker sections.

((a))
100^th
((b))
103^rd
((c))
99^th
((d))
143^rd

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

103^rd

A not -for-profit organisation 'Youth for Equality' has moved the Supreme Court by questioning the constitutional validity of the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act which provides 10% quota for economically weaker sections.
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act ratified the land boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh.
The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act inserted a new Article 124A, which provides for the composition of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).

As of January 2019, Who holds the portfolio of Ministry of Science and Technology?

((a))
Manohar Parrikar
((b))
Piyush Goyal
((c))
Harsh Vardhan
((d))
Prakash Javadekar

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Harsh Vardhan

Dr. Harsh Vardhan was appointed as the Union Minister of the Ministry of Science and Technology in January 2019, for the second term. He was first appointed in 2014.
He took charge at the office on June 4, 2019.
He is also in charge of the Ministry of Earth Sciences and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Professionally he is a medical practitioner, M.S.(ENT).

The spectrum of light was first explained by _________.

((a))
Neils Bohr
((b))
Isaac Newton
((c))
Albert Einstein
((d))
Galileo Galilei

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Isaac Newton

The spectrum of light was first explained by Isaac Newton.
Light spectrum is the visible spectrum or the range of wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation that the human eyes are sensitive to.
Isaac Newton used a prism to form a spectrum from a beam of white light.

Scientist	Invention/Discovery
Neils Bohr	Model of Atom
Isaac Newton	Spectrum of light
Albert Einstein	Relativity theory
Galileo Galilei	Micrometre

In January 2019, the Union Ministry of ________ started a 'Know Your Budget' series on its Twitter handle to educate the general public about the budgetary process.

((a))
Corporate Affairs
((b))
Human Resource Development
((c))
Commerce and Industry
((d))
Finance

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Finance

In January 2019, the Union Ministry of Finance started a 'Know Your Budget' series on its Twitter handle to educate the general public about the budgetary process.
The series explained the importance of Union Budget and its making and continued for about a fortnight.
The government on 1 February 2019 unveiled the interim Budget for 2019-20.

In January 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for several development projects at Silvassa in Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

((a))
Door to door waste collection, segregation and processing of solid waste in Dadra and Nagar Haveli digitally
((b))
New IT policy for Dadra and Nagar Haveli
((c))
An arts college in Dadra and Nagar Haveli
((d))
A medical college in Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

An arts college in Dadra and Nagar Haveli

In January 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for several development projects at Silvassa in Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
An arts college in Dadra and Nagar Haveli is not one of them.
The projects included a medical college in Sayali, release of an IT policy, and door to door waste collection, segregation and processing of solid waste in Dadra and Nagar Haveli digitally.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)?

((a))
Its main objective is to provide financial assistance to promote Indian exports.
((b))
It is a premier export finance institution of India.
((c))
The Bank provides assistance in helping Indian firms in their globalization efforts
((d))
It was established in 2014 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

It was established in 2014 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act.

The Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) is a financial institution of India which was established on 1 January 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981.
Its main objective is to provide financial assistance to promote Indian exports.
It is a premier export finance institution of India.
The Bank provides assistance in helping Indian firms in their globalization efforts.

The Treaty of Sagauli was signed between the British and the ________.

((a))
Gurkhas
((b))
Nawab of Bengal
((c))
Nawab of Awadh
((d))
Marathas

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Gurkhas

The Treaty of Sagauli was an agreement that was signed between the East India Company and the Gurkha chiefs of Nepal and it ended the Anglo-Nepalese(Gurkha) War(1814-1816).
The treaty was drafted on 2 December 1815 and signed on 4 March 1816 by Raj Guru Gajaraj Mishra(Nepal) and Lieutenant Colonel Paris Bradshaw(British).
As per the treaty-

some territories controlled by the Nepalese were given to British India
a British representative in Kathmandu was established
the British were allowed to recruit Gurkhas for military service.

Who was the Governor General of India during the first Anglo-Sikh War?

((a))
Lord Cornwallis
((b))
Lord Hardinge
((c))
Lord Dalhousie
((d))
Lord Canning

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Lord Hardinge

Lord Hardinge was the Governor-General of India during the First Anglo-Sikh War.
The First Anglo-Sikh War took place in 1845-1846.
The Second Anglo-Sikh War took place in 1848-1849.
Lord Hardinge served as the Governor-General of India from 1844-1848.
Lord Cornwallis served as the Governor-General of India from 1786-1793.
Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848-1856.
Lord Canning served as the Governor-General of India from 1856-1862.

Who inaugurated the National Museum of Indian Cinema in Mumbai in Jan 2019?

((a))
Narendra Modi
((b))
Ram Nath Kovind
((c))
Amitabh Bachchan
((d))
Devendra Fadnavis

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Narendra Modi

The National Museum of Indian Cinema was inaugurated on 19th January 2019 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Mumbai.
The Museum is located at the Films Division Complex, Peddar Road, Mumbai.
The museum displays the history of Indian Cinema and its various artifacts such as vintage pieces of equipment, posters, old cinema magazines, soundtracks, trailers, etc.
The Museum is closed on Mondays and Public Holidays and open from 11 AM to 6 PM from Tuesday to Sunday.

The Hindu Prize 2018 for Fictions was awarded to _______, the English author of 'Requiem in Raga Janki' during the The Hindu Lit for Life 2019.

((a))
Rajiv Elipe
((b))
Vinayak Varma
((c))
Neelum Saran Gour
((d))
Mamta Nainy

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Neelum Saran Gour

The 2018 Hindu Prize for Fiction was awarded to writer Neelum Saran Gour for her book 'Requiem in Raga Janki'.
The award was announced by Publisher and Former Editor-in-Chief of The Hindu, N.Ravi at the Hindu Lit for Life festival 2019 held in Chennai from 12 to 14 January 2019.
Established in 2010, the Hindu Prize is an Indian literary award that recognizes fiction work in English and is given and sponsored by The Hindu Literary Review, a section of The Hindu newspaper.
Non-fiction has been included in the award from 2018.

Olfactory receptors are located in our:

((a))
Nose
((b))
Tongue
((c))
Ears
((d))
Eyes

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Nose

Olfactory receptors are located in our nose.
The olfactory system allows the human body to detect and process smell.
These are also known as smell receptors and are capable of binding odour molecules.
They belong to the G-protein-coupled receptor family.

A study by Gitanjali Katlam and Soumya Prasad from Jawaharlal Nehru University, Mohit Agarwal from Asian Adventures and Raman Kumar from Nature Science Initiative examined the relationship between ________ which was published in the journal 'Current Science'.

((a))
animal and plant life
((b))
different animal species and their food
((c))
Water scarcity and animals
((d))
animal type and behavior vis-a-vis the risk of plastic ingestion

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

animal type and behavior vis-a-vis the risk of plastic ingestion

A study by Gitanjali Katlam and Soumya Prasad from Jawaharlal Nehru University, Mohit Agarwal from Asian Adventures and Raman Kumar from Nature Science Initiative examined the relationship between animal type and behaviour vis-a-vis the risk of plastic ingestion which was published in the journal 'Current Science'.
Their study found out that modern-day garbage dumps are full of harmful products and chemicals and are a serious threat to animal and plant life.

Which Bhartiya Janata Party leader was bestowed with 'Sansad Ratna Award' for distinguished performance as a parliamentarian in January 2019?

((a))
Virendra Kashyap
((b))
Anurag Thakur
((c))
Rao Inderjit Singh
((d))
Rajesh Chudasama

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Anurag Thakur

Anurag Thakur was bestowed with 'Sansad Ratna Award' for distinguished performance as a parliamentarian in January 2019.
He is the first MP from the BJP to have been awarded the Jury Committee Special Award.
The awards were set up in the year 2010 on the suggestion of Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.

'Rauf' is a folk dance associated with the state of _________.

((a))
Haryana
((b))
Punjab
((c))
Rajasthan
((d))
Jammu and Kashmir

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Jammu and Kashmir

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Rouf is one of the most popular folk music of Kashmir.
A combination of Kashmiri folk dance and Kashmiri folk song
performed by Kashmiri women or girls on different occasions.

________ is/are being considered an alternative to reduce the country's crude oil imports worth Rs. 7 lakh crore. It/They can also be a potential weapon to fight increasing pollution.

((a))
Extractor fans
((b))
Biofuels
((c))
Air purifiers
((d))
Phytoremediation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Biofuels

Biofuels are being considered an alternative to reduce the country's crude oil imports worth Rs. 7 lakh crore.
They can also be a potential weapon to fight increasing pollution.
Biofuels are made from waste or organic matter and are a renewable energy resource.
They help in reducing CO₂ emissions.
These can be produced from things such as waste feedstocks, vegetable oils, corn, sugar, etc.

Article _________ of the Constitution of India states that the Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President with consultation of the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.

((a))
21
((b))
201
((c))
217
((d))
72

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

217

Article 217 of the Constitution of India states that the Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President with consultation of the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Protection of life and personal liberty.
Article 201 of the Indian Constitution deals with Bill reserved for consideration.
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of President to grant pardons, etc, and to suspend, remit or commute sentences.

Dadra and Nagar Haveli is union territory located between the states Maharashtra and _________.

((a))
Uttarakhand
((b))
Andhra Pradesh
((c))
West Bengal
((d))
Gujarat

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Gujarat

Located in western India, Dadar and Nagar Haveli is a union territory which is composed of Dadar, a small town surrounded by Gujrat and Nagar Haveli that is located between Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli were declared a Union Territory in 1961 as per the Tenth Amendment of the Constitution of India which came into effect on 11 August 1961.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli cover an area of about 491 km2. Its capital is Silvassa.

The famous festival of 'Tsokum Samai' is celebrated by the people of which state to invoke blessings for a rich harvest?

((a))
Mizoram
((b))
Assam
((c))
Meghalaya
((d))
Nagaland

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Nagaland

The famous festival of 'Tsokum Samai' is celebrated by the people of Nagaland to invoke blessings for a rich harvest.
It is a festival of the Khiamniungan tribe and is celebrated in the month of October.
It is a pre-harvest festival that goes for a week.
Animals such as buffaloes and cows sacrificed during the festival.

Queen Naikidevi is remembered as the woman who defeated ________ in 1178 CE.

((a))
Muhammad bin Tughlag
((b))
Mumhammad al-Baqir
((c))
Al-Salih Muhammad
((d))
Muhammad Ghori

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Muhammad Ghori

Queen Naikidevi is remembered as the woman who defeated Muhammad Ghori in 1178 CE.
She was the widow of the King Ajayapala, ruler of Chalukya/Solanki dynasty.
She was the daughter of Mahamandalesvara Permadi of Goa, the Kadamba ruler.
Mohammad Ghori was defeated by Solankis near Mount Abu in the battle of Kayadara.

In September 2018, India's ace sprinter _________ was appointed as Sports Ambassador of Assam.

((a))
Makhan Singh
((b))
Jata Shankar
((c))
Anand Shetty
((d))
Hima Das

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Hima Das

Hima Das is an Indian sprint runner who was appointed as the Sports Ambassador of Assam in September 2018. She is the first-ever Sports Ambassador of Assam.
The announcement was made by Sarbananda Sonowal, the Chief Minister of Assam, after Hima Das won the 400 m final at the World U-20 Championships 2018 on 12 July 2018.
She is the first Indian athlete to have won a gold medal in a track event at the IAAF World U20 Championship.
With a timing of 50.79 seconds that she achieved at the 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta, she holds the current Indian National Record for 400 meters.

The first Sheikh Saud International prize for Materials Research has been awarded to _______ who is an Indian scientist in January 2019.

((a))
Vikram Sarabhai
((b))
M Visvesvaraya
((c))
Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao
((d))
Meghnad saha

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao

The first Sheikh Saud International prize for Materials Research was awarded to Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao who is an Indian scientist, in January 2019.
He is popularly known as CNR Rao and as worked in solid-state and structural chemistry.
The award carries a cash prize of USD 100,000 and a plaque.
CNR Rao has authored 50 scientific books and around 1600 research papers.

The _______ dance form originated as a tribal dance in the forests of Odisha in the 18th century and attained the status of a martial art-based dance form in the 19th century.

((a))
Chhobia
((b))
Kalaripayattu
((c))
Chhau
((d))
Bawai

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Chhau

Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance form that originated as a tribal dance in the forests of Odisha in the 18th century and in the 19th century it attained the status of martial art-based dance.
There are 3 styles of Chhau which are named according to the states in which they are performed, that is, Seraikella Chau of Jharkhand, Mayurbhanj Chau of Odisha, and Purulia Chau of Bengal.
The costumes vary among the different styles of Chhau.
The dance covers folk, martial, and tribal traditions and is performed on instrumental music mainly on a variety of drums such as Dhumba, Dhol, Dhansa, and Nagara.

_________ has emerged as the world's most dynamic city among 131 major established and emerging business hubs globally as per JLL City momentum Index 2019.

((a))
Bengaluru
((b))
Hyderabad
((c))
Chennai
((d))
Delhi

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Bengaluru

As per the JLL City Momentum Index 2019, Bengaluru is the world's most dynamic city among the 131 major established and emerging business hubs globally.
It is closely followed by Hyderabad in the second position. Other Indian cities that feature in the top 10 are Delhi (4^th), Pune (5^th), and Chennai (7^th).
JLL's City Momentum Index measures and determines the momentum of 131 of the world's most commercially active cities by identifying the real estate markets and urban economies that are expanding the fastest.
It does so by tracking and analysing multiple real estate and socioeconomic indicators over a period of 3 years.

In January 2019, the Competition of India (CCI) approved a deal wherein Samara Capital-backed Witzig Advisory Services and Amazon will acquire _______, which operates a supermarket store chain called 'More'.

((a))
Aditya Birla Retail Ltd
((b))
Reliance Retail
((c))
Godrej Consumer Products Ltd
((d))
Future Group

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Aditya Birla Retail Ltd

In January 2019, the Competition of India (CCI) gave clearance to the Samara Capital-backed Witzig Advisory Services and Amazon joint bid to acquire 'More', an Aditya Birla Retail Ltd supermarket store.
As per the CCI, the deal involves Witzig acquiring 99.99% of the equity share capital of Aditya Birla Retail Ltd.
And Amazon's subsidiary Amazon NV Investment Holdings LLC will acquire a 49% stake in Witzig.

The Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri on 26 June in the year _______.

((a))
1729
((b))
1539
((c))
1639
((d))
1440

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1539

The Battle of Chausa was fought between the Afghan, Sher Shah Suri and the Mughal emperor, Humayun on 26 June 1539.
The battle took place at Chausa, a block located 10 miles southwest of Buxar which is in modern-day Bihar.
Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun and assumed the title "Farid al-Din Sher Shah".

In January 2019, Microsoft India launched a new e-commerce platform called 're-weave.in' under Project ReWeave to aid handloom weavers in Telangana. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the e-commerce platform?

((a))
It will showcase signature collections created by the weaver communities.
((b))
It will decelerate the process of reviving traditional forgotten Indian art.
((c))
It will help weavers increase their income and earn a sustainable livelihood.
((d))
It will connect artisans to the buyers directly, enabling them to expand to newer customers and markets.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

It will decelerate the process of reviving traditional forgotten Indian art.

Re-weave.in is a new e-commerce platform that was launched under the Project ReWeave by Microsoft India to aid handloom weavers.
Project ReWeave was launched in 2016 by Microsoft India (R&D) Pvt. Limited with the aim to revive and support the handloom weaving industry in India.
The benefits of the e-commerce platform are as follows:

It would connect the artisans to the buyers and therefore, enable them to establish connections and expand their network to new customers and markets.
The e-commerce platform will also enable the artisans to showcase their signature collections.
It will allow the artisans to be more independent, increase their income, and earn a sustainable livelihood.
These benefits would, in turn, accelerate the whole process of reviving traditional Indian art.

In January 2019, the Department of Science and Technology partnered with Doordarshan to launch two free-to-air channels DD Science and an Internet-based channel _________ which will offer live, scheduled play and video-on-demand on science topics.

((a))
Internet Science
((b))
India Technology
((c))
India Live
((d))
India Science

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

India Science

In January 2019, the Department of Science and Technology partnered with Doordarshan to launch two free-to-air channels DD Science and an Internet-based channel India Science which will offer live, scheduled play and video-on-demand on science topics.
It is a channel completely dedicated to science.
It is available on all internet-enabled devices while DD Science will be telecast from 5-6 pm Monday to Saturday.
The channels will have short films, interviews, discussions, science-based documentaries, and more.

Indian teen cyclist _________ created history by winning the country's maiden medal in track cycling at the world level in 2018.

((a))
Esow Alben
((b))
Sreedhar Savanur
((c))
Deborah Herold
((d))
Bikram Singh

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Esow Alben

Indian teen cyclist Esow Alben created history by winning the country's maiden medal in track cycling at the world level in 2018.
He won India's first junior cycling World Cup silver medal of the UCI Junior Track Cycling World Championships men's kerin event held in Aigle, Switzerland.
He hails from Andaman and Nicobar Islands and has won a gold medal at the Asian Track Cycling Championships in Malaysia in 2018.

In January 2019, the Union Cabinet headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved a capital infusion of Rs. _______ in state-owned Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) to expand its business.

((a))
6,000 crore
((b))
4,000 crore
((c))
9,000 crore
((d))
2,000 crore

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

6,000 crore

The correct answer is 6,000 crore.

Key Points

The Union Cabinet headed by PM Narendra Modi approved a capital infusion of Rs. 6,000 crore in state-owned Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) in January 2019.
This was done to expand the business of EXIM Bank.
This capital infusion will take place in two stages, Rs 4,500 crore in 2018-19 and Rs 1,500 crore in 2019-20.
Also, an increase in the bank's authorized capital from Rs 10,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore has been approved by the government.
Established in 1982, the EXIM Bank is a premier export finance institution of India that was set up under the Export-Import Bank of India Act to promote Indian exports.

Why do water droplets always take a round shape when dropped onto plane surfaces?

((a))
Due to gravity
((b))
Due to atmospheric pressure
((c))
Due to the presence of Eddy Currents in the air
((d))
Due to exertion of surface tension by the molecules

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Due to exertion of surface tension by the molecules

CONCEPT**:**

Surface tension**:**

The property by virtue of which liquid tries to minimize its free surface area is called surface tension.
In spherical shape the surface area is minimum and for this reason, the raindrops are spherical.
Two factors can affect the surface tension of a liquid. The factors are;
Temperature: If temperature increases then the surface tension of a liquid decreases.
Soluble Impurities: In the case of less soluble impurities, the surface tension decreases. But, for highly soluble impurities in the liquid the surface tension increases.
Examples:
When kerosene oil is sprinkled on the water the surface decreases and for this reason, the mosquito larvas die due to sinking in the water.
Warm soup is tasty because for high temperatures the surface tension becomes low and spreads equally over the tongue.
The surface tension of antiseptics is low that the reason they reach the small cracks of the wound and clean the germs.
The surface tension of soap solution is less than pure water and for this reason, the soap solution cleans clothes better than pure water.

EXPLANATION:

Due to the exertion of surface tension by the molecules, water droplets always take a round shape when dropped onto plane surfaces. So option 4 is correct.

The audible range of sound for human beings is from __________.

((a))
20 Hz to 200 kHz
((b))
10 Hz to 100 kHz
((c))
20 Hz to 20 kHz
((d))
10 Hz to 10 kHz

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

20 Hz to 20 kHz

The audible range of sound refers to the range of frequencies that can be heard by an organism.
The audible range of sound for human beings is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. This range can vary due to age and change in environmental factors.
Sounds below 20 Hz are called infrasounds and sounds above 20,000 Hz are termed ultrasounds and they cannot be perceived by the human ear.
Infrasounds can be perceived by animals like elephants (14 Hz to 12,000 Hz) and ultrasounds can be heard by animals like bats (1000 Hz to 200,000 Hz).

Swadeshi Movement started in India during _________.

((a))
Anti-Bengal Partition agitation
((b))
The first non-co-operation movement of 1919-22
((c))
The Champaran Satyagraha of Gandhi
((d))
The protest against Rowlatt Act

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Anti-Bengal Partition agitation

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Anti-Bengal Partition agitation.

Swadeshi Movement started in India during Anti-Bengal Partition agitation.
It started at Calcutta Town Hall, Bengal on 7 August 1905.
Boycott Movement was also launched with it.
The Khilafat and non-cooperation movement took place in 1919-22.
The Champaran Satyagraha of Gandhi took place in the year 1917.
The protest against the Rowlatt Act in the year 1919.

Under which of the following acts did the Government of India set up Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

((a))
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2001
((b))
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997
((c))
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2003
((d))
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2005

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997

The Government of India set up Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
TRAI was established as a regulatory body in the year 1997.
It oversees the telecommunications industry of India.
It makes recommendations on how to improve technical compatibility and efficiency and also encourages technological improvements.

In December 2018, _______ won the Women's Single title at the National Squash Championship held in Delhi.

((a))
Sachika Balvani
((b))
Aparajitha Balamurukan
((c))
Bhuvaneshwari Kumari
((d))
Joshna Chinappa

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Joshna Chinappa

In December 2018, Joshna Chinappa won the Women's Singles title at the National Squash Championship held in Delhi.
This was her 16th National title.
She is also the first Indian squash player who won the British Squash Championship in the year 2003.
She won the squash women’s doubles gold medal with Dipika Pallikal Karthik in 2014 at the Commonwealth Games.

________ has become the youngest man in the world to have scaled seven highest peaks and volcanic summits across continents.

((a))
Raj Singh Dharmashaktu
((b))
Satyarup Siddhanta
((c))
Mohan Singh
((d))
Santosh Yadav

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Satyarup Siddhanta

Satyarup Siddhanta is an Indian mountaineer who is the first Indian and the youngest mountaineer (at age 36) in the world to climb both the Seven Volcanic Summits and the Seven Summits.
He achieved this feat on 15 January 2019.
He is also the first Indian to climb-

Mt Sidley, highest volcano of Antarctica
Mt Giluwe, highest volcano of Papua New Guinea
Mt Wilhelm, highest mountain of Papua New Guinea

He is also an environmentalist, techie, motivational speaker, and President and founder of ABETO ("a better tomorrow") foundation.

The Nobel Prize is awarded in 6 categories each year. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

((a))
Mathematics
((b))
Literature
((c))
Physics
((d))
Economics

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Mathematics

The Nobel Prize is a set of awards that are given annually in recognition of scientific, academic, and cultural achievements in 6 categories which are Physics, Chemistry, Medicine or Physiology, Economics, Peace and Literature. It is not awarded in Mathematics.
Five of the six Nobel Prizes were established in 1895 as per the will of Swedish chemist and engineer Alfred Nobel. These were in the fields of Literature, Physics, Chemistry, Peace, and Medicine or Physiology.
Nobel Prize in Economics was introduced in 1968 by Sveriges Riksbank, Sweden's central bank.
The first Nobel Prizes in the original 5 fields were awarded in 1901 and the first Nobel Prize in Economics was given in 1969.

Apiculture is the technique of scientific rearing of _______ in a specially designed wooden box.

((a))
Honey bees
((b))
Silkworms
((c))
Moths
((d))
Termites

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Honey bees

Apiculture is the technique of scientific rearing of honey bees in a specially designed wooden box.
The essential elements for beekeeping are smoker, safety dress, moveable hive, honey extractor and hive tool.
Sericulture is the process of rearing of silkworms to produce raw silk.

The five kingdom concept of classification of organisms was given by:

((a))
William Paley
((b))
Charles Darwin
((c))
Carl Woese
((d))
Robert Whittaker

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Robert Whittaker

The five-kingdom concept of classification of organisms was given by Robert H. Whittaker.
These were Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista, and Monera.
Robert Whittaker was an American biologist and ecologist.

Scientist	Invention/Discovery/Work/Contribution
William Paley	Watchmaker analogy
Charles Darwin	Theory of evolution
Carl Woese	Three-domain system
Robert Whittaker	Five kingdom concept of classification of organisms

What was the paternal name of Swami Dayanand Saraswati?

((a))
Narayan Shankar
((b))
Mool Shankar
((c))
Krishna Shankar
((d))
Om Shankar

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Mool Shankar

Mool Shankar was the paternal name of Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
Swami Dayanand Saraswati was the founder of Arya Samaj and a religious leader of India.
He was born in Tankara, Gujarat on 12 February 1824.
He founded the Arya Samaj on 7 April 1875 in Bombay.

100

The Maharana Pratap Sagar reservoir on the rivers Beas in Himachal Pradesh is also known as ________.

((a))
Pong Dam
((b))
Ukai Dam
((c))
Dharoi Dam
((d))
Tehri Dam

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Pong Dam

The correct answer is Pong Dam.

Key Points

The Maharana Pratap Sagar reservoir on the rivers Beas in Himachal Pradesh is also known as Pong Dam.
It is located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
Ukai Dam is situated on the Tapi river in Gujarat.
Dharoi Dam is situated in the Mehsana district of Gujarat on the river Sabarmati.
Tehri Dam is situated in Uttarakhand and is the highest dam of India.

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

101

The sides of a triangle are 10 cm, 24 cm and 26 cm. At each of its vertices, circles of radius 3.5 cm are drawn. What is the area of the triangle excluding the portion covered by the sectors of the circles? (π = 22/7)

((a))
81.5 cm²
((b))
100.75 cm²
((c))
75.75 cm²
((d))
78.25 cm²

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

100.75 cm²

As the sides of the triangle 10 cm, 24 cm and 26 cm are triplets, the triangle will be a right angle triangle with side having length 26 cm as hypotenuse.

⇒ The area of the triangle will be = ½ × base × altitude = 1/2 × 24 × 10 = 120 cm²

Let the three angles of the triangle be 90°, x° and y°

⇒ The area of the three sectors will be = (90/360) × π r² + (x/360) × π r² + (y/360) × π r²

⇒ (90 + x + y)/360 × π r²

As sum of all three angles of triangle is 180°, so 90 + x + y = 180°

The area of the three sectors will be = (180/360) × π r² = 180/360 × 22/7 × (3.5)² = 19.25 cm²

The area of the triangle excluding the portion covered by the sectors of the circles = 120 - 19.25

⇒ 100.75 cm²

102

24 persons working 8 hours a day can complete 2 units of a work in 10 days. How many persons are required to complete 4 units of that work, if they work 6 hours a day for 16 days?

((a))
48
((b))
36
((c))
40
((d))
32

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

m₁ d₁h₁ w₂ = m₂ d₂ h₂ w₁

⇒ 24 × 10 × 8 × 4 = m₂× 16 × 6 × 2

∴ m₂= 40

103

A sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and recast into spheres of radius 2 cm each. How many such spheres can be made?

((a))
36
((b))
25
((c))
27
((d))
24

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

r₁ = 6 cm

Volume of sphere of 6 cm = 4/3 πr³ = 4/3 π × 216

r₂ = 2 cm

Volume of sphere of 2 cm = 4/3 πr³ = 4/3 π × 8

Number of sphere made of 2 cm radius = (4/3 π × 216) / (4/3 π × 8) = 27

104

In the given histogram, what percentage of students have height in the interval of 105- 110?

((a))
17.5%
((b))
18%
((c))
16.5%
((d))
17%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

17.5%

Total student = 11 + 14 + 17 + 15 + 13 + 10 = 80

Number of students who have height in the interval of 105 - 110 = 14

Required percentage = 14 × 100/80 = 17.5%

105

In an examination, 54% of the candidates passed in science and 42% failed in mathematics. If 32% failed in both subjects, what percentage passed in both subjects?

((a))
56%
((b))
48%
((c))
32%
((d))
44%

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

44%

Percentage of candidates failed in science = 46%

Percentage of candidates failed in mathematics = 42%

Total Percentage of failed candidates = (46% + 42%) - 32% = 88% − 32% = 56%

Percentage of candidates passed in both the subjects = 100% − 56% = 44%

106

$9\frac{3}{4} + \left[ {2\frac{1}{6} + \left{ {4\frac{1}{3} - \left( {2\frac{1}{2} + \frac{3}{4}} \right)} \right}} \right] = ?$

((a))
13
((b))
15/4
((c))
14
((d))
17/4

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

$9\frac{3}{4} + \left[ {2\frac{1}{6} + \left{ {4\frac{1}{3} - \left( {2\frac{1}{2} + \frac{3}{4}} \right)} \right}} \right]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{39}}{4} + \left[ {\frac{{13}}{6} + \left{ {\frac{{13}}{3} - \left( {\frac{5}{2} + \frac{3}{4}} \right)} \right}} \right]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{39}}{4} + \left[ {\frac{{13}}{6} + \left{ {\frac{{13}}{3} - \frac{{13}}{4}} \right}} \right]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{39}}{4} + 13\left[ {\frac{1}{6} + \left{ {\frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4}} \right}} \right]$

⇒ 39/4 + 39/12 = 13

107

The efficiencies of A, B and C are in the ratio 4 ∶ 5 ∶ 6. Working together, they can complete a work in 12 days. In how many days will A alone be able to complete that work?

((a))
45
((b))
36
((c))
30
((d))
40

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Total work = sum of efficiencies × time taken together

Total work = (4 + 5 + 6) × 12 = 180 units

A alone will take = total work/A’s individual efficiency

⇒ 180/4 = 45 days

108

A shopkeeper marks his goods at a price such that after giving a discount of 25%, he gains 20%. If the cost price of the article is Rs. 460, what is its marked price?

((a))
Rs. 736
((b))
Rs. 748
((c))
Rs. 725
((d))
Rs. 752

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs. 736

Cost price of the article = 460

Selling price of the article = 460 × 120/100 = 552

Discount = 25%

Selling price = 100 - 25 = 75%

⇒ 75% = 552

Marked price = 552 × 100/75 = Rs. 736

109

If the six-digit number 4x4y96 is divisible by 88, then what will be the value of (x + 2y)?[y = smallest number > 0]

((a))
13
((b))
10
((c))
12
((d))
19

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

if the number is divisible by 88, it has to be divisible by 11 also.

To check divisibility by 11,

⇒ 4 + 4 + 9 = x + y + 6

⇒ x + y = 11

Also, the number should be divisible by 8.

To check the divisibility by 8 last three digits must be divisible by 8.

Y96 should be divisible by 8.

The value y = 2 (least) it divisible by 8.

∴ x + 2y = (x + y) + y = 11 + 2 = 13.

110

What is the sum of the mean proportional between 10.8 and 4.8 and the third proportional of 2 and 4?

((a))
15.2
((b))
11.2
((c))
8.2
((d))
10.2

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

15.2

Mean proportional of 4.8 and 10.8 is -

⇒ x = √(4.8 × 10.8)

⇒ x = √(51.84)

⇒ x = 7.2

Third proportional of 2 and 4 is -

y = 4²/2

⇒ y = 16/2

⇒ y = 8

Sum of the above two = 8 + 7.2 = 15.2

111

From the top of a 10 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the angle of depression of the foot of the tower is θ, such that tan θ = 2/3. What is the height of the tower to nearest metres?

((a))
34 m
((b))
35 m
((c))
36 m
((d))
33 m

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

36 m

Drawing the following diagram,

In ΔBCD,

⇒ tan θ = CD/ BC = 2/3

CD = BE (from the figure)

⇒ CD = 10 meter

2 units = 10 meter

⇒ 1 unit = 5 meter

⇒ BC = 3 units = 3 × 5 = 15 meter

Let the height AC be y meter

In ΔABC,

tan 60° = AC/BC

⇒ √3 = y/15

⇒ y = 26 (approximately)

∴ Height of the tower = AC + CD = 26 + 10 = 36 meter

112

Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 respectively and pipe C can empty the full tank in 12 hours. If all three pipes are opened together when a tank is empty, in how many hours will 35% tank be filled?

((a))
1.9 h
((b))
1.5 h
((c))
1.6 h
((d))
1.8 h

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1.8 h

Shortcut Trick

Let the capacity of tank be 36 units

The efficiency of A = 6 unit per hr

The efficiency of B = 4 unit per hr

Efficiency of C = -3 unit per hr

35% of tank capacity = 36 × 35/100 = 12.6

Combined efficiency = 6 + 4 - 3 = 7

∴ Required time = 12.6 ÷ 7 = 1.8 h

113

In the given histogram, what is the mean height of all students correct to one decimal place?

((a))
116.8 cm
((b))
114.7 cm
((c))
116.2 cm
((d))
115.6 cm

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

114.7 cm

The mean height of all students

$\frac{{\frac{{100; + ;105}}{2}; \times ;11; + ;\frac{{105; + ;110}}{2}; \times ;14; + ;\frac{{110; + ;115}}{2}; \times ;17; + ;\frac{{115; + ;120}}{2}; \times ;15; + ;\frac{{120; + ;125}}{2}; \times ;13; + ;\frac{{125; + ;130}}{2}; \times ;10}}{{11; + ;14; + ;17; + ;15; + ;13; + ;10}}$

⇒ (1133 + 1498 + 1921 + 1755 + 1599 + 1270)/80 = 9176 / 80 = 114.7

114

A boat can go 30 km downstream and 24 km upstream in 2 hours 27 minutes. Also, it can go 20 km downstream and 8 km upstream 74 minutes. What is the speed of the boat in still water in km/h?

((a))
18
((b))
20
((c))
24
((d))
22

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2 h 27 min = 49/20 h

74 min = 37/30 h

Let the speed of boat be x km/h and speed of stream be y km/h

$\frac{{30}}{{x + y}} + \frac{{24}}{{x - y}} = \frac{{49}}{{20}}$ ----(1)

$\frac{{20}}{{x + y}} + \frac{8}{{x - y}} = \frac{{37}}{{30}}$ ----(2)

Multiplying eq..(1) by 2 and eq. (2) by 3 and then subtracting eq. (2) from eq. (1)

$\frac{{24}}{{x - y}} = \frac{{72}}{{60}}$

x - y = 20 ----(3)

Putting x - y = 20 in eq. (1)

x + y = 24 ---- (4)

From eq. (3) and eq. (4)

x = 22

∴ Speed of boat = 22 km/h

115

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral such that AB is a diameter of the circle circumscribing it and angle ADC = 140°. Then angle BAC is equal to∶

((a))
38°
((b))
40°
((c))
50°
((d))
60°

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

50°

We know that in cyclic quadrilateral the sum of opposite angle is 180°

∴ ∠ADC + ∠ABC = 180°

⇒ 140° + ∠ABC = 180°

⇒ ∠ABC = 40°

Now

In ∆ABC,

We know that angle made by diameter at the circumference of circle = 90°

∴ ∠ACB = 90°

∠BAC + ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180°

⇒ ∠BAC + 40° + 90° = 180°

∴ ∠BAC = 180° − 130° = 50°

116

What is the sum of digits of the least number, which when divided by 15, 18 and 24 leaves the remainder 8 in each case and is also divisible by 13?

((a))
17
((b))
16
((c))
15
((d))
18

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

15 = 3 × 5

18 = 2 × 3 × 3

24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 360

Before leaving remainder 8, the number required is 368.

368/13 = 28.31

So, this is not a divisible by 13.

360 × 2 = 720 + 8 = 728

⇒ 728 ÷ 13 = 56

Correct number is 728.

∴ Sum of these digits is 17.

117

In the given histogram, which height class has maximum number of students?

((a))
120 - 125
((b))
105 - 110
((c))
115 - 120
((d))
110 - 115

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

110 - 115

Calculation:

From the given diagram

Height Class	Number of students
120-125	13
105-110	14
115-120	15
110-115	17

Height class 110-115 has the maximum number of students

Height class 110-115 has 17 students

∴ Height class 110-115 has the maximum number of students

118

The successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 15% is equivalent to a single discount of∶

((a))
43.5%
((b))
42.2%
((c))
38.8%
((d))
44.5%

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

38.8%

Let the original price be 100

Final price after 3 successive discounts = 100 × (80/100) × (90/100) × (85/100) = 61.20

Actual discount = 100 - 61.20 = 38.80

∴ Actual discount% = 38.80/100 × 100 = 38.80%

119

$4\frac{4}{5} \div \frac{3}{7};of;7 + \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{{10}} - \frac{1}{5}$ is equal to∶

((a))
7/5
((b))
8/5
((c))
34/25
((d))
41/25

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

41/25

$4\frac{4}{5} \div \frac{3}{7};of;7 + \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{{10}} - \frac{1}{5}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{24}}{5}; \div \left( {\frac{3}{7} \times 7} \right) + \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{{10}} - \frac{1}{5} = \frac{{24}}{5}; \div 3 + \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{{10}} - \frac{1}{5}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{24}}{5} \times \frac{1}{3} + \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{{10}} - \frac{1}{5}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{8}{5} + \frac{6}{{25}} - \frac{1}{5} = \frac{{46}}{{25}} - \frac{1}{5} = \frac{{41}}{{25}}$

120

$\frac{{675 \times 675 \times 675 + 325 \times 325 \times 325}}{{675 \times 675 + 325 \times 325 - 675 \times 325}}=?$

((a))
100
((b))
10,000
((c))
1,000
((d))
1,00,000

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1,000

We have,

a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² - ab + b²)

Suppose a = 675 and b = 325

⇒ (a³ + b³) / [(a² + b² - ab)]

= [(a + b)(a² - ab + b²)] / [(a² + b² - ab)] = (a + b) = (675 + 325) = 1000

121

In the given pie-chart, what is the ratio of the total expenditure on steel, cement and bricks to the total expenditure on labour and miscellaneous expenses?

((a))
3 ∶ 7
((b))
3 ∶ 5
((c))
4 ∶ 5
((d))
9 ∶ 11

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

9 ∶ 11

Total expenditure on steel, cement and bricks = 36° + 72° + 54° = 162°

Total expenditure on labour and miscellaneous = 108° + 90° = 198°

∴ Required ratio = 162° ∶ 198° = 9 ∶ 11

122

A sum of Rs. 20,000 is invested for 15 months at the interest for 10% per annum compounded half yearly. What is the percentage gain, correct to once decimal place, at the end of 15 month?

((a))
12.55%
((b))
13.6%
((c))
13.0%
((d))
13.4%

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

13.0%

Rate of interest = 10% per annum

Rate of interest = 5% per half year

Interest gained in first six months on Rs. 20000 = 5/100 × 20000 = Rs. 1000

Interest gained in next six month = 5/100 × 20000 + 5/100 × 1000 = 1000 + 50 = Rs. 1050

Rate of interest for last three months will be = 5/2 = 2.5%

Interest gained in last three month = 2.5/100 × 20000 + 2.5/100 × 1000 + 2.5/100 × 1050

⇒ 500 + 25 + 26.25 = Rs. 551.25

Total interest gained in 15 months = 1000 + 1050 + 551.25 = Rs. 2601.25

Percentage gain = 2601.25/20000 × 100 = 13%

123

If a train runs at 60 km/h, it reaches its destination 15 minutes late. But, if it runs at 80 km/h, it is late by 7 minutes only. The right time for the train to cover its journey is∶

((a))
18 minutes
((b))
17 minutes
((c))
20 minutes
((d))
21 minutes

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

17 minutes

Given

Initial speed = 60 km/h

Later speed = 80 km/h

We know that

${\rm{Distance}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{Initial;speed}} \times {\rm{later;speed;}}}}{{{\rm{Difference;between;speed;}}}} \times {\rm{difference;in;time}}$

${\rm{Distance}} = \frac{{60 \times 80}}{{20}} \times \frac{8}{{60}} = 32{\rm{;km}}$

When speed is 60 km/h then time taken by train = 32/60 = 8/15 h = 32 min

Because it is late by 15 min

∴ Right time for train to cover the journey = 32 - 15 = 17 min

124

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively. They are opened alternately for 1 hour each starting with pipe A first. In how many hours the tank will be filled?

((a))
5
((b))
4
((c))
6
((d))
7

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Capacity of the tank = LCM of the time taken by A and B.

Capacity of the tank = 18 units

A’s efficiency = 18/6 = 3 units per hour

B’s efficiency = 18/9 = 2 units per hour

2 hours work for A and B = (3 + 2) = 5 units

⇒ 2 × 3 hours = 3 × 5 or 15 units

⇒ 6 hours = 15 units

⇒ 7 hours = 18 units. (At last A fills remaining 3 units)

∴ Tank will be filled in 7 hours.

125

The average of 16 numbers is 48. The average of the first 7 numbers is 45 and the average of the next 6 numbers is 52. If the 14^th number is 11 less than the 15^th number and is 5 more than the 16^th number, then the average of the 15^th and 16^thnumber is∶

((a))
47.5
((b))
48.5
((c))
49
((d))
48

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The sum of 16 numbers = 48 × 16 = 768

The sum of first 7 numbers = 45 × 7 = 315

The sum of next 6 numbers = 52 × 6 = 312

The sum of the last 3 numbers = 768 - 315 - 312 = 141

Let the 16^th number be x.

14^th number = x + 5

14^th number = 15^th number - 11

⇒ x + 5 = 15^th number - 11

⇒ 15^th number = x + 16

The sum of the last 3 numbers = 141

⇒ x + x + 5 + x + 16 = 141

⇒ x = 40

15^th number = 40 + 16 = 56

The average of the 15^th and 16^thnumber = (56 + 40)/2 = 48

Alternate Method Deflection of the first seven numbers from average = 7 × (45 - 48) = -21

Deflection of the next 6 numbers from average = (52 - 48) × 6 = +24

Total deflection of 24 - 21 = 3

Deflection of the last three numbers from the average = -3

The sum of last three numbers should = 48 × 3 - 3 = 141

⇒ x + x + 5 + x + 16 = 141

⇒ x = 40

15th number = 40 + 16 = 56

The average of the 15th and 16th number = (56 + 40)/2 = 48

126

Two numbers are in the ratio 4 ∶ 5. If their HCF is 16, then the sum of these two numbers is∶

((a))
144
((b))
124
((c))
160
((d))
150

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

144

Given:

The ratio of numbers = 4 : 5

HCF of the numbers = 16

Concept used:

The largest number that divides two or more numbers is the highest common factor (HCF) for those numbers.

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 4x and 5x

HCF of 4x and 5x = x

HCF = 16

⇒ x = 16

∴ Sum of two numbers = 4x + 5x = 9x = 9 × 16 = 144

∴ The sum of these two numbers is 144.

127

If ΔABC ~ ΔQPR, $\frac{{ar;\left( {ABC} \right)}}{{ar;\left( {{\rm{\Delta }}QPR} \right)}} = \frac{9}{4},$ AC = 12 cm, AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm, then PR is equal to∶

((a))
20/3 cm
((b))
12 cm
((c))
8 cm
((d))
10 cm

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

10 cm

From the theorem -

(ar ΔABC) / (ar ΔQPR) = (Side of ABC)² / (Side of QPR)²

⇒ (Side of ABC)² / (Side of QPR)² = 9/4

⇒ (Side of ABC) / (Side of QPR) = 3/2

⇒ 3/2 = BC/PR

⇒ 3/2 = 15/PR

⇒ PR = 10 cm

Alternate Method Given:

AC = 12

$\frac{{ar;\left( {ABC} \right)}}{{ar;\left( {{\rm{\Delta }}QPR} \right)}} = \frac{9}{4},$

Calculation:

⇒ (Side of ABC)2 / (Side of QPR)2 = 9/4

⇒ (Side of ABC) / (Side of QPR) = 3/2

⇒ 3/2 = BC/PR

⇒ 3/2 = 15/PR

⇒ PR = 10 cm

128

In the given bar graph, what is the ratio of the total boys and girls in all 5 colleges?

((a))
13 ∶ 12
((b))
14 ∶ 15
((c))
15 ∶ 14
((d))
12 ∶ 13

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

15 ∶ 14

Total number of boys in all 5 colleges = 400 + 600 + 650 + 600 + 750 = 3000

Total number of girls in all 5 colleges = 500 + 500 + 700 + 450 + 650 = 2800

∴ Required ratio = 3000 ∶ 2800 = 15 ∶ 14

129

In ΔABC, ∠A = 50°. Its sides AB and AC are produced to the point D and E. If the bisectors of ∠CBD and ∠BCE meet at the point O, then ∠BOC is equal to∶

((a))
75°
((b))
65°
((c))
55°
((d))
40°

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

65°

From the theorem,

∠BOC = 90° - ∠A/2

⇒ ∠BOC = 90° - 50°/2 = 65°

130

The value of $[\frac{{{{\sin }^2}24^\circ + si{n^2}66^\circ }}{{{{\cos }^2}24^\circ + {{\cos }^2}66^\circ }} + {\sin ^2}61^\circ + cos61^\circ \sin 29^\circ ]$ is equal to∶

((a))
2
((b))
3
((c))
1
((d))
0

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

$[\frac{{{{\sin }^2}24^\circ + si{n^2}66^\circ }}{{{{\cos }^2}24^\circ + {{\cos }^2}66^\circ }} + {\sin ^2}61^\circ + cos61^\circ \sin 29^\circ ]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{si{n^2};24^\circ + ;si{n^2};\left( {90^\circ - 24^\circ } \right)}}{{co{s^2};24^\circ + ;co{s^2}\left( {90^\circ - 24^\circ } \right)}} + ;si{n^2};61^\circ + cos61^\circ \sin \left( {90^\circ - 61^\circ } \right)$

⇒ (sin² 24° + cos² 24°)/(cos² 24° + sin² 24°) + (sin² 61° + cos² 61°)

⇒ 1 + 1 = 2

131

If A’s income is 40% more than the income of B, then what percentage of B’s income is less than income of A?

((a))
$27\frac{4}{7}%$
((b))
$28\frac{5}{7}%$
((c))
$27\frac{5}{7}%$
((d))
$28\frac{4}{7}%$

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

$28\frac{4}{7}%$

Let the income of B be 100

∴ Income of A = 140

B’s income is less than income of A by (140 - 100) = 40

Required percentage $= \frac{{40}}{{140}} \times 100 = \frac{{200}}{7} = 28\frac{4}{7}%$

132

A sum of Rs. 15,000 is invested partly at 12% per annum and the remaining at 10% per annum simple interest. If the total interest at end of 2 years is Rs. 3,344 how much money was invested at 10% per annum?

((a))
Rs. 6,200
((b))
Rs. 6,600
((c))
Rs. 6,400
((d))
Rs. 6,500

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs. 6,400

Let Rs. x invested at 12% per annum and (15000 - x) invested at 10% per annum

$\frac{{x \times 2 \times 12;}}{{100}} + \frac{{\left( {15000 - x} \right) \times 10 \times 2}}{{100;}} = 3344$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{12x}}{{100}} + \frac{{150000 - 10x}}{{100}} = 1672$

⇒ 2x + 150000 = 167200

∴ x = 8600

Money invested at 10% per annum = 15000 - 8600 = Rs. 6400

133

A ladder leaning against a wall makes an angle α with the horizontal ground such that tan α = 3/4 If the foot of the ladder is 5 m away from the wall, what is the length of the ladder?

((a))
5.25 m
((b))
3.75 m
((c))
6.25 m
((d))
4.5 m

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

6.25 m

Given

tan α = 3/4

∴ p = 3 units, b = 4 units and h = 5 units

4 units = 5

∴ 1 unit = 5/4

Length of ladder = 5 unit = 5 × 5/4 = 25/4 = 6.25 m

134

The side of a rhombus is 5 cm and one of its diagonal is 8 cm. what is the area of the rhombus?

((a))
30 cm²
((b))
20 cm²
((c))
40 cm²
((d))
24 cm²

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

24 cm²

We know that in rhombus the diagonals bisect each other at right angle.

Applying Pythagoras theorem in ∆BOC

BO = √(5² - 4²) = 3 cm

∴ BD = 3 × 2 = 6 cm

AC = 8 cm (Given)

Area of rhombus = (1/2) × First diagonal × Second diagonal = (1/2) × 6 × 8 = 24 cm²

135

In the given pie-chart, the expenditure on steel is what percent of the expenditure on cement?

((a))
55%
((b))
50%
((c))
40%
((d))
45%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

50%

Expenditure on steel = 36

Expenditure on cement = 72

Required percentage = 36 × 100/72 = 50%

136

In the given pie-chart, what is the total expenditure (in percent) on labour charges?

((a))
25%
((b))
20%
((c))
18%
((d))
30%

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

30%

Total expenditure on Labour = (108/360) × 100 = 30%

137

The radius of a cylinder is increased by 150% and its height is decreased by 20%. What is the percentage increase in its volume?

((a))
400%
((b))
600%
((c))
500%
((d))
80%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

400%

Radius increased = 150% = +3/2

Height decreased = 20% = -1/5

Initial Now

Radius 2 5

Height 5 4

Volume 20 100

Increase in volume = 100 - 20 = 80

Percentage increase = (80/20) × 100 = 400%

138

5 cubes, each of edge 4 cm, are joined end to end. What is the total surface area of the resulting cuboid?

((a))
352 cm²
((b))
486 cm²
((c))
720 cm²
((d))
526 cm²

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

352 cm²

When 5 cubes are joined end to end, it will form a cuboid.

The length of cuboid so formed will be = 5 × 4 = 20 cm

And the height and the breadth of the cuboid will remain the same. i.e. 4 cm.

The total surface area of the cuboid = 2(lb + bh + lh)

= 2(20 × 4 + 4 × 4 + 20 × 4) = 2(80 + 16 + 80) = 352 cm²

139

The square root of which of the following is a rational number?

((a))
1250.49
((b))
6250.49
((c))
1354.24
((d))
5768.28

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1354.24

Important Points

The unit digit of a perfect square number can not be 2, 3 or 8. Therefore, option (4) is automatically eliminated.

Definition:

A rational number is a number that can be in the form p/q

where p and q are integers and q is not equal to zero.

Calculation:

The square root of 1250.49 = 35.36226802...

The square root of 6250.49 = 79.06004047…

The square root of 1354.24 = 36.8

The square root of 5768.28 = 75.9491935441….

Only the square root of 1354.24 is rational number

140

The price of sugar has decreased by 15%. By what percentage can a person increase the consumption so the there is no change in expenditure?

((a))
300/23%
((b))
300/17%
((c))
50/3%
((d))
20/3%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

300/17%

From the formula -

[(R × 100) / (100 - r)]%

⇒ (15 × 100) / (100 - 15) = 1500/85 = 300/17%

141

In a class of 50 students, 40% are girls. The average weight of the boys is 62 kg and that of the girls is 58 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of the whole class?

((a))
60.4
((b))
602
((c))
60.8
((d))
60.6

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

60.4

Number of girls = 50 × 40/100 = 20

Number of boys = 50 - 20 = 30

Total weight of boys = 30 × 62 = 1860

Total weight of girls = 20 × 58 = 1160

Total weight of 50 students = 1860 + 1160 = 3020

∴ Average = 3020/50 = 60.4

142

If x + 1/x = 5, then x³ + 1/x³ is equal to∶

((a))
110
((b))
130
((c))
145
((d))
125

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

110

(x + 1/x) = 5

On cubing both the side,

⇒ (x + 1/x)³ = 5³

⇒ (x³+ 1/x³ + 3(x × 1/x)(x + 1/x) = 125

⇒ (x³+ 1/x³) + 3 × 5 = 125

⇒ (x³+ 1/x³) = 110

143

If tan x = cot(45° + 2x), then what is the value of x?

((a))
45°
((b))
15°
((c))
45°/2
((d))
20°

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

15°

If tan a = cot b, a + b = 90°

Given∶

tan x = cot (45° + 2x)

⇒ x + 45° + 2x = 90°

⇒ x = 15°

144

A, B and C started a business by investing Rs. 55,000, Rs. 65,000, Rs. 75,000 respectively. A is a working partner and gets 20% of the profit and the remaining is distributed in the proportion of their investments. If the total profit is Rs. 87,750 what is the share of A?

((a))
Rs. 27,000
((b))
Rs. 37,500
((c))
Rs. 23,000
((d))
Rs. 37,350

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rs. 37,350

A B C

Ratio of Investment = 55,000 ∶ 65,000 ∶ 75,000

= 11 ∶ 13 ∶ 15

∴ Ratio of profit = 11 ∶ 13 ∶ 15

Let their profit share be 11x , 13x and 15x

Profit distributed among them = 87,750 × 80/100 = 70200

Hence,

11x + 13x + 15x = 70200

⇒ 39x = 70200

⇒ x = 1800

Share of A from remaining profit = 1800 × 11 = 19800

Also, A gets 20% share from total profit = 87750 × 20/100 = 17550

∴ Total share of A = 19800 + 17550 = Rs. 37350

145

In the given bar graph, in which college the difference between the percentage of boys and girls is maximum, by taking total number of students as base for that college?

((a))
E
((b))
B
((c))
D
((d))
A

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

College A∶

Total number of students = Boys + Girls = 400 + 500 = 900

Difference between boys and girl = 500 - 400 = 100

The percentage difference between boys and girls = 100/900 × 100 = 11.11%

College B∶

Total number of students = Boys + Girls = 600 + 500 = 1100

Difference between boys and girl = 600 - 500 = 100

The percentage difference between boys and girls = 100/1100 × 100 = 9.09%

College C∶

Total number of students = Boys + Girls = 650 + 700 = 1350

Difference between boys and girl = 700 - 650 = 50

The percentage difference between boys and girls = 50/1350 × 100 = 3.70%

College D∶

Total number of students = Boys + Girls = 600 + 450 = 1050

Difference between boys and girl = 600 - 450 = 150

The percentage difference between boys and girls = 150/1050 × 100 = 14.28%

College E∶

Total number of students = Boys + Girls = 750 + 650 = 1400

Difference between boys and girl = 750 - 650 = 100

The percentage difference between boys and girls = 100/1400 × 100 = 7.14%

∴ In college D the difference between the percentage of boys and girls is maximum, by taking total number of students as base for that college.

146

If (x - 5)³+ (x - 6)³ + (x - 7)³ = 3 (x - 5) (x - 6) (x - 7), then what is the value of x?

((a))
6
((b))
7
((c))
5
((d))
18

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

When a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc, then a + b + c = 0

(x - 5)³+ (x - 6)³ + (x - 7)³ = 3 (x - 5) (x - 6) (x - 7)

⇒ x - 5 + x - 6 + x - 7 = 0

⇒ 3x = 18

⇒ x = 6

147

If a³ - b³ = 208 and a - b = 4, then (a + b)² - ab is equal to∶

((a))
52
((b))
38
((c))
32
((d))
42

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

a³ - b³ = 208

⇒ (a - b)(a² + ab + b²) = 208

⇒ 4(a² + ab + b²) = 208

⇒ a² + ab + b² = 52

Now,

(a + b)² - ab = a² + 2ab + b² - ab = a² + ab + b² = 52

148

In the given bar graph, what is the average number of girls in all colleges?

((a))
560
((b))
540
((c))
550
((d))
600

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

560

Total girls in college A = 500

Total girls in college B = 500

Total girls in college C = 700

Total girls in college D = 450

Total girls in college E = 650

Total girls in all college = 500 + 500 + 700 + 450 + 650 = 2800

The average number of girls in all colleges = Total girls in all colleges/Total number of colleges

⇒ 2800/5 = 560

149

A shopkeeper sold two articles for Rs. 9471 each. On one, he gained 23% and on the other, he lost 23%. What is the overall percentage gain or loss?

((a))
5.29% loss
((b))
6.29% gain
((c))
5.29% gain
((d))
6.29% loss

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

5.29% loss

Successive percentage change is given by∶

x + y + xy/100

Given∶

On one, he gained 23% and on the other, he lost 23%

⇒ x = 23 and y = -23

⇒ Overall percentage change = 23 - 23 + (23)(-23)/100 = -5.29%

∴ The overall percentage loss of 5.29%.

150

PA and PB are two tangents to a circle with centre O, from a point P outside the circle. A and B are points on the circle. If ∠APB = 40°, then ∠OAB equal to∶

((a))
40°
((b))
20°
((c))
50°
((d))
25°

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

20°

Using theorem in this figure,

OA and OB are perpendicular on Tangents PA and PB.

Also ∠APB = 40°

The sum of the angles of a Quadrilateral = 360°

In quadrilateral PABO-

∠APB + ∠OAP + ∠AOB + ∠OBP = 360°

⇒ 40° + 90° + ∠AOB + 90° = 360°

⇒ ∠AOB = 140°

In ΔAOB

⇒ ∠OAB + ∠ABO + ∠AOB = 180°

(∵ Sum of the angles of a triangle is 180°)

⇒ ∠x + ∠x + 140° = 180°

⇒ x = 20°

English Comprehension (50 questions)

151

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The assistant in the library picked up the books from the tables and put ______ back on the shelves.

((a))
its
((b))
them
((c))
it
((d))
they

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

them

The correct answer is: them.

Key Points

The context tells us that the library assistant removed the books from the tables and rearranged them on the bookshelves.
The sentence requires a plural pronoun which refers to the 'books' (plural).
As 'its' is a singular possessive pronoun, it is grammatically incorrect in this context.
'they' is a subjective pronoun and 'it' is a singular pronoun and hence, they are the incorrect options.
Them: used as the object of a verb or preposition to refer to two or more people or things previously mentioned or easily identified.
The sentence tells about books which is plural. So 'them' should be the correct word that must fit the blank as it refers to the 'books' previously mentioned.

Therefore, the correct answer is: The assistant in the library picked up the books from the tables and put them back on the shelves.

152

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Don't take it seriously. He was simply pulling your leg.

((a))
trying to comfort someone
((b))
scolding someone for nothing
((c))
playing a joke with someone
((d))
speaking in a harsh tone

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

playing a joke with someone

The correct answer is option 3.

The idiom pulling one's leg means to joke or tease someone. The sentence is instructing that don't take it seriously as he was just joking.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

153

Select the wrongly spelt word.

((a))
blemish
((b))
blister
((c))
blind
((d))
blossum

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

blossum

The correct answer is option 4.

The incorrectly spelled word is blossum. The correct spelling will be blossom which means a flower or a mass of flowers.

All other words are correctly spelled.

Blemish refers to a small mark or flaw which spoils the appearance of something.

Blister refers to a small bubble on the skin filled with serum and caused by friction, burning, or other damage.

Blind refers to an inability to see.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

154

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

You have travelled a long way. You _______ be tired.

((a))
should
((b))
must
((c))
can
((d))
could

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

must

The correct answer is option 2.

Can is used to show a possibility.

Could is the past tense of can.

Should is used to give advice or logical answer.

Must is used when there is a certain obligation or an order. It is a modal verb most commonly used to express certainty.

In the given sentence, it is suggesting that traveling a long way has made the person tired. So, must should be used here.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

155

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Our new office is equipped ______________ all the latest technology.

((a))
by
((b))
with
((c))
from
((d))
about

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

with

The correct answer is option 2.

By means as a means of something or someone.

From shows the place that someone/something left--or it shows the starting point of the movement.

With means accompanied by something or someone.

About means on the subject of something or concerning something/someone. It also means approximately.

The word equipped means to supply with the necessary items.

In the given blank, equipped is mentioned which is followed by the preposition with.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

156

Select the wrongly spelt word.

((a))
gobbel
((b))
gloss
((c))
glutton
((d))
gloomy

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

gobbel

The correct answer is option 1.

Here, gobbel is incorrectly spelled. It should be gobble which means to eat hurriedly and noisily.

The meaning of other words are:

Gloss refers to shine or luster on a smooth surface.

Glutton refers to a person who eats excessively.

Gloomy refers to dark or poorly lit.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

157

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

I looked at my damaged car and __________ how much it would cost to repair it.

((a))
wondered
((b))
wonder
((c))
wondering
((d))
wonders

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

wondered

The correct answer is option 1.

The sentence is in the past tense, and it can be understood from the word looked. So the word which can be used in the blank is wondered. [ a past tense verb]

Wonder is the base form of the verb and it cannot be used as it will give an error of tense and parallelism.

Wondering is the present continuous form of the verb.

Wonders is the present tense form of the verb. Both of them are incorrect for the given blank.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

158

Select the wrongly spelt word.

((a))
Curious
((b))
Precious
((c))
Victorious
((d))
Couragious

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Couragious

The correct answer is option 4.

The incorrectly spelled word is couragious. The correct spelling is courageous which means to be brave or fearless.

All other words are correctly spelled.

Curious refers to an eagerness to know something.

Precious means valuable.

Victorious refers to winning something.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

159

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

After getting the news of his promotion, he was in high spirits.

((a))
mad
((b))
drunk
((c))
joyful
((d))
hopeful

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

joyful

The correct answer is option 3.

The idiom in high spirits means cheerful mood or lively behavior. The sentence means that after getting the news of his promotion, he was joyful.

Few examples using the idiom:

The team returned in high spirits after winning the match.

He was in high spirits after coming from the music concert.

Hence, the answer is option 3.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

What does the word scout mean? During a war, a soldier is chosen to go__________ (1) of an army in order to __________ (2) out where the enemy is. He then ________(3) back to the commander all the (4) he has gathered about the (5). Such a soldier is known as a scout.

160

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 4.

((a))
information
((b))
news
((c))
messages
((d))
communications

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

information

The best way to solve this type of cloze test is to first understand the context and then try to eliminate the incorrect options.

The correct answer is option 1.

For the given blank, information is the correct answer. Though news and messages seem to be correct, according to the context of the sentence, information is the correct word here as it includes any type of data, including news or messages.

Planning does not make sense in the given question.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

161

Select the wrongly spelt word.

((a))
establish
((b))
esteem
((c))
estimate
((d))
essencial

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

essencial

The correct answer is option 4.

The word which has been incorrectly spelled is essencial. The correct spelling is essential which refers to something important.

The meaning of the words given are:

Establish means to set up or start something.

Esteem refers to respect or admiration.

Estimate means to calculate roughly.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

162

Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.

'A large enclosure for keeping the birds in'

((a))
apiary
((b))
aquarium
((c))
aviary
((d))
menagerie

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

aviary

The correct answer is option 3.

Apiary refers to a place where bees are kept.

Aquarium refers to a transparent tank of water in which live fish are kept

Aviary refers to a large cage, building, or enclosure for keeping birds in.

Menagerie refers to a collection of wild animals that are kept private or to show to the public.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

163

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Many people in our country like to feather their own nest from the money they raise for social work.

((a))
provide comforts in one's house
((b))
make one's family comfortable
((c))
achieve something and be proud of it
((d))
enrich oneself by dishonest means

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

enrich oneself by dishonest means

The correct answer is option 4.

The idiom feather their own nest means to enrich oneself by using one's influence or position or with other people's money (dishonest means). The sentence means that many people in our country use dishonest means from the money raised for social work.

For example:

They used the donation money to feather their own nest.

The building contractor used a lot of public money to feather his nest.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

164

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

You will not be allowed in the Film Festival _________ you have a photo ID card.

((a))
whether
((b))
unless
((c))
in case
((d))
if

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

unless

The correct answer is option 2.

In case is used to give a certain case for an event.

Unless means except if or only if.

Whether is used to express a doubt.

If is a condition to any event.

Here, in the sentence, it is suggesting that only if one is having a photo card then he will be allowed. So unless will be the correct answer.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

165

Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.

'a medical specialist who administers drugs for relieving pain during surgery.'

((a))
nephrologist
((b))
dermatologist
((c))
anaesthetist
((d))
analgesic

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

anaesthetist

The correct answer is option 3.

Nephrologist refers to a medical doctor who specializes in kidney care and treating diseases of the kidneys.

Dermatologist refers to a medical practitioner qualified to diagnose and treat skin disorders.

Anaesthetist refers to a medical specialist who administers anesthetics, to relieve the patient of any pain during surgery

Analgesic is a medicine used to relieve pain.

It is clear that the correct answer is option 3.

166

Select the word, which means the same as the group of the words given.

'the keeper of a museum'

((a))
conservator
((b))
compere
((c))
curator
((d))
commissioner

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

curator

The correct answer is option 3.

Conservator refers to a person responsible for the repair and preservation of things

Compere refers to a person who introduces the performers or contestants in a variety show.

Curator refers to a keeper or custodian of a museum or other collection.

Commissioner refers to a representative of the supreme authority in an area.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

167

Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.--'a person who eats human flesh'

((a))
scavenger
((b))
tribal
((c))
carnivore
((d))
cannibal

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

cannibal

The correct answer is option 4.

Scavenger refers to an animal that feeds on the dead and decaying matter.

Tribal refers to a group of people often related to families of the same culture, language, and history.

Carnivore refers to an animal who eats meat.

Cannibal refers to a person who eats human flesh.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

168

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

((a))
commanders
((b))
army
((c))
soldiers
((d))
enemy

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

enemy

The correct answer is option 4.

It is clear that the soldier will bring any information regarding the army, commanders or soldiers back to the commander. The information is about the enemy. So, option 4 is correct.

169

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

He has set up his business now as he knows the ins and outs of it.

((a))
details
((b))
usefulness
((c))
importance
((d))
difficulties

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

details

The correct answer is option 1.

The idiom the ins and outs means the details of something. The sentence means that he knows the details of his business.

Few examples:

It takes some time to learn the ins and outs of this chapter.

Shanu knows the ins and outs of repairing computers.

So the correct answer is option 1.

170

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 3.

((a))
sends
((b))
tells
((c))
carries
((d))
reports

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

reports

The correct answer is option 4.

In the context of the armed forces, soldiers are said to report to their seniors. It is the official term used within this context to refer to the sharing of information from a subordinate to his superior. The most appropriate word in this context is report.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

171

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 2.

((a))
call
((b))
bring
((c))
carry
((d))
find

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

find

The correct answer is option 4.

The best way to solve this type of cloze test is to first understand the context and then try to eliminate the incorrect options.

In the given blank, it is mentioned that one soldier goes ahead.

Logically, we are able to understand that the soldier would not go-ahead to carry out, bring out, or call out the enemy but rather to find out the position of the enemy. Hence, according to the context, this will be the correct answer.

Hence, option 4 is correct.

172

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 1.

((a))
behind
((b))
before
((c))
ahead
((d))
after

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

ahead

The correct answer is option 3.

The passage is mentioning the action of a soldier who is chosen to go in front of an army or to face an army. So, the most appropriate word is ahead. 'Behind' means at the back of. Before preceding something. After means following something.

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Tutankhamun was an Egyptian pharaoh who was buried in a lavish tomb filled with gold artifacts in the Valley of the Kings. His tomb was discovered in 1922 by an archaeological team led by British Egyptologist Howard Carter.

The tomb was mostly intact, an extraordinary find given that most of the tombs in the Valley of the Kings had been looted in ancient times.

But while Tutankhamun's tomb was lavish, historical and archaeological evidence indicates that the young pharaoh was sickly and spent his short rule trying to undo a religious revolution that his father had started.

Tutankhamun (as he was called at birth) was born around the year 1341 B.C. His father was the pharaoh Akhenaten, a revolutionary pharaoh who tried to focus Egypt's polytheistic religion around the worship of the sun disc, the Aten. In his fervor, Akhenaten ordered the names and images of other Egyptian deities to be destroyed or defaced.

Tutankhamun ascended to the throne around 1332 B.C. when he was about 9 years old. Given his young age, he would have relied heavily on his advisers. At some point his name was changed to Tutankhamun, removing the word "aten" - a reminder of his father's religious revolution - from his name.

Tutankhamun also condemned his father's actions in a stela (a stone with inscription) found at Karnak, saying that Akhenaten's religious revolution caused the gods to ignore Egypt. Part of the stela reads "the temples and the cities of the gods and goddesses, starting from Elephantine as far as the Delta marshes... were fallen into decay and their shrines were fallen into ruin, having become mere mounds overgrown with grass... The gods were ignoring this land..."

Archaeological evidence indicates that Tutankhamun suffered from ill health. A study of his remains published in 2010 found that he suffered from a variety of maladies, including malaria and Kohler disease (a rare bone disease of the foot). A number of canes have been found in Tutankhamun's tomb, finds that support the idea that the pharaoh had difficulty walking at times.

It's not known what killed Tutankhamun. There have been numerous hypotheses put forward over the years. It's been suggested that he died from an infection caused by a broken leg or from injuries suffered in a chariot accident.

The boy king died in 1323 B.C. around the age of 18. His death was unexpected, and his tomb appears to have been finished quickly. Microbes found on the wall of the tomb indicate that the paint on the wall wasn't even dry when the tomb was sealed.

Howard Carter's team discovered the tomb's entranceway on November 4, 1922, and on November 26 they got inside.

While the treasures were incredible, the tomb was unusually small for a pharaoh's burial, containing only 110 square meters (1,184 square feet) of floor space. The tomb's small size may have been because the pharaoh died young and unexpectedly and there wasn't time to carve out a larger tomb.

173

Tutankhamun had a short rule. Most of his time was used in:

((a))
trying to undo the religious revolution of his father
((b))
fighting with his own diseases
((c))
erecting stelas at different places
((d))
looking after the well- being of his people

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

trying to undo the religious revolution of his father

The correct answer is option 1.

It is mentioned that "spent his short rule trying to undo a religious revolution that his father had started." Thus, it is clear that most of Tutankhamun's time was used in undoing a religious revolution.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

174

Tutankhamun's father was a revolutionary. What was his revolution?

((a))
Images and names of all the Egyptians deities had to be destroyed.
((b))
He wanted his people to be polytheistic.
((c))
He wanted the Egyptians to worship one God - Aten.
((d))
Egyptians were asked to have no religion and no god.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

He wanted the Egyptians to worship one God - Aten.

The correct answer is option 3.

It is mentioned in the passage that "a revolutionary pharaoh who tried to focus Egypt's polytheistic religion around the worship of the sun disc, the Aten." This sentence gives the answer to the question.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

175

What is the main theme of the passage?

((a))
The death of Tutankhamun and his burial
((b))
The life and death of the boy Pharaoh
((c))
The tomb of Tutankhamun
((d))
The discovery of an incredible treasure

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The life and death of the boy Pharaoh

The correct answer is option 2.

After reading the passage, you will find that it revolves around the boy Pharaoh. The story tells about the Egyptian pharaoh who was buried in a lavish tomb filled with gold artifacts in the Valley of the Kings. So, the complete passage is about Pharaoh's lifestyle, tomb, belief, and death which makes option 2 suitable. Other characters are part of the passage but not the protagonist. So, the main theme of the passage is option 2.Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

176

The discovery of a number of canes in the tomb indicates that Tutankhamun:

((a))
had difficulty in walking.
((b))
had fallen from a chariot.
((c))
suffered from an infection.
((d))
suffered from Malaria.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

had difficulty in walking.

The correct answer is option 1.

We can find this sentence "A number of canes have been found in Tutankhamun's tomb, finds that support the idea that the pharaoh had difficulty walking at times." From this, it is clear that option 1 is the correct answer.

177

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

((a))
The tomb was unusually small for a pharaoh's burial.
((b))
Howard Carter's team discovered the tomb's entranceway on November 26, 1922.
((c))
The tomb appears to have been finished quickly as the paint wasn't dry when it was sealed.
((d))
Tutankhamun's tomb was lavishly filled with gold artifacts.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Howard Carter's team discovered the tomb's entranceway on November 26, 1922.

The correct answer is option 2.

If you read the last part, you will find, "Howard Carter's team discovered the tomb's entranceway on November 4, 1922". This tells that the statement in option 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

178

Select the antonym of the given word

VANITY

((a))
Humility
((b))
Timidity
((c))
Dignity
((d))
Pride

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Humility

The correct answer is option 1.

Vanity refers to excessive pride in oneself.

Humility refers to the quality of having a modest or humble behavior.

Timidity refers to a lack of courage or confidence.

Dignity refers to honor or respect.

Pride refers to the feeling/satisfaction that comes from one's achievements.

Vanity is the antonym of humility.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

179

Select the antonym of the given word.

ADVERSITY

((a))
misfortune
((b))
casualty
((c))
calamity
((d))
prosperity

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

prosperity

The correct answer is option 4.

Adversity refers to a difficult or unpleasant situation.

Misfortune refers to bad luck.

Casualty refers to a person or thing badly affected due to an accident

Calamity refers to great and sudden damage; disaster.

Prosperity refers to doing well or flourish.

From the given words, it is clear that the antonym for the word adversity is prosperity.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

180

Select the antonym of the given word

ENTHUSIASM

((a))
fervor
((b))
zeal
((c))
apathy
((d))
nervousness

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

apathy

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. "Apathy".

Key Points

ENTHUSIASM (उत्साह) - Intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval.
Example: His enthusiasm for the project was contagious.
Apathy (उदासीनता) - Lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern.
Example: The widespread apathy among students was concerning.
The word "Apathy" is an antonym of "ENTHUSIASM" because it describes a state of indifference or lack of enthusiasm, directly opposing the concept of keen interest and spirited enjoyment implied by enthusiasm.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Apathy".

Additional Information

Fervor (उत्साह) - Intense and passionate feeling.
Example: She spoke with fervor about her beliefs.
Zeal (जोश) - Great energy or enthusiasm in pursuit of a cause or objective.
Example: He approached the project with zeal.
Nervousness (घबराहट) - The state of being anxious or apprehensive.
Example: Her nervousness was evident before the performance.

181

Select the antonym of the given word

HOLLOW

((a))
Solid
((b))
Narrow
((c))
Vacant
((d))
Shallow

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Solid

The correct answer is option 1.

Hollow means having an empty space inside.

Narrow means having a small width.

Vacant means having empty space.

Shallow means having less depth.

So the correct antonym will be solid which here would mean completely filled or having no empty space in it.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

182

Select the antonym of the given word

LIVELY

((a))
sluggish
((b))
active
((c))
bubbly
((d))
sharp

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

sluggish

The correct answer is option 1.

Lively refers to full of life and energy.

Sluggish means slow-moving or inactive.

Active means ready to engage in something (work or activity).

Bubbly means having a cheerful attitude.

Sharp means precisely (used after an expression of time).

Thus the correct word that can clearly be the antonym of lively is sluggish as both their meanings are opposite.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

183

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

This is the first time anybody have explored into this part of the economy.

((a))
No substitution required
((b))
anybody have explored this part
((c))
anybody has explored this part
((d))
anybody has explored into this part

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

anybody has explored this part

The correct answer is 'anybody has explored this part.'

Key Points

The subject "anybody" is singular, so it requires a singular verb "has" instead of "have."
"Has" is the correct form of the verb to use with the singular subject "anybody."
The word "into" is unnecessary and redundant in this context.
"Explored" is correctly used to indicate the act of examining or investigating.
The sentence becomes clearer and more precise without the word "into."
The corrected sentence follows proper English grammar rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

184

Select the wrongly spelt word.

((a))
Dissappoint
((b))
Discomfort
((c))
Disallow
((d))
Disappear

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Dissappoint

The correct answer is option 1.

The word which is incorrectly spelled is dissappoint. The correct spelling is disappoint which means 'fail to fulfill the hopes of somebody'.

All other words are correctly spelled.

Discomfort refers to slight pain or uneasiness.
Disallow means to refuse.
Disappear refers to something that is lost or not visible.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

185

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

The cause of the disaster has not yet known but an enquiry has been set up to find out what happened.

((a))
have not yet been known
((b))
was not yet known
((c))
No substitution required
((d))
is not yet known

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

is not yet known

The correct answer is option 4.

The subject of the sentence is the cause, which is singular so we have to use a singular verb moreover we need our sentence to be in passive form (as our subject is incapable to perform an action on its own) hence, 'is not yet known' would be the correct passive form.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Note: 'Has known' is correct only if we replace it with the auxiliary phrase 'has not yet been'

186

Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

I thanked him for his advices.

((a))
for his
((b))
advices
((c))
him
((d))
I thanked

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

advices

The correct answer is option 2.

Here, a basic knowledge of countable and uncountable nouns is required.

Advice is an abstract and uncountable noun that has no plural form. So, advices are incorrect.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

187

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

Every year our association is having a meeting to elect the officers.

((a))
No substitution required
((b))
has a meeting
((c))
are having a meeting
((d))
having a meeting

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

has a meeting

The correct answer is option 2.

Are having a meeting /having a meeting mean that the meeting is going on at this very moment. It is in present continuous tense.

The given sentence speaks about an event that happens every year but the phrase is having is used in the present continuous state which is incorrect here. So, it must be replaced with has a meeting to make it error-free.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

188

Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

Why she was angry with her son?

((a))
Why
((b))
angry with
((c))
her son
((d))
she was

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

she was

The correct answer is option 4.

Here, the concept of inversion should be known to find out the error in the sentence. The given sentence is incorrect.

In the sentence, she was should be replaced by was she to make it correct and meaningful.-- Why was she angry with her son?

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

189

Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

In this novel, I came across some words which meaning I did not know.

((a))
did not know
((b))
In this novel
((c))
which meaning
((d))
came across

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

which meaning

The correct answer is option 3.

Option 3 contains an error. Instead of which we should use whose.

In the given statement, whose will be used as it determines the kind of words which are being talked about in the statement, i.e., the words whose meaning the speaker does not know. For eg, I recently saw a read a new book whose author was unknown to me previously.

Which is a determiner that helps us determine the nature of the object in a sentence. For eg, This is the novel which I wanted to read next weekend.

The correct sentence will be: In this novel, I came across some words whose meaning I do not know.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

190

Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

The old man climbed seven floors with hardly no effort at all.

((a))
climbed
((b))
The old man
((c))
at all
((d))
hardly no effort

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

hardly no effort

The correct answer is option 4.

The incorrect part is hardly no effort. We always use the phrase hardly any effort which means barely, scarcely or not likely to be anything major. So, instead of 'no' use 'any'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

191

Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

To my point of view, he should not have behaved in such a manner.

((a))
behaved
((b))
should not have
((c))
in such a manner
((d))
to my point of view

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

to my point of view

The erroneous part is: to my point of view.

Key Points

The preposition 'from' is for indicating the point from which an observer is perceiving something.
For example: From my experience, I can assure you that this project is going to succeed.
Similarly, in this question, 'from' should be used to indicate the point of the person's perception.
The phrase, 'from my point of view' means 'in my view or opinion'.
Here, in the given statement, there is an error in the use of the preposition 'to'.
'to' must be replaced by 'from' to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is: From my point of view, he should not have behaved in such a manner.

192

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

Thirteen miners were trapped inside a coal mine due to flooding from a nearby river yesterday

((a))
were trapped into a coal mine
((b))
trapped inside a coal mine
((c))
No substitution required
((d))
have been trapped inside a coal mine

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

No substitution required

The correct answer is option 3.

Explanation:

If past time is given, use Simple Past Tense and not Present Perfect Tense.
The sentence is given passive voice 'was/were + V₃' form of verb is used.
'Into' is used when one enters from one medium to the other.
'Inside' is used when someone is present in the inner of something.

Confusion Points

The passive voice is used when we want to emphasize the action (the verb) and the object of a sentence rather than the subject.
Here in this sentence, emphasis is laid on people trapped inside the coal mine, so passive is used.

Thus, the sentence is correct

193

Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.

'A fortress typically on high ground above a city.'

((a))
Palace
((b))
Colossus
((c))
Tower
((d))
Citadel

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Citadel

The correct answer is option 4.

Colossus refers to a statue that is much bigger.

Palace refers to a large and impressive building.

Tower refers to a long narrow building

Citadel refers to a tall fortress.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

194

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

A friend is no friend if he leaves you in the lurch.

((a))
take advantage of someone
((b))
make a fool of someone
((c))
leave someone in a helpless condition
((d))
leave for one's own work

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

leave someone in a helpless condition

The correct answer is option 3.

The meaning of the idiom leaves you in the lurch means to leave someone in a difficult situation. The sentence means that a friend is no friend if he leaves you in a helpless situation.

Some examples:

Smith was angry enough to quit without giving notice, leaving her boss in the lurch.

I didn't mean to leave you in the lurch.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

195

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

Everybody wants to be winning a prize in the art competition.

((a))
No substitution required
((b))
wants to win
((c))
want winning
((d))
want to have won

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

wants to win

The correct answer is option 2.

Here, one can easily find the error in the usage of the verb. the given sentence is giving a general statement so it should use the simple present tense form of the verb. 'Winning' is present continuous tense so it is incorrect.

The verb wants is present tense singular and hence, the rest of the verbal phrase will also be singular in 1st form i.e. win.

So the correct answer is option 2.

196

Select the synonym of the given word.

MASSIVE

((a))
huge
((b))
strong
((c))
solid
((d))
thick

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

huge

The correct answer is option 1.

Massive means something large enough or huge.

Strong is an adjective showing the quality of strength

Solid means firm and stable in shape; not liquid or fluid.

Thick means heavily built: thickset.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

197

Select the synonym of the given word.

HARASS

((a))
care
((b))
help
((c))
refuse
((d))
bother

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

bother

The correct answer is option 4.

Harass means subject to aggressive pressure.

Bother means to trouble someone for doing something.

Care is to look after someone.

Help is to assist.

So the correct synonym for the word harass is bother.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

198

Select the synonym of the given word.

AMPLIFY

((a))
Satisfy
((b))
Electrify
((c))
Supply
((d))
Magnify

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Magnify

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points:-

Satisfy means to fulfill someone's desires.
Electrify refers to providing electricity. It can also mean to shock or surprise someone.
Supply refers to give or contribute.
Amplify means to increase, raise or expand something.
From the given options, only magnify, which means to enlarge or increase, correctly fits as the synonym of the given word.
Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

199

Select the synonym of the given word

REPLETE

((a))
Occupied
((b))
Full
((c))
Calm
((d))
Restful

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Full

The correct answer is option 2.

Replete means filled or well-supplied with something.

Occupied means being used by something.

Full means filled up to the capacity.

Calm means peace.

Restful means having a quiet and soothing quality.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

200

Select the synonym of the given word

FOREGO

((a))
give up
((b))
forget
((c))
ban
((d))
go ahead

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

give up

The correct answer is option 1.

The word forego means to stop having or doing something.

The meaning of other words are:

Forget mean fail to remember something.

Ban refers to officially or legally stopping something.

Go ahead means to proceed or continue doing something.

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