Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2021: Official Paper (Held On : 3 June 2022 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

100 questions60 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Have a long face

  1. AOption (a)

    Look unhappy or disappointed

  2. BOption (b)

    Portray an ugly expression

  3. COption (c)

    Look extremely happy

  4. DOption (d)

    Look very confident

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Look unhappy or disappointed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Look unhappy or disappointed".

Key Points

  • Long faces make people appear unpleasant or serious.
  • Example: Mohini came to me with a very long face .
  • The meaning of "Look unhappy or disappointed" is someone who is looking sad or unpleasant.
  • Example: The boy looks unhappy or disappointed.
  • Both of the phrases are similar.
  • Therefore, the option 1) is the correct solution.

Question 2

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Curiocity

  2. BOption (b)

    Maturity

  3. COption (c)

    Creativity

  4. DOption (d)

    Generosity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Curiocity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Curiocity".

Key Points

  • Curiosity is the enthusiastic desire to learn about something.
  • Example: Lisa's curiosity led her to ask more questions.
  • There is no word Curiocity in English.
  • Curiocity is spelt incorrectly among the given options.

Question 3

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who believes in the existence of a god or gods

  1. AOption (a)

    Linguist

  2. BOption (b)

    Atheist

  3. COption (c)

    Theist

  4. DOption (d)

    Leftist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Theist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Theist".

Key Points

  • The question is asking for someone who believes in god or gods.
  • Theists hold that there is/are a god or gods.
  • Example: John was a theist.
  • Both the meanings are the same.
  • So the correct option is 3).

Additional InformationLet's see the others' meaning.

  • A linguist is a person who is skilled in languages.
  • Example: Ram was an accomplished linguist.
  • Atheist refers to a person who does not believe in the existence of any gods.
  • Example: I am an atheist.
  • Leftist refers to a person with left-leaning political opinions.
  • Example: We are looking for something to distinguish them from other leftists.
  • Therefore, these three options are not matching with the given question.

Question 4

From among the words given in bold, select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.

The action was unfortunately constructed not as the necessity of conscience but as deliberate imprudance, and the barrister was unofficially reprimanded.

  1. AOption (a)

    imprudance

  2. BOption (b)

    conscience

  3. COption (c)

    necessity

  4. DOption (d)

    reprimanded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

imprudance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "imprudance".

Key Points

  • The word "imprudance" is wrong among the given sentence.
  • The word should be imprudence not imprudance.
  • Imprudence is a lack of judgment or diligence in handling practical or financial matters.
  • Therefore, "imprudance" is a word which is spelt incorrectly.
  • The other given options are grammatically correct.

Question 5

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Marvellous

  1. AOption (a)

    Adverse

  2. BOption (b)

    Terrible

  3. COption (c)

    tolerable

  4. DOption (d)

    Mythical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Terrible

Why this answer is correct

The correct solution is "Terrible".

Key Points

  • Marvellous refers to something that is very good.
  • Example: Ayan has done a marvellous job
  • The opposing word to Marvellous should serve as the antonym.
  • Terrible denotes which is extremely bad.
  • Example: The service of the restaurant is terrible.
  • Therefore, the opposite word of marvellous is terrible.​​

​ 

Additional Information

  • Adverse refers to impeding achievement or growth.
  • Example: The match was canceled because of adverse weather.
  • Tolerable refers to something that can be tolerated or borne.
  • Example: The heast was not tolerable .
  • Mythical refers to something that only exists in the mind.
  • Example: Raavan was a mythical hero.

Question 6

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

It is better to contact someone who draws maps to get help in your research project.

  1. AOption (a)

    Calligraphist

  2. BOption (b)

    Psephologist

  3. COption (c)

    Cartographer

  4. DOption (d)

    Lexicographer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cartographer

Why this answer is correct

The correct solution is "Cartographer".

Key Points

  • Someone who creates maps is referred to as a cartographer according to the Oxford Dictionary of English app.
  • Example: Sujan is quite passionate about becoming a cartographer.
  • The underlined words are asking for the person who draws maps.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 3) .

The correct sentence is- It is better to contact a cartographer to get help in your research project.

Additional Information

  • Calligraphist: one who practices the art of calligraphy(producing beautiful writing, often with a special pen or brush)
  • Example: He was also a prolific writer and a calligrapher.
  • Psephologist: someone who studies elections and voting statistics
  • Example: The psephologists tell us that the larger the constituency the larger the swing.
  • Lexicographer: a person whose job is to write dictionaries 
  • Example: Ranjan works as a translator and lexicographer.

Question 7

Identify the option that arranges the given parts in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

a) Further, loud music is also a cause of noise pollution

b) Noise pollution is the result of aircraft and heavy traffic.

c) which has been seen to affect people’s hearing and

d) give them severe headaches and high blood pressure

  1. AOption (a)

    a, b, c, d

  2. BOption (b)

    c, a, b, d

  3. COption (c)

    d, c, a, b

  4. DOption (d)

    b, a, c, d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

b, a, c, d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "b, a, c, d" .

Key Points

  • Each sentence in a cohesive paragraph clearly connects to the main sentence or guiding idea, but coherence goes beyond this. When a paragraph is coherent, there are no jarring shifts or jumps between any of the sentences.
  • Here the first sentence should be "Noise pollution is the result of aircraft and heavy traffic".
  • If we go more we should say further . The first sentence presents the cause of noise pollution.
  • The last two sentences are the next sequences of noise pollution which are the results of noise pollution.
  • Therefore, Option 4) is the appropriate answer.

Question 8

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Danny is the better basketball player in the team.

  1. AOption (a)

    good

  2. BOption (b)

    most

  3. COption (c)

    best

  4. DOption (d)

    gooder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

best

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "best".

Key Points

  • There is a use of "the" before the underlined adjective.
  • The superlative degree of a verb should be used after the article "the".
  • When describing something that is at the upper or lower extent of quality, superlative adjectives are utilized (the tallest, the smallest, the fastest, the highest).
  • The sentence structure will be Noun (subject) + verb + the + superlative adjective + noun (object).

So the correct sentence will be Danny is the best basketball player in the team.

Additional Information

  • Good is the positive degree but it does not use after "the".
  • Most is an adverb and also a superlative degree of "more" which is an adverb. This will not be making sense before basketball.
  • Gooder is the comparative degree of the verb "good".

Question 9

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Two __________ control the judge’s decision: justice and impartiality.

  1. AOption (a)

    officials

  2. BOption (b)

    members

  3. COption (c)

    principles

  4. DOption (d)

    advocates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

principles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "principles".

Key Points

  • A core idea or principle that forms the basis of a way of thinking, behaving, or behaving in a certain way.
  • According to the sentence, two principles are justice and impartiality.
  • Justice and impartiality serve as the judge's guiding principles.

The correct sentence is Two principles control the judge’s decision: justice and impartiality.

Question 10

The following sentence contains a grammatical error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

As a rule, single sentences should not be write or printed as paragraphs.

  1. AOption (a)

    As a rule, single sentences should not be wrote or printed as paragraphs.

  2. BOption (b)

    As a rule, single sentences should not write or print as paragraphs.

  3. COption (c)

    As a rule, single sentences shall not have written or printed as paragraphs.

  4. DOption (d)

    As a rule, single sentences should not be written or printed as paragraphs.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

As a rule, single sentences should not be written or printed as paragraphs.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "As a rule, single sentences should not be written or printed as paragraphs."

Key Points

  • Should is a phrasal verb that denotes if something is right or best to do, or whether someone must or ought to do something.
  • According to the English grammar, the past participle form of the verb must be used after "should be".
  • The past participle form of "write" is "written".

So the correct sentence will be As a rule, single sentences should not be written or printed as paragraphs.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Pleasing

  1. AOption (a)

    Gratifying

  2. BOption (b)

    Festive

  3. COption (c)

    Mournful

  4. DOption (d)

    Sagging

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gratifying

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Gratifying".

Key Points

  • Giving a sense of satisfaction or happiness is the definition of pleasing.
  • Example: He has done a pleasing performance.
  • Gratifying refers to something that makes you feel good since it gives you what you need or want.
  • Example: France got a gratifying victory.
  • Consequently, the two words have the same meaning.

Additional Information

  • Let's see the meaning of other words.
  • Festive refers to the state of being joyful and delightful in line with a festival or other special occasion.
  • Mourning is feeling regret for something.
  • To sag is to droop, sink, or settle under pressure or as if there were no tension.

Question 12

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ardent

  1. AOption (a)

    Admirable

  2. BOption (b)

    Beautiful

  3. COption (c)

    Sincere

  4. DOption (d)

    Apathetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Apathetic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Apathetic".

Key Points

  • The adjective ardent denotes a high level of fervor, dedication, or enthusiasm.
  • Example: Riya has never seen such an ardent pacifist as Joy.
  • Apathy is the absence of passion, interest, or care. The emotionless person is called apathetic.
  • Example: Some Americans are apathetic.
  • The definitions of ardent and apathetic are mutually exclusive.

Additional Information 

Let's see the other words.

  • To be admirable means to merit admiration or respect.
  • Being beautiful refers to having an appealing quality that makes people happy when they see it or think about it.
  • Sincerity is the absence of pretense or deception.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underline segment in the given sentence.

Some politicians turn up their face at the hard life of downtrodden people.

  1. AOption (a)

    turn up their eyes

  2. BOption (b)

    turn up their nose

  3. COption (c)

    turn up their mouth

  4. DOption (d)

    turn up their ears

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

turn up their nose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "turn up their nose".

Key Points

  • "Turn their face" means to change their personality from a villain to a hero. 
  • Example: Ron turned his face to get the job.
  • "Turn up their nose" means refuse something because it is not good for you. 
  • Example: Annie turned up her nose when she was asked to take engineering.
  • Therefore, the appropriate option that would substitute "turn up their face" is "turn up their nose".

Additional Information

  • Let's see some idioms beginning with "turn".
IdiomMeaningExample
Turn the tablesto reverse the position making a disadvantage into an advantage.The peon turned the tables when he caught the official taking bribes.
Turn to jellyfeeling weak because of nervousness.Harry turned to jelly when he was asked to address the school assembly.
Turn uparriveTim turned up for the interview at the right time.

Question 14

Spot the error in the given sentence and select the correct sentence from the options given.

All the panel members has been invited for the monthly meeting.

  1. AOption (a)

    All the panel members was invited for the monthly meeting.

  2. BOption (b)

    All the panel members been invited for the monthly meeting.

  3. COption (c)

    All the panel members have been invited for the monthly meeting.

  4. DOption (d)

    All the panel members would have being invited for the monthly meeting.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All the panel members have been invited for the monthly meeting.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "All the panel members have been invited for the monthly meeting."

Key Points

  • The given question has been started with the plural form of the "panel members".
  • If the subject is a plural noun or plural pronoun, use have.
  • So the third option is the correct one.

The correct sentence is All the panel members have been invited for the monthly meeting.

Question 15

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Someone who is shy and spends time alone rather than being with others

  1. AOption (a)

    Egoist

  2. BOption (b)

    Extravert

  3. COption (c)

    Introvert

  4. DOption (d)

    Monk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Introvert

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "introvert".

Key Points

  • One-word replacements are used to simplify complex sentences by replacing them with a single word. With the phrase replaced, the meaning is unchanged, but the sentence is now shorter.
  • An introvert is a person who possesses traits associated with the introverted personality type, meaning they prefer to pay attention to their own inner thoughts and ideas as opposed to what is happening around them.
  • Example: Ram is an introvert person.
  • The introvert has the same meaning as the given question.

Additional InformationLet's check the meanings of the other words.

  • A person who is an egoist is one who is focused with their own interests.
  • Extraverted characteristics include being talkative, active, forceful, and outgoing.
  • A guy who has dedicated his life to religion typically gives up some aspects of daily life in the process and is called a monk.
  • These words are not matching with the given question.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

The best of both worlds

  1. AOption (a)

    The best practices in both, ancient times and present times

  2. BOption (b)

    The best people on Earth and in heaven

  3. COption (c)

    An advantageous situation from two different things at a time

  4. DOption (d)

    Being good in dreams and in reality

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

An advantageous situation from two different things at a time

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "An advantageous situation from two different things at a time".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom is "An advantageous situation from two different things at a time".
  • The best of all worlds: When all the benefits of two separate circumstances outweigh any drawbacks.
  • Example: Ram got the best of both worlds in one car.
  • According to the meaning, the third option is correct.

Additional Information Let's check the other idioms

WordsMeaningExamples
World of GoodsWhen you remark that something has improved someone's life or done them the world of good, you are implying that it has made them feel better.A vacation will be worked a world of goods for you.
Worlds apartTo be fully at odds with one another or differentOur living conditions are worlds apart .
The World is at your FingertipsThis idiom can be used to describe someone who has many opportunities available to them.I have all the answers at my fingertips

Question 17

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

He does not trust anybody.

  1. AOption (a)

    Anybody is not to be trusted by him.

  2. BOption (b)

    Anybody is trusted not by him.

  3. COption (c)

    Nobody is trusted by him.

  4. DOption (d)

    Nobody trusts him.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nobody is trusted by him.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Nobody is trusted by him".

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in a negative and active voice. and it needs to be changed to passive voice.
  • The passive voice is used to express interest in the subject of an action rather than the subject or object that actually performs it.
  • The rule for structuring the sentence of passive voice is :
  • The object will be changed into the subject.
  • "Does not" will be changed into "is".
  • And the main verb will be used in past participle form.
  • Here the object is "anybody".But as it is in negative form, we should use nobody as the subject of passive voice and the verb will be in past participle form.

So the answer will be Nobody is trusted by him.

Additional Information

  • Let's see another example of passive voice.
  • You have an active voice when the actor (and the actor can be a person or an object) appears before the action in a sentence.
  • The passive voice is used to express interest in the subject of an action rather than the subject or object that actually performs it.
  • Example: I took the pen. (Active voice)
  • The pen was taken by me. (Passive voice)

Question 18

Select the sentence which has no spelling error.

  1. AOption (a)

    A magnifisent Humayun tomb was built by Hamida Bano in Delhi.

  2. BOption (b)

    There are many magnificent churches in Goa.

  3. COption (c)

    The sight of waterfall was magnifecent in the brochure.

  4. DOption (d)

    The bride looked bright, simple and magneficent.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

There are many magnificent churches in Goa.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "There are many magnificent churches in Goa."

Key Points

  • The common word is "magnificent" in all the given sentences.
  • Magnificent denotes a size that is stunning and proportionate to scale without compromising decency or aesthetic taste.
  • According to english grammar, the correct word is "magnificent" which is correct only in the second option.
  • The remaining sentences' spellings of "magnificent" are wrong.

Therefore, option two is correct.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Stymie

  1. AOption (a)

    Tame

  2. BOption (b)

    Amaze

  3. COption (c)

    Hinder

  4. DOption (d)

    Scare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hinder

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Hinder".

Key Points

  • To stymie is to stop someone or something from happening or from accomplishing a goal.
  • Example: Bad weather stymied the cricket match.
  • Hinder implies to restrict someone's capacity for action.
  • Example: It's unclear if the adjustment will benefit or hinder our project.
  • According to their meaning, the above two words are identical.

Additional Information

  • When an animal is born in the wild, taming refers to the process of conditioning its behaviour so that it no longer naturally avoids humans and instead accepts their presence.
  • To be deeply surprised or astounded is to amaze.
  • To be terrified, especially suddenly, is to be scared .

Question 20

Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One of them contains a grammatical error. Select the option that has the error.

Though you may not be able to conquer, I exhort you to fought bravely to the last.

  1. AOption (a)

    Though you may not be

  2. BOption (b)

    I exhort you

  3. COption (c)

    able to conquer

  4. DOption (d)

    to fought bravely to the last

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to fought bravely to the last

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "to fought bravely to the last".

Key Points

  • In the given question, all parts are correct without the verb "fought".
  • A verb must be in the to + infinitive form when wish, learn, and offer are followed by another verb.
  • The correct form of the verb should be fight.

The final sentence should be "Though you may not be able to conquer, I exhort you to fight bravely to the last."

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Many of the major supermarket chains have come under fire with accusations of (1)__________ unethical acts over the past decade. They've wasted tonnes of food, they've underpaid their suppliers and they've contributed to excessive plastic waste in their packaging, which has had its impact on our environment. But supermarkets and grocers are (2)__________ to sit up and take notice. In response to (3)__________ consumer backlash against the huge amounts of plastic waste generated by plastic packaging, some of the largest UK supermarkets have (4)__________ up a pact promising to transform packaging and cut plastic wastage. In a pledge to reuse, recycle or compost all plastic wastage by 2025, supermarkets are now beginning to take (5)__________ responsibility for the part they play in contributing to the damage to our environment, with one major supermarket announcing their plan to eliminate all plastic packaging in their own-brand products by 2023.

Question 21

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    various

  2. BOption (b)

    most

  3. COption (c)

    same

  4. DOption (d)

    much

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

various

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "various".

Key Points

  • Various refers to something that is two or more of a distinct kind.
  • Here the speaker is talking about the different type of unethical acts.
  • According to the sentence, Over the past ten years, numerous supermarket chains have faced criticism for alleged unethical behaviour.

The correct sentence is Many of the major supermarket chains have come under fire with accusations of various unethical acts over the past decade.

Question 22

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    being start

  2. BOption (b)

    starting

  3. COption (c)

    start

  4. DOption (d)

    being starting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

starting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "starting".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, there are two subjects that are supermarkets and grocers.
  • The verb "be" and the verb "-ing" form combine to generate the continuous tense.
  • We can see there is "are" as a verb in the sentence.
  • So the present continuous form of verb should be used after "are".

The final sentence will be But supermarkets and grocers are starting to sit up and take notice.

Question 23

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    believing

  2. BOption (b)

    enlarging

  3. COption (c)

    developing

  4. DOption (d)

    growing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

growing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "growing".

Key Points

  • Growing means becoming greater in quantity or size.
  • Example: The bushes are growing quickly.
  • Therefore, the appropriate option is "Growing".

Additional Information

  • Believing - having faith in something.
  • Example: Rose is still believing in angels.
  • Enlarging - becoming big.
  • Example: This toy is enlarging itself when put in water.
  • Developing - becoming better. 
  • Example: The city is developing for good.

Question 24

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    signed

  2. BOption (b)

    bought

  3. COption (c)

    settled

  4. DOption (d)

    resigned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

signed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "signed".

Key Points

  • Signed is the past and the past participle form of the verb "sign".
  • In the given sentence, the auxiliary verb is "have" and we have to use the past participle form of verb after "have".
  • The sentence structure will be have+verb(past participle).

The final sentence is some of the largest UK supermarkets have signed up a pact promising to transform packaging and cut plastic wastage.

Question 25

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    little

  2. BOption (b)

    every

  3. COption (c)

    any

  4. DOption (d)

    some

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

some

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "some'.

Key Points

  • "Some" means a minimum amount of. 
  • Example: I had some beans for dinner.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "some".

Additional Information

  • Little -  small.
  • Example: The little girl looks pretty in her frock.
  • Every - all
  • Example: Every student was asked to follow the rules.
  • Any - an unspecified person or object.
  • Example: Do you have any colour pens?

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed in all the number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.

  1. AOption (a)

    25 ∶ 8

  2. BOption (b)

    169 ∶ 16

  3. COption (c)

    225 ∶ 12

  4. DOption (d)

    64 ∶ 11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

225 ∶ 12

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to get the missing number.

The logic here is: Take out the square root of each of the 1st term and then the answer is added by 3 to get the final answer.

So, 

1) 25\sqrt{25} = 5 + 3 = 8, 

2) 169\sqrt{169}  = 13 + 3 = 16, 

3) 225\sqrt{225} = 15 + 3 = 18 ≠\ne 12, as we are given in the option. This is the odd one out.

4) 64\sqrt{64}  = 8 + 3 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is 225 : 12.

Question 27

Consider the given statement and the following conclusions and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement.

Statement:

Private school teachers are hard-working.

Conclusion:

(I) Some hard-working teachers are private school teachers.

(II) Government employees are not hard-working.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion (I) follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only conclusion (I) follows

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have some statements and need to see which conclusion are correct or not.

So, for a given statement: Private school teachers are hard-working.

Thus, for the given conclusion, we have:

1) Some hard-working teachers are private school teachers: This is true as it is given in the statement that the private school teachers are hardworking.

  1. Government employees are not hard-working: This is not true, as nothing about the government employee is mentioned in the statement.

Hence, only conclusion 1 follows.

Question 28

Seven friends S, T, U, V, W, X and Y, each has scored different marks in an examination. W scored more than X but less than V. Only three people scored more than V. T scored more than U but less than S. Y scored the least among all. How many persons scored between T and X?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have some statements and using that we need to solve.

According to the given statements as below:

  1. W scored more than X but less than V. 

⇒\Rightarrow X < W < V  

  1. T scored more than U but less than S.

⇒\Rightarrow U < T < S

  1. Y scored the least among all.

⇒\Rightarrow Y < X

4) Only three people scored more than V.

⇒\Rightarrow V < three people

⇒\Rightarrow V < U < T < S

Thus, combining all the given statements, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow Y < X < W < V < U < T < S

so, only 3 persons scored between T and X.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Question 29

In a certain code language, ‘PLURAL’ is written as ‘MQSVMB’ and ‘SINGLE’ is written as ‘JTHOFM’. How will ‘DOUBLE’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    PEVCMF

  2. BOption (b)

    PECTDO

  3. COption (c)

    PECVFM

  4. DOption (d)

    CMTAKD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PECVFM

Why this answer is correct

Here, the alphabets and their positions are shown as below:

The logic follows here is: Each letter is added by one and every two letters interchange their positions in code language.

For, the word PLURAL:

For, the word SINGLE:

Thus, for the word DOUBLE:

 

Hence, the correct answer is PECVFM

Confusion Point: Keep in mind the positions of all the letters.

Question 30

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

17 : 48 :: 23 : 66 :: 15 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    49

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

42

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to get the missing number.

The logic here is: Each odd term is multiplied by 3 and then the answer is subtracted by 3 to get the final answer.

For 17 : 48, we have,

For 23 : 66, we have,

Similarly for 15 : ?

Hence, the missing number is 42.

Question 31

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

2 * 5 * 5 * 10 * 5

  1. AOption (a)

    =, ×, ×, –

  2. BOption (b)

    ×, –, =, –

  3. COption (c)

    =, +, +, ×

  4. DOption (d)

    ×, ×, ×, =

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

×, –, =, –

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 2 * 5 * 5 * 10 * 5.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) =, ×, ×, –

Given: 2 * 5 * 5 * 10 * 5

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 2 = 5 × 5 × 10 - 5

⇒ 2 = 250 - 5

⇒ 2 ≠ 245

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) ×, –, =, –

Given: 2 * 5 * 5 * 10 * 5

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 2 × 5 - 5 = 10 - 5

⇒ 10 - 5 = 5

⇒ 5 = 5

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) =, +, +, ×

Given: 2 * 5 * 5 * 10 * 5

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 2 = 5 + 5 + 10 × 5

⇒ 2 = 5 + 5 + 50

⇒ 2 ≠ 60

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) ×, ×, ×, =

Given: 2 * 5 * 5 * 10 * 5

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 2 × 5 × 5 × 10 = 5

⇒ 500 ≠ 5

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 32

In a certain code language, “REPORT” is written as “SDQNSS”, and “THANKS” is written as “UGBMLR”. How will “WINTER” be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    XHOSFQ

  2. BOption (b)

    XHMSFQ

  3. COption (c)

    XHOUFQ

  4. DOption (d)

    XIOSFQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

XHOSFQ

Why this answer is correct

Here, the alphabets and their positions are shown as below:

The logic here is: For each word, the odd letters are added by 1 and the even letters are subtracted by 1 to get the code language.

So, for the word REPORT:

And, for the word THANKS:

Thus, for the word WINTER:

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Confusion Point: Keep in mind the positions of all the letters.

Question 33

Pointing to a man in photograph, Rohan said, “His daughter’s brother is my mother’s son’s brother.” How is the man related to Rohan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father’s father

  2. BOption (b)

    Father’s brother

  3. COption (c)

    Brother

  4. DOption (d)

    Father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Father

Why this answer is correct

Family chart:

According to given statement:

The man in photograph is Rohan's father. 

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

Question 34

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    28

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24

Why this answer is correct

Here, we are given a image and we need to count total number of triangle.

First we need to count the small triangles:

 

Thus, we have 20 triangles.

Next, we will count big triangles while combing wo or more of them, 

  1. combine number 5 and 6, 

  2. combine number 10 and 14,

  3. combine number 11 and 16,

  4. combine number 19 and 20,

So, her we got 4 more triangle.

Thus, total in all = 20 + 4 = 24 triangle.

Hence, the correct answer is 24.

Question 35

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have a image and find out the total number of triangles.

First we will count the small triangles as:

  

Here, we got total of 14 triangle.

Next, we will combine these small triangles to get big triangles as:

So, here the triangles are: IBK, JCL, EMG, FNH, GOP - a total of 5 triangles.

Thus, a total of 14 + 5 = 19 triangles.

Hence, the correct answer is 19.

Question 36

Two different position of the same dice are shown, the faces of which are marked from A to F. Select the letter that will be on the opposite to the one showing 'E'.

 

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: 

If two dice have the same two face values in the given image, then the third number is opposite to each other.

In the given figure, B and C are common.

 

So, the number opposite to E is A.

Hence, option 3) is the correct answer.

 

Reference Fig (Wrong)

Question 37

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

21 * 5 * 61 * 84 * 4 * 8 * 15

  1. AOption (a)

    −, ÷, +, −, =, ×

  2. BOption (b)

    ×, −, =, ÷, +, +

  3. COption (c)

    +, −, =, ×, −, ÷

  4. DOption (d)

    +, ×, −, =, +, −

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

×, −, =, ÷, +, +

Why this answer is correct

Here, we are given a equation and we need to check which signs are correct.

Given: 21 * 5 * 61 * 84 * 4 * 8 * 15

First of all we will check all the options one by one as below:

1) −, ÷, +, −, =, ×

⇒\Rightarrow 21 - 5 ÷ 61 + 84 - 4 = 8 × 15

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 21 - 0.081 + 84 - 4 = 8 × 15

⇒\Rightarrow 21 - 0.081 + 84 - 4 = 120

⇒\Rightarrow 100.91 = 120, which is not possible. This is not true.

2) ×, −, =, ÷, +, +

⇒\Rightarrow 21 × 5 - 61 = 84 ÷ 4 + 8 + 15

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 21 × 5 - 61 = 21 + 8 +15

⇒\Rightarrow 105 - 61 = 21 + 8 + 15

⇒\Rightarrow 44 = 44, which is possible. This is true.

3) +, −, =, ×, −, ÷

⇒\Rightarrow 21 + 5 - 61 = 84 × 4 - 8 ÷ 15

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 21 + 5 - 61 = 84 × 4 - 0.53

⇒\Rightarrow 21 + 5 - 61 = 336 - 0.53

⇒\Rightarrow -35 = 335.47, which is not possible. This is not true.

4) +, ×, −, =, +, −

⇒\Rightarrow 21 + 5 × 61 - 84 = 4 + 8 - 15

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 21 + 305 - 84 = 4 + 8 - 15

⇒\Rightarrow 242 = -3, which is not possible. This is not true.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Confusion Point: Keep in mind to apply BODMAS rule, while solving these types of problems.

Question 38

Select the option that is related to the fourth number in the same way as the first number is related to the second number and the fifth number is related to the sixth number.

8 : 72 :: ? : 152 :: 17 : 297

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to get the missing number.

The logic here is: Each odd term is multiplied by itself and then this answer is added by 8 to get the final answer.

For 8 : 72,

For 17 : 297,

Similarly we have, ? : 152,

Hence, the missing number is 12.

Question 39

Find how many triangles are there in the given figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have an image and count total number of triangles.

First we will count small triangles as below:

So, we have a 6 triangles.

Next, we will combine small triangles and count them as below:

 

So, here the triangles are: BAD, BAE, BAF, CAE, CAF, DAF, HBE - a total of 7 triangles.

Thus, in all we have 6 + 7 = 13 triangles.

Hence, we have 13 triangles in all.

Question 40

Two different position of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing '4'.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have two dices given and having two faces common.

So, we have:

So, we will rotate the 2nd dice in such a way that, we get the same positions of common faces as in 1st dice.

Thus, face 1 is opposite to face 4.

Hence, the number '1' will be on the face opposite to the one showing '4'.

Question 41

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.

SYMBOL : YSNYLO :: TALENT : ATOVTN :: MOBILE : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    OMIBEL

  2. BOption (b)

    OMGWEL

  3. COption (c)

    OMTSEL

  4. DOption (d)

    OMYREL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

OMYREL

Why this answer is correct

Here, the alphabets and their positions are shown as below:

The logic here is: The first two letters and the last two letters of each word interchange their positions in code language. And the middle two words are corresponding letters in the coded language.

For the word SYMBOL : YSNYLO

For the word TALENT : ATOVTN

Similarly for the word MOBILE : ?

Thus, for the word MOBILE we have the code language has OMYREL

 

Hence, the code language is 'OMYREL' for the given word.

 

Confusion Point: Keep in mind the positions of all the letters.

Question 42

Which two numbers, from amongst the given options, should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

(36 ÷ 4) ×12 + (7 × 6) – 18 + (3 × 9) = 63

  1. AOption (a)

    6 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    4 and 12

  4. DOption (d)

    12 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 and 12

Why this answer is correct

Here, we will check options one by one.

Given: (36 ÷ 4) ×12 + (7 × 6) – 18 + (3 × 9) = 63

  1. 6 and 4

⇒\Rightarrow (36 ÷ 6) × 12 + (7 × 4) – 18 + (3 × 9) = 63

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 6 × 12 + 28 - 18 + 27 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 72 + 28 - 18 + 27 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 109 = 63, this is not true

  1. 3 and 4

⇒\Rightarrow (36 ÷ 3) × 12 + (7 × 6) – 18 + (4 × 9) = 63

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 12 × 12 + 42 - 18 + 36 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 144 + 42 - 18 + 36 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 204 = 63, this is not true

  1. 4 and 12

⇒\Rightarrow (36 ÷ 12) × 4 + (7 × 6) – 18 + (3 × 9) = 63

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 3 × 4 + 42 - 18 + 27 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 12 + 42 - 18 + 27 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 63 = 63, this is true

  1. 12 and 3

⇒\Rightarrow (36 ÷ 4) × 3 + (7 × 6) – 18 + (12 × 9) = 63

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒\Rightarrow 9 × 3 + 42 - 18 + 108 = 63

⇒\Rightarrow 27 + 42 - 18 + 108 = 63 

⇒\Rightarrow 159 = 63, this is not true

Hence, the correct  answer is '4 and 12' .

Confusion Point: Keep in mind to apply BODMAS rule, while solving these type of problems.

Question 43

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

First row- 12, 51, 159

Second row- 9, 39, 123

Third row- 8, 35,?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

    91

  2. BOption (b)

    111

  3. COption (c)

    101

  4. DOption (d)

    99

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

111

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to get the missing number.

The logic here: The 1st term of each row is multiplied by 4 and then the answer is added by 3 to get the 2nd term of each row. Again the 2nd row is multiplied by 3 and the answer is added by 6 to get the 3rd term of each row.

So, 

1st row:

12 ×\times 4 + 3 = 51,  51 ×\times 3 + 6 = 159

2nd row:

9 ×\times 4 + 3 = 39,  39 ×\times 3 + 6 = 123

Thus, for the 3rd row:

8 ×\times 4 + 3 = 35,  35 ×\times 3 + 6 = 111

Hence, the correct answer  is 111.

Question 44

If 19 April 1962 is a Thursday, then what will be the day of the week on 15 June 1965?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tuesday

  2. BOption (b)

    Friday

  3. COption (c)

    Monday

  4. DOption (d)

    Sunday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tuesday

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the day from the given day given.

So, in 19th April 1963 is ordinary year = 1 odd day

And in 1964 is a leap year = 2 odd days.

Again in 1965 is ordinary year = 1 odd day

So, we are given 19th April 1962 is Thursday then 19th April 1965 is 1 + 2 + 1 = 4 odd days = Monday.

Next in the year 1965

April = 30 days = 30 - 19 = 11 days left from 19th April

May = 31 days and June = 15 days

Thus, the total number of days = 11 + 31 + 15 = 57 = 8 weeks = 1 odd day

So, 15th June 1965 = Monday + 1 = Tuesday

Hence, the correct answer is Tuesday.

Confusion Point: Keep in mind what are leap years and ordinary year and number of odd days they have. Also, check how to find the leap year too.

Question 45

If ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘×’, ‘C’ denotes ‘–’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation?

(91 D 13) B 8 C 50 A 16 B 2 A (99 D 11) = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    47

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

47

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have given

(91 D 13) B 8 C 50 A 16 B 2 A (99 D 11) 

Substituting ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘×’, ‘C’ denotes ‘–’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’, we will get,

= (91 ÷ 13) × 8 - 50 + 16 × 2 + (99 ÷ 11)

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

= 7 × 8 - 50 + 16 × 2 + 9

= 56 -50 + 32 + 9

=  47

Hence, the correct answer is 47.

Question 46

Select the option that is related to the fourth number in the same way as the first number is related to the second number and the fifth number is related to the sixth number.

19 : 361 :: ? : 576 :: 6 : 36

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

24

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find out the patterns to get the missing number.

The logic here is: Each odd term is multiplied by itself to get the even numbers.

For 19 : 361, we have:

For 6 : 36, we have:

Similarly for ? : 576, we have:

Thus, 24 ×\times 24 = 576

Hence, the missing number is 24.

Question 47

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

First row: 17, 8, 153

Second row: 19, 6, 133

Third row: 13, 7, ?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the number into its constituent digits. For example, 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    103

  2. BOption (b)

    113

  3. COption (c)

    109

  4. DOption (d)

    104

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

104

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to get the missing numbers.

The logic here is:

Logic: First number x Second number + First number = Third Number 

In each row, the 1st is multiplied with the 2nd term and then the answer is added with the 1st term to get the 3rd term of each row.

In 1st row → 17, 8, 153

⇒\Rightarrow 17 ×\times 8 + 17 = 153

And,

In 2nd row → 19, 6, 133

⇒\Rightarrow 19 ×\times 6 + 19 = 133

Similarly,

In 3rd row → 13, 7, ?

⇒\Rightarrow 13 ×\times 7 + 13 = 104

Hence, the missing number is "104".

Question 48

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

A B _ K P C D H _ P E F H K _ G _ H K P

  1. AOption (a)

    H K P H

  2. BOption (b)

    C K E H

  3. COption (c)

    H G P E

  4. DOption (d)

    C G P E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

H K P H

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to fill the missing blanks.

Given: A B _ K P    C D H _ P   E F H  K _   G _H K P

The logic here is: There is a group of 5 letters. Each group is starting with two consecutive letters starting from AB. And the remaining three letters of each group are same i.e. H K P.

First we will check all the options:

1) H K P H: A B H K P    C D H K P   E F H  K P   G H H K P

2) C K E H: A B C K P    C D H K P   E F H  K E   G H H K P

3) H G P E: A B H K P    C D H G P   E F H  K P   G E H K P

4) C G P E: A B C K P    C D H G P   E F H  K P   G E H K P

In the option 1, 'H K P H' forms the pattern.

 

Hence, the missing letters are 'H K P H'.

Question 49

Select the correct mirror image if the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Here, we are given the word and we need to find the mirror image of it.

First keep in mind that, in mirror image the first letter will be the last letter of the given word. Also, the size of the letters will not change i.e. capital letters will appear capital only.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below :-

Detailed Explanation :- 

  • The line MN is the mirror.
  • The word  

 ends with  

. So, the mirror image will start with

 → Option 2 is eliminated.

  • The number 

is used . So, the mirror image will be

→ Options 3 and 4 are eliminated.

 

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • In a mirror image Left changes to right hand the right changes to left where top and bottom remains the same.
  • When placement of mirror not given, by default we will assume it in vertical direction.
  • The starting letter word will be at last after the mirror image drawn with left changes to right and right changes to left.

Question 50

Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.

r d _ n _ d r _ _ b n n d _ r d b _ n d r

  1. AOption (a)

    r n r d r n

  2. BOption (b)

    b n r d r r

  3. COption (c)

    n n r d r n

  4. DOption (d)

    b n r d r n

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

b n r d r n

Why this answer is correct

Here, we need to find the pattern to fill the blanks.

Given: r d _ n _ d r _ _ b n n d _ r d b _ n d r

The logic here is: Each group of 7 letters is made and the words are repeated.

First we will check all the options

1) r n r d r n: r d r n n d r - r d b n n d r  - r d b n n d r

2) b n r d r r: r d b n n d r - r d b n n d r  - r d b r n d r

3) n n r d r n: r d  n n d r - r d b n n d r  - r d b n n d r 

4) b n r d r n: r d b n n d r - r d b n n d r  - r d b n n d r

In the option 4, 'b n r d r n' is repeated itself.

Thus, we have r d b n n d r r d b n n d r r d b n n d r

Hence, the missing blanks are 'b n r d r n'.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

If the areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboidal box are 729 cm2, 529 cm2, and 289 cm2 respectively, then find the volume of the box.

  1. AOption (a)

    10,557 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    10,560 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    10,555 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    10,551 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10,557 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Areas of 3 adjacent faces, 

729 cm2, 529 cm2, and 289 cm2 

Concept Used:

Area of single cuboidal face = l × b,

Volume of Cuboid = l × b × h 

where l is the length, b is the breadth, and h is the height.

Calculation:

According to the question, 

 l × b = 729

b × h = 529

h × l = 289

Multiplying all three results, we will get

⇒ l × b × b × h × h × l = 729 × 529 × 289 

⇒ l2 × b2 × h2 = 729 × 529 × 289 

Taking square root on both sides, 

⇒ l × b × h = 729×529×289{\sqrt{729 × 529 × 289}}

⇒ l × b × h = 10,557

∴ The volume of a cuboid is 10,557 cm3.

Question 52

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    7865001

  2. BOption (b)

    7803572

  3. COption (c)

    7803541

  4. DOption (d)

    7803593

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7865001

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers which is divisible by 3

Concept Used:

Divisibility Test of 3 = Sum of all digits of a number to be divisible by 3

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of digits of 7865001 = 7 + 8 + 6 + 5 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 27

⇒ So, 27 is divisible by 3

⇒ Sum of digits of 7803572 = 7 + 8 + 0 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 2 = 32

⇒ So, 32 is not divisible by 3

⇒ Sum of digits of 7803541 = 7 + 8 + 0 + 3 + 5 + 4 + 1 = 28

⇒ So, 28 is not divisible by 3

⇒ Sum of digits of 7803593 = 7 + 8 + 0 + 3 + 5 + 9 + 3 = 35

⇒ So, 35 is not divisible by 3

Hence, the number which is divisible by 3 is 7865001

Question 53

If a, b, c are positive real numbers, what is the value of a−1b×b−1c×c−1a\sqrt {{a^{ - 1}}b} \times \sqrt {{b^{ - 1}}c} \times \sqrt {{c^{ - 1}}a}  ?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a−1b×b−1c×c−1a\sqrt {{a^{ - 1}}b} \times \sqrt {{b^{ - 1}}c} \times \sqrt {{c^{ - 1}}a}

Calculation:

⇒ a−1b×b−1c×c−1a\sqrt {{a^{ - 1}}b} \times \sqrt {{b^{ - 1}}c} \times \sqrt {{c^{ - 1}}a}

⇒ 1a×b×1b×c×1c×a\sqrt {{\frac{1}{a}\times}b} \times \sqrt {{\frac{1}{b}\times}c} \times \sqrt {{\frac{1}{c}\times}a}

⇒ ba×cb×ac\sqrt\frac{b}{a}\times\sqrt\frac{c}{b}\times\sqrt\frac{a}{c}

⇒ ba×cb×ac=1\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}\times\frac{c}{b}\times\frac{a}{c}}=1

Hence, the simplified value of the expression is 1

Question 54

An authorised rice dealer purchases rice at ₹32 per kg and sells it at ₹40 per kg. But while selling, he is giving only 900 grams instead of 1 kg. Find the actual profit percentage of the dealer (Correct to one decimal place)

  1. AOption (a)

    37.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    39.7%

  3. COption (c)

    39.8%

  4. DOption (d)

    38.9%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

38.9%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost Price of rice = Rs 32

Selling Price of rice = Rs 40

Concept Used:

Profit % = ProfitCP×100\frac{Profit}{CP}×100

Calculation:

⇒ Dealer sells 900 grams of rice instead of 1 kg

⇒ Cost price of 900 grams = 9001000×32=28.8\frac{900}{1000}×32=28.8 Rs

⇒ Selling price of 900 grams will be equal to selling price of 1 kg

⇒ Selling price of 900 grams = Rs 40

⇒ Profit = SP – CP = 40 – 28.8 = Rs 11.2

⇒ Profit % = 11.228.8×100\frac{11.2}{28.8}×100

⇒ Profit % = 38.9 %

Hence, the overall profit percentage made by the rice dealer is 38.9 %.

Shortcut Trick⇒ (S.P/C.P) = (40/32) × (1000/900) = 25/18

⇒ If C.P = 18x then S.P = 25x

∴ Profit% = [(25x - 18x)/18x] × 100 = (7x/18x) × 100 = 38.9%.

Question 55

When the price of an article was reduced by 25%, its sale was increased by 75%. Calculate the net effect on revenue.

  1. AOption (a)

    31.25% decrease

  2. BOption (b)

    31.25% increase

  3. COption (c)

    39.75% increase

  4. DOption (d)

    39.75% decrease

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

31.25% increase

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Price of article reduction = 25%

Sale of article increment = 75%

Concept Used:

Net effect on revenue = Increment in sale – Reduction percentage in Price – ((Increment in sale × Reduction Percentage in price) ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Putting the values in the formula,

⇒ Net effect on revenue = 75−25−75×2510075-25-\frac{75\times25}{100} %

⇒ Net effect on revenue = 50−75450-\frac{75}{4} %

⇒ Net effect on revenue = 50−18.75=31.2550-18.75=31.25 %

⇒ As the net effect result is in positive sign, then there is an increment.

Hence, the net effect on revenue is increase with 31.25 %

Question 56

A person runs at an average speed of 20 km/h for 30 minutes and cycles at a speed of 32 km/h for 1 hour 15 minutes. Calculate the average speed (in km/h, rounded off to 1 decimal place).

  1. AOption (a)

    30.5

  2. BOption (b)

    28.6

  3. COption (c)

    25.4

  4. DOption (d)

    26.3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

28.6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average speed of a person while running = 20 km/h

Time taken by person in running = 30 minutes

Average speed of a person while cycling = 32 km/h

Time taken by person in cycling = 1 hour 15 minutes

Concept Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ Convert the time taken in hours by dividing the minutes by 60,

⇒ So, 30 minutes = 3060=0.5\frac{30}{60}=0.5 hours and 1 hour 15 minutes = 7560=1.25\frac{75}{60}=1.25 hours

⇒ For the running speed,

⇒ Putting the values in the formula of speed,

⇒ 20=Distance0.520=\frac{Distance}{0.5}

⇒ Distance = 20 × 0.5 = 10 km

⇒ For the cycling speed,

⇒ 32=Distance1.2532=\frac{Distance}{1.25}

⇒ Distance = 32 × 1.25 = 40 km

⇒ Now, total average speed = 40+100.5+1.25\frac{40+10}{0.5+1.25}

⇒ Total average speed = 501.75=28.6\frac{50}{1.75}=28.6 km/h

Hence, the average speed of a person is 28.6 km/h.

Question 57

The average of 25 numbers is 18. The average of the first 12 of these numbers is 14 and that of the last 12 of these numbers is 17. The 13th number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    80

  2. BOption (b)

    78

  3. COption (c)

    74

  4. DOption (d)

    82

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

78

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average of 25 numbers = 18

Average of first 12 numbers = 14

Average of last 12 numbers = 17

Concept Used:

Average = Sum of numbers ÷ Number of values

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of 25 numbers = 25 × 18 = 450

⇒ Average of first 12 numbers = 14

⇒ So, sum of first 12 numbers = 14 × 12 = 168

⇒ Average of last 12 numbers = 17

⇒ So, sum of last 12 numbers = 17 × 12 = 204

⇒ Value of the 13th number = 450 – (168 + 204) = 450 – 372

⇒ Value of the 13th number = 78

Hence, the value of the 13th number is 78

Question 58

Simplify:

2[8p + 5 {n - 2 (n−n+p‾)(n-\overline {n + p} ) + 4p}]

  1. AOption (a)

    76p + 10n

  2. BOption (b)

    6p + 10n

  3. COption (c)

    7p + 6n

  4. DOption (d)

    10p + 10n

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

76p + 10n

Why this answer is correct

Given:

2[8p + 5 {n - 2 (n−n+p‾)(n-\overline {n + p} ) + 4p}]

Concept Used:

BODMAS = Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction

Calculation:

⇒ 2[8p + 5 {n - 2 (n−n+p‾)(n-\overline {n + p} ) + 4p}]

⇒ 2[8p + 5 {n - 2 (n−n−p)(n-{n - p} ) + 4p}]

⇒ 2[8p + 5 {n + 2p2p + 4p}] = 2[8p+5n+30p]2[8p+5n+30p]

⇒ 16p+10n+60p=76p+10n16p+10n+60p=76p+10n

Hence, the value of the simplified expression is 76p + 10n

Question 59

In a school, students using school bus, bike and bicycle for transport are in the proportion 6 ∶ 3 ∶ 1. If the total strength of the school is 1200, find the number of students who use bicycle for transport. (Each student uses only one of the given 3 modes of transport)

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    180

  3. COption (c)

    240

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

120

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ratio of students using school bus, bike and bicycle = 6 : 3 : 1

Total strength of school = 1200

Concept Used:

Total Students = Ratio × Number of students using any one vehicle

Calculation:

⇒ Let the number of students using school bus, bike and bicycle be 6x, 3x and x respectively.

⇒ 6x+3x+x=12006x+3x+x=1200

⇒ 10x=120010x=1200

⇒ x=120x=120

⇒ Number of students who use bicycle for transport = x = 120

Hence, the number of students who use bicycle for transport is 120

Question 60

Which of the following options does NOT give the lengths of three sides of any triangle?

  1. AOption (a)

    12, 18, 25

  2. BOption (b)

    18, 23, 41

  3. COption (c)

    7, 10, 12

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 7, 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18, 23, 41

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of Triangle 1 = 12, 18, 25

Length of Triangle 2 = 18, 23, 41

Length of Triangle 3 = 7, 10, 12

Length of Triangle 4 = 4, 7, 9

Concept Used:

Sum of two sides of triangle > Third Side

Calculation:

⇒ For Triangle 1,

⇒ 12 + 18 = 30 > 25

⇒ This is a true condition for a triangle.

⇒ For triangle 2,

⇒ 18 + 23 = 41 ≯\not> 41

⇒ This is a false condition for a triangle.

⇒ For triangle 3,

⇒ 7 + 10 = 17 > 12

⇒ This is a true condition for a triangle.

⇒ For triangle 4,

⇒ 4 + 7 = 11 > 9

⇒ This is a true condition for a triangle.

Hence, the sides of Triangle 2 as 18, 23 and 41, cannot be the lengths of the sides of a triangle.

Question 61

The value of the expression 1800 ÷ 10{(18 - 6) + [-2(1 + 2 )]} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    1080

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    1008

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Solve the nested terms from inside out: (1 + 2) = 3 and (18 − 6) = 12.

The middle term becomes [−2 × 3] = −6.

The brace term becomes {12 + (−6)} = 6.

The expression reduces to 1800 ÷ 10{6}, which is 1800 ÷ 60.

Calculation: 1800 ÷ 60 = 30.

∴ The correct option is C.

Alternate Method

Given expression: 1800 ÷ 10{(18 − 6) + [−2(1 + 2)]}

Formula: VBODMAS (Vinculum, Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 1800 ÷ 10{(12) + [−2(3)]}

⇒ 1800 ÷ 10{12 + (−6)}

⇒ 1800 ÷ 10{12 − 6}

⇒ 1800 ÷ 10{6}

⇒ 1800 ÷ (10 × 6)

⇒ 1800 ÷ 60

⇒ 30

∴ The correct option is C.

Additional Information

VBODMAS Rule

It defines the sequence for solving mathematical operations: Vinculum → Brackets → Of → Division → Multiplication → Addition → Subtraction.

Bracket Priority

Always solve in the order of: circular brackets ( ), then curly braces { }, and finally square brackets [ ].

Implicit Multiplication

In many competitive exams, a number adjacent to a bracket (juxtaposition) is treated as a priority operation, similar to the Of (O) step.

Question 62

Study the following pie-chart carefully, which shows a state government's expenditure (% allocation) on various sectors during the year 2019.

If ₹27 million were spent on transport in 2019, what would have been the total expenses (in million) of the given state government in that year considering mentioned sectors only?

  1. AOption (a)

    160

  2. BOption (b)

    140

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    130

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

150

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Spent on transport in 2019 = Rs 27 million

Expenses share of transport = 18%

Expenses share of agriculture = 30%

Expenses share of health = 15%

Expenses share of irrigation = 25%

Expenses share of dairy = 12%

Concept Used:

Total composition of each sector = Percentage Expenses × Amount in one percent

Calculation:

⇒ 18% of transport expenses contain = Rs 27 million = Rs 27,000,000

⇒ 1% of the expenses include = 2700000018=1,500,000\frac{27000000}{18}=1,500,000

⇒ Now, Expenses share of agriculture = 30×1500000=45,000,00030 \times 1500000=45,000,000

⇒ Expenses share of health = 15×1500000=22,500,00015\times1500000=22,500,000

⇒ Expenses share of irrigation = 25×1500000=37,500,00025\times1500000=37,500,000

⇒ Expenses share of dairy = 1500000×12=18,000,0001500000\times12=18,000,000

⇒ Total Expenses of all sectors = 27,000,000 + 45,000,000 + 22,500,000 + 37,500,000 + 18,000,000

⇒ Total Expenses of all sectors = Rs 150,000,000

Hence, the total expenses (in million) of the given sectors in the state government is 150 million.

Alternate Method From the pie chart,

Expense on transport = 18%

18%  = 27 M

Then total expense = 100% = (27/18) * 100 = 150 M

Question 63

In a class there are 26 boys and 24 girls. The Math teacher administered a test and found that the average score of the whole class is 85. If the average score of the boys was 82, find the average score of the girls.

  1. AOption (a)

    82

  2. BOption (b)

    88.25

  3. COption (c)

    85

  4. DOption (d)

    87.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

88.25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of boys in class = 26

Number of girls in class = 24

Average score of whole class = 85

Average score of boys = 82

Concept Used:

Average = Total Sum of Values ÷ Number of values

Calculation:

⇒ Let the total marks scored by whole class be x

⇒ Average score of class = x26+24=x50\frac{x}{26+24}=\frac{x}{50}

⇒ x=50×85=4250x= 50×85=4250

⇒ Let the total marks scored by boys be y

⇒ Average score of boys = y26\frac{y}{26}

⇒ y=26×82=2132y=26×82=2132

⇒ Marks scored by girls = 4250 – 2132 = 2118

⇒ Average score by girls = 211824=88.25\frac{2118}{24}=88.25

Hence, the average marks scored by the girls is 88.25

Shortcut Trick

alligation method:-

⇒  (85 - 82)/(x - 85) = 24/26  

⇒ 3/(x - 85) = 12/13

⇒12x - 12 × 85 = 39 

⇒ 12x - 1020 = 39 

⇒ 12x = 1059 

⇒  x = 88.25

Question 64

A shopkeeper buys a note book for ₹85. He wants a profit of 20% after giving a discount of 15%. At what price should he mark the note book?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹105

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹110

  3. COption (c)

    ₹115

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹120

Why this answer is correct

SP−CPCP\frac{SP-CP}{CP}Given:

Cost Price of notebook = Rs 85

Discount% = 15%

Profit% = 20%

Concept Used:

Profit% = SP−CPCP\frac{SP-CP}{CP}

Calculation:

⇒ Let the marked price of a notebook be Rs x

⇒ Discount on the notebook = x – 0.15x = Rs 0.85x

⇒ Selling Price of a notebook = Rs 0.85x

⇒ Putting the value in the Profit% formula,

⇒ Profit% = 0.85x−8585\frac{0.85x-85}{85}

⇒ 20100=0.85x−8585\frac{20}{100}=\frac{0.85x-85}{85}

⇒ 0.85x−85=170.85x-85=17

⇒ x=1020.85=120x=\frac{102}{0.85}=120

Hence, the marked price of the notebook will be Rs 120

Question 65

Taking π = 3.14, find the volume of a cylinder having its radius of base as 5 cm and its height as 24 cm.

  1. AOption (a)

    1526 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    1848 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    1256 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    1884 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1884 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of base = 5 cm

Height = 24 cm

Concept Used:

Volume of Cylinder = πr2h\pi r^2h

Calculation:

⇒ Putting the values in the formula,

⇒ πr2h=3.14×52×24\pi r^2h=3.14 \times 5^2\times24

⇒ 3.14×52×24=3.14×6003.14\times 5^2\times24=3.14\times600

⇒ 3.14×600=18843.14\times600=1884 cm3.

Hence, the volume of the cylinder is 1884 cm3.

Question 66

What is the value of the expression 100(sin 15° cos 15°)?

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    75

  3. COption (c)

    100

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

25

Why this answer is correct

Alternate Method

100(sin 15° cos 15°)

⇒ 50(2sin 15° cos 15°)

We know that, 2sinAcosA = sin2A and Sin30 = 1/2

⇒ 50(sin 30°)

⇒ 50 × 1/2 = 25

GIVEN:

100 (sin15∘cos15∘)( sin15^\circ cos15^\circ) 

FORMULA USED:

sin(A−B)=sinAcosB−cosAsinBsin(A - B) = sinA cosB - cosAsinB 

cos(A−B)=cosAcosB+sinAsinBcos( A - B) = cosA cosB +sinA sinB

CALCULATION:

sin15∘=sin(45∘−30∘)sin15^\circ = sin( 45^\circ - 30^\circ) = sin45∘cos30∘−cos45∘sin30∘ sin45^\circ cos30^\circ - cos45^\circ sin30^\circ = (121 \over \sqrt2 × 32\sqrt3\over 2 ) - ( 121\over\sqrt2 ×121\over2) = (3−1)22( \sqrt3 -1)\over2\sqrt2 .

 cos15∘=cos(45∘−30∘)=cos45∘cos30∘+sin45∘sin30∘cos 15^\circ = cos( 45^\circ - 30^\circ) = cos45^\circ cos30^\circ + sin45^\circ sin30^\circ =( 121\over \sqrt2  × 32\sqrt3\over2 ) +( 12+12 \frac{1}{\sqrt2}+ \frac{1}{2}) = (3+1)22( \sqrt3 +1)\over 2\sqrt2

Now, 100 (sin15∘cos15∘sin15^\circ cos15^\circ) =  100 ×    (3−1)22( \sqrt3 -1)\over2\sqrt2× (3+1)22( \sqrt3 +1)\over2\sqrt2   =  100× 2/8 = 25.

Hence, the value is 25.

Question 67

The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 80 cm. If the side that is not equal in length to any of the other two sides is 20 cm, find the length of each of the equal sides.

  1. AOption (a)

    25 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    20 cm

  3. COption (c)

    40 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    30 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30 cm

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Perimeter = 80 cm.

length of an unequal side = 20 cm.

FORMULA USED:

P = 2a + b  units.       Where P = Perimeter, a = length of two equal sides. and b = length of  base or unequal side.

CALCULATION:

Here P = 80 cm ,   b = 20 cm 

⇒P = 2a + b 

⇒ 80 = 2a + 20 

⇒2a = 60 

⇒ a = 30 cm.

Hence, Length of each of the equal sides is 30 cm.

Question 68

A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 10%. If the resulting number is 72, what is the original number?

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    84

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

64

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

resulting number = 72

FORMULA USED:

Successive percentage change = X - Y -X Y /100     Where X and Y are percentage increase and decrease respectively

CALCULATION:

Let the original number be xx

Here, X = 25 % increase , Y = 10% decrease 

Successive % change = 25 - 10 -( 25×10/100 )= +  12.5%  ( +) sign shows increase.

⇒ x+12.5x + 12.5%xx =  72.

⇒ x+1251000x=72.x + \frac{125}{1000}x =72.

⇒ x+18x=72.x +\frac{1}{8} x = 72.   ⇔ 9x/8 = 72 ⇔ x = 64.

Hence, the original number is 64.

Shortcut Trick Let the original number = x 

According to the question,

⇒ x × (125/100) × (90/100) = 72

⇒ x × (5/4) × (9/10) = 72

⇒ x × 45/40 = 72

⇒ x = 72 × 40/45

⇒ x = 64

Hence, the original number is 64.

Question 69

The table given below provides information about the marks obtained by a group of students in a test.

MarksNo. of Students
Less than 102
Less than 205
Less than 306
Less than 408
Less than 5010

What is total number of students in the group?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Marks obtained by a group of students in a test

CALCULATION:

No. of students who secure less than 10 marks = 2.

No. of students who secure less than 20 marks = ( 5-2) = 3.

No .of students who secure less than  30 marks = 6 -( 3+2) = ( 6-5) =1.

No. of students who secure less than 40 marks = 8 - (2+3+1) = ( 8-6) = 2.

No. of students who secure less than 50 marks = 10 - ( 2+3+1+2) = 2.

Now, Total number of students in the group = ( 2 + 3+ 1 +2 + 2) = 10.

Hence, the total number of students are 10.

Question 70

A sum of money becomes ₹2,000 in 3 years and ₹2,400 in 4 years, at the certain rate of yearly compound interest in case of annual compounding. Find the yearly rate of compound interest.

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    15%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20%

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Sum becomes Rs2,000 = 3 years.

Sum becomes Rs2,400 = 4 years

FORMULA USED:

A = P ×(1+R/100)t( 1+R/100)^t  )      Where A = Amount , P = Principal , R = Rate of interest and t = time in years.

CALCULATION:

 2,000 = P × (1+R/100)3( 1 +R/100)^3 ................( 1)

2,400 = P × (1+R/100)4( 1+ R/100)^4 .................( 2)

Now, (2) ÷ (1) , we get

24/20 = ( 1 +R/100) 

⇒R/100 = 1/5  

⇒ R = 20 

Hence, yearly Rate of Compound Interest is 20%.

Question 71

A boat’s speed in still water is 22 km/h, while the river is flowing with a speed of 8 km/h and the time taken to cover a certain distance upstream is 4 hours more than the time taken to cover the same distance downstream. Find the distance.

  1. AOption (a)

    105 km

  2. BOption (b)

    110 km

  3. COption (c)

    115 km

  4. DOption (d)

    125 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

105 km

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Downstream speed = 22 + 8 = 30 km/h

Upstream speed = 22 − 8 = 14 km/h

Distance = [(Product of speeds) ÷ (Difference of speeds)] × Time Difference

Distance = [(30 × 14) ÷ (30 − 14)] × 4

Distance = (420 ÷ 16) × 4 = 105 km

∴ The correct answer is 105 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the boat in still water = 22 km/h

Speed of the river = 8 km/h

Difference in time taken = 4 hours

Total Distance = D

Downstream: 30 km/h (T hrs)

Upstream: 14 km/h (T + 4 hrs)

Formula Used:

Speed downstream = Speed of boat + Speed of river

Speed upstream = Speed of boat − Speed of river

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Speed downstream = 22 + 8 = 30 km/h

⇒ Speed upstream = 22 − 8 = 14 km/h

Let the total distance be D.

⇒ Time taken upstream = D ÷ 14

⇒ Time taken downstream = D ÷ 30

According to the given condition:

⇒ (D ÷ 14) − (D ÷ 30) = 4

Taking LCM of 14 and 30, which is 210:

⇒ (15D − 7D) ÷ 210 = 4

⇒ 8D ÷ 210 = 4

⇒ 8D = 4 × 210

⇒ 8D = 840

⇒ D = 840 ÷ 8 = 105 km

∴ The correct answer is 105 km.

Additional Information

Relative Speeds in Water

If the boat's speed is u and the stream's speed is v, then Downstream Speed = u + v, and Upstream Speed = u − v.

Finding Speeds from Upstream & Downstream

Boat's speed in still water = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2. Stream's speed = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Average Speed for a Round Trip

When traveling distance D downstream and returning upstream, Average Speed = (2 × Downstream Speed × Upstream Speed) ÷ (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed).

Question 72

The following table gives the age of the children in a class of a school. Find the number of children in the class whose age is below 11 years but above 8 years.

Age (in years)89101112
No. of children1315422218
  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    28

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    57

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

57

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Number of children of age between( 8 -11) years

CALCULATION:

According to the given question,

Number of children below 11 years and above 8 years =   Children of age group of 9 and 10 years

⇒ Number of children of age group of 9 and 10 years = ( 15 +42) = 57 years.

Hence, the number of children of age  below 11 years and above 8 years = 57 years.

Question 73

If x+1xx+\frac{1}{x} = -323\sqrt 2 , what is the value of (x5+1x5x^5+\frac{1}{{{x^5}}})?

  1. AOption (a)

    -7152\sqrt2

  2. BOption (b)

    -7172\sqrt2

  3. COption (c)

    -7232\sqrt2

  4. DOption (d)

    -7202\sqrt2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

-7172\sqrt2

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

 x +1/x =  −32-3\sqrt2 

FORMULA USED:

 (a+b)2=a2+b2+2ab.( a + b)^2 = a^2 +b^2 + 2ab.

 (a+b)3=a3+b3+3ab(a+b)( a + b)^3 = a^3 +b^3 + 3ab ( a + b) 

CALCULATION:

 we have  x+1/x=−32x +1/x = -3 \sqrt2      Now, on squaring both the sides, we get

⇒ (x+1/x)2=( x +1/x )^2 =  (−32)2(-3 \sqrt2)^2 

⇒ x2+1/x2+2×x×1/x=18.x^2 +1/x^2 + 2\times x \times 1/x = 18. 

⇔ (x2+1/x2)=16.( x^2 + 1/x^2) = 16. 

 x+1/x=−32x +1/x = -3\sqrt2     Now, on taking cube on both the sides, we  have

⇒ (x+1/x)3=(−32)3.( x +1/x )^3 = ( -3\sqrt2 )^3. 

⇒ x3+1/x3+3×x×1/x(x+1/x)=−542.x^3 +1/x^3 + 3 \times x \times 1/x ( x +1/x ) = -54 \sqrt2. 

⇒ x3+1/x3+3×(−32)=−542. x^3 +1/x^3 +3 \times ( -3 \sqrt2) = -54\sqrt2. 

⇒ x3+1/x3=−452.x^3 +1/x^3 = -45\sqrt2.

Now, (x5+1/x5) ( x^5 +1/x^5) can be written as (x2+1/x2)(x3+1/x3)−(x+1/x)( x^2 + 1/x^2) ( x^3 +1/x^3) - ( x+1/x) 

⇒   Now, (x5+1/x5)( x^5 + 1/x^5)   = 16 × (−452)( -45\sqrt2) - (−32)-3\sqrt2) = (  −7202-720\sqrt2  + 323 \sqrt2 ) =  −7172.-717\sqrt2. 

Hence, the required value is -7172.\sqrt2.

Question 74

Ram and Shawan working together can complete a job in 5 hours, where as Ram alone can complete the same job in 6 hours. In how many hours can Shawan alone complete the job?

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

 Time taken by Ram and Shawan  together complete the work = 5 hours

Ram alone completes  the work = 6 hours 

FORMULA USED:

Efficiency = Total work / No. of time taken.

CALCULATION:

Let us assume the total work be 30 unit

....( you can assume any number but for the sake of calculation, we have taken L.C.M  of 5 and 6 )

Now,  Time taken by Ram and Shawan together = 5 hours 

⇒ Efficiency of Ram and Shawan = 30/ 5 = 6 unit/hours

⇒ As, Ram alone takes 6 hrs.

Hence, Efficiency of Ram = 30/6 = 5 unit/hours

Now, Efficiency of Shawan = ( 6 -5) = 1 unit/h

No. of hours taken by Shawan = 30/1 = 30 hours.

Hence, Shawan takes 30 hours to complete the work.

Question 75

A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes. Which scheme has the maximum discount percentage?

a) Two successive discounts of 22% and 25%

b) Buy 3, get 2 free

c) Buy 5, get 4 free

d) Buy 4, get 3 free

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    d

  4. DOption (d)

    c

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

c

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

4 schemes offered by shopkeeper

FORMULA USED:

S.P. = ( 1-d1/100) × ( 1-d2/100) × M.P. 

Where, S.P. = Selling price , M.P. = Marked price , d1 and d2 = successive discounts respectively.

Discount =( M.P. - S.P.)

Discount% = ( Discount /M.P. )× 100

CALCULATION:

Let us assume Marked price be Rs100.

On considering condition (a) , we have

Here d1 = 22% , d2 = 25%

S.P. = ( 1- 22/100) × ( 1- 25/100) × 100 = 78/100 × 75/100 × 100 = Rs58.5.

Discount = ( 100 - 58.5) = Rs41.5

Discount% =( 41.5/100) × 100 = 41.5%

On considering condition ( b), we have

Buy 3 get 2 free ,

Now, as we have assumed Marked price of 1 article = Rs100

Hence, M.P. of 5 articles = Rs500.

⇒ As, 2 articles are free,

⇒ Hence, S.P. of 3 articles = Rs300   ⇔ Discount = ( 500  - 300) = Rs200.

⇒ Discount% = (200/500) × 100 = 40%.

On considering condition (c),we have 

Buy 5 get 4 free,

Now, M.P. of 9 articles = Rs900.

⇒ As, 4 articles are free, 

⇒ Hence, S.P. of 5 articles = Rs500.    ⇔ Now, Discount = ( 900 -500) = Rs400.

⇒ Discount% = (400/900) × 100 = 44.44%

On considering condition (d), we have

Buy 4 get 3 free,

⇒ Now, M.P. of 7 articles Rs700.

⇒ As, 3 articles are free.

⇒ Hence, S.P. of 4 articles = Rs400    ⇔ Now, Discount = ( 700 -400) = Rs300.

⇒ Discount% = (300/700) × 100 =  42.85%

Since, condition (c) i.e. Buy 5 get 4 free has maximum discount % i.e. 44.44%.

Hence, condition (c) is in option(4) which has maximum percentage among all the given conditions i.e.44.44%.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, often touted as Tansen of the 20th century is famous for which of the following music genres?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hindustani classical music

  2. BOption (b)

    Carnatic music

  3. COption (c)

    Sufi devotional

  4. DOption (d)

    Ghazals

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hindustani classical music

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hindustani classical music.

Key Points

  • Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was an Indian Hindustani classical vocalist, from the Patiala gharana the most famous stalwart of Hindustani music.
  • The major vocal forms or styles associated with Hindustani classical music are dhrupad, khyal, and tarana.
  • Light classical forms include dhamar, trivat, chaiti, kajari, tappa, tap-khyal, ashtapadis, thumri, dadra, ghazal and bhajan.

Additional Information

  • Carnatic music known as Karnāṭaka saṃgīta or Karnāṭaka saṅgītam in the South Indian languages, is a system of music commonly associated with South India, including the modern Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, and Sri Lanka.
  • Sufi music refers to the devotional music of the Sufis, inspired by the works of Sufi poets like Rumi, Hafiz, Bulleh Shah, Amir Khusrow, and Khwaja Ghulam Farid.
  • Qawwali is the best-known form of Sufi music and is most commonly found in the Sufi culture
  • The ghazal is a form of amatory poem or ode, originating in Arabic poetry.
  • A ghazal may be understood as a poetic expression of both the pain of loss or separation and the beauty of love in spite of that pain.

Question 77

Which of the following is the autobiography of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad?

  1. AOption (a)

    Freedom at Midnight

  2. BOption (b)

    Partition

  3. COption (c)

    The Man Who Divided India

  4. DOption (d)

    India Wins Freedom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

India Wins Freedom

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer India Wins Freedom.

Key Points

  • Abul Kalam Ghulam Muhiyuddin Ahmed bin Khairuddin Al-Hussaini Azad was an Indian independence activist, Islamic theologian, writer and a senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
  • India Wins Freedom is an enlightening account of the partition from the author, Maulana Azad's perspective. It includes his personal experiences when India became independent and his ideas on freedom and liberty.

Additional Information

  • Freedom at Midnight is the true story of the events surrounding Indian independence, beginning with the appointment of Lord Mountbatten of Burma as the last Viceroy of British India, and ending with the assassination and funeral of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Mohammed Ali Jinnah (1876-1948) saw the realisation of his ambition, the formation of a sovereign nation for Indian Muslims: Pakistan, a year before he died as its supreme leader. Jinnah was a brilliant barrister and orator. His brilliance is described by Rafiq Zakaria in his book "The Man who divided India".

Question 78

Tanya Hemant is related to which of the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Badminton

  2. BOption (b)

    Tennis

  3. COption (c)

    Chess

  4. DOption (d)

    Hockey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Badminton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Badminton.

Key Points

  • Tanya Hemanth, who idolizes world No.1 Chinese Taipei, won her first title in 2018 at the Dubai Junior International Series.
  • She then captured a silver medal at Cyprus Junior in 2019 and a bronze medal in both the singles and doubles in Dubai a few months later.
  • A seventeen-year old player reaching the final of a senior international tournament from the qualifying stages is bound to catch the eyeballs.

Badminton Updates on Twitter: "Tanya Hemanth 🇮🇳 in action.  #OrleansMasters2022 📸 Badminton Photo https://t.co/HqRffAtJlC" / Twitter

Question 79

In October 2021, an order was issued by the Social Justice and Empowerment Department of Rajasthan to give the benefits of a pension scheme to all persons within __________________ categories of disabilities under the 'Rajasthan Social Security Special Persons Pension Scheme' in the state.

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    21

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21

Key Points

  • The social Justice and Empowerment department Rajasthan State Government has brought RAJSSP scheme.
  • The total payment processing for citizens is going to sponsor by the Central Government and State Government employees.
  • Rajasthan Social Security Pension has empowered the various sections and thus benifitted many individuals and specially the weaker sections of the society.

Additional Information

  • Rajasthan Social Security Pension has merged different central schemes under this one scheme to provide better facilities
  • Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme, Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme, and Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme are some centralGovernment schemes includes under RAJSSP.

Question 80

What happens to the salinity at the surface of the ocean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increases by the precipitation process

  2. BOption (b)

    Decreases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation

  3. COption (c)

    Increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation

  4. DOption (d)

    Decreases by transpiration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation

Key Points

  • In sea water there is typically close to 35 grams of dissolved salts in each liter.
  • It is written as 35 ‰ The normal range of ocean salinity ranges between 33-37 grams per liter (33‰ - 37‰).

Additional Information

  • As we have seen, most differences in salinity are due to variations in evaporation, precipitation, runoff, and ice cover.
  • All of these process occur at the ocean surface, not at depth.
  • The most pronounced differences in salinity should be found in surface waters.

Question 81

What is the common name of CHCl3?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chloroform

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium chloride

  3. COption (c)

    Ethylchloride

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrochloric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chloroform

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chloroform.

Key Points

  • Chloroform
  • Chloroform is a colorless, volatile, liquid derivative of trichloromethane.
  • It has an ether-like odor.
  • It is used as a solvent and in the production of refrigerant freon.
  • It appears as a clear colorless liquid.
  • It is denser than water and slightly soluble in water.
  • Nonflammable under most conditions, but burns under extreme conditions.
  • Used as a solvent, to make other chemicals, as a fumigant.

Additional Information

  • Sodium Chloride
  • Sodium chloride is the common salt.
  • Its formula is NaCl.
  • It is easily soluble in water and partially soluble or insoluble in other liquids.
  • They are white crystals that do not have an odour but possess a taste.
  • In its aqueous state NaCl acts as a good conductor of electricity due to the free movement of the ions.
  • Ethyl chloride
  • Ethyl chloride is a colorless mobile liquid below 54oF (12oC), and above this boiling point.
  • It is a colorless gas.
  • It is highly volatile, flammable, and has a sweet odor.
  • It is a versatile, organic compound used in a variety of applications.
  • Hydrochloric acid
  • Hydrochloric acid is an inorganic chemical.
  • It is a strong corrosive acid with a chemical formula HCl.
  • It is colourless and viscous.
  • It is corrosive and has a distinctively pungent smell.

Question 82

In the context of micro-finance, SHG refers to _______________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sustainable Help for Growth

  2. BOption (b)

    Surety and Help Group

  3. COption (c)

    Sustainable Help Grant

  4. DOption (d)

    Self Help Group 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Self Help Group 

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is Self Help Group.

Key Points

  • A self-help group (commonly abbreviated SHG) is a financial intermediary committee usually composed of 12 to 25 local women between the ages of 18 and 50.
  • Most self-help groups are in India, though they can be found in other countries, mainly in South Asia and Southeast Asia.
  • A SHG is commonly a group of people who work on daily wages who form a loose grouping or union.
  • Money is collected from those who are able to donate and given to members in need.
  • When micro-finance and self help groups make things worse for poor in  Bengaluru - Citizen Matters, Bengaluru

Additional Information

  • A sustainable help to growth provides economic opportunities for the poor, builds resilience, and prepares low-income countries for the impacts of climate change while limiting current emissions and environmental degradation.​
  • Sustainability research grants support the research and development a variety of methods, tools, guidance and programs that further the application of sustainability within decision-making.
  • The surety is the guarantee of the debts of one party by another.

Question 83

In April 2021, the state government of Assam launched the Tractor Distribution Scheme under the Chief Minister Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojna (CMSGUY) for farmers, with the objectives of reviving the agriculture sector and helping in doubling the farmer’s income by ___________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    2022

  2. BOption (b)

    2025

  3. COption (c)

    2023

  4. DOption (d)

    2024

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2022

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2022.

Key PointsTractor Distribution Scheme

  • The state govt. of Assam has launched the Tractor Distribution Scheme.
  • The main objective of his scheme is to revive the agricultural sector and help in doubling the farmer’s income by 2022.
  • A group of 8-10 people who are actual adult farmers can apply for a tractor distribution scheme.
  • This scheme will strengthen the agriculture sector if the farmers properly utilize these tractors.
  • The state govt. has allotted Rs 1000 crore for the successful implementation of this scheme**.**

Additional InformationChief Minister Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojna 

  • A 5-year mega-mission called Chief Minister Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojana (CMSGUY) was launched in the Financial Year (FY) 2016-17.
  • It is scheduled to culminate in the FY 2021-22, coinciding with 75 years of India's Independence.
  • Its aim was to double the farm income, in unison with the vision of Hon'ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.
  • Under CMSGUY there is a proposal to initiate massive investments in rural areas for complete rural empowerment in a period of five years.
  • This is sought to be achieved through 'saturation model' by covering each revenue village through focused interventions in
  • Direct economic activities
  • Logistic support includes market linkages
  • Community support.

Question 84

Renowned dancer and actor Minati Mishra was conferred with the Padma Shri for her significant contribution to which of the following Classical Dance forms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odissi

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipuri

  3. COption (c)

    Kathakali

  4. DOption (d)

    Kathak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Odissi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key PointsOdissi

  • Odissi is one of the Classical dance forms of India which originates from the Odisha state of India.
  • The examples of this dance can be seen in the Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves in Odisha.
  • The name came from ‘odra nritya’ which is mentioned in Natya Shastra.
  • "Odissi” dance form represents Water.
  • Minati Mishra was conferred with the Padma Shri for her significant contribution to Odissi.

 Additional Information

  • Kathak
  • Kathak originated from Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is one of the eight forms of ancient classical dances of India.
  • Famous Kathak dance is derived from Katha or storytellers.
  • Kathakali
  • Kathakali is one performing art that distinguishes Kerala.
  • The words ‘Katha’ mean story and ‘Kali’ mean drama.
  • It is traditionally performed within the temple precincts.
  • The language used for Kathakali songs is Manipravalam, i.e. a mixture of Malayalam and Sanskrit.
  • Bharatanatyam
  • Bharata Natyam is considered to be the oldest form of dance.
  • It is mother of all other styles of classical dance in India.
  • The classical Indian dance Bharatanatyam originated from the art of temple dancers in the South India state of Tamil Nadu.

Question 85

In Budget 2022-23,Government of India decided to continue the Scheme of ‘Khelo India – National Programme for Development of Sports’ over the 15th Finance Commission Cycle (2021-22 to 2025-26) at an outlay of________.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹4,550 crores

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹4,500 crores

  3. COption (c)

    ₹5,000.50 crores

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹3,165.50 crores

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹3,165.50 crores

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹3,165.50 crore.

Key Points

  • The Government has decided to continue the Scheme of over the 15th Finance Commission Cycle at an outlay of Rs 3165.50 crore.
  • The twin objectives were mass participation and promotion of excellence in sports,
  • The Khelo India Scheme is the flagship Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
  • It aims at infusing sports culture and achieving sporting excellence in the country.
  • It includes playfield development; community coaching development; promotion of community sports.

Additional Information15th Finance Commission Cycle

  • The Fifteenth Finance Commission is an Indian Finance Commission constituted in November 2017.
  • It is to give recommendations for devolution of taxes and other fiscal matters for five fiscal years.
  • The commission's chairman is Nand Kishore Singh since March 2014.
  • Its full-time members are Ajay Narayan Jha, Ashok Lahiri and Anoop Singh.
  • The important points about the latest report of the 15th Finance Commission of India are:
  • Maintaining vertical devolution at 41%
  • On GST
  • On Gross Tax Revenue
  • On Horizontal Devolution
  • On Revenue Deficit Grants (RDG)

Question 86

Padma Bhushan awardee, Buddhadev Das Gupta was an Indian classical _________ player.

  1. AOption (a)

    sarangi

  2. BOption (b)

    tambura

  3. COption (c)

    sarod

  4. DOption (d)

    tabla

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

sarod

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarod.

Key Points

  • Budddhadev Das Gupta
  • Buddhadev Das Gupta was an Indian classical musician who played the sarod.
  • He used to reside in Kolkata, India.
  • He was one of the artists featured in Nimbus Records' The Raga Guide.
  • In 2011, Das Gupta, was offered the Padma Shri by the government of India, but he turned it down saying "it was far too late in the day".
  • In January 2012, he had been conferred with the Padma Bhushan.
  • He was awarded Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1993 and Sangeet Natak Akademi Tagore Ratna in 2011.

Additional Information

Sr. No.Name of instrumentArtists' name
1ShehnaiBismillah Khan
Ali Ahmed Hussain
Bageshwari Qamar
2SitarPt. Ravi Shankar
Shahid Parvez Khan
Budhaditya Mukherjee
3SarodAmjad Ali Khan Bangash
Ali Akbar Khan
Allauddin Khan
4VeenaAsad Ali Khan
Ayyagari Syamasundaram

Question 87

T Balasaraswati, a dance legend from India was awarded the Padma Vibhushan for her contribution to Indian art and culture, in which of the following dance forms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kuchipudi

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatanatyam

  3. COption (c)

    Kathakali

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipuri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bharatanatyam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

  • T Balasaraswati was awarded the Padma Vibhushan for her contribution to Indian art and culture, in Bharatnatyam.
  • Tanjore Balasaraswati also known as Balasaraswati was an Indian dancer, and her rendering of Bharatanatyam, a classical dance style that originated in the South Indian state of Tamil Nadu, made this style of dancing well known in different parts of India and many parts of the world.
  • She was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1957 and the Padma Vibhushan in 1977, the third and the second highest civilian honors given by the Government of India.
  • She received numerous awards in India, including the President's Award from the Sangeet Natak Akademi and Sangita Kalanidhi from the Madras Music Academy, South India's highest award for musicians.
  • India Today based on a survey, classified her as one of the 100 prominent Indians who have shaped the destiny of India.

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam is a major form of Indian classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu.
  • Kuchipudi is one of the eight major Indian classical dances. It originates from a village named Kuchipudi in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Kathakali or 'story play' took shape in Kerala in southern India in the seventeenth century under the patronage of the prince of Karnataka.
  • The Manipuri Dance, also referred to as the Manipuri Raas Leela, is one of the eight major Indian classical dance forms, originating from the state of Manipur.

Question 88

Who among the following is NOT a Veena player?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jayanthi Kumaresh

  2. BOption (b)

    Sundaram Balchander

  3. COption (c)

    Jasraj

  4. DOption (d)

    Veenai Dhanammal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jasraj

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jasraj.

Key Points

  • Pandit Jasraj was an Indian classical vocalist, belonging to the Mewati gharana.
  • His musical career spanned 75 years resulting in national and international fame, respect and numerous major awards and accolades.
  • The veena, also spelled vina, comprises various chordophone instruments from the Indian subcontinent.
  • Ancient musical instruments evolved into many variations, such as lutes, zithers and arched harps.

Additional Information

  • Jayanthi Kumaresh is an Indian Veena musician.
  • Jayanthi comes from a lineage of musicians who have been practising Carnatic music for six generations and started playing the Saraswati.
  • Sundaram Balachander was an Indian veena player and filmmaker.
  • He directed, produced, and also composed music for a few of his films.
  • Balachander was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1982.
  • Veenai Dhanammal was a highly accomplished Carnatic musician, and the torchbearer of the school of Carnatic music that goes by her name.
  • She was both a vocalist and a performer on the Saraswati veena.

Question 89

The reflection on a bathroom mirror, the lake, and the glare on a pair of glasses are caused by which type of reflection?

  1. AOption (a)

    Multiple reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    Specular reflection

  3. COption (c)

    Glossy reflection

  4. DOption (d)

    Diffused reflection

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Specular reflection

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Specular reflection.

Key Points

  • The reflection on a bathroom mirror, the lake, and the glare on a pair of glasses are caused by Specular reflection.
  • Specular reflection reflects all light which arrives from a given direction at the same angle, whereas diffuse reflection reflects light in a broad range of directions.
  • The distinction may be illustrated with surfaces coated with glossy paint and matte paint.
  • Measurement of specular reflection is performed with normal or varying incidence reflection spectrophotometers (reflectometer) using a scanning variable-wavelength light source.
  • Lower quality measurements using a glossmeter quantify the glossy appearance of a surface in gloss units.

Additional Information

  • Multiple reflection of light is the reflection of light back and forth several times between reflecting surfaces.
  • Glossy surfaces are actually specular surfaces with micro surfaces at angles to surface plane. These micro surfaces reflect light not only specularly but also diffusely, giving the surface a glossy appearance.
  • Diffuse reflection is the reflection of light or other waves or particles from a surface such that a ray incident on the surface is scattered at many angles rather than at just one angle as in the case of specular reflection.

Question 90

Of which of the following forms are Kelucharan Mahapatra, Sonal Mansingh and Geeta Mahalik famous dancers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mohiniattam

  2. BOption (b)

    Kuchipudi

  3. COption (c)

    Bharatanatyam

  4. DOption (d)

    Odissi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Odissi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

  • Kelucharan Mahapatra, Sonal Mansingh and Geeta Mahalik famous dancers of Odissi.
  • Odissi, also referred to as Orissa in old literature, is a major ancient Indian classical dance that origin in the Hindu temples of Odisha – an eastern coastal state of India.
  • Odissi Dance originates from the Indian state of Odisha.
  • According to Natya Shastra, ‘Odhra Magadha’ is the earliest form of present-day Odissi Dance.
  • Odissi is one of the eight Indian Classical Dances.

Additional Information

  • Mohiniyattam is an Indian classical dance form that developed and remained popular in the state of Kerala.
  • Kuchipudi is one of the eight major Indian classical dances.
  • It originates from a village named Kuchipudi in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Bharatanatyam is a major form of Indian classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu.

Question 91

Who among the following Kuchipudi dancers received the Padma Shri Award in 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shobha Naidu

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhavana Reddy

  3. COption (c)

    Padmaja Reddy

  4. DOption (d)

    T Harika

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Padmaja Reddy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padmaja Reddy.

  • Kuchipudi dancer, Padmaja Reddy received the Padma Shri Award in 2022.
  • Padmaja Reddy is from Hyderabad
  • She has received Sangeeta Nataka Akademi Award, the highest award given by the Indian government to practicing artists.
  • she was the first person from Telangana to ever receive this honor.
  • She also runs a dance academy called Pranav Institute of Kuchipudi Dance.
  • She was invited to give a performance at the official residence of India’s Prime Minister: 10, Race Course Road.

Additional Information

  • Shobha Naidu was among the foremost Kuchipudi dancers of India and a disciple of the renowned master Vempati Chinna Satyam.
  • Bhavana Reddy is an Indian classical Kuchipudi dancer, singer, songwriter, and guru/teacher.
  • She is the younger daughter and disciple of renowned dancing couple Raja Radha Reddy and Kaushalya Reddy.

Question 92

Which of the following is an example of active transport?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron assimilation

  2. BOption (b)

    Salt elimination

  3. COption (c)

    Glucose transport

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium and potassium pumps

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sodium and potassium pumps

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is Sodium and potassium pumps.

Key Points

  • The Sodium-potassium pump present on the cell membrane is a classic example of active transport.
  • Which transports 3 sodium ions outside and 2 potassium ions inside of the cell per ATP.
  • Active transport is used by cells to accumulate needed molecules such as glucose and amino acids.
  • Active transport powered by adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is known as primary active transport.
  • Transport that uses an electrochemical gradient is called secondary transport.
  • Examples of Active Transport in Plants and Animals

Additional Information

  • Iron assimilation_​ The absorption of most dietary iron occurs in the duodenum and proximal jejunum and depends heavily on the physical state of the iron atom.
  • The reversibility of the salt elimination reaction can be attributed to the solvation of the sodium cations by tetrahydrofuran, and the affinity of the Lewis acidic lanthanide centers for tetrahydrofuran and chloride relative to the aminodiboranate anion.
  • Glucose transporters are a wide group of membrane proteins that facilitate the transport of glucose across the plasma membrane, a process known as facilitated diffusion.

Question 93

Identify the disease that is caused due to inadequate secretion of the hormone insulin from the pancreas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tuberculosis

  2. BOption (b)

    Diabetes mellitus

  3. COption (c)

    Blood cancer

  4. DOption (d)

    Gall stones

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Diabetes mellitus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diabetes mellitus.

Key Points

  • Diabetes or Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is caused due to insufficient secretion of insulin. The individual with diabetes has high levels of blood sugar.
  • Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how your body uses blood sugar (glucose).
  • Glucose is vital to your health because it's an important source of energy for the cells that make up your muscles and tissues.
  • It's also your brain's main source of fuel.
  • Diabetes Mellitus - Diabetes Type 1, Mellitus Symptoms, Risk Factors &  Mortality

Additional Information

  • Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body such as the kidney, spine, and brain.
  • A cancer of blood-forming tissues, hindering the body's ability to fight infection.
  • Gallstones are hardened deposits of digestive fluid that can form in your gallbladder.

Question 94

‘Raavan - Enemy of Aryavarta’ is written by which of the following writers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chetan Bhagat

  2. BOption (b)

    Aravind Adiga

  3. COption (c)

    Vikram Seth

  4. DOption (d)

    Amish Tripathi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Amish Tripathi

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is Amish Tripathi.

Key Points

  • Amish Tripathi is an Indian author.
  • He is known for his book series Shiva Trilogy and Ram Chandra Series.
  • Raavan: Enemy of Aryavarta is the seventh book of Amish Tripathi, sixth book of Amishverse, and third book of Ram Chandra Series.
  • It chronicles the life of Ravan until the time he kidnaps Sita.
  • The book was released on 1 July 2019 and published by Westland.
  • Image of book page. Click to open preview.

Additional Information

  • Chetan Bhagat is an Indian author, columnist and youtuber.
  • Aravind Adiga is an Indian writer and journalist. His debut novel, The White Tiger, won the 2008 Man Booker Prize.
  • Vikram Seth CBE, FRSL is an Indian novelist and poet.
  • Vikram Seth has written several novels and poetry books.

Question 95

Who showed that heating silver cyanide (an inorganic compound) with ammonium chloride (another inorganic compound) produced urea without the aid of any living organism or part of a living organism, in 1828?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antoine Lavoisier

  2. BOption (b)

    Friedrich Wohler

  3. COption (c)

    Ernest Lawrence

  4. DOption (d)

    Alfred Werner

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Friedrich Wohler

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is Friedrich Wohler.

Key Points

  • Friedrich Wöhler was the first to synthesize an organic compound from an inorganic substance.
  • In 1828, he synthesized urea by slowly evaporating a water solution of ammonium cyanate, which he had prepared by adding silver cyanate to ammonium chloride.
  • It is often cited as the starting point of modern organic chemistry.
  • Wöhler, Friedrich (1800–82) German chemist who first isolated aluminium and beryllium, and discovered calcium carbide.
  • Friedrich Wöhler | German chemist | Britannica

Additional Information

  • Antoine Lavoisier​ is most noted for his discovery of the role oxygen plays in combustion Antoine Lavoisier was a French Chemist who discovered that air is responsible for combustion and the source of acidity.
  • Ernest Orlando Lawrence was a pioneering American nuclear physicist and winner of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1939 for his invention of the cyclotron.
  • Alfred Werner was a Swiss chemist who was a student at ETH Zurich and a professor at the University of Zurich.

Question 96

Which state in India as per the 2011 Census has the lowest population Density per km2?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttarakhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagaland

  3. COption (c)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arunachal Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The 2011 Census of India, also the 16th Indian Census, is intended to be carried out in 2023.
  • In April 2019, a data user conference was held and it was announced that 330,000 enumerators would be enlisted.
  • Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density with 17 persons per sq. km, whereas our national capital has the highest population density with 11,320 persons per sq. km. Sikkim is the least populous.

Additional Information

  • The state with the lowest population density is Arunachal Pradesh**.**
  • Union Territory with the lowest density of population is Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • The Union Territory with the highest population density is Delhi.

Question 97

‘Jakhan Choto Chilam’ is the autobiography of __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Satyajit Ray

  2. BOption (b)

    Sukumar Ray

  3. COption (c)

    Taslima Nasrin

  4. DOption (d)

    Debesh Roy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Satyajit Ray

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satyajit Ray.

Key Points

  • Satyajit Ray was an Indian director, screenwriter, documentary filmmaker, author, essayist, lyricist, magazine editor, illustrator, calligrapher, and music composer.
  • Throughout his career, Satyajit Ray maintained that the best technique of filmmaking was the one that was not noticeable, that technique was merely a means to an end.
  • He disliked the idea of a film that drew attention to its style rather than the contents.

Additional Information 

  • Sukumar Ray was a Bengali writer and poet from the Indian subcontinent.
  • He is remembered mainly for his writings for children.
  • He was the son of children's story writer Upendrakishore Ray Chowdhury and the father of Indian filmmaker Satyajit Ray
  • Taslima Nasrin is a Bangladeshi-Swedish writer, physician, feminist, secular humanist, and activist.
  • She is known for her writing on women's oppression and criticism of religion. Some of her books are banned in Bangladesh.
  • She has been blacklisted and banished from the Bengal region
  • Debesh Roy was a Bengali writer and scholar from India. He is best known for his Sahitya Akademi Award-winning novel Teesta Parer Brittantaa.

Question 98

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the power between the Centre and the state in terms of the union, state and concurrent list?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fifth Schedule

  2. BOption (b)

    Ninth Schedule

  3. COption (c)

    Third Schedule

  4. DOption (d)

    Seventh Schedule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Seventh Schedule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Seventh Schedule.

Key Points

  • The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States
  • It contains three lists; i.e. 1) Union List, 2) State List and 3) Concurrent List.
  • Originally there was 97 subjects in union list but now it is 100 subjects in union list.

Additional Information 

  • The Ninth Schedule was brought in the Indian Constitution on 18 June 1951 to abolish the Zamindari system.
  • The third Schedule contains the “Forms of Oaths or Affirmations” of various constitutional posts.
  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Question 99

The World Badminton Championship event 2026 will be organise by__________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    Indonesia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India

Key Points

  • The 2026 BWF World Championships will be the 30th edition of the prestigious badminton tournament of BWF held annually.
  • It will be held in India in 2026.

2026 BWF World Championship allotted to India - myKhel

Additional Information

  • The BWF World Championships, formerly known as IBF World Championships, and also known as the World Badminton Championships, is a badminton tournament sanctioned by Badminton World Federation
  • The Olympic-bound P V Sindhu is the world champion in women’s singles
  • She has won two bronze and two silver medals at the world championships.

Question 100

____________ is a reputed classical dancer of Kathak dance form.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kanak Rele

  2. BOption (b)

    Shovana Narayan

  3. COption (c)

    Vani Madhav

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhavi Mudgal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shovana Narayan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shovana Narayan.

Key Points

  • Shovana Narayan is a recognized Indian Kathak dancer and a career officer with the Indian Audit and Accounts Service. She performs in India and internationally, and has been awarded the Padma Shri. She trained under Birju Maharaj.

Additional Information

  • Kanak Rele is an Indian dancer, choreographer, and academic best known as an exponent of Mohiniyattom. She is the founder-director of the Nalanda Dance Research Centre and the founder-principal of the Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya in Mumbai.
  • Madhavi Mudgal is an Indian classical dancer known for her Odissi dance style. She has won several awards, including the Sanskriti Award, 1984, President of India's award of Padma Shri, 1990, and the Orissa.
  • Vani Madhav is one among the few established new generation Odissi Dancers of India.

100 questions in the full paper