Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2021: Official Paper (Held On : 1 June 2022 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The lawyer had presented the facts of the case well.

  1. AOption (a)

    The facts of the case had presented the lawyer well.

  2. BOption (b)

    The facts of the case had been presented well by the lawyer.

  3. COption (c)

    The facts of the case were being presented by the lawyer well.

  4. DOption (d)

    The lawyer was presented well by the facts of the case.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The facts of the case had been presented well by the lawyer.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. The facts of the case had been presented well by the lawyer.

Key Points

  • In active voice, a sentence emphasizes the subject, performing an action.
  • In passive voice, a sentence emphasizes the action or the object of the sentence.
  • The given sentence is in Active voice and it is in past perfect tense.
  • Active Format:
  • ​Subject + had + 3rd form of verb + Object
  • ​Passive format:
  • Object + had + been + 3rd form of verb + by + subject
  • Hence the correct answer is option 2.

​The correct sentence is: The facts of the case had been presented well by the lawyer.

Question 2

Complete the collocation.

Since I like him a lot, I _____ him out.

  1. AOption (a)

    talked

  2. BOption (b)

    went

  3. COption (c)

    asked

  4. DOption (d)

    called

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

asked

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. asked.

Key Points

  • We use since with a point in time in the past.
  • The meaning of 'ask out' is invite someone out on a date.
  • From the word like in the first part of the sentence, it is clear that asked is the correct option.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.
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Correct Sentence: Since I like him a lot, I asked him out.

Additional Information

  • Talk out means discuss something thoroughly in order to solve a problem or reach a conclusion.
  • Go out means to leave the place where you live or work for a short time, returning on the same day.
  • Call out means summon someone to deal with an emergency or provide a service.
  • What is a collocation?
  • A collocation is two or more words that often go together. These combinations just sound "right" to native English speakers, who use them all the time.
  • Examples: a quick shower, a quick meal, a hard frost etc.

Question 3

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It was in this spirit that my little ones crept about me the other evening to hear about their great-grandmother Field, who lived in a great house in Norfolk (a hundred times bigger than that in which they and papa lived), which had been the scene-so at least it was generally believed in that part of the country-of the tragic incidents which they had lately become familiar with from the ballad of the Children in the Wood.

B. Here, Alice put out one of her dear mother’s looks, too tender to be called upbraiding.

C. Children love to listen to stories about their elders when they were children ; to stretch their imagination to the conception of a traditionary great-uncle, or grandame, whom they never saw.

D. Certain it is, that the whole story of the children and their cruel uncle was to be seen fairly carved out in the wood upon the chimney-piece of the great hall-the whole story down to the Robin Redbreasts-till a foolish rich person pulled it down to set up a marble one of modern invention in its stead, with no story upon it.

  1. AOption (a)

    CDBA

  2. BOption (b)

    CADB

  3. COption (c)

    DBCA

  4. DOption (d)

    ADCB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CADB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. CADB.

Key Points

  • While arranging the part of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them.
  • When we read the sentence carefully option A, option B and option D are not the starting sentence, so the starting sentence is Option C.
  • The description of option A is in option D and the final sentence is option B, so the correct sequence of the para jumbled is option 2 i.e. CADB.

Correct answer is: (C) Children love to listen to stories about their elders when they were children; to stretch their imagination to the conception of a traditionary great uncle, or grandame, whom they never saw. (A) It was in the spirit that .... (D) Certain it is, that the whole story.... (B) Here, Alice put out one of her dear mother's look, too tender to be called upbraiding.

Question 4

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Maverick

  1. AOption (a)

    Custodian

  2. BOption (b)

    Versatility

  3. COption (c)

    Conformist

  4. DOption (d)

    Brilliance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Conformist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Conformist.

Key Points

  • "Maverick " means a person who does not behave or think like everyone else, but who has independent, unusual opinions. (एक अपरंपरागत या स्वतंत्र दिमाग वाला व्यक्ति।)
  • "Conformist" means a person who behaves in the same way as most other people and who does not want to be different. (स्वीकृत व्यवहार या स्थापित प्रथाओं के अनुरूप; पारंपरिक; नैष्ठिक)
  • Hence, it is clear that Maverick and Conformist are opposite in meaning.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Custodian means a person who looks after something, especially a museum, library, etc.(रखवाली करने वाला)
  • Versatility means ability to adapt or be adapted to many different functions or activities.(बहुमुखी प्रतिभा)
  • Brilliance means great brightness; radiance; exceptional talent or intelligence.(चमक; प्रतिभा)

Question 5

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

Shylock was a cut-throat and was known as someone who was only interested in the amount of money that he could get from a situation.

  1. AOption (a)

    Selfish

  2. BOption (b)

    Greedy

  3. COption (c)

    Meddlesome

  4. DOption (d)

    Mercenary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mercenary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Mercenary.

Key Points

  • One word substitution for "someone who was only interested in the amount of money that he could get from a situation" is Mercenary. (लोभी; किराये का सैनिक; केवल धन के लिए काम करने वाला; धन लोलुप)
  • Mercenary means a person who is interested only in making money.
  • For Example:
  • ​His motives are entirely mercenary.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Selfish means thinking only about your own needs or wishes and not about other people’s.( स्वार्थी · मतलबी · स्वार्थपरायण · स्वार्थपर · ख़ुदगर्ज़ · ख़ुदग़रज़ी)
  • Greedy means wanting more food, money, power, etc. than you really need.( लालची)
  • Meddlesome means fond of meddling; interfering. (टाँग अड़ाऊ)

Question 6

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Crocodile tears

  1. AOption (a)

    Pretended show of sorrow

  2. BOption (b)

    Crying of a crocodile

  3. COption (c)

    Cruel presentation of sorrow

  4. DOption (d)

    Sincere expression of sorrow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pretended show of sorrow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Pretended show of sorrow.

Key Points 

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'Crocodile tears' is ''Pretended show of sorrow '.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Crocodile tears - false tears or hypocritical sorrow.
  • Crocodile tears means झूठ-मूठ का रोना/ मगरमच्छ के आँसू.
  • ​For Example:
  • ​It is not enough for us to weep crocodile tears over this affair.
  • ​Thus from the above explanation, it is clear that the correct answer is option 1.

Question 7

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

Raman had always been attracted to the scientific study of sound and decided to take up a course in sound engineering to pursue his dream career.

  1. AOption (a)

    Acoustics

  2. BOption (b)

    Agronomy

  3. COption (c)

    Alchemy

  4. DOption (d)

    Aesthetics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Acoustics

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Acoustics.

Key Points

  • Acoustics is a term referring to the science concerned with the production, control, transmission, reception, and effects of sound. (ध्वनिशास्त्र)
  • From the above sentence, it is clear that Acoustics is the correct substitution.

Additional Information 

  • Agronomy is the science and technology of producing and using plants by agriculture for food, fuel, fiber, chemicals, recreation, or land conservation. (कृषि विज्ञान; कृषिशास्त्र; सस्यविज्ञान)
  • Alchemy means a form of chemistry in the Middle Ages which involved trying to discover how to change ordinary metals into gold. (कीमिया रसायन विद्या से सम्बंधित)
  • Aesthetics means the study of beauty, especially in art.(सौन्दर्य बोध; सौंदर्यशास्त्र)

Question 8

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To hold good

  1. AOption (a)

    To remain valid

  2. BOption (b)

    To perform best

  3. COption (c)

    To keep relations

  4. DOption (d)

    To keep an eye

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To remain valid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. To remain valid.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'to hold good' is 'to remain valid '.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the idiom:
  • To hold good - remain true or valid.
  • To hold good का अर्थ सत्य होना है l
  • ​For Example:
  • The advice she gave us 10 years ago still holds good today.
  • ​Thus from the explanation given above, it is clear that the correct answer is option 1.

Question 9

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Allay

  1. AOption (a)

    Relieve

  2. BOption (b)

    Release

  3. COption (c)

    Arrange

  4. DOption (d)

    Allure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Relieve

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Relieve.

Key Points

  • Allay means 'to make something less strong'/lessen the intensity of or calm.' ((पीड़ा, कष्‍ट, भय आदि की) तीव्रता या प्रबलता कम करना)
  • For Example:
  • ​The government is trying to allay public fears about the spread of the disease.
  • ​​Relieve means to make an unpleasant feeling or situation stop or get better. (कष्‍ट या चिंता में राहत पहुँचाना)
  • For Example:
  • ​This injection should relieve the pain.
  • ​It is clear that Allay and Relieve is similar in meaning.
  • Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Release means to allow somebody/something to be free.(व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु को (किसी से या कहीं से) मुक्त करना, जाने देना)
  • Arrange means to put something in order or in a particular pattern.(व्‍यवस्थित करना, क्रम विशेष से सजाना)
  • Allure means the quality of being attractive and exciting.(प्रलोभन, आकर्षण)

Question 10

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

It's all Greek to me

  1. AOption (a)

    I cannot understand anything

  2. BOption (b)

    I am aware of the historical facts

  3. COption (c)

    I know this subject well

  4. DOption (d)

    I can understand the cause of something

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I cannot understand anything

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. I cannot understand anything.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'It's all Greek to me' is 'I cannot understand anything.' (मेरी समझ से परे है)
  • Let's look at the meaning of the idiom:
  • It's all Greek to me - I can't understand it at all.
  • ​For Example:
  • ​My brothers were having a discussion about the latest football fiasco, but it was all Greek to me.
  • ​Thus from the above explanation it is clear that the correct answer is option 1.

Question 11

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stingy

  2. BOption (b)

    Culminate

  3. COption (c)

    Picth

  4. DOption (d)

    Hasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Picth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Picth.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the options:
  • Stingy means not generous, unwilling to give, especially money. (कंजूस)
  • Culminate means to reach a final result. (समापन)
  • Hasty means (used about a person) acting or deciding something too quickly or without enough thought. (जल्दबाजी भरा)
  • The is no such word as "Picth".
  • The correct spelling is Pitch which means the quality of a sound governed by the rate of vibrations producing it; the degree of highness or lowness of a tone. (आवाज़ का उतार-चढ़ाव)
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 12

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nocturnal

  2. BOption (b)

    Irrespective

  3. COption (c)

    Repulcive

  4. DOption (d)

    Scoreboard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Repulcive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Repulcive.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the options:
  • Nocturnal means (used about animals and birds) awake and active at night and asleep during the day. (निशाचर)
  • Irrespective means  not taking (something) into account; regardless of. (का विचार किए बिना; निरपेक्ष)
  • Scoreboard means a large board that shows the score during a game, competition, etc. (अंकफलक)
  • There is no such word as Repulcive.
  • The correct spelling is Repulsive which means that causes a strong feeling of disgust. (प्रतिकारक)
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 13

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

My brother is a connoisseur of food and does not miss any chance to experiment with new dishes.

  1. AOption (a)

    Glutton

  2. BOption (b)

    Steward

  3. COption (c)

    Gourmet

  4. DOption (d)

    Porter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gourmet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Gourmet.

Key Points

  • Connoisseur of food means a person who has expert knowledge of something, esp. an art, food, or drink, and is qualified to judge and appreciate its quality. (अच्छे भोजन का पारखी)
  • Gourmet means a person who enjoys food and knows a lot about it.(पेटू; स्वादिष्ट भोजन पसंद करने वाला)
  • So the correct one word substitution is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Glutton means a person who eats too much. (भुक्खड़)
  • Steward means a man whose job is to look after passengers on an aircraft, a ship or a train. (प्रबंधक)
  • Porter means a person whose job is to carry suitcases, etc. at a railway station, airport, etc. (बोझ ढोनेवाला)

Question 14

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ambiguous

  1. AOption (a)

    Annoying

  2. BOption (b)

    Stylish

  3. COption (c)

    Sensational

  4. DOption (d)

    Certain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Certain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Certain.

Key Points

  • Ambiguous means doubtful or uncertain especially from obscurity or indistinctness. (अस्पष्ट; अनेकार्थता)
  • For Example:
  • ​His reply to my question was somewhat ambiguous.
  • ​Certain means completely sure; without any doubts.( अवश्‍यंभावी; निश्चित, पक्‍का, सुस्‍पष्‍ट)
  • For Example:
  • ​She’s absolutely certain that there was somebody outside her window.
  • ​Thus, Certain and Ambiguous is opposite to each other.
  • Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Annoying means making you feel angry or slightly angry.(कष्‍टकर, कष्‍टप्रद; खीझ पैदा करने वाला)
  • Stylish means fashionable and attractive.(फै़शनेबल और आकर्षक)
  • Sensational means causing, or trying to cause, a feeling of great excitement, surprise or interest among people.(सनसनीख़ेज़ (सनसनी पैदा करने या पैदा करने की कोशिश करते हुए))

Question 15

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Quaint

  1. AOption (a)

    Quite

  2. BOption (b)

    Queer

  3. COption (c)

    Quack

  4. DOption (d)

    Quiet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Queer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Queer

Key Points

  • Quaint means attractive or unusual because it seems to belong to the past.(आकर्षक या अनूठा (अतीत की वस्‍तु होने के कारण), अनोखा)
  • For Example:
  • What a quaint idea*!***
  • Queer means strange or unusual. (विचित्र, अजीब या असामान्‍य)
  • ​For Example:
  • His face was a queer pink colour.
  • ​Hence, Quaint and Queer are synonymous to each other.
  • Thus the correct answer is **option 2.**​

Additional Information

  • Quite means not very; to a certain degree; rather.( अधिक नहीं; किसी हदतक; अपेक्षाकृत)
  • ​Quack means the sound that a duck makes.( बत्तख़ की काँ-काँ)
  • Quiet means with very little or no noise.(शांत, ख़ामोश)

Question 16

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

As I review the events of my past life, I realise how________ are the influences that shape our destinies.

  1. AOption (a)

    subtle

  2. BOption (b)

    crude

  3. COption (c)

    plain

  4. DOption (d)

    artless

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

subtle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. subtle.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words:
  • Subtle means not very noticeable; not very strong or bright.
  • For Example : Advertisements persuade us to buy things in very subtle ways.
  • ​Crude means simple and basic, without much detail, skill, etc.
  • For Example: The method was crude but very effective.
  • ​Plain means easy to see, hear or understand; clear.
  • For Example: She made it plain that she didn’t want to see me again.
  • ​Artless means without skill or finesse.
  • For Example: Her simple artless charm won us over instantly.
  • The sentence implies that when the person reviewed the events of his past life, he realized that the influences that shape our destiny are unnoticeable.
  • ​Therefore the correct answer is option 1.

​Complete sentence: As I review the events of my life, I realise how subtle are the influences that shape our destinies.

Question 17

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He asked us, “When are you reaching?”

  1. AOption (a)

    He asked us whether we are reaching.

  2. BOption (b)

    He asked us when we will reach.

  3. COption (c)

    He asked us when we were reaching.

  4. DOption (d)

    He asked us when will you reach?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

He asked us when we were reaching.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. He asked us when we were reaching.

Key Points

  • As the reporting verb is in the past tense and direct speech is in the present continuous tense we will take the following steps:
  • As the statement in the question is in the interrogative form, while converting from direct to indirect speech the place of subject and verb would interchangeable.
  • "The conjunction 'that' is not used because 'No conjunction is used, if a sentence in direct speech begins with a question (what/where/when) as the "question-word" itself acts as a joining clause'."
  • The present continuous tense (are reaching) is changed to the past continuous tense (were reaching) in the indirect speech.
  • The pronoun you is changed to we as person, according to the subject.

 The correct sentence: He asked us when we were reaching.

Question 18

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

We will not remind you again.

  1. AOption (a)

    You will not be reminded by us again.

  2. BOption (b)

    You will not remind us again.

  3. COption (c)

    You will not have reminded us again.

  4. DOption (d)

    You will not be reminding us again.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

You will not be reminded by us again.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. You will not be reminded by us again.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in active voice. As per the question we have to change it into passive voice.
  • "The structure of the given sentence is as follows:"
  • Active: "Simple Future Tense Active: Subject + will/shall + first form of the verb + object"
  • Passive: "Object of the active sentence + will/shall + be + past participle form of the verb + by + subject of the active sentence".
  • The subject of the given sentence is we.
  • The object of the given sentence is you.
  • "The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject. "
  • 'will not remind' will be changed to 'will not be reminded'.

Correct sentence: You will not be reminded by us again.

Question 19

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

When Sanathan asked Mr. Jignesh / for a fresh evaluation of his performance / in the last financial year, / little did him know that the results will come out worse than expected.

  1. AOption (a)

    When Sanathan asked Mr. Jignesh

  2. BOption (b)

    for a fresh evaluation of his performance

  3. COption (c)

    in the last financial year

  4. DOption (d)

    little did him know that the results will come out worse than expected

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

little did him know that the results will come out worse than expected

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • Here, the erroneous part is 'little did him know that the results will come out worse than expected.'
  • The Objective pronoun 'him' should be replaced by subjective pronoun 'he'.
  • Example of Objective pronoun:
  • ​Take a picture of him. (Here 'him' is an objective pronoun)
  • Example of Subjective pronoun:
  • ​*You have some ice cream.(* Here 'you' is a Subjective pronoun)

​Correct sentence: When Sanathan asked Mr. Jignesh for a fresh evaluation of his performance in the last financial year, little did he know that the results will come out worse than expected.

Question 20

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in bold in the following sentence.

The headless monster winked at her from eyes embedded in pudgy shoulders.

  1. AOption (a)

    narrow

  2. BOption (b)

    stubborn

  3. COption (c)

    thick-bodied

  4. DOption (d)

    bright

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

thick-bodied

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. thick-bodied.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the bold word pudgy is (of a person or part of their body) rather fat.( गोलमटोल)
  • Thick-bodied means having a thick body.( मोटा शरीर)
  • Hence, pudgy and thick-bodied are synonymous.
  • Thus, the correct answer is **option 3.**​

Additional Information

  • Narrow means having only a short distance from side to side.( संकीर्ण)
  • Stubborn means not wanting to do what other people want you to do; refusing to change your plans or decisions.(ज़िद्दी)
  • Bright means having a lot of light.( चमकदार)

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Connie Sellecca plays first officer Mimi Thompkins who manages successfully to land Flight 243 after its roof is ripped (1)_________ mid-flight due to mental fatigue. She is not the only one (2)__________ that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people. And telling them they were going to be fine (3)__________ they had giant pieces of aeroplane carpet stuck to their heads. I can’t (4)_________ land a plane or tell the wounded people that they would be fine soon, due to the fact that I would be (5)_________ too hard and throwing out what ever food I had throughout the day.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. 

  1. AOption (a)

    down

  2. BOption (b)

    off

  3. COption (c)

    by

  4. DOption (d)

    out

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. off.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the options:
  • Rip down means to rip or pull something down from a high surface or mount, especially in a violent, forceful manner.
  • Ripped-off means to remove something very quickly; to tear or peel off; to tear something away from someone or something.
  • Examples:
  • My pocket ripped off, and my money is gone now! A piece of the bumper ripped off my car.
  • I ripped the cover off of the book accidentally. I ripped off the book cover.
  • Rip by is not suitable in the above passage.
  • Rip out means to remove it.
  • Hence the correct answer is option 2.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: Connie Sellecca plays first officer Mimi Thompkins who manages successfully to land Flight 243 after its roof is ripped (1) off mid-flight due to mental fatigue. She is not the only one (2)__________ that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people. And telling them they were going to be fine (3)__________ they had giant pieces of aeroplane carpet stuck to their heads. I can’t (4)_________ land a plane or tell the wounded people that they would be fine soon, due to the fact that I would be (5)_________ too hard and throwing out what ever food I had throughout the day.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. 

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    over

  3. COption (c)

    at

  4. DOption (d)

    on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

on

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'on'

Key Points

  • The phrase "on that flight" correctly implies being a passenger of or involved with the flight in question.
  • It suggests a physical presence within the space of the vehicle or mode of transport.
  • "On" is commonly used with vehicles, including planes, to denote being aboard or part of the journey.
  • Example: The new famous rapper on on our flight.
  • In contrast to other prepositions, "on" specifically aligns with the context of flights, highlighting both presence and participation.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: She is not the only one on that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people.

Additional Information

  • "In" can be used to denote being inside or within something but is less specific than "on" when referring to being part of a flight.
  • "Over" suggests a position above or across something but does not accurately describe being a passenger on a flight.
  • "At" indicates a location or presence in a certain place but lacks the specificity of being aboard a flight that "on" provides.

 

Correct Paragraph: Connie Sellecca plays first officer Mimi Thompkins who manages successfully to land Flight 243 after its roof is ripped (1) off mid-flight due to mental fatigue. She is not the only one (2) on that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people. And telling them they were going to be fine (3)__________ they had giant pieces of aeroplane carpet stuck to their heads. I can’t (4)_________ land a plane or tell the wounded people that they would be fine soon, due to the fact that I would be (5)_________ too hard and throwing out what ever food I had throughout the day.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. 

  1. AOption (a)

    even though

  2. BOption (b)

    however

  3. COption (c)

    otherwise

  4. DOption (d)

    besides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

even though

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. even though.

Key Points

  • Even though is the most appropriate option to fill the blank.
  • Even though means ‘despite the fact that’. It shows contract.
  • It is more emphatic than although and though.
  • Hence the correct answer is option 1.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: Connie Sellecca plays first officer Mimi Thompkins who manages successfully to land Flight 243 after its roof is ripped (1) off mid-flight due to mental fatigue. She is not the only one (2) on that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people. And telling them they were going to be fine (3) even though they had giant pieces of aeroplane carpet stuck to their heads. I can’t (4)_________ land a plane or tell the wounded people that they would be fine soon, due to the fact that I would be (5)_________ too hard and throwing out what ever food I had throughout the day.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. 

  1. AOption (a)

    even so

  2. BOption (b)

    neither

  3. COption (c)

    either

  4. DOption (d)

    nevertheless

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

either

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. either.

Key Points

  • Either.... or/ neither.... nor are used with respect to their pairs.
  • Here or is in the passage, so either is used.
  • Hence the most appropriate option is either.
  • Thus the correct answer is option 3.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: Connie Sellecca plays first officer Mimi Thompkins who manages successfully to land Flight 243 after its roof is ripped (1) off mid-flight due to mental fatigue. She is not the only one (2) on that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people. And telling them they were going to be fine (3) even though they had giant pieces of aeroplane carpet stuck to their heads. I can’t (4) either land a plane or tell the wounded people that they would be fine soon, due to the fact that I would be (5)_________ too hard and throwing out what ever food I had throughout the day.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. 

  1. AOption (a)

    oozing

  2. BOption (b)

    spewing

  3. COption (c)

    razing

  4. DOption (d)

    vomiting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

vomiting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. vomiting.

Key Points

  • Oozing means to flow slowly out or to allow something to flow slowly out.
  • Spewing means to flow out quickly or to make something flow out quickly, in large amounts.
  • Razing means to completely destroy a building, town, etc. so that nothing is left.
  • Vomiting means to bring food, etc. up from the stomach and out of the mouth.
  • Hence the correct answer is option 4.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: Connie Sellecca plays first officer Mimi Thompkins who manages successfully to land Flight 243 after its roof is ripped (1) off mid-flight due to mental fatigue. She is not the only one (2) on that flight, since there was also a flight attendant who kept checking on people. And telling them they were going to be fine (3) even though they had giant pieces of aeroplane carpet stuck to their heads. I can’t (4) either land a plane or tell the wounded people that they would be fine soon, due to the fact that I would be (5) vomiting too hard and throwing out what ever food I had throughout the day.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The given image shows a pattern:

                   

  • The head of the triangle moves clockwise in four directions in this order i.e. Up, left, down and right.
  • The circle turns solid after every alternate step.​
<br>

​Next step in this series will be:

  • Head of the triangle will face upwards because of the clockwise movement (as it was facing left in the last step)
  • Circle will be hollow because of alternative nature (as it was solid in the last step)

                  

On comparing the pattern of the last step with the given options we get:

Option 1 matches with the pattern.

Hence the correct answer is option 1​

Question 27

In a certain code language, “ABROAD” is written as “DROBAA”, and “ACTIVE” is written as “ETICAV”. How will “BISHOP” be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    PSHIOB

  2. BOption (b)

    PHSIBO

  3. COption (c)

    PSHIBO

  4. DOption (d)

    PSHBIO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PSHIBO

Why this answer is correct

The answer is option 3) PSHIBO

SOLUTION:

The pattern given in the given series is:

  • 1st character moves to 5th place
  • 2nd character moves to 4th place
  • 3rd character moves to 2nd place
  • 4th character moves to 3rd place
  • 5th character moves to 6th place
  • 6th character moves to 1st place

 

​

<br>

ABROAD becomes DROBAA

<br>

ACTIVE becomes ETICAV

<br>

BISHOP becomes PSHIBO

 Hence the correct answer is PSHIBO

Question 28

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and fourth term related to third term.

11 ∶ 1309 ∶∶ 15 ∶ 3345 ∶∶ 7 ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    329

  2. BOption (b)

    333

  3. COption (c)

    330

  4. DOption (d)

    335

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

329

Why this answer is correct

The pattern in the given series is:

First term × {(first term)2 - 2} = Second term 

Let's apply the pattern on the given series: 

 In 11 ∶ 1309

First term × {(first term)2 - 2} = Second term

11 × {(11)2 - 2} = 1309 

11 × {121 - 2} = 1309

11 × {119} = 1309

1309 = 1309        

 In 15 ∶ 3345

First term × {(first term)2 - 2} = Second term

​15 × {(15)2 - 2} = 3345 

15 × {225 - 2} = 3345

15 × {223} = 3345

3345 = 3345     

In 7 ∶ ?

First term × {(first term)2 - 2} = Second term

​7 × {(7)2 - 2} = Second term

7 × {49 - 2} = Second term

7 × {47} = Second term

329 = Second term

Hence the correct answer is 329.

Question 29

Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

FDH, IGK, LJN, OMQ, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    TRP

  2. BOption (b)

    PTR

  3. COption (c)

    TPR

  4. DOption (d)

    RPT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RPT

Why this answer is correct

The answer is option 4) RPT 

SOLUTION:

<br>

The pattern in the given series is:

  • 1st character -2 = 2nd character;
  • 2nd character + 4 = 3rd character;
  • 3rd character + 1 = 1st character of next cluster

​Cluster 1:  

<br> <br>

Cluster 2:

<br> <br>

Cluster 3: 

<br>

Cluster 4:

<br>

Cluster 5:  

Hence the correct answer is RPT.

Question 30

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

648, 448, 294, 180, 100, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

48

Why this answer is correct

LOGIC : The pattern in the given series can be determined by taking the difference:

        

       

<br>

So we add 6 in the last step and keep adding the difference till the top, we get:

       

<br>

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Question 31

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

60 * 19 * 4 *  94 * 42

  1. AOption (a)

    −,+,=,− 

  2. BOption (b)

    −,×,=,+

  3. COption (c)

    +,×,=,+

  4. DOption (d)

    −,+,=,×

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

+,×,=,+

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS:

Using the BODMAS rule, we solve the given equation for each option:

  60 * 19 * 4 *  94 * 42

Option 1) −,+,=,− 

60 * 19 * 4 *  94 * 42

 60 - 19 + 4 = 94 - 42

 64 - 19 = 94 - 42

 45 = 52 Incorrect 

Option 2) −,×,=,+

60 * 19 * 4 *  94 * 42

60 - 19 × 4 = 94 + 42

60 - 76 = 94 + 42 

60 - 76 = 136 

-16 = 136 Incorrect 

Option 3) +,×,=,+

60 * 19 * 4 *  94 * 42

60 + 19 × 4 = 94 + 42

60 + 76 = 94 + 42 

136 = 136 Correct 

Option 4) −,+,=,×

60 * 19 * 4 *  94 * 42

60 - 19 + 4 = 94 × 42

60 - 19 + 4 = 3948

64 - 19 = 3948

45 = 3948 Incorrect 

 Hence the correct answer is option 3

Question 32

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The answer is option 2)

SOLUTION:

The mirror image of the given combination is:

On comparing each option with the mirror image we get:

Option 1) The combination does not match. 

Option 2)

 

 

The combination in the option matches the mirror image.

Option 3) The combination does not match.

Option 4) The combination does not match.

Hence the correct answer is option 2)

Question 33

Two different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 11 to 16. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing '16'.

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15

Why this answer is correct

In the given image:

 We can see 3 faces that are 11, 16 and 14 

Here we can see 3 faces of the dice that are 11, 15 an 14

 

As the face with number 14 is same in both the images, it means the dice is rotated either to the left or to the right:

  • If the dice is rotated to the right, the face with number 16 should come on the top
  • If the dice is rotated to the left, the face with number 11 should come on the side

 

So according to the image we can see that the dice is rotated to left.

Now we can also see that 15 is the right side face of 11 and 16 is the left side face of 11.

Since in a dice, the faces on the right and left side of the same face are opposite to each other.

From all the information gathered we can say that 15 and 16 are the opposite faces in the given dice.

Hence the correct answer is 15.

Question 34

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1- Haripad

2- India

3- South-East Asia

4- Kerala

5- Asia

  1. AOption (a)

    3,5,2,4,1

  2. BOption (b)

    5,2,3,4,1

  3. COption (c)

    5,3,2,4,1

  4. DOption (d)

    5,3,4,2,1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5,3,2,4,1

Why this answer is correct

The logical and meaningful order is:

The order is in accordance with size of the given options.

5- Asia : Continent 

3- South-East Asia : Part of continent 

2- India : Country 

4- Kerala : State 

1- Haripad : City 

 Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Question 35

In a certain code language, “CODE” is written as “DCEO”, and “MAKE” is written as “KMEA”. How will “HEAD” be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    AHDE

  2. BOption (b)

    ADHE

  3. COption (c)

    AEHD

  4. DOption (d)

    AHED

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

AHDE

Why this answer is correct

The pattern in the given series is:

  • First character moves to 2nd place;
  • Second character moves to 4th place;
  • Third character moves to 1st place;
  • Fourth character moves to 3rd place

“**CODE” is written as “DCEO”**​

  “MAKE” is written as “KMEA

<br>

  “HEAD” is written as AHDE

Hence the correct answer is AHDE.

Question 36

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.

5 ∶ 7 ∶∶ ? ∶ 271 ∶∶ 22 ∶ 466

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    17

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17

Why this answer is correct

In 5:7

5 × 5 = 25

25  - 18 = 7

In 22: 466

22 × 22 = 484

484 - 18 = 466

Now we can clearly see the applied logic, the first number in the pair is squared and then subtracted by 18 which will give the number in the second pair.

thus, for ,

?:271

lets consider'?' as 'y'term

y ²= 271 + 18

y² = 289

y = 17

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 37

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

7, 42, 47, ? , 191, 382

  1. AOption (a)

    180

  2. BOption (b)

    188

  3. COption (c)

    178

  4. DOption (d)

    184

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

188

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed by the given series is:

    The difference is an decreasing number by 1 using × and + alternatively.

<br>

Hence the correct answer is option 2)

Question 38

How many squares are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

From the given figure:

<br>

We can see, there are 5 squares that are numbered in the image.  

Hence the correct answer is option 4)

Question 39

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

When the folder paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows:

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 40

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

12 ∶ 139 ∶∶ 7 ∶ ? ∶∶  18 ∶  319

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    56

  3. COption (c)

    44

  4. DOption (d)

    52

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

44

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed in the given series is:

 (First term)2 - 5 = Second term

Let's apply the pattern on the given series:

12 ∶ 139 ∶∶ 7 ∶ ? ∶∶  18 ∶  319 

(12)2 - 5 = 139

144 - 5 = 139

139 = 139 

12 ∶ 139 ∶∶ 7 ∶ ? ∶∶  18 ∶  319

(18)2 - 5 = 319

324 - 5 = 319

319 = 319

12 ∶ 139 ∶∶ 7 ∶ ? ∶∶  18 ∶  319 

(7)2 - 5 = ?

49 - 5 = ?

44 = Answer

Hence the correct answer is option 3)

Question 41

If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’ and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation?

92 A (121 D 11) C (6 B 3) D 2 A 7 B 8 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    150

  2. BOption (b)

    158

  3. COption (c)

    145

  4. DOption (d)

    130

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

150

Why this answer is correct

From the information given:

A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’ and D denotes ‘÷’

We substitute the values in the given equation and solve it using BODMAS rule:

<br>

 

⇒ 92 A (121 D 11) C (6 B 3) D 2 A 7 B 8 = ?

⇒ 92 + (121 ÷ 11) - (6 × 3) ÷ 2 + 7 × 8 = ?

⇒ 92 + 11 - 18 ÷ 2 + 7 × 8 = ?

⇒ 92 + 11 - 9 + 7 × 8 = ? 

⇒ 92 + 11 - 9 + 56 = ?

⇒ 159 - 9 = ?

⇒ 150 = Answer

Hence the correct answer is option 1)

Question 42

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

HMSE, BIPC, VEMA, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    PAKY

  2. BOption (b)

    PBJY

  3. COption (c)

    PAJY

  4. DOption (d)

    PBKY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PAJY

Why this answer is correct

The positional values of the English alphabet is as follows:

The pattern followed here is:

So the value of '?' is PAJY.

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

Question 43

Pointing to a man, Radhika said - "His son's mother is the sister of my son's sister." How is the person related to Radhika?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Father in law

  3. COption (c)

    Son in law

  4. DOption (d)

    Father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Son in law

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

​

Given that,

  • Radhika points at a man and says that his son's mother is the sister of Radhika's son's sister.

​

Now, Radhika has 3 children, out of which 2 are daughters and 1 is a son. Now, one of the daughters is married and has a son. The man happens to be The married daughter's husband. Thus, the man is her son in law.

Thus, option 3 is correct.

Question 44

Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, each has got different marks in the board examination. P scored higher than only U and R. R scored higher than U. Q scored higher than S but lesser than T. T has not scored the highest among all. How many persons scored between Q and R? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

1) P scored higher than only U and R ⇒ P > U and R 

2) R scored higher than U ⇒ R > U

3) Q scored higher than S but lesser than T ⇒ T > Q > S

5) T has not scored the highest among all

So, the correct order will be ⇒ V > T > Q > S > P > R > U 

So, there are two persons who scored between Q and R.

Hence, the option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 45

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

5 ∶ 117 ∶∶ 6 ∶ 208 ∶∶ 8 ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    405

  2. BOption (b)

    450

  3. COption (c)

    504

  4. DOption (d)

    540

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

504

Why this answer is correct

The pattern used in the given series is:

 (First term)3 - 8 = Second term

Let's apply the pattern on the given series:

5 ∶ 117 ∶∶ 6 ∶ 208 ∶∶ 8 ∶ ?

(5)3 - 8 = 117

125 - 8 = 117

117 = 117

5 ∶ 117 ∶∶ 6 ∶ 208 ∶∶ 8 ∶ ?

(6)3 - 8 = 208 

216 - 8 = 208

208 = 208

5 ∶ 117 ∶∶ 6 ∶ 208 ∶∶ 8 ∶ ?

(8)3 - 8 = ? 

512 - 8 = ?

504 = Answer

Hence the correct answer is option (3).

Question 46

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10

Why this answer is correct

The figure is given below:

There are 10 triangles.

Hence, "option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 47

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

INSTEAD ∶  NISTEDA ∶∶ JUSTICE ∶ ? ∶∶ LIBERAL ∶ ILBERLA

  1. AOption (a)

    UJTSIEC

  2. BOption (b)

    UJSTIEC

  3. COption (c)

    JUTSICE

  4. DOption (d)

    JUSITCE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

UJSTIEC

Why this answer is correct

The positional values of English alphabet is as follows:

INSTEAD is written as 'NISTEDA'

LIBERAL is written as 'ILBERLA'

Similarly, JUSTICE is written as:

Hence, "UJSTIEC" is the correct answer.

Question 48

The second number in the given number-pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed in all the number-pairs EXCEPT one. Find that odd number-pair.

  1. AOption (a)

    81 ∶ 12

  2. BOption (b)

    64 ∶ 11

  3. COption (c)

    100 ∶ 13

  4. DOption (d)

    121 ∶  16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

121 ∶  16

Why this answer is correct

LOGIC : Square root of first number + 3 = Second number

Lets check each option: 

1) 81 ∶ 12 ⇒ √81 + 3 = 9 + 3 = 12

2) 64 ∶ 11 ⇒ √64 + 3 = 8 + 3 = 11

  1. 100 ∶ 13 ⇒ √100 + 3 = 10 + 3 = 13

4) 121 ∶ 16 ⇒ √121 + 3 = 11 + 3 = 14 ≠ 16

Hence, "121 ∶  16" is the odd one out.

Question 49

Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some pots are boxes.

All stands are boxes.

Some cartons are stands.

Conclusions:

I. Some cartons are boxes.

II. Some cartons are pots.

III. Some pots are stands.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusions I and III follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only conclusion I follows

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

Some pots are boxes.

All stands are boxes.

Some cartons are stands.

Possible Venn diagram:

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some cartons are boxes → True (Since some cartons are stands and all stands are boxes)

II. Some cartons are pots → False (It may be possible but not definite)

III. Some pots are stands → False (It may be possible but not definite)

Hence, only conclusion 1 follows.

Question 50

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

60, 67, 81, 109, 165, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    257

  2. BOption (b)

    277

  3. COption (c)

    286

  4. DOption (d)

    293

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

277

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is 277.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The following pie chart shows the expenditure inccured by a person during a period under different heads as percentage of the total expenditure incurred by the person during the same period

What is the ratio of the expenditure incurred by the person on food and on rent?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 ∶ 3

  2. BOption (b)

    8∶ 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 ∶ 4

  4. DOption (d)

    5 ∶ 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 ∶ 4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A pie chart showing the expenditure incurred by a person during a period under different heads as percentage of the total expenditure incurred by the person during the same period is given.

Formula used:

Ratio of 'x' to 'y' is xy\frac{x}{y}.

Calculation:

From the given pie chart, the percentage of the expenditure incurred by the person on food is 15% and the percentage of the expenditure incurred by the person on rent is 20%

And 1520=34\frac{15}{20}=\frac{3}{4}.

∴ The ratio of the expenditure incurred by the person on food and on rent is 3 : 4

Question 52

The length of the tangent drawn to a circle of radius 12 cm from a point 18 cm away from the center of the circle is:

  1. AOption (a)

    35\sqrt{5} cm

  2. BOption (b)

    65\sqrt{5} cm

  3. COption (c)

    95\sqrt{5} cm

  4. DOption (d)

    25\sqrt{5} cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

65\sqrt{5} cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A tangent is drawn to a circle of radius 12 cm, from a point 18 cm away from the center of the circle.

Formula used:

Pythagoras theorem: a2+b2=c2a^2+b^2=c^2, where a, b, c are the sides of a right angles triangle with c as the hypotenuse. 

Calculation:

The tangent, the radius of the circle and the line segment joining the centre and the point form a right-angled triangle, with the line segment as the hypotenuse. 

Let a = 12cm, c = 18cm.

Then, Using Pythagoras theorem, b=182−122=324−144=180=65b = \sqrt {18^2-12^2}=\sqrt {324-144}=\sqrt {180}=6\sqrt {5} cm

∴ The length of the tangent is 656\sqrt {5} cm.

Question 53

A single discount equivalent to two successive discount of 20% and 10% on the marked price of an article is?

  1. AOption (a)

    18%

  2. BOption (b)

    28%

  3. COption (c)

    24%

  4. DOption (d)

    22%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

28%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Two successive discounts of 20% and 10% on the marked price of an article.

Formula used:

Discounted price = 100 - discount100×marked price\frac{\text {100 - discount}}{100} × \text {marked price}

Calculation: 

Let the marked price of the article be Rs. 100.

Then, a 10% discount is 100−10100×100=90\frac{100-10}{100} × 100 = 90 

Then, a 20% discount on Rs. 90 is Rs 72.

This means that the article marked as Rs. 100 is sold at Rs 72 which is equal to a discount of 100−72100×100=28%\frac{100-72}{100} × 100 = 28\%%

∴ A single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 20% and 10% on the marked price of an article is 28%.

Shortcut Trick ⇒ - x - y + (x × y)/100

⇒ - 20 - 10 + (20 × 10)/100

⇒ - 30 + 2

⇒ - 28

∴ The Discount is 28%.

Question 54

The average of 25 numbers is 13. If the average of the first 13 numbers is 11.5 and the average of the last 13 numbers is 14.5, then the middle number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    19

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

13

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of 25 numbers is 13. The average of the first 13 numbers is 11.5 and the average of the last 13 numbers is 14.5

Formula used:

Sum of a set of numbers = Average of the set × no. of numbers.

Calculation:

The sum of the 25 numbers is 25 × 13 = 325.

The sum of the first 13 numbers is 11.5 × 13 = 149.5

The sum of the last 13 numbers is 14.5 × 13 = 188.5

Let the middle number be x. Only this number is present in both sets, the first 13 numbers and the last 13 numbers.

Then, the first 13 and the last 13 numbers can be added and written as 149.5 + 188.5 -x = 325.

Solving for x, x = 149.5 + 188.5 - 325 = 13

 ∴ The middle number of the set of 25 numbers is 13.

Question 55

If the volume of a cube is 64 cm3, then find its total surface area.

  1. AOption (a)

    96 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    82 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    88 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    64 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

96 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The volume of a cube is 64 cm3

Formula used:

The volume of a cube of edge length 'a' = a3

The total surface of a cube = 6a2

Calculation:

By using the given volume, the edge length of the cube = a=64(13)=4cma=64^{(\frac{1}{3})}=4cm

∴ The total surface of the cube is 6 × 42 = 96cm2

Question 56

If x + y + z = 25, x3 + y3 + z3 = 85 and xyz = 20, then find the value of x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx.

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x + y + z = 25

x3 + y3 + z3 = 85

xyz = 20

Formula Used:

x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz = (x+y+z)(x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)

Calculations:

On put the value given in the question, and we get

⇒ x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz = (x + y + z)(x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)

⇒ 85 - 3(20) = (25)(x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)

⇒ (x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)(x + y + z) = 85 - 60 = 25

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx = 25 / 25 = 1

∴ the value of x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx is 1.

Question 57

A student's marks were incorrectly entered as 94 instead of 69. Due to this error, the average marks of the class got increased by 1.25. What is the number of students in the class?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total change in marks = Incorrect marks − Correct marks

⇒ Total change = 94 − 69 = +25 marks

Increase in average marks per student = 1.25 marks

⇒ Number of students = Total change ÷ Average change = 25 ÷ 1.25 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 students.

Alternate Method

Total Error = 94 − 69 = +25 marks

Distributed as +1.25 marks per student

Given:

Incorrect marks entered = 94

Correct marks actual = 69

Increase in average marks of the class = 1.25 marks

Formula Used:

Total Sum Change = Average Change × Number of Items

Calculations:

Let the total number of students in the class be n.

⇒ Total difference in marks = 94 − 69

⇒ Total difference in marks = 25

This difference of 25 marks caused an increase in the overall average by 1.25 per student.

⇒ Average change × Number of students = Total difference

⇒ 1.25 × n = 25

⇒ n = 25 ÷ 1.25

⇒ n = 2500 ÷ 125

⇒ n = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 students.

Additional Information

Deviation Method in Averages

When a single value in a dataset is incorrectly entered, the net change in the total sum is equally distributed among all items. Average change = Total change ÷ Total items.

Replacement Formula

When one entity is replaced by another, the formula used is: New Item Value = Old Item Value + (Total Number of Items × Change in Average).

Combined Average

To calculate the net average of two combined groups, use the weighted average formula: Acombined = (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 58

The value of sin⁡4θ(1−cos⁡4θ)\frac{{\sin 4\theta }}{{\left( {1 - \cos 4\theta } \right)}} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    cot θ 

  2. BOption (b)

    cot 2θ 

  3. COption (c)

    tan θ 

  4. DOption (d)

    tan 2θ 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cot 2θ 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

sin4θ(1−cos4θ)\frac{sin4\theta}{(1-cos4\theta)}

Formula Used:

sin2θ\theta = 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta

cos2θ\theta = 2cos2θ\theta – 1 or 1 – 2sin2θ\theta

Calculation:

sin4θ=sin2(2θ)sin4\theta=sin2(2\theta)

⇒ sin4θ=2sin2θcos2θ=2(2sinθcosθ)(1−2sin2θ)sin4\theta=2sin2\theta cos2\theta=2(2sin\theta cos\theta)(1-2sin^2\theta)

⇒ sin4θ=4sinθcosθ(1−2sin2θ)sin4\theta=4sin\theta cos\theta(1-2sin^2\theta)

⇒ cos4θ=2cos22θ−1cos4\theta= 2cos^22\theta-1

⇒ cos4θ=2(1−2sin2θ)2−1cos4\theta=2(1-2sin^2\theta)^2-1

⇒ Putting the values, we get

⇒ sin4θ(1−cos4θ)=4sinθcosθ(1−2sin2θ)1−(2(1−2sin2θ)2−1)=4sinθcosθ(1−2sin2θ)1−(2[1+4sin4θ−4sin2θ]−1)\frac{sin4\theta}{(1-cos4\theta)}=\frac{4sin\theta cos\theta(1-2sin^2\theta)}{1-(2(1-2sin^2\theta)^2-1)}=\frac{4sin\theta cos\theta(1-2sin^2\theta)}{1-(2[1+4sin^4\theta-4sin^2\theta]-1)}

⇒ sin4θ(1−cos4θ)=4sinθcosθ(1−2sin2θ)1−1−8sin4θ+8sin2θ\frac{sin4\theta}{(1-cos4\theta)}=\frac{4sin\theta cos\theta(1-2sin^2\theta)}{1-1-8sin^4\theta+8sin^2\theta}

⇒ sin4θ(1−cos4θ)=4sinθcosθ(1−2sin2θ)8sin2θ(1−sin2θ)=4sinθcosθ(1−2sin2θ)8sin2θcos2θ\frac{sin4\theta}{(1-cos4\theta)}=\frac{4sin\theta cos\theta(1-2sin^2\theta)}{8sin^2\theta(1-sin^2\theta)}=\frac{4sin\theta cos\theta(1-2sin^2\theta)}{8sin^2\theta cos^2\theta}

⇒ sin4θ(1−cos4θ)=1−2sin2θ2sinθcosθ=cos2θsin2θ\frac{sin4\theta}{(1-cos4\theta)}=\frac{1-2sin^2\theta}{2sin\theta cos\theta}=\frac{cos2\theta}{sin2\theta}

⇒ sin4θ(1−cos4θ)=cot2θ\frac{sin4\theta}{(1-cos4\theta)}=cot2\theta

∴ the required value of the given expression is cot2θcot2\theta.

Question 59

The profits earned (in crores of rupees) by the two cellular companies in five consecutive years are given in the table below.

Years → Company↓1990-911991-921992-931993-941994-95
A3045504859
B2532405053

In which year was the difference in nominal profits earned by Company A and Company B the maximum?

  1. AOption (a)

    1993-94

  2. BOption (b)

    1994-95

  3. COption (c)

    1992-93

  4. DOption (d)

    1991-92

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1991-92

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Years → Company↓1990-911991-921992-931993-941994-95
A3045504859
B2532405053

Concept Used:

The difference in profit = Profit earned by Company A – Profit earned by Company B

Calculation:

For the year 1990-91,

⇒ Profit Margin = 30 – 25 = 5

For the year 1991-92,

⇒ Profit Margin = 45 – 32 = 13

For the year 1992-93,

⇒ Profit Margin = 50 – 40 = 10

For the year 1993-94,

⇒ Profit Margin = 50 – 48 = 2

For the year 1994-95,

⇒ Profit Margin = 59 – 53 = 6

Hence, the difference in nominal profits earned by Company A and B is maximum in the year 1991-92

Question 60

Shyamal covers 1 km in 10 min, whereas Radha covers the same distance in 8 min. By what distance does Radha beat Shyamal?

  1. AOption (a)

    300 m

  2. BOption (b)

    400 m

  3. COption (c)

    200 m

  4. DOption (d)

    500 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

200 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Time taken by Shyamal to cover 1 km = 10 min

Time taken by Radha to cover 1 km = 8 min

Concept Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculation:

We know that 1 km = 1000 m.

If both Shyamal and Radha start together, then the distance covered by Shyamal in 8 min = 100010×8=800m\frac{1000}{10}\times8=800 m

Now, Shyamal covers less distance than Radha.

Radha will beat Shyamal by = 1000 – 800 = 200 m.

Hence, Radha beat Shyamal by the distance of 200 m.

Question 61

The sum of the first 78 natural numbers from 1 to 78 is divisible by

  1. AOption (a)

    79

  2. BOption (b)

    61

  3. COption (c)

    29

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

79

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers to be taken = 1 to 78

Concept Used:

Sum of n terms of a series = n(n + 1)/2

Calculation:

Number Series for sum = 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 78

Here, n = 78

Putting the value in the formula,

Sum of series = 78 (78 + 1) / 2 = 39 × 79

Hence, the sum of the first 78 natural numbers is divisible by 79, as it is one of the factors.

Question 62

The monthly income of two persons is in the ratio 4 ∶ 5 and their expenditures are in the ratio 7 ∶ 9. If each saves ₹50 per month, then their monthly incomes are:

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹400; ₹500

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹700; ₹900

  3. COption (c)

    ₹900; ₹500

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹400; ₹700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹400; ₹500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ratio of monthly income of two persons = 4 : 5

Ratio of expenditures of two persons = 7 : 9

Savings per month = Rs 50

Concept Used:

Savings = Monthly Income – Monthly Expenditure

Calculation:

Let the first person's monthly income be Rs 4x and the second person be Rs 5x.

Let the monthly expenditure of the first person be Rs 7y and that of the second person be Rs 9y.

Based on the question, put in the formula

⇒ 4x – 7y = 50 → (1)

⇒ 5x – 9y = 50 → (2)

⇒ Solving both the equations, we get

⇒ x = 100 and y = 50

Therefore, the monthly income of the first person = 4x = 4 × 100 = Rs 400

Therefore, the monthly income of the second person = 5x = 5 × 100 = Rs 500

Hence, the monthly income of the first person is Rs 400 and for the second person is Rs 500

Question 63

Study the given table and answer the question that follow.

The following table gives the month - wise number of different types of scooters produced by a company during the first six months of 1992.

Types of scootersMonths
JANUARYFEBRUARYMARCHAPRILMAYJUNE
X252518402015
Y252750453020
Z252715253020
T25262503035
TOTAL10010510811011090

What is the total number of scooters of all the four types taken together that was produced by the company during the first six months of 1992 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    623

  2. BOption (b)

    197

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    143

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

623

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Types of scootersMonths
JANUARYFEBRUARYMARCHAPRILMAYJUNE
X252518402015
Y252750453020
Z252715253020
T25262503035
TOTAL10010510811011090

Concept Used:

Sum of all scooters = Production in all six months

Calculation:

Total Scooters produced in January = 100

Total Scooters produced in February = 105

Total Scooters produced in March = 108

Total Scooters produced in April = 110

Total Scooters produced in May = 110

Total Scooters produced in June = 90

Total scooters produced by the company during the first six months = 100 + 105 + 108 + 110 + 110 + 90 = 623

Hence, the number of scooters produced by the company in the first six months are 623

Question 64

The population of a country has been declining at 1% every decade. If the projected population of the country in 2030 is given as 1940598, what was the population of the country in 2000? 

  1. AOption (a)

    2000000

  2. BOption (b)

    1999990

  3. COption (c)

    2000450

  4. DOption (d)

    2000616

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2000000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Decline in population every dacade = 1%

Projected population in 2030 = 1940598

Concept Used:

Amount = P(1−r100)t\left(1-\frac{r}{100}\right)^t

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage decline every 1 decade = 1%

⇒ Putting the values in the formula,

⇒ 1940598 = P(1−1100)3\left(1-\frac{1}{100}\right)^3

⇒ 1940598 = P(99100)3\left(\frac{99}{100}\right)^3

⇒ P = 1940598×1003993\frac{1940598\times 100^3}{99^3}

⇒ P = 1940598 × 1.03061 = 2,000,000

Therefore, the population of the country in 2000 is 2000000.

Mistake Points 

Please note that the rate is 1% every decade.

3 decades = 30 years

so

2000 + 30 = 2030

There is no mistake in the question.

Question 65

Giri bought an old machine for ₹2,000 and spent ₹500 on its repair. He sold it for ₹4,000. His profit percentage is:

  1. AOption (a)

    30%

  2. BOption (b)

    60%

  3. COption (c)

    40%

  4. DOption (d)

    20%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Price at which machine was bought = Rs 2,000

Repairment cost = Rs 500

The selling price of the machine = Rs 4,000

Concept Used:

Profit Percentage = ProfitCP×100\frac{Profit}{CP}\times 100

Calculation:

Bought Price of machine = Rs 2,000

Repairment cost = Rs 500

Cost Price of Machine = 2000 + 500 = Rs 2,500

Profit = Selling Price – Cost Price = 4000 – 2500

Profit = Rs 1500

Now, Profit Percentage = 15002500×100=60\frac{1500}{2500}\times100=60%.

Hence, the profit percentage made by Giri on this machine is 60%.

Question 66

If the length of a cuboid is 20 m, breadth is 5 m and height is 4 m, then find the length of diagonal of the cuboid. 

  1. AOption (a)

    12 m

  2. BOption (b)

    21 m

  3. COption (c)

    18 m

  4. DOption (d)

    24 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of cuboid = 20 m

Breadth of cuboid = 5 m

Height of cuboid = 4 m

Formula Used:

Diagonal of cuboid = l2+b2+h2\sqrt {l^2+b^2+h^2}

Calculation:

⇒ 202+52+42\sqrt {20^2+5^2+4^2}

⇒ 400+25+16=441\sqrt {400+25+16}=\sqrt {441}

⇒ 21 m

∴ the length of the diagonal of the cuboid is 21 m.

Question 67

If x = 32, y = 33 and z = 35, then evaluate the expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz.

  1. AOption (a)

    1120

  2. BOption (b)

    1000

  3. COption (c)

    900

  4. DOption (d)

    700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

700

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the Algebraic Identity: x3 + y3 + z3 − 3xyz = (x + y + z) × 1/2 × [(x − y)2 + (y − z)2 + (z − x)2]

Calculate Sum: 32 + 33 + 35 = 100

Calculate Squared Differences: (32−33)2 + (33−35)2 + (35−32)2 = 12 + 22 + 32 = 1 + 4 + 9 = 14

Apply Trick: 100 × 14/2 = 100 × 7 = 700

∴ The correct answer is 700.

Alternate Method

Given: x = 32, y = 33, z = 35

Formula Used: x3 + y3 + z3 − 3xyz = (x + y + z)(x2 + y2 + z2 − xy − yz − zx)

This can also be written as: 1/2(x + y + z)[(x − y)2 + (y − z)2 + (z − x)2]

⇒ Sum (x + y + z) = 32 + 33 + 35 = 100

⇒ (x − y)2 = (32 − 33)2 = (−1)2 = 1

⇒ (y − z)2 = (33 − 35)2 = (−2)2 = 4

⇒ (z − x)2 = (35 − 32)2 = (3)2 = 9

⇒ Value = 1/2 × 100 × (1 + 4 + 9)

⇒ Value = 50 × 14

⇒ Value = 700

∴ The correct answer is 700.

Additional Information

Conditional Identity

If x + y + z = 0, then the expression x3 + y3 + z3 − 3xyz = 0, which implies x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz.

Alternative Expansion

The term (x2 + y2 + z2 − xy − yz − zx) can also be written using (x + y + z)2 − 3(xy + yz + zx).

Arithmetic Progression Case

If x, y, z are in Arithmetic Progression with common difference d, then x3 + y3 + z3 − 3xyz = 9yd2 (where y is the middle term).

Question 68

In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of rice worth ₹60 per kg and ₹80 per kg, so that the average cost of the mixture is ₹75 per kg?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 ∶ 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 ∶ 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 ∶ 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 ∶ 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 ∶ 3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Price of the first type of rice = Rs 80 per kg

Price of the second type of rice = Rs 60 per kg

The average cost of mixture = Rs 75 per kg

Concept Used:

Rule of allegation = (Rice 1 Cost – Average) ÷ (Average – Rice 2 Cost)

Calculation:

The ratio for the mixing of rice = 80−7575−60\frac{80-75}{75-60}

The ratio for the mixing of rice = 515=13=1:3\frac{5}{15}=\frac{1}{3}=1:3

Hence, the ratio in which a shopkeeper should mix two types of rice is 1 : 3

Question 69

A can do 15\frac{1}{5} of the work in 3 days and B can do 14\frac{1}{4} of the work in 7.5 days . Working together, A and B can do 45\frac{4}{5} of the same work in:

  1. AOption (a)

    9 days

  2. BOption (b)

    10 days

  3. COption (c)

    8 days 

  4. DOption (d)

    12 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 days 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of days taken by A to complete 15\frac{1}{5} of the work = 3 days

Number of days taken by B to complete 14\frac{1}{4} of the work = 7.5 days

Concept Used:

Rate of work = 1 / Time taken

Calculation:

Time taken by A to complete the work = 15×13\frac{1}{5}\times\frac{1}{3} = 115\frac{1}{15}

Time taken by B to complete the work = 14×17.5\frac{1}{4}\times\frac{1}{7.5} = 130\frac{1}{30}

Time taken to complete the whole work together = 115+130=110\frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{30}=\frac{1}{10} = 10 days

According to the question,

Time taken to complete 45\frac{4}{5} of the work together = 45×10=8\frac{4}{5}\times10=8 days.

Hence, the time taken by A and B, to work together to complete 45\frac{4}{5} of the work is 8 days.

Question 70

What is the value of (114÷235)÷1713\left( {1\frac{1}{4} \div 2\frac{3}{5}} \right) \div 1\frac{7}{{13}}  ?

  1. AOption (a)

    716\frac{7}{16}

  2. BOption (b)

    516\frac{5}{16}

  3. COption (c)

    413\frac{4}{13}

  4. DOption (d)

    511\frac{5}{11}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

516\frac{5}{16}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(114÷235)÷1713\left(1\frac{1}{4}\div2\frac{3}{5}\right)\div1\frac{7}{13}

Concept Used:

ab÷cd=ab×dc\frac{a}{b}\div\frac{c}{d}=\frac{a}{b}\times\frac{d}{c}

Calculation:

⇒ (114÷235)÷1713=(54÷135)÷2013\left(1\frac{1}{4}\div2\frac{3}{5}\right)\div1\frac{7}{13}=\left(\frac{5}{4}\div\frac{13}{5}\right)\div\frac{20}{13}

⇒ (54÷135)÷2013=(54×513)÷2013\left(\frac{5}{4}\div\frac{13}{5}\right)\div\frac{20}{13}=\left(\frac{5}{4}\times\frac{5}{13}\right)\div\frac{20}{13}

⇒ 2552÷2013=2552×1320\frac{25}{52}\div\frac{20}{13}=\frac{25}{52}\times\frac{13}{20}

⇒ 2552×1320=516\frac{25}{52}\times\frac{13}{20}=\frac{5}{16}

Hence, the simplified value of the expression is 516\frac{5}{16}

Question 71

The monthly income of a person was Rs. 12,000 and his monthly expenditure was Rs. 10,000. In the next year, his income increased by 12% and his expenditure by 5%. Find the percentage increase in his savings.

  1. AOption (a)

    48%

  2. BOption (b)

    45%

  3. COption (c)

    47%

  4. DOption (d)

    46%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

47%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial Income : Expenditure : Savings = 12000 : 10000 : 2000 ⇒ 6 : 5 : 1.

Applying the percentage change weighted rule: (Income Ratio × % Change) = (Expenditure Ratio × % Change) + (Savings Ratio × S%)

⇒ 6 × 12 = (5 × 5) + (1 × S)

⇒ 72 = 25 + S ⇒ S = 47%

∴ The correct answer is 47%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Income = ₹12,000

Initial Expenditure = ₹10,000

Formula Used:

Savings = Income − Expenditure

Percentage Increase = (Increase in value ÷ Original value) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Initial Savings = ₹12,000 − ₹10,000 = ₹2,000

⇒ New Income = ₹12,000 + (12% of 12,000) = 12,000 + 1,440 = ₹13,440

⇒ New Expenditure = ₹10,000 + (5% of 10,000) = 10,000 + 500 = ₹10,500

⇒ New Savings = ₹13,440 − ₹10,500 = ₹2,940

⇒ Increase in Savings = ₹2,940 − ₹2,000 = ₹940

⇒ Percentage Increase = (940 ÷ 2000) × 100 = 47%

∴ The correct answer is 47%.

Additional Information

Income and Expenditure Relationship

Income is the sum of Expenditure and Savings (Income = Expenditure + Savings). Any change in overall income must be balanced by an equivalent combined change in expenditure and savings.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = (Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value × 100. It measures the relative increase or decrease of an entity over a given time period.

Weighted Ratio Trick

When a total amount is divided into distinct parts, the overall percentage change is the weighted average of the individual changes: Total Ratio × %ΔTotal = Part1 Ratio × %ΔPart1 + Part2 Ratio × %ΔPart2.

Question 72

If (x+1x)\left( {x + \frac{1}{x}} \right) = 8.5, what is the value of (x2+1x2)\left( {{x^2} + \frac{1}{{{x^2}}}} \right)

  1. AOption (a)

    70.25

  2. BOption (b)

    74.25

  3. COption (c)

    72.25

  4. DOption (d)

    75.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70.25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(x+1x)=8.5\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)=8.5

Concept Used:

(a+b)2=a2+b2+2ab(a+b)^2=a^2+b^2+2ab

Calculation:

⇒ (x+1x)2=x2+1x2+2\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)^2=x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}+2

⇒ Putting the values,

⇒ x2+1x2=(8.5)2−2x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}=(8.5)^2-2

⇒ x2+1x2=72.25−2=70.25x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}=72.25-2=70.25

Hence, the value of the given expression is 70.25

Question 73

A shopkeeper gives a discount of 25% on a purse. If he gives a discount of 37%, he earns ₹120 less in profit. Find the marked price. 

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,200

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,220

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹1,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Discount = 25 %

If the shopkeeper gives a discount  of 37% then profit is reduced by Rs 120

Concept Used:

Profit = (New discount – Old discount) × Marked Price

Calculation:

Let the marked price be Rs x

On the discount of 25%, let the Profit = p

As per the question, on discount of 37%

Profit = p – 120 

⇒ (37 – 25)% of x = Rs 120

⇒ 12% of x = 120 

⇒ 12100×x=120\frac{12}{100}\times x=120

⇒ x=120×10012=1000x=\frac{120\times 100}{12}=1000 Rs

Hence, the marked price of a purse is Rs 1,000

Question 74

The volume of a sphere is 8 times that of another sphere. What is the ratio of the surface area of the bigger sphere to that of the other?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 ∶ 1

  2. BOption (b)

    1 ∶ 4

  3. COption (c)

    1 ∶ 8

  4. DOption (d)

    4 ∶ 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4 ∶ 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The volume of bigger sphere = 8 times that of the smaller sphere

Concept Used:

The volume of sphere = 43πr3\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3

The surface area of sphere = 4πr24\pi r^2

Calculation:

⇒ V1V2=81\frac{V1}{V2}=\frac{8}{1}

⇒ r13 / r23 = 81\frac{8}{1}

⇒ Comparing with the values,

⇒ r1 / r2 = 21\frac{2}{1}

⇒ Putting the value in the surface area formula,

⇒ S1S2=4π(2)24π(1)2\frac{S1}{S2}=\frac{4\pi (2)^2}{4\pi (1)^2}

⇒ S1S2=41=4:1\frac{S1}{S2}=\frac{4}{1}=4:1

Hence, the ratio of the surface area of the bigger sphere to that of the other is 4 : 1

Question 75

Three numbers A, B and C are in the ratio of 15 ∶ 21 ∶ 27. The ratio of the difference between B and A to the difference between C and B is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 ∶ 1

  2. BOption (b)

    42 ∶ 43

  3. COption (c)

    41 ∶ 42

  4. DOption (d)

    10 ∶ 11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 ∶ 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The ratio of three numbers A, B and C = 15 : 21 : 27

Concept Used:

The ratio of difference = Difference between A and B ÷ Difference between B and C

Calculation:

Let the numbers A, B and C be 15x, 21x and 27x respectively.

Difference between B and A = 21x – 15x = 6x

Difference between C and B = 27x – 21x = 6x

Ratio of these differences = 6x6x=11=1:1\frac{6x}{6x}=\frac{1}{1}=1:1

Hence, the ratio of the difference between B and A to the difference between C and B is 1 : 1

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Which of the following countries will host the 35th Summer Olympics games in the year 2032?

  1. AOption (a)

    The US

  2. BOption (b)

    China

  3. COption (c)

    Australia

  4. DOption (d)

    Brazil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Australia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

  • Brisbane was confirmed as host of the 2032 Summer Olympics at the 138th IOC Session on 21 July 2021 in Tokyo, Japan.
  • As per the new format of choosing future Olympic Games host cities from the IOC's Agenda 2020, the vote was in a form of a referendum to the 80 IOC delegates.
  • The selection of the host for the 2032 Summer Olympics saw a new process being introduced in 2019. ​​

Additional Information

  • The agreement was ratified by the full IOC membership at the IOC Session in Lima on 13 September, confirming that Paris will host the Olympic Games 2024 and that Los Angeles will host the Olympic Games 2028.
  • before Beijing won its bid to host the 2022 Olympics, the government began spending $8.4 billion on a high-speed rail line that whisks travellers from Beijing toward Inner Mongolia at speeds of up to 217 miles per hour
  • Rio de Janeiro 2016 Olympic Games, an athletic festival held in Rio de Janeiro that took place August 5–21, 2016. The Rio Games were the 28th occurrence of the modern Olympic Games. The event marked the first time that either the Summer or the Winter Olympics was held in South America.

Question 77

As of February 2022, __________ is the youngest Flex Award winner in the field of Indian classical music instrument Pakhawaj and has joined the Ali Akbar College of Music for his research in Pakhawaj under the guidance of Padma Shri Pandit Swapan Chaudhuri.

  1. AOption (a)

    Arijit Banerjee

  2. BOption (b)

    Sukhad Munde

  3. COption (c)

    Nishant Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Rishi Shankar Upadhyaya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nishant Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nishant Singh 

Key Points

  • Nishant Singh is the youngest Flex Award winner in the field of Indian classical music instrument Pakhawaj and has joined the Ali Akbar College of Music for his research in Pakhawaj under the guidance of Padma Shri Pandit Swapan Chaudhuri.
  • The Fulbright Fellowship Program was founded by the United States Senator.
  • Nishant Singh will explore how historic Pankhawaj led to tabla wherein the former lost its rare compositions to the latter and aims to retrieve the forgotten compositions of the pakhawaj of Bengal style from the tabla of the Lucknow Gharana to popularize pakhawaj worldwide for generations to come.​

Additional Information

  • ​Arijit Banerjee from Siliguri to be blessed and motivated by stalwarts of classical music as he shares the stage with the likes of Pundit Malhar Ghosh, Pundit Digambar Mitra, Pundit Arup Chattopadhyay and Pundit Sujay Basu.
  • Sukhad Munde is the son of one of India’s greatest pakhawaj players, the most ancient drum of North Indian Classical Music. He learned to speak the pakhawaj language at the same time a child learns to speak, and hence plays with the ease that one speaks one’s mother tongue.
  • Rishi Shankar Upadhyay is a unique constellation of music, born in India and spreading his fame as a young Pakhawaj maestro. He has been blessed with the art of music from his ancestors.

Question 78

Who among the following is the author of the famous English classic novel Pride and Prejudice?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mark Twain

  2. BOption (b)

    Jane Eyre

  3. COption (c)

    D H Lawrence

  4. DOption (d)

    Jane Austen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Jane Austen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jane Austen.

Key Points

  • Jane Austen, (born December 16, 1775, Steventon, Hampshire, England—died July 18, 1817, Winchester, Hampshire), was an English writer who first gave the novel its distinctly modern character through her treatment of ordinary people in everyday life.
  • Jane Austen is one of the most famous writers in English literature.
  • Her books are read by people all over the world and have been made into countless TV, film, theatre, and radio adaptations. This is all the more impressive because she only wrote six full-length novels.​

Additional Information

  • Mark Twain was an American humorist, novelist, and travel writer. Today he is best remembered as the author of The Adventures of Tom Sawyer (1876) and Adventures of Huckleberry Finn (1885). Twain is widely considered one of the greatest American writers of all time
  • Jane Eyre: The novel follows the story of Jane, a seemingly plain and simple girl as she battles through life's struggles. Jane has many obstacles in her life - her cruel and abusive Aunt Reed, the grim conditions at Lowood school, her love for Rochester, and Rochester's marriage to Bertha.
  • D.H. Lawrence, in full David Herbert Lawrence, (born September 11, 1885, Eastwood, Nottinghamshire, England—died March 2, 1930, Vence, France), English author of novels, short stories, poems, plays, essays, travel books, and letters.

Question 79

Who among the following Indian Musicians and tabla players was the very first to be invited in 2016 by the then American President Barack Obama to attend the All-Star Global Concert held in the White House?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alla Rakha

  2. BOption (b)

    Zakir Hussain

  3. COption (c)

    Swapan Chaudhuri

  4. DOption (d)

    Anindo Chatterjee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Zakir Hussain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zakir Hussain.

Key Points

  • Zakir Hussain
  • Zakir Hussain is an Indian actor, percussionist, composer, tabla player and well-known music producer.
  • He is the oldest child of tabla player Alla Rakha.
  • He received the Padma Shri honour in 1988 and the Padma Bhushan honour in 2002.
  • He was also honoured with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1990.
  • Zakir Hussain was the very first  Indian Musician and tabla player to be invited in 2016 by the then American President Barack Obama to attend the All-Star Global Concert held in the White House.
  • The Humanities Council at Princeton University designated him an Old Dominion Fellow.

Additional Information

  • Alla Rakha
  • He was a tabla player from India who excelled in Hindustani classical music.
  • He was born in Jammu's Ghagwal Village, in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • In 1977, he received a Padma Shri, and in 1982, he was awarded Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
  • Swapan Chaudhari
  • A tabla player from India is named Swapan Chaudhuri.
  • He was nominated for the Percussive Arts Society Hall of Fame and awarded the American Academy of Artists Award.
  • The greatest honour for classical music in India, the Sangeet Natak Academy Award, was given to Swapan Chaudhuri by the President of India in 1996.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri in 2019, which is one of India's highest honours, by the Indian government.
  • Anindo Chatterjee
  • He is a tabla player from India.
  • When US President Barack Obama visited India in November 2010, he gave a performance at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
  • In 2002, the Sangeet Natak Academy Award was given to him.

Question 80

Padma shri Ananda Shankar Jayant, is renowned for her significant contributions to which of the following dance forms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharatanatyam

  2. BOption (b)

    Odissi

  3. COption (c)

    Kathakali

  4. DOption (d)

    Kathak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bharatanatyam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

  • Ananda Shankar Jayant
  • Ananda Shankar Jayant is a Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dance expert from India who also works as a choreographer, scholar, and bureaucrat.
  • She is the first female officer in the South Central Railway's Indian Railway Traffic Service, and her 2009 TED presentation was named one of the top twelve most incredible TED talks on cancer.
  • She received the 2009 Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for her contributions to the Bharatnatyam dancing style.
  • Additionally, she was given the Kalaimamani Award by the Tamil Nadu government and the Kala Ratna Award by the Andhra Pradesh government.
  • For her contributions to the arts, the Government of India presented her with the fourth-highest civilian honour, the Padma Shri, in 2007.

Additional Information

StateDanceFamous Dancers
OdishaOdissiSonal Mansingh, Kelucharan Mohapatra
KeralaKathakaliKalamandalam Gopi, Kalamandalam Ramankutty Nair, Madavoor Vasudevan Nair
Uttar PradeshKathakPandit Birju Maharaj, Shambhu Maharaj, Sitara Devi

Question 81

Which of the following techniques can be used to separate the impurities in Milk? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Column chromatography

  2. BOption (b)

    Microscopy

  3. COption (c)

    Microtomy

  4. DOption (d)

    Autoclave

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Column chromatography

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Column chromatography.

Key Points

  • Column Chromatography
  • The separation and purification of substances from a solution to obtain the simpler substances from the complex elements is called column chromatography.
  • The process of separation employs five different types of column chromatography.
  • The two phases of the procedure are the mobile phase and the stationary phase.
  • In this solid-liquid method, the stationary phase is a solid and the mobile phase is a liquid or gas.
  • Applications of Column Chromatography
  • separation of a complex mixture.
  • purification or the process of removing impurities.
  • isolation of the active elements.
  • removing metabolites from bodily fluids.
  • estimation of pharmaceutical compounds or crude extracts.
  • Column Chromatography can also be used to separate the impurities in Milk.

Additional Information

  • Microscopy
  • The method of viewing things that are invisible to the naked eye is called microscopy.
  • ​The range can be any value between mm and nm.
  • Optical microscopy, scanning probe microscopy, and electron microscopy are the three main microscopic techniques that are used.
  • Microtomy
  • Microtomy is a technique that can be used instead of electropolishing and ion milling to prepare thin sections for materials like bones, minerals, and teeth.
  • The section thickness of a microtome can be adjusted to be between 50 nm and 100 m, thin enough to divide a human hair across its breadth.
  • Autoclave
  • An autoclave is a device used to perform industrial and scientific procedures that demand for higher pressure and/or temperature than ambient conditions.
  • To eliminate dangerous germs, viruses, fungus, and spores on objects inside a pressure vessel, steam is used under pressure in this machine.

Question 82

Which of the following is 'George David Roberts’ thriller novel that is based on his own experience in Mumbai?

  1. AOption (a)

    Area of Darkness

  2. BOption (b)

    Amrit Aur Vish

  3. COption (c)

    Shantaram

  4. DOption (d)

    Kurukshetra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shantaram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shantaram.

Key Points

  • Shantaram in Gregory David Roberts' 2003 thriller novel Shantaram, a heroin addict and convicted bank robber from Australia escapes from Pentridge Prison and makes his way to India.
  • Many praise the book for its vivid depiction of the turbulent life in Bombay in the early to late 1980s.
  • The author's real-life experiences are said to have had an influence on the book, while some of Roberts' assertions have been disputed by other characters.
  • Shantaram was initially released by Scribe Publications as a hardback and then as a paperback.
  • It was praised as a "page-turning debut" by Emma Lee-Potter of The Independent, who included it on a list of the top 12 Indian books​

Additional Information

NovelAuthorRelease DateTheme
Area of DarknessV. S. Naipaul1964It is a travelogue that describes Naipaul's early 1960s journey through India.
Amrit Aur VishAmritlal Nagar1966The story shifts between characters, presenting a connected world in which people's decisions affect one another both in this lifetime and maybe throughout many others.
KurukshetraRamdhari Singh Dinkar1946It is based on the Mahabharata, a Sanskrit epic.

Question 83

Kishori Amonkar is famous for which of the following forms of music? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhajan singing

  2. BOption (b)

    Ghazal singing

  3. COption (c)

    Hindustani classical vocals

  4. DOption (d)

    Carnatic classical vocals

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hindustani classical vocals

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hindustani classical vocals.

Key Points

  • Kishori Amonkar
  • Leading Hindustani classical vocalist Kishori Amonkar (10 April 1932 – 3 April 2017) belonged to the Jaipur Gharana, or a group of performers who share a certain musical aesthetic.
  • She performed in the light classical genres of thumri and bhajan as well as the classical genre of khyal.
  • Amonkar studied under her mother Mogubai Kurdikar, a classical singer from the Jaipur Gharana, but throughout her career, she experimented with a range of vocal genres.
  • In 1987 and 2002, respectively, Amonkar was given the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan, two of India's highest civilian honours.
  • She received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 2009 and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1985.

Additional Information

  • Young Amonkar started taking vocal lessons in Hindustani classical music from Anjanibai Malpekar of the Bhendibazaar Gharana in the early 1940s.
  • She wrote about musical theory and practice in the Marathi book Swaraartha Ramani, which was published in 2010.
  • The documentary Bhinna Shadja, which was made by Amol Palekar and Sandhya Gokhale, features Amonkar as its subject.
  • In 1991, she also received the esteemed Dr T. M. A. Pai Outstanding Konkani Award and she was one of the seven recipients of the  M.S. Subbulakshmi Awards for classical music in 2016.

Question 84

The Academic Bank of Credit (ABC) scheme, which was launched in ________________ 2021, aims at facilitating the academic mobility of students, giving them the freedom to study across the higher educational institutions in India with the help of a ‘credit scheme’ mechanism. 

  1. AOption (a)

    July

  2. BOption (b)

    March

  3. COption (c)

    April

  4. DOption (d)

    June

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

July

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is July.

Key Points

  • Academic Bank of Credit (ABC)
  • The Academic Bank of Credit (ABC) scheme, which was launched in July 2021, aims at facilitating the academic mobility of students, giving them the freedom to study across the higher educational institutions in India with the help of a ‘credit scheme’ mechanism.
  • The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 of the Government of India originally envisioned it as a loan facility.
  • The ABC will be in charge of tasks including opening, closing, and validating each student's individual academic account.
  • Additionally, it will be in charge of collecting the academic credits that students have earned from their different higher education institutions, validating them, storing them, transferring or redeeming them, and disseminating them among its stakeholders as and when necessary.
  • The programme will cover all types of graduate-level, postgraduate, PhD, diploma, certificate, and other courses given by higher education institutions that are approved by the University Grants Commission (UGC).

Additional Information

  • The ABC of India will require students to manually open an account, followed by ABC's standard operating rules, and provide a special ID that may be used to identify each student's account with the ABC.
  • Over 290 of the best higher education institutions in India will join the bank when it begins operations in the academic year 2021–2022.
  • All of the institutions that rank among the top 100 according to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) and all of the institutions that have received National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) "Grade A" accreditation will be included in this group.
  • Additionally, SWAYAM, NPTEL, V-Lab, and other programmes that provide their courses are qualified to use the services offered by Academic Bank of Credit.

Question 85

How many Primary Health Centres are there in rural areas of India as per 31st March 2020 data?

  1. AOption (a)

    30318

  2. BOption (b)

    30338

  3. COption (c)

    30183

  4. DOption (d)

    30813

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30813

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 30813.

Key Points

  • Primary Health Centres (PHCs)
  • The fundamental structural and operational component of public health services in developing nations is the Primary Healthcare Center (PHC).
  • PHCs were created to provide people with primary healthcare that is easily accessible, reasonably priced, and readily available, in accordance with the Alma Ata Declaration of 1978 by the World Health Organization (WHO) member countries.
  • Primary Health Centers (PHC) are established under the National Health Mission (NHM) to serve 20,000 people in mountainous, tribal, and desert areas and 30,000 people in rural areas.
  • According to the Rural Health Statistics 2019–20, there were 5,895 urban PHCs and 30,813 rural PHCs operating in the nation as of March 31, 2020.

Additional Information

  • PHCs are the principal first-line providers of primary healthcare in South Asia.
  • For outreach services including immunisation, basic curative treatment, maternity and child health services, and preventative services, each PHC has five or six sub-centres staffed by health workers.
  • There are currently 23,109 PHCs in India.
  • National Health Mission
  • Under the National Health Mission (NHM), States are given financial assistance to improve their public health systems, notably by building new or upgrading existing facilities.
  • Infrastructure spending is allowed under NHM in high-priority states for up to 33 per cent and in other States up to 25 per cent.

Question 86

_______________ is one of the taxes, where the impact lies on the person for whom it is legally imposed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Direct tax

  2. BOption (b)

    Indirect tax

  3. COption (c)

    Goods and services tax

  4. DOption (d)

    Value added tax

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Direct tax

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Direct tax.

Key Points

  • Direct Tax 
  • Direct tax is one of the taxes, where the impact lies on the person for whom it is legally imposed.
  • According to their structure, direct taxes can be progressive (the tax rate rises as the taxable amount rises), proportional (the tax rate is set and does not change as the taxable base amount rises or falls), or regressive (the tax rate drops as the taxable amount rises).
  • The ability-to-pay premise is the foundation for most direct taxes in the United States.
  • According to this economic tenet, a bigger tax burden should be placed on people with more resources or higher incomes.
  • A separate individual or entity cannot receive a direct tax benefit.
  • Taxes are due and payable by the person or entity upon whom they are imposed.
  • Common examples of direct taxes are taxes on assets, real estate, personal property, and income that is paid directly to the government by the taxpayer.

Additional Information

  • Indirect tax
  • The tax imposed on the consumption of goods and services is known as an indirect tax.
  • It is not imposed directly on an individual's income, instead, the tax must be paid in addition to the cost of the products or services the seller purchased.
  • Sales tax, excise tax, value-added tax (VAT), and goods and services tax (GST) are typical examples of indirect taxes.
  • Goods and Services Tax
  • The majority of products and services sold for domestic use are subject to the goods and services tax (GST).
  • Consumers pay the GST, but businesses that sell the goods and services are responsible for remitting it to the government.
  • Value Added tax
  • A consumption tax known as value-added tax (VAT) is imposed on goods and services at every step in the supply chain where value is added, from the point of initial production to the point of sale.
  • The cost of the product minus any expenses of materials that have already been taxed at a prior step determines how much VAT the consumer must pay.

Question 87

Mrinalini Vikram Sarabhai, the Bharatanatyam and Kathakali legend has NOT received which of the following awards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Padma Bhushan

  2. BOption (b)

    Padma Shri

  3. COption (c)

    Padma Vibhushan

  4. DOption (d)

    Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Padma Vibhushan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padma Vibhushan.

Key Points

  • Mrinalini Vikram Sarabhai
  • Indian classical dancer and choreographer Mrinalini Vikram Sarabhai was well-known worldwide.
  • In the city of Ahmedabad, she was the founder and director of the Darpana Academy of Performing Arts, a school for teaching dance, theatre, music, and puppetry.
  • She was honoured with numerous honours and citations for her contributions to Kathakali and Bharatnatyam.
  • The Indian government presented Mrinalini Sarabhai with the Padma Shri Award in 1965 and the Padma Bhushan National Civil Award in 1992.
  • In 1990, she was nominated for the Executive Committee of the International Dance Council in Paris, and in 1994, the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship was given to her in New Delhi.
  • Mrinalini Vikram Sarabhai, the Bharatanatyam and Kathakali legend has not received Padma Vibhushan.

Additional Information

  • Padma Vibhushan 
  • After the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan ("Lotus Decoration") is the Republic of India's second-highest civilian honour.
  • The medal, which was established on January 2nd, 1954, is granted for "extraordinary and distinguished service."
  • All people, regardless of ethnicity, profession, status, or sexual orientation, are eligible for these honours.
  • The Padma Awards Committee, which the Prime Minister of India established, receives nominations for the honour between May 1 and September 15 of each year.
  • Satyendra Nath Bose, Nand Lal Bose, Zakir Hussain, Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher, Jigme Dorji Wangchuck, and V. K. Krishna Menon were the inaugural recipients of the prize, who were honoured in 1954.

Question 88

In a resistor, what happens to the current when the resistance is doubled?

  1. AOption (a)

    The current gets tripled

  2. BOption (b)

    The current gets halved

  3. COption (c)

    The current stops

  4. DOption (d)

    The current gets doubled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The current gets halved

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The current gets halved.

Key Points

  • The obstruction to current flow is electrical resistance.
  • This implies that when resistance is lower, current will be higher.
  • Ohm's Law states that the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference (V) across it.
  • V = I R, where R is the conductor's resistance
  • It can also be written as ,
  • I = V/R,
  • This means that if resistance doubles, current will decrease by half because current and resistance have an inverse relationship.
  • SI unit of resistance is Ohm (Ω).

Additional Information

  • Resistor
  • A resistor is a passive electrical component having two terminals that control or limits the passage of electric current in electrical circuits.
  • Resistors come in a variety of sizes and forms.
  • There are two popular types: through-hole and surface mount.
  • A resistor might be static, conventional, unique, or part of a set of variable resistors.
  • Application of Resistor
  • When accurate measurement, high sensitivity, and balanced current regulation are needed, wire wound resistors are used in applications like shunt with ampere metres.
  • Flame detectors, burglar alarms, photographic equipment, etc. all use photoresistors.
  • Temperature and voltmeter control is accomplished by resistors.
  • Amplifiers, telephony, oscillators, and digital multimeters all use resistors.
  • Additionally, they are utilised in transmitters, demodulators, and modulators.

Question 89

What kind of adaptation is seen in bacteria when they form various kinds of thick-walled spores?

  1. AOption (a)

    Migrate

  2. BOption (b)

    Conform

  3. COption (c)

    Suspend

  4. DOption (d)

    Regulate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Suspend

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Suspend.

Key Points

  • Thick-Walled spore in Bacteria
  • In order to withstand unfavourable conditions such intense boiling and freezing temperatures and ultraviolet radiations, bacteria create thick-walled spores known as endospores.
  • The organism may withstand years of struggle inside such structures and germinate when the conditions are favourable.
  • The kind of adaptation that is seen in bacteria when they form various kinds of thick-walled spore are suspension.
  • Exosporium, spore coat, spore cortex, and core wall are the order in which the spore layers are arranged in an endosperm.
  • Both asexual and sexual reproduction results in the creation of these spores.
  • Sporulation is the process by which one endosperm forms inside a bacterium when there is a shortage of nourishment, particularly carbon and nitrogen sources.

Additional Information

  • Migrate
  • When an organism can't handle the temperature, it will move temporarily from a harsh habitat to a more hospitable one.
  • They return once the difficult time is passed.
  • For example, during harsh winters, birds exhibit long-distance migrations.
  • Conform
  • The majority of animals and plants are unable to maintain a steady interior environment.
  • In response to their environment, their body parameters change.
  • For example, although pokilothermic creatures are simple conformers, they are unable to regulate their body temperatures. The bodily fluids of a select few aquatic species alter in osmotic concentration in response to the osmotic pressure outside.
  • There are few conformers that can control the parameters within a certain range.
  • Regulate
  • Using this technique, organisms modify their physiology and behaviour to maintain homeostasis.
  • They can execute osmoregulation or thermoregulation because of homeostasis.
  • For example, regardless of the ambient temperature, all mammals and birds exhibit consistent body temperature and osmotic concentration.

Question 90

Which is the tallest self-supporting moss species found in New Zealand that usually grows to a height of 60 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    Entodonseductrix

  2. BOption (b)

    Dawsonia superba

  3. COption (c)

    Polytrichum commune

  4. DOption (d)

    Zoopsis nitida

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dawsonia superba

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dawsonia superba.

Key Points

  • Dawsonia superba
  • The largest bryophyte, Dawsonia, is kept in the polytrichaceae family and is categorised as a moss.
  • Compared to other common mosses, these are reported to grow higher and have thicker leaves.
  • They are acrocarpous, which means that they have vertical stems with reproductive structures at the end of the axis; this characteristic helps in their ability to grow taller.
  • They could be as tall as 19 inches.
  • The genus Dawsonia includes acrocarpous mosses.
  • Dawsonia superba is the tallest self-supporting moss species found in New Zealand that usually grows to a height of 60 cm.
  • They can be found anywhere on the earth, excluding saltwater areas.

Additional Information

  • The genus Dawsonia was named in 1811 in honour of Dawson Turner (1775–1858), a notable cryptogamist and Robert Brown's friend.
  • Entodon seductrix
  • The Entodontaceae family includes Entodon seductrix, also referred to as the seductive entodon moss.
  • This shining green moss forms flat colonies and spreads prostrately to embrace surfaces.
  • Polytrichum commune
  • A medium to huge moss is called Polytrichum commune.
  • Age causes its dark green colour to turn brownish.
  • The stems frequently develop large colonies and can be found in either loose or very dense tufts.
  • The stems can be as short as 2 cm to as long as 70 cm, with a length of 5 to 10 cm being the most common.
  • Zoopsis nitida
  • It is a new species that is endemic to New Zealand and is now only known from Northland.
  • The common name of Zoopsis nitida is liverwort.**
  • It belongs to the family Lepidoziaceae.

Question 91

Arjuna’s Penance, a mammoth architecture with finely carved rock sculptures, serves as a venue for the Mamallapuram Dance Festival, in the backdrop of the ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bay of Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Brahmaputra River

  3. COption (c)

    Godavari River

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bay of Bengal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Bay of Bengal.

Key Points

  • Arjuna's Penance
  • A monument called Descent of the Ganges, also referred to as Arjuna's Penance locally may be found in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu's Chengalpattu district in Mamallapuram on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal.
  • Arjuna’s Penance, a mammoth architecture with finely carved rock sculptures, serves as a venue for the Mamallapuram Dance Festival, in the backdrop of the Bay of Bengal.
  • It is a massive open-air rock relief that is 96 by 43 feet (29 by 13 metres) in size and carved onto two monolithic rock boulders.
  • The legend illustrated in the relief tells the tale of Bhagiratha leading the sacred river Ganges as it descended from the sky to the land.
  • Stone carvings at the Pallava historic site depict the Ganges' descent and Arjuna's penance.

Additional Information

  • The relief is more of a canvas for the best rock-cut sculpture ever created in India.
  • It is a part of the Mamallapuram Group of Monuments, which has been recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1984.
  • The relief was made to commemorate Narasimhavarman I's victory over Chalukya monarch Pulakesin II.
  • The area, presently referred to as Mamallapuram, was formerly known by the nickname Mamallan, the "great wrestler" or "great warrior," given to King Narasimhavarman I of the Pallava Dynasty.
  • He ruled from the 4th to the 9th centuries, from 630-668 AD.

Question 92

 _______ of the Constitution deals with the amendment procedure of the Constitution.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 332

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 363

  3. COption (c)

    Article 368

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 360

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 368

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 368.

Key Points

  • Article 368
  • Amending India's Constitution involves altering the fundamental or ultimate law of the country.
  • Part XX (Article 368) of the Indian Constitution specifies the process for amending the constitution.
  • This process protects the Constitution of India's sanctity and restrains the Parliament of India's arbitrary power.
  • The 24th and 42nd Amendments, passed in 1971 and 1976, respectively, amended Article 368.
  • As stated in Part-xx Article 368 (1) of the Indian Constitution, Parliament may alter the Constitution by adding to, changing, or repealing any provision in accordance with the procedure specified therein, which is distinct from the procedure for ordinary modifications.
  • According to the process outlined in article 368 for amending the Constitution, a change can only be made by introducing a Bill in one of the two Houses of Parliament.

Additional Information

ArticleSubject
Article 332State legislative assemblies should reserve seats for SCs and STs.
Article 363Prohibition to interference by courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc.
Article 360The President of India may declare a financial emergency under Article 360

Question 93

________ zone is generally defined as an environment with moderate rainfall throughout the year or parts of the year, with sporadic dry, mild to hot summers and cool to cold winters. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Temperate

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical

  3. COption (c)

    Dry

  4. DOption (d)

    Continental

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Temperate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Temperate.

Key Points

  • Temperate Zone
  • Between the tropics and the polar regions is where the temperate zone primarily exists.
  • There are typically four distinct seasons, with a vast variation in temperatures and precipitation.
  • It is generally defined as an environment with moderate rainfall throughout the year or parts of the year, with sporadic dry, mild to hot summers and cool to cold winters.
  • The continental United States, the majority of Canada and Europe, Central Asia, southern South America, and southern Australia are among the areas that are exclusively covered in the temperate zone.
  • The average temperature of the temperate zone lies between zero and 20°C.

Additional Information

  • Tropical Zone
  • The areas of the planet closest to the equator and between the Tropics of Cancer in the north and Capricorn in the south are known as tropical regions.
  • The average temperature in the tropics ranges from 25 to 28 degrees Celsius (77 to 82 degrees Fahrenheit).
  • Dry Zone
  • The sub-humid regions of the nation that receive 75 cm to 100 cm of rainfall (and hence have moisture deficiency for two-thirds of the year) and the semi-arid regions that receive 30 cm to 75 cm of rainfall are considered dry-land zones.
  • Continental Zone
  • The region with the largest geographic scope is known as the Continental Zone (CON), which also encompasses portions of the lower hills on the ALS border as well as the plains and lowlands of Central and Eastern Europe and the Balkans.
  • The weather is continental, with wide annual temperature variations and heavy summertime precipitation.

Question 94

The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar 2021, for the identification and nurturing of budding and young talent, was given to ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipal Academy of Higher Education

  3. COption (c)

    Manav Rachna Educational Institution

  4. DOption (d)

    Amity University

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Manav Rachna Educational Institution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manav Rachna Educational Institution.

Key Points

  • Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar
  • An honour given by the Republic of India in sports is the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar.
  • The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports bestows it annually.
  • The award honours "corporates, nonprofits, and sports control boards' role in the promotion and growth of sports in the nation" over the previous three years.
  • The award was launched in 2009, and in 2015, the rules were updated.
  • Since the modification, organisations are awarded in the following four categories: sports for development, Identification and nurturing of budding and young talent, corporate social responsibility initiatives to promote sports and employment of athletes, and sports welfare programs.
  • The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar 2021, for the identification and nurturing of budding and young talent, was given to Manav Rachna Educational Institution.

Additional Information

  • National Sports Promotion Award is the translation of the award's name into Hindi.
  • The award was presented to Manav Rachna Educational Institution by the Hon. Ram Nath Kovind, the former President of India in 2021.
  • The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar 2021, for the encouragement of sports through corporate social responsibility, was given to Oil and Natural Gas Corporation.
  • The award is presented annually at the Presidential Palace by the President of India, usually on August 29th of each year, together with the other five National Sports Awards and the National Adventure Award.

Question 95

Which Indian shuttler defeated World Champion Loh Kean Yew of Singapore in the Men's Singles final at the 2022 India Open?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chirag Shetty

  2. BOption (b)

    Satwiksairaj Rankireddy

  3. COption (c)

    Srikanth Kidambi

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakshya Sen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lakshya Sen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lakshya Sen.

Key Points

  • Lakshya Sen 
  • In the men's singles final of the India Open 2022, Indian badminton player Lakshya Sen defeated Singaporean World Champion Loh Kean Yew.
  • He won his first Super 500 championship.
  • The 20-year-old Sen defeated Yew in two games, 24-22 and 21-17.
  • The Yonex-Sunrise India Open 2022, also known as the 2022 India Open (badminton), took place at the K. D. Jadhav Indoor Hall in New Delhi, India.
  • Between January 11 to January 16, 2022, the game began.

Additional Information

  • Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
  • Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy defeat Mohammad Ahsan and Hendra Setiawan of Indonesia to win the Indian Open for the first time in Men's Double.
  • In 43 minutes, Satwik and Chirag defeated the Indonesian pair ranked No. 2 in the world by a score of 21-16, 26-24.
  • Srikanth Kidambi
  • Indian badminton player Srikanth Kidambi receives his training at the Gopichand Badminton Academy in Hyderabad.
  • In April 2018, according to the BWF rankings, he held the top spot in the world.
  • In 2018, Kidambi received the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian honour. as well as the 2015 Arjuna Award.

Question 96

Identify the method that is NOT used to purify organic compounds. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sublimation

  2. BOption (b)

    Crystallisation

  3. COption (c)

    Distillation

  4. DOption (d)

    Sedimentation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sedimentation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sedimentation.​

Key Points

  • The purification of organic compounds is necessary, though complex, step after its extraction from a natural source or synthesis in the laboratory.
  • The method of purification of the organic compound depends mainly on the nature of the compound and the impurities present.
  • The important methods for the separation and purification of organic compounds are Crystallization, Sublimation, Distillation, Differential extraction, and chromatography.
  • One easy method to check the purity of an organic compound is to either melt or boil it as organic compounds tend to have sharp melting and boiling points. Purification means the removal of unwanted impurities present in an organic compound.

Additional Information

  • Some solids can directly pass to the vapour state without going through the liquid phase. The purification technique which exploits this property is called sublimation. It is helpful in separating sublimable compounds from non-sublimable ones.
  • The principle in crystallization is that the compound and the impurities have different solubilities in a solvent. A solvent is chosen where the compound to be purified is sparingly soluble, that is, it is sparingly soluble at a lower temperature and soluble at a higher temperature. The solution is heated to get a saturated solution, and on cooling, the crystals of the compounds are removed via filtration.
  • The underlying principle behind distillation is that the mixture of liquids can be separated by the difference in their boiling points. The boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure. This method separates volatile liquids from non-volatile liquids.

Question 97

Where is the Green Park Stadium located? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajkot

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengaluru

  3. COption (c)

    Kanpur

  4. DOption (d)

    Hyderabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kanpur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kanpur.

Key Points

  • Green Park Stadium is a 32,000-capacity floodlit multi-purpose stadium located in Kanpur, India, and the Uttar Pradesh cricket team.
  • The stadium is under the control of the Sports Department of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is the only international cricket stadium in Uttar Pradesh that has regularly hosted international cricket matches in both Test and One Day formats.
  • The stadium hosted the 500th test played by the Indian team.
  • The ground has hosted more than 35 international games and was also host to India's 500th Test match.
  • It also has video screens that are used during international matches.
  • India's first Test win over Australia in December 1959 was at the Green Park ground. This was also the first match to be played on a turf wicket here.

Additional Information

  • Uttar Pradesh's chief minister is Yogi Adityanath.
  • The capital of Uttar Pradesh is Lucknow.
  • Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya is the current Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • There are 6 trophies related to cricket:  Ranji Trophy, the Duleep Trophy, the Vijay Hazare Trophy, the Deodhar Trophy, the Irani Trophy, and the NKP Salve Challenger Trophy.

Question 98

‘Revenue Stamp: An Autobiography’ is written by which of the following Indian poets, who was a prominent figure of Punjabi literature?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anwar Masood

  2. BOption (b)

    Ajit Sahni

  3. COption (c)

    Amrita Pritam

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahasweta Devi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Amrita Pritam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Amrita Pritam.

Key Points

  • "Revenue Stamp: An Autobiography" is written by Amrita Pritam.
  • Amrita Pritam was an Indian novelist, essayist, and poet, who wrote in Punjabi and Hindi.
  • A prominent figure in Punjabi literature, she is the recipient of the 1956 Sahitya Akademi Award.
  • Her body of work comprised over 100 books of poetry, fiction, biographies, essays, a collection of Punjabi folk songs, and an autobiography that were all translated into several Indian and foreign languages.
  • Pritam is best remembered for her poignant poem, Ajj aakhaan Waris Shah nu, an elegy to the 18th-century Punjabi poet, an expression of her anguish over massacres during the partition of India.
  • As a novelist, her most noted work was Pinjar in which she created her memorable character, Puro, an epitome of violence against women, loss of humanity, and ultimate surrender to existential fate; the novel was made into an award-winning film, Pinjar.

Additional Information

  • Behind the name of Amrita Pritam's autobiography is the exchange between Amrita and the famous author and journalist, Khushwant Singh, who told her that her life was of so little consequence that it could be written on the back of a revenue stamp.
  • When choosing the name for her autobiography, Amrita recalled this banter and opted for this name. Credit must be given to the English translator, Krishna Gorowara, who seems to have picked up on all the nuances and depth of Amrita’s thoughts.
  • The book touches on her life with Imroz, a painter with whom she has a live-in-relationship at a time when such things were far from the norm. Her early marriage to Pritam Singh ends in a divorce. The reasons for their parting and how it affects their two children are covered.

Question 99

Falguni Pathak is a renowned singer known for which of the following genres?

  1. AOption (a)

    Awadhi folk songs

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthani folk songs

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarati folk songs

  4. DOption (d)

    Marathi folk songs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gujarati folk songs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gujarati folk songs.

  • Popularly known as the “Queen of Dandiya“, Falguni Pathak is famous for singing traditional music forms of Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Falguni Pathak is an Indian singer, performing artist, and composer based in Mumbai.
  • Her music is based on traditional musical forms from the Indian state of Gujarat.
  • Her debut album was released in 1998, and she has also recorded numerous songs for Bollywood movies.
  • The theme of most of her songs is love.
  • She has performed in many shows in India and other countries, backed by a band called Tha Thaiyaa.
  • She has some very popular Indian pop singles to her credit, still heard and appreciated all over India.
  • Her albums are not only famous for the melodious songs but also for the cute love stories depicted in them.
  • She is very popular in the Gujarati community where she is called to perform for popular festivals like Navaratri.

Additional Information

  • India is a geographically and traditionally diverse country.
  • There are 28 states and 8 Union Territories (U.T.) bonded under the spirit of nationalism.
  • There are several differences between Classical music and folk music.
  • Classical music follows the rules laid in the Natya Shastra and cultivates the Guru-Shisya tradition whereas folk music tradition is the music that has no hard rules.
  • Folk music is primarily based on diverse themes and is full of brisk rhythm.
  • They are also set on beats so they can be dance-oriented.

Question 100

Guru Bipin Singh was a _________ dancer awarded with Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1966. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Manipuri

  2. BOption (b)

    Odissi

  3. COption (c)

    Kathakali

  4. DOption (d)

    Kathak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Manipuri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manipuri.

Key Points

  • Guru Bipin Singh was a Manipuri dancer awarded with Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1966.
  • Guru Bipin Singh was a director, choreographer, and teacher of Manipuri dance.
  • He was born on 23 August 1918 into a Bishnupriya Manipuri Family.
  • He is regarded as the Father of Manipuri Dance.
  • He choreographed many dance dramas and solo dances and produced many students.
  • Guru Bipin Singh won many awards such as : 
  1. Title of Hanjaba by the Maharaja of Manipur
  2. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award,1966
  3. The Sharangdev fellowship by Sur Shringar Samsad
  4. Kalidas Samman by Madhya Pradesh Government
  5. Anamika Kala Sangam award, Kolkata
  6. Shiromani Puraskar by Asian Paints, Kolkata

Additional Information

  • The Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honour in India, which the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, annually confers on writers of the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the 24 major Indian languages such as Telugu, Kannada, Hindi, Tamil, English, Bengali, Punjabi, and the 22 listed languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution recognised by the Sahitya Akademi, New Delhi.
  • Established in 1954, the award comprises a plaque and a cash prize of ₹ 1,00,000.
  • The award's purpose is to recognise and promote excellence in Indian writing and also acknowledge new trends.
  • The annual process of selecting awardees runs for the preceding twelve months.
  • The plaque awarded by the Sahitya Akademi was designed by the Indian filmmaker Satyajit Ray.

100 questions in the full paper