Official Paper

SSC CPO 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 09 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Which letter is 7th to the left of P in the English alphabet?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

2

Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.

12/5A, Rajaji Nagar,Bengaluru, Karnataka-560010

  1. ((a))

    12/5A, Rajaji Nagar, Bengaluru, Karnataka - 550010

  2. ((b))

    Rajaji Nagar, Bengaluru, Karnataka - 561010

  3. ((c))

    12/5A, Rajaji Nagar, Bengaluru, Karnataka-560010

  4. ((d))

    12/5A, Rajaji Nagar, Bengaluru, Karnataka - 560001

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12/5A, Rajaji Nagar, Bengaluru, Karnataka - 550010

3

Three seminars were conducted in Guwahati, Itanagar, and Shillong on 2nd, 3rd, and 4th April.

Shillong was scheduled after Guwahati.

Itanagar was not on 4th April.

<br>

When was Shillong's seminar?

  1. ((a))

    2nd April

  2. ((b))

    3rd April 

  3. ((c))

    4th April 

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2nd April

4

Seminar in Siliguri was 3 days after Darjeeling, and Kalimpong hosted its seminar 1 day before Siliguri. If Darjeeling was on 2 March, when was Kalimpong's seminar?

  1. ((a))

    3rd March

  2. ((b))

    4th March 

  3. ((c))

    5th March

  4. ((d))

    6th March 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3rd March

5

Consider the following statement and choose the option that follows.

Statement: The bank has introduced QR-code-based transactions at all branches.

Inferences:

I. Customers are expected to use digital methods more.

II. Traditional banking counters will be phased out.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

6

If 6 + 2 = 16, 7 + 3 = 25, then 8 + 4 = ?

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

7

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

​14, 26, 50, 98, 194, ?

  1. ((a))

    386

  2. ((b))

    376

  3. ((c))

    366

  4. ((d))

    296

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

386

8

What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

2, 3, -1, 8, -8, ?

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21

9

If digits of 642 are reversed and added to the original number, what is the result? 

  1. ((a))

    1284

  2. ((b))

    888

  3. ((c))

    1212

  4. ((d))

    1197

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1284

10

Select the option that is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

Select an appropriate figure from the four options that will come next in the following figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

Which is the odd one out?

  1. ((a))

    Table

  2. ((b))

    Fan

  3. ((c))

    Bed

  4. ((d))

    Kidney

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Table

13

Which code has a digit-letter sequence that doesn't follow a repeated unit? 

  1. ((a))

    1A2B1A2B

  2. ((b))

    3C4D3C4D

  3. ((c))

    5E6F7E6F

  4. ((d))

    7G8H7G8H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1A2B1A2B

14

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark [?] in it.

1412715
21291518
245287154?
  1. ((a))

    312

  2. ((b))

    278

  3. ((c))

    231

  4. ((d))

    332

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

312

15

You're a forest officer and a local festival causes pollution in a sensitive zone. What is your best step?

  1. ((a))

    Coordinate with local leaders for eco-friendly celebrations

  2. ((b))

    Ban the festival permanently

  3. ((c))

    Stay silent 

  4. ((d))

    Leave the zone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coordinate with local leaders for eco-friendly celebrations

16

Identify the number which does NOT belong to the group:

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    13

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

17

Find the option that does not fit the series pattern;

7, 12, 19, 28, 39, 51, 67, 84

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    51

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19

18

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Comprehension:

Seven boxes are kept one above another to make up a stack. The topmost box is numbered as 1, while the b numbered as 7. Each box contains different fruits, including Apples, Oranges, Cherries, Bananas, Melons, Kiwis, and Mangoes. Each box contains a different number of fruit: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, and 70.

There are 20 oranges. The box of Bananas is two boxes above the box of Melon. There are 70 Melons. There are 20 and 60 fruits in the topmost and bottommost boxes respectively. The box of Apples is just above the box of bananas. The box of Kiwi is just above the box of Mango. There are 30 Cherries in the box. The box containing 50 fruits is just above the box containing 10 fruits. There are ___ Apples.

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    70

  4. ((d))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60

19

Directions: These questions are based on the following information.

In a family there are eight members, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W.  V is the sister of the mother of U. W is the father of Q who is the brother of U. R is married to V. T is the father-in-law of W. S is the daughter of R.

How is P related to S?

  1. ((a))

    Maternal Uncle

  2. ((b))

    Maternal Aunt

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Mother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maternal Uncle

20

Direction: These questions are based on the following information.

There is a family of 7 members: Puja, Payal, Paras, Preet, Palak, Pia and Parth. In that family, there are 3 generations having 2 married couples among them. Preet is brother in law of Paras.

Puja is daughter in law of Pia. Pia and Parth is married couple who has only 1 son. Palak is sister of Payal. Payal is daughter of Paras. Parth is father of Paras.

How many male members are there in a family?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

21

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.

Statement:

All books are papers.

Some papers are journals.

Conclusions:

I. Some journals are books.

II. Some papers are books.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

22

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.

Statement:

Some cars are electric.

All electric vehicles are eco-friendly.

Some eco-friendly things are expensive.

Conclusions

I. Some cars may be eco-friendly

II. Some expensive things are not cars.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

23

Complete the series.

A1, C2, E3, G4, ?

  1. ((a))

    I5

  2. ((b))

    J6

  3. ((c))

    H5

  4. ((d))

    I4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I5

24

What is the next number in the series?

1, 4, 16, ____

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    64

  3. ((c))

    48

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

25

Which of the following is different from the rest? 

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    13

  3. ((c))

    17

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

26

What comes next?

5, 10, 8, 16, 14, ?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    28

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

27

Identify the group that does NOT match the consecutive pattern.

PQ, QR, RS, ST, SV

  1. ((a))

    PQ

  2. ((b))

    QR

  3. ((c))

    SV

  4. ((d))

    RS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PQ

28

What comes next?

AA, BC, CE,?

  1. ((a))

    EG

  2. ((b))

    FH

  3. ((c))

    GI

  4. ((d))

    DG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EG

29

If STORM is coded as RSNQL, how is SHINE coded?

  1. ((a))

    RGHMD

  2. ((b))

    RGHND

  3. ((c))

    RGHMF

  4. ((d))

    RGIMD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RGHMD

30

If LAVEN is written as NEVAL, how is DAISY written?

  1. ((a))

    YSAID

  2. ((b))

    YSIAD

  3. ((c))

    YSADI

  4. ((d))

    YDIAS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YSAID

31

Complete the series.

91, 86, __ 76, 71

  1. ((a))

    83

  2. ((b))

    81

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    79

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

83

32

Find the one which completes the series:

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

33

Figure 1 and 2 are related with each other in some particular way. Find the relationship and establish the same relationship between 3 and 4 from the given four alternatives.

Figure 1:

Figure 2:

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

34

How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21

35

What word is formed by (0,4)(4,3)(2,1)(3,4)?

01234
0JBDCL
1FIAJH
2DAKLE
3BKGIA
4KCELL
  1. ((a))

    LKAA

  2. ((b))

    LLA

  3. ((c))

    LLKA

  4. ((d))

    LLAA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LKAA

36

Find the one which completes the series:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37

The series given below contains a sequence of numbers. Accordingly identify the INCORRECT number. 40, 40, 37, 31, 21, 10

  1. ((a))

    37

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37

38

Complete the analogy.

F : I :: L : ?

  1. ((a))

    J

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

J

39

Complete the analogy.

ZYX : WVU :: TSR : ?

  1. ((a))

    QPO

  2. ((b))

    QRP

  3. ((c))

    RQP

  4. ((d))

    QOS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QPO

40

Find the missing term in the series:

<br>

A, C, F, J, ?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

41

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Amazon, Nile, Mississippi, Sahara

  1. ((a))

    Amazon

  2. ((b))

    Sahara

  3. ((c))

    Nile

  4. ((d))

    Mississippi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amazon

42

In five even-numbered houses, 10-18: K lives at the top; J is one house above H; L is the lowest; M is between H and K. Who is at 14?

Who is at 14?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

43

Statement: "To promote reading, the library will start weekend storytelling sessions for children." 

​Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    Adult members dislike weekends

  2. ((b))

    The library wants to attract young readers

  3. ((c))

    Only children visit libraries

  4. ((d))

    Storytelling is the only reading activity planned 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adult members dislike weekends

44

In a heated group discussion, what should an emotionally intelligent person do?

  1. ((a))

    Take sides immediately

  2. ((b))

    Shout to make a point

  3. ((c))

    Leave angrily

  4. ((d))

    Calmly listen to both sides

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Take sides immediately

45

You notice your manager is unusually silent in a crucial meeting after a recent personal loss. The team expects decisions.

What is the best action?

  1. ((a))

    Take the initiative for key discussions and offer support afterwards

  2. ((b))

    Remain silent until the manager speaks

  3. ((c))

    Ask intrusive questions about their loss

  4. ((d))

    Criticise the lack of leadership

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Take the initiative for key discussions and offer support afterwards

46

Arrange as per dictionary order and select the word that is second in order:

CLINIC, CLING, CLINK, CLINT

  1. ((a))

    CLING

  2. ((b))

    CLINK

  3. ((c))

    CLINIC

  4. ((d))

    CLINT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CLING

47

If 'P is husband of Q' and 'R is son of Q', how is R related to P?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Cousin

  3. ((c))

    Nephew 

  4. ((d))

    Son

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brother

48

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Iron, Platinum, Zinc, Lead

  1. ((a))

    Iron

  2. ((b))

    Platinum 

  3. ((c))

    Zinc

  4. ((d))

    Lead

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iron

49

Complete the analogy.

Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ?

  1. ((a))

    Heat

  2. ((b))

    Mercury

  3. ((c))

    Temperature

  4. ((d))

    Weather 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heat

50

Complete the analogy.

Evaporate : Vapour :: Condense : ?

  1. ((a))

    Liquid

  2. ((b))

    Ice

  3. ((c))

    Rain 

  4. ((d))

    Gas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Liquid

General Knowledge and General Awareness (50 questions)

51

The World Happiness Report primarily relies on which type of data?

  1. ((a))

    Objective economic indicators only

  2. ((b))

    Subjective life evaluations and well-being measures

  3. ((c))

    Environmental sustainability metrics

  4. ((d))

    Military strength and geopolitical stability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Objective economic indicators only

52

The Bhakti saint who propagated devotion to Rama in the Awadhi dialect was: 

  1. ((a))

    Kabir

  2. ((b))

    Tulsidas

  3. ((c))

    Surdas

  4. ((d))

    Namdev

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kabir

53

What is the primary purpose of Article 312 of the Indian Constitution ? 

  1. ((a))

    To regulate the appointment of Supreme Court judges 

  2. ((b))

    To create All India Judicial Services

  3. ((c))

    To determine the qualification of Members of Parliament 

  4. ((d))

    To define the power of the Attorney General

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To regulate the appointment of Supreme Court judges 

54

The Fit India Movement, promoting fitness and sports culture, was launched in which year?

  1. ((a))

    2017

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2019

  4. ((d))

    2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2017

55

The inaugural season of the Hockey India League took place in 2013. Which city hosted the final match? 

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Ranchi

  3. ((c))

    Lucknow

  4. ((d))

    Mohali

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delhi

56

What is the classical feature of Ashokan pillars? Greitas zivitat amestu fatuan aur 8? 

  1. ((a))

    They had capitals topped with lion sculptures.

  2. ((b))

    They were only found in South India.

  3. ((c))

    They were made of bronze and silver.

  4. ((d))

    They served as fire altars. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They had capitals topped with lion sculptures.

57

In which city is the sculptural panel of "Descent of the Ganges" located?

  1. ((a))

    Ellora 

  2. ((b))

    Mahabalipuram

  3. ((c))

    Pattadakal

  4. ((d))

    Badami

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ellora 

58

Which Nigerian author won the Women's Prize for Fiction in 2007 for "Half of a Yellow Sun"? 

  1. ((a))

    Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

  2. ((b))

    Buchi Emecheta

  3. ((c))

    Lola Shoneyin 

  4. ((d))

    Sefi Atta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

59

What is the duration of each half in a standard kabaddi match (men's)? 

  1. ((a))

    15 mins

  2. ((b))

    20 mins

  3. ((c))

    30 mins

  4. ((d))

    25 mins

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 mins

60

Which of these is NOT a feature of Kathakali performances?

  1. ((a))

    Masked performances

  2. ((b))

    Actors use facial expressions and hand gestures

  3. ((c))

    The performance includes live singing

  4. ((d))

    The performance is silent with no vocalization

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Masked performances

61

"Raslila" is a traditional dance of which state?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab

62

Which of the following works was authored by Varahamihira? 

  1. ((a))

    Mrichchakatika 

  2. ((b))

    Sushruta Samhita 

  3. ((c))

    Brihat Samhita

  4. ((d))

    Dashakumaracharita

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mrichchakatika 

63

Who among the following was the author of Virasoliyam?

  1. ((a))

    Buddhamitra

  2. ((b))

    Ottakuthar

  3. ((c))

    Amirthasagarar

  4. ((d))

    Sekkilar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Buddhamitra

64

What is the central theme of Mando music from Goa ?

  1. ((a))

    Religious devotion

  2. ((b))

    War and heroism

  3. ((c))

    Love and historical narratives 

  4. ((d))

    Nature and philosophy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Religious devotion

65

Ugadi falls in the first month of the Hindu calendar called: 

  1. ((a))

    Vaishakha

  2. ((b))

    Magha

  3. ((c))

    Chaitra

  4. ((d))

    Kartika

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vaishakha

66

Which of the following is true about the Yaoshang Festival in Manipur? 

  1. ((a))

    Thabal Chongba is a moonlight circle dance

  2. ((b))

    Pala Eshei sung by unmarried youths

  3. ((c))

    Includes academic quiz competitions

  4. ((d))

    Marks the start of harvest season

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thabal Chongba is a moonlight circle dance

67

Which of the following pairs of musical forms/artists and their characteristics is correctly matched? 

  1. ((a))

    Rampur Saheswan Gharana - Fast note patterns, technically demanding

  2. ((b))

    Thumri (Banaras Style) - Known for lyrical khayals followed by Tarana 

  3. ((c))

    Tappa - Prominent exponent of lyrical love songs (Thumri)

  4. ((d))

    Rasoolan Devi - Slow, expressive, emphasizes mood over strict grammar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rampur Saheswan Gharana - Fast note patterns, technically demanding

68

Analyze the following statements about Handball rules and court specifications:

Assertion (A):The free-throw line in handball is drawn 3 meters outside the goal area line, and it is represented by a broken line.

Reason (R):The segments of the free-throw line are 15 cm long, with spaces of 15 cm between them.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

69

In which year did Babur take control of Kabul? 

  1. ((a))

    1500 CE

  2. ((b))

    1508 CE

  3. ((c))

    1504 CE

  4. ((d))

    1512 CE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1500 CE

70

Which system, introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919, classified provincial subjects into "reserved" and "transferred" categories?

  1. ((a))

    ​Dyarchy

  2. ((b))

    Federation

  3. ((c))

    Bicameralism

  4. ((d))

    Responsible Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​Dyarchy

71

Which of the following correctly describes the responsibilities of Madras and Bombay governors after 1773? 

  1. ((a))

    They operated independently of the Bengal Governor-General.

  2. ((b))

    They had to report to the Governor-General on war, peace, and revenue. 

  3. ((c))

    They managed trade but not civil administration.

  4. ((d))

    They were answerable only to the Court of Directors in London.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They operated independently of the Bengal Governor-General.

72

Who is the author of 'The Glass Palace"?

  1. ((a))

    Amitav Ghosh

  2. ((b))

    Vikram Seth

  3. ((c))

    Salman Rushdie

  4. ((d))

    Raj Kamal Jha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amitav Ghosh

73

Who led the four-member Indian judo team at the Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou ?

  1. ((a))

    Avtar Singh 

  2. ((b))

    Indubala Devi Maibam

  3. ((c))

    Tulika Maan

  4. ((d))

    Garima Choudhary 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avtar Singh 

74

Who was conferred Brazil's highest civilian honour, "The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross," in 2025? 

  1. ((a))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

  2. ((b))

    Narendra Modi

  3. ((c))

    Rajnath Singh 

  4. ((d))

    Mallikarjun Kharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nirmala Sitharaman

75

Which of the following statements about the Indian Desert is correct?

  1. ((a))

    The Indian Desert lies to the east of the Aravali Hills and receives moderate rainfall.

  2. ((b))

    It is a rocky plateau covered with dense forests and seasonal rivers.

  3. ((c))

    The Indian Desert is an undulating sandy plain with sand dunes and receives less than 150 mm of rainfall annually. 

  4. ((d))

    The region lies in the southern part of the Deccan Plateau and is rich in black soil.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Indian Desert lies to the east of the Aravali Hills and receives moderate rainfall.

76

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The eastern coastal plains of India are wider and flatter than the western coastal plains.

Reason (R): Large rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri have created extensive deltas along the eastern coast.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

77

Which three states in the Northern Plains region have the highest population densities?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Uttarakhand, Bihar, Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Assam, Haryana, Chhattisgarh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh

78

At which Lagrange point does the Aditya-L1 spacecraft orbit? 

  1. ((a))

    L1

  2. ((b))

    L2

  3. ((c))

    GEO

  4. ((d))

    SSO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L1

79

What is the primary purpose of ISRO's GSAT-20 (GSAT-N2) satellite ?

  1. ((a))

    It provides navigation services across the Indian subcontinent. 

  2. ((b))

    It monitors weather patterns over the Indian Ocean.

  3. ((c))

    It delivers high-speed broadband services using Ka-band across India. 

  4. ((d))

    It is designed for Earth observation and remote sensing.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It provides navigation services across the Indian subcontinent. 

80

Which of the following statements correctly defines population stabilization?  

  1. ((a))

    It refers to the stage where fertility becomes higher than mortality

  2. ((b))

    It refers to zero birth rate

  3. ((c))

    It occurs when the difference between birth rate and death rate is negligible

  4. ((d))

    It indicates exponential growth of urban population

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It refers to the stage where fertility becomes higher than mortality

81

Who took charge as new Cabinet Secretary of India in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. T.V. Somanathan

  2. ((b))

    Tarun Kapoor 

  3. ((c))

    Sanjay Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Arun Goel 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dr. T.V. Somanathan

82

Which industrial region in India is historically renowned for its dominance in the cotton textile industry and is often referred to as the "Manchester of India"?

  1. ((a))

    Chota Nagpur Industrial Region

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region

  3. ((c))

    Hugli Industrial Region

  4. ((d))

    Ahmedabad-Vadodara Industrial Region 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chota Nagpur Industrial Region

83

Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Spark Torch Igniters are being increasingly incorporated into advanced rocket engine designs for next-generation launch vehicles.

Reason (R): They provide superior multi-restart capability and consistent, reliable ignition in extreme conditions, allowing for more complex mission profiles and enabling engine reusability.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

84

Which enzyme primarily is responsible for joining "Okazaki fragments" during the DNA replication process?

  1. ((a))

    DNA polymerase

  2. ((b))

    DNA ligase

  3. ((c))

    Helicase

  4. ((d))

    Primase 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DNA polymerase

85

Arrange these evolutionary events chronologically:

A. First eukaryotes

B. First prokaryotes

C. Multicellularity

D. Oxygen accumulation

  1. ((a))

    ​B-D-A-C

  2. ((b))

    A-B-D-C

  3. ((c))

    ​D-B-A-C

  4. ((d))

    B-A-C-D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​B-D-A-C

86

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces a specific timeframe for pronouncing judgment after the conclusion of arguments in a criminal trial. What is this timeframe?

  1. ((a))

    Within 7 days

  2. ((b))

    Within 15 days 

  3. ((c))

    Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)

  4. ((d))

    Within 60 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Within 7 days

87

Who has the authority to appoint a Sessions Judge of one sessions division as an Additional Sessions Judge of another division?

  1. ((a))

    District Magistrate

  2. ((b))

    High Court

  3. ((c))

    Supreme Court 

  4. ((d))

    State Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

District Magistrate

88

Which of the following is a key objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

  1. ((a))

    Industrial growth

  2. ((b))

    Child mortality reduction

  3. ((c))

    Space exploration

  4. ((d))

    Wildlife protection 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Industrial growth

89

Which of the following initiative-objective pairings is correctly matched as per Government of India schem

  1. ((a))

    UDAN Road Safety

  2. ((b))

    PM PRANAM - Fertilizer diversification

  3. ((c))

    NBS-Airline support 

  4. ((d))

    NSWS - Social welfare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UDAN Road Safety

90

Which of the following is a typical example of Revenue Expenditure?

  1. ((a))

    Construction of a railway terminal

  2. ((b))

    Purchase of land for a PSU facility

  3. ((c))

    Interest paid on a government loan

  4. ((d))

    Funding a national highway project

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Construction of a railway terminal

91

Which of the folowing statements shows accurate understanding of a macroeconomic concept? 

  1. ((a))

    Gross Domestic Product includes earnings sent home by citizens working abroad. 

  2. ((b))

    When the general price level rises, the value of money tends to fall.

  3. ((c))

    A country's budget is considered balanced when exports exceed imports. 

  4. ((d))

    The central bank controls inflation mainly through changes in income tax rates. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gross Domestic Product includes earnings sent home by citizens working abroad. 

92

What is a primary focus area of the Global Energy Transition Index? 

  1. ((a))

    Nuclear energy development

  2. ((b))

    Fossil fuel production 

  3. ((c))

    Energy security, sustainability, and equity

  4. ((d))

    Space exploration technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nuclear energy development

93

U Tirot Sing was a tribal chief who led a fierce resistance against the British attempts to build roads through his territory in which region?

  1. ((a))

    Mizoram Hills

  2. ((b))

    Naga Hills

  3. ((c))

    Khasi Hills

  4. ((d))

     Lushai Hills

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mizoram Hills

94

Bhima Nayak, a prominent tribal leader during the 1857 rebellion, is known for which of the following contributions ?   

  1. ((a))

    Leading tribal uprisings in the Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh and coordinating guerrilla tactics against the British. 

  2. ((b))

    Negotiating a peace treaty between British authorities and rebel leaders in Central India.

  3. ((c))

    Serving as a close aide to Rani Lakshmibai and leading regular army battalions in open warfare. 

  4. ((d))

    Establishing a provisional government in Jhansi during the Rebellion.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Leading tribal uprisings in the Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh and coordinating guerrilla tactics against the British. 

95

Trade policy prior to 1991 was characterized by 

  1. ((a))

    Free trade

  2. ((b))

    Import liberalization

  3. ((c))

    High tariffs and quotas 

  4. ((d))

    Foreign direct investment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Free trade

96

Which of the following statements about public sector industries is correct?

  1. ((a))

    They are owned by private individuals.

  2. ((b))

    ​They operate without government regulation.

  3. ((c))

    ​They are owned and operated by government agencies.

  4. ((d))

    ​They are only run in rural areas.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are owned by private individuals.

97

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Third Five Year Plan failed to meet its targets.

 

Reason (R): The failure was mainly due to external shocks like war and drought.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

98

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Fourth Five Year Plan aimed at growth with stability and self-reliance.

Reason (R): It was launched after the shocks of war and droughts during the previous plan period.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

99

Consider the following statements about the LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) initiative:

  1. It was launched by India during COP26.
  2. It emphasizes government regulations over citizen participation.
  3. It promotes sustainable habits such as reusing, reducing, and recycling.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1 and 2 are correct 

  2. ((b))

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  3. ((c))

    Only 2 and 3 are correct 

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2 are correct 

100

Which of the following was a key feature of financial sector reforms under NEP 1991?

  1. ((a))

    Increased RBI control

  2. ((b))

    Nationalization of banks

  3. ((c))

    Establishment of private sector banks

  4. ((d))

    Restriction of FDI in banks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased RBI control

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

101

Solve:(56.75)2 - 3220

  1. ((a))
    • 0.5625
  2. ((b))

    0.5625

  3. ((c))

    2.5625

  4. ((d))
    • 2.5625
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  • 0.5625
102

A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to Rs. 1,000 in 3 years and 1,200 in 4 years. Find the rate of interest. 

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    42%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

103

A sum becomes Rs. 11,650 in 5 years and Rs. 12,076 in 6 years at simple interest. What is the sum? 

  1. ((a))

    9,230 

  2. ((b))

    9,340

  3. ((c))

    9,420

  4. ((d))

    9,520

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9,230 

104

Given: x+1x=2\rm x+\frac{1}{x}=2, find the value of x6+1x6−3(x3−1x3)+5(x2+1x2)\rm x^6+\frac{1}{x^6}-3\left(x^3-\frac{1}{x^3}\right)+5\left(x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}\right)

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

105

From the summit of a 90-meter-high building, the angles of depression to the top and bottom of a tower are measured at 30° and 60°, respectively. What is the height of the tower in meters?

  1. ((a))

    50 m

  2. ((b))

    60 m

  3. ((c))

    70 m

  4. ((d))

    75 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 m

106

If the space diagonal of a cuboid is 13 cm, and two of its edges are 3 cm and 4 cm, what is the third edge?

  1. ((a))

    11 cm

  2. ((b))

    12 cm 

  3. ((c))

    13 cm 

  4. ((d))

    14 cm 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11 cm

107

A solid metal sphere that has a radius of 12 centimeters is melted down and reshaped into smaller spheres, each with a radius of 2 centimeters. How many smaller spheres can be created from this material?

  1. ((a))

    216

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    1728

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

216

108

A solid metallic sphere of diameter 14 cm is melted and recast into smaller hemispheres each of diameter 7 cm. How many hemispheres can be made?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

109

The proportions of the dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are 2 : 3 : 4. If its volume is 768 cm3 what is its smallest dimension?

  1. ((a))

    6.34 cm

  2. ((b))

    8.45 cm

  3. ((c))

    12.25 cm

  4. ((d))

    16.89 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.34 cm

110

A rectangular tank has a length of 1 meter, a width of 80 cm, and a height of 50 cm. If the tank needs to be covered completely with square tiles of side 20 cm, how many tiles will be required?

  1. ((a))

    42

  2. ((b))

    85

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

111

A cone is melted and recast into smaller cones with 13\frac{1}{3} the radius and 13\frac{1}{3} the height. How many cones are formed?

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27

112

A cone is cut by a plane that runs parallel to its base, creating a smaller cone that is similar to the original cone. If the height of this smaller cone is one-third that of the original cone, what is the ratio of their volumes?

  1. ((a))

    1 : 3

  2. ((b))

    1 : 9

  3. ((c))

    1 : 27

  4. ((d))

    1 : 6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 : 3

113

Expand : (2x - 3)2

  1. ((a))

    4x2 + 12x + 9

  2. ((b))

    4x2​ - 12x + 9

  3. ((c))

    4x2​ - 14x + 10

  4. ((d))

    4x2​ + 10x + 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4x2 + 12x + 9

114

A machine processes 2.4 items per second. How many items does it process in 212\frac{1}{2} minutes?

  1. ((a))

    360

  2. ((b))

    380

  3. ((c))

    300

  4. ((d))

    420

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

360

115

The base of a regular right pyramid is a square with the side length of 6 cm. If its volume is 144 cm3, what is its height?

  1. ((a))

    8 cm

  2. ((b))

    10 cm

  3. ((c))

    12 cm

  4. ((d))

    15 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 cm

116

What is the sum of the exterior angles of a polygon with n sides? 

  1. ((a))

    4π 

  2. ((b))

    5π 

  3. ((c))

    2π 

  4. ((d))

    3π 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4π 

117

Simplify:

(0.625÷2.5)(58×2)=?\rm (0.625\div 2.5)\left(\frac{5}{8}\times 2\right)=?

  1. ((a))

    2.5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    0.3125

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.5

118

A regular right pyramid has a square base. Its base area is 100 cm2 and its lateral surface area is 260 cm2. What is the height of the pyramid?

  1. ((a))

    10 cm

  2. ((b))

    12 cm

  3. ((c))

    13 cm

  4. ((d))

    15 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 cm

119

A water pipe supplies water at a constant rate. In 4.5 minutes, it fills 2142\frac{1}{4} liters. At this rate, how much time will it take to fill 5.625 liters?

  1. ((a))

    10 minutes 

  2. ((b))

    11.25 minutes

  3. ((c))

    12 minutes

  4. ((d))

    12.5 minutes 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 minutes 

120

A farmer uses 23\frac{2}{3} of his land for wheat and 0.125 for rice. What fraction remains unused?

  1. ((a))

    16\frac{1}{6}

  2. ((b))

    18\frac{1}{8}

  3. ((c))

    316\frac{3}{16}

  4. ((d))

    524\frac{5}{24}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16\frac{1}{6}

121

Find the area of a circle that has a circumference of 44 cm.

  1. ((a))

    154 cm2

  2. ((b))

    121 cm2

  3. ((c))

    100 cm2

  4. ((d))

    138 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

154 cm2

122

If the selling price of an item is increased by 25% and the profit also increases from 20% to 30%, what is the percentage increase in the cost price?

  1. ((a))

    4.5%

  2. ((b))

    5.6%

  3. ((c))

    10.28%

  4. ((d))

    15.38%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.5%

123

A circular field is surrounded by a path 2 m wide. If the inner radius is 10 m, find the cost to pave the path at Rs. 20 per m2.

  1. ((a))

    ₹2765.71

  2. ((b))

    ₹2654

  3. ((c))

    ₹2356.45

  4. ((d))

    ₹3456

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹2765.71

124

A square sheet is folded in half. What is the ratio of the area of the folded shape to the original square?

  1. ((a))

    1 : 1

  2. ((b))

    1 : 2

  3. ((c))

    2 : 1

  4. ((d))

    3 : 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 : 1

125

A square plot of land is to be expanded such that its area becomes 225% of the original. By what percentage must each side be increased?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    100%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    50.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

126

A square board 20 cm side has a corner triangle removed (right triangle, legs 5 cm each). What percent of the board remains?

  1. ((a))

    93.76 %

  2. ((b))

    92.54%

  3. ((c))

    96.88%

  4. ((d))

    90%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

93.76 %

127

A regular hexagon has an area of 150 cm2. What is the area of one of its equilateral triangular sections?

  1. ((a))

    25 cm2

  2. ((b))

    30 cm2

  3. ((c))

    35 cm2

  4. ((d))

    40 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 cm2

128

The average of 20 numbers is 40. If the sum of the first 10 numbers is 380, what is the average of the remaining 10 numbers?

  1. ((a))

    42

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    44

  4. ((d))

    38

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

129

A line passes through the point (2, -1) (2, -1) and is perpendicular to the line y = (-2/5)x + 3. What is its equation?

  1. ((a))

    y = 2x - 6

  2. ((b))

    y = (3/2)x - 6

  3. ((c))

    y = (5/2)x - 6

  4. ((d))

    y = (5/2)x - 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

y = 2x - 6

130

From the top of a lighthouse 100 m high, the angle of depression of a boat is 30°. Find the distance of the boat from the base of the lighthouse.

  1. ((a))

    78 m

  2. ((b))

    173.2 m

  3. ((c))

    254 m

  4. ((d))

    189 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

78 m

131

A cylinder is half-filled with liquid. If radius doubles and height halves, what's the new filled depth percentage-wise? 

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))

    75%

  4. ((d))

    100%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25%

132

A composite solid is formed by placing a cone, which has a radius of 2 cm and a height of 6 cm, on top of a right circular cylinder. The cylinder's radius is twice that of the cone, and its height is also double that of the cone. What is the ratio of the volume of the cone to that of the cylinder?

  1. ((a))

    1 :24

  2. ((b))

    1 : 12

  3. ((c))

    1 : 18

  4. ((d))

    1 : 26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 :24

133

The volume of a right prism is 600 cm3 and its base area is 30 cm2. Find its height.

  1. ((a))

    10 cm

  2. ((b))

    15 cm

  3. ((c))

    20 cm

  4. ((d))

    25 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 cm

134

A triangular prism has side lengths of 5 cm, 6 cm, and 7 cm. If its height is 8 cm, what is the lateral surface area? 

  1. ((a))

    144 cm2

  2. ((b))

    120 cm2

  3. ((c))

    136 cm2

  4. ((d))

    152 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

144 cm2

135

If the orthocenter and centroid coincide, the triangle must be:

  1. ((a))

    Scalene

  2. ((b))

    Right-angled

  3. ((c))

    Equilateral

  4. ((d))

    Isosceles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Scalene

136

If the radius of a sphere is increased by 30%, by what percentage does its surface area increase?

  1. ((a))

    57%

  2. ((b))

    58%

  3. ((c))

    69%

  4. ((d))

    67%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

57%

137

If tan⁡θ=34\rm \tanθ=\frac{3}{4}, what is sec θ?

  1. ((a))

    54\frac{5}{4}

  2. ((b))

    115\frac{11}{5}

  3. ((c))

    65\frac{6}{5}

  4. ((d))

    74\frac{7}{4}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54\frac{5}{4}

138

If sin⁡A=35\rm \sin A=\frac{3}{5} and cos⁡B=45\rm \cos B=\frac{4}{5}, and both A, B in first quadrant, then sin(A + B) = ?

  1. ((a))

    1225\frac{12}{25}

  2. ((b))

    710\frac{7}{10}

  3. ((c))

    2425\frac{24}{25}

  4. ((d))

    425\frac{4}{25}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1225\frac{12}{25}

139

Find the equation of the line passing through (0,0) and (5,10)

  1. ((a))

    y = 5x

  2. ((b))

    y = 3x

  3. ((c))

    y = 4x

  4. ((d))

    y = 2x

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

y = 5x

140

If y = mx + c passes through (2, 5) and (4, 9), find m

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

141

If sec⁡A=1312\rm \sec A=\frac{13}{12} and A is acute, find sin(90° - A).

  1. ((a))

    513\frac{5}{13}

  2. ((b))

    1213\frac{12}{13}

  3. ((c))

    113\frac{1}{13}

  4. ((d))

    313\frac{3}{13}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

513\frac{5}{13}

142

A triangle has vertices at A(0, 0), B(6, 0), and C(0, 8). What are the coordinates of its Circumcenter? 

  1. ((a))

    (4, 3)

  2. ((b))

    (3, 5)

  3. ((c))

    (3, 4)

  4. ((d))

    (4, 5)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(4, 3)

143

In triangle XYZ, a line is drawn parallel to YZ intersecting XZ at A and XY at B. If XA = 2 cm, AZ = 6 cm, and XB = 3 cm, find BY.

  1. ((a))

    7 cm

  2. ((b))

    19 cm

  3. ((c))

    9 cm

  4. ((d))

    6 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 cm

144

553 + 173 - 723 + 201960 is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

145

If tan x = 2, find the value of cot(90° - x) + tan(90° - x).

  1. ((a))

    52\frac{5}{2}

  2. ((b))

    72\frac{7}{2}

  3. ((c))

    23\frac{2}{3}

  4. ((d))

    14\frac{1}{4}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

52\frac{5}{2}

146

In a circle, chord AB subtends an angle of 80° at the center. What is the measure of the angle subtended by the same chord at any point C on the circumference, on the same side as the arc?

  1. ((a))

    20°

  2. ((b))

    30°

  3. ((c))

    40°

  4. ((d))

    50°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20°

147

From a point 13 cm away from the center of a circle, a tangent of length 12 cm is drawn. Find the radius of the circle? 

  1. ((a))

    5 cm

  2. ((b))

    13 cm

  3. ((c))

    7 cm

  4. ((d))

    12 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 cm

148

Which of the following is least?

12,0.25,0.3,34\frac{1}{2}, 0.25, 0.3, \frac{3}{4}

  1. ((a))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    0.25

  3. ((c))

    0.3

  4. ((d))

    34\frac{3}{4}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12\frac{1}{2}

149

A sum doubles in 10 years at Sl. find its Rate of interest

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15%

150

If A works twice as fast as B, and A can complete a task in 10 days, how many days will it take for B to complete the task? 

  1. ((a))

    50 days

  2. ((b))

    40 days

  3. ((c))

    30 days 

  4. ((d))

    20 days 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 days

English Comprehension (50 questions)

In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.

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Across centuries, the movement of peoples, whether voluntary or forced, has continually reshaped cultures, economies, and  identities. The concept of diaspora ________ (1) not merely the scattering of individuals across lands, but the weaving of complex narratives that transcend borders. Communities living abroad often ________ (2). between preserving ancestral traditions and embracing the customs of their adopted homelands. Language, food, and festivals become linchpins of cultural memory, yet over generations, inevitable transformations _______(3) blending old and new in unexpected ways. The emotional landscape of the diaspora is often marked by ________ (4) nostalgia, a bittersweet yearning for a homeland that exists both in memory and myth. Meanwhile, some voices within diasporic communities warn against _________ (5) assimilation, fearing that full integration could erode essential aspects of identity.

151

Which verb form fits best? (1)

  1. ((a))

    denote 

  2. ((b))

    denotes

  3. ((c))

    denoted  

  4. ((d))

    denoting 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

denote 

152

Choose the right tense/form. (2) 

  1. ((a))

    navigates 

  2. ((b))

    navigating 

  3. ((c))

    navigate 

  4. ((d))

    navigated 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

navigates 

153

Which modal/tense works best? (3)  

  1. ((a))

    will occur 

  2. ((b))

    occurs 

  3. ((c))

    occurring 

  4. ((d))

    occur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

will occur 

154

What does nostalgia’ most nearly mean in this context? (4) 

  1. ((a))

    Resentment 

  2. ((b))

    Longing 

  3. ((c))

    Anger 

  4. ((d))

    Indifference 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Resentment 

155

“assimilation” most nearly means: (5) 

  1. ((a))

    Preservation  

  2. ((b))

    Segregation  

  3. ((c))

    Absorption

  4. ((d))

    Rejection 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Preservation  

156

Which of the following options, rearrange the given sentences in a proper sequence to make a meaningful passage? 

  1. Johann Wolfgang von Goethe is often regarded as one of the most important figures in German literature and thought.
  2. His "Theory of Colours", challenged Isaac Newton's ideas by arguing that colour is not merely a product of light refraction but also influenced by human perception.
  3. Goethe was also deeply interested in the sciences and his work in the field of colour theory and plant morphology was groundbreaking in its time.
  4. Goethe's works, such as the Faust plays, explored themes of human desire, ambition, and the quest for knowledge.
  5. Goethe also developed the concept of the "Urpflanze" or "primordial plant," suggesting that all plant structures derive from a common, adaptable form.
  1. ((a))

    2-4-3-1-5 

  2. ((b))

    1-4-3-2-5

  3. ((c))

    2-5-4-3-1 

  4. ((d))

    1-5-3-2-4 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2-4-3-1-5 

157

Improve the sentence using the correct phrasal verb of the underlined words.

The thieves managed to get off the police during the chase.

  1. ((a))

    get away from 

  2. ((b))

    get along with 

  3. ((c))

    get over 

  4. ((d))

    get through

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

get away from 

158

Benita: | had such a terrible fight with Samira last night.

I can't believe what | said. Richard: | don’t need to hear all about it. Some things are better left unsaid.

What does Richard mean when he says, "Some things are better left unsaid"?

  1. ((a))

    Some things should remain private and not be spoken about. 

  2. ((b))

    Everything should always be openly discussed. 

  3. ((c))

    Speaking about problems will always make them worse. 

  4. ((d))

    It's best to forget everything after a fight. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Some things should remain private and not be spoken about. 

159

Identify the error in the sentence.

They celebration the win with music and dancing.

  1. ((a))

    win 

  2. ((b))

    celebration 

  3. ((c))

    music 

  4. ((d))

    dancing 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

win 

160

Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.

The scientist was known for her _________ adherence to ethical standards.

  1. ((a))

    unasssailable 

  2. ((b))

    unassailable 

  3. ((c))

    unasailable 

  4. ((d))

    unassailible 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

unasssailable 

161

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

TRANQUILIZING

  1. ((a))

    Soothing 

  2. ((b))

    Irritating 

  3. ((c))

    Provocative 

  4. ((d))

    Harsh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soothing 

162

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

CALUMNY

  1. ((a))

    Truth 

  2. ((b))

    Slander 

  3. ((c))

    Praise 

  4. ((d))

    Compliment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Truth 

163

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Dogmatic  

  1. ((a))

    Stubborn 

  2. ((b))

    Flexible 

  3. ((c))

    Rigid 

  4. ((d))

    Arrogant 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stubborn 

164

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Clandestine 

  1. ((a))

    Open

  2. ((b))

    Long

  3. ((c))

    Secret

  4. ((d))

    Boring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Open

165

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

DISCONSOLATE

  1. ((a))

    Unhappy 

  2. ((b))

    Cheerful 

  3. ((c))

    Content  

  4. ((d))

    Elated 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unhappy 

166

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

EFFRONTERY

  1. ((a))

    Audacity 

  2. ((b))

    Politeness 

  3. ((c))

    Shyness 

  4. ((d))

    Courtesy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Audacity 

167

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Sanguine

  1. ((a))

    Optimistic 

  2. ((b))

    Cheerful 

  3. ((c))

    Pessimistic 

  4. ((d))

    Hopeful  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Optimistic 

168

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Rebarbative

  1. ((a))

    Attractive 

  2. ((b))

    Repulsive 

  3. ((c))

    Off-putting 

  4. ((d))

    Irritating 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Attractive 

169

Choose the correct meaning of idiom:

Where the shoe pinches

  1. ((a))

    The turning point in fortune 

  2. ((b))

    The hidden benefit in hardship  

  3. ((c))

    The point of real difficulty or discomfort  

  4. ((d))

    The weakest member in a team  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The turning point in fortune 

170

Choose the correct meaning of idiom:

Rest on his laurels

  1. ((a))

    To withdraw from success 

  2. ((b))

    To bask in past glory and avoid current effort 

  3. ((c))

    To criticize one’s own success 

  4. ((d))

    To challenge past achievements 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To withdraw from success 

171

Select the correct spelling of a word meaning ‘temporary stay or visit’. 

  1. ((a))

    Sojourn  

  2. ((b))

    Soejourn 

  3. ((c))

    Sajourn 

  4. ((d))

    Sojurn 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sojourn  

172

Spot the correct spelling of a term meaning 'study of the mind’. 

  1. ((a))

    Sychology 

  2. ((b))

    Psychology 

  3. ((c))

    Psychollogy 

  4. ((d))

    Psycology  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sychology 

173

Which of these is the correct spelling of an ethical theory prioritizing duty? 

  1. ((a))

    Deontological 

  2. ((b))

    Deantological 

  3. ((c))

    Deontollogical 

  4. ((d))

    Deontologicel 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deontological 

174

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: ‘A short, arnusing or interesting story about a real incident or person.’ 

  1. ((a))

    Tale  

  2. ((b))

    Allegory 

  3. ((c))

    Anecdote 

  4. ((d))

    Biography 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tale  

175

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A disease that spreads over a whole country or the world’. 

  1. ((a))

    Epidemic 

  2. ((b))

    Endemic 

  3. ((c))

    Pandemic 

  4. ((d))

    Pathogen 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Epidemic 

176

Spot the correct spelling of a blood-pressure device. 

  1. ((a))

    Sphygmomannometer 

  2. ((b))

    Sphygmomanometer 

  3. ((c))

    Sphygmamanometre 

  4. ((d))

    Sphygmomamometer 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sphygmomannometer 

177

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A government ruled by the wealthy." 

  1. ((a))

    Kleptocracy 

  2. ((b))

    Plutocracy 

  3. ((c))

    Theocracy 

  4. ((d))

    Meritocracy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kleptocracy 

In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate option to fill in each blank:

Equity in education is not a matter of distributing identical tools to unequal lives. It is, instead, the ______ (1) of design-one that begins by listening, not prescribing. To mistake uniformity for fairness is to ignore the histories etched into the margins of classrooms: the quiet absence of confidence, the inherited silences of caste, class, or gender, the invisible weight of underfed attention. In this context, merit is often brandished as a ________ (2) obscuring the scaffolded advantages that shape who arrives prepared and who arrives late. A just system does not pretend everyone starts at the same line; it re-draws the line so that the race itself does not entrench inequality. That redrawing requires more than infrastructure-it demands a ______ (3) of imagination. What if assessments accounted for lived complexity? What if pedagogy paused for breath where society gasps for access? Education is not a ladder out of poverty if the rungs are greased for some and splintered for others. Nor is inclusion real if it is merely spatial-a desk, a roll call, a token smile. True equity emerges not from programs alone, but from the ________ (4) to confront whose stories are centred, whose questions are validated, and whose silences are allowed to remain unbroken. The future of learning lies not in acceleration, but in the willingness to _______ (5) where we have failed to ask why the an always sound the same.

178

What should come in the place of blank number (1)?

  1. ((a))

    vocabulary 

  2. ((b))

    architecture 

  3. ((c))

    illusion 

  4. ((d))

    burden 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

vocabulary 

179

What should come in the place of blank number (2)? 

  1. ((a))

    shield

  2. ((b))

    disquise 

  3. ((c))

    mandate  

  4. ((d))

    virtue 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

shield

180

What should come in the place of blank number (3)? 

  1. ((a))

    reduction 

  2. ((b))

    poverty 

  3. ((c))

    generosity

  4. ((d))

    rupture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reduction 

181

What should come in the place of blank number (4)? 

  1. ((a))

    refusal

  2. ((b))

    curriculum

  3. ((c))

    hesitation

  4. ((d))

    mandate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

refusal

182

What should come in the place of blank number (5)? 

  1. ((a))

    innovate 

  2. ((b))

    conform 

  3. ((c))

    return 

  4. ((d))

    unravel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

innovate 

183

Choose the correct preposition:

He was entrusted ______ confidential state documents.

  1. ((a))

    for

  2. ((b))

    with

  3. ((c))

    to

  4. ((d))

    by

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

for

184

Select the correct option:

The committee regarded the proposal as ___ to the organization's long-term vision.

  1. ((a))

    integral 

  2. ((b))

    integrally 

  3. ((c))

    integration 

  4. ((d))

    integrate  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

integral 

185

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:

The manager asked the interns (1)/ to compile the data accurately and quick (2)/ for tomorrow's presentation (3)/ before the end of the day. (4)/

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

186

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:

What the council could not anticipate (1)/ was that the regulatory changes, sudden as they seemed, (2)/ were in fact a culmination of several years (3)/ of there being dissatisfaction within the sector. (4)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

187

Change the following from active to passive:

They will not tolerate procedural anomalies.

  1. ((a))

    Procedural anomalies will not be tolerated by them. 

  2. ((b))

    Procedural anomalies are not being tolerated by them. 

  3. ((c))

    Procedural anomalies would not be tolerated by them. 

  4. ((d))

    Procedural anomalies have not been tolerated by them. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Procedural anomalies will not be tolerated by them. 

188

Change the following from active to passive:

People found her explanation lacking in coherence.

  1. ((a))

    Her explanation lacked coherence when people found it. 

  2. ((b))

    It was found by people that her explanation lacked coherence.  

  3. ((c))

    Her explanation was found to be lacking in coherence. 

  4. ((d))

    Her coherence was lacking when it was explained.  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Her explanation lacked coherence when people found it. 

189

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

He had a strong will to overcome adversity.

  1. ((a))

    They signed a will before retirement. 

  2. ((b))

    The king ruled with willful pride.  

  3. ((c))

    She was willing to help without reward.  

  4. ((d))

    The team showed great willpower. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They signed a will before retirement. 

190

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

The conservator repaired the fillet on the old manuscript binding.

  1. ((a))

    The chef pan-seared a salmon fillet with herbs. 

  2. ((b))

    The bookbinder stitched the leather fillet tightly. 

  3. ((c))

    The fillet was traced in gold on the spine. 

  4. ((d))

    The medieval fillet indicated title divisions. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The chef pan-seared a salmon fillet with herbs. 

191

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

The illuminated antiphonary contained Advent chants.

  1. ((a))

    The singer read directly from the antiphonary. 

  2. ((b))

    The musicologist translated a medieval antiphonary.  

  3. ((c))

    The engineer downloaded an antiphonary for circuit patterns. 

  4. ((d))

    The archivist restored the parchment antiphonary. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The singer read directly from the antiphonary. 

192

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

A complaint was filed against the director by the shareholders.

  1. ((a))

    The shareholders had filed a complaint against the director. 

  2. ((b))

    The shareholders were filing a complaint against the director. 

  3. ((c))

    The shareholders filed a complaint against the director. 

  4. ((d))

    The director complained to the shareholders. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The shareholders had filed a complaint against the director. 

193

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

The documents have been being reviewed by the compliance team for several weeks.

  1. ((a))

    The compliance team has reviewed the documents for weeks. 

  2. ((b))

    The compliance team has been reviewing the documents for several weeks. 

  3. ((c))

    The documents were being reviewed for several weeks. 

  4. ((d))

    The compliance team had reviewed the documents weekly.  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The compliance team has reviewed the documents for weeks. 

194

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

Neither Rina or Raju was present in the class.

  1. ((a))

    Neither Rina not Raju 

  2. ((b))

    Either Rina or Raju 

  3. ((c))

    None of Rina and Raju 

  4. ((d))

    Neither Rina nor Raju  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither Rina not Raju 

195

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

The teacher explained the topic so clearly that no one had doubts.

  1. ((a))

    very clearly that no one had doubts 

  2. ((b))

    so clearly that no one had any doubts  

  3. ((c))

    in such clear way that no doubt remained 

  4. ((d))

    clearly so that no doubts were there 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

very clearly that no one had doubts 

196

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

She observed that the appellate bench might overturn the ruling were new exculpatory evidence to surface.

  1. ((a))

    She observed, "The appellate bench may overturn the ruling if new exculpatory evidence surfaces." 

  2. ((b))

    She said, "The appellate bench might overturn the ruling were new exculpatory evidence to surface." 

  3. ((c))

    She observed, "Should new exculpatory evidence surface, the bench has overturned the ruling." 

  4. ((d))

    She said, "Evidence surfaces, ruling might overturn." 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

She observed, "The appellate bench may overturn the ruling if new exculpatory evidence surfaces." 

197

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.

She said, “| was going to the market.”

  1. ((a))

    She said that she had been going to the market. 

  2. ((b))

    She said she was gone to the market. 

  3. ((c))

    She said she is going to the market. 

  4. ((d))

    She said she had gone to the market.  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

She said that she had been going to the market. 

198

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

The trainer remarked that participants must arrive 15 minutes early for registration.

  1. ((a))

    “Participants had to come 15 minutes early for registration,” the trainer remarked. 

  2. ((b))

    “Arrive 15 minutes early for registration,” the trainer told the participants.  

  3. ((c))

    “you will be registered only if you arrive 15 minutes early,” said the trainer. 

  4. ((d))

    “It's mandatory to register before 15 minutes,” said the trainer. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

“Participants had to come 15 minutes early for registration,” the trainer remarked. 

199

Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage:

  1. Philosophical scepticism questions whether knowledge is possible.
  2. This position originated in ancient Greek thought.
  3. Later, it influenced Enlightenment thinkers.
  4. Its legacy persists in modern epistemology.
  1. ((a))

    1-3-2-4 

  2. ((b))

    2-1-3-4  

  3. ((c))

    2-4-3-1 

  4. ((d))

    1-2-3-4  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1-3-2-4 

200

Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage.

  1. However, it requires careful planning and execution.
  2. Launching a new product can be an exciting venture.
  3. Market research is the first crucial step to ensure success.
  4. This helps in understanding customer needs and competitive landscape.
  1. ((a))

    2-4-1-3 

  2. ((b))

    2-1-3-4 

  3. ((c))

    4-3-1-2 

  4. ((d))

    2-3-1-4 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2-4-1-3 

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