Official Paper

SSC CPO 2025 Official Paper (Held On 10 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the word SOLUTION, which letter is 3rd to the left of the 6th letter from the left?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    O

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L

2

Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.

2nd Floor, Lotus Arcade, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad, Gujarat - 380009

  1. ((a))

    2nd Floor, Lotus Arcade, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad, Maharashtra - 380009

  2. ((b))

    2nd Floor, Lotus Arcade, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad, Uttar Pradesh - 380009

  3. ((c))

    2nd Floor, Lotus Arcade, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad, Rajasthan 380009

  4. ((d))

    2nd Floor, Lotus Arcade, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad, Gujarat - 380009

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2nd Floor, Lotus Arcade, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad, Maharashtra - 380009

3

The Chennai seminar was 2 days before the Bengaluru seminar. The Hyderabad seminar was 5 days after the Chennai seminar. If the Bengaluru seminar was on 18th April, on which date was the Hyderabad seminar?

  1. ((a))

    19th April

  2. ((b))

    20th April

  3. ((c))

    21st April

  4. ((d))

    22nd April

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19th April

4
  • The seminar in Vadodara occurred two days before the one in Ahmedabad. Surat's seminar was one day after Ahmedabad's, and Rajkot's was two days before Vadodara. If Surat's seminar happened on 18th March, what was the seminar date in Rajkot

?

  1. ((a))

    12th March

  2. ((b))

    13th March

  3. ((c))

    14th March

  4. ((d))

    15th March

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12th March

5

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

19, 19, 38, 114, ?, 2280

  1. ((a))

    344

  2. ((b))

    1140

  3. ((c))

    456

  4. ((d))

    224

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

344

6

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

64, 68, 77, 93, 118, ?

  1. ((a))

    157

  2. ((b))

    154

  3. ((c))

    134

  4. ((d))

    168

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

157

7

If 12 x 2 + 5 = 29, 5 x 3 + 8 = 23 then 7 x 4 + 6 = ?

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    38

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    71

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

8

If 5 + 3 = 40 6 + 4 = 60 then 3 + 2 = 

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

9

Select the answer figure that, when placed in the blank space of the given figure, will complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which it is folded has been cut as shown in the following figure. How would this paper look when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

Choose the word that doesn't belong.

  1. ((a))

    Patna 

  2. ((b))

    Raipur 

  3. ((c))

    Hyderabad 

  4. ((d))

    Agra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Patna 

12

Which code is inconsistent with the pattern Letter-Digit-Letter-Digit-Letter-Digit?

  1. ((a))

    A1B2C3

  2. ((b))

    D2E3F4

  3. ((c))

    G3H4I5

  4. ((d))

    J4K4L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A1B2C3

13

By rearranging the letters of 'RESTAURANT', we can get a meaningful English word. Each letter is denoted with a different number as shown in the table below. The combination of the numbers for the word, which is not meaningful, is

12345678910
RESTAURANT
  1. ((a))

    9, 5, 4, 6, 7, 2

  2. ((b))

    7, 2, 4, 6, 1, 9

  3. ((c))

    9, 8, 7, 1, 5, 4, 2, 3

  4. ((d))

    6, 10, 7, 2, 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9, 5, 4, 6, 7, 2

14

Consider the following pairs of numbers. Based on the odd and even nature of their sum or difference, identify the pair that does not follow the same pattern as the others.

  1. ((a))

    13 and 1

  2. ((b))

    24 and 12

  3. ((c))

    14 and 4

  4. ((d))

    18 and 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 and 1

15

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G purchased some items one after another i.e., eraser, pen, TV, printer, mouse, mug, and phone but not necessarily in the same order.

A purchased a mouse and there is a gap of 2 persons between A and E. E didn't come first or at last. As many persons came after A are the same as the number of persons who came before F who purchased the pen.C purchased an eraser immediately before A.There is a gap of 4 persons between E and G who purchased a printer.D purchased a phone immediately before E who purchased a TV. The mug is purchased by B.

There is a gap of how many persons between F and G?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

16

There are eight persons A, C, F, L, M, Q, R and T in the family of three generation. There are three married couples in the family. C is the wife of F. T is son of F. A is son of M who is married to L. L is mother of C. R is daughter-in-law of M. Q is niece of C.

All of the given pairs are related in some way except one. Find the pair which is NOT belongs to the group?

  1. ((a))

    M-A

  2. ((b))

    R-Q

  3. ((c))

    C-A

  4. ((d))

    F-T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M-A

17

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.

Statement: The roads were blocked due to a protest by factory workers.

Conclusions:

I. The protest disrupted public life.

II. Factory workers are demanding better wages.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

18

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.

Statement:

<br>

Some computers are mobiles. No mobile is a radio.

Conclusions:

I. Some computers are radios.

II. No computer is a radio.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

19

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.

Statement:

All actors are professionals. Some professionals are writers.

Conclusions:

I. Some writers are actors.

II. Some actors are writers.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

20

Complete the series. 8, 13, 18, 23,

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    29

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27

21

What comes next?

ZA, YB, XC, ?

  1. ((a))

    VE

  2. ((b))

    WD

  3. ((c))

    UF

  4. ((d))

    TG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VE

22

Which of the following is different from the rest?

A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F7

  1. ((a))

    D4

  2. ((b))

    E5

  3. ((c))

    F7

  4. ((d))

    C3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D4

23

If BIRD is written as AHQC, how is FISH written?

  1. ((a))

    EHRG

  2. ((b))

    EHSH

  3. ((c))

    GJTI

  4. ((d))

    EHRH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EHRG

24

Complete the series. 1, 4, 2, 8, 3, 12, 4, ?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

25

If DOG is coded as 4157, what is the code for BAT?

  1. ((a))

    2212

  2. ((b))

    2112

  3. ((c))

    2120

  4. ((d))

    2122

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2212

26

What comes next?

D4, W23, E5, V22, ?

  1. ((a))

    G6

  2. ((b))

    T20

  3. ((c))

    U21

  4. ((d))

    F6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G6

27

Find the ODD one out from the following options. 

  1. ((a))

    Nagpur 

  2. ((b))

    Nashik

  3. ((c))

    Pune 

  4. ((d))

    Bhopal 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nagpur 

28

Find the one which completes the series:

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29

Figure 1 and 2 are related with each other in some particular way. Find the relationship and establish the same relationship between 3 and 4 from the given four alternatives.

Figure 1:

<br>

Figure 2:

<br>
  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

30

Code: (1, 2)(3, 1)(2, 4)(4, 4) corresponds to which word?

01234
0JBDCL
1FIAJH
2DAKLE
3BKGIA
4KCELI
  1. ((a))

    AKLE 

  2. ((b))

    KAEL

  3. ((c))

    AKEI

  4. ((d))

    AKLL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AKLE 

31

Find the one which completes the series:

<br>
  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

The series given below contains a sequence of numbers. Accordingly identify the incorrect combination.

5, 10, 40, 46, 180, 185, 741

  1. ((a))

    46,741

  2. ((b))

    10,46

  3. ((c))

    180, 741

  4. ((d))

    10,180

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

46,741

33

Complete the analogy.

C : F :: E : ?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

34

Find the missing term in the series:

E, L, S, Z, ?

  1. ((a))

    I

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I

35

Find the missing number in the series: 3, 7, 23, 95, ?

  1. ((a))

    479

  2. ((b))

    480

  3. ((c))

    481

  4. ((d))

    482

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

479

36

Complete the analogy.

Biology: Science :: Music: ?

  1. ((a))

    Art

  2. ((b))

    Voice

  3. ((c))

    Composer

  4. ((d))

    Tune

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Art

37

Complete the analogy.

Zenith: Nadir :: Success: ?

  1. ((a))

    Failure

  2. ((b))

    Objective

  3. ((c))

    Gain

  4. ((d))

    Career

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Failure

38

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Ear, Eye, Nose, Hand

  1. ((a))

    Ear 

  2. ((b))

    Hand 

  3. ((c))

    Nose 

  4. ((d))

    Eye 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ear 

39

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Green, Blue, White, Orange

  1. ((a))

    Green 

  2. ((b))

    Blue 

  3. ((c))

    White 

  4. ((d))

    Orange 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Green 

40

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

<, >, =, #

  1. ((a))

    <

  2. ((b))

    >

  3. ((c))

    =

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

<

41

Four friends live on Floors 1-4: A lives above C; B at the top; D below A but above C.

Who is on floor 2?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

42

Statement: "Bus fare will be reduced by 25% for students."

Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    All buses are overcrowded 

  2. ((b))

    Lower fares will encourage more students to travel by bus 

  3. ((c))

    Student travel is officially discouraged 

  4. ((d))

    Students can afford current fares easily 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All buses are overcrowded 

43

Statement: "The city will build multi-storey parking complexes to reduce illegal roadside parking."

Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    All cars will now park in complexes. 

  2. ((b))

    Illegal parking is a significant problem in the city 

  3. ((c))

    Private parking will become free 

  4. ((d))

    Traffic jams are only due to park 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All cars will now park in complexes. 

44

A friend fails an exam.

What shows emotional intelligence?

  1. ((a))

    Celebrate your own success

  2. ((b))

    Offer help to prepare next time

  3. ((c))

    Say "It's your fault" 

  4. ((d))

    Change the topic quickly 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Celebrate your own success

45

In dictionary order, which comes first?

THRILL, THRESH, THRONE, THROB

  1. ((a))

    THRESH

  2. ((b))

    THRILL

  3. ((c))

    THROB

  4. ((d))

    THRONE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

THRESH

46

You see a co-worker violating a safety rule.

What should you do?

  1. ((a))

    Ignore if no harm yet

  2. ((b))

    Report to the supervisor immediately

  3. ((c))

    Correct them politely on the spot

  4. ((d))

    Take a photo and share online

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ignore if no harm yet

47

In a sports club, men get full-time coaches but women get part-time coaches despite equal membership fees.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Women need less training

  2. ((b))

    Male coaches work longer

  3. ((c))

    Women's teams are stronger 

  4. ((d))

    Possible gender bias in coaching allocation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women need less training

48

P is the father of Q, and R is the daughter of Q.

How is R related to P 

  1. ((a))

    Granddaughter 

  2. ((b))

    Grandmother 

  3. ((c))

    Uncle 

  4. ((d))

    Brother 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Granddaughter 

49

You are given a challenging assignment outside your expertise.

What is the most emotionally intelligent attitude?

  1. ((a))

    Refuse due to discomfort

  2. ((b))

    Accept and request help or training

  3. ((c))

    Complain about manager's decision

  4. ((d))

    Accept but hide difficulties

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Refuse due to discomfort

50

Complete the analogy.

JKL: MNO:: PQR:?

  1. ((a))

    STU

  2. ((b))

    OPQ

  3. ((c))

    UST

  4. ((d))

    QPO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

STU

General Knowledge and General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Which international organization publishes air quality guidelines that many nations use as a reference?

  1. ((a))

    United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

  2. ((b))

    World Health Organization (WHO)

  3. ((c))

    International Monetary Fund (IMF)

  4. ((d))

    World Trade Organization (WTO) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

52

The title "Zinda Pir" or "Living Saint" was attributed to:

  1. ((a))

    Akbar

  2. ((b))

    Aurangzeb

  3. ((c))

    Babur

  4. ((d))

    Jahangir 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Akbar

53

The Chola inscription at Uttaramerur is primarily concerned with: 

  1. ((a))

    Maritime trade

  2. ((b))

    Military conquest

  3. ((c))

    Temple rituals 

  4. ((d))

    Village administration 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maritime trade

54

Which constitutional amendment granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions?

  1. ((a))

    42nd Amendment

  2. ((b))

    52nd Amendment

  3. ((c))

    99th Amendment

  4. ((d))

    73rd Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42nd Amendment

55

Which athlete's victory marked India's inaugural gold medal moment in the Youth Olympics?

  1. ((a))

    Neeraj Chopra 

  2. ((b))

    Manu Bhaker 

  3. ((c))

    Jeremy Lalrinnunga

  4. ((d))

    Lovlina Borgohain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neeraj Chopra 

56

Where were the 2008 Commonwealth Youth Games primarily hosted?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Hyderabad 

  4. ((d))

    Pune 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai

57

In which of the following shapes is the famous Sun Temple at Konark designed?

  1. ((a))

    A lotus flower 

  2. ((b))

    A gigantic chariot 

  3. ((c))

    A circular stupa

  4. ((d))

    A reclining deity 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A lotus flower 

58

Which Indo-European style combined Gothic, Mughal, and Hindu features during the colonial era?

  1. ((a))

    indo-Saracenicl

  2. ((b))

    Colonial Baroque 

  3. ((c))

    Dravidian Revival

  4. ((d))

    Mughal-Gothic 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

indo-Saracenicl

59

Which Norwegian author won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2023 for his innovative plays and prose?

  1. ((a))

    Karl Ove Knausgard 

  2. ((b))

    Jon Fosse 

  3. ((c))

    Per Petterson

  4. ((d))

    Erlend Loe 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karl Ove Knausgard 

60

Which sport's terminology includes "Queen's Gambit"?

  1. ((a))

    Kho-Kho 

  2. ((b))

    Tennis 

  3. ((c))

    Chess 

  4. ((d))

    Kabaddi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kho-Kho 

61

Which celebration in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana signifies the start of the harvest season and the official start of the New Year?

  1. ((a))

    Sankranti 

  2. ((b))

    Bathukamma

  3. ((c))

    Pongal

  4. ((d))

    Ugadi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sankranti 

62

"Lezim" is a folk dance from which state? 

  1. ((a))

    Goa 

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan 

  4. ((d))

    Punjab 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Goa 

63

What is the primary source of Kathakali's dramatic stories?

  1. ((a))

    Folk tales

  2. ((b))

    Indian epics

  3. ((c))

    Local legends 

  4. ((d))

    Historical events 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Folk tales

64

Which of the following rulers founded the Nalanda University?

  1. ((a))

    Chandragupta Maurya

  2. ((b))

    Chandragupta |

  3. ((c))

    Sri Gupta

  4. ((d))

    Kumaragupta I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chandragupta Maurya

65

The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India during the reign of 

  1. ((a))

    Chandragupta II

  2. ((b))

    Kumaragupta 

  3. ((c))

    Samudragupta 

  4. ((d))

    Chandragupta | 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chandragupta II

66

Which one of these classical musicians is credited with popularizing the sitar in the global music scene?

  1. ((a))

    Pandit Ravi Shankar 

  2. ((b))

    Ustad Vilayat Khan 

  3. ((c))

    Pandit Nikhil Banerjee 

  4. ((d))

    Ustad Allauddin Khan 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pandit Ravi Shankar 

67

Which of these is true about Bandi Chhor Divas? 

  1. ((a))

    Commemorates Guru Hargobind's release with 52 kings,

  2. ((b))

    It marks the martyrdom of Guru Arjan Dev during Mughal rule. 

  3. ((c))

    The festival involves fasting and silence throughout the day. 

  4. ((d))

    Celebrated only at Golden Temple without any street processions. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Commemorates Guru Hargobind's release with 52 kings,

68

Which of the following statements about traditional and semi-classical Indian music forms are correct?

  1. Kajri is sung by women in Uttar Pradesh during the monsoon, often with night-long group dancing.

  2. Qawwali, introduced by Turkish Sufis, is performed only as solo singing without chorus.

  3. Tappa from Punjab features rapid, jumpy notes inspired by camel riders' songs.

  4. Amir Khusro helped shape Qawwali in India as a Sufi devotional form.

  1. ((a))

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 3 and 4 only

  3. ((c))

    2, 3 and 4 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 4 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2 and 3 only

69

Read the below statements about Indian Sports Infrastructure:

  1. The Sports Authority of India was established in 1985.
  2. National Sports University is located in Manipur.
  3. The Army Sports Institute is based in Pune.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1 and 2 are Correct

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 and 3 are Correct 

  3. ((c))

    Only 1 and 3 are correct 

  4. ((d))

     1, 2 and 3 are Correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2 are Correct

70

In 1916, two major political groups in India came together to present a united front to the British. Which organizations signed this historic agreement, known as the Lucknow Pact?

  1. ((a))

    Indian National Congress and Swaraj Party 

  2. ((b))

    All-India Muslim League and Khilafat Committee 

  3. ((c))

    Indian National Congress and Muslim League 

  4. ((d))

    Hindu Mahasabha and Indian National Congress 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian National Congress and Swaraj Party 

71

1813? What was the primary focus of the 1812 House of Commons Committee before the renewal of the East India Company's Charter in

  1. ((a))

    Trade monopoly and foreign policy 

  2. ((b))

    Land revenue collection in Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Judicial and police administration in India 

  4. ((d))

    Military expenditure in frontier regions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Trade monopoly and foreign policy 

72

'The God of Small Things' won the Booker Prize in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1995

  2. ((b))

    1997

  3. ((c))

    1999

  4. ((d))

    2001

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1995

73

Who won the men's and women's singles titles at the Senior National Badminton Championships 2024 held in Bengaluru?

  1. ((a))

    Lakshya Sen and PV Sindhu 

  2. ((b))

    H.S. Prannoy and Saina Nehwal 

  3. ((c))

    Kidambi Srikanth and Ashmita Chaliha 

  4. ((d))

    M Raghu and Devika Sihag 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lakshya Sen and PV Sindhu 

74

From the given renowned personalities, which one was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025 in the field of Literature and Education?

  1. ((a))

    Jagdish Singh Khehar 

  2. ((b))

    Kumudini Lakhia 

  3. ((c))

    M. T. Vasudevan Nair 

  4. ((d))

    D. Nageshwara Reddy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jagdish Singh Khehar 

75

The Himachal range includes famous hill stations and valleys such as:

  1. ((a))

    Munnar and Nilgiris 

  2. ((b))

    Ladakh and Nubra 

  3. ((c))

    Kullu, Kangra, and  Kashmir

  4. ((d))

    Darjeeling and Siliguri 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Munnar and Nilgiris 

76

Who has been appointed as the Chief Justice of India with effect from May 14, 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Shri Justice Sanjiv Khanna 

  2. ((b))

    Shri Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 

  3. ((c))

    Shri Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai 

  4. ((d))

    Shri Justice U.U. Lalit 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shri Justice Sanjiv Khanna 

77
  • Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The northeastern extension of the Deccan Plateau is known for distinct hill ranges like the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills.

Reason (R): These hills are part of the Chotanagpur Plateau, from which they are separated by a geological fault.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

78

According to Census 2011, which state had the lowest population density in India?

  1. ((a))

    sikkim

  2. ((b))

    Nagaland 

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh 

  4. ((d))

    Meghalaya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sikkim

79

Fill in the Blanks:

NISAR satellite carries dual-frequency radar bands ______ and ______.

  1. ((a))

    X & C

  2. ((b))

    Ka & Ku

  3. ((c))

    L & S

  4. ((d))

    VHF & UHF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X & C

80

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The death rate measures the number of deaths per 100 people in a population.

Reason (R): Death rate helps track the health and mortality trends in a region.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

81

Which four metro cities are connected by India's Golden Quadrilateral highway network? 

  1. ((a))

    Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kochi

  2. ((b))

    Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad, Pune, Nagpur, Bhubaneswar

  4. ((d))

    Lucknow, Patna, Guwahati, Jaipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kochi

82

Why has ISRO proposed the development of a third launch pad beyond the existing facilities at Sriharikota?

  1. ((a))

    To serve exclusively as a data relay hub for enhancing satellite telemetry

  2. ((b))

    To accommodate space tourism missions under future commercial programmes

  3. ((c))

    To provide backup support in case of emergency ground failures during launches

  4. ((d))

    To handle increasing launch frequency and capacity for missions involving SSLV, Gaganyaan, and commercial payloads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To serve exclusively as a data relay hub for enhancing satellite telemetry

83

Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Liquid Oxygen-Methane (LOX-Meth) has been chosen as the preferred propellant combination for India's Next-Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).

Reason (R): LOX-Meth offers advantages such as cleaner combustion for engine reusability, relatively simpler propellant compared to LOX-Hydrogen, and a lower overall operational cost than kerosene due to reduced engine refurbishment. tank designs

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 

84

Which of the following biomolecules is most abundant in plant cell walls?

  1. ((a))

    Cellulose 

  2. ((b))

    Pectin 

  3. ((c))

    Lignin 

  4. ((d))

    Hemicellulose 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cellulose 

85

Given four enzymes:

  1. DNA polymerase
  2. Ligase
  3. Helicase
  4. Peptidase.

Which are directly involved in DNA replication?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    2 and 4

  3. ((c))

    1, 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2

86

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita(BNSS) allows for trials to proceed in the absence of the accused in certain circumstances.

This provision applies specifically to:

  1. ((a))

    Any accused person who fails to appear.

  2. ((b))

    Only foreign nationals. 

  3. ((c))

    Proclaimed offenders who abscond.

  4. ((d))

    Accused persons who are gravely ill. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Any accused person who fails to appear.

87

What is the maximum period of imprisonment that can be given in a summary trial under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, irrespective of the punishment specified for the offence?

  1. ((a))

    1 months

  2. ((b))

    3 months

  3. ((c))

    12 months

  4. ((d))

    24 months

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 months

88

e-NAM is primarily aimed at which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Farm insurance

  2. ((b))

    Online crop procurement 

  3. ((c))

    National digital market

  4. ((d))

    Agro-export facilitation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Farm insurance

89

Consider the following statements about Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme:

(1) The NBS scheme provides fixed per-kg subsidy rates for N, P, K, and S in non-urea fertilizers.

(2) Freight assistance is also provided.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

90

The Global Liveability Index 2025, a form of Global Cities Index, is published by which organization?

  1. ((a))

    PwC 

  2. ((b))

    EIU 

  3. ((c))

    KPMG 

  4. ((d))

    World Economic Forum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PwC 

91

Mario de Miranda, known for his cartoons and sketches, hailed from which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Goa 

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

92

What is the impact of PSU disinvestment on the government's financial structure?

  1. ((a))

    It increases government's liabilities

  2. ((b))

    It reduces government's financial assets

  3. ((c))

    It increases the government's earnings permanently

  4. ((d))

    It does not affect finances at all

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It increases government's liabilities

93

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: A surplus on the current account indicates that the country is lending to the rest of the world.

Statement 2: A current account is said to be in balance when payments exceed receipts,

  1. ((a))

    Only Statement 1 is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only Statement 2 is correct 

  3. ((c))

    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct 

  4. ((d))

    Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Statement 1 is correct

94

Which year marked the beginning of India's First Five-Year Plan?

  1. ((a))

    1949

  2. ((b))

    1950

  3. ((c))

    1951

  4. ((d))

    1952

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1949

95

Read the following statements and mark the correct option:

Assertion (A): Subramaniya Siva edited the nationalist journal 'Gnanabhanu' in Tamil Nadu.

Reason (R): He was the first Indian to be arrested under the Rowlatt Act.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

96

Which of the following pairs correctly represent light industries?

  1. ((a))

    Oil and Shipbuilding

  2. ((b))

    Knitting needles and Electric bulbs

  3. ((c))

    Automobile and Brassware

  4. ((d))

    Sewing machines and Shipbuilding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Oil and Shipbuilding

97

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Green Revolution led to regional imbalances in agricultural growth.

Reason (R): HYV technology and irrigation facilities were initially available only in select states.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

98

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was introduced in the Fifth Plan.

Reason (R): It targeted improvement in quality of life through education, health, and drinking water. king water

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

99

Consider the following statements about the Aravalli Green Wall Project:

  1. It is intended to check desertification across Western India.
  2. The project is being implemented in four Indian states.
  3. It aims to construct eco-sensitive highways along forest corridors.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  3. ((c))

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2 are correct

100

Which of the following was not a goal of 1991 economic reforms?

  1. ((a))

    Promote industrial competitiveness

  2. ((b))

    Expand public sector control 

  3. ((c))

    Boost foreign investment

  4. ((d))

    Achieve fiscal discipline

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Promote industrial competitiveness

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

101

A sum of Rs. 22,500 is invested at 4% per annum compound interest. What will be the amount after 2 years?

  1. ((a))

    24,500

  2. ((b))

    24,336

  3. ((c))

    26,000

  4. ((d))

    25,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24,500

102

A sum of money at simple interest doubles in 6 years. It will become three times in:

  1. ((a))

    14 years

  2. ((b))

    15 years

  3. ((c))

    13 years

  4. ((d))

    12 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14 years

103

The surface area of a cuboid is 236 cm² and its dimensions are 6 cm, 7 cm, and h cm. Find h.

  1. ((a))

    5.85 cm

  2. ((b))

    6.80 cm

  3. ((c))

    7.50 cm

  4. ((d))

    8 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.85 cm

104

A solid sphere of radius 4 cm is carved into 27 smaller identical spheres. What is the radius of each smaller sphere?

  1. ((a))

    4/3 cm

  2. ((b))

    2/3 cm

  3. ((c))

    1/3 cm

  4. ((d))

    1cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4/3 cm

105

If the total surface area of a solid hemisphere is 262cm², find its radius. 

  1. ((a))

    5.27 cm

  2. ((b))

    6.28 cm

  3. ((c))

    4.75 cm

  4. ((d))

    3.96 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.27 cm

106

What is the minimum number of cuts required to divide a cuboid into 12 equal cuboids?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

107

A rectangular water tank measures 100 cm length, 50 cm width, and 30 cm height. If the tank is filled to 50% of its capacity, how much water (in liters) is in the tank?

  1. ((a))

    50 liters

  2. ((b))

    75 liters

  3. ((c))

    100 liters

  4. ((d))

    150 liters

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 liters

108

What is the smallest number that, when multiplied by 1.5, gives a whole number?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

109

The slant height of a cone is augmented by 20%, while the base radius remains the same. What is the percentage increase in the curved surface area of the cone?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    24%

  3. ((c))

    44%

  4. ((d))

    36%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

110

What will be the value of K for which the system of equations 2x + 2y - 5 = 0 and 6x + ky + 7 = 0 has no solution?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

111

x : y = 3:4 then (7x + 2y) : (7x - 2y) equal to?

  1. ((a))

    20:11.

  2. ((b))

    21:12

  3. ((c))

    25:13

  4. ((d))

    29:13

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20:11.

112

A right circular cone is inscribed in a cube such that its base coincides with the base of the cube and vertex lies on the top face center. What fraction of the cube's volume does the cone occupy?

  1. ((a))

    π/6

  2. ((b))

    π/8

  3. ((c))

    π/12

  4. ((d))

    π/2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

π/6

113

If 3/4 of a number is 0.6 more than 1/2 of it, find the number.

  1. ((a))

    2.4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    1.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.4

114

A regular right pyramid has a square base of side 8 cm and a height of 3 cm. Find its total surface area.

  1. ((a))

    128 cm²

  2. ((b))

    144 cm²

  3. ((c))

    160 cm²

  4. ((d))

    176 cm² 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

128 cm²

115

If the height of a regular right pyramid with a square base is increased by 20% and the side length of its base is decreased by 10%, what is the percentage change in its volume?

  1. ((a))

    2.8% decrease

  2. ((b))

    1.2% increase

  3. ((c))

    2.8% increase

  4. ((d))

    No change

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.8% decrease

116

1 A car runs 18.4 km using 2122\frac{1}{2} liters of petrol. What is the mileage in km per liter (rounded to 2 decimals)?

  1. ((a))

    7.28

  2. ((b))

    7.36

  3. ((c))

    7.44

  4. ((d))

    7.52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.28

117

The ratio of an interior angle to its corresponding exterior angle in a regular polygon is 5:1. How many sides does the polygon have?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

118

A student got 331333\frac{1}{3}% marks in an exam and failed by 20 marks. If he had got 50%, he would have passed by 10 marks. Find total marks.

  1. ((a))

    180

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    200

  4. ((d))

    240

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

180

119

A circle has a circumference of 44 cm. Find its radius.

  1. ((a))

    6 cm 

  2. ((b))

    7 cm

  3. ((c))

    5 cm 

  4. ((d))

    8 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 cm 

120

The perimeter of a semicircle with radius 14 cm is:

  1. ((a))

    58 cm

  2. ((b))

    64 cm

  3. ((c))

    54 cm

  4. ((d))

    72 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

58 cm

121

A student's marks in Mathematics were 20% more than in Physics. If he scored 72 in Physics, how many marks did he score in Mathematics?

  1. ((a))

    82.4

  2. ((b))

    88.4

  3. ((c))

    84.4

  4. ((d))

    86.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

82.4

122

A square garden is surrounded by a path 1 m wide on all sides. The area of the path alone is 36 m². What is the length of the garden's side?

  1. ((a))

    4 m

  2. ((b))

    5 m

  3. ((c))

    6 m

  4. ((d))

    8 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 m

123

The length and width of a rectangle are in a 5:3 ratio. Given that the perimeter is 96 cm, determine the area of the rectangle.

  1. ((a))

    720 cm²

  2. ((b))

    540 cm²

  3. ((c))

    360 cm²

  4. ((d))

    594 cm²

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

720 cm²

124

 A trapezium has one parallel side double the other. The height is 10 cm, and the area is 900 cm². Find the lengths of the parallel sides.

  1. ((a))

    30 cm and 60 cm

  2. ((b))

    50 cm and 100 cm

  3. ((c))

    45 cm and 90 cm

  4. ((d))

    60 cm and 120 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 cm and 60 cm

125

A regular hexagon with side 6 cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the radius of the circle?

  1. ((a))

    5√3 cm

  2. ((b))

    12 cm

  3. ((c))

    6√3 cm

  4. ((d))

    6 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5√3 cm

126

If a2+b2=100a ^ 2 + b ^ 2 = 100 and a - b = 4 find the value of ab.

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    54

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

127

The average of 6 positive numbers is 10. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 9. What is the excluded number?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

128

If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 3x + 5y = - 1 are parallel, then the value of k is: 

  1. ((a))

    2/5

  2. ((b))

    5/2

  3. ((c))

    3/2

  4. ((d))

    1/2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2/5

129

What is the slope of the line given by the equation ​3x+2y=6?

  1. ((a))

    3/2

  2. ((b))

    -3/2

  3. ((c))

    2/3

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3/2

130

Which line is not parallel to the line 6x - 2y = 10

  1. ((a))

    3x - y = 4

  2. ((b))

    y = 3x - 1

  3. ((c))

    y = 4x + 5

  4. ((d))

    12x - 4y = 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3x - y = 4

131

A tower and a pole stand vertically. From a point between them on the ground, the angles of elevation of their tops are 45° and 30°, respectively. If the pole is 20 m high, and the point is equidistant from both, find the height of the tower.

  1. ((a))

    20 m

  2. ((b))

    40 m

  3. ((c))

    34.64 m

  4. ((d))

    90 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 m

132

 A balloon is hovering 100 m above ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from a point on the ground is 60°. Find its horizontal distance from the observer.

  1. ((a))

    1003\sqrt{3} m

  2. ((b))

    100 m

  3. ((c))

    173 m

  4. ((d))

    57.7m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1003\sqrt{3} m

133

The volume of a cylinder is the same as its total surface area. Given that the radius is 3 cm, determine the height of the cylinder.

  1. ((a))

    2 cm

  2. ((b))

    4 cm

  3. ((c))

    6 cm

  4. ((d))

    8 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 cm

134

A cylindrical candle (radius 3cm, height 10 cm) burns evenly and reduces 1 cm in height every 2 hours. In how many hours will 70% of the candle's volume be burned?

  1. ((a))

    10 hours

  2. ((b))

    14 hours

  3. ((c))

    18 hours

  4. ((d))

    20 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 hours

135

The area of the base of a prism is 36 cm², and the lateral surface area is 288 cm². If the height is 8 cm, what is the perimeter of the base?

  1. ((a))

    24 cm

  2. ((b))

    36 cm

  3. ((c))

    48 cm

  4. ((d))

    18 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24 cm

136

Estimate the volume of a right prism whose base is a regular hexagon with sides of 10 cm each and a vertical height of 8 cm.

  1. ((a))

    2078 cm³

  2. ((b))

    2070 cm³

  3. ((c))

    2110 cm³

  4. ((d))

    1980 cm³

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2078 cm³

137

If tanx=cot(2x-15°) find x 

  1. ((a))

    30°

  2. ((b))

    35°

  3. ((c))

    22.5°

  4. ((d))

    27°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30°

138

The centroid of a triangle with vertices (0,0), (6,0), and (0,8) is: 

  1. ((a))

    (3,4)

  2. ((b))

    (2, 2.67)

  3. ((c))

    (1.5, 2)

  4. ((d))

    (6,8)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(3,4)

139

A brass hemispherical bowl has an inner diameter of 10.5 cm. if the cost of tin-plating the inner surface is 15 per 100 cm², what will be the total cost (in whole number) of plating the inside of the bowl?

  1. ((a))

    ₹26

  2. ((b))

    ₹34

  3. ((c))

    ₹28

  4. ((d))

    ₹44

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹26

140

If  sinθ=725\sin \theta =\frac{7}{25} and θ  lies in the second quadrant, find the value of tan θ.

  1. ((a))

    -7/24

  2. ((b))

    -8/25

  3. ((c))

    -5/24

  4. ((d))

    -7/25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-7/24

141

If cosθ=m2n2m2+n2\cos \theta =\frac{m^{2}-n^{2}}{m^{2}+n^{2}}, then what is tanθ\tan \theta  ?

  1. ((a))

    2mnm2n2\frac{2mn}{m^{2}-n^{2}}

  2. ((b))

    m2n22mn\frac{m^{2}-n^{2}}{2mn}

  3. ((c))

    m2+n22mn\frac{m^{2}+n^{2}}{2mn}

  4. ((d))

    2mnm2+n2\frac{2mn}{m^{2}+n^{2}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2mnm2n2\frac{2mn}{m^{2}-n^{2}}

142

If sin x = cos(2x + 15°) what is the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    20°

  2. ((b))

    30°

  3. ((c))

    25°

  4. ((d))

    15°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20°

143

For a triangle with vertices A(0, 0), B(5, 0), and c(0, 10), where is its Orthocenter located? 

  1. ((a))

    (0,0)

  2. ((b))

    (0,5)

  3. ((c))

    (5,0)

  4. ((d))

    (5, 10)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(0,0)

144

In ABC\triangle ABC, the angle bisector AD of ∠A divides side BC. If AB = 10 cm, AC = 12 cm, and BC = 11 cm, what is the length of the segment BD?

  1. ((a))

    5 cm

  2. ((b))

    8 cm

  3. ((c))

    11 cm

  4. ((d))

    6 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 cm

145

Simplify 50+188\sqrt{50}+\sqrt{18}-\sqrt{8}

  1. ((a))

    777\sqrt{7}

  2. ((b))

    626\sqrt{2}

  3. ((c))

    525\sqrt{2}

  4. ((d))

    ​​42​​4\sqrt{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

777\sqrt{7}

146

In a circle, the angle subtended by chord AB at a point on the circumference is 35°. What is the angle subtended by the same chord at the center of the circle?

  1. ((a))

    35°

  2. ((b))

    70°

  3. ((c))

    90°

  4. ((d))

    105°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35°

147

A point P lies outside a circle with center O and radius r = 6 cm. Two tangents PA and PB are drawn from P to the circle, and the angle between the tangents ∠APB = 60°. What is the distance from point P to the center O?

  1. ((a))

    6 cm

  2. ((b))

    6√3 cm

  3. ((c))

    ​6√2 cm

  4. ((d))

    12 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 cm

148

1.75 ÷ 0.25 = ?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

149

A lends 5000at55000 at 5% for 4 years. B lends 4000 at 6% for 3 years. Who earns more SI?

  1. ((a))

    A earns more

  2. ((b))

    B earns more

  3. ((c))

    Both same

  4. ((d))

    Can't say

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A earns more

150

A can complete a task in 12 days and B in 18 days. If they work together, how long will they take to complete the task?

  1. ((a))

    6 days

  2. ((b))

    7.2 days

  3. ((c))

    7.5 days

  4. ((d))

    8 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 days

English Comprehension (50 questions)

151

Which of the following options, rearrange the given sentences in a proper sequence to make a meaningful passage?

1.English became the a global lingua franca, constantly evolving by absorbing words from languages worldwide and adapting to technological and scientific advancements.

2.It was quite different from modern English, with a complex grammar system and a vocabulary influenced by Norse due to Viking invasions.

3.Old English was heavily influenced by Germanic languages brought by the Angles, Saxons, and Jutes in the 5th century.

4.The Renaissance and the invention of the printing press helped standardize English spelling and grammar, leading to the rise of Early Modern English.

5.With the Norman Conquest of 1066, a large number of French and Latin words were incorporated in English, particularly in government, law and art.

  1. ((a))

    3-2-5-4-1

  2. ((b))

    2-4-3-5-1

  3. ((c))

    2-5-4-3-1

  4. ((d))

    1-4-3-2-5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3-2-5-4-1

In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.

<br>

Low hemoglobin levels among women remain a pervasive global health concern, often (1)__. from nutritional deficiencies, chroni diseases, or socio-economic disparities. In many developing nations, iron-deficiency anemia (2)_. an alarming proportion of the female population, with consequences that extend beyond fatigue to impair cognitive performance and maternal outcomes. Medical experts emphasize that anemia is often (3) insidious, progressing stealthily until severe symptoms manifest. Despite the availability of supplements and fortified foods, adherence to preventive strategies (4) ______hampered by cultural taboos, misinformation, and healthcare. Furthermore, in many societies, menstruation and related issues are still shrouded in (5) obfuscation, limiting open dialogue and delaying early intervention. Addressing this silent epidemic requires not only medical solutions but also robust public health campaigns aimed at education and destigmatization. Bridging empowering women and fostering healthier generations. sing the gap between awareness and action is crucial to

152

Which participle/verb form best fits? (1)

  1. ((a))

    resulting

  2. ((b))

    result

  3. ((c))

    results

  4. ((d))

    resulted

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

resulting

153

Choose the right verb form.(2)

  1. ((a))

    affects

  2. ((b))

    affect

  3. ((c))

    affecting

  4. ((d))

    affected

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

affects

154

What does 'insidious' most nearly mean here? (3)

  1. ((a))

    Sudden

  2. ((b))

    Deceptive

  3. ((c))

    Violent

  4. ((d))

    Predictable

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sudden

155

Which auxiliary/modal verb fits best?(4)

  1. ((a))

    must

  2. ((b))

    has

  3. ((c))

    is

  4. ((d))

    was

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

must

156

'Obfuscation' most nearly means: (5)

  1. ((a))

    Clarity

  2. ((b))

    Confusion

  3. ((c))

    Enthusiasm

  4. ((d))

    Revelation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Clarity

157

Improve the following sentence by replacing the underlined words with the correct phrasal verb.

<br>

After months of training, she was ready to go through the final exam,

  1. ((a))

    go in for

  2. ((b))

    go off

  3. ((c))

    went through

  4. ((d))

    go along

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

go in for

158

Choose the correct idiom for the word highlighted in bold.

<br>

Rohit is very calculative and always has an axe to grind.

  1. ((a))

    To have a hidden personal motive

  2. ((b))

    To sharpen one's skills

  3. ((c))

    To work hard for success

  4. ((d))

    To take revenge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To have a hidden personal motive

159

Identify the error in the sentence.

We must respect the elder people in our community.

  1. ((a))

    respect

  2. ((b))

    people 

  3. ((c))

    elder

  4. ((d))

    community

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

respect

160

Which of the given options arranges the following sentences in the most logical sequence to form a meaningful paragraph?

  1. Without keystone species, entire ecosystems can collapse, leading to significant biodiversity loss.
  2. The concept of a keystone species was first introduced by ecologist Robert Paine, who studied the effect of removing certain predators from an ecosystem.
  3. Keystone species play a disproportionately large role in maintaining the structure and stability of their ecosystems.
  4. For example, sea otters help regulate sea urchin populations, preventing the destruction of kelp forests.
  5. This idea revolutionized ecology by highlighting how some species have a far greater impact on their environment than others.
  1. ((a))

    1-3-2-4-5

  2. ((b))

    3-2-5-4-1

  3. ((c))

    4-3-2-5-1

  4. ((d))

    5-2-3-1-4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1-3-2-4-5

161

Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.

His_____ behavior during negotiations frustrated his teammates.

  1. ((a))

    intranzigent

  2. ((b))

    intransegent

  3. ((c))

    intransigant

  4. ((d))

    intransigent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

intranzigent

162

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: APPOSITE

  1. ((a))

    Irrelevant

  2. ((b))

    Vague

  3. ((c))

    Relevant

  4. ((d))

    Random

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Irrelevant

163

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: IGNOMINY

  1. ((a))

    Disgrace

  2. ((b))

    Respect

  3. ((c))

    Fame

  4. ((d))

    Honor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Disgrace

164

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Exonerate

  1. ((a))

    Convict

  2. ((b))

    Free

  3. ((c))

    Excuse

  4. ((d))

    Liberate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Convict

165

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Scrupulous

  1. ((a))

    Honest

  2. ((b))

    Immoral

  3. ((c))

    Conscientious

  4. ((d))

    Ethical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Honest

166

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: NEOPHYTE

  1. ((a))

    Beginner

  2. ((b))

    Veteran

  3. ((c))

    Master

  4. ((d))

    Expert

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Beginner

167

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PROPITIATE

  1. ((a))

    Agitate

  2. ((b))

    Provoke

  3. ((c))

    Appease

  4. ((d))

    Enrage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Agitate

168

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Intransigence

  1. ((a))

    Obstinacy 

  2. ((b))

    Compromise

  3. ((c))

    Defiance

  4. ((d))

    Rigidity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Obstinacy 

169

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Imbroglio

  1. ((a))

    Entanglement

  2. ((b))

    Complication

  3. ((c))

    Agreement

  4. ((d))

    Dispute

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Entanglement

170

Choose the correct meaning of idiom:

Will not pass muster

  1. ((a))

    Will not meet required standards

  2. ((b))

    Will not bring any excitement

  3. ((c))

    Will not escape attention

  4. ((d))

    Will not create any disturbance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Will not meet required standards

171

Choose the correct meaning of idiom:

Finger in the pie

  1. ((a))

    Being involved or interfering in something

  2. ((b))

    Trying to cause conflict intentionally

  3. ((c))

    Avoiding responsibility

  4. ((d))

    Speaking without knowledge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Being involved or interfering in something

172

Choose the correct spelling for a word meaning 'generosity in giving'.

  1. ((a))

    Largesse

  2. ((b))

    Larges

  3. ((c))

    Largece

  4. ((d))

    Largese

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Largesse

173

Select the correct spelling for a word meaning 'clumsy or awkward in movement or manner'.

  1. ((a))

    Gauche

  2. ((b))

    Gosh

  3. ((c))

    Goush

  4. ((d))

    Gauch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gauche

174

Find the correct spelling of a word describing disloyal betrayal.

  1. ((a))

    Perfidy

  2. ((b))

    Perphidy

  3. ((c))

    Perfedee

  4. ((d))

    Perfody

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Perfidy

175

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who studies the stars and planets to predict the future'.

  1. ((a))

    Astronomer

  2. ((b))

    Astrologer

  3. ((c))

    Meteorologist

  4. ((d))

    Cosmologist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Astronomer

176

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An expression of sympathy, especially on the occasion of death'.

  1. ((a))

    Condolence

  2. ((b))

    Consolation

  3. ((c))

    Reassurance

  4. ((d))

    Assurance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Condolence

177

Spot the correct spelling of a vine-pest genus.

  1. ((a))

    Phylloxera

  2. ((b))

    Phylloxerae

  3. ((c))

    Philoxera

  4. ((d))

    Phyloxera

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Phylloxera

178

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'The practice of helping the poor and needy, especially by donating money'

  1. ((a))

    Philanthropy

  2. ((b))

    Misogyny

  3. ((c))

    Sympathy

  4. ((d))

    Misanthrope

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Philanthropy

In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate option to fill in each blank:

<br>

Instrument In recent years, bio-surveillance has migrated from the periphery of crisis management into the marrow of everyday governance. What began as a provisional response to epidemiological disruption has, with startling velocity, matured into a (1)____ of statecraft. The body, once a site of private experience, is now parsed into micro-indicators, archived not as narratives but as anomalies within statistical matrices. The threshold for intervention has shifted not at diagnosis, but at deviation. Such a regime thrives on a curious inversion: surveillance no longer reacts to illness; it anticipates it. The calculus of care becomes indistinguishable from the logic of control, and protection is no longer offered but enforced. In this architecture, the citizen is both beneficiary and suspect, suspended in a biopolitical gaze that renders health a function of (2)_____ , not autonomy. What is striking, however, is not merely the pervasiveness of this apparatus, but its opacity. Embedded technologies track pulse, breath, temperature - but who interprets? Who decides what qualifies as pathological? The grammar of governance here is not public but procedural, not deliberative but (3)_____ If unchecked, this mode risks normalizing a world in which vigilance masquerades as virtue. The ethical stakes are not peripheral but foundational: in rendering health as measurable, we risk rendering it (4)_____ The ineffable - pain, anxiety, even trust becomes illegible within a model that privileges only what can be graphed. The challenge, then, is not to reject technology but to reinscribe its terms. Bio-surveillance must be subject to democratic scrutiny, not immune to it. Otherwise, we inherit not safety but a simulated solidarity, and in its name, a deeply (5)_____ submission.

179

What should come in the place of blank number (1)?

  1. ((a))

    interpretive

  2. ((b))

    diagnostic

  3. ((c))

    ornamental

  4. ((d))

    cautionary

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

interpretive

180

What should come in the place of blank number (2)?

  1. ((a))

    reciprocity

  2. ((b))

    compliance

  3. ((c))

    consent

  4. ((d))

    variability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reciprocity

181

What should come in the place of blank number (3)?

  1. ((a))

    ceremonial

  2. ((b))

    therapeutic

  3. ((c))

    technocratic

  4. ((d))

    erratic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ceremonial

182

What should come in the place of blank number (4)?

  1. ((a))

    indispensable

  2. ((b))

    visible

  3. ((c))

    mechanical

  4. ((d))

    subordinate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

indispensable

183

What should come in the place of blank number (5)?

  1. ((a))

    intuitive

  2. ((b))

    symbolic

  3. ((c))

    unconscious

  4. ((d))

    performative

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

intuitive

184

Identify the correct adverb:

He finished the work_____ to avoid missing the deadline.

  1. ((a))

    hurried

  2. ((b))

    hurrying

  3. ((c))

    hurry

  4. ((d))

    hurriedly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

hurried

185

Select the correct option:

The treaty stipulates that disputes shall be resolved __________ arbitration.

  1. ((a))

    through

  2. ((b))

    by

  3. ((c))

    with

  4. ((d))

    via

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

through

186

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:

The consultant suggested that the firm (1)/ discontinues the outdated product line (2)/ so as to focus more resources (3)/ on  innovation. (4)/

  1. ((a))

    (1)

  2. ((b))

    (2)

  3. ((c))

    (3)

  4. ((d))

    (4)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(1)

187

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:

He took such an offense at the remark (1)/ that he refused to speak with the manager (2)/ despite repeated requests made (3)/ on behalf of the HR department. (4)

  1. ((a))

    (1)

  2. ((b))

    (2)

  3. ((c))

    (3)

  4. ((d))

    (4)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(1)

188

Change the following from active to passive:

<br>

Have the archivists digitized the medieval manuscripts yet?

  1. ((a))

    Were the medieval manuscripts digitized by the archivists yet?

  2. ((b))

    Have the medieval manuscripts been digitized by the archivists yet?

  3. ((c))

    Are the medieval manuscripts being digitized by the archivists yet?

  4. ((d))

    Had the medieval manuscripts been digitized by the archivists yet?

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Were the medieval manuscripts digitized by the archivists yet?

189

Change the following from active to passive:

<br>

The government is said to have downplayed the findings deliberately.

  1. ((a))

    The findings are said to be downplayed by the government.

  2. ((b))

    It is said that the findings were downplayed deliberately.

  3. ((c))

    The findings are said to have been downplayed deliberately by the government.

  4. ((d))

    Deliberate findings were said to be downplayed by the government.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The findings are said to be downplayed by the government.

190

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

The dove flew above the trees with grace.

  1. ((a))

    She watched the dove as it landed.

  2. ((b))

    A dove perched on the window sill.

  3. ((c))

    He saw the dove headfirst into the challenge.

  4. ((d))

    The diver dove deep into the ocean.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

She watched the dove as it landed.

191

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

The sculptor carved a mensa for the altar from travertine.

  1. ((a))

    The curator displayed a Roman mensa used in funerary rites.

  2. ((b))

    The monk rested his arms on the marble mensa.

  3. ((c))

    The chef placed the tureen on the mensa.

  4. ((d))

    The logic student solved the truth table using a mensa.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The curator displayed a Roman mensa used in funerary rites.

192

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

The chant included a solemn sursum near the offertory.

  1. ((a))

    The musicologist analyzed the sursum tones in Gregorian chant.

  2. ((b))

    The botanist labeled the root as sursum-curving.

  3. ((c))

    The cantor raised his arms at the sursum.

  4. ((d))

    The choir followed the rubric leading into the sursum.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The musicologist analyzed the sursum tones in Gregorian chant.

193

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

<br>

It is presumed that the documents had been tampered with by internal staff before the audit.

  1. ((a))

    Internal staff had tampered with the documents before the audit.

  2. ((b))

    The audit presumed tampering by staff.

  3. ((c))

    The documents were tampered with before the audit.

  4. ((d))

    Presumptions were made regarding document tampering.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Internal staff had tampered with the documents before the audit.

194

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

The policy is supposed to have been drafted by external advisors in complete secrecy.

  1. ((a))

    It was supposed that the advisors externally drafted the policy.

  2. ((b))

    The policy drafting by external advisors was a secret assumption.

  3. ((c))

    External advisors are supposed to have drafted the policy in complete secrecy.

  4. ((d))

    Someone supposed that secrecy was used to draft the policy.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It was supposed that the advisors externally drafted the policy.

195

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

He availed of the opportunity well.

  1. ((a))

    has availed the opportunity

  2. ((b))

    availed himself of the opportunity

  3. ((c))

    took the avail opportunity

  4. ((d))

    availed to opportunity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

has availed the opportunity

196

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

If I was you, I would resign immediately.

  1. ((a))

    was in your place

  2. ((b))

    were you

  3. ((c))

    would be you

  4. ((d))

    am you

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

was in your place

197

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

<br>

The archivist declared that, unless the humidity controls were recalibrated, the papyri could deteriorate beyond salvage.

  1. ((a))

    The archivist declared, "Unless the humidity controls are recalibrated, the papyri could deteriorate beyond salvage."

  2. ((b))

    The archivist declared, "If humidity controls were recalibrated, papyri would deteriorate."

  3. ((c))

    The archivist declared, "Unless humidity controls were recalibrated, the papyri could deteriorate beyond salvage."

  4. ((d))

    The archivist declared, "Unless humidity controls were recalibrated, papyri can get deteriorated beyond salvage."

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The archivist declared, "Unless the humidity controls are recalibrated, the papyri could deteriorate beyond salvage."

198

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.

<br>

They said, "We need more time."

  1. ((a))

    They said they needed more time.

  2. ((b))

    They said they need more time.

  3. ((c))

    They said they had need more time.

  4. ((d))

    They said that we needed more time.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They said they needed more time.

199

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

<br>

The official said that only if the forms were submitted on time would the applications be processed.

  1. ((a))

    "The applications would be processed only if the forms were submitted on time," said the official.

  2. ((b))

    "Only if the forms were submitted on time would the applications be processed," said the official.

  3. ((c))

    "If forms are submitted on time, the applications would be processed," said the official.

  4. ((d))

    "Submit forms on time and your applications will be processed," said the official.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"The applications would be processed only if the forms were submitted on time," said the official.

200

Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage.

  1. The team reviews the project deliverables to ensure quality.
  2. A detailed timeline is created for the completion of tasks.
  3. The progress is evaluated based on the defined metrics.
  4. The project is successfully completed within the defined timeline.
  1. ((a))

    2-3-1-4

  2. ((b))

    1-4-3-2

  3. ((c))

    3-2-1-4

  4. ((d))

    4-1-2-3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2-3-1-4

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