Official Paper

RRB JE CBT 2 (Electronics Engineering) ReExam Official Paper (Held On: 04 Jun, 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General Abilities (50 questions)

1

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

  1. ((a))

    Dissolution of sugar in water

  2. ((b))

    Curdling of milk

  3. ((c))

    Freezing of water

  4. ((d))

    Tearing of paper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dissolution of sugar in water

2

If the area of contact increases while keeping the thrust constant, the pressure will __________.

  1. ((a))

    increase

  2. ((b))

    remain the same

  3. ((c))

    first increase, then decrease

  4. ((d))

    decrease

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

increase

3

What happens when you use the 'Sort A to Z' option on a column containing text? 

  1. ((a))

    The text remains unchanged.

  2. ((b))

    The text is sorted alphabetically from A to Z.

  3. ((c))

    The text is sorted from Z to A. 

  4. ((d))

    The text is converted into numbers.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The text remains unchanged.

4

The method of storage of nuclear wastes is to be done in _______.

  1. ((a))

    bottles

  2. ((b))

    dustbins

  3. ((c))

    open containers

  4. ((d))

    shielded containers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bottles

5

When were the 38th National Games held in Uttarakhand?

  1. ((a))

    January 15 - 30, 2025

  2. ((b))

    January 28 - February 14, 2025

  3. ((c))

    February 10 - 25, 2025

  4. ((d))

    February 1 - 20, 2025

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

January 15 - 30, 2025

6

In December 2024, Jasprit Bumrah became the fastest Indian bowler to reach 200 Test wickets during which of the following series/tournament? 

  1. ((a))

    Border-Gavaskar Trophy

  2. ((b))

    India vs England Test Series

  3. ((c))

    Asia Cup

  4. ((d))

    India vs New Zealand Test Series

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Border-Gavaskar Trophy

7

The Railways Employment of Members of the Armed Forces Act was passed in which of the following years?

  1. ((a))

    1951

  2. ((b))

    1962

  3. ((c))

    1965

  4. ((d))

    1957

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1951

8

Where is the magnetic field strength maximum around a magnet?

  1. ((a))

    Equidistant from the poles 

  2. ((b))

    At the poles of the magnet

  3. ((c))

    At infinity

  4. ((d))

    At the centre of the magnet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Equidistant from the poles 

9

In an experiment, 25 g of reactant A reacts with 35 g of reactant B to form 50 g of product C and some amount of product D. What is the mass of product D?

  1. ((a))

    35 g

  2. ((b))

    25 g

  3. ((c))

    60 g

  4. ((d))

    10 g

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35 g

10

Which of the following is a zero waste procedure?

  1. ((a))

    Pest management

  2. ((b))

    Organic farming

  3. ((c))

    Integrated organic farming

  4. ((d))

    Inorganic farming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pest management

11

The greenhouse gas that is known to contribute the least amount to global warming is ___________.

  1. ((a))

    carbon dioxide

  2. ((b))

    methane

  3. ((c))

    CFCs

  4. ((d))

    nitrous oxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

carbon dioxide

12

Two objects of masses 80 kg and 250 kg are placed 200 m apart. What is the gravitational force between them? (G = 6.7 × 10-11 N.m2/kg2)

  1. ((a))

    6.35 × 10-11 N

  2. ((b))

    5.75 × 10-11 N

  3. ((c))

    4.50 × 10-11 N

  4. ((d))

    3.35 × 10-11 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.35 × 10-11 N

13

Which of the following is a string instrument?

  1. ((a))

    Tabla

  2. ((b))

    Sitar

  3. ((c))

    Flute

  4. ((d))

    Shehnai 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tabla

14

The speed of a wave is given by which of the following formulas?

  1. ((a))

    Speed = Time × Frequency

  2. ((b))

    Speed = Frequency × Amplitude

  3. ((c))

    Speed = Amplitude × Wavelength

  4. ((d))

    Speed = Frequency × Wavelength 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed = Time × Frequency

15

The loss of forests, which is remarkably seen in the tropical areas of India, is around __________. 

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

16

As per Article 78, it is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to whom? 

  1. ((a))

    Chief Justice of India

  2. ((b))

    Speaker of Lok Sabha

  3. ((c))

    President

  4. ((d))

    Vice President

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chief Justice of India

17

What is the purpose of the 'BCC' field in an email? 

  1. ((a))

    It hides recipients from each other. 

  2. ((b))

    It deletes an email after it is read. 

  3. ((c))

    It allows recipients to see each others' addresses.

  4. ((d))

    It marks an email as urgent.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It hides recipients from each other. 

18

_____ is the most efficient method used for the disposal of hospital-generated waste.

  1. ((a))

    Sanitary landfills

  2. ((b))

    Incinerator

  3. ((c))

    Furnace

  4. ((d))

    Open dumps

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sanitary landfills

19

Under the Delhi Sultanate what was the name of the state laws that grew under the monarchy, even if they violated the Shari’at? 

  1. ((a))

    Farman

  2. ((b))

    Iqta

  3. ((c))

    Zawabit

  4. ((d))

    Fatwas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Farman

20

Which statement correctly explains why liquids can flow?

  1. ((a))

    Liquids have no intermolecular forces.

  2. ((b))

    Liquids have loosely packed molecules that slide past each other. 

  3. ((c))

    Liquids do not have kinetic energy. 

  4. ((d))

    Liquid molecules move randomly without any restriction.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Liquids have no intermolecular forces.

21

If three resistors of 15 Ω, 35 Ω and 50 Ω are connected in series to a 25-V battery, what is the current flowing in the circuit?

  1. ((a))

    4 A

  2. ((b))

    1.5 A

  3. ((c))

    0.25 A

  4. ((d))

    2.88 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 A

22

What is the function of the Linux Shell?

  1. ((a))

    To directly manage hardware resources

  2. ((b))

    To execute user commands and act as an interface between the user and the kernel

  3. ((c))

    To store user data

  4. ((d))

    To create and delete partitions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To directly manage hardware resources

23

Which of the following economic estimators provided estimates of India’s national and per capita income during the colonial period? 

  1. ((a))

    Adam Smith

  2. ((b))

    John Maynard Keynes

  3. ((c))

    VKRV Rao

  4. ((d))

    Karl Marx

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adam Smith

24

Which of the following is NOT an example of an agrochemical?

  1. ((a))

    Pesticides

  2. ((b))

    Fungicides

  3. ((c))

    Herbicides

  4. ((d))

    Biogas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pesticides

25

What is the typical range of a Local Area Network (LAN)?

  1. ((a))

    Up to 10 km

  2. ((b))

    Up to 5 km

  3. ((c))

    Up to 1 km

  4. ((d))

    More than 50 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Up to 10 km

26

According to the Tendulkar methodology, what was the estimated national poverty line for rural areas in 2011-12?

  1. ((a))

    ₹816 per month

  2. ((b))

    ₹1,200 per month

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,000 per month

  4. ((d))

    ₹512 per month

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹816 per month

27

What are the sand dunes commonly found in the Indian Desert called?

  1. ((a))

    Barchans

  2. ((b))

    Loess

  3. ((c))

    Moraines

  4. ((d))

    Cirques

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Barchans

28

If the mass of an object is 74.5 kg, what is its approximate weight on Earth? (Take g = 9.8 m/s2)

  1. ((a))

    730 N

  2. ((b))

    447 N

  3. ((c))

    7.6 N

  4. ((d))

    74.5 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

730 N

29

The Montreal Protocol came into force in the year ________. 

  1. ((a))

    1986

  2. ((b))

    1989

  3. ((c))

    1990

  4. ((d))

    1992

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1986

30

Which property of solids allows them to be compressed the least compared to liquids and gases? 

  1. ((a))

    High intermolecular spaces

  2. ((b))

    The ability to diffuse into other solids

  3. ((c))

    Strong intermolecular forces and close packing of particles

  4. ((d))

    High kinetic energy of particles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High intermolecular spaces

31

Which of the following best describes a heterogeneous mixture? 

  1. ((a))

    It has a uniform composition. 

  2. ((b))

    The components cannot be separated.

  3. ((c))

    The composition varies throughout the mixture.

  4. ((d))

    It contains only one phase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It has a uniform composition. 

32

A student calculates the formula unit mass of calcium fluoride (CaF2). If the atomic masses of Ca and F are 40 u and 19 u, respectively, what is the correct formula unit mass?

  1. ((a))

    97 u

  2. ((b))

    78 u

  3. ((c))

    100 u

  4. ((d))

    59 u

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

97 u

33

The area termed as the ozone hole is known to mainly develop over ______.

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    Africa

  3. ((c))

    Antartica

  4. ((d))

    America

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India

34

Who among the following is NOT appointed by the President of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Governors of States

  2. ((b))

    Vice President

  3. ((c))

    Chief Election Commissioner

  4. ((d))

    Comptroller and Auditor General 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Governors of States

35

Which dynasty was overthrown by Chandragupta Maurya to establish the Mauryan Empire?

  1. ((a))

    Gupta Dynasty

  2. ((b))

    Kushan Dynasty

  3. ((c))

    Shunga Dynasty

  4. ((d))

    Nanda Dynasty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gupta Dynasty

36

Which of the following is NOT an example of system software?

  1. ((a))

    macOS

  2. ((b))

    Linux

  3. ((c))

    Microsoft Word

  4. ((d))

    Windows 10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

macOS

37

Which of the following metals is placed above aluminium and zinc in the reactivity series?

  1. ((a))

    Magnesium

  2. ((b))

    Iron

  3. ((c))

    Copper

  4. ((d))

    Carbon

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnesium

38

Who among the following won the gold medal in the women's high jump event at the National Games in February 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Vithya Ramraj 

  2. ((b))

    Pooja Singh

  3. ((c))

    Abhinaya Shetty

  4. ((d))

    Swapna Barman

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vithya Ramraj 

39

Which of the following is an effective way to prevent rancidity in packaged food?

  1. ((a))

    Adding antioxidants

  2. ((b))

    Increasing moisture content 

  3. ((c))

    Keeping it in direct sunlight

  4. ((d))

    Storing in a warm place

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adding antioxidants

40

The Punjab Plain is formed by which river system?

  1. ((a))

    Indus and its tributaries

  2. ((b))

    Narmada and its tributaries

  3. ((c))

    Ganga and its tributaries

  4. ((d))

    Brahmaputra and its tributaries

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indus and its tributaries

41

An object is placed 25 cm in front of a convex lens with a focal length of 15 cm. What is the magnification produced by the lens?

  1. ((a))

    M = −2.5

  2. ((b))

    M = 1.5 

  3. ((c))

    M = 2.5

  4. ((d))

    M = −1.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M = −2.5

42

The effect of particulate matter which is a common air pollutant is maximally seen on the _______.

  1. ((a))

    intestines

  2. ((b))

    kidneys

  3. ((c))

    lungs

  4. ((d))

    liver

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

intestines

43

The Indian Desert lies towards the western margins of which mountain range?

  1. ((a))

    Western Ghats

  2. ((b))

    Satpura Hills

  3. ((c))

    Vindhya Hills

  4. ((d))

    Aravali Hills

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Western Ghats

44

What is the primary goal of application security?

  1. ((a))

    To reduce the size of application files

  2. ((b))

     To enhance the graphical user interface of applications

  3. ((c))

    To protect applications from security threats by identifying and fixing vulnerabilities

  4. ((d))

    To increase the execution speed of applications

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reduce the size of application files

45

Which of the following is an example of database management software?

  1. ((a))

    MS Paint

  2. ((b))

    Notepad

  3. ((c))

    PowerPoint

  4. ((d))

    Microsoft Access

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MS Paint

46

Which of the following is NOT a file management task? 

  1. ((a))

    Creating files

  2. ((b))

    Browsing the internet

  3. ((c))

    Renaming files

  4. ((d))

    Deleting files

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Creating files

47

Which mouse pointer appears when adjusting column width / cell width in a table?

  1. ((a))

    ↔ (Horizontal double-headed arrow) 

  2. ((b))

    ↕ (Vertical double-headed arrow)

  3. ((c))

    I-beam (Text cursor)

  4. ((d))

    Hand cursor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

↔ (Horizontal double-headed arrow) 

48

The melting of snow and ice caps from the polar regions is responsible for ________.

  1. ((a))

    condensation

  2. ((b))

    the rise in sea levels

  3. ((c))

    the decline in sea levels

  4. ((d))

    rainfall 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

condensation

49

In September 2024, which of the following Indian institutions was designated as the Thematic Hub for Quantum Computing under the National Quantum Mission?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Institute of Technology Madras

  2. ((b))

    Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur

  3. ((c))

    Indian Institute of Technology Gandhinagar

  4. ((d))

    Indian Institute of Science Bengaluru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian Institute of Technology Madras

50

Which of the following is an example of a WAN?

  1. ((a))

    A Bluetooth connection between a phone and a laptop

  2. ((b))

    A home Wi-Fi network

  3. ((c))

    The internet

  4. ((d))

    A university campus network

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A Bluetooth connection between a phone and a laptop

Technical Abilities (100 questions)

51

What is the primary advantage of full-duplex communication over half-duplex communication?

  1. ((a))

    It allows simultaneous data flow in both directions.

  2. ((b))

    It is less expensive to set up.

  3. ((c))

    It is easier to implement. 

  4. ((d))

    It uses less bandwidth.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It allows simultaneous data flow in both directions.

52

In Vestigial Sideband (VSB) demodulation, which of the following is used to recover the original modulating signal?

  1. ((a))

    Phase detector followed by a notch filter

  2. ((b))

    Frequency discriminator followed by a band-pass filter 

  3. ((c))

    Product modulator followed by a low-pass filter

  4. ((d))

    Signal detector followed by a high-pass filter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Phase detector followed by a notch filter

53

How many clock pulses are required for a 4-bit PIPO shift register to output the stored data?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

54

If the length of the magnetic path is increased while keeping the cross-sectional area and the magnetomotive force (MMF) constant, which of the following will occur?

  1. ((a))

    The flux will remain constant.

  2. ((b))

    The reluctance will decrease.

  3. ((c))

    The flux will increase.

  4. ((d))

    The flux will decrease.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The flux will remain constant.

55

The 8051 Microcontroller is packaged in a _____ pin DIP.

  1. ((a))

    42

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

56

Which of the following is the correct syntax of an if statement in C?

  1. ((a))

    if condition { statement; }

  2. ((b))

    if (condition) { statement; }

  3. ((c))

    if { condition } ( statement ); 

  4. ((d))

    if condition then { statement; }

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if condition { statement; }

57

What is the correct function to write a character to a file?

  1. ((a))

    write()

  2. ((b))

    putc()

  3. ((c))

    fputc()

  4. ((d))

    fwrite()

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

write()

58

If a magnetic material has high permeability, which of the following effects is most likely to occur in a magnetic circuit?

  1. ((a))

    Decreased reluctance 

  2. ((b))

    Increased magnetomotive force

  3. ((c))

    Increased reluctance

  4. ((d))

    Decreased flux

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decreased reluctance 

59

The 8085 microprocessor is a _____ pin IC.

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

60

What is the primary operating principle of a thermal relay in an electrical protection system?

  1. ((a))

    It measures the impedance in the circuit and trips when it exceeds a certain limit. 

  2. ((b))

    It operates based on the difference in voltage across the protected equipment.

  3. ((c))

    It operates based on the phase angle difference between the currents.

  4. ((d))

    It measures the amount of heat generated due to the current flow and operates when a preset temperature is reached.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It measures the impedance in the circuit and trips when it exceeds a certain limit. 

61

Which of the following statements is FALSE for a feedback amplifier?

  1. ((a))

    Positive feedback increases both gain and bandwidth. 

  2. ((b))

    Negative feedback can reduce the effect of temperature on the output

  3. ((c))

    Negative feedback reduces gain but improves amplifier linearity.

  4. ((d))

    Emitter resistance in a bipolar transistor helps stabilise the amplifier's gain. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Positive feedback increases both gain and bandwidth. 

62

What type of voltage is applied to the horizontal deflection plates in an oscilloscope?

  1. ((a))

    Sawtooth waveform

  2. ((b))

    Triangular waveform

  3. ((c))

    Sinusoidal voltage

  4. ((d))

    Constant DC voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sawtooth waveform

63

Select the correct statement(s) regarding a voltage controlled oscillator (VCO) in a phase lock loop.

S1: The control-voltage is applied at the input of a VCO.

S2: Phase detector compared the VCO frequency with the input frequency.

  1. ((a))

    Both S1 and S2

  2. ((b))

    Only S2

  3. ((c))

    Only S1

  4. ((d))

    Neither S1 nor S2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both S1 and S2

64

What is the main purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)? 

  1. ((a))

     To establish a local network connection

  2. ((b))

    To extend a LAN within a building

  3. ((c))

    To secure communication over a public network

  4. ((d))

    To connect home devices wirelessly 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 To establish a local network connection

65

Which type of load cell is best suited for measuring dynamic forces?

  1. ((a))

    Pneumatic load cell

  2. ((b))

    Hydraulic load cell

  3. ((c))

    Piezoelectric load cell

  4. ((d))

    Strain gauge load cell

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pneumatic load cell

66

A DSB-SC signal is being detected synchronously. The phase error in the locally generated carrier will _________.

  1. ((a))

    cause phase distortion and reduce the output also

  2. ((b))

    increase the amplitude of the demodulated signal 

  3. ((c))

    completely block the demodulated signal always

  4. ((d))

    have no effect on the demodulated signal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

cause phase distortion and reduce the output also

67

What is the typical maximum frequency deviation for Wide Band FM (WBFM) used in FM broadcasting?

  1. ((a))

    25 kHz

  2. ((b))

    105 kHz

  3. ((c))

    75 kHz

  4. ((d))

    5 kHz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 kHz

68

For a 2-to-1 Multiplexer with inputs I0 = 0, I1 = 1, and select line S = 1, what is the value of the output Y?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    0.5

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    Undefined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

69

Which of the following HTTP response codes indicates that the requested resource was not found?

  1. ((a))

    403

  2. ((b))

    500

  3. ((c))

    404

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

403

70

Which of the following terms describes a material that becomes magnetised in the presence of an external magnetic field and loses its magnetism once the field is removed?

  1. ((a))

    Hard magnetic material

  2. ((b))

    Ferromagnetic material

  3. ((c))

    Soft magnetic material 

  4. ((d))

    Permanent magnet 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hard magnetic material

71

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrate the use of a repeater?

  1. ((a))

    Boosting the signal strength of an Ethernet cable over long distances

  2. ((b))

    Extending the range of a Wi-Fi network in a large building

  3. ((c))

    Filtering unwanted traffic in a network segment

  4. ((d))

    Interconnecting two separate LANs using different protocols 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boosting the signal strength of an Ethernet cable over long distances

72

What is the primary role of a modulator in a communication system?

  1. ((a))

    To filter out noise from the received signal 

  2. ((b))

    To amplify the transmitted signal 

  3. ((c))

    To extract the message signal from the carrier wave

  4. ((d))

    To superimpose the message signal onto the carrier wave 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To filter out noise from the received signal 

73

Which of the following options is INCORRECT for a feedback amplifier?

  1. ((a))

    In a feedback topology, sampling the output voltage reduces the output impedance.

  2. ((b))

    In a feedback topology, sampling the output current reduces the output impedance. 

  3. ((c))

    The gain-bandwidth product remains constant for a negative feedback amplifier.

  4. ((d))

    Negative feedback minimises nonlinear distortion in the amplifier's output. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In a feedback topology, sampling the output voltage reduces the output impedance.

74

Determine the DC current gain of a common collector (CC) amplifier given:

Emitter current (IE ) = 3.02 mA

Collector current (IC) = 3 mA.

  1. ((a))

    150

  2. ((b))

    0.99

  3. ((c))

    99

  4. ((d))

    151

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150

75

In the Constant Voltage Charging Method, which of the following is most likely to occur if the charging voltage is set too high?

  1. ((a))

    Overcharging of the battery leading to increased temperature

  2. ((b))

    Increased battery capacity

  3. ((c))

    Improved charge retention 

  4. ((d))

    Reduced charging efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Overcharging of the battery leading to increased temperature

76

What is the significance of 'resolution' in a DAC?

  1. ((a))

    It sets the power consumption of the DAC.

  2. ((b))

    It determines the maximum speed of the DAC

  3. ((c))

    It limits the maximum input voltage of the DAC.

  4. ((d))

    It defines the smallest change in analogue output that can be produced.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It sets the power consumption of the DAC.

77

Which of the following is true about the Half Subtractor circuit?

  1. ((a))

    It is used for binary addition.

  2. ((b))

    It can handle borrow input from previous stages. 

  3. ((c))

    It subtracts two binary digits and generates a sum and carry-out

  4. ((d))

    It subtracts two binary digits and generates a difference and borrow-out.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is used for binary addition.

78

Which of the following options is INCORRECT for a voltage-shunt feedback amplifier?

  1. ((a))

    An inverting operational amplifier uses a voltage-shunt feedback mechanism

  2. ((b))

    A collector-base bias circuit is an example of a voltage-shunt feedback amplifier.

  3. ((c))

    A non-inverting op-amp is an example of a voltage-shunt feedback amplifier. 

  4. ((d))

    It is also known as a transresistance amplifier.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An inverting operational amplifier uses a voltage-shunt feedback mechanism

79

Which of the following is the primary function of a crystal oscillator in frequency synthesizer?

  1. ((a))

    To generate a stable output frequency

  2. ((b))

    To decrease the input frequency

  3. ((c))

    To remove the noise from the signal

  4. ((d))

    To increase the input frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To generate a stable output frequency

80

Select the correct statement(s) regarding the ideal op-amp differentiator circuit. S1: The output voltage is zero for a constant input voltage. S2: The output voltage is the sum of the input signal. 

  1. ((a))

    Both S1 and S2

  2. ((b))

    Only S2

  3. ((c))

    Only S1

  4. ((d))

    Neither S1 nor S2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both S1 and S2

81

Which of the following materials is/are commonly used to make the wires in thermocouples?

  1. ((a))

    Copper and nickel

  2. ((b))

    Silver and aluminium

  3. ((c))

    Gold

  4. ((d))

    Lead and zinc

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper and nickel

82

Which of the following statements is FALSE for a common-collector (CC) amplifier using a BJT?

  1. ((a))

    It is commonly used for impedance matching and not for voltage gain.

  2. ((b))

    It has very high input impedance and low output impedance. 

  3. ((c))

    It has the lowest output impedance, the highest current gain and the lowest voltage gain.

  4. ((d))

    It is a current-controlled current source

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is commonly used for impedance matching and not for voltage gain.

83

If all the resistances of an inverting op-amp adder are equal, then the output voltage is _______.

  1. ((a))

    difference of input voltages

  2. ((b))

    sum of input voltages

  3. ((c))

    negative sum of the input voltages

  4. ((d))

    zero as all the resistances are equal 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

difference of input voltages

84

Which of the following is an example of a digital modulation technique?

  1. ((a))

    Single Sideband Modulation (SSB)

  2. ((b))

    Narrow Band FM

  3. ((c))

    Phase Shift Keying (PSK) 

  4. ((d))

    Double side band Amplitude Modulation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Single Sideband Modulation (SSB)

85

Tungsten, due to its high melting point and excellent electrical conductivity, is widely used in high-temperature applications. Which of the following properties of tungsten makes it particularly suitable for use in electrical components like filaments and electrodes in high-temperature environments?

  1. ((a))

    High electrical conductivity and low resistivity

  2. ((b))

    High melting point and resistance to thermal shock

  3. ((c))

    High melting point and low coefficient of expansion

  4. ((d))

    Low melting point and excellent oxidation resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High electrical conductivity and low resistivity

86

A signal has a maximum frequency of 3 kHz. What is the minimum sampling rate required to satisfy the Nyquist criterion? 

  1. ((a))

    6 kHz 

  2. ((b))

    9 kHz

  3. ((c))

    16 kHz

  4. ((d))

    3 kHz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 kHz 

87

What is the binary result of the following subtraction?

1101 – 0110

  1. ((a))

    0101

  2. ((b))

    1010

  3. ((c))

    0111

  4. ((d))

    1001

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0101

88

Which of the following is a valid relational operator in C?

  1. ((a))

    <>

  2. ((b))

    &=

  3. ((c))

    !=

  4. ((d))

    ===

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

<>

89

The pulse width of the output of a monostable multivibrator using IC 555 if the external components are R = 1000 KΩ and C = 10 µF is _____.

  1. ((a))

    2.2 ms

  2. ((b))

    11 s

  3. ((c))

    11 ms

  4. ((d))

    22 s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.2 ms

90

The Stack Pointer SP is set to _____ when the 8051 microcontroller is reset. 

  1. ((a))

    06h

  2. ((b))

    08h

  3. ((c))

    00h

  4. ((d))

    07h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

06h

91

Which of the following statements is correct for a bridge rectifier?

  1. ((a))

    The transformer utilization factor (TUF) is the same for both bridge and center-tapped rectifiers. 

  2. ((b))

    A bridge rectifier has twice the PIV of a center-tapped rectifier. 

  3. ((c))

    The transformer utilization factor (TUF) of a bridge rectifier is higher than that of a center-tapped rectifier.

  4. ((d))

    A bridge rectifier has a lower ripple factor than a center-tapped rectifier.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The transformer utilization factor (TUF) is the same for both bridge and center-tapped rectifiers. 

92

The Address of the Accumulator register in the 8051 Microcontroller is _____.

  1. ((a))

    0E0h

  2. ((b))

    92h

  3. ((c))

    0B0h

  4. ((d))

    82h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0E0h

93

Which of the following options for the output characteristics of a common-base (CB) configuration of BJT is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    The output characteristics are plotted between the output current (IC) and output voltage (VCB).

  2. ((b))

    The output characteristics show that IC increases significantly with an increase in VCB due to the Early effect.

  3. ((c))

    In a CB configuration, the current gain is slightly greater than one.

  4. ((d))

    When the input current is zero, a non-zero output current exists due to minority carriers. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The output characteristics are plotted between the output current (IC) and output voltage (VCB).

94

DMA asserts _____ signal to 'low' at the end of data transfer to inform the peripheral that the data transfer is complete. 

  1. ((a))

    HRQ

  2. ((b))

    EOP

  3. ((c))

    HLDA

  4. ((d))

    DRQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HRQ

95

Which of the following artificial magnets is best suited for use in electrical motors and transformers due to its high efficiency and stable magnetic field?

  1. ((a))

    Ceramic magnet

  2. ((b))

    Steel magnet 

  3. ((c))

    Alnico magnet 

  4. ((d))

    Iron magnet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ceramic magnet

96

A superheterodyne receiver consists of blocks in sequence as given in the options. Which of them gives the correct order? 

  1. ((a))

    Antenna → IF Amplifier → Local Oscillator → Mixer → Detector → RF stage → Audio Amplifier

  2. ((b))

    Antenna → RF stage → Mixer (other input from local oscillator) → IF Amplifier → Detector → Audio Amplifier

  3. ((c))

    Antenna → Audio Amplifier → IF Amplifier → Mixer → Local Oscillator → Detector 

  4. ((d))

    Antenna → IF Amplifier → Mixer → Detector → Audio Amplifier → Local Oscillator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Antenna → IF Amplifier → Local Oscillator → Mixer → Detector → RF stage → Audio Amplifier

97

Which of the following is a direct application of Kirchhoff’s Current Law (KCL) in an electrical circuit?

  1. ((a))

    The total voltage across a series circuit is equal to the sum of individual voltages.

  2. ((b))

    The sum of voltages across all parallel components is constant.

  3. ((c))

    The total power delivered to a circuit equals the sum of power losses in each component. 

  4. ((d))

    The sum of all currents entering a junction equals the sum of all currents leaving the junction. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The total voltage across a series circuit is equal to the sum of individual voltages.

98

Which technique is commonly used in a multiple trace oscilloscope to display two signals simultaneously?

  1. ((a))

    Voltage division

  2. ((b))

    Beam splitting

  3. ((c))

    Signal amplification

  4. ((d))

    Time multiplexing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voltage division

99

Which of the following CANNOT be done to minimise the ripple factor in a rectifier?

  1. ((a))

    Increasing the inductance of the inductive filter 

  2. ((b))

    Using an inductor in series with the load resistor

  3. ((c))

    Decreasing the capacitance of the capacitive filter

  4. ((d))

    Using a capacitor in parallel with the load resistor 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increasing the inductance of the inductive filter 

100

In a Nickel-Iron battery, what occurs at the positive electrode during the discharge process?

  1. ((a))

    Nickel oxide is reduced to nickel metal.

  2. ((b))

    Nickel hydroxide is reduced to nickel metal.

  3. ((c))

    Iron is oxidised to iron(III) hydroxide.

  4. ((d))

    Nickel oxide reacts with water to form nickel hydroxide. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nickel oxide is reduced to nickel metal.

101

Which type of AM signal is generated using only balanced modulator and/or ring modulator without using any additional processing?

  1. ((a))

    Single Sideband Suppressed Carrier (SSB-SC) 

  2. ((b))

    Vestigial Sideband Modulation (VSB)

  3. ((c))

    Double Sideband Suppressed Carrier (DSB-SC) 

  4. ((d))

    Wideband FM Signal 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Single Sideband Suppressed Carrier (SSB-SC) 

102

In a composite magnetic circuit with two magnetic materials having different permeabilities μ1 and μ2, the total reluctance of the circuit is: 

  1. ((a))

    the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of each reluctance

  2. ((b))

    the product of reluctances of each material

  3. ((c))

    the sum of reluctances of each material

  4. ((d))

    the average reluctance of both materials

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of each reluctance

103

What happens to the output of a JK Flip-Flop when J = 1, K = 1, and clock is active? 

  1. ((a))

    It resets

  2. ((b))

    It remains unchanged.

  3. ((c))

    It sets.

  4. ((d))

    It toggles.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It resets

104

Which format specifier is used to print a signed long?

  1. ((a))

    %lf

  2. ((b))

    %ld

  3. ((c))

    %sl 

  4. ((d))

    %l

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

%lf

105

Which of the following is/are true about demodulation?

a) It is performed at the transmitting end.

b) It is performed at the receiving end.

c) It recovers the original information signal from the modulated carrier wave.

  1. ((a))

    Only b

  2. ((b))

     Only a and c

  3. ((c))

    Only b and c

  4. ((d))

    Only a

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only b

106

Which of the following is true about the behaviour of a D Flip-Flop when the clock input is NOT transitioning? 

  1. ((a))

    The output remains at the last value.

  2. ((b))

    The output is undefined. 

  3. ((c))

    The output will always be zero

  4. ((d))

    The output follows the input.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The output remains at the last value.

107

Which of the following terms defines the time taken by a protective relay to operate and initiate a trip after detecting a fault?

  1. ((a))

    Reset time

  2. ((b))

    Pick-up time

  3. ((c))

    Tripping time

  4. ((d))

    Operating time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reset time

108

Which device connects multiple networks and determines the best path for data to travel?

  1. ((a))

    Switch

  2. ((b))

    Router

  3. ((c))

    Bridge

  4. ((d))

    Hub

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Switch

109

Which of the following statements about the energy band structure of P-type and N-type semiconductors is true?

  1. ((a))

    For a N-type semiconductor, the valence band energy is higher than the conduction band energy. 

  2. ((b))

    For a P-type semiconductor, the valence band energy is higher than the conduction band energy.

  3. ((c))

    For a semiconductor, the energy gap between the conduction band and the valence band is larger than that of an insulator. 

  4. ((d))

    For Si, the energy gap between the conduction band and the valence band is larger than that of Ge. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

For a N-type semiconductor, the valence band energy is higher than the conduction band energy. 

110

Which of the following statements about extrinsic semiconductors is correct regarding the effect of temperature on their conductivity?

  1. ((a))

    In p-type semiconductors, increasing the temperature leads to an increase in the number of holes as more electrons get excited to the conduction band.

  2. ((b))

    Temperature has no significant effect on the conductivity of extrinsic semiconductors once they are doped.

  3. ((c))

    In both n-type and p-type semiconductors, conductivity decreases sharply with an increasing temperature. 

  4. ((d))

    The conductivity of n-type semiconductors increases with a decrease in temperature due to fewer free electrons.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In p-type semiconductors, increasing the temperature leads to an increase in the number of holes as more electrons get excited to the conduction band.

111

In phase locked loop, the primary role of the voltage controlled oscillator is _______________.

  1. ((a))

    to synchronise the phase of the output signal 

  2. ((b))

    to generate a frequency which is proportional to the dc input voltage

  3. ((c))

    to amplify the input signal

  4. ((d))

    to control the amplitude of output signal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to synchronise the phase of the output signal 

112

Which type of error primarily affects the accuracy of an instrument? 

  1. ((a))

    Systematic error

  2. ((b))

    Random error

  3. ((c))

    Instrumental drift

  4. ((d))

    Gross error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Systematic error

113

What effect does a higher modulation index have on the amplitude of the modulated waveform?

  1. ((a))

    It does not affect any signal. 

  2. ((b))

    It increases the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulated signal.

  3. ((c))

    It only affects the frequency of the modulated signal.

  4. ((d))

    It does not affect the amplitude.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It does not affect any signal. 

114

Bipolar RAM primarily utilises which type of transistor?

  1. ((a))

    CMOS transistors

  2. ((b))

    Field-effect transistors

  3. ((c))

    MOSFETs 

  4. ((d))

    BJTs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CMOS transistors

115

Which ADC type is known for its high speed but relatively lower resolution?

  1. ((a))

    Flash ADC

  2. ((b))

    Sigma-Delta ADC

  3. ((c))

    Successive Approximation ADC

  4. ((d))

    Dual-Slope ADC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flash ADC

116

A PN junction is formed using P-type and N-type semiconductors with doping concentrations:

NA = 1012/cm3 , ND =1010/cm3

Given: Thermal voltage: VT = 25 mV

Intrinsic carrier concentration: ni = 106 /cm3

What is the built-in voltage V0 across the PN junction?

  1. ((a))

    250 ln(10) mV

  2. ((b))

    125 ln(10) mV

  3. ((c))

    250 ln(100) V

  4. ((d))

    500 ln(100) V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

250 ln(10) mV

117

The two inputs to a phase detector in PLL are _________.

  1. ((a))

    low pass filter output and feedback voltage from a voltage controlled oscillator

  2. ((b))

    amplifier output and feedback voltage from a voltage controlled oscillator

  3. ((c))

    input voltage and feedback voltage from a voltage controlled oscillator 

  4. ((d))

    input voltage and amplifier output

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

low pass filter output and feedback voltage from a voltage controlled oscillator

118

Which ports are mainly utilised for address and data lines when interfacing external RAM with the 8051 microcontroller?

  1. ((a))

    Port 1 and Port 3

  2. ((b))

    Port 2 and Port 3

  3. ((c))

    Port 0 and Port 3 

  4. ((d))

    Port 0 and Port 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Port 1 and Port 3

119

Strain gauges typically work by detecting a change in the _______.

  1. ((a))

    inductance

  2. ((b))

    capacitance

  3. ((c))

    voltage

  4. ((d))

    resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

inductance

120

A common emitter amplifier with a gain of 10 is used to design an oscillator. What should be the gain and phase shift of the feedback network for sustained oscillation? 

  1. ((a))

    0.1, 360° 

  2. ((b))

    1, 360°

  3. ((c))

    0.1, 180°

  4. ((d))

    10, 180° 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.1, 360° 

121

How would you implement the Boolean expression A + B̅ using basic logic gates? 

  1. ((a))

    An OR gate with inputs A and B. 

  2. ((b))

    An AND gate with inputs A and B'.

  3. ((c))

    An OR gate with input A and the output of a NOT gate with input B

  4. ((d))

    An AND gate with input A and the output of a NOT gate with input B.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An OR gate with inputs A and B. 

122

What is the correct syntax to declare a one-dimensional array 'students' of size 20 in C?

  1. ((a))

    students[20] int;

  2. ((b))

    int students[20]; 

  3. ((c))

    int students; 

  4. ((d))

    array students[20]; 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

students[20] int;

123

What is the typical bandwidth of a twisted pair cable used in Ethernet networks?

  1. ((a))

    100 gbps

  2. ((b))

    10 mbps to 1 gbps

  3. ((c))

    1 kbps

  4. ((d))

    1 mbps

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 gbps

124

What does the Plug Setting Multiplier (PSM) represent in the operation of a protective relay?

  1. ((a))

    It is a constant factor that is independent of the fault current and only adjusts the relay's settings

  2. ((b))

    It is a factor that determines the maximum fault current that can be handled by the relay. 

  3. ((c))

    It is used to adjust the time delay of the relay based on fault severity

  4. ((d))

    It is the ratio of the actual fault current to the plug setting, which determines the relay's response time.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is a constant factor that is independent of the fault current and only adjusts the relay's settings

125

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Frequency Modulation (FM) and Amplitude Modulation (AM)?

a) FM provides better noise immunity.

b) AM requires lower bandwidth than FM.

c) FM utilises transmitted power more efficiently.

  1. ((a))

    Only a and c 

  2. ((b))

    a, b and c

  3. ((c))

    Only a

  4. ((d))

    Only b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only a and c 

126

Which of the following is a commonly used thermosetting resin in electrical applications due to its excellent electrical insulating properties and resistance to high temperatures?

  1. ((a))

    Polystyrene

  2. ((b))

    Epoxy resin 

  3. ((c))

    Polyethylene

  4. ((d))

    Polyvinyl chloride 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Polystyrene

127

What is the correct way to read a string using scanf() in C?

  1. ((a))

    scanf("%c", str);

  2. ((b))

    scanf("%s", str);

  3. ((c))

    scanf("&s", str);

  4. ((d))

    scanf("%d", str);

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

scanf("%c", str);

128

How is data typically erased from an EPROM?

  1. ((a))

    By removing the power supply

  2. ((b))

    By applying a high voltage electrical signal 

  3. ((c))

    By using a magnetic field

  4. ((d))

    By exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By removing the power supply

129

Which of the following network types is ideal for connecting branches of a company located in different cities?

  1. ((a))

    MAN

  2. ((b))

    PAN

  3. ((c))

    WAN

  4. ((d))

    LAN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MAN

130

Which of the following terms refers to the process by which a battery or cell loses its ability to hold charge over time?

  1. ((a))

    Capacity

  2. ((b))

    Battery aging

  3. ((c))

    Internal resistance 

  4. ((d))

    Charge efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Capacity

131

In which situation would a bridge be more effective than a switch?

  1. ((a))

    When segmenting a large network to reduce collisions

  2. ((b))

    When connecting devices at the physical layer

  3. ((c))

    When filtering traffic based on IP addresses

  4. ((d))

    When requiring VLAN functionality

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When segmenting a large network to reduce collisions

132

An NPN transistor is configured to amplify an audio signal. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    The depletion regions of the collector junction and emitter junction are almost equal. 

  2. ((b))

    The emitter junction is reverse biased, and the collector junction is forward biased.

  3. ((c))

    Very few charge carriers from the emitter recombine in the base region.

  4. ((d))

    Only a small number of electrons from the emitter cross the collector junction because it is reverse biased. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The depletion regions of the collector junction and emitter junction are almost equal. 

133

Which of the following best describes a semiconductor material?

  1. ((a))

    A material that behaves as a conductor at low temperatures and as an insulator at high temperatures.

  2. ((b))

    A material that only conducts electricity at high temperatures. 

  3. ((c))

    A material that allows electric current to pass freely in both directions

  4. ((d))

    A material that can conduct electricity under certain conditions but not others.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A material that behaves as a conductor at low temperatures and as an insulator at high temperatures.

134

The raised cosine filter is commonly used in communication systems to reduce:

  1. ((a))

    channel length

  2. ((b))

    Intersymbol Interference (ISI) 

  3. ((c))

    channel complexity

  4. ((d))

    transmission power

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

channel length

135

What is the correct specific gravity reading for an electrolyte in a fully charged lead acid cell? 

  1. ((a))

    1.270

  2. ((b))

    1.000

  3. ((c))

    1.400

  4. ((d))

    1.150

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.270

136

At what point does the slave flip-flop in a positive edge triggered JK Master-Slave configuration update its output?

  1. ((a))

    On the negative edge of the clock

  2. ((b))

    On the positive edge of the clock

  3. ((c))

    While the clock is high

  4. ((d))

    While the clock is low

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

On the negative edge of the clock

137

How does the 8051 microcontroller access external memory?

  1. ((a))

    By using direct addressing

  2. ((b))

    By using immediate addressing

  3. ((c))

    By using register addressing

  4. ((d))

    By using indirect addressing through DPTR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By using direct addressing

138

A full-wave rectifier is designed using a center-tapped transformer and two diodes. The primary winding of the transformer, with N₁ turns, is connected to a 240V (RMS) AC supply, and the secondary winding has N₂ turns. What is the approximate rectified DC output voltage (V) if N₁/N₂ = 15 : 1? 

  1. ((a))

    16/π

  2. ((b))

    162π\frac{16\sqrt2}{\pi}

  3. ((c))

    82π\frac{8\sqrt2}{\pi}

  4. ((d))

    8/π

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16/π

139

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the input impedance and bandwidth of a feedback amplifier?

  1. ((a))

    If the feedback signal is returned to the input in series opposition with the applied signal, the input impedance increases. 

  2. ((b))

    If the feedback signal is returned to the input in shunt with the applied signal, the input impedance decreases.

  3. ((c))

    Positive feedback increases gain, but bandwidth remains almost unchanged

  4. ((d))

    If the feedback signal is subtracted from the applied signal, the amplifier's bandwidth increases. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the feedback signal is returned to the input in series opposition with the applied signal, the input impedance increases. 

140

Associativity of the Logical AND operator ___________.

  1. ((a))

    depends on the application

  2. ((b))

    depends on the compiler 

  3. ((c))

    is right to left 

  4. ((d))

    is left to right

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

depends on the application

141

What does Td represent in phase angle measurement using an oscilloscope?

  1. ((a))

    Time difference between corresponding points of two signals

  2. ((b))

    Frequency of the waveform

  3. ((c))

    Voltage difference between signals

  4. ((d))

    Total time period of the waveform

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Time difference between corresponding points of two signals

142

Which of the following best describes impulse noise?

  1. ((a))

    Short bursts of high-amplitude interference 

  2. ((b))

    Noise caused by temperature fluctuations

  3. ((c))

    Continuous low-frequency noise

  4. ((d))

    Gradual signal degradation over time 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Short bursts of high-amplitude interference 

143

Which of the following options is correct for an open-loop configuration of an op-amp?

  1. ((a))

    The output voltage is linearly proportional to the input voltage

  2. ((b))

    It has a feedback connection between output and input. 

  3. ((c))

    It has zero output voltage

  4. ((d))

    It has a very high open-loop voltage gain.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The output voltage is linearly proportional to the input voltage

144

A 4-bit parallel adder uses four full adders. What is the maximum number of bits in the sum output, including the carry-out bit?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Eight

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

145

In 8085 MPU to operate a system at 3 MHz, the crystal connected to pins X1 and X2 should have a frequency of _____. 

  1. ((a))

    4 MHz

  2. ((b))

    3 MHz

  3. ((c))

    1.5 MHz

  4. ((d))

    6 MHz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 MHz

146

Which of the following is the requirement of a good instrumentation amplifier?

  1. ((a))

    Low CMRR

  2. ((b))

    Low slew rate

  3. ((c))

    High power consumption

  4. ((d))

    Finite gain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low CMRR

147

Hydrogen is used as an insulating gas in electrical equipment. What is the main reason for its use in such applications?

  1. ((a))

    It is a good conductor of electricity.

  2. ((b))

    It has a high dielectric strength and low molecular weight.

  3. ((c))

    It is stable at high temperatures.

  4. ((d))

    It has a high molecular density. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is a good conductor of electricity.

148

What is the key difference between the working of while and do-while loops in C?

  1. ((a))

    A while loop cannot contain a break statement, but a do-while loop can. 

  2. ((b))

    A while loop executes at least once, whereas a do-while loop may not execute at all

  3. ((c))

    A do-while loop is faster than a while loop.

  4. ((d))

    A while loop evaluates the condition before executing the loop body, whereas a dowhile loop evaluates the condition after executing the loop body. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A while loop cannot contain a break statement, but a do-while loop can. 

149

In the context of MUX applications, what does a MUX allow in terms of control?

  1. ((a))

    It amplifies the signal before sending it to the output.

  2. ((b))

    It generates clock pulses for digital circuits. 

  3. ((c))

    It performs arithmetic operations on multiple data inputs.

  4. ((d))

    It allows control of multiple inputs to a single output based on select lines.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It amplifies the signal before sending it to the output.

150

Which input function is considered unsafe due to buffer overflow risks?

  1. ((a))

    scanf()

  2. ((b))

    fgets()

  3. ((c))

    getchar()

  4. ((d))

    gets()

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

scanf()

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