Official Paper

RBI Assistant Mains MBT 2022 (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 135 minutes · with answers · free

Test of Reasoning (40 questions)

Direction: Study the following information and answer the given questions:

Nine persons namely Anu, Banu, Charu, Devi, Emil, Femi, Gargi, Hasni and Isha were born in nine different years i.e.1980, 1983, 1986, 1990, 1994, 1996, 1998, 2000 and 2004 but not necessarily in the same order. The base year is 2023. Anu is 33 years old. Only one person was born in between Anu and Emil.  No one was born in between Emil and Devi. Banu is ten years younger than Anu. There is the difference of two years in between the age of Banu and Gargi. Hasni is elder than Anu but she is not the eldest. Femi is the youngest person among all. There is the difference of more than two years in between the age of Charu and Isha where Charu is elder than Isha who was not born in the odd numbered year.

1

Which person is 40 years old?

  1. ((a))

    Isha

  2. ((b))

    Hasni

  3. ((c))

    Anu

  4. ((d))

    Charu

  5. ((e))

    Femi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hasni

Persons: Anu, Banu, Charu, Devi, Emil, Femi, Gargi, Hasni and Isha.

Years: 1980, 1983, 1986, 1990, 1994, 1996, 1998, 2000 and 2004.

Base year: 2023

1. Anu is 33 years old.

2.Banu is ten years younger than Anu. So, her age is 23.

YearAgePerson
198043
198340
198637
199033Anu
199429
199627
199825
200023Banu
200419

3. Only one person was born in between Anu and Emil.  4. There is the difference of two years in between the age of Banu and Gargi.  5. Femi is the youngest of all.

Case 1Case 2
YearAgePersonPerson
198043
198340Emil
198637
199033AnuAnu
199429
199627Emil
199825GargiGargi
200023BanuBanu
200419FemiFemi

 

6. No one was born in between Emil and Devi.


Case 1aCase 1bCase 2
YearAgePersonPersonPerson
198043Devi
198340EmilEmil
198637Devi
199033AnuAnuAnu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825GargiGargiGargi
200023BanuBanuBanu
200419FemiFemiFemi
  1. Hasni is elder than Anu but she is not the eldest.

 So, Case 1b is invalid.

8.  There is the difference of more than two years in between the age of Charu and Isha. 9. Charu is elder than Isha who was not born in the odd numbered year. So, Case 1a is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

YearAgePerson
198043Charu
198340Hasni
198637Isha
199033Anu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825Gargi
200023Banu
200419Femi

Hence, Hasni is 40 years old.

2

Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence forms a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

  1. ((a))

    Emil

  2. ((b))

    Femi

  3. ((c))

    Anu

  4. ((d))

    Isha

  5. ((e))

    Hasni

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Hasni

Persons: Anu, Banu, Charu, Devi, Emil, Femi, Gargi, Hasni and Isha.

Years: 1980, 1983, 1986, 1990, 1994, 1996, 1998, 2000 and 2004.

Base year: 2023

1. Anu is 33 years old.

2.Banu is ten years younger than Anu. So, her age is 23.

YearAgePerson
198043
198340
198637
199033Anu
199429
199627
199825
200023Banu
200419

3. Only one person was born in between Anu and Emil.  4. There is the difference of two years in between the age of Banu and Gargi.  5. Femi is the youngest of all.

Case 1Case 2
YearAgePersonPerson
198043
198340Emil
198637
199033AnuAnu
199429
199627Emil
199825GargiGargi
200023BanuBanu
200419FemiFemi

 

6. No one was born in between Emil and Devi.


Case 1aCase 1bCase 2
YearAgePersonPersonPerson
198043Devi
198340EmilEmil
198637Devi
199033AnuAnuAnu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825GargiGargiGargi
200023BanuBanuBanu
200419FemiFemiFemi
  1. Hasni is elder than Anu but she is not the eldest.

 So, Case 1b is invalid.

8.  There is the difference of more than two years in between the age of Charu and Isha. 9. Charu is elder than Isha who was not born in the odd numbered year. So, Case 1a is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

YearAgePerson
198043Charu
198340Hasni
198637Isha
199033Anu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825Gargi
200023Banu
200419Femi

Isha, Anu, Emil, Femi are born in even number year whereas Hasni was born in odd numbered year.

Hence, Hasni is the odd one out.

3

Which of the following combination is not true?

  1. ((a))

    1990 - Anu

  2. ((b))

    1998 - Gargi

  3. ((c))

    1983 - Hasni

  4. ((d))

    2004 - Femi

  5. ((e))

    All are true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All are true.

Persons: Anu, Banu, Charu, Devi, Emil, Femi, Gargi, Hasni and Isha.

Years: 1980, 1983, 1986, 1990, 1994, 1996, 1998, 2000 and 2004.

Base year: 2023

1. Anu is 33 years old.

2.Banu is ten years younger than Anu. So, her age is 23.

YearAgePerson
198043
198340
198637
199033Anu
199429
199627
199825
200023Banu
200419

3. Only one person was born in between Anu and Emil.  4. There is the difference of two years in between the age of Banu and Gargi.  5. Femi is the youngest of all.

Case 1Case 2
YearAgePersonPerson
198043
198340Emil
198637
199033AnuAnu
199429
199627Emil
199825GargiGargi
200023BanuBanu
200419FemiFemi

 

6. No one was born in between Emil and Devi.


Case 1aCase 1bCase 2
YearAgePersonPersonPerson
198043Devi
198340EmilEmil
198637Devi
199033AnuAnuAnu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825GargiGargiGargi
200023BanuBanuBanu
200419FemiFemiFemi
  1. Hasni is elder than Anu but she is not the eldest.

 So, Case 1b is invalid.

8.  There is the difference of more than two years in between the age of Charu and Isha. 9. Charu is elder than Isha who was not born in the odd numbered year. So, Case 1a is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

YearAgePerson
198043Charu
198340Hasni
198637Isha
199033Anu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825Gargi
200023Banu
200419Femi

Hence, all the combinations are true.

4

 Who among the following was born in the year 1994?

  1. ((a))

    Gargi

  2. ((b))

    Banu

  3. ((c))

    Femi

  4. ((d))

    Devi

  5. ((e))

    Isha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Devi

Persons: Anu, Banu, Charu, Devi, Emil, Femi, Gargi, Hasni and Isha.

Years: 1980, 1983, 1986, 1990, 1994, 1996, 1998, 2000 and 2004.

Base year: 2023

1. Anu is 33 years old.

2.Banu is ten years younger than Anu. So, her age is 23.

YearAgePerson
198043
198340
198637
199033Anu
199429
199627
199825
200023Banu
200419

3. Only one person was born in between Anu and Emil.  4. There is the difference of two years in between the age of Banu and Gargi.  5. Femi is the youngest of all.

Case 1Case 2
YearAgePersonPerson
198043
198340Emil
198637
199033AnuAnu
199429
199627Emil
199825GargiGargi
200023BanuBanu
200419FemiFemi

 

6. No one was born in between Emil and Devi.


Case 1aCase 1bCase 2
YearAgePersonPersonPerson
198043Devi
198340EmilEmil
198637Devi
199033AnuAnuAnu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825GargiGargiGargi
200023BanuBanuBanu
200419FemiFemiFemi
  1. Hasni is elder than Anu but she is not the eldest.

 So, Case 1b is invalid.

8.  There is the difference of more than two years in between the age of Charu and Isha. 9. Charu is elder than Isha who was not born in the odd numbered year. So, Case 1a is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

YearAgePerson
198043Charu
198340Hasni
198637Isha
199033Anu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825Gargi
200023Banu
200419Femi

Hence, Devi was born in 1994.

5

 Which of the following statements is/are not true?

  1. ((a))

    Emil was born after Banu.

  2. ((b))

    Femi is the youngest among all

  3. ((c))

    Isha was born in 1996

  4. ((d))

    Both A and B

  5. ((e))

    Both A and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both A and C

Persons: Anu, Banu, Charu, Devi, Emil, Femi, Gargi, Hasni and Isha.

Years: 1980, 1983, 1986, 1990, 1994, 1996, 1998, 2000 and 2004.

Base year: 2023

1. Anu is 33 years old.

2.Banu is ten years younger than Anu. So, her age is 23.

YearAgePerson
198043
198340
198637
199033Anu
199429
199627
199825
200023Banu
200419

3. Only one person was born in between Anu and Emil.  4. There is the difference of two years in between the age of Banu and Gargi.  5. Femi is the youngest of all.

Case 1Case 2
YearAgePersonPerson
198043
198340Emil
198637
199033AnuAnu
199429
199627Emil
199825GargiGargi
200023BanuBanu
200419FemiFemi

 

6. No one was born in between Emil and Devi.


Case 1aCase 1bCase 2
YearAgePersonPersonPerson
198043Devi
198340EmilEmil
198637Devi
199033AnuAnuAnu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825GargiGargiGargi
200023BanuBanuBanu
200419FemiFemiFemi
  1. Hasni is elder than Anu but she is not the eldest.

 So, Case 1b is invalid.

8.  There is the difference of more than two years in between the age of Charu and Isha. 9. Charu is elder than Isha who was not born in the odd numbered year. So, Case 1a is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

YearAgePerson
198043Charu
198340Hasni
198637Isha
199033Anu
199429Devi
199627Emil
199825Gargi
200023Banu
200419Femi

A. Emil was born after Banu. → False

B. Femi is the youngest among all. → True

C. Isha was born in 1996. → False

Hence, Both A and C are not true.

6

In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘you are good’; ‘637’ means ‘we are bad’ and ‘358’ means ‘good and bad’. Which of the following digits represents ‘and’ in that code?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

Given:

According to the above codes, "and"  is coded as "8".

Hence, the correct answer is "8".

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Six kids of Class were asked about their favorite colors among Red, Blue, Green, Black, Orange and White. All of them were born in the same year but in different months among April, May, June, July, August and October. T is older than the one who likes Black. U was born in August but does not like Red or Orange. The one who likes White was not born immediate after R. P likes Green but was not born in a month with odd number of days. 2 people were born between R and S, one of whom likes Black. The one who likes Green was born immediately after the one who likes Blue. Q is the youngest out of them but does not like Black or White. The one who likes Orange was one born in one of the months after July. 3 people were born between the one who likes Red and the one who likes White.

7

Who likes Orange?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    The one born in August

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    The one born in June

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Q

Given:

6 people – P, R, S, T, U, and Q

6 colors – Red, Blue, Green, Black, White, and Orange

  1. U was born in August but does not like Red or Orange.
  2. P likes Green but was not born in a month with odd number of days.
  3. The one who likes Green was born immediately after the one who likes Blue.
MonthsPersonColor
April (30)
May (31)Blue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)
August (31)URed/Orange
October (31)

 

  1. 2 people were born between R and S, one of whom likes Black.
  2. Q is the youngest out of them but does not like Black or White.
  3. T is older than the one who likes Black.
MonthCase 1 (a)Case 1 (b)
PersonColorPersonColor
April (30)RS
May (31)TBlueTBlue
June (30)PGreenPGreen
July (31)SBlackRBlack
August (31)URed/OrangeURed/Orange
October (31)QQ

 

  1. The one who likes Orange was one born in one of the months after July.
  2. 3 people were born between the one who likes Red and the one who likes White.
  3. The one who likes White was not born immediate after R.
MonthCase 1 (a)
PersonColor
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange
<br>

(Case 1b will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 9.)

 

Final Arrangement:

MonthsPersonColors
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange

 

Hence, Q likes Orange.

8

Who was born in June?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    The one who likes Red

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    The one who likes Green

  5. ((e))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The one who likes Green

Given:

6 people – P, R, S, T, U, and Q

6 colors – Red, Blue, Green, Black, White, and Orange

 

  1. U was born in August but does not like Red or Orange.
  2. P likes Green but was not born in a month with odd number of days.
  3. The one who likes Green was born immediately after the one who likes Blue.
MonthsPersonColor
April (30)
May (31)Blue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)
August (31)URed/Orange
October (31)

 

  1. 2 people were born between R and S, one of whom likes Black.
  2. Q is the youngest out of them but does not like Black or White.
  3. T is older than the one who likes Black.
MonthCase 1 (a)Case 1 (b)
PersonColorPersonColor
April (30)RS
May (31)TBlueTBlue
June (30)PGreenPGreen
July (31)SBlackRBlack
August (31)URed/OrangeURed/Orange
October (31)QQ

 

  1. The one who likes Orange was one born in one of the months after July.
  2. 3 people were born between the one who likes Red and the one who likes White.
  3. The one who likes White was not born immediate after R.
MonthCase 1 (a)
PersonColor
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange
<br>

(Case 1b will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 9.)

 

Final Arrangement:

MonthsPersonColors
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange

 

Hence, P - who likes Green, was born in June.

9

How many people were born between the one who likes Blue and the one who likes Orange?

  1. ((a))

    5 people

  2. ((b))

    1 person

  3. ((c))

    4 people

  4. ((d))

    2 people

  5. ((e))

    3 people

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

3 people

Given:

6 people – P, R, S, T, U, and Q

6 colors – Red, Blue, Green, Black, White, and Orange

  1. U was born in August but does not like Red or Orange.
  2. P likes Green but was not born in a month with odd number of days.
  3. The one who likes Green was born immediately after the one who likes Blue.
MonthsPersonColor
April (30)
May (31)Blue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)
August (31)URed/Orange
October (31)

 

  1. 2 people were born between R and S, one of whom likes Black.
  2. Q is the youngest out of them but does not like Black or White.
  3. T is older than the one who likes Black.
MonthCase 1 (a)Case 1 (b)
PersonColorPersonColor
April (30)RS
May (31)TBlueTBlue
June (30)PGreenPGreen
July (31)SBlackRBlack
August (31)URed/OrangeURed/Orange
October (31)QQ

 

  1. The one who likes Orange was one born in one of the months after July.
  2. 3 people were born between the one who likes Red and the one who likes White.
  3. The one who likes White was not born immediate after R.
MonthCase 1 (a)
PersonColor
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange
<br>

(Case 1b will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 9.)

 

Final Arrangement:

MonthsPersonColors
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange

 

T, who likes Blue, was born in May.

Q, who likes Orange, was born in October.

Hence, 3 people were born between T and Q.

10

When was the one who likes White born?

  1. ((a))

    April

  2. ((b))

    May

  3. ((c))

    June

  4. ((d))

    July

  5. ((e))

    August

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

August

Given:

6 people – P, R, S, T, U, and Q

6 colors – Red, Blue, Green, Black, White, and Orange

  1. U was born in August but does not like Red or Orange.
  2. P likes Green but was not born in a month with odd number of days.
  3. The one who likes Green was born immediately after the one who likes Blue.
MonthsPersonColor
April (30)
May (31)Blue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)
August (31)URed/Orange
October (31)

 

  1. 2 people were born between R and S, one of whom likes Black.
  2. Q is the youngest out of them but does not like Black or White.
  3. T is older than the one who likes Black.
MonthCase 1 (a)Case 1 (b)
PersonColorPersonColor
April (30)RS
May (31)TBlueTBlue
June (30)PGreenPGreen
July (31)SBlackRBlack
August (31)URed/OrangeURed/Orange
October (31)QQ

 

  1. The one who likes Orange was one born in one of the months after July.
  2. 3 people were born between the one who likes Red and the one who likes White.
  3. The one who likes White was not born immediate after R.
MonthCase 1 (a)
PersonColor
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange
<br>

(Case 1b will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 9.)

 

Final Arrangement:

MonthsPersonColors
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange

 

Hence, U - who likes White, was born in August.

11

Four of the five given options follow a certain logic and form a group, find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    T

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

R

Given:

6 people – P, R, S, T, U, and Q

6 colors – Red, Blue, Green, Black, White, and Orange

 

  1. U was born in August but does not like Red or Orange.
  2. P likes Green but was not born in a month with odd number of days.
  3. The one who likes Green was born immediately after the one who likes Blue.
MonthsPersonColor
April (30)
May (31)Blue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)
August (31)URed/Orange
October (31)

 

  1. 2 people were born between R and S, one of whom likes Black.
  2. Q is the youngest out of them but does not like Black or White.
  3. T is older than the one who likes Black.
MonthCase 1 (a)Case 1 (b)
PersonColorPersonColor
April (30)RS
May (31)TBlueTBlue
June (30)PGreenPGreen
July (31)SBlackRBlack
August (31)URed/OrangeURed/Orange
October (31)QQ

 

  1. The one who likes Orange was one born in one of the months after July.
  2. 3 people were born between the one who likes Red and the one who likes White.
  3. The one who likes White was not born immediate after R.
MonthCase 1 (a)
PersonColor
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange
<br>

(Case 1b will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 9.)

 

Final Arrangement:

MonthsPersonColors
April (30)RRed
May (31)TBlue
June (30)PGreen
July (31)SBlack
August (31)UWhite
October (31)QOrange

 

All of the given options were born in a month that has 31 days, except R - who was born in April which has 30 days.

Hence, R is the odd one out.

12

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some dolphin are turtle.

All turtle are rabbit.

Some owl are rabbit.

Conclusions:

I) Some dolphin are owl.

II) No turtle is owl.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I) Some dolphin are owl → FALSE (There is no direct relation between dolphin and owl thus we cannot say that some dolphin are owl).

II) No turtle is owl → FALSE (All turtle is rabbit and some rabbit is owl, thus some part of thus some part of turtle is there in owl)

Hence, "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

13

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few income is salary.

No salary is dollar.

All salary is pound.

Conclusions:

I. All income is pound.

II. No income is pound.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. All income is pound → FALSE (All salary is pound and only some part of salary is income, thus all part of income cannot be pound but some part of income will be pound).

II. No income is pound → FALSE (Some part of income is there in pound and thus no part of income is pound will be wrong).

Hence, "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

14

In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion (s) among the given two conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.

Statements: 

Only a few Music is Enjoy.

All Food is Enjoy. 

Some Cravings is Food. 

Conclusions:

I. All Cravings is Music.

II. Some Cravings is not Music.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Either conclusion I or II follows

The possible Venn Diagram is -

Conclusions:

I. All Cravings is Music. → False (As there is no direct relation given between Cravings and Music, this conclusion doesn't follow.)

II. Some Cravings is not Music. → False (As there is no direct relation given between Cravings and Music, this conclusion doesn't follow.)

We can see that Conclusions I and II are individually wrong but form a complementary pair. Either of them can be possibly right.

The correct answer is Either conclusions I or II follow.

Additional InformationThe two complementary pairs are:

  1. All + Some not OR Some + All not

  2. No + Some

15

If the consonant which is immediately followed by vowel and a vowel which is immediately followed by consonant are replaced with E and R (i.e. first consonant will be replaced by E and vowel with R) respectively in the word 'SPECTACLES', then how many letters are repeated only twice after replacement?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    More than three

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Two

In the word 'SPECTACLES', letters P, T and L are immediately followed by a vowel so they are replaced by with E and vowels E, A and E are immediately followed by a consonant so they are replaced by with R as follows -

SERCERCERS

Now, four letters S and C are repeated twice only.

Hence, the correct answer is Two.

Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO),  Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.  U is senior to R who is not from UAE. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE. Q is a junior to the AM and he is from Russia. More than four people are senior to S. The number of people who are senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

16

What is the designation of V?

  1. ((a))

    COO

  2. ((b))

    Manager

  3. ((c))

    DM

  4. ((d))

    Assistant

  5. ((e))

    AM

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

AM

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO),  Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

  1. More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
AssistantS
ClerkS
  1. Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.

  2. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.

  3. The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
ManagerBrazil
DMVBrazil
AMV
AssistantSQRussia
ClerkQRussiaS
  1. P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPP
ManagerBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilP
AMVV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A) Eliminated
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPChinaPChina
ManagerUAEBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMVUAEV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOIndiaIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerUAEBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK
  1. U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

(Case1) Eliminated(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOUIndiaUIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerRUAERBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK

Final arrangement:

DesignationsPeopleCountries
CEOUIndia
ChairmanTUSA
ManagerRBrazil
DMPChina
AMVUAE
AssistantQRussia
ClerkSUK

The designation of V is ‘Assistant Manager (AM)’.

The correct answer is 'C'.

17

How many persons are senior to T?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO),  Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

  1. More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
AssistantS
ClerkS
  1. Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.

  2. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.

  3. The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
ManagerBrazil
DMVBrazil
AMV
AssistantSQRussia
ClerkQRussiaS
  1. P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPP
ManagerBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilP
AMVV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A) Eliminated
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPChinaPChina
ManagerUAEBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMVUAEV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOIndiaIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerUAEBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK
  1. U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

(Case1) Eliminated(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOUIndiaUIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerRUAERBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK

Final arrangement:

DesignationsPeopleCountries
CEOUIndia
ChairmanTUSA
ManagerRBrazil
DMPChina
AMVUAE
AssistantQRussia
ClerkSUK

Only 'one' person is senior to T.

The correct answer is 'A'.

18

Who among the following is from UAE?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

V

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO),  Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

  1. More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
AssistantS
ClerkS
  1. Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.

  2. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.

  3. The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
ManagerBrazil
DMVBrazil
AMV
AssistantSQRussia
ClerkQRussiaS
  1. P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPP
ManagerBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilP
AMVV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A) Eliminated
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPChinaPChina
ManagerUAEBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMVUAEV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOIndiaIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerUAEBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK
  1. U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

(Case1) Eliminated(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOUIndiaUIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerRUAERBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK

Final arrangement: 

DesignationsPeopleCountries
CEOUIndia
ChairmanTUSA
ManagerRBrazil
DMPChina
AMVUAE
AssistantQRussia
ClerkSUK

'V' is from UAE.

The correct answer is 'D'.

19

Which of the following is the incorrect pair?

  1. ((a))

    P - China

  2. ((b))

    Assistant - S

  3. ((c))

    T - Chairman

  4. ((d))

    R - Brazil

  5. ((e))

    CEO - India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Assistant - S

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO),  Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

  1. More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
AssistantS
ClerkS
  1. Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.

  2. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.

  3. The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
ManagerBrazil
DMVBrazil
AMV
AssistantSQRussia
ClerkQRussiaS
  1. P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPP
ManagerBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilP
AMVV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A) Eliminated
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPChinaPChina
ManagerUAEBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMVUAEV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOIndiaIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerUAEBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK
  1. U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

(Case1) Eliminated(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOUIndiaUIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerRUAERBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK

Final arrangement: 

DesignationsPeopleCountries
CEOUIndia
ChairmanTUSA
ManagerRBrazil
DMPChina
AMVUAE
AssistantQRussia
ClerkSUK

'Assistant - S' is the incorrect pair.

The correct answer is 'B'.

20

How many designations are there between U and S?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

5

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO),  Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

  1. More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
AssistantS
ClerkS
  1. Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.

  2. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.

  3. The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
Chairman
ManagerBrazil
DMVBrazil
AMV
AssistantSQRussia
ClerkQRussiaS
  1. P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPP
ManagerBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilP
AMVV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

(Case1)(Case2)(Case2A) Eliminated
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEO
ChairmanPChinaPChina
ManagerUAEBrazilBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMVUAEV
AssistantSQRussiaQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSS
  1. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

(Case1)(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOIndiaIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerUAEBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK
  1. U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

(Case1) Eliminated(Case2)
DesignationsPeopleCountriesPeopleCountries
CEOUIndiaUIndia
ChairmanPChinaTUSA
ManagerRUAERBrazil
DMVBrazilPChina
AMTUSAVUAE
AssistantSUKQRussia
ClerkQRussiaSUK

Final arrangement: 

DesignationsPeopleCountries
CEOUIndia
ChairmanTUSA
ManagerRBrazil
DMPChina
AMVUAE
AssistantQRussia
ClerkSUK

'5' designations are there between U and S.

The correct answer is 'D'.

21

There are seven cities – M, N, O, P, R, S and T in a particular state. City S is in which direction from City N?

 

Statement I: City S is in the north of City P, who is in the west of City O. City O, M and N form a straight line. City N is towards the north of City O.

 

Statement II: City N is in north of City M, which is in the west of City T. City S is towards the south of City R, which is in the east of city T.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data given in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

We check the data given in the two statements separately and come to the following possibilities-

Statement I: City S is in the north of City P, who is in the west of City O. City O, M and N form a straight line. City N is towards the north of City O.

From these conditions, we get three cases from which we can determine whether City S is in the north-west or south-west of City N. The cases are-

<br>

<br>

Hence, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient enough to answer the question.

 

Statement II: City N is in north of City M, which is in the west of City T. City S is towards the south of City R, which is in the east of city T.

The possibility that comes out from the above given statements is –

We see that, City S is in the South-East of City N.

Hence, the data in statement II alone is sufficient enough to answer the question.

22

Karen’s brother was born on which day of August?

Statement I:   Karen correctly remembers that her brother’s birthday is before fifteenth August but after twelfth August.

<br>

Statement II:  Karen’s father correctly remembers that his son’s birthday is before seventeenth of August but after ninth of August.

<br>

Statement III:  Karen’s mother correctly remembers that Karen’s brother’s birthday is before sixteenth of August but after thirteenth of August.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Both statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Either statement I and II or II and III together are sufficient to answer the question. 

  4. ((d))

    All the statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. ((e))

    All the statements I, II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

We check the given statements and their possibilities separately as follows-

Statement I:   Karen correctly remembers that her brother’s birthday is before the fifteenth of August but after the twelfth of August.

So, according to Karen, her brother’s birthday is either on the 13th or 14th of August.

Hence, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:  Karen’s father correctly remembers that his son’s birthday is before the seventeenth of August but after the ninth of August.

According to Karen’s father, his son’s birthday is on any one of the following days-

10th, 11th, 12th, 13th, 14th, 15th or 16th of August.

Hence, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement III:  Karen’s mother correctly remembers that Karen’s brother’s birthday is before the sixteenth of August but after the thirteenth of August. 

According to Karen’s mother, her son’s birthday is on the 14th or 15th of August.

Hence, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Now, if we combine the data in statements I and III, we see that Karen’s brother’s birthday is on the 14th of August.

Hence, statements I and III together are necessary to answer the question.

23

There are five floors in a complex building named from number 1 to 5 in such a way that lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and topmost floor is numbered as 5. Five members live at different floors of the building namely, Ryan, Tom, Anne, Claire and Ashley, but not necessarily in the same order. Also, these five work in different companies namely, P, R, T, V and X. Anne stays on Floor number 2 and works in company V and Claire stays on Floor number 5. The one who stays on Floor number 1 is working in company P. Then who lives on Floor number 3 and in which company does he/she work?

<br>

 Statement I. Neither Tom nor Ashley works in company P.

 Statement II. One who lives on floor number 3 works in company T.

 Statement III. Ashley does not work in company T.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Both statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Either statement I and II or II and III together are sufficient to answer the question. 

  4. ((d))

    All the statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. ((e))

    All the statements I, II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All the statements I, II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

Anne stays on Floor number 2 and works in company V and Claire stays on Floor number 5. The one who stays on Floor number 1 is working in company P. From these given conditions, we get the initial inference table as follows:

FLOOR NO.PERSONCOMPANY
5Claire
4
3
2AnneV
1P
<br>

Now we check the given statements and their respective inferences as follows-

Statement I: Neither Tom nor Ashley works in Company P.

Hence, only Ryan is left who works in Company P. Therefore, we get-

FLOOR NO.PERSONCOMPANY
5Claire
4
3
2AnneV
1RyanP

 

Statement II: One who lives on floor number 3 works in company T.

This statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Hence, from statements I and II we get-

FLOOR NO.PERSONCOMPANY
5Claire
4
3T
2AnneV
1RyanP

 

Statement III: Ashley does not work in company T.

If Ashley doesn’t work in Company T, then only Tom is left who works in Company T. Hence, upon combining statements I, II and III we get the table as follows-

FLOOR NO.PERSONCOMPANY
5Claire
4Ashley
3TomT
2AnneV
1RyanP

 

Therefore, from the above table we see that Tom stays in Floor number 3 and works in Company T.

Hence, all the three statements I, II and III together are necessarily sufficient to answer the question.

24

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Each of the following consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

Eight persons are sitting at an octagonal-shaped table and all are sitting in each corner of the table facing inside. Who among the following sits second to the right of A?

Statement I. E sits second to the right of L who sits immediate right of A. Three persons sit between L and X. V is not an immediate neighbor of X.

Statement II. R sits second to the right of U.

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    Data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

From statement I:

E sits second to the right of L who sits immediate right of A. Three persons sit between L and X. V is not an immediate neighbor of X.

We can’t find the answer. So, statement I alone is not sufficient.

From Statement II:

R sits second to the right of U.

There is no information about A.

We can’t find the answer. So, statement II alone is not sufficient.

Combining statement, I and II, 

We can’t the find the answer. So, both statement I and II together are not sufficient.

Thus, Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Thus, option IV is the answer.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer based on it.

Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight row. Some of them are facing the north direction while some of them are facing the south direction. Not more than two people having same direction are adjacent to each other. People facing south direction direction are less than the people facing north direction. W sits third to the left of T, who faces north. Immediate neighbour of T are facing opposite direction to each other. S faces the same direction as T. Two people sit between V and P, who both face the same direction. Three people sit between T and U, who sits at an extreme end of the row. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Neither Q nor S sits at extreme end of the row. V does not sit adjacent to R.

25

How many people are facing north?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Five

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Seven

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Five

From the given instructions: 

 

1)Three people sit between T and U, who sits at an extreme end of the row. W sits third to the left of T, who faces north. So, here we have two cases,  

 

 

  1. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Neither Q nor S sits at extreme end of the row. So, here we have one more case in Case 2 as Case 2(a).  

  

  1. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction. V does not sit adjacent to R.  

  

Here, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are invalid. So, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are cancelled out. 

 

  1. S faces the same direction as T. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Immediate neighbours of T are facing opposite directions to each other. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction.  

  

  1. Not more than two people having same direction are adjacent to each other. People facing south direction are less than the people facing north direction.  

So, Final Arrangement:  

<br>

 

Five people are facing north direction.

26

How many people are sitting between R and V?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three

From the given instructions: 

 

1)Three people sit between T and U, who sits at an extreme end of the row. W sits third to the left of T, who faces north. So, here we have two cases,  

 

 

  1. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Neither Q nor S sits at extreme end of the row. So, here we have one more case in Case 2 as Case 2(a).  

  

  1. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction. V does not sit adjacent to R.  

  

Here, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are invalid. So, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are cancelled out. 

 

  1. S faces the same direction as T. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Immediate neighbours of T are facing opposite directions to each other. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction.  

  

  1. Not more than two people having same direction are adjacent to each other. People facing south direction direction are less than the people facing north direction.  

So, Final Arrangement:  

Three people are sitting between R and V.

27

Which of the following statement/s is/are true according to the final arrangement?

I. Four people are sitting between U and P.

II. T sits third to the right of W.

III. S sits second to the left of Q.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III

  4. ((d))

    All are true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All are true

From the given instructions: 

 

1)Three people sit between T and U, who sits at an extreme end of the row. W sits third to the left of T, who faces north. So, here we have two cases,  

 

 

  1. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Neither Q nor S sits at extreme end of the row. So, here we have one more case in Case 2 as Case 2(a).  

  

  1. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction. V does not sit adjacent to R.  

  

Here, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are invalid. So, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are cancelled out. 

 

  1. S faces the same direction as T. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Immediate neighbours of T are facing opposite directions to each other. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction.  

  

  1. Not more than two people having same direction are adjacent to each other. People facing south direction direction are less than the people facing north direction.  

So, Final Arrangement:  

All are true.

28

What is the position of Q with respect to R?

  1. ((a))

    Third to the right

  2. ((b))

    Second to the right

  3. ((c))

    Third to the left

  4. ((d))

    Second to the left

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Third to the left

From the given instructions: 

 

1)Three people sit between T and U, who sits at an extreme end of the row. W sits third to the left of T, who faces north. So, here we have two cases,  

 

 

  1. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Neither Q nor S sits at extreme end of the row. So, here we have one more case in Case 2 as Case 2(a).  

  

  1. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction. V does not sit adjacent to R.  

  

Here, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are invalid. So, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are cancelled out. 

 

  1. S faces the same direction as T. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Immediate neighbours of T are facing opposite directions to each other. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction.  

  

  1. Not more than two people having same direction are adjacent to each other. People facing south direction direction are less than the people facing north direction.  

So, Final Arrangement:  

Q is third to the left of R.

29

Four of the following options are related in some manner. Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

R

From the given instructions: 

 

1)Three people sit between T and U, who sits at an extreme end of the row. W sits third to the left of T, who faces north. So, here we have two cases,  

 

 

  1. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Neither Q nor S sits at extreme end of the row. So, here we have one more case in Case 2 as Case 2(a).  

  

  1. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction. V does not sit adjacent to R.  

  

Here, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are invalid. So, Case 1 and Case 2(a) are cancelled out. 

 

  1. S faces the same direction as T. Q sits second to the left of S and vice versa. Immediate neighbours of T are facing opposite directions to each other. Two people sit between V and P and both face the same direction.  

  

  1. Not more than two people having same direction are adjacent to each other. People facing south direction direction are less than the people facing north direction.  

So, Final Arrangement:  

All options except R are facing north direction.

So, R is the odd one out.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are eight members D, G, L, M, R, S, V, and O in a family, which consists of three generations. Also, there are three married couples in the family.

G is the only daughter of S. M is married to the sister of D. L is the son of R, who has no siblings. S is the husband of the daughter-in-law of M. O is the sister-in-law of the grandmother of G.

30

How is V related to R?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Mother

  3. ((c))

    Aunt

  4. ((d))

    Mother-in-law

  5. ((e))

    Daughter-in-law

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mother-in-law

Given:

Eight members - D, G, L, M, R, S, V, and O 

Three generations.

Three married couples.

Now,

1) G is the only daughter of S. 

2) S is the husband of the daughter-in-law of M. It means S is the son of M.

3) M is married to the sister of D. It means M is a male.

4) O is the sister-in-law of the grandmother of G. Wife of M is the grandmother of G and O is the wife of D. So, D is a male.

5) L is the son of R, who has no siblings. It means R is the wife of S and L is the brother of G.

The remaining V is the wife of M.

Thus, the final family tree is -

V is the mother-in-law of R.

Hence, the correct answer is Mother-in-law.

31

Which among the following statement (s) is/are true?

I. The number of females is more than the number of males in the family.

II. There is a married couple in each generation of the family.

III. O is the sister-in-law of R.

  1. ((a))

    All are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both II and III are true

  3. ((c))

    Only III is true.

  4. ((d))

    None is true.

  5. ((e))

    Only I is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None is true.

Given:

Eight members - D, G, L, M, R, S, V, and O 

Three generations.

Three married couples.

Now,

1) G is the only daughter of S. 

2) S is the husband of the daughter-in-law of M. It means S is the son of M.

3) M is married to the sister of D. It means M is a male.

4) O is the sister-in-law of the grandmother of G. Wife of M is the grandmother of G and O is the wife of D. So, D is a male.

5) L is the son of R, who has no siblings. It means R is the wife of S and L is the brother of G.

The remaining V is the wife of M.

Thus, the final family tree is -

I. The number of females is equal to the number of males in the family.

II. There is no married couple in the third generation of the family.

III. O is the sister-in-law of V.

Hence, the correct answer is None is true.

32

Which of the following is true about the gender distribution in the third generation?

  1. ((a))

    Two Males and Two females

  2. ((b))

    One male and one female

  3. ((c))

    Two males

  4. ((d))

    Two females

  5. ((e))

    Only one female

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

One male and one female

Given:

Eight members - D, G, L, M, R, S, V, and O 

Three generations.

Three married couples.

Now,

1) G is the only daughter of S. 

2) S is the husband of the daughter-in-law of M. It means S is the son of M.

3) M is married to the sister of D. It means M is a male.

4) O is the sister-in-law of the grandmother of G. Wife of M is the grandmother of G and O is the wife of D. So, D is a male.

5) L is the son of R, who has no siblings. It means R is the wife of S and L is the brother of G.

The remaining V is the wife of M.

Thus, the final family tree is -

There is one male and one female in the third generation.

Hence, the correct answer is One male and one female.

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

33

What does the code 'Nova' mean?

  1. ((a))

    Is

  2. ((b))

    Blunt

  3. ((c))

    Black

  4. ((d))

    Bad

  5. ((e))

    Trauma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Is

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

 Nova is the code for Is.

34

What is the code for Trauma?

  1. ((a))

    Kami

  2. ((b))

    Boku

  3. ((c))

    Nova

  4. ((d))

    Piko

  5. ((e))

    Kuro

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Boku

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

The code for Trauma is Boku.

35

What is the code for Box?

  1. ((a))

    Suzo

  2. ((b))

    Bibi

  3. ((c))

    Piko

  4. ((d))

    Poka

  5. ((e))

    Can not be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Can not be determined

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

The code for Box can not be determined.

36

What does the code 'Piko' stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Energy

  2. ((b))

    Posh

  3. ((c))

    Blunt

  4. ((d))

    Bad

  5. ((e))

    Is

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bad

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

 Piko is the code for Bad.

37

How will the sentence 'Black Sword Is Not Blunt' be coded as?

  1. ((a))

    Kuro Sawa Nova Nero Faki

  2. ((b))

    Kami Nova Kuro Bibi

  3. ((c))

    Kami Sawa Nova Nero Kuro

  4. ((d))

    Faki Bibi Poka Piko

  5. ((e))

    Kami Sawa Nova Poka Kuro

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kami Sawa Nova Nero Kuro

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

 

Since 'Sword' and 'Not' are not given in the information provided in the question, the code for them will be those which are not in the codes given in the information provided.

The code for 'Black Sword Is Not Blunt' is 'Kami Sawa Nova Nero Kuro'.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:

There are six family members Shubh, Chitrakshi, Riya, Sagar, Megha, and Ravi, and all of them are of different ages. Chitrakshi is older than Megha but not as old as Ravi. Ravi is not the oldest. Chitrakshi age is not an odd number. The age of Shubh is 24 years. The third youngest person in the family is 27 years old. Megha is the youngest family member. Riya's age is not an odd number and not younger than Ravi's.

38

Who among the following is the third oldest in the family?

  1. ((a))

    Shubh

  2. ((b))

    Chitrakshi

  3. ((c))

    Riya

  4. ((d))

    Megha

  5. ((e))

    Ravi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chitrakshi

Family Members: Shubh, Chitrakshi, Riya, Sagar, Megha, Ravi

1.  Chitrakshi is older than Megha but not as old as Ravi. Ravi is not the oldest

___ > Ravi > Chitrakshi > Megha

2.The third youngest person in the family is 27 years old and the age of Shubh is 24 years. Megha is the youngest family member. →Shubh is the 2nd youngest family member

3. Chitrakshi age is not an odd number

Therefore the arrangement is:

__ 27 > Shubh (24) > Megha

  1. Riya's age is not an odd number and not younger than Ravi's.

Therefore, Riya is not 27. Hence Riya must be the oldest member

Now, only Sagar is left and the position of the third youngest person in the family

Therefore the final arrangement is :

Riya > Ravi > Chitrakshi > Sagar (27) > Shubh (24) > Megha

Hence, Chitrakshi is the third oldest in the family

39

What is the possible age of Megha?

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    22

  5. ((e))

    28

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22

Family Members: Shubh, Chitrakshi, Riya, Sagar, Megha, Ravi

1.  Chitakshi is older than Megha but not as old as Ravi. Ravi is not the oldest

___ > Ravi > Chitrakshi > Megha

2.The third youngest person in the family is 27 years old and the age of Shubh is 24 years. Megha is the youngest family member. →Shubh is the 2nd youngest family member

3. Chitrakshi age is not an odd number

Therefore the arrangement is:

__ 27 > Shubh (24) > Ravi

  1. Riya's age is not an odd number and not younger than Ravi's.

Therefore, Riya is not 27. Hence Riya must be the oldest member

Now, only Sagar is left and the position of the third youngest person in the family

Therefore the final arrangement is :

Riya > Ravi > Chitrakshi > Sagar (27) > Shubh (24) > Megha

Megha is the youngest family member.

Hence, the Megha age must be less than the Shubh age. Shubh's age is 24. As per option, only 22 is less than 24.

Therefore, 22 is the possibility of Megha.

40

Who among the following is younger than Chitakshi but older than Shubh?

  1. ((a))

    Sagar

  2. ((b))

    Shubh

  3. ((c))

    Chitakshi

  4. ((d))

    Riya

  5. ((e))

    Ravi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sagar

Family Members: Shubh, Chitrakshi, Riya, Sagar, Megha, Ravi

1.  Chitakshi is older than Megha but not as old as Ravi. Ravi is not the oldest

___ > Ravi > Chitrakshi > Megha

2.The third youngest person in the family is 27 years old and the age of Shubh is 24 year. Megha is the youngest family member. →Shubh is the 2nd youngest family member

3. Chitrakshi age is not an odd number

Therefore the arrangement is:

__ 27 > Shubh (24)

  1. Riya's age is not an odd number and not younger than Ravi's.

Therefore, Riya is not 27. Hence Riya must be the oldest member

Now, only Sagar is left and the position of the third youngest person in the family

Therefore the final arrangement is :

Riya > Ravi > Chitrakshi > Sagar (27) > Shubh (24) > Megha

Hence, Sagar is younger than Chitakshi but older than Shubh.

Test of English Language (40 questions)

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Paragraph - 1

The Great Indian Bustard (GIB), revered as Rajasthan's State bird, holds the grim distinction of being India's most critically endangered avian species. Its existence is safeguarded under the Wildlife Protection Act due to a population perilously hovering around 150 individuals in Rajasthan alone, constituting a staggering 95% of the global count. Despite such protective measures, the GIB faces an existential threat primarily stemming from extensive agricultural practices, the pervasive installation of power lines, and the relentless march of industrialization. This concerning scenario prompted the Supreme Court to intervene, mandating the Chief Secretaries of Gujarat and Rajasthan to initiate a comprehensive strategy to rescue these majestic birds. The directive includes a thorough assessment of the total length of implicated transmission lines and the determination of requisite bird diverters to mitigate collision risks.

Paragraph - 2

Distinguishing features of the Great Indian Bustard include their imposing stature, standing at approximately one meter tall and weighing between 15 to 18 kilograms. Flight is not their forte; they are not adept fliers and instead rely on their expansive sideways vision to optimize predator detection. However, their forward vision is notably narrow, rendering them unable to detect power lines from a distance. Consequently, their heavy flight capacity becomes a liability when navigating perilously close power lines. This inability to manoeuvre effectively around these structures leaves them vulnerable to collisions, often resulting in fatal outcomes. Regrettably, these collisions, rather than electrocution, are the primary cause of their demise.

Paragraph - 3

A proactive initiative has been established to address the GIB's perilous decline. A satellite conservation breeding facility situated in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, is nurturing a total of 16 GIB chicks. These chicks, artificially hatched from eggs gathered in the wild, signify a beacon of hope. The ultimate aim is to cultivate a captive population of GIBs within this facility and subsequently release these chicks into their natural habitat. Nonetheless, this ambitious endeavour is projected to span a considerable duration, potentially requiring 20 to 25 years for fruition. Conservationists and wildlife enthusiasts advocate for the expansion of suitable habitats beyond protected areas to fortify the species' survival chances. Additionally, experts advocate for a community-centric approach to the conservation of critically endangered species, emphasizing the imperative role of local communities in protecting these majestic birds and their habitats.

41

What multifaceted challenges contribute significantly to the endangerment of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) as mentioned in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Agricultural impacts, power lines, and industrial expansion

  2. ((b))

    Predatory threats, environmental shifts, and legal insufficiency

  3. ((c))

    Diminishing natural habitats, overhunting, and genetic factors

  4. ((d))

    Rapid urbanization, avian diseases, and territorial conflicts

  5. ((e))

    Both 1 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Agricultural impacts, power lines, and industrial expansion

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's refer to Paragraph - 1 in the passage, which discusses the challenges contributing significantly to the endangerment of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB).
  • The paragraph highlights the primary threats faced by the GIB, stating, "Despite such protective measures, the GIB faces an existential threat primarily stemming from extensive agricultural practices, the pervasive installation of power lines, and the relentless march of industrialization."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Agricultural impacts, power lines, and industrial expansion."
42

How does the distinctive physicality of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) predispose it to vulnerability, as elucidated in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Their substantial height and weight enable robust flight, making them less susceptible to collisions.

  2. ((b))

    Their forward vision allows them to detect power lines from a distance, averting collisions.

  3. ((c))

    Their narrow forward vision impedes their ability to detect power lines, resulting in frequent collisions.

  4. ((d))

    Their flight prowess enables them to manoeuvre effortlessly around power lines, reducing collision risks.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Their narrow forward vision impedes their ability to detect power lines, resulting in frequent collisions.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's focus on Paragraph - 2 in the passage, which elaborates on the distinctive physical traits of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
  • "However, their forward vision is notably narrow, rendering them unable to detect power lines from a distance. Consequently, their heavy flight capacity becomes a liability when navigating perilously close power lines."
  • From this paragraph, it is evident that the narrow forward vision of the GIBs impedes their ability to detect power lines from a distance, leading to frequent collisions.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Their narrow forward vision impedes their ability to detect power lines, resulting in frequent collisions."
43

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the given passage?

A. The GIB's stature as the State bird of Rajasthan has led to specific cultural or ceremonial significance beyond its conservation status.

B. Implementing a community-centric conservation approach might positively influence the attitudes of local communities towards wildlife conservation.

C. The Supreme Court's directive indicates a recognition of the urgent need for coordinated efforts to protect the GIB population in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    All A, B, and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's review the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - The GIB's stature as the State bird of Rajasthan has led to specific cultural or ceremonial significance beyond its conservation status.
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. While the passage emphasizes the GIB's critical status as Rajasthan's State bird and its conservation under the Wildlife Protection Act, there's no mention of its ceremonial or cultural significance beyond its conservation status.
  • Sentence B - Implementing a community-centric conservation approach might positively influence the attitudes of local communities towards wildlife conservation.
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 3 highlights the advocacy for a community-centric approach to conserve endangered species like the GIB, stressing the importance of local communities in protecting these birds and their habitats.
  • Sentence C - The Supreme Court's directive indicates a recognition of the urgent need for coordinated efforts to protect the GIB population in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
  • This sentence can also be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 1 explicitly mentions the Supreme Court's intervention, mandating coordinated efforts by the Chief Secretaries of Gujarat and Rajasthan to devise a comprehensive strategy to rescue the GIB, indicating a recognized urgent need for protecting the GIB population in these states.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, both sentences B and C can be inferred from the passage, while sentence A cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these."
44

Considering the plight of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) outlined in the passage, which holistic approach is primarily suggested to ensure the survival and resurgence of this critically endangered avian species?

  1. ((a))

    Initiating an immediate relocation of the entire GIB population to a designated safer habitat to avoid further risks

  2. ((b))

    Enforcing stringent legal ramifications for any actions resulting in harm or disturbance to the GIB population

  3. ((c))

    Advocating for an extension of viable habitats beyond the confines of protected areas to enhance the species' likelihood of survival

  4. ((d))

    Deliberately reducing the current number of GIBs in the wild to mitigate collision risks and ensure their safety

  5. ((e))

    Restricting the access and movement of local communities near GIB habitats to minimize disturbances and potential threats

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Advocating for an extension of viable habitats beyond the confines of protected areas to enhance the species' likelihood of survival

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's refer to Paragraph - 3 in the passage, which delineates comprehensive strategies for ensuring the survival and resurgence of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB).
  • The passage emphasizes the necessity of expanding viable habitats beyond protected areas to bolster the species' survival prospects: "Conservationists and wildlife enthusiasts advocate for the expansion of suitable habitats beyond protected areas to fortify the species' survival chances."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Advocating for an extension of viable habitats beyond the confines of protected areas to enhance the species' likelihood of survival."
45

Which of the following sentence(s) are true/false according to the passage?

A. The heavy flight capacity of the Great Indian Bustard becomes a liability near power lines, leading to collisions.

B. The conservation breeding facility aims to release the chicks immediately into their natural habitat after nurturing.

C. Power line collisions, not electrocution, are the primary cause of the Great Indian Bustard's demise.

D. The Great Indian Bustards are adept fliers, utilizing their heavy flight capacity to navigate power lines effectively.

E. A satellite conservation breeding facility in Jaisalmer nurtures 16 artificially hatched Great Indian Bustard chicks.

  1. ((a))

    Both B and C are true

  2. ((b))

    Only D is false

  3. ((c))

    All B, D, and E are true

  4. ((d))

    Both B and D are false

  5. ((e))

    All A, B, and C are true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both B and D are false

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To address the question, let's examine each sentence given in the question:
  • Sentence A: The heavy flight capacity of the Great Indian Bustard becomes a liability near power lines, leading to collisions.
  • This sentence is true. Paragraph 2 specifies that the Bustards' inability to manoeuvre effectively around power lines due to their heavy flight capacity leaves them vulnerable to collisions.
  • Sentence B: The conservation breeding facility aims to release the chicks immediately into their natural habitat after nurturing.
  • This sentence is false. Paragraph 3 states that the goal of the satellite conservation breeding facility in Jaisalmer is to cultivate a captive population of GIBs and release the chicks into their natural habitat eventually, but there's no mention of an immediate release after nurturing.
  • Sentence C: Power line collisions, not electrocution, are the primary cause of the Great Indian Bustard's demise.
  • This sentence is true. Paragraph 2 explicitly mentions that collisions with power lines, rather than electrocution, are the main cause of death for these birds.
  • Sentence D: The Great Indian Bustards are adept fliers, utilizing their heavy flight capacity to navigate power lines effectively.
  • This sentence is false. Paragraph 2 clarifies that these birds are not adept fliers, and their heavy flight capacity becomes a liability near power lines, making them vulnerable to collisions.
  • Sentence E: A satellite conservation breeding facility in Jaisalmer nurtures 16 artificially hatched Great Indian Bustard chicks.
  • This sentence is true. Paragraph 3 mentions the satellite conservation breeding facility in Jaisalmer nurturing a total of 16 artificially hatched GIB chicks.
  • So, out of the given sentences, sentences A, C, and E are true, while sentences B and D are false.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both B and D are false."
46

Which of the following summarizes the primary focus of the passage regarding the Great Indian Bustard's conservation efforts?

  1. ((a))

    The Great Indian Bustard's breeding facility in Rajasthan nurtures artificially hatched chicks for immediate habitat release.

  2. ((b))

    The Great Indian Bustard faces threats due to industrialization and power lines, prompting Supreme Court intervention.

  3. ((c))

    Conservationists suggest expansion of protected areas as the sole solution to the Great Indian Bustard's endangered status.

  4. ((d))

    The Great Indian Bustard's narrow forward vision hampers its ability to detect power lines, causing electrocution.

  5. ((e))

    The Supreme Court mandates bird diverters to prevent collisions for the Great Indian Bustard's conservation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Great Indian Bustard faces threats due to industrialization and power lines, prompting Supreme Court intervention.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

​​To answer this question, let's dissect the primary focus of the passage on the conservation efforts for the Great Indian Bustard:

The passage discusses the precarious situation of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), emphasizing its critically endangered status due to threats from agriculture, power lines, and industrialization. The Supreme Court's intervention to address these threats, including directives to Rajasthan and Gujarat's Chief Secretaries, forms a significant part of the discussion. The GIB's physical attributes, particularly its vision limitations and vulnerability to collisions with power lines, are highlighted as key factors in its decline.

  • Now, let's review the given options:
  • Option 1: The Great Indian Bustard's breeding facility in Rajasthan nurtures artificially hatched chicks for immediate habitat release.
  • This option mentions the breeding facility but doesn't encapsulate the primary focus of the passage, which is broader and encompasses threats, Supreme Court intervention, and conservation strategies beyond immediate habitat release. Thus, this cannot be the correct answer.
  • Option 2: The Great Indian Bustard faces threats due to industrialization and power lines, prompting Supreme Court intervention.
  • This option accurately summarizes the main focus of the passage, highlighting the threats faced by GIBs and the actions taken by the Supreme Court to mitigate these threats. Thus, this is the correct answer.
  • Option 3: Conservationists suggest expansion of protected areas as the sole solution to the Great Indian Bustard's endangered status.
  • While habitat expansion is mentioned in the passage, it is not suggested as the sole solution. The passage emphasizes various conservation strategies and the involvement of local communities, making this option incomplete. Thus, this cannot be the correct answer.
  • Option 4: The Great Indian Bustard's narrow forward vision hampers its ability to detect power lines, causing electrocution.
  • Although the vision limitations are discussed in the passage, the primary focus is not on electrocution but rather on collisions with power lines as a threat to GIBs. Thus, this cannot be the correct answer.
  • Option 5: The Supreme Court mandates bird diverters to prevent collisions for the Great Indian Bustard's conservation.
  • While bird diverters are mentioned in the passage as part of the Supreme Court's directives, the broader context of threats and conservation strategies is the primary focus, making this option narrower in scope. Thus, this cannot be the correct answer.
  • Therefore, the statement that best summarizes the primary focus of the passage regarding the Great Indian Bustard's conservation efforts is "The Great Indian Bustard faces threats due to industrialization and power lines, prompting Supreme Court intervention."
47

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. shifts in power dynamics, China's ascent, 

B. that demands innovative strategic approaches

C. and misjudgments in policy assumptions, 

D. India's regional dilemmas stem from 

E. potentially leading to a challenging geopolitical future

  1. ((a))

    BAECD

  2. ((b))

    DACEB

  3. ((c))

    CEADB

  4. ((d))

    DECBA

  5. ((e))

    BACED

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

DACEB

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

​​The correct sequence of the scattered segments is DACEB.

  • D, "India's regional dilemmas stem from," serves as the first part as it introduces the main subject of the sentence, which is India's regional issues and their origin.
  • A, "shifts in power dynamics, China's ascent," follows logically after D, detailing one of the reasons for India's regional dilemmas.
  • C, "and misjudgments in policy assumptions," connects next, complementing the prior segments by adding another factor contributing to India's regional dilemmas.
  • E, "potentially leading to a challenging geopolitical future," comes after C, connecting the preceding elements to the potential outcome, creating a comprehensive statement.
  • B, "that demands innovative strategic approaches," concludes the sentence, tying together the elements by specifying the necessity for innovative strategic approaches in response to the challenging geopolitical future.

 

The complete sentence would be - "India's regional dilemmas stem from shifts in power dynamics, China's ascent, and misjudgments in policy assumptions, potentially leading to a challenging geopolitical future that demands innovative strategic approaches."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Regional - relating to or characteristic of a particular region, area, or locality (क्षेत्रीय)
  • For Example -
  • The regional cuisine of that area is known for its unique blend of spices and flavours.
  • Dilemma - a situation in which a difficult choice has to be made between two or more alternatives, especially equally undesirable ones (दुविधा)
  • For Example -
  • She faced a dilemma when she had to choose between pursuing her career abroad or staying close to family.
  • Dynamics - the forces or properties that stimulate growth, development, or change within a system or process (गतिकी)
  • For Example -
  • The dynamics of the market constantly evolve due to changing consumer preferences.
  • Ascent - the act of rising or moving upward, especially in a gradual way (उन्नति)
  • For Example -
  • His rapid ascent in the corporate world surprised many of his colleagues.
  • Misjudgment - an error in judgment or an incorrect assessment of a situation (ग़लत मूल्यांकन)
  • For Example -
  • His misjudgment of her intentions led to misunderstandings between them.
  • Assumption - a thing that is accepted as true or as certain to happen, without proof (अनुमान)
  • For Example -
  • Her assumption that everyone would agree with her opinion was proven wrong during the meeting.
  • Geopolitical - relating to politics, especially international relations, as influenced by geographical factors (भूराजनीतिक)
  • For Example -
  • The geopolitical tensions between the neighbouring countries impacted trade relations.
  • Innovative - introducing or using new ideas, methods, or concepts (नवाचारी)
  • For Example -
  • The company's innovative approach to problem-solving sets them apart from their competitors.
  • Strategic - relating to the identification of long-term or overall aims and interests and the means of achieving them (रणनीतिक)
  • For Example -
  • The strategic placement of their stores helped the company expand its market reach.
48

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. worldwide dedication to innovative solutions 

B. offer hope and emphasize the critical need for 

C. and sustained advancements in global health

D. notably shorter regimens for drug-resistant TB, 

E. the recent breakthroughs in TB treatments

  1. ((a))

    EDBAC

  2. ((b))

    BCDEA

  3. ((c))

    ABDCE

  4. ((d))

    CAEDB

  5. ((e))

    BACED

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EDBAC

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

​​The correct sequence of the scattered segments is EDBAC.

  • E, "the recent breakthroughs in TB treatments," is the first part as it sets the context by introducing the advancements in tuberculosis treatments.
  • D, "notably shorter regimens for drug-resistant TB," logically follows E, elaborating on a specific aspect of these breakthroughs.
  • B, "offer hope and emphasize the critical need for," connects well after D, expressing the positive implications and the urgency created by these advancements.
  • A, "worldwide dedication to innovative solutions," logically follows B, emphasizing the necessity for global efforts in response to the mentioned advancements.
  • C, "and sustained advancements in global health," completes the sentence by providing an additional aspect linked to innovative solutions, underscoring the need for continued progress in global health.

 

The complete sentence would be - "The recent breakthroughs in TB treatments, notably shorter regimens for drug-resistant TB, offer hope and emphasize the critical need for worldwide dedication to innovative solutions and sustained advancements in global health."

 

Additional Information 

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Breakthrough - a significant development or discovery that represents a leap forward, especially in science, technology, or innovation (प्रवर्धन)
  • For Example -
  • The team's breakthrough in cancer research offered new hope to patients worldwide.
  • Notably - particularly; especially; in a way that attracts attention or deserves notice (विशेष रूप से)
  • For Example -
  • The artist was notably absent from the exhibition despite being the guest of honour.
  • Regimen - a systematic plan or course of action, typically related to diet, exercise, or medication, aimed at improving health or achieving a specific result (व्यवस्थित योजना)
  • For Example -
  • The athlete followed a strict regimen of workouts and diet to prepare for the competition.
  • Emphasize - to give special importance or attention to something; to highlight or stress (जोर देना)
  • For Example -
  • The teacher emphasized the importance of practice in mastering the musical instrument.
  • Critical - of crucial importance; essential; relating to a crisis or turning point (महत्वपूर्ण)
  • For Example -
  • Clear communication during a crisis is critical for effective problem-solving.
  • Dedication - the quality of being committed or devoted to a task or purpose; the act of giving time and energy to something (समर्पण)
  • For Example -
  • Her dedication to her studies earned her top grades in the class.
  • Innovative - introducing or using new methods, ideas, or products; characterized by originality and creativity (नवाचारी)
  • For Example -
  • The company's innovative approach to sustainable packaging impressed customers.
  • Sustained - continuing over an extended period without interruption; maintained at a certain level (स्थिरित)
  • For Example -
  • The sustained growth of the economy boosted investor confidence.
49

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. urban development approach focused on 

B. prompting the need for a holistic 

C. rapid urban growth strains infrastructure 

D. sustainability and human-environment synergy

E. disrupts ecology and heightens disaster risks

  1. ((a))

    ABCED

  2. ((b))

    CABDE

  3. ((c))

    ACEBD

  4. ((d))

    DACEB

  5. ((e))

    CEBAD

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

CEBAD

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

​​The correct sequence of the scattered segments is CEBAD.

  • C, "rapid urban growth strains infrastructure," is the first part as it introduces the primary issue of urban growth putting pressure on infrastructure.
  • E, "disrupts ecology and heightens disaster risks," logically follows C, elaborating on the consequences of this strain on urban ecology and risk levels.
  • B, "prompting the need for a holistic," is the third part as it connects well with the mentioned consequences, signifying the necessity for a comprehensive approach.
  • A, "urban development approach focused on," fits next, setting the stage for discussing the kind of approach required in response to the challenges outlined.
  • D, "sustainability and human-environment synergy," concludes the sentence, detailing the key aspects of the required urban development approach.

 

The complete sentence would be - "Rapid urban growth strains infrastructure disrupts ecology and heightens disaster risks, prompting the need for a holistic urban development approach focused on sustainability and human-environment synergy."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Rapid - happening in a short time or at a fast pace (तेज)
  • For Example -
  • The rapid growth of technology has transformed various industries in recent years.
  • Infrastructure - the basic physical and organizational structures and facilities needed for the operation of a society, such as transportation and communication systems, buildings, and power supplies (आधारिक संरचना)
  • For Example -
  • Investment in infrastructure is essential for a country's economic development.
  • Disrupt - to interrupt the normal course or unity of something, often causing disorder or disturbance (बाधित करना)
  • For Example -
  • The construction noise disrupted the peaceful atmosphere of the neighbourhood.
  • Ecology - the branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and their physical surroundings (पारिस्थितिकी)
  • For Example -
  • Preserving the ecology of a region is crucial for maintaining biodiversity.
  • Heighten - to increase or make something more intense, elevated, or extreme (बढ़ाना)
  • For Example -
  • The diplomatic tensions between the two countries heightened after the border dispute.
  • Disaster - a sudden event causing widespread destruction, distress, or adversity (आपदा)
  • For Example -
  • The hurricane was a natural disaster that caused massive damage to coastal areas.
  • Prompting - cause someone to take a course of action (प्रोत्साहन)
  • For Example -
  • Her success story was prompting others to pursue their dreams.
  • Holistic - characterized by the comprehension of the parts of something as intimately interconnected and explicable only by reference to the whole (पूर्णात्मक)
  • For Example -
  • Holistic medicine considers not just physical health but also mental and emotional well-being.
  • Sustainability - the ability to be maintained at a certain rate or level without depleting resources or causing long-term harm to the environment (सततता)
  • For Example -
  • Using renewable energy sources is essential for achieving sustainability in the long run.
  • Synergy - the interaction or cooperation of two or more elements that produce a combined effect greater than the sum of their separate effects (सहयोग)
  • For Example -
  • The synergy between creativity and technology resulted in groundbreaking innovations.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Information and Broadcasting Ministry on Friday released The ‘Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023’ to enable and empower the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC), the Central government’s advertising wing, to undertake campaigns in the digital media space. “This policy marks a pivotal moment in the CBC’s mission to disseminate information and create awareness regarding various schemes, programmes, and policies of the Government of India in response to the evolving media landscape and the increased digitalisation of media consumption,” said the Ministry. It said, “The huge subscriber base in the Digital Universe, coupled with technology-enabled messaging options through digital advertisements, will facilitate effective delivery of citizen-centric messages in a targeted manner, resulting in cost efficiencies in public-oriented campaigns.” The Ministry said that in recent years, the way audiences consumed media had witnessed a significant shift towards the digital space. “As per TRAI’s Indian Telecom Services Performance Indicators January–March 2023, the internet penetration in India as of March 2023, is over 880 million, and the number of telecom subscribers as of March 2023 is over 1,172 million,” it said. 

The policy will empower the CBC to empanel agencies and organisations in the OTT and Video on Demand Space. The CBC will also be able to _______ the growing number of listeners to podcasts and digital audio platforms through their empanelment. Apart from rationalising its process of empanelling websites, the CBC now for the first time will be able to channelise its public service campaign messages through mobile applications too. “With social media platforms becoming one of the popular channels of public conversations, the policy further streamlines the process through which the CBC can place advertisements for government clients on these platforms. The policy also empowers the CBC to empanel digital media agencies to enhance its outreach through the various platforms,” said the Ministry.

The new policy also recognizes the dynamic nature of the digital landscape and assigns the CBC the authority to onboard new and innovative communication platforms in the digital space with the approval of a duly constituted committee. “The CBC’s Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, introduces competitive bidding for rate discovery, ensuring transparency and efficiency. Rates discovered through this process will remain valid for three years and will apply to all eligible agencies,” it said. All the Ministries and the departments of the Central government now have dedicated social media handles, which produce a large quantum of infographics and videos whose reach is limited to the subscribers of the handles. “This outreach of government ministries and departments will be further supplemented by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting’s Media Unit, CBC, which is the designated organisation for the issue of advertisements through all forms of media,” said the Ministry. Stating that the Digital Advertisement Policy 2023 had been formulated after a wide-ranging discussion with multiple stakeholders, it said that the policy outlined the roadmap of enhancing the digital outreach of the government and improved information dissemination to the citizens.

50

Which of the following words can replace the word "assigns" in the sentence?

  1. ((a))

    Entrusts

  2. ((b))

    Abrogates

  3. ((c))

    Confiscates

  4. ((d))

    Withholds

  5. ((e))

    Evicts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Entrusts

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's understand the meanings of the marked word and the words given as options:
  • Assign - to allocate a task or responsibility to someone (सौंपना)
  • For Example -
  • The teacher will assign different roles to students for the school play.
  • Entrust - to give someone the responsibility of doing something or taking care of something (सौंपना/विश्वास करना)
  • For Example -
  • The manager decided to entrust the project to her most experienced team member.
  • Abrogate - to officially end or cancel something, especially a law, agreement, or custom (निरस्त करना)
  • For Example -
  • The government decided to abrogate the outdated policy due to public outcry.
  • Confiscate - to take something away from someone, especially as a punishment or because it is illegal (ज़ब्त करना)
  • For Example -
  • The security at the airport had to confiscate the oversized liquid container from the passenger's bag.
  • Withhold - to refuse to give something or to keep back something (बाध्य करना/ रोक देना)
  • For Example -
  • The company decided to withhold bonuses until the financial quarter's results were confirmed.
  • Evict - to legally force someone to leave a property or land (निकाल देना)
  • For Example -
  • The landlord had to evict the tenant due to consistent non-payment of rent.
  • So, after understanding the meanings of the highlighted word and the words given as options, we can conclude that, among these options, "entrusts" best captures the meaning of granting the CBC the authority or responsibility to onboard new and innovative communication platforms in the digital space, aligning with the context of the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Entrusts."
51

What role does the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, assign to the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC)?

  1. ((a))

    Implementing tax reforms in the digital media space

  2. ((b))

    Empanelling digital media agencies exclusively

  3. ((c))

    Disseminating infographics through social media handles

  4. ((d))

    Conducting outreach through various platforms

  5. ((e))

    Undertaking campaigns in the digital media space

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Undertaking campaigns in the digital media space

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's refer to the passage to understand the role assigned to the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) by the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023.
  • The passage mentions various aspects regarding the CBC's role in the context of this policy: "The Information and Broadcasting Ministry on Friday released The ‘Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023’ to enable and empower the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC), the Central government’s advertising wing, to undertake campaigns in the digital media space."
  • This particular line in the passage clearly states that the primary role assigned to the CBC by the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, is to undertake campaigns in the digital media space.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Undertaking campaigns in the digital media space."
52

How does the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, aim to enhance outreach through social media platforms?

  1. ((a))

    Through exclusive collaboration with one social media platform

  2. ((b))

    By limiting the scope of advertisements

  3. ((c))

    By streamlining the process for placing government ads

  4. ((d))

    Restricting advertisement placement on government handles

  5. ((e))

    By eliminating government advertisements on social media

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

By streamlining the process for placing government ads

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's turn to the third paragraph of the passage, which details the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, and its impact on social media outreach:
  • "The policy further streamlines the process through which the CBC can place advertisements for government clients on these platforms. The policy also empowers the CBC to empanel digital media agencies to enhance its outreach through the various platforms."
  • From this paragraph, it's evident that the Digital Advertisement Policy of 2023 aims to enhance outreach through social media platforms by streamlining the process of placing government ads. It allows the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) to effectively put government advertisements on these platforms, thus expanding their outreach.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "By streamlining the process for placing government ads."
53

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "disseminate" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Propagate

  2. ((b))

    Constrict

  3. ((c))

    Accumulate

  4. ((d))

    Disguise

  5. ((e))

    Suppress

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Suppress

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word "disseminate" in the context of the passage:
  • Disseminate - to spread or distribute information, knowledge, or something widely (प्रसारित करना)
  • For Example -
  • The organization aims to disseminate awareness about environmental conservation.
  • Now, let's consider the meanings of the options:
  • Propagate - to spread, promote, or advance an idea or theory (प्रसारित करना)
  • For Example -
  • The activists aim to propagate the importance of renewable energy sources.
  • Constrict - to narrow, limit, or make something smaller or tighter (संकुचित करना)
  • For Example -
  • The laws should not constrict freedom of expression.
  • Accumulate - to gather or collect things over time (संचित होना)
  • For Example -
  • He tends to accumulate books in his personal library.
  • Disguise - to hide the true appearance or nature of something (रूप बदलना)
  • For Example -
  • She tried to disguise her identity by wearing a mask.
  • Suppress - to restrain, prevent, or stop something from happening or being expressed (दबाना)
  • For Example -
  • The government tried to suppress dissenting voices during the protest.
  • So, after understanding the meanings of all the given words, we can conclude that the word that is opposite in meaning to "disseminate" in the context of the passage is "suppress." Disseminate means spreading or distributing widely, while suppress means restraining or preventing something from being expressed or happening.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Suppress."
54

Which of the following sentence(s) cannot be inferred from the given passage?

A. The Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, aims to empower the CBC for digital campaigns due to the shift in media consumption.

B. The policy includes provisions for exceptions to the competitive bidding process based on agency relationships.

C. The CBC is given authority to explore new communication platforms in the digital space with committee approval.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    All A, B, and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only B

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A: The Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, aims to empower the CBC for digital campaigns due to the shift in media consumption.
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses how the policy is designed to empower the CBC to undertake campaigns in the digital media space, acknowledging the shift in media consumption towards the digital space.
  • Sentence B: The policy includes provisions for exceptions to the competitive bidding process based on agency relationships.
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. There's no explicit mention or indication within the passage about exceptions to the competitive bidding process based on agency relationships. The passage primarily emphasizes the introduction of competitive bidding for rate discovery to ensure transparency and efficiency.
  • Sentence C: The CBC is given authority to explore new communication platforms in the digital space with committee approval.
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that the CBC is assigned the authority to onboard new and innovative communication platforms in the digital space with the approval of a duly constituted committee.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, sentence B cannot be inferred from the passage, while both sentences A and C can be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only B."
55

Which of the following words will come in the blank taken from the passage?

The CBC will also be able to _______ the growing number of listeners to podcasts and digital audio platforms through their empanelment.

  1. ((a))

    Exacerbate

  2. ((b))

    Monopolize

  3. ((c))

    Leverage

  4. ((d))

    Deteriorate

  5. ((e))

    Consolidate

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Leverage

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

​​To answer this question, let's first understand the sentence containing the blank from the passage:

"The CBC will also be able to _______ the growing number of listeners to podcasts and digital audio platforms through their empanelment."

  • This sentence talks about how the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) will utilize its empanelment capability in the digital space.
  • The word that fills the blank should denote a positive action related to managing or taking advantage of the growing audience of listeners on digital audio platforms and podcasts.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the provided options:
  • Exacerbate - make (a problem, bad situation, or negative feeling) worse (बिगड़ना)
  • For Example -
  • The lack of communication only exacerbated the misunderstanding between the two friends, leading to a bigger argument.
  • Monopolize - to have exclusive possession or control over something (एकाधिकृत करना)
  • For Example -
  • The corporation tried to monopolize the market by acquiring smaller companies, limiting competition.
  • Leverage - the exertion of force using a lever or an advantageous use of power or influence (साधनों का उपयोग)
  • For Example -
  • She used her skills and knowledge to leverage her position within the company and negotiate a higher salary.
  • Deteriorate - to become progressively worse; to decline (बिगड़ना)
  • For Example -
  • Neglecting maintenance caused the building's condition to deteriorate rapidly, leading to structural issues.
  • Consolidate - to combine or unite into a single, more effective whole; strengthen (एकीकृत करना)
  • For Example -
  • The CEO's plan to consolidate various departments streamlined operations and improved overall efficiency within the company.
  • So, in the context of the sentence, the word that best fills the blank in the sentence is "leverage" as it aligns with the idea of making use of the increased number of listeners for a positive purpose, as discussed in the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Leverage."
56

Which of the following statements about the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, is not supported by the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The policy aims to restrict social media conversations.

  2. ((b))

    The CBC gains authority to onboard new digital platforms.

  3. ((c))

    Infographics and videos are generated by ministries for social media.

  4. ((d))

    The policy introduces competitive bidding for rate discovery.

  5. ((e))

    The CBC will be empowered to empanel agencies in various digital spaces.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The policy aims to restrict social media conversations.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's analyze the statements given as options:
  • Option 1: The policy aims to restrict social media conversations.
  • This statement is not supported by the passage. Nowhere in the passage does it mention that the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, is intended to restrict social media conversations. On the contrary, it emphasizes the usage and facilitation of social media platforms for government advertisements and outreach.
  • Option 2: The CBC gains authority to onboard new digital platforms.
  • This statement is supported by the passage. The policy indeed assigns the CBC the authority to onboard new and innovative communication platforms in the digital space with the approval of a duly constituted committee.
  • Option 3: Infographics and videos are generated by ministries for social media.
  • This statement is supported by the passage. It mentions that all Ministries and departments of the Central government have dedicated social media handles producing a large number of infographics and videos, although their reach is limited to the subscribers of these handles.
  • Option 4: The policy introduces competitive bidding for rate discovery.
  • This statement is supported by the passage. It specifies that the Digital Advertisement Policy, 2023, introduces competitive bidding for rate discovery, ensuring transparency and efficiency in the process.
  • Option 5: The CBC will be empowered to empanel agencies in various digital spaces.
  • This statement is supported by the passage. It highlights that the policy empowers the CBC to empanel agencies and organizations in the OTT, Video on Demand Space, and other digital media arenas.
  • Therefore, the statement that is not supported by the passage is option 1: "The policy aims to restrict social media conversations."
57

Directions: In the following question, the given table has two columns (l and ll) containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q, and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If none of the options make a meaningful sentence, mark 'None of these' as your answer.

Column lColumn ll
(A) Collaboration between AI and human creativity(P) mitigated by emphasizing climate-friendly sectors like services
(B) India aims to reduce reliance on imported petroleum(Q) due to supply uncertainties and price volatility
(C) Air pollution in India contributes to respiratory diseases(R) unleashes unparalleled progress in various sectors
  1. ((a))

    B-Q

  2. ((b))

    B-Q and A-R

  3. ((c))

    A-R and C-P

  4. ((d))

    B-Q, C-P, and A-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B-Q and A-R

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:
  • (A) "Collaboration between AI and human creativity"
  • This phrase refers to teamwork involving AI and human imagination or innovation.
  • (B) "India aims to reduce reliance on imported petroleum"
  • This phrase talks about how India wants less imported oil dependency for energy.
  • (C) "Air pollution in India contributes to respiratory diseases"
  • This phrase discusses how air pollution leads to respiratory illnesses in India.
  • (P) "mitigated by emphasizing climate-friendly sectors like services"
  • This phrase suggests reducing problems by promoting eco-friendly service industries.
  • (Q) "due to supply uncertainties and price volatility"
  • This phrase discusses issues with unstable supplies and fluctuating prices.
  • (R) "unleashes unparalleled progress in various sectors"
  • This phrase discusses remarkable advancement across different fields without comparison.
  • After understanding the given phrases, we can conclude that phrases B-Q and A-R can make grammatically and contextually meaningful sentences.
  • Coherent sentences after combining the phrases:
  • A-R: "Collaboration between AI and human creativity unleashes unparalleled progress in various sectors."
  • This sentence discusses how working together, AI and human creativity drive major advancements across different fields.
  • B-Q: "India aims to reduce reliance on imported petroleum due to supply uncertainties and price volatility."
  • This sentence discusses how India wants less foreign oil due to unpredictable supply and changing prices.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "B-Q and A-R."
58

Directions: In the following question, the given table has two columns (l and ll) containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q, and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If none of the options make a meaningful sentence, mark 'None of these' as your answer.

Column lColumn ll
(A) AI in education tailors content for individual needs(P) community now emptied due to migration for livelihood elsewhere
(B) The abandoned village echoed tales of a once-thriving(Q) empowering educators with immediate feedback and optimised teaching strategies
(C) Modern democracy champions dignity for historically marginalized groups(R) yet neo-liberalism has eroded state support for Dalits and Adivasis
  1. ((a))

    B-Q and C-R

  2. ((b))

    A-P and B-R

  3. ((c))

    A-R, B-Q, and C-P

  4. ((d))

    A-Q, B-P, and C-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A-Q, B-P, and C-R

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:
  • (A) "AI in education tailors content for individual needs"
  • This phrase talks about how AI customizes learning material to suit personal requirements.
  • (B) "The abandoned village echoed tales of a once-thriving"
  • This phrase describes a deserted village reminiscing about its prosperous past.
  • (C) "Modern democracy champions dignity for historically marginalized groups"
  • This phrase talks about how democracy supports respect for disadvantaged communities' rights.
  • (P) "community now emptied due to migration for livelihood elsewhere"
  • This phrase describes a community that has become empty because people migrated for work.
  • (Q) "empowering educators with immediate feedback and optimised teaching strategies"
  • This phrase discusses supporting teachers with improved teaching methods and quick feedback.
  • (R) "yet neo-liberalism has eroded state support for Dalits and Adivasis"
  • This phrase discusses how neo-liberalism reduced government aid for marginalized communities.
  • After understanding the given phrases, we can conclude that phrases A-Q, B-P, and C-R can make grammatically and contextually meaningful sentences.
  • Coherent sentences after combining the phrases:
  • A-Q: "AI in education tailors content for individual needs, empowering educators with immediate feedback and optimised teaching strategies."
  • This sentence talks about how AI helps personalize learning, aids teachers with feedback, and improves teaching methods for individualized education.
  • B-P: "The abandoned village echoed tales of a once-thriving community now emptied due to migration for livelihood elsewhere."
  • This sentence talks about a village, once bustling, that is now empty because people left for work in other places.
  • C-R: "Modern democracy champions dignity for historically marginalized groups, yet neo-liberalism has eroded state support for Dalits and Adivasis."
  • This sentence talks about how democracy aims to support marginalized groups but neglects help for Dalits and Adivasis due to neo-liberalism.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "A-Q, B-P, and C-R."
59

Directions: In the following question, the given table has two columns (l and ll) containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q, and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If none of the options make a meaningful sentence, mark 'None of these' as your answer.

Column lColumn ll
(A) Egoistic individuals may find it challenging to accept feedback(P) shaping interactions and judgments about individuals
(B) To align academic research with industrial applicability(Q) collaboration between academia and industry remains underutilized
(C) Prejudice often stems from learned biases and cognitive shortcuts(R) the value placed on external opinions versus self-perception
  1. ((a))

    B-Q

  2. ((b))

    A-R

  3. ((c))

    C-Q and A-P

  4. ((d))

    B-R and C-P

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:
  • (A) "Egoistic individuals may find it challenging to accept feedback"
  • This phrase discusses how self-centred people struggle with receiving feedback.
  • (B) "To align academic research with industrial applicability"
  • This phrase talks about making academic studies useful and relevant for practical industry needs.
  • (C) "Prejudice often stems from learned biases and cognitive shortcuts"
  • This phrase explains how biases and quick judgments fuel prejudice.
  • (P) "shaping interactions and judgments about individuals"
  • This phrase refers to influencing how people view and assess others.
  • (Q) "collaboration between academia and industry remains underutilized"
  • This phrase discusses the limited use of partnerships between education and businesses.
  • (R) "the value placed on external opinions versus self-perception"
  • This phrase discusses how much people value others' opinions over their own.
  • After understanding the given phrases, we can conclude that only phases C-P can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence.
  • Coherent sentence after combining the phrases:
  • C-P: "Prejudice often stems from learned biases and cognitive shortcuts, shaping interactions and judgments about individuals."
  • This sentence talks about how prejudice comes from learned biases, affecting how we judge and interact with people.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these."
60

Directions: In the following question, the given table has two columns (l and ll) containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q, and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If none of the options make a meaningful sentence, mark 'None of these' as your answer.

Column lColumn ll
(A) Recognizing our roles and influence, practising gratitude(P) influencing smaller states and challenging India's traditional dominance
(B) Attaining net zero carbon dioxide emissions is imperative(Q) and focusing on growth enrich our personal and professional lives
(C) China's ascent in the region has altered power dynamics(R) to counter the escalating greenhouse effect and subsequent warming
  1. ((a))

    C-P and A-Q

  2. ((b))

    B-Q and A-R

  3. ((c))

    A-Q, B-R, and C-P

  4. ((d))

    B-Q, C-P, and A-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A-Q, B-R, and C-P

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:
  • (A) "Recognizing our roles and influence, practising gratitude"
  • This phrase discusses acknowledging impact and practising appreciation in our lives.
  • (B) "Attaining net zero carbon dioxide emissions is imperative"
  • This phrase emphasizes the crucial need to reach zero CO2 emissions.
  • (C) "China's ascent in the region has altered power dynamics"
  • This phrase discusses how China's rise changed regional power relationships.
  • (P) "influencing smaller states and challenging India's traditional dominance"
  • This phrase discusses the impact on smaller states and questions India's usual control.
  • (Q) "and focusing on growth enrich our personal and professional lives"
  • This phrase discusses how growth benefits our personal and professional experiences.
  • (R) "to counter the escalating greenhouse effect and subsequent warming"
  • This phrase discusses ways to stop global warming due to greenhouse gases.
  • After understanding the given phrases, we can conclude that phrases A-Q, B-R, and C-P can make grammatically and contextually meaningful sentences.
  • Coherent sentences after combining the phrases:
  • A-Q: "Recognizing our roles and influence, practising gratitude, and focusing on growth enrich our personal and professional lives."
  • This sentence talks about how being aware, thankful, and aiming for progress enhances both personal and work experiences.
  • B-R: "Attaining net zero carbon dioxide emissions is imperative to counter the escalating greenhouse effect and subsequent warming."
  • This sentence discusses that we need to reach zero CO2 to fight global warming caused by greenhouse gases.
  • C-P: "China's ascent in the region has altered power dynamics, influencing smaller states and challenging India's traditional dominance."
  • This sentence talks about how China's rise shifts regional power, impacting smaller nations and challenging India's traditional influence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "A-Q, B-R, and C-P."
61

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

Indian diplomacy must engage various stakeholders in neighbouring countries to reducing anti-India sentiments and be flexible in its approach.

  1. ((a))

    reduce anti-India sentiments

  2. ((b))

    intensify animosity against India

  3. ((c))

    reducing negative perceptions of India

  4. ((d))

    alleviating anti-India sentiments

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reduce anti-India sentiments

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "reduce anti-India sentiments."
  • To make the underlined phrase error-free, "reducing" should be replaced with "reduce" because the preposition "to" before the verb requires the base form. The correct phrase is "to reduce anti-India sentiments.
  • As per English grammar rules, the preposition "to" is followed by the base form of a verb, forming the infinitive. This rule applies across contexts, in all cases, regardless of the subject or tense.
  • For Example:
  • I like to swim in the morning.
  • She decided to travel abroad.
  • The phrase "reduce anti-India sentiments" also fits contextually in the sentence as it conveys the diplomatic aim of lessening negative feelings towards India in neighbouring countries, and fostering better relations.
  • The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "Indian diplomacy must engage various stakeholders in neighbouring countries to reduce anti-India sentiments and be flexible in its approach."
62

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

The collaboration between human creativity and AI innovation presents a partnership that amplifies strengths and fosters unparalleled advancements.

  1. ((a))

    alliance that weakens abilities

  2. ((b))

    partnership that hinders growth

  3. ((c))

    exacerbating the limitations

  4. ((d))

    partnership is hindering growth

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No correction required

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • The sentence's underlined phrase "partnership that amplifies strengths" is error-free. It correctly indicates the relationship between human creativity and AI innovation.
  • This sentence highlights how combining human creativity with AI innovation strengthens abilities and drives remarkable progress.
  • Now, let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Collaboration - working together with others, typically in a joint intellectual effort or endeavour, to achieve a common goal or outcome (सहयोग)
  • For Example -
  • The successful project outcome was a result of effective collaboration among various departments within the company.
  • Creativity - the ability to generate novel ideas, concepts, or solutions through imaginative thinking and originality (रचनात्मकता)
  • For Example -
  • The artist's creativity knew no bounds as they effortlessly combined different art forms in their masterpiece.
  • Innovation - the process of introducing new methods, ideas, products, or technologies that bring about positive change or improvement (नवाचार)
  • For Example -
  • The company's commitment to innovation led to the development of cutting-edge products that revolutionized the industry.
  • Partnership - a cooperative relationship between individuals, groups, or organizations characterized by shared responsibilities, resources, and mutual goals (साझेदारी)
  • For Example -
  • The strategic partnership between the two companies resulted in mutual growth and expanded market reach.
  • Amplify - to increase the strength, intensity, or magnitude of something, often by making it more prominent or noticeable (बढ़ाना)
  • For Example -
  • Social media helped amplify the message and reach a wider audience within a short period.
  • Foster - to encourage the development or growth of something, such as ideas, relationships, or skills (प्रोत्साहित करना)
  • For Example -
  • The mentor's guidance and support helped foster a sense of confidence and self-belief in the young entrepreneur.
  • Unparalleled - having no equal or rival; unmatched or unrivalled in quality, achievement, or extent (अनुपम)
  • For Example -
  • The team's dedication and hard work resulted in unparalleled success in the organisation's history.
  • Advancements - progress or improvements made in a particular field, technology, or area of knowledge, leading to notable developments or achievements (उन्नतियां)
  • For Example -
  • The rapid advancements in medical technology have significantly enhanced patient care and treatment options.
63

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

Observations hint at the potential existence of this void, deviating to the expected structure predicted by the standard cosmological model.

  1. ((a))

    deviating the expected structure

  2. ((b))

    conforming to the expected framework

  3. ((c))

    adhering to the anticipated arrangement

  4. ((d))

    deviating from the expected structure

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

deviating from the expected structure

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "deviating from the expected structure."
  • The underlined phrase is incorrect because "deviating" should be followed by "from" to indicate moving away from an expected norm. The correct phrase is "deviating from the expected structure" to convey the shift from the predicted model.
  • The phrase "deviating from the expected structure" also fits contextually in the sentence as it implies a divergence or departure from the anticipated pattern, aligning with the observations hinting at a potential anomaly in the cosmological model.
  • The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "Observations hint at the potential existence of this void, deviating from the expected structure predicted by the standard cosmological model."

Directions: Given below is a set of five sentences that, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that follow. THE THIRD SENTENCE IS FIXED.

A. Gemini's release, though strategically timed and embedded in Google's ecosystem, spotlighted the need for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential.

B. Google's launch of Gemini marked a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, leveraging its data prowess and unveiling a multimodal model, challenging the AI landscape.

C. The model, powered by Google's in-house TPUs, showcased impressive capabilities in demos, yet later investigations revealed overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and edited marketing tactics.

D. Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models, offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio.

E. Despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more ________ AI era.

64

Which of the following is the introductory sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

B

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points 

  • The paragraph analyzes the impact of Google's Gemini release in reshaping the AI landscape, particularly in challenging the existing norms and expanding the realm of AI capabilities.
  • Sentence B initiates the paragraph by introducing Google's launch of Gemini, which was a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, thereby challenging the AI landscape.
  • Sentence D comes second, following sentence B, detailing how Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models by offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio.
  • Sentence C is the third sentence, discussing the model's impressive capabilities showcased in demos but later revealing overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and discrepancies in marketing tactics, emphasizing the need for transparency in AI capabilities.
  • Then, Sentence E continues, as the fourth sentence, by noting how, despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era.
  • Finally, Sentence A concludes the paragraph by highlighting Gemini's strategic release within Google's ecosystem and its role in shedding light on the necessity for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential.
  • The correct sequence is BDCEA.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is B.

 

Additional Information

​​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Google's launch of Gemini marked a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, leveraging its data prowess and unveiling a multimodal model, challenging the AI landscape. Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models, offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio. The model, powered by Google's in-house TPUs, showcased impressive capabilities in demos, yet later investigations revealed overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and edited marketing tactics. Despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era. Gemini's release, though strategically timed and embedded in Google's ecosystem, spotlighted the need for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential."

65

Which of the following pairs represent the SECOND and FOURTH sentences in the correct arrangement?

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    DE

  3. ((c))

    BA

  4. ((d))

    EA

  5. ((e))

    DA

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

DE

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The paragraph analyzes the impact of Google's Gemini release in reshaping the AI landscape, particularly in challenging the existing norms and expanding the realm of AI capabilities.
  • Sentence B initiates the paragraph by introducing Google's launch of Gemini, which was a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, thereby challenging the AI landscape.
  • Sentence D comes second, following sentence B, detailing how Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models by offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio.
  • Sentence C is the third sentence, discussing the model's impressive capabilities showcased in demos but later revealing overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and discrepancies in marketing tactics, emphasizing the need for transparency in AI capabilities.
  • Then, Sentence E continues, as the fourth sentence, by noting how, despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era.
  • Finally, Sentence A concludes the paragraph by highlighting Gemini's strategic release within Google's ecosystem and its role in shedding light on the necessity for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential.
  • The correct sequence is BDCEA.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "DE."

 

Additional Information

​​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Google's launch of Gemini marked a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, leveraging its data prowess and unveiling a multimodal model, challenging the AI landscape. Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models, offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio. The model, powered by Google's in-house TPUs, showcased impressive capabilities in demos, yet later investigations revealed overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and edited marketing tactics. Despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era. Gemini's release, though strategically timed and embedded in Google's ecosystem, spotlighted the need for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential."

66

There is a blank in sentence E, which of the following words should fill in the blank?

  1. ((a))

    multifaceted

  2. ((b))

    extraterrestrial

  3. ((c))

    amorphous

  4. ((d))

    monotonous

  5. ((e))

    monolithic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

multifaceted

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The paragraph analyzes the impact of Google's Gemini release in reshaping the AI landscape, particularly in challenging the existing norms and expanding the realm of AI capabilities.
  • Sentence B initiates the paragraph by introducing Google's launch of Gemini, which was a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, thereby challenging the AI landscape.
  • Sentence D comes second, following sentence B, detailing how Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models by offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio.
  • Sentence C is the third sentence, discussing the model's impressive capabilities showcased in demos but later revealing overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and discrepancies in marketing tactics, emphasizing the need for transparency in AI capabilities.
  • Then, Sentence E continues, as the fourth sentence, by noting how, despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era.
  • Finally, Sentence A concludes the paragraph by highlighting Gemini's strategic release within Google's ecosystem and its role in shedding light on the necessity for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential.
  • The correct sequence is BDCEA.

 

To answer this question, let's first understand sentence E:

Sentence E states, "Despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more ________ AI era."

  • The sentence implies that despite the marketing tactics employed by Google, Gemini's launch signifies a significant shift in the trajectory of AI, moving beyond chatbots to a broader era.
  • Thus, the blank requires an adjective that characterizes this evolution or transformation in AI.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words, given as options, to fill in the blank:
  • Multifaceted - having many different aspects or features; versatile (बहुपक्षीय)
  • For Example -
  • Her multifaceted talent allowed her to excel in various fields, from music to science.
  • Extraterrestrial - originating or occurring outside the Earth or its atmosphere; alien (अंतरिक्षीय)
  • For Example -
  • Scientists continue to search for evidence of extraterrestrial life beyond our planet.
  • Amorphous - lacking a definite form or shape; shapeless (अनिर्दिष्टरूप)
  • For Example -
  • The amorphous cloud shifted and changed its appearance constantly.
  • Monotonous - lacking in variety and interest; dull and repetitive (एकरस)
  • For Example -
  • The monotonous sound of the machine made it hard for the workers to stay awake.
  • Monolithic - massive, solid, and uniform in appearance; characterized by massiveness and rigidity (महाकाय)
  • For Example -
  • The monolithic building dominated the skyline with its sheer size and uniform structure.
  • So, given the context of the sentence discussing AI's evolution beyond chatbots, the most suitable word among the options provided is "multifaceted." This term aligns with the idea that AI is diversifying and expanding its capabilities, encompassing various aspects beyond its previous limitations.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "multifaceted."
67

Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the sentences?

  1. ((a))

    ECADB

  2. ((b))

    CEABD

  3. ((c))

    BDCEA

  4. ((d))

    CDABE

  5. ((e))

    EBCDA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BDCEA

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The paragraph analyzes the impact of Google's Gemini release in reshaping the AI landscape, particularly in challenging the existing norms and expanding the realm of AI capabilities.
  • Sentence B initiates the paragraph by introducing Google's launch of Gemini, which was a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, thereby challenging the AI landscape.
  • Sentence D comes second, following sentence B, detailing how Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models by offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio.
  • Sentence C is the third sentence, discussing the model's impressive capabilities showcased in demos but later revealing overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and discrepancies in marketing tactics, emphasizing the need for transparency in AI capabilities.
  • Then, Sentence E continues, as the fourth sentence, by noting how, despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era.
  • Finally, Sentence A concludes the paragraph by highlighting Gemini's strategic release within Google's ecosystem and its role in shedding light on the necessity for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential.
  • Therefore, the correct arrangement is "BDCEA."

 

Additional Information

​​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Google's launch of Gemini marked a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, leveraging its data prowess and unveiling a multimodal model, challenging the AI landscape. Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models, offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio. The model, powered by Google's in-house TPUs, showcased impressive capabilities in demos, yet later investigations revealed overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and edited marketing tactics. Despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era. Gemini's release, though strategically timed and embedded in Google's ecosystem, spotlighted the need for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential."

68

Which of the following is the concluding sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The paragraph analyzes the impact of Google's Gemini release in reshaping the AI landscape, particularly in challenging the existing norms and expanding the realm of AI capabilities.
  • Sentence B initiates the paragraph by introducing Google's launch of Gemini, which was a strategic response after lagging behind OpenAI in the AI race, thereby challenging the AI landscape.
  • Sentence D comes second, following sentence B, detailing how Gemini, trained natively multimodal on various data types, redefined the standard approach to AI models by offering a more comprehensive understanding of images and audio.
  • Sentence C is the third sentence, discussing the model's impressive capabilities showcased in demos but later revealing overlaps in performance with ChatGPT and discrepancies in marketing tactics, emphasizing the need for transparency in AI capabilities.
  • Then, Sentence E continues, as the fourth sentence, by noting how, despite Google's marketing manoeuvres and edited demos, Gemini's launch signifies a shift in AI's trajectory, expanding beyond chatbots to a more multifaceted AI era.
  • Finally, Sentence A concludes the paragraph by highlighting Gemini's strategic release within Google's ecosystem and its role in shedding light on the necessity for transparency in AI capabilities and marketing presentations for a clearer understanding of its true potential.
  • The correct sequence is BDCEA.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is A.
69

Directions: In the following sentence, four words, marked as A, B, C, and D, are given in bold. Identify the word that is either misspelt or grammatically/contextually incorrect for the given sentence and mark it as your answer. If all the highlighted words are both correctly spelt and contextually/grammatically appropriate, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

The storm's intensity (A) might effect (B) our travel plans, causing delays and potential (C) cancellations along the route (D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To address this question, let's examine the highlighted words in the sentence:
  • (A) Intensity - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Intensity" refers to the degree or strength of something. (तीव्रता)
  • For Example:
  • The intensity of the storm was alarming.
  • (B) Effect - In this context, the word "effect" is used incorrectly. The correct word should be "affect."
  • "Effect" as a verb means to bring about or cause, while "affect" means to influence or produce a change. 
  • For Example:
  • The storm's intensity might affect our travel plans.
  • The loud music had a calming effect on her anxious mind.
  • (C) Potential - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Potential" refers to having the capacity to happen or develop. (संभावित)
  • For Example:
  • There's a potential for delays due to the storm.
  • (D) Route - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Route" signifies the path or direction to be taken. (मार्ग)
  • For Example:
  • We took a scenic route to reach the destination.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "B: effect," which should be corrected to "affect."
70

Directions: In the following sentence, four words, marked as A, B, C, and D, are given in bold. Identify the word that is either misspelt or grammatically/contextually incorrect for the given sentence and mark it as your answer. If all the highlighted words are both correctly spelt and contextually/grammatically appropriate, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

Receiving a sincere (A) complement (B) can brighten (C) someone's day and boost their confidence (D) instantly.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To address this question, let's examine the highlighted words in the sentence:
  • (A) Sincere - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Sincere" refers to something genuine, heartfelt, or honest. (ईमानदार)
  • For Example:
  • She gave him a sincere apology for the misunderstanding.
  • (B) Complement - This word is correctly spelt but might be contextually incorrect, the correct word in this sentence should be "compliment."
  • "Complement" refers to something that completes or goes well with something else, while "compliment" refers to a polite expression of praise or admiration.
  • For Example:
  • Her shoes complemented her dress perfectly.
  • He received a lovely compliment on his presentation.
  • (C) Brighten - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Brighten" means to make something brighter or more cheerful. (उज्ज्वल करना)
  • For Example:
  • The flowers in the garden brighten up the whole yard.
  • (D) Confidence - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Confidence" refers to a feeling of self-assurance arising from one's abilities or qualities. (आत्मविश्वास)
  • For Example:
  • His success boosted his confidence in public speaking.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "B: Complement," which should be corrected to "compliment" in the sentence.
71

Directions: In the following sentence, four words, marked as A, B, C, and D, are given in bold. Identify the word that is either misspelt or grammatically/contextually incorrect for the given sentence and mark it as your answer. If all the highlighted words are both correctly spelt and contextually/grammatically appropriate, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

The successful enterpreneur (A) received a sincere compliment (B) on their innovative (C) business approach and strategic acumen (D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's review the highlighted words in the sentence:
  • (A) Enterpreneur - The word "Enterpreneur" is misspelt. The correct spelling is "Entrepreneur."
  • "Entrepreneur" refers to a person who starts a business or organization, taking on financial risks in the hope of profit. (उद्यमी)
  • For Example:
  • She is known as a successful entrepreneur in the tech industry.
  • (B) Compliment - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Compliment" refers to an expression of praise or admiration. (प्रशंसा)
  • For Example:
  • She received a lovely compliment on her artwork.
  • (C) Innovative - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Innovative" describes something original or introducing new ideas or methods. (नवाचारी)
  • For Example:
  • Their company is known for its innovative approach to sustainability.
  • (D) Acumen - This word is correctly spelt and is contextually appropriate.
  • "Acumen" refers to the ability to make good judgments and quick decisions. (कुशाग्र बुद्धि)
  • For Example:
  • His business acumen helped the company navigate through tough times.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "A: Enterpreneur," which should be corrected to "Entrepreneur."
72

Directions: Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single coherent sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.

Sentence l: The new policy aims to reduce carbon emissions by 30% within the next five years.

Sentence ll: Many industries are reluctant to adopt these measures due to potential financial impacts.

1. Henceforth

2. Nevertheless

3. Conversely

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2, and 3

  5. ((e))

    Only 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both 2 and 3

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down each sentence:
  • Sentence l: The new policy aims to reduce carbon emissions by 30% within the next five years.
  • This sentence highlights a goal to decrease carbon emissions significantly over a specific period.
  • Sentence ll: Many industries are reluctant to adopt these measures due to potential financial impacts.
  • This sentence explains the hesitation of industries in embracing these measures because of potential financial consequences.
  • So, analyzing both sentences, the connection emerges in the contrast between the goal to reduce emissions and the reluctance of industries due to financial concerns.
  • Thus, both connectors "Nevertheless" and "Conversely" can connect the two sentences to form a coherent single sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both 2 and 3."
  • The combined sentence would be:
  • "The new policy aims to reduce carbon emissions by 30% within the next five years; nevertheless, many industries are reluctant to adopt these measures due to potential financial impacts."
  • "The new policy aims to reduce carbon emissions by 30% within the next five years; conversely, many industries are reluctant to adopt these measures due to potential financial impacts."
73

Directions: Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single coherent sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.

Sentence l: The company's expansion plans were delayed due to logistical challenges.

Sentence ll: The unexpected surge in demand further complicated the situation.

1. In contrast

2. In addition

3. As a result

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2, and 3

  5. ((e))

    Only 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only 2

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand what each sentence is talking about:
  • Sentence l - The company's expansion plans were delayed due to logistical challenges. 
  • This indicates a delay in the company's expansion due to issues with logistics.
  • Sentence ll - The unexpected surge in demand further complicated the situation. 
  • This suggests that the situation became more complex because of an unforeseen increase in demand.
  • So, after understanding both the given sentences, we can conclude that the connection between the two sentences lies in the idea that the unexpected surge in demand added to the challenges faced by the company's expansion plans.
  • Thus, only "In addition" can connect the two sentences to make a single coherent sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only 2."
  • The combined sentence would be: "The company's expansion plans were delayed due to logistical challenges; in addition, the unexpected surge in demand further complicated the situation."
74

Directions: In the following question, sentences of a paragraph have been jumbled and have been labeled as A, B, C, D, and E. You are required to rearrange the jumbled sentences accordingly by selecting the correct option.

A. According to Swedish authorities, it will likely take one to two weeks before the leaks have stopped and the pipelines can be safely inspected

B. On 27 September 2022, European gas prices jumped 12 percent after news spread of the damaged pipelines

C. The Danish energy minister said that the gas leaks were likely to continue for at least a week

D. despite the fact that Nord Stream 1 had not delivered gas since August and North Stream 2 had never gone into service

E. Nord Stream AG, the operator of Nord Stream, said on 27 September that it was impossible to estimate when the infrastructure would be repaired

  1. ((a))

    DBCAE

  2. ((b))

    BACDE

  3. ((c))

    BDCAE

  4. ((d))

    DCBAE

  5. ((e))

    DACBE

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BDCAE

The correct answer is 'BDCAE.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is B-D-C-A-E.
  • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the topic of ''the hike in European gas prices''. Hence, 'B' is the first sentence.
  • Sentence D will come after B as it is further giving information that European gas prices jumped 12 percent after news spread of the damaged pipelines without being affected by the fact that Nord Stream 1 had not delivered gas since August and North Stream 2 had never gone into service.
  • Sentence C will come after D as it is giving information about how long the gas leaks were going to affect i.e. for at least a week.
  • Sentence A will come after C as it is saying it will likely take one to two weeks before the leaks have stopped and the pipelines can be safely inspected.
  • The sentence 'E' is the last sentence as it is concluding by saying that the repair of the gas leak was impossible to estimate.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: On 27 September 2022, European gas prices jumped 12 percent after news spread of the damaged pipelines despite the fact that Nord Stream 1 had not delivered gas since August and North Stream 2 had never gone into service. The Danish energy minister said that the gas leaks were likely to continue for at least a week. According to Swedish authorities, it will likely take one to two weeks before the leaks have stopped and the pipelines can be safely inspected. Nord Stream AG, the operator of Nord Stream, said on 27 September that it was impossible to estimate when the infrastructure would be repaired.

75

Directions: In the following question, sentences of a paragraph have been jumbled and have been labeled as A, B, C, D, and E. You are required to rearrange the jumbled sentences accordingly by selecting the correct option.

A. They are forbidden to "assume public offices which entail a participation in the exercise of civil power''

B. Latin Church canon law makes specific demands on clergy, whether regular or secular, quite apart from the obligations consequent to religious vows

C. and to carry out the canonical hours, typically according to the Liturgy of the Hours, daily

D. Thus in the Latin Church, among other regulations, clerics other than permanent deacons "are obliged to observe perfect and perpetual continence for the sake of the kingdom of heaven and therefore are bound to celibacy"

E. All clerics, once ordained, are forbidden from marrying or remarrying

  1. ((a))

    DAECB

  2. ((b))

    EABCD

  3. ((c))

    AEBCD

  4. ((d))

    CBADE

  5. ((e))

    BDCAE

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

BDCAE

The correct answer is 'BDCAE.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is B-D-C-A-E.
  • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the topic of ''Latin Church canon law''. Hence, 'B' is the first sentence.
  • Sentence D will come after B as it is giving information about what clerics other than permanent deacons are obliged to do in the Latin Church.
  • Sentence C will come after D as it is giving further information that clerics other than permanent deacons are obliged to carry out the canonical hours, typically according to the Liturgy of the Hours, daily.
  • Sentence A will come after C as it is giving further information that clerics other than permanent deacons are banned to assume public offices which entail participation in the exercise of civil power.
  • The sentence 'E' is the last sentence as it is concluding by saying that all clerics, once ordained, are forbidden from marrying or remarrying.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Latin Church canon law makes specific demands on clergy, whether regular or secular, quite apart from the obligations consequent to religious vows. Thus in the Latin Church, among other regulations, clerics other than permanent deacons "are obliged to observe perfect and perpetual continence for the sake of the kingdom of heaven and therefore are bound to celibacy" and to carry out the canonical hours, typically according to the Liturgy of the Hours, daily. They are forbidden to "assume public offices which entail a participation in the exercise of civil power''. All clerics, once ordained, are forbidden from marrying or remarrying.

76

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

1. The loan officer’s plan would allow the farmer to _______ a decent living while paying back the bank. 2. Rohit cannot _______ his speed in the marathon because he is experiencing severe cramping.

  1. ((a))

    Detain

  2. ((b))

    Entertain

  3. ((c))

    Sustain

  4. ((d))

    Gracious

  5. ((e))

    Reckless

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sustain

The correct answer is 'Sustain.'

Key Points

  • The first sentence talks about the loan officer’s plan that allows the farmer to continue a decent living.
  • The use of the phrase ''decent living'' in the first sentence indicates the use of the word 'sustain' in the blank.
  • The second sentence talks about Rohit who cannot keep up his speed in the marathon because of severe cramping.
  • The use of the word ''speed'' in the second sentence indicates the use of the word 'sustain' in the blank.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Sustain'.
  • The word 'Sustain' means To make something continue for a long period of time without becoming less. (किसी सि्‍थति को देर तक अपने मूल रूप में बनाए रखना; क़ायम रखना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Sentence 1: The loan officer’s plan would allow the farmer to sustain a decent living while paying back the bank.

Sentence 2: Rohit cannot sustain his speed in the marathon because he is experiencing severe cramping.

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Detain means To stop somebody from leaving a place; to delay somebody. (किसी व्‍यक्ति को किसी स्‍थान से जाने न देना, रोक लेना; किसी को देरी कराना)
  • Entertain means To interest and amuse somebody in order to please him or her. (किसी का जी बहलाना ताकि वह ख़ुश रहे)
  • Gracious means Kind, polite, and generous. (दयालु, नम्र और उदार)
  • Reckless means Not thinking about possible bad or dangerous results that could come from your actions. (दुःसाहसी)
77

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

1. Tonight, the police will _______ the suspect’s identity on national television. 2. The army recruits _______ their commitment to the country by taking an oath.

  1. ((a))

    Differ

  2. ((b))

    Affirm

  3. ((c))

    Consult

  4. ((d))

    Dissuade

  5. ((e))

    Confer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Affirm

The correct answer is 'Affirm.'

Key Points

  • The first sentence talks about the police declaring the suspect's identity on national television.
  • The use of the word ''identity'' in the first sentence indicates the use of the word 'Affirm' in the blank.
  • The second sentence talks about the army recruits guaranteeing their commitment to the country by taking an oath.
  • The use of the word ''commitment'' in the second sentence indicates the use of the word 'affirm' in the blank.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Affirm'.
  • The word 'Affirm' means To say formally or clearly that something is true or that you support something strongly. (औपचारिक रूप से किसी बात को सही मानना; निश्‍चयपूर्वक समर्थन करना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Sentence 1: Tonight, the police will affirm the suspect’s identity on national television.

Sentence 2: The army recruits affirm their commitment to the country by taking an oath.

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Differ means To be different. (भिन्‍न या अलग होना)
  • Consult means To discuss something with somebody. (विचार-विमर्श या किसी से बातचीत करना)
  • Dissuade means To persuade somebody not to do something. (किसी को कोई काम करने से मना करना, रोकना)
  • Confer means To discuss something with somebody before making a decision. (निर्णय लेने से पहले विचार-विमर्श करना)
78

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

1. During the test, I tried to remain _______ so I would not get nervous and make careless mistakes. 2. Although the children are gone for two days, my husband and I cannot enjoy a _______ weekend because of the neighbor’s noisy dog.

  1. ((a))

    Serene

  2. ((b))

    Transpire

  3. ((c))

    Fortify

  4. ((d))

    Prosper

  5. ((e))

    Percolate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Serene

The correct answer is 'Serene.'

Key Points

  • The first sentence talks about remaining calm during the test.
  • The use of the word ''nervous'' in the first sentence indicates the use of the word 'serene' in the blank.
  • The second sentence talks about not enjoying the weekend because of the neighbor’s noisy dog.
  • The use of the word ''noisy'' in the second sentence indicates the use of the word 'serene' in the blank.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Serene'.
  • The word 'Serene' means Calm and peaceful. (शांत और अविक्षुब्‍ध या गंभीर)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Sentence 1: During the test, I tried to remain serene so I would not get nervous and make careless mistakes.

Sentence 2: Although the children are gone for two days, my husband and I cannot enjoy a serene weekend because of the neighbor’s noisy dog.

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Transpire means To become known; to be shown to be true. (जानकारी में आना; सचाई का पता चलना)
  • Fortify means To strengthen someone mentally or physically. (किसी को मानसिक या शारीरिक रूप से मजबूत करना)
  • Prosper means To develop in a successful way; to be successful, especially with money. (सफलतापूर्वक विकसित होना; धन की दृष्टि से समृद्घ होना)
  • Percolate means To move gradually through a surface that has very small holes or spaces in it. (छोटे छिद्रों से रिसना या बहना)
79

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

1. Playing the piano may seem _______ at first, but it gets easier with practice. 2. Driving a school bus is much more _______ than driving my own car.

  1. ((a))

    Ambush

  2. ((b))

    Revive

  3. ((c))

    Contemporary

  4. ((d))

    Wounded

  5. ((e))

    Arduous

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Arduous

The correct answer is 'Arduous.'

Key Points

  • The first sentence is saying that piano playing gets easier with practice
  • The use of the word ''easier'' in the first sentence indicates the use of the word 'arduous' in the blank.
  • The second sentence talks about a comparison between driving a school bus and driving your own car.
  • The use of the phrase ''much more'' in the second sentence indicates the use of the word 'arduous' in the blank.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Arduous'.
  • The word 'Arduous' means Full of difficulties; needing a lot of effort. (कठिनाइयों-भरा, दुष्‍कर; श्रमसाध्य)

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Sentence 1: Playing the piano may seem arduous at first, but it gets easier with practice.

Sentence 2: Driving a school bus is much more arduous than driving my own car.

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Ambush means A surprise attack from a hidden position. (घात लगाकर किया गया हमला)
  • Revive means To restore to life or consciousness. (होश में लाना)
  • Contemporary means Belonging to the same time as somebody or something else. (समकालीन, समकालिक)
  • Wounded means Inflicted with a wound; injured. (घायल, ज़ख्‍़मी)
80

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

1. The criminal begged for probation, but the judge remained _______ about a life sentence. 2. He is so _______ in his beliefs that no one can change his mind!

  1. ((a))

    Ordinary

  2. ((b))

    Asserted

  3. ((c))

    Pretend

  4. ((d))

    Treacherous

  5. ((e))

    Adamant

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Adamant

The correct answer is 'Adamant.'

Key Points

  • The first sentence talks about the judge staying or continuing in the same state of mind about a life sentence.
  • The use of the word ''remained'' in the first sentence indicates the use of the word 'adamant' in the blank.
  • The second sentence talks about someone who is true to his beliefs that no one can change his mind.
  • The use of the word ''change'' in the second sentence indicates the use of the word 'adamant' in the blank.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Adamant'.
  • The word 'Adamant' means Very sure; refusing to change your mind. (अपने मत पर अटल, दृढ़; अड़ियल)

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Sentence 1: The criminal begged for probation, but the judge remained adamant about a life sentence.

Sentence 2: He is so adamant in his beliefs that no one can change his mind!

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Ordinary means Normal; not unusual or different from others. (साधारण; अन्‍यों से असामान्‍य या अलग नहीं, अन्‍यों के समान)
  • Asserted means To say something clearly and firmly. (स्‍पष्‍ट रूप से और बलपूर्वक कुछ कहना)
  • Pretend means To behave in a particular way in order to make other people believe something that is not true. (प्रदर्शन, ढोंग या दिखावा करना)
  • Treacherous means Dangerous, although it seems safe. (ख़तरनाक यद्यपि दिखने में सुरक्षित))

Test of Numerical Ability (40 questions)

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The table given shows the total stock of Pens (Red + Black) available in three different shopkeepers 'A', 'B' and 'C'. It also shows the percentage of unsold pens (Red + Black) and the number of red pens sold by the shopkeepers.

ShopkeeperTotal pens available (Red + Black)The percentage of unsold pens (Red + Black)The number of red pens sold
A40050%50
B60025%190
C80040%80
81

Find the respective ratio between the total number of 'Black' pens sold by shopkeepers 'B' and 'C' together and the total number of pens (Red + Black) sold by shopkeeper 'A'?

  1. ((a))

    22 : 5

  2. ((b))

    22 : 10

  3. ((c))

    33 : 5

  4. ((d))

    33 : 10

  5. ((e))

    44 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

33 : 10

ShopkeeperTotal pens available (Red + Black)Total number of unsold pens (Red + Black)Total number of sold pens (Red + Black)Number of 'Red' pens soldNumber of 'Black' pens sold
A40050% × 400 = 200400 - 200 = 20050200 - 50 = 150
B60025% × 600 = 150600 - 150 = 450190450 - 190 = 260
C80040% × 800 = 320800 - 320 = 48080480 - 80 = 400
Total18006701130320810

 

The total number of 'Black' pens sold by shopkeepers 'B' and 'C' together = 260 + 400 = 660

Required ratio = 660 : 200 = 33 : 10

Hence, the correct answer is 33 : 10.

82

The respective ratio of the price of a 'Black' pen to that of a 'Red' pen is 9 : 5 for shopkeeper 'A' and the total amount received after selling both type of pens by him is 800 Rs. The price of a 'Red' pen sold by another shopkeeper 'D' is 66.66% of the price of a 'Black' pen sold by shopkeeper 'A'. If the number of 'Red' to 'Black' pens sold by shopkeeper 'D' is 5 : 1 respectively and the total sell by him is equal to the total number of unsold pens by shopkeeper 'B' then find the total collection of shopkeeper 'D' by selling all the 'Red' pens?

  1. ((a))

    325 Rs.

  2. ((b))

    350 Rs.

  3. ((c))

    375 Rs.

  4. ((d))

    450 Rs.

  5. ((e))

    475 Rs.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

375 Rs.

ShopkeeperTotal pens available (Red + Black)Total number of unsold pens (Red + Black)Total number of sold pens (Red + Black)Number of 'Red' pens soldNumber of 'Black' pens sold
A40050% × 400 = 200400 - 200 = 20050200 - 50 = 150
B60025% × 600 = 150600 - 150 = 450190450 - 190 = 260
C80040% × 800 = 320800 - 320 = 48080480 - 80 = 400
Total18006701130320810

 

Let the price of a 'Red' pen for shopkeeper 'A' = 15P Rs.

The price of a 'Black' pen for shopkeeper 'A' = (9/5) × 15P = 27P Rs.

The total amount received after selling both type of pens by shopkeeper 'A' = 800 Rs.

⇒ 50 × 15P + 27P × 150 = 800

⇒ 4800P = 800

⇒ P = 1/6

The price of a 'Black' pen for shopkeeper 'A' = 27P = 4.5 Rs.

The price of a 'Red' pen for shopkeeper 'D' = 66.66% × 4.5 = (2/3) × 4.5 = 3 Rs.

The total sell by shopkeeper 'D' = The total number of unsold pens by shopkeeper 'B' = 150

The number of 'Red' pens sold by shopkeeper 'D' = (5/6) × 150 = 125

The total collection of shopkeeper 'D' by selling all the 'Red' pens = 125  × 3 = 375 Rs.

Hence, the correct answer is 375 Rs.

83

If the average total number of unsold pens (Red + Black) by shopkeepers 'B', 'C', and 'E' together is 290 and the total number of unsold 'Red' pens by shopkeeper 'E' is 124 then find the number of unsold 'Black' pens by shopkeeper 'E'?

  1. ((a))

    276

  2. ((b))

    280

  3. ((c))

    286

  4. ((d))

    290

  5. ((e))

    296

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

276

ShopkeeperTotal pens available (Red + Black)Total number of unsold pens (Red + Black)Total number of sold pens (Red + Black)Number of 'Red' pens soldNumber of 'Black' pens sold
A40050% × 400 = 200400 - 200 = 20050200 - 50 = 150
B60025% × 600 = 150600 - 150 = 450190450 - 190 = 260
C80040% × 800 = 320800 - 320 = 48080480 - 80 = 400
Total18006701130320810

 

The average total number of unsold pens (Red + Black) by shopkeepers 'B', 'C', and 'E' together = 290 

The total number of unsold pens (Red + Black) by shopkeepers 'B', 'C', and 'E' together = 290 × 3 = 870

The total number of unsold pens (Red + Black) by shopkeeper 'E' = 870 - (150 + 320) = 400

The number of unsold 'Black' pens by shopkeeper 'E' = 400 - 124 = 276

Hence, the correct answer is 276.

84

The total number of 'Black' pens sold by all three shopkeepers is what percentage of the total number of available pens (Red + Black) to all three shopkeepers?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    40%

  5. ((e))

    45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

45%

ShopkeeperTotal pens available (Red + Black)Total number of unsold pens (Red + Black)Total number of sold pens (Red + Black)Number of 'Red' pens soldNumber of 'Black' pens sold
A40050% × 400 = 200400 - 200 = 20050200 - 50 = 150
B60025% × 600 = 150600 - 150 = 450190450 - 190 = 260
C80040% × 800 = 320800 - 320 = 48080480 - 80 = 400
Total18006701130320810

 

Required% = (810/1800) × 100 = 45%

Hence, the correct answer is 45%.

85

If shopkeeper 'F' sold 70% more 'Black' pens than that by shopkeeper 'A' and the number of 'Red' pens sold by shopkeeper 'F' is 66.66% of the total number of pens (Red + Black) sold by him then find the total number of pens sold by shopkeeper 'F'?

  1. ((a))

    735

  2. ((b))

    745

  3. ((c))

    750

  4. ((d))

    760

  5. ((e))

    765

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

765

ShopkeeperTotal pens available (Red + Black)Total number of unsold pens (Red + Black)Total number of sold pens (Red + Black)Number of 'Red' pens soldNumber of 'Black' pens sold
A40050% × 400 = 200400 - 200 = 20050200 - 50 = 150
B60025% × 600 = 150600 - 150 = 450190450 - 190 = 260
C80040% × 800 = 320800 - 320 = 48080480 - 80 = 400
Total18006701130320810

 

The number of 'Black' pens sold by shopkeeper 'F' = 150 × 1.70 = 255

Let the total number of pens (Red + Black) sold by 'F' = 3x

The number of 'Red' pens sold by shopkeeper 'F' = 66.66% × 3x = (2/3) × 3x = 2x

The number of 'Black' pens sold by shopkeeper 'F' = 3x - 2x = x

ATQ, x = 255

The total number of pens (Red + Black) sold by shopkeeper 'F' = 3x = 765

Hence, the correct answer is 765.

86

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

599.87 ÷ 11.98 × 7.89 – ? = 255.87 + 144.23

  1. ((a))

    800

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    -100

  4. ((d))

    0

  5. ((e))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

0

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first and following BODMAS rule in the bracket-

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

599.87 ÷ 11.98 × 7.89 – ? = 255.87 + 144.23

⇒ 600 ÷ 12 × 8 – ? = 256 + 144

⇒ 50 × 8 – ? = 400

⇒ 400 – ? = 400

⇒ ? = 400 – 400 = 0

87

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

11.992 + 12.48 × 16.07 - √529.09 = ? + 121.11

  1. ((a))

    180

  2. ((b))

    190

  3. ((c))

    200

  4. ((d))

    210

  5. ((e))

    220

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

200

11.992 + 12.48 × 16.07 - √529.09 = ? + 121.11

⇒ 122 + 12.5 × 16 - √529 = ? + 121

⇒ 144 + 200 - 23 = ? + 121

⇒ ? = 344 - 144 = 200

88

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

√255.98 × 32 ÷ 7.983 × √4095.99 = ? × 64

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    1/4

  5. ((e))

    1/8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and follow BODMAS rule in the bracket,

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value,

So, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

√255.98 × 32 ÷ 7.983 × √4095.99 = ? × 64

⇒ √256 × 32 ÷ 83 × √4096 = ? × 64

⇒ 16 × 32 ÷ 512 × 64 = ? × 64

⇒ 1 × 64 = ? × 64

⇒ 1 = ?

89

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

69.96% of 499.99 + √99.99 = 4.95 × ?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    64

  3. ((c))

    68

  4. ((d))

    76

  5. ((e))

    84

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and follow BODMAS rule in the bracket,

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value,

So, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

69.96% of 499.99 + √99.99 = 4.95 × ?

⇒ 70% of 500 + √100 = 5 × ?

⇒ 350 + 10 = 5 × ?

⇒ 360 = 5 × ?

∴ ? = 360/5 = 72

90

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

39.90% of 549.98 + ∛728.9 – 12.952 = ?

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    70

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    40

  5. ((e))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

60

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and follow BODMAS rule in the bracket,

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value,

So, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

39.90% of 549.98 + ∛728.9 – 12.952 = ?

⇒ 40% of 550 + ∛729 – 132 = ?

⇒ 220 + 9 – 169 = ?

⇒ 220 + 9 – 169 = ?

⇒ 229 – 169 = ?

∴ ? = 60

91

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(23.89 ÷ 6.06 × 31.98) ÷ 7.94 = ?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

16

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and follow BODMAS rule in the bracket,

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value,

So, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

(23.89 ÷ 6.06 × 31.98) ÷ 7.94 = ?

⇒ (24 ÷ 6 × 32) ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ (4 × 32) ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ 128 ÷ 8 = ?

∴ ? = 16

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the total number of people in 6 wings of a society with an OTT subscription.

92

In wing 'D' if the number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'P' is 25% more than those in wing 'F' and the number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'Q' is same in both the wings then how much percent of total people in wing 'D' have the subscription of OTT platform 'Q'?

  1. ((a))

    11.11%

  2. ((b))

    12.5%

  3. ((c))

    14.28%

  4. ((d))

    16.66%

  5. ((e))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16.66%

Let the total number of people who have an OTT subscription of different platforms in all 6 wings together = 100T

The number of people who have an OTT subscription of platforms (P + Q) in wing 'D' = 30% × 100T = 30T

The number of people who have an OTT subscription of platforms (P + Q) in wing 'F' = 25% × 100T = 25T

Let the number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'P' in wing 'F' = 4P

The number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'P' in wing 'D' = 125% × 4P = 5P

The number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'Q' in wing 'F' = 25T - 4P

The number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'Q' in wing 'D' = 30T - 5P

The number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'Q' is same in both the wings.

Therefore, 30T - 5P = 25T - 4P

⇒ P = 5T ...(i)

The number of people who have taken subscription of OTT platform 'Q' in wing 'D' = 30T - 5P = 30T - 25T = 5T

Required% = (5T/30T) × 100 = 16.66%

Hence, the correct answer is 16.66%.

93

The ratio of the subscribers of OTT platforms 'P', 'Q', and 'R' in wing 'A' is 5 : X : 1 respectively. If 50% of the total number of people in wing 'A' have an OTT subscription of platform 'P' then the number of people who have subscribed to platform 'Q' from wing 'A' is what percent of the total number of people in all 6 wings together who have an OTT subscription?

  1. ((a))

    3.6%

  2. ((b))

    4%

  3. ((c))

    4.8%

  4. ((d))

    5.4%

  5. ((e))

    6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4.8%

Let the total number of people who have an OTT subscription of different platforms in all 6 wings together = 100T

The number of people who have an OTT subscription of platforms (P + Q + R) in wing 'A' = 12% × 100T = 12T

The ratio of the subscribers of OTT platforms 'P', 'Q', and 'R' in wing 'A' is 5 : X : 1 respectively.

The number of people who have an OTT subscription of platform 'P' in wing 'A' = [5/(5 + X + 1)] × 12T = [5/(6 + X)] × 12T

50% of the total number of people in wing 'A' have an OTT subscription of platform 'P'.

Therefore, [5/(6 + X)] × 12T = 50% × 12T

⇒ 5/(6 + X) = 1/2

⇒ X = 4

The number of people who have an OTT subscription of platform 'Q' in wing 'A' = [4/(6 + 4)] × 12T = 4.8T

Required% = (4.8T/100T) × 100 = 4.8%

Hence, the correct answer is 4.8%.

94

If the ratio of the number of male OTT subscribers in wing 'A' to that in wing 'C' is 9 : 20 respectively and 20% of the total number of subscribers (male + female) from wing 'C' are females then what percentage of the total number of subscribers (male + female) from wing 'A' are females?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    45%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    55%

  5. ((e))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

Let the total number of people who have an OTT subscription of different platforms in all 6 wings together = 100T

The total number of people (male + female) who have an OTT subscription in wing 'A' = 12% × 100T = 12T

Let the number of male OTT subscribers from wing 'A' = 9M

The number of female OTT subscribers from wing 'A' = 12T - 9M

The number of people (male + female) who have an OTT subscription in wing 'C' = 20% × 100T = 20T

The number of male OTT subscribers from wing 'C' = (20/9) × 9M = 20M

The number of female OTT subscribers from wing 'C' = 20T - 20M

20% of the total number of subscribers (male + female) from wing 'C' are females.

Therefore, 20T - 20M = 20% × 20T

⇒ M = 0.8T

The number of female OTT subscribers from wing 'A' = 12T - 9M = 12T - 7.2T = 4.8T

Required% = (4.8T/12T) × 100 = 40%

Hence, the correct answer is 40%.

95

If some OTT subscribers are shifted in wing 'B' from wing 'E' and the total number of OTT subscribers in wing 'B' is increased by 80% then how much percentage of the total number of subscribers left from wing 'E'?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    45%

  4. ((d))

    50%

  5. ((e))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

50%

Let the total number of people who have an OTT subscription in all 6 wings together = 100T

The initial number of OTT subscribers in wing 'E' = 8% × 100T = 8T

The initial number of OTT subscribers in wing 'B' = 5% × 100T = 5T

Some OTT subscribers are shifted in wing 'B' from wing 'E' and the total number of OTT subscribers in wing 'B' is increased by 80%.

The final number of OTT subscribers in wing 'B' = 5T × 180% = 9T

Number of subscribers who are shifted in wing 'B' from wing 'E' = 9T - 5T = 4T

Required% = (4T/8T) × 100 = 50%

Hence, the correct answer is 50%.

96

If the average total number of OTT subscribers in wings 'A', 'B', and 'F' together is 840 and the number of OTT subscribers in another wing 'G' is 25% more than that in wing 'C' then find the number of OTT subscribers in wing 'G'?

  1. ((a))

    1200

  2. ((b))

    1500

  3. ((c))

    1600

  4. ((d))

    1800

  5. ((e))

    2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1500

Let the total number of people who have an OTT subscription in all 6 wings together = 100T

The number of OTT subscribers in wing 'A' = 12% × 100T = 12T

The number of OTT subscribers in wing 'B' = 5% × 100T = 5T

The number of OTT subscribers in wing 'F' = 25% × 100T = 25T

The average total number of OTT subscribers in wings 'A', 'B', and 'F' together = 840

⇒ (12T + 5T + 25T)/3 = 840

⇒ 14T = 840

⇒ T = 60

The number of OTT subscribers in wing 'C' = 20% × 100T = 20T = 20 × 60 = 1200

The number of OTT subscribers in another wing 'G' = 1200 × 125% = 1500

Hence, the correct answer is 1500.

97

Find the wrong term in the following series.

205 , 236 , 279 , 304 , 341

  1. ((a))

    205

  2. ((b))

    236

  3. ((c))

    279

  4. ((d))

    304

  5. ((e))

    341

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

279

Given:

205 , 236 , 279 , 304 , 341

Calculation:

Here the logic follows as,

Hence, 279 is the wrong term

\therefore The correct answer is 279.

98

In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given, find out that number.

23, 26, 32, 41, 53, 67

  1. ((a))

    67

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    41

  5. ((e))

    53

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

67

Given:

23, 26, 32, 41, 53, 67

Calculation:

Considering the above series, the logic should be

23 + 3 = 26

26 + 6 = 32

32 + 9 = 41

41 + 12 = 53

53 + 15 = 68 ≠ 67

∴ The wrong term in this series is 67.

Alternate Method

99

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

100, 221, 77, 245, 50, 275

  1. ((a))

    245

  2. ((b))

    275

  3. ((c))

    77

  4. ((d))

    100

  5. ((e))

    221

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

245

Given:

100, 221, 77, 245, 50, 275

Calculation:

Considering the above series, the logic should be

100 + (11)2 = 221

221 - (12)2 = 77

77 + (13)2 = 246

246 - (14)2 = 50

50 + (15)2 = 275

∴ The wrong term in this series is 245.

100

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

10, 14, 23, 48, 97, 208

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    208

  4. ((d))

    97

  5. ((e))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

208

Given:

10, 14, 23, 48, 97, 208

Calculation:

The logic follows here is:

10 + 22 = 10 + 4 = 14

14 + 32 = 14 + 9 = 23

23 + 52 = 23 + 25 = 48

48 + 72 = 48 + 49 = 97

97 + 112 = 97 + 121 = 218 ≠ 208

There should be 218 instead of 208.

∴ 208 is the wrong term.

101

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

26, 39, 65, 91, 133, 169, 221

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    39

  3. ((c))

    133

  4. ((d))

    169

  5. ((e))

    221

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

133

Given:

26, 39, 65, 91, 133, 169, 221

Calculation:

Difference of these numbers

⇒ 26/13 = 2

⇒ 39/13 = 3

⇒ 65/13 = 5

⇒ 91/13 = 7

143/13 = 11

⇒ 169/13 = 13

⇒ 221/13 = 17

143 will come in place of 133.

Alternate Method

102

The average cost price of article 'A' and article 'B' is Rs.3000, the average cost price of article 'B' and article 'C' is Rs. 3500 and the average cost price price of article 'A' and article 'C' is Rs. 3700. Articles 'A', 'B' and 'C' are sold at the profit of 10%, profit of Z% and loss of 40% respectively and the overall loss incurred in this process is Rs. 660 then find the value of Z? 

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    15%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

25%

Let the cost price of article 'A', article 'B' and article 'C' be 'a' Rs, 'b' Rs. and 'c' Rs respectively.

Total cost price of article A and article B = 2 × 3000 = 6000 Rs.

⇒ a + b = 6000 ...(i)

Similarly, total cost price of article B and article C = 2 × 3500 = 7000 Rs.

⇒ b + c = 7000 ...(ii)

And, total cost price of article A and article C = 2 × 3700 = 7400 Rs.

⇒ a + c = 7400 ...(iii)

Using (i), (ii) and (iii) 

⇒ 2 × (a + b + c) = 6000 + 7000 + 7400

⇒ a + b + c = 10200

Cost price of article 'A' = 10200 - 7000 = 3200 Rs.

Cost price of article 'B' = 10200 - 7400 = 2800 Rs.

Cost price of article 'C' = 10200 - 6000 = 4200 Rs.

The overall loss incurred in this process is Rs. 660.

Therefore, 3200 × 1.10 + 2800 × [(100 + Z)/100] + 4200 × 0.60 = 10200 - 660

⇒ (100 + Z) = 125

⇒ Z = 25%

Hence, the correct answer is 25%.

103

The area of a rhombus is 216 cm2. If the perimeter of the rhombus is 27.77% of the area of the rhombus then find the sum of the length of the diagonals of the rhombus?

  1. ((a))

    18 cm

  2. ((b))

    21 cm

  3. ((c))

    36 cm

  4. ((d))

    42 cm

  5. ((e))

    54 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

42 cm

Area of the rhombus = 216 cm2

Let the diagonals of the rhombus be 'x' cm and 'y' cm respectively.

ATQ, (1/2) × x × y = 216

⇒  xy = 432 ...(i)

The perimeter of the rhombus = (5/18) × 216 = 60 cm

ATQ, 2 × √(x2 + y2) = 60

⇒ x2 + y2 = 900 ...(ii)

Using (i) and (ii)

⇒ (x + y)2 = 900 + 2 × 432

⇒ x + y = 42

Sum of the length of the diagonals of the rhombus = 42 cm

Hence, the correct answer is 42 cm.

104

Two cars 'M' and 'N' leave from point 'P' towards point 'Q' with car 'M' leaving 1 hour earlier than car 'N'. Both the cars travel first 100 km at 50 km/hr, next 50 km at 25 km/hr and the remaining distance at 20 km/hr. If the distance between 'P' and 'Q' is 250 km, the find the distance between car 'N' and half of the distance between points 'P' and 'Q', when car 'M' reaches point 'Q'?

  1. ((a))

    45 km

  2. ((b))

    60 km

  3. ((c))

    75 km

  4. ((d))

    90 km

  5. ((e))

    105 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

105 km

Shortcut Trick

Total time for Car M: (100/50) + (50/25) + (100/20) = 2 + 2 + 5 = 9 hours.

Car N starts 1 hour later, so it travels for only 9 − 1 = 8 hours when M reaches Q.

In 8 hours, Car N travels: 100 km (at 50 kmph in 2h) + 50 km (at 25 kmph in 2h) + 80 km (at 20 kmph in 4h) = 230 km.

Half distance of PQ = 250 ÷ 2 = 125 km. Required distance = 230 − 125 = 105 km.

∴ The correct answer is 105 km.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Distance = 250 km. Car M leaves 1 hour earlier than Car N.

Formula Used: Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Time taken by Car M for first 100 km = 100 ÷ 50 = 2 hours.

⇒ Time taken by Car M for next 50 km = 50 ÷ 25 = 2 hours.

⇒ Remaining distance = 250 − (100 + 50) = 100 km.

⇒ Time taken by Car M for remaining 100 km = 100 ÷ 20 = 5 hours.

⇒ Total time for Car M to reach Q = 2 + 2 + 5 = 9 hours.

⇒ Car N starts 1 hour later, so it travels for (9 − 1) = 8 hours.

⇒ Distance by Car N in 8 hours: First 2h = 100 km, Next 2h = 50 km, Remaining 4h = 4 × 20 = 80 km.

⇒ Total distance covered by Car N = 100 + 50 + 80 = 230 km.

⇒ Half of distance PQ = 250 ÷ 2 = 125 km.

⇒ Distance between Car N and mid-point = 230 − 125 = 105 km.

∴ The correct answer is 105 km.

Additional Information

Average Speed with Variable Speeds

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. For this journey, Avg Speed = 250 ÷ 9 ≈ 27.78 km/hr.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference of their speeds (S1 − S2).

Time Lag Problems

If one object starts 't' hours late, its travel time is (Total Time of first object − t).

105

The ratio of the current ages of Yash and Kush is in the ratio of 3 : 4. The sum of their current ages is 87.50% of the current age of Harsh. If the ratio of the ages of Yash 6 years hence to the ages of Kush 12 years ago is 2 : 1, what was the age of Harsh 12 years ago?

  1. ((a))

    30 years

  2. ((b))

    32 years

  3. ((c))

    34 years

  4. ((d))

    36 years

  5. ((e))

    38 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

36 years

Given :

Present age of Yash : Kush = 3 : 4

Present age of Harsh × 87.50% = Present age of (Yash + Kush)

Ages of Yash after 6 years : Kush before 12 years = 2 : 1

Calculation :

Let the present age of Yash and Kush be 3x and 4x years respectively.

ATQ, (3x + 6)/(4x - 12) = 2/1

⇒ 3x + 6 = 8x - 24

⇒ x = 6

The present age of Harsh × (7/8) = (3 + 4) × 6 = 7 × 6

The present age of Harsh = 48 years

Age of Harsh before 12 years = 48 - 12 = 36 years

Hence, the correct answer is 36 years.

106

Mr. Yash invested Rs. 35000 in scheme P offering 10% compound interest for three years compounded annually. He then invested the total amount received by him from scheme P in another scheme Q offering 8% simple interest for five years. Find the total interest earned by him after 8 years? 

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 30219

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 31219

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 32219

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 33219

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 34219

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 30219

Given  

<br>

Principal for scheme P = 35000 Rs.

<br>

Rate of compound interest = 10% per annum 

<br>

Time period = 3 years   

<br>

Rate of simple interest = 8%   

<br>

Time period in scheme Q = 5 years   

<br>

Formulation    

<br>

Compound interest = Principal × [(1 + R/100)T - 1]   

<br>

Simple interest = (Principal × Rate of interest × Time)/100   

<br>

Calculation  

<br>

Compound interest received from scheme P = 35000 × [(1 + 10/100)3 - 1] = 11585 Rs. 

<br>

Amount received from scheme P = 35000 + 11585 = 46585 Rs.  

<br>

Simple interest received from scheme Q = (46585 × 8 × 5)/100 = 18634 Rs.   

<br>

Amount received from scheme Q = 18634 + 46585 = 65219 Rs.   

<br>

The total interest earned by Yash after 8 years = 65219 - 35000 = 30219 Rs.   

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is 30219 Rs.

107

There are three vessels A, B and C having milk to water ratio as 3 : 5, 1 : 3 and 7 : y.  After adding mixture of vessel B to A, the milk to water ratio becomes 1 : 2 in A. Now 60% of mixture is taken out from vessel A and mixture of vessel C is mixed with remaining mixture of vessel A which results in a final milk to water ratio of 3 : 4. Find the value of y given that volume of B is 20 litres and volume of C is (7 + y) liters

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

Given that:

In vessel A , milk and water ratio = 3 : 5 ,

In vessel B, milk and water ratio = 1 : 3

In vessel C milk and water ratio = 7 : y

Calculation:

According to question, 

Volume of B is 20 litres

Milk in vessel B = 20 × 1/4  = 5 litres

Water in vessel B = 20 × 3/4  = 15 litres

When this is added to vessel A

⇒ (3y + 5)/(5y + 15) = 1/2 

⇒ 6y + 10 = 5y + 15 

⇒ y = 5 litres

Hence, milk in vessel A = 3y + 5 = 3 × 5 + 5 = 20 litres

Water in vessel A = 5y + 15 = 5 × 5 + 15 = 40 litres

60% of mixture of A = (40 + 20) × 60/100 = 36 litres

Remaining mixture = 24 litres

Milk remaining = 8 litres

Water remaining = 16 litres

After adding the content of vessel C.

⇒(8 + 7)/(16 + y) = 3/4

⇒ 60 = 48 + 3y

⇒ y = 4 

The value of y = 4 

∴ The required answer is 4

108

A and C can do 25% of the work in 1.5 days, and A and B can do 33.33% of the work in 4 days. The ratio of efficiencies of B to C is 2:7, and B alone can do the whole work in 30 days. C and B start the work and after 'Y' days B left the work and A joins C, after 3 days they both left the work, now If B can complete the remaining work in 3Y days then find the value of Y.

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given:

A and C can do 25% of the work in 1.5 days.

A and B can do 33.33% of the work in 4 days.

The ratio of efficiencies of B to C is 2:7.

B alone can do the whole work in 30 days.

Formula Used: 

Efficiency = Total work/Time taken

Calculation:

A and C can do whole work = 1.5 × 4 = 6 days 

A and B can do whole work = 4 × 3 = 12 days 

B alone can do the whole work in 30 days.

Let's assume total work = 60 units                          (LCM of 6, 12, 30)

Efficiency of A + C = 60/6 = 10

Efficiency of B = 60/30 = 2

Efficiency of C = 2 × 7/2 = 7

So Efficiency of A = 10 - 7 = 3

Work done by C and B in 'Y' days = Y × (7 + 2) = 9Y

Work done by C and A in 3 days = 3 × (7 + 3) = 30

Work done by B in 3Y days = 3Y × 2 = 6Y

Now 

⇒ 9Y + 30 + 6Y = 60

⇒ Y = 30/15

⇒ Y = 2

109

The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 10% more than that in the return journey. The total time taken for the complete to and fro journey is 16 hours, covering a distance of 2000 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey?

  1. ((a))

    142 km/hr

  2. ((b))

    131 km/hr

  3. ((c))

    141 km/hr

  4. ((d))

    144 km/hr

  5. ((e))

    123 km/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

131 km/hr

From the given data, we get

Let the speed in return journey be x km/hr

⇒ speed in onward journey = 110/100 × x = 11x/10 km/hr

⇒ Average speed = (2 × S1 × S2)/(S1 + S2) = (2 × 11x/10 × x)/(11x/10 + x) = 22x/21 km/hr

⇒(2000 × 21/22x) = 16

⇒ x = 119 km/hr

∴ Speed in onward journey = (11/10 × x) = (11/10 × 119) = 130.9 km/hr = 131 km/hr (approximately)

110

Two LED TVs brought at Rs. 18000 the first one is costlier than the second one. First one was sold at 18% profit while the second one was sold at 28% profit. If the first one sold at 28% profit and the second one was sold at 18% profit then, there would be an extra profit of Rs. 500. Find the price of both LED TVs.

  1. ((a))

     11500 and 6500

  2. ((b))

     12000 and 6000

  3. ((c))

     11000 and 7000

  4. ((d))

     13500 and 4500

  5. ((e))

     10000 and 8000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 11500 and 6500

Let First one TV is A and Second one Tv is B 

 Then cost price of Both TVs A and B is Rs 18000  

   ⇒ (A +B ) = 18000  --------- eq 1

 In Case 1st A at 18% profit and B at 28% profit

 Then A of (100+18)% + B of (100+28)% = Profit

   ⇒ A of 118% + B of 128% = P       ----- eq 2

 In Case 2nd A at 28% profit and B at 18% profit, we get profit of Rs. 500 more

 Then A of (100+28)% + B of (100+18)% = P+500

   ⇒ A of128% + B of 118 % = P + 500    --------------- eq 3

  Subtract eq 2 from eq 3 we get 

   ⇒A of (128 -118)% - B of (128 - 118 )% = P+500 - P

   ⇒ 10 % of ( A - B ) = 500

   ⇒( A  - B )= 5000    ---- eq 4

  Then add eq 1 and eq 4

   We get,

  ⇒ 2A = 23000

  ⇒ A = 11500

  Where A is costlier than B 

  Then B = 18000 - 11500

  ⇒ B = 6500

 The cost of LED TVs is 11500 and 6500 respectively 

  Hence, 11500 and 6500 is the correct answer.

111

Boats A and B go 240 km downstream and come back to the starting point in 16 hours and 9 hours respectively. If the ratio of the still water speed of Boat A to that of Boat B is 2 : 3, then what is the speed of the stream?

  1. ((a))

    5 km/hr

  2. ((b))

    10 km/hr

  3. ((c))

    15 km/hr

  4. ((d))

    20 km/hr

  5. ((e))

    25 km/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20 km/hr

Given :

Total time taken by boat A to go 240 km downstream and come back = 16 hours

Total time taken by boat B to go 240 km do downstream and come back = 9 hours

Still water speed of boat A : boat B = 2 : 3

Formula used :

Upstream speed = Still water speed - Speed of the stream

Downstream speed = Still water speed + Speed of the stream

Distance = Time × Speed

Calculation :

Let the still water speed of boat A and boat B be '2k' km/hr and 3k' km/hr respectively.

And, the speed of the stream = y km/hr

ATQ, 240/(2k - y) + 240/(2k + y) = 16     ....(a)

And, 240/(3k - y) + 240/(3k + y) = 9     ....(b)

Dividing (a) and (b)

⇒ [(4k/(4k2 - y2)] × [(9k- y2)/6k] = 16/9

⇒ (9k2 - y2)/(4k2 - y2) = 8/3

⇒ 5y2 = 5k2

⇒ y = k

Putting y = k in equation (a)

⇒ 240/k + 240/3k = 16

⇒ k = 20

Speed of the stream = 20 km/hr

Hence, the correct answer is 20 km/hr.

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

A bakery bakes two different types of cookies (Chocolate and Butter) on four days of a week. The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Sunday was 25. The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Monday was [X]% more than that on Sunday and the number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Tuesday was 50% more than that by the bakery on Monday. The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Wednesday was 100 and the total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on all four days of the week was 250. The total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on all four days together was 50. The number of 'butter' cookies baked by it on each day was [Y]% less than the number of 'chocolate' cookies baked by it on same day which is equal to the percentage 'value' by which the total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery is less than that of 'chocolate' cookies baked by it during these four days.

112

Find the respective ratio between 'X' and 'Y'?

  1. ((a))

    3 : 4

  2. ((b))

    4 : 3

  3. ((c))

    4 : 5

  4. ((d))

    5 : 3

  5. ((e))

    5 : 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

5 : 4

Total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on all four days of the week = 250

Total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on all four days together = 50

Y = [(250 - 50)/250] × 100 = 80%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Sunday = 25

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Monday = 25 × (100 + X)%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Tuesday = 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% 

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Wednesday = 100

ATQ, 25 + 25 × (100 + X)% + 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% + 100 = 250

⇒ 250% × 25 × (100 + X)% = 125

⇒ X = 100

Putting all the values in a table we get

DayNumber of chocolate cookies bakedNumber of butter cookies bakedTotal number of (chocolate + butter) cookies baked
Sunday2525 × (100 - 80)% = 525 + 5 = 30
Monday25 × 200% = 5050 × (100 - 80)% = 1050 + 10 = 60
Tuesday150% × 50 = 7575 × (100 - 80)% = 1575 + 15 = 90
Wednesday100100 × (100 - 80)% = 20100 + 20 = 120
Total25050300

 

Required ratio = 100 : 80 = 5 : 4

Hence, the correct answer is 5 : 4.

113

Find the respective ratio between the total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked by the bakery on Sunday and Monday together and the total number of 'butter' cookies baked by it on Monday and Tuesday?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 1

  2. ((b))

    3 : 1

  3. ((c))

    4 : 1

  4. ((d))

    5 : 1

  5. ((e))

    6 : 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3 : 1

Total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on all four days of the week = 250

Total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on all four days together = 50

Y = [(250 - 50)/250] × 100 = 80%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Sunday = 25

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Monday = 25 × (100 + X)%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Tuesday = 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% 

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Wednesday = 100

ATQ, 25 + 25 × (100 + X)% + 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% + 100 = 250

⇒ 250% × 25 × (100 + X)% = 125

⇒ X = 100

Putting all the values in a table we get

DayNumber of chocolate cookies bakedNumber of butter cookies bakedTotal number of (chocolate + butter) cookies baked
Sunday2525 × (100 - 80)% = 525 + 5 = 30
Monday25 × 200% = 5050 × (100 - 80)% = 1050 + 10 = 60
Tuesday150% × 50 = 7575 × (100 - 80)% = 1575 + 15 = 90
Wednesday100100 × (100 - 80)% = 20100 + 20 = 120
Total25050300

 

The total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked by the bakery on Sunday and Monday together = 25 + 50 = 75

The total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on Monday and Tuesday = 10 + 15 = 25

Required ratio = 75 : 25 = 3 : 1

Hence, the correct answer is 3 : 1.

114

What is the average total number of cookies (chocolate + butter) baked by the bakery on Tuesday and Wednesday together?

  1. ((a))

    105

  2. ((b))

    110

  3. ((c))

    115

  4. ((d))

    120

  5. ((e))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

105

Total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on all four days of the week = 250

Total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on all four days together = 50

Y = [(250 - 50)/250] × 100 = 80%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Sunday = 25

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Monday = 25 × (100 + X)%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Tuesday = 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% 

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Wednesday = 100

ATQ, 25 + 25 × (100 + X)% + 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% + 100 = 250

⇒ 250% × 25 × (100 + X)% = 125

⇒ X = 100

Putting all the values in a table we get

DayNumber of chocolate cookies bakedNumber of butter cookies bakedTotal number of (chocolate + butter) cookies baked
Sunday2525 × (100 - 80)% = 525 + 5 = 30
Monday25 × 200% = 5050 × (100 - 80)% = 1050 + 10 = 60
Tuesday150% × 50 = 7575 × (100 - 80)% = 1575 + 15 = 90
Wednesday100100 × (100 - 80)% = 20100 + 20 = 120
Total25050300

 

Total number of cookies (chocolate + butter) baked by the bakery on Tuesday and Wednesday together = 90 + 120 = 210

Required average = 210/2 = 105

Hence, the correct answer is 105.

115

If the bakery maintains the same 'pattern' as it maintained on the given four days of the week then what will the difference between the number of 'chocolate' and 'butter' cookies baked by it on Thursday?

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    90

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    110

  5. ((e))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

100

Total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on all four days of the week = 250

Total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on all four days together = 50

Y = [(250 - 50)/250] × 100 = 80%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Sunday = 25

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Monday = 25 × (100 + X)%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Tuesday = 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% 

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Wednesday = 100

ATQ, 25 + 25 × (100 + X)% + 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% + 100 = 250

⇒ 250% × 25 × (100 + X)% = 125

⇒ X = 100

Putting all the values in a table we get

DayNumber of chocolate cookies bakedNumber of butter cookies bakedTotal number of (chocolate + butter) cookies baked
Sunday2525 × (100 - 80)% = 525 + 5 = 30
Monday25 × 200% = 5050 × (100 - 80)% = 1050 + 10 = 60
Tuesday150% × 50 = 7575 × (100 - 80)% = 1575 + 15 = 90
Wednesday100100 × (100 - 80)% = 20100 + 20 = 120
Total25050300

 

If the bakery maintains the same 'pattern' as it maintained on the given four days of the week then

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on it on Thursday = 100 + 25 = 125

The number of 'butter' cookies baked on it on Thursday = 20 + 5 = 25

Required difference = 125 - 25 = 100

Hence, the correct answer is 100.

116

Out of the total number of baked cookies (chocolate + butter) by the bakery on Tuesday, 10% remained 'unsold' and the number of 'sold' chocolate cookies was 59 more than that of 'butter' cookies then find the number of 'unsold' butter cookies by the bakery on Tuesday?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

Total number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on all four days of the week = 250

Total number of 'butter' cookies baked by the bakery on all four days together = 50

Y = [(250 - 50)/250] × 100 = 80%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Sunday = 25

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Monday = 25 × (100 + X)%

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Tuesday = 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% 

The number of 'chocolate' cookies baked on Wednesday = 100

ATQ, 25 + 25 × (100 + X)% + 150% × 25 × (100 + X)% + 100 = 250

⇒ 250% × 25 × (100 + X)% = 125

⇒ X = 100

Putting all the values in a table we get

DayNumber of chocolate cookies bakedNumber of butter cookies bakedTotal number of (chocolate + butter) cookies baked
Sunday2525 × (100 - 80)% = 525 + 5 = 30
Monday25 × 200% = 5050 × (100 - 80)% = 1050 + 10 = 60
Tuesday150% × 50 = 7575 × (100 - 80)% = 1575 + 15 = 90
Wednesday100100 × (100 - 80)% = 20100 + 20 = 120
Total25050300

 

The total number of baked cookies (chocolate + butter) by the bakery on Tuesday = 90

Total number of cookies (chocolate + butter) which remained 'unsold' by the bakery on Tuesday = 90 × 10% = 9

Total number of 'sold' cookies (chocolate + butter) by the bakery on Tuesday = 90 - 9 = 81

⇒ c + b = 81 ...(i)

The number of 'sold' chocolate cookies was 19 more than that of 'butter' cookies.

⇒ c - b = 59 ...(ii)

The number of 'sold' butter cookies by the bakery on Tuesday = (81 - 59)/2 = 11

Total number of baked (sold + unsold) butter cookies by the bakery on Tuesday = 15

Number of 'unsold' butter cookies by the bakery on Tuesday = 15 - 11 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is 4.

117

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

What is the area of the rectangle?

Quantity I: The area of the rectangle is equal to the area of the square whose side is 12 cm.

Quantity II: The perimeter of the rectangle is 44 cm if the ratio of the length and breadth of the rectangle is 4 : 7.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Quantity I > Quantity II

Calculation:

Quantity I:

Area of square = 12 × 12

⇒ 144 cm2

∴ area of rectangle = 144 cm2

Quantity II:

Length of rectangle = 4x

Breadth of rectangle = 7x

Perimeter = 44

∴ 2(4x + 7x) = 44

⇒ 11x = 22

⇒ x = 2

Length = 8 cm

Breadth = 14 cm

∴ area of rectangle = l × b

⇒ 8 × 14

⇒ 112 cm2

Quantity I > Quantity II

118

Directions: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity I: Cost price of an article is 55% of the selling price and the selling price is Rs. 75000. Find his profit percent.

Quantity II: A chair is sold at a profit of Rs. 600, which is 50% of its cost price. If its C.P. is increased by 25% and the selling price is Rs. 1800. Then, find the new profit percent.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ˂ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I ˃ Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Quantity I ˃ Quantity II

Quantity I:

C.P. = 55% of selling price

= 55% × 75000 = Rs. 41250

⇒ Profit = 75000 - 41250 = Rs. 33750

Profit percent = (33750/41250) × 100 = 81.81%

Quantity II:

Let the C.P. be Rs. x

⇒ 50% of x = 600

⇒ x = (600 × 100)/50

⇒ x = Rs. 1200

Revised cost price = 1200 + 25% of 1200

⇒ 1200 + 300 = Rs. 1500

⇒ Profit = Rs. 1800 - Rs. 1500 = Rs. 300

Profit percentage = (300/1500) × 100

⇒ 20%

∴ Quantity I > Quantity II

119

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: Amar gave (2/5) of the amount he had to Balram. Balram then gave half of money what he received from Amar to Chandan. If the difference between the remaining amount with Amar and the amount received by Chandan is Rs. 600, how much money did Balram receive from Amar?

Quantity II: Rs. 250

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

Given:

Balram = 2/5 amount less than amar

Chandan = 1/2 amount less than balram

Chandan = Rs. 600

Calculation:

Quantity I:

Let initially Amar had Rs. x

⇒ Amount received by Balram = Rs. (2x/5)

⇒ Amount remaining with Amar = x – (2x / 5)

⇒ Amount remaining with Amar = Rs. 3x / 5

⇒ Amount received by chandan = (1 / 2) × (2x / 5)

⇒ Amount received by chandan = Rs. x / 5

⇒ (3x / 5) – (x / 5) = 600

⇒ x = 1500

⇒ Amount received by balram = (2× 1500/5) = Rs. 600

Quantity II : Rs. 250

∴ Quantity I > Quantity II

120

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

The speed of a motorbike in upstream is 50% less than that of downstream. 

Quantity I: The speed of the stream is how much percentage of the speed of the motorbike downstream? 

Quantity II: The speed of the stream is how much percent less than the speed of the motorbike in still water?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

Given:

u/s speed = 0.5 × d/s speed

Formula used:

Let the speed of the motorbike in still water = u km per hour and the speed of the stream = v km per hour

the speed of the motorbike in downstream = (u + v) km per hour

the speed of the motorbike in upstream = (u – v) km per hour

Calculations:

According to the question, (u – v) = (100 – 50)%

⇒ (u + v) = 50% of (u + v)

⇒ 2u – 2v = u + v

⇒ u = 3v

⇒ u : v = 3 : 1

Quantity I:

The speed of the motorbike in downstream = 4x km/hr (∵ 3x + x)

⇒ required % = x × (100 / 4x)

⇒ required % = 25%

Quantity II:

Required % = (3 – 1) × 100 / 3

⇒ required % = 6623\frac{2}{3}%

∴ Quantity I < Quantity II

Test of General Awareness (40 questions)

121

A Ramsar Site is a wetland site designated to be of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. When was Ramsar Convention established?

  1. ((a))

    1982

  2. ((b))

    1972

  3. ((c))

    1971

  4. ((d))

    1985

  5. ((e))

    1988

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1971

The correct answer is 1971.

Key Points

  • A Ramsar Site is a wetland site designated to be of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, also known as "The Convention on Wetlands", an intergovernmental environmental treaty established in 1971 by UNESCO, which came into force in 1975.
  • It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed in 1971.
  • There is a total of 75 Ramsar Sites in India. (As of August 2022)
122

Which ministry won the best tableau of central ministry in the Republic Day parade 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Finance

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Information & Broadcasting

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Education and Ministry of Civil Aviation

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of External Affairs

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ministry of Education and Ministry of Civil Aviation

The correct answer is the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Key Points

  • “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav” is being celebrated to commemorate 75 years of progressive India and the glorious history of its people, culture, and achievements.
  • The 73rd Republic Day Flag Hoisting Ceremony was conducted by Hon'ble President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind Followed by the Republic Day Parade from Rajpath, New Delhi on 26th January 2022.
  • The Indian Navy marching contingent has been adjudged as the best marching contingent among the three Services.
  • The tableau of Uttar Pradesh has been selected as the best tableau among the 12 States/UTs which participated in the Republic Day parade on January 26, 2022. The tableau of Uttar Pradesh was based on the theme ‘One District One Product and Kashi Vishwanath Dham’.
  • The tableaux of the Ministry of Education and Ministry of Civil Aviation have been declared joint winners in the category of the best tableau of Central Ministries/Departments.
  • The theme of the tableau of the Ministry of Education & Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship was ‘National Education Policy'.
  • The tableau of the Ministry of Civil Aviation was based on the theme ‘Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik’.
123

Where is the headquarters of the World Economic Forum (WEF)?

  1. ((a))

    Paris, France

  2. ((b))

    Rome, Italy

  3. ((c))

    Washington D.C., United States

  4. ((d))

    Cologny, Switzerland‎

  5. ((e))

    Geneva, Switzerland

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cologny, Switzerland‎

The correct answer is Cologny, Switzerland‎.

Key Points

  • The World Economic Forum (WEF) is the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
  • It was established on 24th January 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Cologny a municipality in the Canton of Geneva, Switzerland.
  • The WEF was founded by Klaus Schwab, a business professor at the University of Geneva.
  • There are 193 member countries under World Economic Forum (WEF).
124

“The Little Book of Joy” is authored by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Dalai Lama

  2. ((b))

    Meghna Pant

  3. ((c))

    JK Rowling

  4. ((d))

    Amitav Ghosh

  5. ((e))

    Amartya Sen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dalai Lama

The correct answer is Dalai Lama.

Key Points

  • Nobel Peace Prize winners the Dalai Lama and Archbishop Desmond Tutu have co-authored “The Little Book of Joy”.
  • They share their childhood struggles to show young readers how they can thrive and find joy even during the most challenging times in this picture book adaptation of the international bestseller “The Book of Joy”.
125

India’s P.V. Sindhu has defeated Busanan Ongbamrungphan to win the women’s singles title at the Swiss Open Super 300 badminton tournament, 2022. Busanan Ongbamrungphan belongs to which country?

  1. ((a))

    Canada

  2. ((b))

    The United States of America

  3. ((c))

    Thailand

  4. ((d))

    Switzerland

  5. ((e))

    Denmark

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Thailand

The correct answer is Thailand.

Key Points

  • The **2022 Swiss Open (**officially known as the Yonex Swiss Open 2022) was a badminton tournament that took place in St. Jakobshalle in Basel, Switzerland from 22 to 27 March 2022.
  • Ace Indian shuttler P V Sindhu won her second women's singles title of the season by defeating Thailand's Busanan Ongbamrungphan in the Swiss Open Super 300 badminton tournament in Basel.
  • This is the 2nd title for PV Sindhu in Basel, where she won her maiden World Championships title in 2019.
  • Playing her second successive final in the tournament, Sindhu, a double Olympic medallist, took 49 minutes to get the better of the fourth-seeded Thai.
126

Which singer received the Padma Shri award under the Arts category in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Victor Banerjee

  2. ((b))

    Rashid Khan 

  3. ((c))

    Sonu Nigam

  4. ((d))

    S. P. Balasubramaniam

  5. ((e))

    Gurmeet Bawa

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sonu Nigam

The correct answer is Sonu Nigam.

Key Points

  • Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards in the country, are conferred in three categories:
  • Padma Vibhushan- is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service.
  • Padma Bhushan- for distinguished service of a high order.
  • Padma Shri- for distinguished service in any field.
  • The President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind conferred Padma Awards for the year 2022, at the Civil Investiture Ceremony-I held at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
  • The list of awardees comprises 4 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan, and 107 Padma Shri Awards.
  • Sonu Nigam is conferred with the Padma Shri award 2022 under the Arts category.
127

Who is the author of the novel “Whereabouts”?

  1. ((a))

    Chetan Bhagat

  2. ((b))

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  3. ((c))

    Ruskin Bond

  4. ((d))

    Vikram Seth

  5. ((e))

    Arundhati Roy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jhumpa Lahiri

The correct answer is Jhumpa Lahiri.

Key Points

  • “Whereabouts” is a 2018 novel authored and published in Italian by Jhumpa Lahiri. The original name of the novel in Italian is “Dove mi trovo”.
  • The novel has been translated by Jhumpa Lahiri itself into English in April 2021.
  • Other books of Jhumpa Lahiri are:
  • The Namesake (2003)
  • Unaccustomed Earth (2008)
  • The Lowland (2013)
128

Which of the following is not a member of European Union Country?

  1. ((a))

    Austria

  2. ((b))

    Portugal

  3. ((c))

    Netherlands

  4. ((d))

    Slovenia

  5. ((e))

    Ukraine

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Ukraine

The European Union (EU) is an economic and political union of 27 countries. It operates an internal (or single) market which allows free movement of goods, capital, services and people between member states.

​The EU countries are:

Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Republic of Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain and Sweden.

129

Hurun Global released a list of U40 self-made billionaires in 2022. Which country has topped this list?

  1. ((a))

    The United Kingdom

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    The United States of America

  4. ((d))

    China

  5. ((e))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The United States of America

The correct answer is The United States of America.

Key Points

  • Hurun Global released U40 self-made billionaires in 2022. Hurun report finds 87 self-made billionaires in the world aged 40 & under, up 8 in the year and almost double in 5 years.
  • The United States of America (USA)leads with 37 self-made billionaires followed by China with 25 self-made billionaires.
  • The United Kingdom stands in the third position with 8 self-made billionaires and India in the fourth position with 6 self-made billionaires.
130

Which is the rank of India in production of crude steel in the world?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is 2.

In 2021, total world crude steel production was 1,950.5 MT.

  • The biggest steel-producing country is currently China, which accounted for 1032.8 of world steel production in 2021.
  • In 2020, China became the first country to produce over one billion tons of steel.

Key Points

  • The crude steel industry produces blooms, billets, slabs, or plates that are transformed through mechanical processes into rails, structural elements, bars, sheets, or wires.
  • Iron ore-based steelmaking accounts for more than two-thirds of the production of crude steel in the world.
RANKCOUNTRYCRUDE STEEL PRODUCTION (million metric tons)
1China1032.8
2India118
3Japan96.3
<br>
131

When is Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) day celebrated?

  1. ((a))

    5th October

  2. ((b))

    9th October

  3. ((c))

    1st October

  4. ((d))

    2nd October

  5. ((e))

    4th October

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1st October

The correct answer is 1st October.

Key Points

  • The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is observed on the 1st of October every year as the National Pension System Diwas (NPS Diwas) to promote pension and retirement planning for a carefree ‘Azad’ retirement.
  • Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority is the regulatory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
  • The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was passed on 19 September 2013 and the same was notified on 1 February 2014.
  • PFRDA is regulating the National Pension System (NPS), subscribed by employees of Govt. of India, State Governments, and by employees of private institutions/organizations & unorganized sectors.
132

Which of the following industries is NOT included in the 'Eight Core Industries' of India?

  1. ((a))

    Cotton

  2. ((b))

    Fertilizers

  3. ((c))

    Steel

  4. ((d))

    Coal

  5. ((e))

    Cement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cotton

  • Eight core industries of India are Electricity, steel, refinery products, crude oil, coal, cement, natural gas, and fertilizers.
  • Cotton industries are yet to come under the core industries of India.
  • It contains the index, production, and growth of Eight Core Industries.
  • The Index of Eight Core Industries is a monthly production index, which is also considered as a lead indicator of the monthly industrial performance.
  • The Index of Eight Core Industries is compiled based on the monthly production information received from the Source Agencies.
133

Who has won the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award?

  1. ((a))

    Max Verstappen

  2. ((b))

    Lionel Messi

  3. ((c))

    Roger Federer

  4. ((d))

    Michael Schumacher

  5. ((e))

    Deepak Punia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Max Verstappen

The correct answer is Max Verstappen.

Key Points

  • Max Verstappen has won the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award.
  • He earned the honor after beating out Lewis Hamilton to claim his first Formula 1 world championship during the 2021 season.
  • Verstappen was announced as the recipient following a dominant victory in Emilia Romagna Grand Prix.
  • Lionel Messi, Roger Federer, and Michael Schumacher are the previous recipients of the awards.

Additional Information

  • Other Sports News:
  • In the Swimming 200-metre butterfly event, Aryan Panchal won gold medal by clocking a timing of 2:04:72 minutes, at Khelo India University Games in April 2022.
  • Tokyo Olympian Deepak Punia settled for a silver medal in the men’s freestyle 86 kg at the 2022 Asian Wrestling Championships, on 24 April 2022.
  • In Khelo India University Games, weightlifter Govind Sunil Mahajan won gold and Uday Anil Mahajan won silver.
  • At Asian Wrestling Championships at Ulaanbaatar in Mongolia, Indian women wrestlers Anshu Malik and Radhika won silver in the 57kg and 65 kg freestyle categories on 22 April 2022.
  • Wrestlers of India, including Sunil Kumar, won bronze medals on 19 April 2022 on the first day of the Asian Wrestling Championship.
  • India's youngest Grandmaster D Gukesh emerged victorious in the 48th La Roda International Open Chess tournament, scoring eight points from nine rounds.
134

Under National Pension System (NPS) a unique number “PRAN” is generated. What does “P” stand for in "PRAN"?

  1. ((a))

    Premium

  2. ((b))

    Present

  3. ((c))

    Permanent

  4. ((d))

    Pension

  5. ((e))

    Primary

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Permanent

The correct answer is Permanent.

Key Points

  • The "National Pension System (NPS)" is being administered and regulated by "Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)" set up under "PFRDA Act, 2013".
  • Under NPS, a unique "Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN)" is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for an individual subscriber.
  • Every subscriber is allotted a unique 12 digit Permanent Retirement Benefit Number for a lifetime which is accessible from any location in India.
135

Recently the promoter Vodafone has announced to infuse what amount into debt-ridden Vodafone Idea Ltd as part of the company's proposed fundraising?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 3,375 crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs 1,125 crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs 14,200 crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs 4,500 crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs 75,000 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 3,375 crore

The correct answer is ‘Rs 3,375 crore’

 

Key Points

 

  • Promoter Vodafone announced to infuse up to Rs 3,375 crore into debt-ridden Vodafone Idea Ltd as part of the company's proposed raising of funds worth Rs 14,200 crore.
  • According to a regulatory filing, Besides Vodafone, Aditya Birla Group plans to pump in up to Rs 1,125 crore.
  • The telecom operator will seek shareholders' approval for raising up to Rs 14,500 crore as well as increase its authorised share capital to Rs 75,000 crore at its Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM).
  • The board of Vodafone Idea Ltd (VIL) has already approved the fundraising plan, which includes Rs 4,500 crore coming in from Aditya Birla Group and Vodafone, while the remaining amount of Rs 10,000 crore would be mopped up by way of equity or debt instruments.
  • Currently, Birlas own more than a 27 per cent stake in VIL while Vodafone Plc holds over 44 percent shareholding in VIL.
  • The government had also given telcos the option to convert the interest amount pertaining to the moratorium period into equity.
  • VIL will also seek shareholders' approval to appoint Krishna Kishore Maheshwari as the non-executive director of the company.
136

Mudumalai National Park is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Tamilnadu

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tamilnadu

The correct answer is Tamilnadu.

Key Points

  • Mudumalai National Park is located on the north-western side of the Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu State in India.
  • It shares its boundaries with the states of Karnataka and Kerala.
  • The sanctuary is divided into five rangesMasinagudi, Thepakadu, Mudumalai, Kargudi, and Nellakota.
  • The protected area is home to several endangered and vulnerable species including the Indian elephant, Bengal tiger, gaur, and Indian leopard.
  • There are at least 266 species of birds in the sanctuary, including critically endangered Indian white-rumped vulture and long-billed vulture.

Important Points

  • In 1972, a comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted, which provides the main legal framework for the conservation and protection of wildlife in India.
  • The two main objectives of the Act are
  • To provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the Act.
  • To provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as National parks, sanctuaries, and closed areas.
  • This Act has been comprehensively amended in 1991, making punishments more stringent, and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals.
  • There are 103 National parks and 535 wildlife sanctuaries in the country.
137

Where is the largest Tulip Garden opened in Asia?

  1. ((a))

    Srinagar

  2. ((b))

    Gulmarg

  3. ((c))

    Baramula

  4. ((d))

    Kathua

  5. ((e))

    Udhampur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Srinagar

The correct answer is Srinagar.

Key Points

  • Asia's largest Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden with more than 1.5 million tulips blooming over 30 hectares of land was opened in Jammu and Kashmir's Srinagar.
  • Tulip garden is located in the foothills of the Zabarvan mountains in Srinagar.
  • The garden was opened in 2007 to boost floriculture and tourism in Kashmir Valley.
138

"OBICUS" survey is conducted by RBI. What does "C" stand for in OBICUS?

  1. ((a))

    Capacity

  2. ((b))

    Calculator

  3. ((c))

    Circulation

  4. ((d))

    Current Account

  5. ((e))

    Cash

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Capacity

The correct answer is Capacity.

Key Points

  • The full form of "OBICUS" is Order Books, Inventories, and Capacity Utilisation Survey.
  • The Reserve Bank released the results of the 53rd round of the Order Books, Inventories, and Capacity Utilisation Survey (OBICUS) for the January-March 2021 quarter covering 584 manufacturing companies.
  • The survey provides a snapshot of demand conditions in India’s manufacturing sector.
  • The Reserve Bank has been conducting the Order Books, Inventories, and Capacity Utilisation Survey (OBICUS) of the manufacturing sector every quarter since 2008.
  • The information collected in the survey includes quantitative data on new orders received during the reference quarter, backlog of orders at the beginning of the quarter, pending orders at the end of the quarter, total inventories with a breakup between work-in-progress (WIP) and finished goods (FG) inventories at the end of the quarter and item-wise production in terms of quantity and value during the quarter vis-à-vis the installed capacity from the targeted group.
139

Indian Oil Corporation recently made One-Horned Rhino its Brand Mascot. In which national park is One-Horned Rhino not found? 

  1. ((a))

    Kaziranga National Park

  2. ((b))

    Jaldapara National Park

  3. ((c))

    Ranthambore National park

  4. ((d))

    Orang National park

  5. ((e))

    Dudhwa National Park

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ranthambore National park

The correct answer is Ranthambore National Park.

Key Points

  • IndianOil has recently adopted the one-horned Rhino as its mascot on 1st September 2021..
  • Building on IndianOil's brand positioning as 'Truly Indian', the IndianOil Rhino aims to nurture a lifelong bond with the billion-plus Indians and herald a new era of customer excellence for IndianOil.
  • IndianOil launched its IndianOil Rhino during their 62nd IndianOil Day celebrations in Tezpur, Assam.
  • The current chairman of IOC is Mr. Shrikant Madhav Vaidya.
  • The headquarters of IOC is Mumbai.

Important Points

S.No.Parks & Year of EstablishmentLocation (State)Famous for
1Kaziranga National Park (1974)AssamOne-horned Rhinoceros
2Jaldapara National Park(1941)West BengalOne-Horned Rhinoceros and Leopards
3Ranthambore National Park(1980)RajasthanTigers
4Orang National Park(1985)AssamRhinoceros and Tigers
5Dudhwa National Park(1977)Uttar PradeshRhinoceros & Swamp Deer

 

<br>
140

A book titled "By Many a Happy Accident: Recollection of a Life" has been authored by _____________.

  1. ((a))

    Lal Krishna Advani

  2. ((b))

    M. Venkaiah Naidu

  3. ((c))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

  4. ((d))

    M. Hamid Ansari

  5. ((e))

    Shashi Tharoor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

M. Hamid Ansari

The correct answer is M. Hamid Ansari.

Key Points

  • A book titled "By Many a Happy Accident: Recollection of a Life" has been authored by the former vice president M. Hamid Ansari.
  • Mohammad Hamid Ansari was the vice president of India from 2007 to 2017 for two consecutive terms.
  • He was the second vice president after Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who served as vice president for two consecutive terms.
  • M. Hamid Ansari also served as high commissioner to Australia and ambassador to Afghanistan, United Arab Emirates, Iran, and Saudi Arabia.

Additional Information

  • M Venkaiah Naidu is the 13th vice president of India.
  • Nirmala Sitharaman - Finance Minister.
  • Lal Krishna Advani - Former Deputy Prime Minister of India from 2002 to 2004 under Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
141

The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative and which of the following United Nations agency?

  1. ((a))

    Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

  2. ((b))

    International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

  3. ((c))

    International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)

  4. ((d))

    International Labour Organization (ILO)

  5. ((e))

    United Nations Development Program

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

United Nations Development Program

The correct answer is United Nations Development Program.

Key Points

  • Five out of six multidimensionally poor people in India are from lower tribes or castes, according to a new analysis on global multidimensional poverty released by the United Nations on 7 October 2021.
  • The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.

Important Points

  • The report further said that 27.2 per cent of the Other Backward Class group -160 million of 588 million people - lives in multidimensional poverty.
  • Among the 1.3 billion multidimensionally poor people studied globally, almost two-thirds - 836 million - live in households in which no female member has completed at least six years of schooling.
  • The top five countries with the largest number of people living in multidimensional poverty are in India, Nigeria, Pakistan, Ethiopia and Democratic Republic of the Congo.
142

In March 2022, Gilbert F. Houngbo has been elected as new Director-General of which of the following organization?

  1. ((a))

    ILO

  2. ((b))

    UNESCO

  3. ((c))

    UNICEF

  4. ((d))

    WHO

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ILO

The correct answer is ILO.

Key Points

  • The Governing Body of the International Labour Organization (ILO) elects its new Director-General.
  • Gilbert F. Houngbo from Togo was elected as the 11th Director-General and will take office in October 2022.
  • Houngbo is currently President of the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).
  • The current Director-General, Guy Ryder, from the United Kingdom has held office since 2012.

Additional Information

  • ILO:
  • The International Labour Organization is a United Nations agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice through setting international labour standards.
  • It was founded in October 1919 under the League of Nations.
  • It is the first and oldest specialised agency of the UN.
  • It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • It was awarded Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.
143

The minimum reserve to be kept by the RBI for issue of currency is

  1. ((a))

    Out of Rs 200 Cr at least Rupees 115 Crore worth of gold and balance in foreign exchange

  2. ((b))

    Minimum Rupees 200 Crore worth of Gold

  3. ((c))

    Out of Rs 200 Cr atleast Rupees 110 Crore worth of gold and balance in foreign exchange

  4. ((d))

    Minimum Rupees 115 Crore worth of gold

  5. ((e))

    Minimum Rupees 500 Crore worth of gold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Out of Rs 200 Cr at least Rupees 115 Crore worth of gold and balance in foreign exchange

The correct answer is Out of Rs 200 Cr at least Rupees 115 Crore worth of gold and balance in foreign exchange.

Key Points

  • The Minimum Reserve system was introduced in 1956 and mandates the RBI to maintain minimum reserves in the form of gold and foreign exchange of rupees 200 crores.
  • Out this reserve, the value of gold to be maintained is rupees 115 crores.
  • This system replaced the proportional reserve system, under which RBI was mandated to keep 2/5th of the gold securities and the remaining 3/5th were the rupee coins.
  • RBI Governor-Shaktikanta Das
  • RBI HQ-Mumbai
  • RBI Act 1934 empowers the RBI to be the issuer of currency.
144

Which of the following was an oldest non-life General ​Insurance Company, founded in 1906?

  1. ((a))

    United India Insurance Company

  2. ((b))

    Agriculture Insurance Company of India

  3. ((c))

     LIC

  4. ((d))

    National Insurance Company

  5. ((e))

    Oriental Insurance Company

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

National Insurance Company

The correct answer is ​National Insurance Company.

  • National Insurance Company Limited (NICL) is the oldest non-life general insurance company in India.
  • The company headquartered in Kolkata was established in 1906 by Gordhandas Dutia and Jeevan Das Dutia and National Insurance company and the Asian Insurance company were nationalized in 1972.
<br>

Additional Information

  • 1710 Charles Povey formed the Sun, the oldest insurance company in existence which still conducts business in its own name.
  • It is the forerunner of the Royal & Sun Alliance Group. 1735 The Friendly Society, the first insurance company in the United States, was established in Charleston, South Carolina.
145

What was the Consumer Price Index (CPI) retail inflation at in the month of March 2022?

  1. ((a))

    6.25 percent

  2. ((b))

    6.65 percent

  3. ((c))

    6.75 percent

  4. ((d))

    6.95 percent

  5. ((e))

    7.15 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6.95 percent

The correct answer is ‘6.95 percent’

 

Key Points

 

  • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) retail inflation jumped to a 17-month high of 6.95 percent in March 2022.
  • However, it was at 6.07 percent in February driven by high food prices.
  • CPI inflation exceeded the RBI’s target range materially, as rising food, logistics and energy prices added to inflation.
  • In the last policy review, the inflation projection was raised to 5.7 percent for FY23 from 4.5 percent.
  • The MPC has the mandate to keep inflation in the 2-6 percent band but it has breached three consecutive quarters.
146

Which movie won the “Best Film” at the “Dada Saheb Phalke awards” 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Pushpa- The Rise

  2. ((b))

    Shershaah

  3. ((c))

    Bell-Bottom

  4. ((d))

    83

  5. ((e))

    Mimi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Shershaah

The correct answer is Shershaah.

Key Points

  • The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in the field of cinema.
  • It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organization set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
  • The 68th Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Awards 2022 was held on 20th February 2022 in Mumbai’s Taj Lands End.
  • The list of Dadasaheb Phalke Awards 2022:
  • Outstanding Contribution to Film Industry - Asha Parekh
  • Best International Feature Film - Another Round
  • Best Film – Shershaah
  • Best Actor - Ranveer Singh for 83
  • Best Actress - Kriti Sanon for Mimi
  • Film Of The Year - Pushpa: The Rise
  • Critics Best Actor - Sidharth Malhotra for Shershaah
  • Critics Best Actress - Kiara Advani for Shershaah
  • Best Actress in Supporting Role - Lara Dutta for Bell-Bottom
147

World Bank has launched the world's first Rhino wildlife conservation bond (WCB), generating 150 million dollars to boost initiatives to raise the endangered black rhino species in which country?

  1. ((a))

    South America

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    South Africa

  5. ((e))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

South Africa

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

  • The World Bank announced that it has priced the world’s first wildlife “Rhino bond”, raising 150 million dollars that will be partly used for the conservation of black rhinos in South Africa.
  • The five-year “Rhino bond” will pay returns determined by the rate of growth in populations of the animals in two South African reserves, the Addo Elephant National Park and the Great Fish River Nature Reserve.
  • World Bank:
  • Headquarters: Washington, D.C., U.S. (1944)
  • President: David Malpass
  • Member countries: 189
148

Forbes has released the World’s Billionaires List 2022. Who is the richest woman in the world according to the Forbes 2022 list?

  1. ((a))

    Alice Walton

  2. ((b))

    Julia Koch 

  3. ((c))

    MacKenzie Scott 

  4. ((d))

    Francoise Bettencourt Meyers

  5. ((e))

    Jacqueline Mars

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Francoise Bettencourt Meyers

The correct answer is Francoise Bettencourt Meyers.

Key Points

  • Forbes has released the World’s Billionaires List 2022**.** Among the 2,668 billionaires on this year’s Forbes list, there are few women just 327, down from 328 last year.
  • Francoise Bettencourt Meyers, the granddaughter of French pharmacist and L’Oreal founder Eugene Schueller, is the world’s richest woman with a net worth of $74.8 billion, topping the Forbes 2022 World Billionaires List for women for the second year in a row.
  • Walmart heiress Alice Walton ranked second on the list with a net worth of 65.3bn,followedbyJuliaKochwithapersonalfortuneof65.3bn, followed by Julia Koch with a personal fortune of 60bn.
  • A total of 11 Indian women, with 4 newcomers, joined the global rich list this year.
  • Savitri Jindal, the chairperson of the Jindal Group, is the richest woman in India, according to the Forbes' Billionaires List 2022, with a net worth of 17.7billionfollowedbyFalguniNayar,theCEOofbeautyandfashiongiantNykaa,withanetworthof17.7 billion followed by Falguni Nayar, the CEO of beauty and fashion giant Nykaa, with a net worth of 4.5billion.
149

Name the city that has launched the first Drone school in India?

  1. ((a))

    Indore

  2. ((b))

    Ujjain

  3. ((c))

    Bhopal

  4. ((d))

    Jabalpur

  5. ((e))

    Gwalior

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Gwalior

The correct answer is Gwalior.

Key Points

  • To create an ecosystem for drone operations in the country, Union Civil Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia along with Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan inaugurated the first drone school in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Civil Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia announced that five Drone Schools will be opened in different cities of Madhya Pradesh including Gwalior, Bhopal, Indore, Jabalpur, and Satna.
150

The term ‘Chinaman’ is associated with

  1. ((a))

    Football 

  2. ((b))

    Swimming 

  3. ((c))

    Cricket

  4. ((d))

    Tennis

  5. ((e))

    Hockey

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cricket

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points

  • Chinaman is considered to be a leg-spin delivery by a left-arm bowler.
  • Also known as left-arm unorthodox spin, a Chinaman delivery usually turns sharply owing to the spin imparted by the wrist.
  • Other terms associated with cricket are:
  • Toss, Run, Wicket, Pitch, Crease, Pavilion, Wicket Keeper, Over, Maiden Over, Follow-on, Ashes, Catch, Bowled, Stump Out, Run Out, L.B.W, Hit Wicket, Not out, No ball, Wide ball, Dead ball, Overthrow, Bye, Leg bye, Cover drive.
  • Some of the Chinaman bowlers:
  • Kuldeep Yadav
  • Tabraiz Shamsi
  • Lakshan Sandakan

Additional Information

  • Terminologies associated with Football are Goal, Kick, Head, Penalty kick, Dribble, Offside, Hat trick, Foul, Stopper, Move, Side back, Pass, Baseline, Rebound, etc.
  • Terminologies associated with Swimming are Freestyle, Breaststroke, Backstroke, Butterfly, Lane, Pool, Crawl, etc.
  • Terminologies associated with Tennis are Drop shot, Netplay, Game point, Smash, etc.
151

What is the minimum tenure of the Public Provident Fund (PPF)?

  1. ((a))

    5 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  2. ((b))

    10 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  3. ((c))

    15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  4. ((d))

    20 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  5. ((e))

    25 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

The correct answer is 15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years.

Key Points

  • 15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years is the minimum tenure of the Public Provident Fund (PPF).
  • ​PPF scheme was launched in 1968 by the Finance Ministry's National Savings Institute.
  • The main objective of the scheme is to help individuals make small savings and provide returns on the savings.
  • A minimum of Rs. 500 and a maximum of Rs. 1.5 Lakh can be invested in a provident fund scheme annually.

Additional Information

  • Eligibility to open a PPF account-
  • You are a citizen of India.
  • You can open only one PPF account unless your second PPF account is in the name of a minor.
152

Civil Aviation Ministry has targeted to complete 220 airports in India by which year?

  1. ((a))

    2022

  2. ((b))

    2023

  3. ((c))

    2025

  4. ((d))

    2024

  5. ((e))

    2030

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2025

The correct answer is 2025.

Key Points

  • India has become the fastest-growing civil aviation market in the world in the last 7 years.
  • There is expansion across the spectrum in the civil aviation sector, with the number of airports in the country going up from 74 in 2013-14 to almost 140 (including Heliports and water domes).
  • Civil Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia announced that the Government has set a target of creating 220 new airports by 2025.
  • There were 400 aircraft in the country earlier and the number now has gone up to 710 in 7 years.
153

Industrial financial corporation of India(IFCI) was set up in the year 

  1. ((a))

    1939

  2. ((b))

    1945

  3. ((c))

    1947

  4. ((d))

    1948

  5. ((e))

    1964

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1948

The correct answer is 1948.

Key Points

  • IFCI was initially established in 1948.
  • the Industrial Finance Corporation of India was converted into a public company on 1 July 1993 and is now known as Industrial Finance Corporation of India Ltd.
  • The main aim of setting up this development bank was to provide assistance to the industrial sector to meet their medium and long-term financial needs.
  • The IDBI, scheduled banks, insurance sector, co-op banks are some of the major stakeholders of the IFCI.

Additional Information

The Functions of IFC are:

  • The main function of the IFCI is to provide medium and long-term loans and advances to industrial and manufacturing concerns.
  • The Industrial Finance Corporation of India can also subscribe to the debentures that these companies issue in the market.
  • The IFCI also provides guarantees to the loans taken by such industrial companies.
  • When a company is issuing shares or debentures the Industrial Finance Corporation of India can choose to underwrite such securities.
  • It also guarantees deferred payments in case of loans taken from foreign banks in foreign currency.
154

Reserve Bank of India announced issue price for Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2021-22 - Series VI. When was Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched?

  1. ((a))

    2016

  2. ((b))

    2017

  3. ((c))

    2018

  4. ((d))

    2015

  5. ((e))

    2019

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

  • Reserve Bank of India has announced issue price for Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2021-22 - Series VI.
  • RBI has fixed price of 4,732 Rupee per gram for bonds which will be available for subscription from 30 August and will remain open till 3rd September 2021.
  • A discount of Rupees 50 will be given to investors applying in online mode.
  • RBI:
  • Governor - Shaktikanta Das.
  • Headquarters - Mumbai.
  • Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.

Important Points

  • Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched in November 2015.
  • Its objective was to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the domestic savings used for the purchase of the yellow metal into financial savings.
  • The price of the bond is fixed in Indian rupees on the basis of simple average of closing price of gold of 999 purity, published by the India Bullion and Jewellers Association Limited for the last three working days of the week preceding the subscription period.
  • The bonds are denominated in multiples of gram (s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor of the bond is for a period of 8 years with exit option after 5th year to be exercised on the next interest payment dates.
  • Minimum permissible investment is 1 gram of gold. The maximum limit of subscription is 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for HUFs and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March).
  • The know-your-customer (KYC) norms are the same as that for purchase of physical gold.
155

In March 2022, the Indian Army in the memory of whom has launched a ‘Chair of Excellence’?

  1. ((a))

    Lieutenant General Manoj Pande

  2. ((b))

    General Manoj Mukund Naravane

  3. ((c))

    Lt Gen SK Sharma

  4. ((d))

    General Bipin Rawat

  5. ((e))

    Dalbir Singh Suhag

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

General Bipin Rawat

The correct answer is General Bipin Rawat.

Key Points

  • On the evening of the 65th birthday of the late Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), General Bipin Rawat, the Indian Army has launched a Chair of Excellence in his memory at the United Service Institution of India (USI).
  • Late General Bipin Rawat was India’s first Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as well as the 27th Chief of the Indian Army.
  • General Manoj Pande is an Indian Army General serving as the 29th and the current Chief of the Army Staff.
  • Chief of Defence Staff General Bipin Rawat died in a chopper crash near Coonoor in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu in December 2021.
156

Which insurance company was established in 1818 that was first insurance company of India?

  1. ((a))

    National Insurance Company

  2. ((b))

    Oriental Life Insurance Company

  3. ((c))

    United India Insurance Company

  4. ((d))

    Life Insurance Corporation of India

  5. ((e))

    Agriculture Insurance Company of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Oriental Life Insurance Company

The correct answer is Oriental Life Insurance Company.

Key Points

  • In 1818, the Oriental Life Insurance Company was established in Calcutta**.**
  • In 1972 with the passing of the General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, the general insurance business was nationalized with effect from 1st January 1973.
  • 107 insurers were amalgamated and grouped into four companies namely:
  • National Insurance Company Ltd.
  • The New India Assurance Company Ltd.
  • The Oriental Insurance Company Ltd.
  • United India Insurance Company Ltd.

Additional Information

  • The Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. was incorporated in Mumbai on 12th September 1947.
  • The Company was a wholly-owned subsidiary of The Oriental Government Security Life Assurance Company Ltd and was formed to carry out General Insurance business.
  • Oriental Insurance Company Ltd:
  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Chairman-cum-Managing Director: Shri Anjan Dey
157

The National Green Tribunal Act 2010 is for the expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment. Where is the principal office of the National Green Tribunal?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Chennai

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru

  5. ((e))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Delhi

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

  • The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
  • It is related to the disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons.
  • The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
  • The Tribunal has its office in five zones- North, Central, East, South, and West. The Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone, headquartered in Delhi.
  • The present Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal is Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel.
158

Under the SIDBI -ARISE Scheme, quantum assistance of up to _________ is provided for the borrowers based on a fixed deposit of 25%(maximum).

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5 Cr

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2 Cr

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4 Cr

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3 Cr

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1 Cr

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 3 Cr

The correct answer is Rs. 3 Cr.

Key Points

  • To facilitate the flow of credit to Small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) for developing existing entities, the Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has recently launched a new scheme SIDBI Assistance to Re-Energize Capital Investments by SMEs (ARISE).
  • Under this scheme, financial assistance is provided to the borrowers of SIDBI, for the purchase of equipment/land for the expansion of enterprises.
  • Enterprises eligible under the SIDBI Assistance to Re-Energize Capital Investments by SMEs (ARISE) are listed below:
  • ​Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) setting up units in identified sectors under the production linked incentive scheme
  • The high growth/sunrise sector and other important sectors are eligible for the scheme.
  • Under the SIDBI -ARISE Scheme, quantum assistance of up to Rs.3 Crore is provided for the borrowers based on a fixed deposit of 25% a maximum. Financial assistance is provided in the form of a Term Loan.
  • The interest rate for the loan under the SIDBI -ARISE Scheme is 5.50% to 6.80% per annum for the first year with a reset applicable thereafter as per the internal rating.
  • SIDBI offers a repayment period of up to 7 years including a moratorium period of up to 2 years under the SIDBI Assistance to Re-Energize Capital Investments by SMEs (ARISE).
159

A mutual fund that invests in other mutual funds belonging to the same fund house or belonging to other fund houses is called

  1. ((a))

    Fund of funds

  2. ((b))

    Pool

  3. ((c))

    Portfolio

  4. ((d))

    Funda fund

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fund of funds

A mutual fund that invests in other mutual funds belonging to the same fund house or belonging to other fund houses is called Fund of Funds. It is a mutual fund that invests in other mutual funds.

160

________ is a window for banks to borrow from RBI in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.

  1. ((a))

    Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

  2. ((b))

    Repo rate

  3. ((c))

    Bank rate

  4. ((d))

    Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF).

  • MSF is a window for banks to borrow from RBI in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.
  • It is an overnight facility where banks borrow from the central bank by pledging their government securities at a rate higher than the repo rate.
  • Banks can borrow only up to 1% of their NDTL (Net Demand and Time Liabilities).
  • LAF (Liquidity Adjustment Facility) - It is the tool used by the RBI that allows banks to borrow money through repo agreements or for banks to make loans to the RBI through reverse repo agreements. It consists of daily infusion or absorption of liquidity using government securities as collateral.
  • Repo rate - It is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for a short-term period with a repurchase agreement. RBI buys securities from the banks and thereby provides funds. Currently, the Repo rate is 6.50%.
  • Bank rate - It is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for a long-term period with a repurchase agreement. The RBI provides refinance to banks on advances to certain sectors. Changes in the bank rate indicate to the market the future movements of interest rates in the economy. Currently, the Repo rate is 6.75%.

Test of Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

161

Which one of the following is NOT a output device?

  1. ((a))

    Speaker

  2. ((b))

    Headphones

  3. ((c))

    Plotter

  4. ((d))

    Projector

  5. ((e))

    Microphone

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Microphone

The correct answer is Microphone.

Output Device:

  • These are those peripherals that receive data or instructions from a computer and convert that information into human-readable form.
  • Examples are Monitor, Printer, Speakers and Headphones, Projector, Plotter, etc.
  • Plotter: A plotter is a computer hardware device that is used for printing vector graphics.
  • Plotters use a pen, pencil, marker to draw multiple, continuous lines onto the paper rather than a series of dots like a printer.
<br>

Input Device: 

  • These are computer hardware equipment that is used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system such as a computer or information appliance.
  • Examples of Input devices are Mouse, Scanner, Microphone.
  • Microphone: An online microphone refers to the use of a microphone for digital communication or broadcasting, converting spoken audio into digital signals that can be transmitted over the internet.
162

Which of the following shortcut keys can be used to open 'Insert Hyperlink' dialogue box in Microsoft PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + H

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + H

  3. ((c))

    Alt + K

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + K

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl + Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + K

The correct answer is Ctrl + K.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + K shortcut key can be used to open 'Insert Hyperlink' dialogue box in Microsoft PowerPoint.
  • Alt + H shortcut is to go to Home tab.
  • Ctrl + H shortcut hides the cursor or any activated tools, like the pen or highlighter.
  • Alt + K shortcut opens the Transitions tab in the Ribbon.

Additional Information

There are many common such shortcuts that can be used in Microsoft Power Point to save time. Some of them are-

Short cutFunction
F5Start the slide show
Ctrl+CCopies the last slide
DltDeletes the selected slides
Ctrl+NCreate new presentation
Ctrl+MAdd a new slide
Alt+G, HSelect a theme
Alt+H, LSelect a slide layout
Ctrl+QClose PowerPoint
Ctrl+SSave the presentation
163

Which of the following can connect LAN's and WAN's together?

  1. ((a))

    Hub

  2. ((b))

    Repeater

  3. ((c))

    Router

  4. ((d))

    Bridge

  5. ((e))

    Switch

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Router

A router is a three-layer device; it operates in the physical, data link, and network layers. As a physical layer device, it regenerates the signal it receives. As a data link layer device, the router checks the physical addresses contained in the packet. As a network layer device, a router checks the network layer addresses.  A router can connect LANs together; a router can connect WANs together, and a router can connect LANs and WANs together.

164

Which of the following is NOT a function in Microsoft Excel?

  1. ((a))

    SUM

  2. ((b))

    MAX

  3. ((c))

    AVERAGE()

  4. ((d))

    MIN

  5. ((e))

    AUTOGRAPH 

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

AUTOGRAPH 

The correct answer is "AUTOGRAPH ".

Key Points

AUTOGRAPH is not a valid function in MS Excel

Additional Information

SUM()

  • The SUM() adds values.
  • You can add individual values, cell references or ranges, or a mix of all three.
  • For example: =SUM(A2:A10) Adds the values in cells A2:10.
  • COUNTA - It will allow you to evaluate any gaps the dataset might have without having to reorganize the data.

AVERAGE(): The AVERAGE() function in MS Excel, is used to generate the average of selected cell values. A minimum of two cells have to select to perform the AVERAGE()

165

State the full form of GUI:

  1. ((a))

    Graphical User Interchange

  2. ((b))

    Graphical User Interface

  3. ((c))

    Graphical User Interport

  4. ((d))

    Graphical Usage Interface

  5. ((e))

    Graphical Usage Interchange

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Graphical User Interface

The correct answer is the Graphical User Interface.

Important Points

  • Graphical User Interface (GUI) 
  • The graphical user interface is used by the most commercially popular computer operating systems.
  • A Graphical User Interface (GUI) allows you to enter commands by pointing and clicking at objects that appear on the screen.
  • It consists of picture-like items (icons and arrows for example).
  • In most operating systems, the primary user interface is graphical.

 

Key Points

  • Some popular, modern graphical user interface examples include:
  • Microsoft Windows,
  • macOS, Ubuntu Unity,
  • GNOME Shell for desktop environments, and
  • Android,
  • Apple's iOS,
  • BlackBerry OS,
  • Windows 10 Mobile,
  • Palm OS-WebOS, and
  • Firefox OS for smartphones.​
166

In internet, which protocol is used for receiving email?

  1. ((a))

    SMTP

  2. ((b))

    HTTP

  3. ((c))

    RTP

  4. ((d))

    BGP

  5. ((e))

    IMAP

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

IMAP

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) 

  • IMAP is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection
  • IMAP and POP3 are the two most commonly used Internet mail protocols for retrieving emails.

Therefore option 5 is correct

Important Points

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP):

  • It is the protocol used for sending e-mail over the Internet.
  • E-mail client (such as Outlook, Eudora, or Mac OS X Mail) uses SMTP to send a message to the mail server, and the mail server uses SMTP to relay that message to the correct receiving mail server.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is a standardized exterior gateway protocol designed to exchange routing and reachability information between autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. The protocol is often classified as a path vector protocol but is sometimes also classed as a distance-vector routing protocol.

HTTP is a protocol that allows the fetching of resources, such as HTML documents. It is the foundation of any data exchange on the Web and it is a client-server protocol, which means requests are initiated by the recipient, usually the Web browser.

RTP applications can use the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), but most use the User Datagram protocol (UDP) instead because UDP allows for faster delivery of data.

167

______ is used to transfer the data directly to main memory without using CPU.

  1. ((a))

    Memory Address Register

  2. ((b))

    Device driver

  3. ((c))

    Input/Output interface

  4. ((d))

    DMA controller

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

DMA controller

Concept:

  • The Hardware device is used for Direct Memory access without taking the help of CPU.
  • It Saves a Lot of time and there is no need for a processor and work should be completed fast.
  • The Exchange of data will happen takes place from input device and output device directly using Direct Memory Access Controller.
  • The Exchange of Data will happened through System bus, whenever an input device requests some data.
  • The Request will directly go to the DMA Controller and the DMA Controller will directly Communicate with the Main Memory and gives Output.
  • There is no involvement of processor physically then this method is called Direct Memory Access.

 

The Correct Answer is DMA Controller

168

The first Indian web browser developed for Indian users -

  1. ((a))

    Google Chrome

  2. ((b))

    Mozilla

  3. ((c))

    Internet Explorer

  4. ((d))

    Epic

  5. ((e))

    Edge

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Epic

The correct answer is Epic.

Key Points

  • Hidden Reflex, an Indian startup running since 2008, developed and launched India's first web browser entitled 'Epic'.
  • Its creators claim that it can scan your computer for viruses, track your stock portfolio, type in 12 Indian languages, book travel tickets without switch between applications, all for free.
  • A unique feature of this browser is that it supposedly comes with an in-built antivirus.
  • They claim that they currently support 12 Indian languages and is built on Mozilla Firefox with an Indian twist.

Additional Information

  • Mozilla Firefox:
  • It is a free and open-source web browser developed by the Mozilla Foundation and its subsidiary, the Mozilla Corporation.
  • Firefox uses the Gecko layout engine to render web pages, which implements current and anticipated web standards.
  • Initial release date: 23 September 2002.
  • Internet Explorer:
  • It is a series of graphical web browsers developed by Microsoft and included in the Microsoft Windows line of operating systems, starting in 1995.
  • It was first released as part of the add-on package Plus! for Windows 95 that year.
  • Google Chrome:
  • It is a cross-platform web browser developed by Google.
  • It was first released in 2008 for Microsoft Windows and was later ported to Linux, macOS, iOS, and Android where it is the default browser built into the OS.
169

Which of the following protocols provides a physical address from a logical address?

  1. ((a))

    DHCP

  2. ((b))

    BOOTP

  3. ((c))

    ARP

  4. ((d))

    RARP

  5. ((e))

    SMTP

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ARP

The correct option is (3) ARP

Key Points

  • ARP, or the Address Resolution Protocol, converts logical addresses into physical addresses.
  • The Address Resolution Protocol, or ARP, is a protocol created with this objective in mind.
  • One or more logical (IP) addresses, which are distinct and separate from the physical (hardware) address of the system, are given to each host or router.
  • In contrast to a physical address, which can be physically accessed, a logical address does not actually exist in the memory.
  • A TCP/IP protocol is BOOTP. It enables a client to obtain information from a network server, such as its IP address and the name of a load file.
  • An Internet Mechanism (IP) network management protocol called Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to assign IP addresses automatically.

Additional Information

  • For a machine that only knows its physical address, Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) determines the logical address.
  • Reverse mapping, or mapping a physical address to a logical address, is occasionally necessary.
  • RARP is a request and reply protocol used to find the IP address from the MAC address.
  • ​The physical machine address is also known as a media access control (MAC) address.
170

Third generation computers used _______________.

  1. ((a))

    VLSI technique

  2. ((b))

    Transistors

  3. ((c))

    Vacuum tubes

  4. ((d))

    Integrated circuits

  5. ((e))

    Bio-chips

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Integrated circuits

The correct answer is Integrated circuits.

Key Points

Third Generation (1964-1977):

  • This generation was introduced by the development of a small chip consisting of the capacity of the 300 transistors
  • These Integrated Circuits (IC)s are popularly known as Chips.
  • So it is quite obvious that the size of the computer got further reduced
  • Some of the computers developed during this period were IBM-360, ICL-1900, IBM-370, and VAX-750
  • Higher-level language such as BASIC (Beginners All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code) was developed during this period​

Additional Information

GenerationDurationElectronic Component Used
First Generation Computers1946 - 1954Vacuum Tubes
Second Generation Computer1955 - 1964Transistors
Third Generation Computer1964 - 1977Integrated Circuits
Fourth Generation Computer1978 - PresentVLSI or Microprocessors
Fifth Generation ComputerPresent and FutureULSI or Bio-Chips
171

Which function key is used for opening help ?

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    F2

  3. ((c))

    F4

  4. ((d))

    F3

  5. ((e))

    F5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F1

The correct answer is F1.

Key Points

  • F1 function key is used for opening help.
  • A function key is a key on a computer keyboard to perform certain actions.
  • The function keys are arranged on the top of the computer keyboard numbered across from F1 to F12.
  • The keys are frequently used in combination with other keys such as the CTRL key, the ALT key, and the SHIFT key.
  • The function keys provide some interesting shortcuts for common computer functions that can be useful tools in everyday computing.

 

Additional Information

Some of the use of function keys:

Function keysFunction
F2To rename a selected file or folder.
F3To search for a file or folder.
F4To close the active window with the Alt key
F5To refresh or reload the current page.
F6To move the cursor to the address bar in most web browsers.
F7To spell-check and grammar check
F8To access the boot menu in Windows
F9Refresh a document in MS word
F10Activate the menu bar of the application
F11Enter and exit full screen in web browsers
F12Open the Save as dialog box in MS word
172

The box where we can type the URL in the browser is called ____

  1. ((a))

    Status bar

  2. ((b))

    Text bar

  3. ((c))

    Address bar

  4. ((d))

    Scroll bar

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Address bar

The correct answer is the Address bar.

  • Address bar:-
  • In a web browser, the address bar (also location bar or URL bar) is a graphical control element that shows the current URL.
  • The user can type a URL into the bar to navigate to a chosen website.

Key Points

  • An address bar is a component of an Internet browser which is used to input and show the address of a website.
  • The address bar helps the user in navigation by allowing entry of an Internet Protocol address or the uniform resource locator of a website.
  • It can also save previously used addresses for future reference.
  • Most Internet browsers provide the shortcut Ctrl+L to navigate to the address bar with the help of the keyboard, thus eliminating the need for a mouse.
173

Which is the shortcut key to find and replace action in MS-Word?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + H

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + R

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + D

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + A

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl + V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + H

The correct answer is CTRL + H.

Key Points

  • CTRL + H shortcut opens the FIND and REPLACE (or REPLACE) dialogue box in MS Word

Additional Information

Open a document.Ctrl+O
Create a new document.Ctrl+N
Save the document.Ctrl+S
Close the document.Ctrl+W
Cut the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+X
Copy the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+C
Paste the contents of the Clipboard.Ctrl+V
Select all document content.Ctrl+A
Apply bold formatting to the text.Ctrl+B
Apply italic formatting to text.Ctrl+I
Apply underline formatting to text.Ctrl+U
Decrease the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+[
Increase the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+]
Center the text.Ctrl+E
Align the text to the left.Ctrl+L
Align the text to the right.Ctrl+R
Cancel a command.Esc
Undo the previous action.Ctrl+Z
Redo the previous action, if possible.Ctrl+Y
Adjust the zoom magnification.Alt+W, Q, then tab in Zoom dialogue box to the value you want.
Split the document window.Ctrl+Alt+S
Remove the document window split.Alt+Shift+C or Ctrl+Alt+S

Source:- https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/topic/keyboard-shortcuts-in-word-95ef89dd-7142-4b50-afb2-f762f663ceb2

174

Which of the following is not the stage of a cyber attack?

  1. ((a))

    Survey

  2. ((b))

    Delivery

  3. ((c))

    Breach

  4. ((d))

    Protect

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Protect

A number of attack models the stages of a cyber attack. There are four main stages in most of cyber attacks.

  1. Survey: Investing and analyzing available information about the target in order to identify potential vulnerabilities
  2. Delivery: Getting to the point in a system where a vulnerability can be exploited.
  3. Breach: Exploiting the vulnerability to gain some form of unauthorized access.
  4. Attack: Carrying out activities within a system that achieve the attacker’s goal.
175

Match List I with List II 

List I (Internet Related Terms)List- II (Context)
AService of InternetI.Microsoft Edge
B.Web BrowserII.Microsoft Outlook
C.E-mail Client SoftwareIII.Microsoft Bing
D.Web Search EngineIV.World Wide Web
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

  2. ((b))

    A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

  4. ((d))

    A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

  5. ((e))

    A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

The correct match is Option 3) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III.

Key Points

List I (Internet Related Terms)Detailed Context
Service of Internet- Service of Internet refers to various online offerings available on the internet, such as web services, cloud computing, and online platforms. - These services may include data storage, software applications, and more.
Web Browser- Web Browser is a software application that allows users to access and view websites on the World Wide Web. - It translates HTML code and other web content into visual pages that users can interact with. - It's the primary tool for navigating the internet.
E-mail Client Software- E-mail Client Software refers to applications like Microsoft Outlook that enable users to send, receive, and manage email messages. - It provides features such as organizing emails, scheduling appointments, and managing contacts.
Web Search Engine- Web Search Engine is a platform like Microsoft Bing that allows users to search for information on the internet. - It indexes web pages and provides users with relevant results based on their search queries.
176

Which of the following is used with the intention of extorting money from its owner?

  1. ((a))

    Ransomware

  2. ((b))

    Malware

  3. ((c))

    Spyware

  4. ((d))

    Adware

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ransomware

The correct option is 1 i.e., Ransomware. 

Key Points

  • Ransomware is used with the intention of extorting money.
  • Ransomware is a type of malware program that infects and takes control of a system.

Additional Information 

  • Spyware is unwanted software that infiltrates your computing device, stealing your internet usage data and

sensitive information.

  • Adware, or advertising-supported software, is software that generates revenue for its developer by automatically

generating online advertisements.

  • Malware stands for malicious software.
  • Malware is any software used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain access to private computer systems.
177

Times New Roman" is a type of_____.

  1. ((a))

    Font Size

  2. ((b))

    Font Face

  3. ((c))

    Font Style

  4. ((d))

    Font Family​

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Font Face

The correct answer is "Font Face".

 

  • Font face and font style are two different aspects of typography in a text document.
  • Font face refers to the specific typeface used for the text.
  • It represents the design, appearance, and shape of the characters within a font family. Examples of font faces include Arial, Times New Roman, Calibri, Verdana, etc.
  • Font style, on the other hand, refers to the variations of the font face that convey different attributes, such as weight, width, or angle. Common font styles include Regular, Italic, Bold, and Bold Italic.
  • A combination of these styles may also be used, such as Semibold Italic.

 

In summary:

Font face is the design and appearance of textual characters, like Arial or Times New Roman.

Font style represents variations or attributes of a font face, such as Bold, Italic, or Regular.

Key Points 

  • Times New Roman was designed in 1932.
  • It is an exceptional text typeface that has been used to set books, periodicals, annual reports, brochures – and even newspapers.
  • In addition, Times New Roman can be used to set display typography from an inch high to several feet.
  • The family is also large enough to make typographic hierarchy is easy to create.
178

What best describes how an inkjet printer prints an image?

  1. ((a))

    One dot at a time to form a character

  2. ((b))

    Spray - printing a character

  3. ((c))

    Striking an inked ribbon

  4. ((d))

    Dropping ink onto the paper

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Spray - printing a character

The correct Spray - printing a character.

Key PointsInkjet printer:

  • Inkjet printers each feature a print head containing thousands of tiny holes.
  • These tiny openings drop microscopic droplets of ink onto the paper in the printer at a speed.
  • Inkjet machines use a liquid ink produced either by either a coloured dye or a liquid that contains solid pigments in suspension.
  • As the print head moves horizontally in the machine, the paper passes through perpendicular to it.
  • As the page passes through, the individual holes in the print head are activated (usually by heat electrical current depending on the manufacturer) and a small drop of ink is pushed out onto the page.
  • This process if performed at high speed with thousands of droplets that form together to recreate the digital text or image that is being transferred onto the media.
  • To the naked eye, the overall image looks to be solid because the dots are so tiny.

sublimation printing process - Full Color Paper Industrial Co.,Limited |  Printer ink cartridges, Inkjet printer, Printer ink

179

What is the shortcut key for the "insert function" dialog box in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Shift + F3

  2. ((b))

    Shift + F1

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Shift + F3

  4. ((d))

    Shift + F5

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl +F3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shift + F3

The correct answer is Shift + F3.

  • When you click the Insert Function button, Excel displays the Insert Function dialog box. You can then use its options to find and select the function that you want to use and to define the argument or arguments that the function requires in order to perform its calculation.
  • The most popular built-in function is by far the SUM function, which is automatically inserted when you click the Sum command button on the Home tab of the Ribbon.
  • Press Shift + F3. Displays the "Insert Function" dialog box allowing you to search for a particular function or display the list of functions by category.

  • The Insert Function dialog box that appears gives you a list of operations that Excel.

180

NAT is the term used to connect two networks together, what does NAT stands for?

  1. ((a))

    Network adapter translator

  2. ((b))

    Network assistant trial

  3. ((c))

    New adapter Translation

  4. ((d))

    Network Address Translation.

  5. ((e))

    None of These

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Network Address Translation.

The correct answer is Network Address Translation.

Key Points

  • NAT stands for Network Address Translation.
  • Network Address Translation (NAT) is designed for IP address conservation.
  • It enables private IP networks that use unregistered IP addresses to connect to the Internet.
  • NAT operates on a router, usually connecting two networks together.
  • NAT allows a single device, such as a router, to act as an agent between the Internet and a local network.
  • It allows only a single unique IP address is required to represent an entire group of computers to anything outside their network.
  • It translates the private addresses in the internal network into legal addresses, before packets are forwarded to another network.
  • As part of this capability, NAT can be configured to advertise only one address for the entire network to the outside world.
  • This provides additional security by effectively hiding the entire internal network behind that address.
  • NAT offers the dual functions of security and address conservation and is typically implemented in remote-access environments.
  • NAT can be used to allow selective access to the outside of the network.
  • NAT is a very important aspect of firewall security
  • It conserves the number of public addresses used within an organization, and it allows for stricter control of access to resources on both sides of the firewall
181

 Which of the following computer components is considered both an input and output device?

  1. ((a))

    Motherboard 

  2. ((b))

    RAM 

  3. ((c))

    Hard Drive

  4. ((d))

    ROM

  5. ((e))

    Control Bus

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hard Drive

The correct answer is Hard Drive

Key Points

A hard drive is considered both an input and output device because it can both read (input) data from its storage medium and write (output) data to it. The other options do not serve this dual function.

  • Motherboard is a central circuit board, not specifically an input/output device.
  • RAM (Random Access Memory) is primarily used for temporary storage and quick access, not traditionally classified as input/output.
  • ROM (Read-Only Memory) typically only allows reading data, not writing.
  • Control Bus is part of the computer’s control unit, helping to coordinate actions, but is not directly used for input or output.
182

How many colors can a single pixel can have?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    One

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

The correct answer is "Three".

Key Points

  • Pixels (In a computer screen and television screen) are formed by a triplet: Red, Green, and Blue.
  • They can be different intensities of these colors in increments of 1 from 0 to 255 (RGB scale), and thus you can get whatever color you want.
  • Every subpixel (Red, Green, and Blue) can have different level of brightness.
  • Usually from 0 to 255 (on computer screen) (8 bit per channel), but many computer screens can show you only 6-bit of color per channel.
  • Good professional (for visual professionals) computer screens can show up to 16bit per channel (but usually only 10 or 12 bits are direct addressable, the full range is used for calibrate these 10 or 12 bits).
  • Mixing such intensities of the three sub-pixels, give you all the possible colours.
183

Which file can’t be send through Email?

  1. ((a))

    png

  2. ((b))

    eml 

  3. ((c))

    jpg

  4. ((d))

    exe 

  5. ((e))

    msg 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

exe 

The correct answer is "exe".

**Key Points1) png File Extension:**​

  • File extension png is commonly used for images in Portable Network Graphics file format.
  • PNG is a bitmap graphics format similar to GIF, that uses image compression mainly for web purposes.

2) eml File extension:

  • The eml file extension is used for Email message.
  • EML, which is an acronym for E-mail, is the file extension of the Outlook Express Saved Mail Messages files.
  • It belongs to the Microsoft's family of e-mail clients and it is used for e-mails saving and forwarding purposes.

3) jpg File extension:

  • The jpg file extension is associated with JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) file format.
  • JPEG is a lossy image compression algorithm that significantly reduces the file size of the original image at the cost of quality.
  • The higher the compression ratio the lower the quality of the .jpg file.

4) exe File Extension:

  • The exe file extension is traditionally used for program executable file since the time of first DOS.
  • There are several versions of this file format, but all serve the same purpose - to start a program.

5) msg File Extension:

  • The msg file extension is commonly used for files that contain complete save of email message from a client.
  • These files are used in various e-mail management programs and clients such as Windows Mail, Pegasus Mails etc.
  • The msg file can either contain only text, or complete saved message with pictures and other elements in HTML format.
  • The msg file extension was also used in old program for DOS called OzWin for e-mail message.
184

Which shortcut key is used in MS Excel to "Open the "Find and Replace" Window"?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + F5

  2. ((b))

    Shift + F5

  3. ((c))

    F6

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + F7

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl + 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Shift + F5

The correct answer is Shift + F5.

Key Points

  • Shift + F5 shortcut key is used in MS Excel to "Open the "Find and Replace" Window".​
  • Microsoft's spreadsheet program Excel is a part of the Office family of products used for business purposes.
  • The four main forms of Excel values are referred to as data types.
  • Text, number, logical, and error are the four different forms of data.

Additional Information

Shortcut KeyFeature
Ctrl + F5restores the open Excel workbook's window to its maximum size.
F6If you have a split window, switch between the panes of an Excel spreadsheet. if not, alternates between the program window and the help task pane.
Ctrl + F7Moves the excel window. Workbook must be open in a restored window for this to operate.
185

Which of the following is the standard means by which elections are conducted in India?

  1. ((a))

    Blockchain

  2. ((b))

    Email

  3. ((c))

    Ballot paper

  4. ((d))

    Electronic Voting Machine

  5. ((e))

    Voting Machine

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Electronic Voting Machine

The correct answer is Electronic Voting Machine.

Key Points

  • In India, the use of electronic voting machines (EVMs) is the norm for conducting elections.
  • The government-owned Electronics Corporation of India and Bharat Electronics designed and tested the technology in the 1990s.
  • They were gradually incorporated into Indian elections between 1998 and 2001.
  • India used paper ballots and human counting before the introduction of electronic voting.

Additional Information

  • Blockchain:
  • Blockchain is a decentralized, immutable database that makes it easier to track assets and record transactions in a corporate network.
  • An asset may be tangible (such as a home, car, money, or land) or intangible (intellectual property, patents, copyrights, branding).
  • Email:
  • Email is often known as electronic mail.
  • It is a form of digital communication that sends messages via electronic devices.
  • Ballot paper:
  • A ballot paper is a piece of paper that lists all of the candidates running for office, together with their party names and logos.
  • The ballot was previously utilized.
186

Match the computer utilities in the left column with their examples listed in the right column:

A. Operating systemi. Command Line
B. Search Engineii. Fedora
C. Console applicationiii. Chromium
D. Web Browseriv. Baidu
  1. ((a))

    A - iv, B - ii, C -  i,  D -  iii

  2. ((b))

    A -  ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

  3. ((c))

    A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii

  4. ((d))

    A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii

  5. ((e))

    Not Attempted

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A -  ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

The correct answer is A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii.

Key Points

  • Operating System or OS in a computer manages all of the software and hardware and performs tasks like input-output handling, process management and multitasking as well.
  • It provides security, memory management, device management etc.
  • There are various OS like Windows, Linux, macOS etc. Ubuntu, Fedora, Kali Linux, and ParrotOS are examples of Linux OS.
  • The applications in the computer are classified into different types such as system software, application software and console software.
  • Command Line Interface or CLI is a console application used to run programs, used by programmers, and administrators for fetching faster results etc.

Additional Information

  • A Search engine is a software that retrieves the information or any resource requested by the user and shows it on the browser over the internet.
  • There are many search engines like Google, Bing, Yahoo, Baidu etc.
  • A Web browser is an application that acts as an interface between the user and the internet. It displays all the resources the user had requested on a device.
  • Examples of web browsers are Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, Microsoft Edge, Safari etc. Hence option 2 is correct.
187

Which of the following is an open source operating system?

  1. ((a))

    MS-DOS

  2. ((b))

    iOS 

  3. ((c))

    Linux

  4. ((d))

    Windows

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Linux

The correct answer is Linux.

Key Points Linux:

  • One of the most successful open-source products is the Linux operating system, an open-source Unix-like operating system, and its derivative Android, an operating system for mobile devices.
  • In some industries, open-source software is the norm.

Additional Information

  • MS-DOS- DOS is a CUI type of Operating System. DOS is a single-tasking, single-user operating system with a command-line interface.
  • iOS- Apple iOS is the operating system for iPhone, iPad, and other Apple mobile devices. Apple iOS is designed for easy, seamless networking between a range of Apple products.
  • Windows- The Windows operating system (Windows OS) for desktop PCs is more formally called Microsoft Windows and is actually a family of operating systems for personal computers. Windows has traditionally dominated the personal computer world, running, by some estimates, more than 75 percent of all personal computers.

Hence, Linux is an open-source operating system.

188

Which component is a communication system that transfers data between components inside a computer, or between computers?

  1. ((a))

    Librem

  2. ((b))

    X2 transceiver

  3. ((c))

    Bus

  4. ((d))

    GPU

  5. ((e))

    Motherboard

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bus

In computer architecture, a bus is a communication system that transfers data between components inside a computer, or between computers. This expression covers all related hardware components (wire, optical fiber, etc.) and software, including communication protocols. Early computer buses were parallel electrical wires with multiple connections, but the term is now used for any physical arrangement that provides the same logical function as a parallel electrical bus. Modern computer buses can use both parallel and bit serial connections, and can be wired in either a multidrop (electrical parallel) or daisy chain topology, or connected by switched hubs, as in the case of USB.

189

Select the odd one out from the following options.

  1. ((a))

    EPROM

  2. ((b))

    DRAM

  3. ((c))

    SRAM

  4. ((d))

    Magnetic Tape

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Magnetic Tape

The correct option is (4)

Magnetic Tape

Concept:-

EPROM, DRAM, and SRAM are all types of computer memory, while Magnetic Tape is a storage medium that was commonly used for data backup and archival purposes before the advent of modern storage devices like hard drives and solid-state drives.

Key Points

  • Speech and music are recorded on magnetic audio tape, and analog voice and video signals can be directly and simultaneously recorded on magnetic videotape at a low cost.
  • A long, narrow strip of plastic film is covered in a thin, magnetizable coating to create magnetic tape, a medium for magnetic storage. It was created in Germany in 1928 using magnetic wire recording as a foundation.
  • SRAM, which stands for Static Random Access Memory, is a type of computer memory that needs an ongoing supply of power to function.
  • DRAM, which stands for dynamic random access memory, is one of the memory modules that are most frequently found in PC-compatible desktop computers and workstations.
  • EPROM stands for Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory. It is a type of non-volatile memory that can be programmed and erased multiple times. EPROMs are used in many electronic devices such as computers, consumer electronics, and automotive systems.
190

Which of the following is a multiport repeater?

  1. ((a))

    bridge

  2. ((b))

    switch

  3. ((c))

    router

  4. ((d))

    hub

  5. ((e))

    repeater

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

hub

  • A hub, in the context of networking, is a hardware device that relays communication data.
  • A hub sends data packets (frames) to all devices on a network, regardless of any MAC addresses contained in the data packet.
  • A hub is basically a multiport repeater.
  • It connects multiple wires coming from different branches.
  • Hubs cannot filter data it's just sending it to devices.
  • It has several ethernet pots that connect two or more devices together.
  • It connects multiple devices together.
  • There are three types of HUB:
  • Active Hub
  • Passive Hub
  • Intelligent Hub

Additional Information

  • | Network Hardware Device | Description | Images | | --- | --- | --- | | Hub | - Hub is basically a multiport Repeater. - It connects multiple wires coming from different branches. - Hubs cannot filter data it's just sending it to devices. - It has several ethernet pots that connect two or more devices together. - It connects multiple devices together. - There are three types of HUB: - Active Hub - Passive Hub - Intelligent Hub | Star Topology Network Definition | | Switch | - A switch is a multiport bridge. - A switch is a data link layer device. - The switch can perform error checking before forwarding data. - it does not forward packets that have errors and forward good packets selectively. | Selecting a Router or Switch for a Home Network - dummies | | Bridge | - A bridge operates at the data link layer of the OSI model. - A bridge is a repeater, which filters the content. - The bridge is mostly used as a filter by reading the MAC addresses of source and destination. - It is also used for interconnecting two LANs working on the same protocol. | Computer Network Devices Bridge - Bridge In Networking Devices, HD Png  Download , Transparent Png Image - PNGitem |
191

Which of the following are true statements?

I: Primary storage units have faster access time and less storage capacity as compared to the secondary storage units.

II: Primary storage units have random access.

III: Secondary storage units are non-volatile storage.

  1. ((a))

    I and II only

  2. ((b))

    I and III only

  3. ((c))

    II and III only

  4. ((d))

    only II

  5. ((e))

    All I, II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All I, II and III

The correct answer is  All I, II and III.

Key Points

  • Primary storage units have faster access time and less storage capacity as compared to secondary storage units.
  • Primary storage is faster and more expensive than secondary storage.
  • It is small in size, lightweight, but at the same time quite expensive.
  • Primary storage units have random access.
  • This is in contrast to random access memory (RAM) where data can be accessed in any order.
  • Secondary storage units are non-volatile storage.
  • Secondary storage is non-volatile, long-term storage.
  • Without secondary storage, all programs and data will be lost as soon as the computer is turned off.
  • There are three main types of secondary storage in computer systems: solid-state storage devices, such as USB memory sticks.
192

How many function keys are present on a standard PC keyboard?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    15

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

  • Function Keys are keys on the keyboard which cause the operating system to command an interpreter or an application to perform certain actions on the screen.
  • There are 12 keys on the keyboard from F1 to F12.

Additional Information

  • The function keys or F keys are lined across the top of the keyboard and labeled F1 through F12.
  • These keys act as shortcuts, performing certain functions, like saving files, printing data, or refreshing a page.
  • For example, the F1 key is often used as the default help key in many programs.
193

What is the full form of GPU?

  1. ((a))

    Gross processing unit

  2. ((b))

    Graphics Processing Unit

  3. ((c))

    Graphics Progress Unit

  4. ((d))

    Graphics Pictures User

  5. ((e))

    Graphical Progress Unit

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Graphics Processing Unit

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Graphics Processing Unit.

Key Points

  • GPU computing is the use of a GPU (graphics processing unit) as a co-processor to accelerate CPUs for general-purpose scientific and engineering computing.
  • The GPU accelerates applications running on the CPU by offloading some of the compute-intensive and time-consuming portions of the code.
  • A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a computer chip that performs rapid mathematical calculations, primarily for the purpose of rendering images. This includes both 2D and 3D calculations, though GPUs primarily excel at rendering 3D graphics.
  • Early PCs did not include GPUs, which meant the CPU had to handle all standard calculations and graphics operations.
  • On August 31, 1999, NVIDIA introduced the first commercially available GPU for a desktop computer, called the GeForce 256.
  • It could process 10 million polygons per second, allowing it to offload a significant amount of graphics processing from the CPU.
  • The primary purpose of a GPU is to render 3D graphics, which consists of polygons since most polygonal transformations involve decimal numbers.
194

Which device supplies Power to various system components of the computer, such as the motherboard and device drivers?

  1. ((a))

    Router

  2. ((b))

    Hub

  3. ((c))

    SMTP

  4. ((d))

    SMPS

  5. ((e))

    Switch

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

SMPS

The correct answer is "SMPS".

Key Points1) Router:

  • A router is a device that connects two or more packet-switched networks or subnetworks.

2) Hub:

  • A hub is a common connection point, also known as a network hub, which is used for connection of devices in a network.

3) SMTP

  • SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is an application layer protocol and used to send emails over the internet. SMTP is a state-full protocol.

4) SMPS:

  • SMPS (Switched-mode power supply) converts High voltage AC to low voltage DC.
  • SMPS supplies Power to various system components of the computer, such as the motherboard and device drivers.
  • The main parts of SMPS are Power Connectors, and Power Supply Power connectors provide DC voltage to all system components, and Power Supply Fan is used to keep SMPS fresh.

5) Switch:

  • A network switch connects devices (such as computers, printers, wireless access points) in a network to each other, and allows them to 'talk' by exchanging data packets.
  • Switches can be hardware devices that manage physical networks, as well as software-based virtual devices.
195

Gridlines and formula bar which tab in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Home Tab

  2. ((b))

    Insert Tab

  3. ((c))

    Data Tab

  4. ((d))

    Page Layout

  5. ((e))

    View Tab

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

View Tab

The correct answer is View Tab

Key PointsIn Microsoft Excel, the "Gridlines" option can be found under the "View" tab. For the formula bar, you'll also find it by navigating to the "View" tab.

Here's how you can find them:

  • For Gridlines: Click on the "View" tab ➔ In the "Show" group of commands, you will find the "Gridlines" check box. When this box is checked, you will see gridlines in your worksheet.
  • For Formula Bar: Click on the "View" tab ➔ In the "Show" group of commands, you will find the "Formula Bar" checkbox. You can check or uncheck this box to show or hide the formula bar.

196

Which of the following is NOT antivirus software?

  1. ((a))

    Norton

  2. ((b))

    McAfee

  3. ((c))

    Burn

  4. ((d))

    Kaspersky

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Burn

The correct answer is Burn.

  • McAfee Corp. is a San Jose, California-based global computer security software corporation.
  • Norton AntiVirus is an anti-virus or anti-malware software product, developed and distributed by NortonLifeLock
  • Kaspersky Lab is a Russian multinational cybersecurity and anti-virus provider headquartered in Moscow, Russia.
  • Burn: As of my last training cut-off in 2021, Burn does not represent a known antivirus software. It is, however, common term used in disc burning software programs, utilities designed to create CDs, DVDs, or even Blu-ray discs from data files on your computer.

 Additional Information

  • Avast Antivirus is a cross-platform internet security suite created by Avast for Microsoft Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS.
  • Avira Operations GmbH & Co. KG is a German multinational computer security software firm best known for its Avira Free Security antivirus software.
197

If I press Alt + Tab in Microsoft Windows, what will it do?

  1. ((a))

    Displays the properties of the object

  2. ((b))

    Immediately brings up the Windows Task Manager

  3. ((c))

    Drops down the window control menu for the currently open Windows program

  4. ((d))

    Switches between program groups, tabs, or document

  5. ((e))

    Switches between open applications

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Switches between open applications

The correct answer is Switches between open applications

Key Points

  • Alt+Tab is a shortcut key most often used to switch between open programs in Microsoft Windows (older versions) and other operating systems.
  • To use the keyboard shortcut Alt+Tab, press and hold either Alt key on the keyboard and while continuing to hold, press the Tab key with either hand.

[

](altplustab)

  • On Windows 10, when you use the "Alt + Tab" keyboard shortcut, you'll open the task switcher, which is an experience that allows you to view and switch back and forth between the two most recent applications or any other running task, by pressing and holding the "Alt" key and using the "Tab" key to cycle through.

198

What is the short cut key to undo the last operation performed on the document?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl+C

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl+Z

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl+V

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl+A 

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl + B

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl+Z

The correct answer is Ctrl+Z.

Key Points

  • To undo an action press Ctrl+Z. If you prefer your mouse, click Undo on the Quick Access Toolbar.
  • we can press Undo (or CTRL+Z) repeatedly if you want to undo multiple steps.

199

The interrupt which cannot be delayed and require the processor to process them immediately is _____

  1. ((a))

    Maskable interrupts.

  2. ((b))

    Non-Maskable interrupts

  3. ((c))

    software interrupts

  4. ((d))

    Periodic interrupts

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Non-Maskable interrupts

Non-Maskable interrupts.

An interrupt that cannot be ignored or disabled by the instructions of the CPU is called as Non-Maskable interrupts

It requires the processor to process them immediately.

Example: Trap of 8085

Maskable interrupt:

The hardware interrupts which can be delayed when a much high priority interrupt has occurred at the same time is called a maskable interrupt.

200

Which of the following is not a secondary storage device of a computer system?

  1. ((a))

    Compact disc

  2. ((b))

    Pen drive

  3. ((c))

    Flash drive

  4. ((d))

    DRAM

  5. ((e))

    HDD

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

DRAM

The correct answer is DRAM

Key Points

  • DRAM:
  • Dynamic random access memory (DRAM) is a type of semiconductor memory that is typically used for the data or program code needed by a computer processor to function.
  • DRAM is a common type of random access memory (RAM) used in personal computers (PCs), workstations, and servers.
  • It is an example of primary storage. device.

Additional Information

  • Secondary storage device:
  • A secondary storage device refers to any non-volatile storage device that is internal or external to the computer. It can be any storage device beyond the primary storage that enables permanent data storage.
  • A secondary storage device is also known as an auxiliary storage device, backup storage device, tier 2 storage, or external storage.
  • Hard Disks, CDs, DVDs, Pen/Flash drives, SSD, etc, are examples of secondary storage.

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