SSC CGL 2020 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 20 Aug 2021 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Option (1) Anaemia → Not a type of infection disease

Option (2) Scurvy → Not a type of infection disease.

Option (3) Diarrhoea → Type of infection disease.

Option (4) Goitre → Not a type of infection disease

Hence, “Diarrhoea” is an odd one.

Important PointsInfectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms - such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.

Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They're normally harmless or even helpful. But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease.

The number of triangles in the given figure is:

 

So, there are a total of 8 triangles in the figure.

Hence, ‘8’ is the correct answer.

We put all the option in blank area and check who create particular pattern

1. M, D, N, P, N, J, O

J L _ N _ J _ P N D _ N P _ D J _ P _ D

After filling the blanks with the letters/numbers in the option given above, we get:

J L M N D / J N P N D / P N P N D / J J P O D

No particular pattern is repeating itself when the sequence is divided into equal parts.

2. M, D, P, N, J, N, O

J L _ N _ J _ P N D _ N P _ D J _ P _ D

After filling the blanks with the letters/numbers in the option given above, we get:

J L M N D / J P P N D / N N P J D / J N P O D

No particular pattern is repeating itself when the sequence is divided into equal parts.

3. P, D, M, J, N, O, N

J L _ N _ J _ P N D _ N P _ D J _ P _ D

After filling the blanks with the letters/numbers in the option given above, we get:

J L P N D / J M P N D / J N P N D / J O P N D

A particular pattern is repeating itself when the sequence is divided into equal parts.

Here second letter of word is increasing by +1.

L + 1 = M, M + 1 = N, N + 1 = O.

4. P, M, D, N, J, O, N
   

J L _ N _ J _ P N D _ N P _ D J _ P _ D

After filling the blanks with the letters/numbers in the option given above, we get:

J L P N M / J D P N D / N N P J D / J O P N D

No particular pattern is repeating itself when the sequence is divided into equal parts.

Hence, ‘P, D, M, J, N, O, N’ is the correct answer

The pattern followed here is :

Sum of the positional values of the letters × total number of the letter = number.

RAJ → Total number of letter is 3.

R(18) + A(1) + J(10) = 18 + 1 + 10 = 29

Sum of the positional values of the letters × total number of the letter = number

29 × 3 = 87

And,

GITA → Total number of letter is 4.

G(7) + I(9) + T(20) + A(1) = 7 + 9 + 20 + 1 = 37

Sum of the positional values of the letters × total number of the letter = number

37 × 4 = 148

Similarly,

VARUN → Total number of letter is 5.

V(22) + A(1) + R(18) + U(21) + N(14) = 22 + 1 + 18 + 21 + 14 = 76

Sum of the positional values of the letters × total number of the letter = number

76 × 5 = 380

Hence, VARUN will be written as “380”.

Table show alphabet serial number –

The logic is shown below –

Hence, “QCR” is complete in the series.

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

We can dram following Family Tree from the information given above:

1. Madhurima is the wife of Omprakash, who is the brother of Mani.

2. Urmila is the sister of Sanju, who is the son of Omprakash.

3. Tarun is the son of Mani, who is a male.

4. Komali has two children. Pinki is the daughter of Komali.

Hence, Madhurima is 'Sister-in-law' of Komali.

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern for the code is as follows,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘MIGHTY’ is coded as ‘MILCCP’.

The pattern followed here is -

11² = 121

13² = 169

15² = 225

17² = 289

19² = 361

Hence, the correct answer is "361".

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. In series Triangle rotating in a clockwise direction and after the rotating figure change its position.

2. In series trapezium rotating in an anti-clockwise direction and after the rotating figure change its position.

.

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side is:

Hence, "option (2)" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

1. Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.
2. The water image of the figure looks like the mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.
3. Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.
4. In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain same.

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern followed is,

All follow the same pattern, except ‘ QL’.

Hence, “QL” is the odd one.

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

Important Points

• Do not get tensed by the complexity of the figures.
• Carefully understand the structure of the given question figure.
• The embedded figure may not be of exact size. It may be small or big.
• Sometimes the rotation or reflection of the figures may be confusing.
• So think wisely before selecting the answer.

The logic is here is:

 Sum of all digits of 1^st number then square of this number we get 2^nd number.

Option (1): (547, 258)

Now, follow the logic:

547 → 5 + 4 + 7 = 16; 16² = 256 (not 258)

This option do not follow the pattern.

Option (2): (812, 121)

Now, follow the logic:

812 → 8 + 1 + 2 = 11; 11² = 121

This option follows the pattern.

Option (3): (723, 144)

Now, follow the logic:

723 → 7 + 2 + 3 = 12; 12² = 144

This option follows the pattern.

Option (4): (546, 225)

Now, follow the logic:

546 → 5 + 4 + 6 = 15; 15² = 225

This option follows the pattern.

Hence, pair “(547, 258)” is an odd one.

​The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

Statements:

All lockets are chains.

100% medals are lockets.

Some rings are chains.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. All chains are medals→ False (Some chains are medals but not all chains are medals)

II. All medals being rings is a possibility → True (Possible diagram given below)

Hence, only conclusion II  follows.

Additional Information

Given: (12, 121, 169)

The Logic here is as follows:

1^st number

2^nd number = (1^st number – 1)²

3^rd number = (1^st number + 1)²

Now follow these steps,

1^st number → 12

2^nd number = (1^st number – 1)² = (12 - 1)² = 11² = 121

3^rd number = (1^st number + 1)² = (12 +1)² = 13² = 169

We get, (12, 121, 169)

Now we check all the options-

Option (1): (16, 161, 256)

1^st number → 16

2^nd number = (1^st number – 1)² = (16 - 1)² = 15² = 225

3^rd number = (1^st number + 1)² = (16 + 1)² = 17² = 289

We get, (16, 225, 289)

But option (1) given (16, 161, 256) this option don’t follow the pattern.

Option (2): (17, 256, 324)

1^st number → 17

2^nd number = (1^st number – 1)² = (17 - 1)² = 16² = 256

3^rd number = (1^st number + 1)² = (17 + 1)² = 18² = 324

We get, (17, 256, 324)

this option follows the pattern.

Option (3): (11, 144, 196)

1^st number → 11

2^nd number = (1^st number – 1)² = (11 - 1)² = 10² = 100

3^rd number = (1^st number + 1)² = (11 + 1)² = 12² = 144

We get, (11, 100, 144)

But option (3) given (11, 144, 196) this option don’t follow the pattern.

Option (4): (14, 196, 225)

1^st number → 16

2^nd number = (1^st number – 1)² = (14 - 1)² = 13² = 169

3^rd number = (1^st number + 1)² = (14 + 1)² = 15² = 225

We get, (14, 169, 225)

But option (4) given (14, 196, 225) this option don’t follow the pattern.

Hence, option (2) is correct answer.

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

The correct order of the given words is:

2. Hypocrite
3. Hypodermic
4. Hypotenuse

4**. Hypoth**ermia

3. Hysterical

Hence, the correct answer is "2, 1, 5, 4, 3".

GIVEN:

Income ratio of  Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan is respectively: 12x : 9x : 7x

Expenditures ratio of  Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan is respectively: 

15y : 9y : 8y

FORMULA:

Savings = Income - Expenditures

CALCULATION:

Saving ratio of  Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan is respectively:

 (12x - 15y) : (9x - 9y) : (7x - 8y)

[Saving ratio = Income ratio - Ependiture ratio]

Ankit saves 25% of his income, So saving of Ankit is

12x - 15y = 25% of 12x

⇒ 12x - 15y = $\frac{1}{4}$ × 12x

⇒ 12x - 15y = 3x

⇒ 9x = 15y

⇒ $\frac{x}{y}$ = $\frac{15}{9}$

 ⇒ $\frac{x}{y}$ = $\frac{5}{3}$ (divided by 3)

So, x = 5; y = 3

Put the value of x and y saving of Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan,

(12x -15y) : (9x - 9y) : (7x - 8y)

⇒ (12 × 5 - 15 × 3) : (9 × 5 – 9 × 3) : (7 × 5 - 8 × 3)

⇒ (60 - 45) : (45 - 27) : (35 - 24)

⇒ 15 : 18 : 11

Hence, ‘15 : 18 : 11’ is the ratio of the savings of Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan.

The Venn diagrams best represent the relationship between - Extroverts, Men, Handsome figures are shown below:

Some men are extroverts and handsome.

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Pulmonologist : Lungs → A pulmonologist is a doctor who treats diseases of the lungs.

Similarly,

Endocrinologist : Glands → A Endocrinologist is a doctor who treats diseases of the glands.

Hence, ‘Endocrinologist : Glands’ is the correct answer.

Mistake Points The specialization should be the first word and the part of organ should be the second one. So the second option is incorrect.

Additional Information

The logic followed here is:

Varanasi : Ganga → Varanasi is situated on the banks of the Ganga river.

Similarly,

Mathura : Yamuna → Mathura is situated on the banks of the Yamuna river.

Hence, ‘Yamuna’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is,

Let (M : N)

Step 1 → M – 2 = A (A any number)

Step 2 → A² = N

Now follow the steps:

11 : 81

Step 1 → 11 – 2 = 9

Step 2 → 9² = 81

Similarly,

8 : 36

Step 1 → 8 – 2 = 6

Step 2 → 6² = 36

Similarly,

? : 121

Step 1 → 13 – 2 = 11

Step 2 → 11² = 121

Hence, 13 : 121 is correct answer.

Logic: If two dice have the same face value in the given image then their clockwise or anticlockwise wise number are known as opposite numbers in dice.

If we rotate the first dice in a clockwise direction.

We get,

In first dice and second dice.

Letter 'J' is common.

The left letter will be opposite to each other writing them clockwise starting from X.

 

Hence, the correct answer is “G”.

According to BODMAS rule

Given equation 45 * 24 * 72 * 20 * 12 * 7

Option 1 : Using the combination ×, ÷, =, –, +

45 × 24 ÷ 72 = 20 - 12 + 7

By BODMAS rule

45 × 0.334 = 20 - 12 + 7

15 = 20 - 12 + 7

15 = 27 – 12

15 = 15 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2 : Using combination ÷, ×, +, –, =

45 ÷ 24 × 72 + 20 - 12 = 7

1.875 × 72 + 20 - 12 = 7

135 + 20 - 12 = 7

155 - 12 = 7

143 = 7 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3 : Using the combination =, ×, +, ÷, –

45 = 24 × 72 + 20 ÷ 12 - 7

45 = 24 × 72 + 1.67 – 7

45 = 1729.67 - 7

45 = 1722.67 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4 : Using the combination +, ÷, –, =, ×

45 + 24 ÷ 72 - 20 = 12 × 7

45 + 0.334 - 20 = 12 × 7

45 + 0.334 - 20 = 84

45.334 - 20 = 84

25.334 = 84 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, the answer is “×, ÷, =, –, +”.

The logic followed here is:

Here the pattern followed in each Row is:

[ 3^rd number + (1^st number × 5) ] ÷ 5 = 2^nd number

Row 1: [ 3^rd number + (1^st number × 5) ]

[110 + (12 × 5)] ÷ 5

= [110 + 60 ] ÷ 5

= 170 ÷ 5

= 34 = 2^nd number

Row 2: [3^rd number + (1^st number × 5)]

[35 + (6 × 5)] ÷ 5

= [35 + 30] ÷ 5

= 65 ÷ 5

= 13 = 2^nd number

Similarly

Row 3: [3^rd number + (1^st number × 5)]

[60 + (9 × 5)] ÷ 5

= [60 + 45] ÷ 5

= 105 ÷ 5

= 21 = 2^nd number

Hence, “21” is correct answer.

Alternate Method

(Difference of 1st column and 2nd column number) × 5 = 3rd column

(34 - 12) × 5 = 22 × 5 = 110

(13 - 6) × 5 = 7 × 5 = 35

Similarly,

We take ? = 21

(21 - 9) × 5 = 60

12 × 5 = 60

60 = 60

Hence, the correct answer is "21".

The correct answer is Viswanathan Anand.

Key Points

• Five-time world chess champion Viswanathan Anand has joined WWF(World Wide Fund) India as its ambassador for the environmental education programme.
• WWF India is celebrating its 50 years of conservation in India.
• WWF India's environmental education programme is as old as the organisation itself, starting way back in 1976 with the Nature Clubs of India (NCI) initiative.

Additional Information

• Viswanathan Anand was born on December 11, 1969, in Madras.
• He was an Indian chess master who won the FIDE (international chess federation) world championship in 2000, 2007, 2008, 2010, and 2012.
• Anand learned chess from his mother at the age of 6 years old.
• At the age of 14, Anand had won the Indian National Sub-Junior Championship with a perfect score of nine wins in nine games.
• At the time he was 17 years old, he became the first Asian to win a world chess title when he won the 1987 FIDE World Junior Championship.
• He was the first Indian to be conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 1991/1992.

The correct answer is Amit Khatri.

Key Points

• Amit Khatri won a silver in the men's 10,000m race walk event to clinch India's second medal at the World U-20 Athletics Championship.
• He finished second behind Kenya's Heristone Wanyoni.
• The World Athletics U20 Championships is a biennial world championship for the sport of athletics organized by the World Athletics, contested by athletes in the under-20 athletics age category.

Additional Information

• Paramdeep Mor won a silver medal in the 10km race walk event in the boys' under-20 category with a time of 41:19.87 but was later found to be overage in the medical test.

The correct answer is Tapti.

Key Points

• Tapi River -
• State - Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat
• Basin area - 62,225 km2
• Length - 724 km
• Source - Multai, Madhya Pradesh
• Mouth - Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea), Dumas, Surat, Gujarat

Additional Information

• Narmada River - Also known as Reva.
• It is also known as the "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat".
• State - Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat
• Basin area - 98,796 km2
• Length - 1,312 km
• Source - Narmada Kund (Vindhyachal Parvat Amarkantak Plateau, Anuppur district, Madhya Pradesh)
• Mouth - Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea), Bharuch District, Gujarat
• Mahi River -
• State - Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat
• Basin area - 35,000 km2
• Length - 580 km
• Source - Vindhyas, Madhya Pradesh
• Mouth - Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea) Anand District, Gujarat
• Sabarmati River -
• State - Rajasthan, Gujarat
• Basin area - 30,680 km²
• Length - 371 km
• Source - Aravalli Range, Udaipur District, Rajasthan
• Mouth - Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea), Gujarat

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Odisha government had organized the festival's second edition 'Eco Retreat'.
• It aims to boost tourism in the state.
• Compared to 2020, Odisha has added 5 more destinations to highlight the diversity in tourism and hospitality in the state for 2021.
• Odisha's 3-month-long event was held at 5 locations including Konark, Hirakund, Bhitarkanika, Daringbadi and Satkosia.

Additional Information

• Odisha:
• Chief Minister - Mohan Charan Majhi (BJP)
• Governor - Dr. Kambhampati Hari Babu
• Number of Districts - 30.

The correct answer is Sarnath.

Key Points

• Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon in Sarnath.
• Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon to the five monks called the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta.^​

<sup>

Important Points</sup>

• Gautam Buddha, a Shakya prince, was born as Siddhartha in Lumbini, present-day Nepal.
• Buddha attained his enlightenment at Bodh Gaya after 49 days of deep meditation since then he was called the Buddha or the Enlightened one.
• He delivered his first sermon at Sarnat, near Varanasi, and attained Mahaparvanirvana at Kushinagar.
• Buddha taught Four Noble Truths:
• The world is full of suffering.
• The main cause of suffering is desire.
• To overcome the suffering one must give up desire.
• One will attain nirvana if desires are given up.
• Buddha suggested the Eightfold Path that would help people to attain Nirvana. It comprises of-right action, right determination, right exercise, right livelihood, right meditation, right memory, right observation, and right speech.
• The followers of Buddha formed Sangha and spread his teachings. Ashoka spread the teachings of Buddha to Sri Lanka and South-East Asia
• The Buddhist literature includes Jataka Tales and Tripitaka that were written in Pali.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• C Rajagopalachari led the Salt Satyagraha protest in Tamil Nadu.
• Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, a group of 100 men led by C Rajagopalachari marched to Vedaranyam and extracted salt from seawater in April 1930 to break the salt law imposed by the British.
• He began his march from Tiruchi on April 13 and reached Vedaranyam on April 28.
• The Salt Satyagraha was an act of civil disobedience led by Mahatma Gandhi to protest British rule in India.

Additional Information

• Salt March or Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha, was started by Mahatma Gandhi in the year 1930 in the March-April period.
• It was the protest of the Indian people against Britain’s Salt Act of 1882 which prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt, a staple in their diet.
• Gandhi declared resistance to British salt policies to be the unifying theme for his new campaign of “satyagraha,” or mass civil disobedience.
• First, Gandhi sent a letter on March 2, 1930, to inform the Viceroy Lord Irwin that he and the others would begin breaking the Salt Laws in 10 days. Then, on March 12, 1930, Gandhi set out from his ashram, or religious retreat, at Sabarmati near Ahmedabad with several dozen followers on a trek of some 240 miles to the coastal town of Dandi on the Arabian Sea.
• In April, Gandhiji was joined with the tens of thousands of followers for their salt satyagraha.

The correct answer is 100'C.

Key Points

• The boiling point of water at sea level is 100°C.
• The boiling point of water varies with the air pressure.
• The boiling point of a liquid at high pressure is higher than the boiling point of the same liquid at atmospheric pressure.

Additional Information

• At low pressure and high altitude, the boiling point is low.
• The temperature at which vapor pressure equals normal sea-level air pressure is known as the normal boiling point (760 mm of mercury).
• The temperature of the boiling point is lower at higher altitudes.
• Water boils at 212°F at sea level.
• The boiling point of water is also affected by its purity.
• If the force of attraction between the molecules is relatively strong then the boiling point will be much higher.

The correct answer is Wandering Albatross.

Key Points

• The largest living or flying bird by wingspan is the Wandering Albatross (Diomedea Exulans family) of the sub-Antarctic oceans.
• The maximum dimensions in this species are a length of 1.44 m (4.7 ft) and a wingspan of 3.65 m (12.0 ft).
• It was the first species of albatross to be described and was long considered the same species as the Tristan albatross and the Antipodean albatross.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Kerala bagged the United Nations award for its "outstanding contribution" towards the non-communicable diseases related sustainable development goals.
• The UN Interagency Task Force (UNIATF) award this year on prevention and control of non-communicable diseases was announced by World Health Organization director-general Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus.
• The award recognizes achievements during 2019 on the multisectoral action in the prevention and control of NCDs, mental health, and the wider NCD-related sustainable development goals (SDGs).

Additional Information

• ​Chief Minister of Kerala - Pinarayi Vijayan (Dec 2021)
• Governor of Kerala - Arif Mohammad Khan
• Literacy rate of Kerala - 96.2%
• Sex Ratio of Kerala - 1084
• State tree of Kerala - Coconut

The correct answer is The Prime Minister.

The Chairman of the Planning Commission and National Integration Council of India is the Prime Minister.

Additional Information 

• National Integration Council was established in the year 1961.
• Its first meeting took place in 1962.
• The National Integration Council was established by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to address the problems of communalism and regionalism in India.
• The Prime Minister is the chairman of the council.
• The National Integration Council is an extra-constitutional body.
• The function of the council is to examine the problem of national integration in every aspect and make necessary recommendations to deal with it
• Information about the National Integration Council.
• Planning Commission
• It was an institution in the Government of India.
• It formulated five-year plans.
• It was formed on 15 March 1950.
• It was dissolved on 17 August 2014 and replaced by the new institution NITI Aayog.
• The Prime Minister of India was the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission.

The correct answer is Vishnu.

Key Points

• Padavali Kirtan refers to songs composed in the medieval period of West Bengal (15th to 17th century) in praise of Vishnu.
• The Padavali Kirtan is the devotional music of the Vaishnava community of Bengal.

Additional Information

• Some of the well-known folk dances of Bengal:
• Purulia Chhau.
• Santhali Dance.
• Mundari dance.
• Gambhira.
• Gajan.
• Durga Puja Dhak.

The correct answer is Barium.

Key Points

• Metal salts commonly used in firework displays include calcium chloride, sodium nitrate, barium chloride, copper chloride, etc.
• The green flame produced in fireworks is due to the presence of Barium.
• The blue flame is due to the presence of Copper.
• The orange flame is due to the presence of Calcium.
• A yellow flame is due to the presence of Sodium.
• Lithium is used to impart a red colour to fireworks.

Additional Information

• Barium (Ba):
• The atomic number is 56.
• It is mostly used in drilling fluids for oil and gas wells and also used in paints and glassmaking.
• It is found in combination with other elements.
• Barite is one of the major ores of Barium.
• Calcium (Ca):
• The atomic number is 20.
• Calcium provides strength to bones and teeth along with vitamins.
• It also plays an important role in blood formation, muscle contraction, clotting of blood, etc.
• Milk, eggs, fish, etc. are the main sources of calcium.
• Lithium (Li):
• Atomic Number is 3.
• Lithium is the lightest metal on the periodic table.
• It is widely used in rechargeable batteries for mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras, etc.
• Chromium (Cr):
• The atomic number is 24.
• It is used in manufacturing stainless steel.
• Chromite is the major ore of Chromium.
• It is a blue-white hard, brittle, and very corrosion-resistant metal and is used to produce several alloys.

The correct answer is Jallikattu.

Key Points

• Jallikattu is a Malayalam feature film directed by Lijo Jose Pellissery.
• It has been selected as India's official entry for the International Feature Film category at the 93rd Academy Awards 2020, the Film Federation of India (FFI) announced.
• Gully Boy is a Hindi feature film that has been selected as India's official entry for the International Feature Film category at the 92nd Academy Awards 2019.
• Village Rockstars is an Assamese film feature that has been selected as India's official entry for the International Feature Film category at the 91st Academy Awards 2018.

Important Points

Winners of 93rd Academy Awards:

Additional Information

• The Academy Award is popularly known as the Oscar award is the highest international award in the field of film given by the United States Academy of Motion Pictures of Arts and Science (AMPAS).
• In 1929, the Oscar award was first presented.
• The Oscar award statue is designed by Cedric Gibbons.
• The first Indian to win Oscar award - Bhanu Athaiya (1982).
• The first Indian to win two Oscar awards - A. R. Rahman.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• India's first gender park is located in Kozhikode, Kerala.
• It is an initiative of the Social Justice Department of the Kerala government to bring together the state, academia and civil society on a common platform to address gender issues.

Additional Information

• Other national parks in Kerala are 
• Silent Valley National Park,
• Pampadum Shola National Park,
• Mathikettan Shola National Park,
• Anamudi Shola National Park.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The National Fisheries Development Board has conferred four awards to Assam for its success in the fishery sector.
• Assam has got the best state award under the category of best hilly and North-Eastern state.
• Assam Apex Cooperative Fish Marketing and Processing Federation Limited (FISHFED) has been selected under the category of best hilly and Northeastern government organization.

Additional Information

• Assam:
• Chief Minister - Himanta Biswa Sarma till FEB 21
• Governor - Jagdish Mukhi.
• Number of districts - 33.
• Lok Sabha seats - 14.
• Rajya Sabha seats - 7.

The correct answer is 8.

 Key Points

• Eight Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious 'Blue Flag' certification by an international jury comprising members of the following organizations:
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

Important Points

• The 'Blue Flag' certification:
• It is a certification that is given to a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator.
• It also serves as an eco-label.
• The certification indicates their high environmental and quality standards.
• It is awarded by the Foundation for Environmental Education, an NGO based in Denmark.
• It puts strict environmental, educational, safety-related & access-related parameters that applicants must achieve and maintain.
• It was instituted in France in 1985 and for nations out of Europe in 2001.
• It is awarded annually to beaches of FEE member countries.
• Forty-seven countries currently participate in this program. 4,671 beaches, marinas, and boats have this certification (as of January 2021).
• It promotes sustainable development in freshwater & marine areas.
• Criteria to get Blue Flag Certification:
• It has four main criteria which are the following:
• Water quality.
• Environmental management.
• Environmental education.
• Safety.
• Countries with the highest number of Blue Flag Beaches:
• Spain: 578, the highest number of Blue Flag beaches.
• Turkey: 436.
• Greece: 395.
• France: 394.
• **Italy: 342.**​

Additional Information

• The Foundation for Environmental Education:
• It is a non-profit organisation that promotes sustainable development through environmental education.
• It runs five programmes to fulfil its objective: Blue Flag. Eco-Schools. Young Reporters for the Environment.Learning about Forests Green Key.
• Headquarters: Copenhagen, Denmark.
• Founded: 1981.
• Main organ: General Assembly.
• IUCN:
• It is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
• Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.
• Founder: Julian Huxley.
• Founded: 1948.
• World Tourism Organization:
• It is a special agency of the United Nations.
• It is delegated to promote responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism.
• Headquarters: Madrid, Spain.
• Founded: 1975.
• Parent organization: United Nations.
• Member States: 159.
• India joined in 1975.
• The United Nations Environment Programme:
• It is responsible for managing environmental issues within the United Nations members.
• Headquarters: Nairobi, Kenya.
• Founder: Maurice Strong.
• Founded: 1972
• Member States: 193.

The correct answer is the production possibility curve.

Key Points

• The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a production possibility curve.
• A production possibilities curve (PPC) shows the maximum amount of one good that can be produced given a production level for some other good, and given the total amounts of inputs available for the production of both goods, and given the technology of production.
• The PPC shows the limits on the outputs of goods because society does not have unlimited resources. And it shows the trade-off society must bear if more of a good is to be produced.

​

• The Curve shows all of the possible combinations of 2 goods or services that can be produced within a specified time with all its resources fully and efficiently employed.

Additional Information 

• The demand curve for unitary elastic demand is a rectangular hyperbola.
• When the proportionate change in demand produces the same change in the price of the product the demand is referred to as unitary elastic demand.
• A budget line is a graphical representation of various combinations of two goods that a consumer can afford at specified prices of the products at a particular income level.
• A budget line can be drawn on the basis of the expenditure plan.
• Marginal Utility is the change in total utility due to a one-unit change in the level of consumption.

The correct answer is Cytoplasm.

Key Points

• Cytoplasm include/s glycogen, poly-β- hydroxybutyrate granules, sulphur granules and gas vesicles.
• The cytoplasm consists of material outside the nucleus in the cell.
• It consists of the cytoskeleton, ribosomes, and centrosome.
• The cytoplasm is a gelatin-like, semi-transparent fluid.
• It contains organelles such as mitochondrion, Golgi apparatus, vacuoles, plastids, cell wall, and the endoplasmic reticulum.

The correct answer is Orinthology.

Key Points

• The word Ornithology comes from two Greek words-'Ornis' (Birds) and 'logos' (theory).
• It deals with the scientific study of all aspects of birds like body shape, appearance, habitat, migration pattern, mating behaviour, warning predators, flock movement, voice, ability to mimic, etc.
• A person who studies birds is known as an Ornithologist.

Important Points

• Gerontology is known as the study of old age.
• Pomology is the branch of science that involves the study of Fruits.
• Ichthyology is the branch of zoology which deals with the study of fish, including bony fish, cartilaginous fish, and jawless fish.

Additional Information

• Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) or the Bonn Convention is the only global convention that provides a platform for the conservation of migratory species, their habitat, migration routes, etc.
• India became a signatory to the Bonn Convention for the conservation of migratory species in 1983.
• The 13th COP (Conference of Parties) of CMS was hosted by India in February 2020 at Gandhinagar (Gujarat).
• The Theme of CMS COP 13 was "Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home".
• The COP 13 logo was inspired by 'Kolam' which is a traditional art form of South India.
• Gibi- The Great Indian Bustard' was the mascot for CMS COP 13.
• The Great Indian Bustard is a critically endangered species under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

• Article 371H
• States the Special provision concerning the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is added in 55th Amendment Act, 1986.

Additional Information 

• Articles 370 - 371J
• Article 371, Maharashtra and Gujarat,1960.
• Article 371A (13th Amendment Act, 1962), Nagaland.
• Article 371B (22nd Amendment Act, 1969), Assam.
• Article 371C (27th Amendment Act, 1971), Manipur.
• Article 371D (32nd Amendment Act, 1973; substituted by The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014), Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
• Article 371 E- Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh.
• Article 371F (36th Amendment Act, 1975), Sikkim.
• Article 371G (53rd Amendment Act, 1986), Mizoram.
• Article 371H (55th Amendment Act, 1986), Arunachal Pradesh.
• Article 371J (98th Amendment Act, 2012), Karnataka.
• Article 371I deals with Goa.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The Koyna Dam is one of the largest dams in Maharashtra.
• The dam is constructed on the Koyna River.
• It has created the Shivasagar Lake.
• The main purpose of the dam is hydroelectricity with some irrigation in neighbouring areas.

Additional Information

• Koyna River
• The Koyna River is a tributary of the Krishna River.
• It originates in Mahableshwar, Satara district, and meets the Krishna River in Karad, Satara district.
• Koyna and Krishna river originates at Mahabaleshwar, they diverge at their origin and travel for about the same distance to meet again in Karad which is 100 km from Mahabaleshwar.
• Krishna and Koyna river's confluence is called Preeti Sangam, meaning Confluence of Love.

Important PointsHistory and extent of dams in India:

• India’s first dam is the Kallanai built on the Cauvery river by King Karikalan of the Chola dynasty around 2,000 years ago.
• The dam, which is still functional and irrigates millions of acres, spans 329 m in length and 20 m in width.
• However, it was only post-independence that India’s love for big dams became more intense with the commissioning of a slew of projects including the Hirakud (1957), Gandhisagar (1960), Bhakra-Nangal (1963) and Nagarjuna Sagar (1967).
• Since then, the country has been continuously working on reining in its rivers for want of power, irrigation and domestic and industrial water supply needs.
• Almost half of the large dams in the country were built in the two decades of 1970-90.
• Maharashtra has the maximum number of large dams in the country (1845) followed by Madhya Pradesh (905) and Gujarat (666).

The correct answer is Razia Sultana.

Key Points

• Radhiyah bint Itutmish or popularly known as Razia Sultana was the ruler of Delhi from 1236 to 1240.
• She was the first Muslim female ruler and succeeded her father Itutmish and became the Sultanate of Delhi in 1236.
• She refused to be addressed as a Sultana but claimed herself the title "Sultan".
• Born to - Sultan Iltutmish and Qutub Begum.
• Dynasty - Slave dynasty.
• Kingdom - Delhi Sultanate.

Additional Information

• There were 5 dynasties in the Delhi Sultanate.
• The Mamluk dynasty was the first dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
• It reigned from 1206-1290.
• The Khilji dynasty was the second dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
• It reigned from 1290-1320.
• The Tughlaq dynasty was the third dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
• It reigned from 1320-1414.
• The Sayyid dynasty was the fourth dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
• It reigned from 1414-1451.
• The Lodhi dynasty was the fifth dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
• It reigned from 1451-1526.

The correct answer is Mauryan Empire.

Key Points

• In the Mauryan empire Kautilya refers to two types of courts :
• Dharmasthiyas (dealt with civil matters).
• Kantakasodhana(dealt with criminal matters).

Additional Information

• Mauryan Empire (321 BCE - 185 BCE):
• Chandragupta Maurya (321 BCE - 297 BCE):
• Founder of the Maurya Dynasty and credited with the setting up of the first (nearly) pan-Indian empire.
• Known as Sandrakottos to the Greeks and Androkottus by Aerian and Plutark.
• William Jones was the 1st scholar who recognized Sandrokottos as Chandragupta Maurya.
• Kautilya mentored Chandragupta and prepared him for a takeover of Magadha.
• Set up a vast centralized empire (details of whose functioning, society, military, and economy are well preserved in Kautilya's Arthashastra).
• Defeated the invading army of the Eastern part of Alexander's empire Seleucus (305 BCE).​
• Megasthenese was a Greek ambassador sent to the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
• Chandragupta in his later years accepted Jainism.
• Accompanied Bhadrabahu to Karnataka and later died by following the ritual of sallekhana, i.e., fasting till death.
• Bindusara (297 BCE - 273 BCE):
• 2nd Mauryan Emperor of India and he was the son of Chandragupta Maurya.
• Known as Amitrochates to the Greeks. In Jain texts, he was known as Simhasena.
• Antiochus sent Deimachus as an ambassador to Bindusara's court.
• Chanakya also remained the chief advisor of Bindusara.
• Bindusara was an able monarch who was successful in consolidating the empire established by his father.
• Bindusara patronized the Ajivikas.
• Ashoka the Great (268 BCE - 232 BCE):
• 3rd king of the Mauryan Empire.
• He was known for:
• Renunciation of war after the Kalinga war.
• Development of the concept of Dhamma (pious social conduct, welfare of humanity).
• Promotion of Buddhism.
• Effective reign of a nearly pan-Indian political entity.
• Under Ashoka, the Mauryan Empire stretched from modern-day Iran through almost the entirety of the Indian subcontinent.
• Ashoka initially rules this vast empire through the political treatise's precepts known as the Arthashastra.
• In his inscriptions, he was called Devanampriya or Devanapiyadasi.​
• Most of the inscriptions were written in Prakrit language in Brahmi script except only two which were in Kharoshti script.
• In 1837, James Prinsep become the 1st scholar who deciphered Ashoka's inscription.
• Brihadratha:
• Last Mauryan ruler.
• Assassinated by Pushyamitra Sunga and established his own Sunga dynasty.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

• The headquarters of IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India) is located in Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The full form of the abbreviation IDBI is the Industrial Development Bank of India.
• It was established in 1964 and came into operation on July 1, 1964, to provide credit and other financial facilities for the development of industries in India.
• IDBI Bank has been categorized as a private sector bank by the Reserve Bank of India, with effect from January 21, 2019.
• The move came following the acquisition by Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) having a 51% stake in the bank.

The correct answer is Lalit Modi.

Key Points

• Lalit Modi was the founder & first Chairman and Commissioner of the Indian Premier League (IPL) and ran the tournament for three years until 2010.
• In 2010 he was announced as the second most powerful person in Indian Sports by Sports Illustrated.
• Brijesh Patel is the present Chairman of the Indian Premier League in the year 2020.
• There have been thirteen seasons of the IPL tournament.
• The 2021 IPL title holders are the Chennai Super Kings.

Important Points

• The Indian Premier League (IPL) 2022 ended with Gujarat Titans (GT) lifting the trophy by defeating inaugural champions Rajasthan Royals (RR) at the Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad.
• The Indian Premier League (IPL) 2022, was the 15th edition of the professional Twenty20 cricket league established by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• The host country for IPl 2022 was India.
• The Orange Cap title winner is Jos Butler (Rajasthan Royals) with Total runs: 863 runs.
• The Purple Cap title winner is Yuzvendra Chahal (Rajasthan Royals) with total 27 Wickets.
• IPL 2022 Sponsorer was TATA.

Additional Information

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = 14 × 18 = 252 units.

Work done in first 5 days = 14 × 5 = 70 units.

Work done on last day (all 14 present) = 14 × 1 = 14 units.

Remaining work = 252 − (70 + 14) = 168 units.

Days with 8 workers = 168 ÷ 8 = 21 days.

Total days = 5 + 21 + 1 = 27 days.

∴ The correct answer is 27 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial workers = 14, Initial days = 18. Workers left = 6. Joining back = Last day.

Formula Used: Total Work = Number of Persons × Number of Days

⇒ Total Work = 14 × 18 = 252 units

⇒ Work in first 5 days = 14 × 5 = 70 units

⇒ Work on the very last day (all returned) = 14 × 1 = 14 units

⇒ Work remaining for the middle period = 252 − 70 − 14 = 168 units

⇒ Number of workers in middle period = 14 − 6 = 8 workers

⇒ Time for middle period = 168 ÷ 8 = 21 days

⇒ Total time taken = 5 (initial) + 21 (middle) + 1 (last) = 27 days

∴ The correct answer is 27 days.

Additional Information

Man-Days Concept

The total work is always constant and is calculated as the product of the number of men and the number of days (M₁D₁ = M₂D₂).

Work Equivalence Formula

For varying number of people over different periods: Total Work = (m₁ × d₁) + (m₂ × d₂) + ... + (m_n × d_n).

No. of persons earn less than Rs 200 = 12

No. of persons earn Rs 300 or more = 50 - 34 = 16 [We don't take 40 because 350 or less than that is also less than 400]

So, ratio = 12 : 16

⇒ 3 : 4

∴ Required ratio is 3 : 4

Key Points

 

The above-mentioned table is the crux of the given table in the question. Now from the above table, we can say that the number of persons in the income ranging less than 200 is 12 and the number of persons earning Rs 300 or more is 16 i.e. (06 + 10)

Hence, the desired ratio is:- 12 : 16 = 3 : 4

Given:

Marked price = 27% above the cost price

After giving x% discount on marked price there is still a profit of 6.68%

Concept used:

S.P. = C.P. × [(100 + gain%)/100] (S.P. = Selling price, C.P.= Cost price)

S.P. = [M.P. – (M.P. × Discount %)] (M.P. = Marked price)

Calculation:

Let the C.P. of the article be Rs. 100 units.

So,

The S.P. of the article is = [(100 + 6.68)/100] × 100

⇒ 106.68 units

The M.P. of the article is = [100x + (100x × 27%)]

⇒ 100 + 27

⇒ 127 units

Now,

The S.P. of the article is = [127 - (127 × x%)] = 106.68

⇒ 127 - 127x/100 = 106.68

⇒ 127 – 1.27x = 106.68

⇒ 1.27x = 127 -106.68

⇒ x = 20.32/1.27

⇒ x = 16

∴ The value of x is 16.

Shortcut Trick

Initial ratio of A : B is 5 : 8 (Difference = 3 units).

Final ratio after adding 5 is 2 : 3 (Difference = 1 unit).

To make the differences equal, multiply the second ratio by 3: (2 : 3) × 3 = 6 : 9.

Change in each part is 1 unit (from 5 to 6 or 8 to 9), which equals the added value 5.

Difference in A and B = 3 units = 3 × 5 = 15.

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio A : B = 5 : 8 and the ratio becomes 2 : 3 when 5 is added to both.

Formula: If numbers are in ratio a : b, they can be taken as ax and bx.

Let the two numbers A and B be 5x and 8x respectively.

⇒ (5x + 5) / (8x + 5) = 2 / 3

⇒ 3 × (5x + 5) = 2 × (8x + 5)

⇒ 15x + 15 = 16x + 10

⇒ 16x − 15x = 15 − 10

⇒ x = 5

⇒ Number A = 5 × 5 = 25

⇒ Number B = 8 × 5 = 40

⇒ Difference = 40 − 25 = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Additional Information

Ratio Difference Logic

When the same quantity is added to or subtracted from both terms of a ratio, the absolute difference between the parts remains proportional to the value added/subtracted.

Proportion Rule

If a/b = c/d, then ad = bc. This cross-multiplication is the standard algebraic way to solve ratio change problems.

Equating Parts

To solve ratio problems quickly, always aim to make the ratio difference consistent between the initial and final states by multiplying with a suitable constant.

Alternate Method Time taken by A to cover  40 km distance = t + 2 hours, where t is the time taken by B to cover the distance.

Time taken by A to cover the 40 km distance when its speed is double = Time taken to cover 80 km distance/2 = (2t + 3/2)/2 = t + 3/4

Distance = (S₁ × S₂)/(S₁ - S₂) [Time difference]

Here, S₁ = x, S₂ = 2x (For A)

40 = 2x × x/(2x - x)[t + 2 - t - 3/4]

⇒ 40 = 2x(5/4)

⇒ x = 16

Actual time taken by A = 40/16 = 2.5 hours

Actual time taken by B = 2.5 -  2 = 0.5 hour

Speed of B = 40/0.5 = 80 km/h

Required time taken by B = 120/80 = 3/2 hours

Traditional method:

Given:

A takes 2 hours more than B to cover a distance of 40 km

When A doubles his speed, he takes 1.5 hours more than B to travel 80 km

Concept used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let The speed B be x km/h.

Time taken by B to cover 40km = 40/x hour

Time taken by A to cover 40km = [(40/x) + 2] hour

Speed of A = (40)/[(40 + 2)/x] kmph

⇒ (20x)/(20 + x) kmph ……… (1)

Now,

Time taken by B to cover 80 km = 80/x hour

When A doubles his speed = (40x)/(20 + x) kmph

Time taken by A to cover 80 km = 80/(40x)/(20 + x)

⇒ (40 + 2x)/x hour

Now in this case,

A takes 1.5 hour more than B to travel 80 km

So,

⇒ (40 + 2x)/x - 80/x = 3/2

⇒ (40 + 2x - 80)/x = 3/2

⇒ 4x - 80 = 3x

⇒ x = 80

So,

Speed of B is 80 kmph.

Now,

To cover a distance of 120 km, B will take

⇒ 120/80 = 1.5 hours

∴ To cover a distance of 120 km, B will take 1.5 hours.

Shortcut TrickLet, time taken by B = t hours and, A = t + 2

Now, the speed of B = 40/t kmph and the speed of A = 40/(t + 2) kmph

We know, Distance = Speed × time

To travel a distance of 80 km A doubles his speed

A takes = $\frac{80}{\frac{80}{t+2}}$ = (t + 2) hours

B takes = 80/(40/t) = 2t hours

According to the question,

t + 2 - 2t = $1\frac{1}{2}$

⇒ t = 1/2

Now B takes 1/2 hours to cover 40 km

∴ B will travel 120 km in (3 × 1/2) = 3/2 hours = $1\frac{1}{2}$ hours

Given:

3 × 8 ÷ 9 of 6 - 2 ÷ 3 × (5 - 2) × 2 + 18 ÷ 3 of 3

Concept used:

Calculation:

3 × 8 ÷ 9 of 6 - 2 ÷ 3 × (5 - 2) × 2 + 18 ÷ 3 of 3

⇒ 3 × 8 ÷ 9 of 6 - 2 ÷ 3 × 3 × 2 + 18 ÷ 3 of 3

⇒ 3 × 8/54 - 2/3 × 3 × 2 + 18/9

⇒ 4/9 - 4 + 2

⇒ (4 - 36 + 18)/9

⇒ - 14/9

⇒ $-1\frac{5}{9}$

∴ Required answer is $-1\frac{5}{9}$

Given:

CD = 16 cm

DE = 6 cm

AE = 12 cm

BE = x

Concept used:

In a circle, chords AB and CD intersect internally at a point E then,

AE × BE = CE × DE

Calculation:

CD = 16 cm

DE = 6 cm

CE = 16 - 6 = 10cm

According to the concept,

12 × x = 6 × 10

⇒ x = 5

 ∴ The value of x is 5cm.

Given:

a2 + b2 + c2 + 216 = 12(a + b - 2c)

Concept used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

(a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab

Calculation:

a2 + b2 + c2 + 216 = 12(a + b - 2c)

⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 + 216 = 12a + 12b - 24c

⇒ a2 - 12a + 36 + b2 - 12b + 36 + c2 + 24c + 144 = 0

⇒ (a - 6)²+ (b - 6)² + (c + 12)² = 0

(a - 6) = 0

(b - 6) = 0

(c + 12) = 0

So, a = 6

b = 6

c = - 12

$\sqrt{ab-bc-ca}$

⇒ $\sqrt{6\times6-6\times(-12)-(-12)\times 6}$

⇒ $\sqrt{36 + 72+72}$

⇒ $\sqrt{180}$

⇒ 6√5

∴ The value of $\sqrt{ab-bc-ca}$ is 6√5

Given:

DE = (1/2) BC

AD + CE + BC = 30 cm

Concept used:

If in a ΔABC, DE is a line parallel to BC and half of BC and D and E are midpoints of AB and AC respectively, then the Δ ABC and Δ ADE are similar triangles.

And, AD/AB = AE/AC = DE/BC

Calculation:

AD + CE + BC = 30 cm

Since,

Δ ABC is an equilateral triangle so  AB = AC = BC

And D and E are midpoints of AB and AC respectively,

⇒ AD = AE and DB = EC

AD + DB + BC = 30

⇒ AB + BC = 30

⇒ 2AB = 30

⇒ AB = 15

Hence.

⇒ AB = BC = CA = 15 and,

⇒ AD = DB = AE = EC = DE = (15/2) =7.5

Now,

The perimeter of the quadrilateral BCED,

⇒ BC + CE + ED + BD = 15 + 7.5 + 7.5 + 7.5 = 37.5

∴ The perimeter (in cm) of the quadrilateral BCED is 37.5.

Given:

tan35° cot40° tan45° cot50° tan55°

Concept used:

Calculation:

tan35° cot40° tan45° cot50° tan55°

⇒ tan35° tan(90 - 55)° cot40° cot(90 - 50)° tan45°

⇒ tan35° cot35° cot40° tan40° tan45°

⇒ tan35° 1/tan35° cot40° 1/cot40° tan45°

⇒ tan45°

⇒ 1

∴ The required value is 1

Given:

A sold an article to B at a profit of 25%.

B sold it to C at a profit of 15%.

The profit made by B is Rs. 40 less than the profit made by A.

Concept used:

Profit = S.P. – C.P. (S.P. = Selling price, C.P.= Cost price)

S.P. = C.P. + (C.P. × profit%)

Calculation:

Let A bought the article for Rs.100x 

A sold it to B at [100x + (100x × 25%)] = Rs.125x

Profit earned by A = (125x – 100x) = Rs. 25x

So,

B bought the article for Rs. 125x 

B sold it to C at [125x + (125x × 15%)] = 143.75x

Profit earned by B = (143.75x – 125x) = Rs. 18.75x

According to the question,

25x – 18.75x = 40

⇒ 6.25x = 40

⇒ x = 6.4

So,

A bought the article for (100 × 6.4) = 640 Rs.

∴ The cost price (in Rs.) of the article for A is 640.

Students studying Arts in the institutes B and D taken together = 45 + 45 = 90

Students studying Computer Science in the institutes A and C taken together = 57 + 51 = 108

So. percentage = (108/90) × 100 = 120%

∴ Answer is 120%

Given:

Weight of A is 20% more than weight of B

weight of B is 30% more than weight of C.

Concept used:

Final Value = Actual Value + (Actual value × %age increase)

Calculation:

Let value of C be 100x

Value of B = 100x + [(100x × 30)/100] = 130x

Value of A = 130x + [(130x × 20)/100] = 156x

So,

The weight of A is (156x – 100x) = 56x more than C.

The weight of A is (56x × 100)/100 = 56% more than C

∴ The weight of A is 56% more than C

Given:

A certain sum amounts to Rs. 81840 in 3 years

And to Rs. 92400 in 5 years

Rate of interest = x %

Concept used:

S.I. = PRT/100

S.I. = Simple Interest

P= Principal

R = Rate of interest

T = Time in years

Amount = P + S.I.

Calculation:

S.I. for 2 years = 92400 - 81840 = 10560 Rs.

S.I. for 1 year = 10560/2 = 5280 Rs.

S.I for 3 years = 5280 × 3 = 15840 Rs

So, the principal = 81840 - 15840

⇒ 66000 Rs.

Now,

(66000 × x × 3)/100 = 15840

⇒ x = 8

Now, if the rate of interest is 8 + 2 = 10% p.a. the sum doubles itself.

Let the sum doubles itself in t years. If Principal = x then Amount = 2x

So, Interest = Amount - Principal = 2x - x = x

      Interest = Principal 

(66000 × 10 × t)/100 = 66000

⇒ t = 10

∴ The same sum will double itself in 10 years.

Given:

The average of squares of five consecutive odd natural numbers is 233.

Concept:

(A + B)² = A² + 2AB + B²

(A – B)² = A² - 2AB + B²

Calculation:

Let the consecutive odd numbers be (a - 4), (a - 2), a, (a + 2), (a + 4)

Now, according to the question

⇒ [(a - 4)² + (a - 2)² + a² + (a + 2)² + (a + 4)² ]/5 = 233

⇒ (a² – 8a + 16 + a² – 4a + 4 + a² + a² + 4a + 4 + a² + 8a + 16)/5 = 233

⇒ (5a² + 40)/5 = 233

⇒ a² + 8 = 233

⇒ a² = 225

⇒ a = 15

So,

The largest number = 15 + 4 = 19

The lowest number = 15 – 4 = 11

So,

The average of these two numbers = (19 + 11)/2 = 30/2 = 15

 ∴The average of the largest number and the smallest number is 15

Given:

BD = 3 cm

DA = 4 cm

Concept used:

Concept of similarity

Calculation:

Here ΔABC ∼ ΔBDE [∵ DE || AC and ∠B is common for two triangles]

So,

ΔABC/ΔBDE = 7²/3²

⇒ ΔABC/ΔBDE = 49/9

ACED = ΔABC - ΔBDE

⇒ 49 - 9 = 40

∴ Ratio is 9 : 40

∴ Then Area of ΔBDE : Area of trapezium ACED is 9 : 40

Given:

(x - y + z)2 - (x - y - z)2

Formula used:

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

(x - y + z)2 - (x - y - z)2

⇒ (x - y + z + x - y - z)(x - y + z - x + y + z)

⇒ (2x - 2y)(2z)

⇒ 4xz - 4yz

∴ Required answer is 4xz - 4yz

Given:

Area of a quadrant of a circle is $\frac{π}{9}$ m2

Formula used:

The area of a quadrant of a circle is equal to one-fourth of the area of the circle and is equal to πr²/4

Calculation:

Let radius be r

So,

πr²/4 = π/9

⇒ r² = 4/9

⇒ r = 2/3

∴ Radius of the circle is 2/3 m

Total numbers of female = 300 + 275 + 250 + 200 + 125

⇒ 1150

Average = 1150/5 = 230

No. of boys in A = 250

Difference = 250 - 230 = 20

No. of boys in B = 225

Difference = 230 - 225 = 5

No. of boys in C = 325

Difference = 325 - 230 = 95

No. of boys in D = 275

Difference = 275 - 230 = 45

No. of boys in E = 150

Difference = 230 - 150 = 80

In B difference is the lowest i.e 5

∴ Required answer is B

Given:

sin(20 + x)° = cos 60°

Concept used:

Cos(90 - θ) = sinθ

Calculaton:

sin(20 + x)° = cos 60°

⇒ sin(20 + x)° = cos(90 - 30)°

⇒ sin(20 + x)° = sin30°

⇒ (20 + x)° = 30°

⇒ x° = 30 - 20 = 10°

So,

2sin2(3x + 15)° - cosec2(2x + 10)° = 2sin2(30 + 15)° - cosec2(20 + 10)°

⇒ 2sin245° - cosec230°

⇒ 2 × 1/2 - 4

⇒ 1 - 4

⇒ - 3

∴ Required answer is - 3

Given:

$\left(2a+\frac{3}{a}-1\right)=11$

Formula used:

(a + 1/a)² = a² + 1/a² + 2

Calculation:

$\left(2a+\frac{3}{a}-1\right)=11$

⇒ 2a + 3/a = 12

⇒ (2a + 3/a)² = 12²

⇒ 4a² + 9/a² + 2 × 2a × 3/a= 144

⇒ 4a2 + 9/a2 + 12 = 144

⇒ 4a2 + 9/a2 = 132

∴ The value of $\left(4a^2+\frac{9}{a^2}\right)$is 132

Number of employees whose daily wages are Rs. 200 or more but less than Rs. 400 = 5 + 9 = 14

Number of employees whose daily wages are Rs. 400 or more but less than Rs. 600 = 12 + 11 = 23

Ratio = 14 : 23

∴ Required ratio is 14 : 23

Given:

72k460k is divisible by 6.

Concept used:

The divisibility rule for 2 is the last digit should be an even number

The divisibility rule for 3 is the sum of all digits should be divisible by 3

Calculation:

If k = 0

7 + 2 + 0 + 4 + 6 + 0 + 0 = 19 [Not divisible by 3]

If k = 2

7 + 2 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0 + 2 = 23 [Not divisible by 3]

If k = 4

7 + 2 + 4 + 4 + 6 + 0 + 4 = 27 [Divisible by 3]

If k = 8

7 + 2 + 8 + 4 + 6 + 0 + 8 = 35 [Not divisible by 3]

∴ Required value of k is 4

Given:

Radius = 13 cm

∠APB = 60°

The distance of AB from the center O is 5 cm

Concept used:

If from one external point, two tangents are drawn to a circle then they have equal tangent segments.

Calculation:

Since OM = 5(given)

OA = 13 (given)

Using Pythagoras theorem

AM = 12

As AB = 2 AM(Perpendicular from the center bisect the chord in equal part)

AB = 2 × 12 = 24.

In ΔPAB,

∠APB = 60° (given)

As PA = PB (as two tangents are equal from the same point)

So ΔPAB will be an equilateral triangle.

So, AP = 24 cm

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Confusion PointsThere is a mistake in the question in this official paper because we get different answers by taking ΔAPM and ΔAPO.

We know that the radius from the center of the circle to the point of tangency is perpendicular to the tangent. Hence ΔAPO is also a right-angled triangle. So in ΔAPO,

tan 30° = OA/AP

⇒ 1/√3 = 13/PA 

⇒ AP = 13√3 which is not given in the options.

Additional InformationConditions for similarity of triangles:

Angle-Angle-Angle: If in two triangles, corresponding angles are equal, then their corresponding sides are in the same ratio (or proportion), and hence both triangles are similar.

SSS (Side-Side-Side): If in two triangles, the sides of one triangle are equal to are proportional to the sides, then their corresponding angles are equal, and hence both triangles are similar.

SAS (Side-Angle-Side): If the angles of a triangle are equal and the sides including these angles are proportional, then both triangles are identical.

Given:

sec(5α - 15°) = cosec(15° - 2α)

Concept used:

Calculation:

sec(5α - 15°) = cosec(15° - 2α)

⇒ sec(5α - 15°) = cosec(90 - 15° + 2α)

⇒ sec(5α - 15°) = sec (75° + 2α)

⇒ 5α - 15° = 75° + 2α

⇒ 3α = 75° + 15°

⇒ α = 30°

cosα + sin2α + tan(1.5α)

⇒ cos30° + sin60° + tan45°

⇒ √3/2 + √3/2 + 1

⇒ (√3 + √3 + 2)/2

⇒ (2√3 + 2)/2

⇒ 2(√3 + 1)/2

⇒ (√3 + 1)

∴ Required answer is (√3 + 1)

The correct answer is 'BADC.'

Key Points

• The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "an observation by Spanish scientist Santiago Ramón y Cajal". Hence, 'B' is the first part.
• Sentence A will come after B as it is explaining the observation made by the scientist i.e. the neuron theory.
• Sentence D will come after A as it is further explaining the neuron theory.
• The sentence 'C' is the concluding part because it is talking about the final output of the theory.
  

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: The watershed of all studies of the nervous system was an observation made in 1889 by Spanish scientist Santiago Ramón y Cajal. According to his hypothesis, now known as the neuron theory, each nerve cell communicates with others through contiguity rather than continuity. That is, communication between adjacent but separate cells must take place across the space and barriers separating them. It has since been proved that Cajal’s theory is not universally true, but his central idea has remained an accurate guiding principle for all further study.

Hint

• Important Rules to Solve the Para Jumbles:
• Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
• Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
• Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.
  

Hinglish

• वाक्य 'B' किसी अन्य वाक्य से स्वतंत्र है क्योंकि यह "स्पेनिश वैज्ञानिक सैंटियागो रामोन वाई काजल द्वारा एक अवलोकन" के बारे में सामान्य जानकारी दे रहा है। अतः 'B' पहला भाग है।
• वाक्य A, B के बाद आएगा क्योंकि यह वैज्ञानिक द्वारा किए गए अवलोकन यानी न्यूरॉन सिद्धांत की व्याख्या कर रहा है।
• वाक्य D, A के बाद आएगा क्योंकि यह आगे न्यूरॉन सिद्धांत की व्याख्या कर रहा है।
• वाक्य 'C' समापन भाग है क्योंकि यह सिद्धांत के अंतिम आउटपुट के बारे में बात कर रहा है।

The correct answer is 'Ranbir could not went' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the past tense form of the verb 'went' is incorrect.
• The verb 'could' in the given sentence is a modal verb.
• The modal verb 'could' is followed by the main verb and the main verb also stays in its base form.
• Also, the main verb that is used with 'could' does not change form according to the subject.
• Therefore, the base form of the verb 'go' should be used in place of the past tense form of the verb 'went'.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: Ranbir could not go to the award ceremony as he was busy shooting for a film in the Maldives.

Hinglish

• दिए गए वाक्य में क्रिया 'went' का भूतकाल रूप गलत है।
• दिए गए वाक्य में क्रिया 'could' एक modal verb है।
• Modal verb 'could' के बाद मुख्य क्रिया आती है और मुख्य क्रिया भी अपने मूल रूप में रहती है।
• साथ ही जिस मुख्य क्रिया के साथ 'could' प्रयोग किया जाता है, वह विषय के अनुसार रूप नहीं बदलता है।
• इसलिए, भूतकाल क्रिया 'went' के स्थान पर मूल रूप क्रिया 'go' का प्रयोग किया जाना चाहिए।
  

अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।

सही वाक्य: Ranbir could not go to the award ceremony as he was busy shooting for a film in the Maldives.

The correct answer is 'was pulled down.'

Key Points

• In the underlined segment, the phrasal verb ''pulled out'' is incorrect.
• The given sentence is talking about a contractor surveying the progress of the work after an old building was demolished.
• The phrasal verb ''pulled out'' means (of a vehicle) move out from the side of the road, or from its normal position in order to overtake.
• Therefore, the phrasal verb ''pulled down'' should be used in place of the phrasal verb ''pulled out''.
• The phrasal verb ''pulled down'' means demolish a building.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: After the old building was pulled down, the building contractor surveyed the progress of the work.

Additional Information

 

• ''Pulled over'' means (used about a vehicle or its driver) to slow down and move to the side of the road. (''Pulled over'' का अर्थ है कार या उसके चालक का गति मंद करते हुए सड़क के किनारे हो जाना)
• ''Pulled up'' means (to cause a car, etc.) to stop. (''Pulled up'' का अर्थ है कार आदि को रोक देना)
  

Hinglish

• दिए गए रेखांकित खण्ड में phrasal verb ''pulled out'' गलत है।
• दिया गया वाक्य एक पुराने भवन को गिराए जाने के बाद कार्य की प्रगति का सर्वेक्षण करने वाले ठेकेदार के बारे में बात कर रहा है।
• Phrasal verb ''pulled out'' का अर्थ है कार आदि का सड़क के किनारे से आगे बढ़ जाना।
• इसलिए, phrasal verb ''pulled out'' के स्थान पर phrasal verb ''pulled down'' का प्रयोग किया जाना चाहिए।
• Phrasal verb ''pulled down'' का अर्थ है एक इमारत को ध्वस्त करना।
  

अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

सही वाक्य: After the old building was pulled down, the building contractor surveyed the progress of the work.

The correct answer is 'This problem can be solved by you.'

Key Points

• In Active Voice, a sentence emphasizes the subject, performing an action.
• In Passive Voice, a sentence emphasizes the action or the object of the sentence.
• The given sentence is in the active voice and it is in the present simple tense.
• When we convert this sentence into a passive voice, the subject ''You'' of the active voice becomes the object, the object ''this problem'' becomes the subject.
• The active format "V1 (solve)" should be converted into the passive format "be + V3 (solved)".
• This is the active and passive voice rule for the present simple tense.
• In general, we follow this structure to use modal verbs in the passive voice: Modal verb + be + past participle.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

Verbs of passive format have a different set of tenses (*V3 - Past participle or Third form of the Verb) as given below in the table:

 

Hinglish

• Active Voice में , एक वाक्य विषय पर जोर देता है, एक क्रिया करता है।
• Passive Voice में , एक वाक्य वाक्य की क्रिया या वस्तु पर जोर देता है।
• दिया गया वाक्य active voice में है और यह present simple tense में है।
• जब हम इस वाक्य को passive voice में बदलते हैं, तो active voice का subject 'You', object बन जाता है और object 'this problem', subject बन जाता है।
• Active format "V1 (solve)" को passive format "be + V3 (solved)" में परिवर्तित किया जाना चाहिए।
• यह present simple tense के लिए active and passive voice rule है।
• सामान्य तौर पर, हम passive voice में मोडल क्रियाओं का उपयोग करने के लिए इस संरचना का पालन करते हैं: Modal verb + be + past participle।
  

अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

The correct answer is 'reaction.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about an allergy caused by some medicine.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'reaction'.
• The word 'reaction' means a bad effect that your body experiences because of something that you have eaten, touched, or breathed. 
• Example: He had an allergic reaction to something in the food.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Complete Sentence: My neighbor was admitted to the hospital when he developed an allergic reaction to some medicine he took.

Additional Information

• Let us explore  the other options:
• 'Result' means to happen or exist because of something. (परिणाम, नतीजा)
• 'Retort' means to reply quickly to what somebody says, in an angry or amusing way. (चिढ़कर या विनोदी ढंग से किसी की बात का तुरंत जवाब देना)
• 'Rejoinder' means a reply or response to a remark, question, etc., especially one that is quick, funny or critical. (प्रत्युत्तर विशेषकर परिहासयुक्त टिप्पणी, प्रश्न आदि का)
  

Hinglish

• दिया गया वाक्य किसी दवा के कारण होने वाली एलर्जी के बारे में बात कर रहा है।
• इसलिए, रिक्त स्थान में भरने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द 'reaction' है।
• 'Reaction' शब्द का अर्थ है किसी वस्‍तु को खाने, छूने या सूँघने से शरीर पर पड़ा कुप्रभाव।
• उदाहरण: He had an allergic reaction to something in the food.

<br>

अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।

पूर्ण वाक्य: My neighbor was admitted to the hospital when he developed an allergic reaction to some medicine he took.