Official Paper

Rajasthan Police SI 2016 Official Paper 2 (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

Arrange the following rulers of Chouhan dynasty in Chronological order –

(a) Prithviraj - I

(b) Ajayraj

(c) Arnoraj

(d) Vigrahraj – IV

  1. ((a))

    b, c, a, d

  2. ((b))

    a, c, b, d

  3. ((c))

    a, d, b, c

  4. ((d))

    a, b, c, d

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a, b, c, d

The correct answer is a, b, c, d.

Key Points

  • Chouhan dynasty in Chronological order –
  • Prithvi-raja I (1090-1110 CE)
  • Ajaya-raja II (1110-1135 CE)
  • Moved the capital to Ajayameru (Ajmer)
  • Repulsed a Ghaznavid attack, and also defeated the Paramara king Naravarman
  • Arno-raja (1135-1150 CE), alias Ana
  • Defeated Turkish invaders
  • Constructed Anasagar Lake
  • Vigraha-raja IV (1150-1164 CE), alias Visaladeva
  • Expanded the Chauhan territories, and captured Delhi from the Tomaras
  • Hence the correct answer is a, b, c, d.

Additional Information 

  • The Chauhan Dynasty:
  • The word Chauhan is the vernacular form of the Sanskrit term Chahamana.
  • While the earlier versions of Chandbardai’s work Prithviraj Raso does not mention Chauhan as born from Agnikunda, the later versions do.
  • The 15th-century Hammira Mahakavya of Nayachandra Suri & Jayanayak’s Prithviraj Vijay considers Chauhans as Suryavanshi. Pandit Gaurishankar Ojha seconds this opinion.
  • Based on Bijloia Inscription, Dr Dasrath Sharma considers that the early ancestor of Chauhan was born at Ahichchhatrapura in the gotra of sage Vatsa. Ahichchhatrapura can be identified with modern Nagaur.
  • Chahamanas probably started out as petty rulers of Ahichchhatrapura. As the Chahamana territory expanded, the entire region ruled by them came to be known as Sapadalaksha.
  • Major Chauhan dynasties include:
  • Chauhans of Shakambhari
  • Chauhans of Ranthambore
  • Chauhans of Jalore
2

Identify the leader, who was not active in Jaipur Praja Mandal –

  1. ((a))

    Ram Karan Joshi

  2. ((b))

    Daulat Mal Bhandari

  3. ((c))

    Prayagraj Bhandari

  4. ((d))

    Devishankar Tiwari

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Prayagraj Bhandari

The correct answer is Prayagraj Bhandari.

Key Points

  • Leaders active in Jaipur Praja Mandal - Ram Karan Joshi, Daulat Mal Bhandari, Devishankar Tiwari.
  • Durgashankar (President) & Prayagraj Bhandari (Minister) Founder of Marwar Sewa Sangh.

Important Points

  • Jaipur Prajamandal
  • In 1931 founded by Arjunlal Sethi & Kapur Chand Patni.
  • Founded again by Jamnalal Bajaj & Hiralal Shastri in 1938.
  • General Secretary - Chiranjilal Mishra
  • Chairman - Hiralal Shastri
  • President - Jamnalal Bajaj
  • Other Leaders- Ram Karan Joshi, Daulat Mal Bhandari, Devishankar Tiwari.

Additional Information 

  • Arjun Lal started the political movement in Jaipur.
  • Later this work by Sethi was converted into a creative work by Seth Jamunalal Bajaj.
  • Influenced by the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921, service committees were established in the state Charkha Sangha was established by Jamnalal Bajaj in 1927.
  • After Congress's Haripura proposal, Jamnalal Bajaj Lal Bajaj 1936-37 Jaipur State Prajamandal was reorganized with the active support of Prerna and Hiralal Shastri. The primary objective of this Praja Mandal was to establish accountability governance.
  • Initially, Jaipur Advocate Shri Chiranjilal Mishra was made the President of Praja Mandal, Mr Hiralal Shastri was made the General Secretary and Mr. Kapoorchand Patni was made the Joint Minister Baba Harishchandra, Ram Karan Joshi, Daulat Mal Bhandari, Devishankar Tiwari the other key member of the Praja Mandal.
3

On the basis of maladministration, Dalhousie annexed, which of the following states in British empire?

  1. ((a))

    Satara

  2. ((b))

    Jhansi

  3. ((c))

    Awadh

  4. ((d))

    Nagpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Awadh

The correct answer is Awadh.

On the basis of maladministration, Dalhousie annexed, Awadh.

Additional Information

Lord Dalhousie followed the two-fold measure of ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ and ‘annexation on the grounds of maladministration’ in order to reinforce the process of British political expansion in India:

The doctrine of Lapse:

  • The Doctrine of Lapse dictated that if a ruler died without a natural male heir, then the ruler’s kingdom would pass or ‘lapse’ to the British authorities. Curiously, the Doctrine held that the dependant states did not have the rights of adoption in this regard.
  • The doctrine was applied in the case of several important states such as Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara.
  • Under the pretext of this policy, the rulers of these states were pensioned off and their kingdom was annexed to the British empire.

This caused a lot of disenchantment in the Indian ruling class.

Annexation on the Grounds of Maladministration:

  • Awadh was one of the first states to become a part of the Subsidiary Alliance system and had stayed true to its commitment to its terms and conditions.
  • Although the Nawab of Awadh, Wajid Ali Shah, was an inefficient ruler, the maladministration in Awadh was as much a result of the Subsidiary system as it was of the incompetency of the Nawab.
  • Despite this, Dalhousie annexed Awadh under the pretext of misgovernment in 1856.
  • This played a major role in the subsequent rebellion of 1857.
4

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Thewa Art - Pratapgarh

  2. ((b))

    Minakari - Jaipur

  3. ((c))

    Ajarak Print - Sanganer

  4. ((d))

    Terracotta Art - Molela

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ajarak Print - Sanganer

Ajarak Print - Sanganer is NOT correctly matched.

Key Points

The table below is correctly matched:

ArtPlace
Thewa ArtPratapgarh
MinakariJaipur
Ajarak PrintBarmer
Terracotta ArtMolela

Additional Information 

  • Minakari is the process of painting and colouring the surfaces of metals and ceramic tiles through enamelling.
  • It is practised as an art form and commercially produced mainly in Iran, Pakistan and India (Jaipur is famous for its Minakari art).
  • Minakari art usually involves intricate designs (mainly using geometric shapes and designs) and is applied as a decorative feature to serving dishes, containers, vases, frames, display ornaments and jewellery.
  • Ajrak is a name given to a unique form of block printed shawls and tiles found in Sindh, Pakistan; Kutch, Gujarat; and Barmer, Rajasthan in India.
  • Ajrak craft products are made with natural dyes.
  • Thewa is a special art of jewellery making that involves fusing intricately worked-out sheet gold on molten glass.
  • It evolved in the Pratapgarh district, Rajasthan India.
  • Its origin dates back to the Mughal age.
  • Terracotta ("baked earth") is most commonly used to describe a type of sculpture, unglazed ceramic art, or decorative architecture, made from a coarse, porous clay, which is noted for its versatility, cheapness and durability.
5

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists – 

List – I (Author)List – II (Book)
A. Karni Dani.  Marwar-ra-Pargana-ri-Vigat
B. Shyamal Dasii.  Suraj Prakash
C. Muhnot Nainsiiii.  Vansh Bhaskara
D.Suryamalla Mishraniv. Vir Vinod
  1. ((a))

    A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

  2. ((b))

    A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)

  3. ((c))

    A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)

  4. ((d))

    A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

The correct answer is A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii).

Key Points

The table below is correctly matched:

List – I (Author)List-II (Book)
Karni DanSuraj Prakash
Shyamal DasVir Vinod
Muhnot NainsiMarwar-ra-Pargana-ri-Vigat
Suryamalla MishranVansh Bhaskara

Additional Information

  • Lifestyle & Valor of the Rajput era  
  • Badar Dhaadhi – wrote Veer Bhayan
  • Chandbardayi – wrote Prithviraj Raso
  • Nainsi wrote – Nainsiri Khyat
  • Baankidas – Baankidas ri Khyat
  • Dayaldas – Dayaldas ri Khyat
6

Which of the following temple is not of Gurjar-Pratihar style of architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Someshwar Temple of Kiradu

  2. ((b))

    Sun temple of Osian

  3. ((c))

    Dadhimati Mata temple of Goth Manglod

  4. ((d))

    Shiv temple of Charchoma

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Shiv temple of Charchoma

Shiv temple of Charchoma is NOT correct.

Key Points

  • Shiv temple of Charchoma temple is not of Gurjar-Pratihar style of architecture.
  • Durra temple in Kota and Shiva temple in Charchoma are the example of Gupta architecture in Rajasthan.

Additional Information

  • There are notable examples of architecture from the Gurjara-Pratihara era, including sculptures and carved panels.
  • Their temples, constructed in an open pavilion-style.
  • One of the most notable Gurjara-Pratihara styles of architecture was Khajuraho, built by their vassals, the Chandelas of Bundelkhand.
  • The stone Nataraj/Natesha murti, in “chatura pose with jatamakuta and trinetra” and almost four-feet-tall, is a rare depiction of Lord Shiva in the Prathihara style.
  • It is a rare sandstone idol. It is originally from the Ghateswara Temple at Baroli, Rajasthan.
7

The dance form, which is not related to the Garasia tribe is _________.

  1. ((a))

    Walar

  2. ((b))

    Mandal

  3. ((c))

    Gavri

  4. ((d))

    Loor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gavri

The correct answer is Gavri.

Key Points

  • The dance form not related to the Garasia tribe is Gavri**.**

Additional Information

  • Walar - This dance is less well-known and often not directly associated with the Garasia.
  • However, it is important to clarify the specific regional variations and tribal connections as they may vary.
  • Mandal - This dance is indeed associated with the Garasia tribe.
  • It's part of their traditional performances, especially during various festivals and community gatherings.
  • Gavri - Gavri is a traditional dance-drama of the Bhil community, which includes the Garasia tribe (a subgroup of the Bhils).
  • This is a highly energetic and dramatic form of dance that involves storytelling, usually performed during the Gavri festival lasting about a month.
8

Which of the following is not a sub-dialect of Dhundhari?

  1. ((a))

    Toravati

  2. ((b))

    Rajavati

  3. ((c))

    Nagarchol

  4. ((d))

    Rathi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rathi

The correct answer is Rathi.

  • Rathi is not a sub-dialect of Dhundhari.

Additional Information

  • Dhundhari Dialect:
  • The second most spoken dialect of Rajasthan.
  • Region: Dhundhar - Jaipur, Tonk, Kishangarh.
  • Sub-dialect: Toravati, Rajavati,Nagarchol.
  • Ahirwati:
  • The dialect of junction area of Bangru(Haryanavi) & Mewati.
  • Region: Behror, Kothputli
  • Historically called as Rath or Rathi dialect.
9

The company officer, who was assassinated in Kota during the Revolution of 1857 –

  1. ((a))

    Colonel Abbott

  2. ((b))

    Captain Shawers

  3. ((c))

    Major Burton

  4. ((d))

    Captain Monk Mason

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Major Burton

The correct answer is Major Burton.

  • Major Burton was assassinated in Kota during the Revolution of 1857.

Additional Information 

  • Revolt at Kota:
  • On 15 October 1857, a rebellion started in Kota under the leadership of Jaidayal, Mehrab Khan and Hardayal.
  • The rebels killed Major Burton, his two sons and Doctor Sadler, and Major Burton was beheaded and marched all over the city.
  • They killed resident Major Burton, his two sons and a doctor on 15th October 1857.
  • On 3 March 1858, the British forces under General Roberts crushed the rebellion at Kota.
  • Mehrab Khan & Jaidayal Kayasth were hanged after this revolt.
10

Swarna Nagari hall is a part of which Jain temple?

  1. ((a))

    Nasiyan temple, Ajmer

  2. ((b))

    Ranakpur temple, Ranakpur

  3. ((c))

    Dilwara temple, Abu

  4. ((d))

    Nakoda temple, Barmer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nasiyan temple, Ajmer

The correct answer is Nasiyan temple, Ajmer.

  • Swarna Nagari hall is a part of Nasiyan temple, Ajmer Jain temple.

Additional Information 

  • Soni ji ki Nasiyan, Ajmer:
  • Soniji ki Nasiyan is a Jain Temple located in Ajmer and is a wonderful example of ornate architecture, dedicated to Risabhadev or Adinath.
  • Its entrance is made of red stone and the marble staircase inside is engraved with images of the holy Tirthankars – omniscient teachers of Jain faith who taught righteousness.
  • The temple was constructed in the late 19th century.
  • Its main chamber, Swarna Nagari (City of Gold), is aptly named so because of the several gold-plated wooden figures it houses within its walls.
  • This famous architectural marvel is also mentioned in Kurt Titze's book, ‘Jainism: A Pictorial Guide to the Religion of Non-Violence.’
11

Match the following - 

CalendarStarting in Year
A. Saka EraI. 622 A. D.
B. Vikram EraII. 319 A. D.
C. Hijri EraIII. 57 B. C.
D. Gupta EraIV. 78 A. D.
  1. ((a))

    (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

  2. ((b))

    (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

  3. ((c))

    (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

  4. ((d))

    (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

The correct answer is (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II).

Key Points

The table below is correctly matched:

CalendarStarting in Year
Saka Era78 A. D.
Vikram Era57 B. C.
Hijri Era622 A. D.
Gupta Era319 A. D.

Additional Information

  • The Shaka era or Shalivahana Śaka is a historical calendar era, the epoch of which corresponds to Julian year 78.
  • It is commonly known in Indian languages as Shalivahana Śaka used in traditional calendars.
  • National Calendar of India – Saka Calendar.
  • Vikram Samvat or Bikram Sambat and also known as the Vikrami calendar is the historical Hindu calendar used in the Indian subcontinent.
  • In India, it is used in several states. The traditional Vikram Samvat calendar, as used in India, uses lunar months and solar sidereal years.
  • Vikramaditya invaded Ujjain and drove away from the Sakas.
  • To commemorate this event, he started a new era called the "Vikrama era", calendar started around 58–56 BCE,
  • The Hijri year or era is the era used in the Islamic lunar calendar, which begins its count from the Islamic New Year in 622 CE.
  • During that year, Muhammad and his followers migrated from Mecca to Yathrib.
  • The Gupta Empire was an ancient Indian empire existing from the mid-to-late 3rd century CE to 543 CE.
  • At its zenith, from approximately 319 to 467 CE, it covered much of the Indian subcontinent.
  • This period is considered the Golden Age of India by historians.
12

The responsibility of “Akshapatalik” in the Early Medieval Kingdoms of Rajasthan was -

  1. ((a))

    to work as Chief Treasurer

  2. ((b))

    to work as Chief Account Officer

  3. ((c))

    to work as Foreign Minister

  4. ((d))

    to work as Prime Minister

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to work as Chief Account Officer

The correct answer is to work as Chief Account Officer.

  • The responsibility of “Akshapatalik” in the Early Medieval Kingdoms of Rajasthan was to work as Chief Account Officer.

Key Points

  • The early medieval period saw the rise of many Rajput kingdoms like Chauhans of Ajmer, Guhilot and Sisodias of Mewar, Shekhawat's of Shekhawati Sikar, Rathores of Marwar. Later the region came under the suzerainty of the Mughal Empire.
  • The Mughals granted high positions to Rajput rulers who allied with them.

Additional Information

  • Early medieval dynasties:
  • Gurjara-Pratiharas of Kannauj
  • Chahamanas (of Shakambhari, Nadol, Ranastambhapura and Jalor)
  • Tomaras of Delhi
  • Chalukyas (Solankis) and Vaghelas of Gujarat
  • Paramaras of Malwa and Chandravati
  • Gahadavalas of Varanasi and Kannauj
  • Chandelas of Jejakabhukti (modern Bundelkhand)
  • Guhilas of Medapata (modern Mewar)
  • Kachchhapaghatas of Gopadri (modern Gwalior)
13

Arrange the following movements in ascending chronological order –

(a) Home Rule Movement

(b) Civil Disobedience Movement

(c) Khilafat Movement

(d) Quit India Movement

  1. ((a))

    c, a, b, d

  2. ((b))

    b, a, c, d

  3. ((c))

    a, b, c, d

  4. ((d))

    a, c, b, d

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a, c, b, d

The correct answer is a, c, b, d.

Key Points

  • Home Rule Movement (1916 AD):
  • Tilak’s Home Rule Movement
  • It started in April 1916 AD at Poona. Tilak’s league was to work in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Central Province and Berar, excluding Bombay.
  • He gave the slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it’.
  • Tilak’s newspapers Maratha and Kesari were the organs for home rule.
  • Annie Basant’s Home Rule Movement
  • Started with Subramaniya Iyer in Adyar in September, worked in the rest of India.
  • Annie Besant’s newspapers New India, Commonwealth and Young India became important for this movement.
  • She coined the term ‘commonwealth’.
  • Khilafat Movement (1920 AD-1922 AD): The Ali Brothers–Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali–launched an anti-British movement in 1920 AD–the movement for the restoration of the Khilafat Movement.
  • Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930 with his Dandi March-Salt Satyagraha.
  • Quit India Movement was launched in 1942.
  • The All India Congress Committee met at Bombay on 8th August 1942 AD.
  • It passed the famous Quit India resolution and proposed the starting of a non-violent mass struggle under Gandhiji’s leadership.
  • It is also called Vardha Proposal and Leaderless Revolt.
  • His message was ‘Do or Die’.
14

Who translated the book ‘Lilawati’ in Persian language in Mughal period?

  1. ((a))

    Abdul Rahim Khan-e-Khana

  2. ((b))

    Abdul Qadir Badauni

  3. ((c))

    Abul Fazl

  4. ((d))

    Abul Faizi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Abul Faizi

The correct answer is Abul Faizi.

  • Abul Faizi translated the book ‘Lilawati’ into the Persian language in the Mughal period.

Key Points

  • Lilawati was written by Bhaskaracharya.
  • It is a treatise of mathematics of Vedic tradition book
  • Abul Faizi translated it into Persian under the supervision of Abul Fazl.

Additional Information

  • Abul Fazal wrote Akbarnama, the appendix of which was called Ain-i-Akbari.
  • Khanzada Mirza Khan Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan was the real name of Rahim.
  • He wrote the book Yeh Rahim Dar Dar Firhin.
  • Abdul Qadir Badauni was given the title of Grand Mufti of India.
  • He wrote Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh or Tareekh-e-Bada'uni.
15

Which was the first Rajput Royal family to have matrimonial alliance with the Mughals?

  1. ((a))

    Chouhan

  2. ((b))

    Rathore

  3. ((c))

    Kachhwahas

  4. ((d))

    Guhilot

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kachhwahas

The correct answer is Kachhwahas.

  • Kachhwahas were the first Rajput Royal family to have a matrimonial alliance with the Mughals.

Key Points

  • There are so many theories on the origin of the Kachhwahas.
  • They claim descent from Kusha, a son of the avatar of Vishnu, Rama, as expressed by them.
  • Another viewpoint is that the Kachhawahas claim descent from Vishnu's turtle avatar.
  • According to Rima Hooja, the Kachhwaha word became popular in the late 16th century during the reign of Raja Man Singh.

Additional Information

  • Kachhwaha established its kingdom in the Dhundhar region of modern Rajasthan in the 11th century.
  • One Kachhwaha King Dulha Rai conquered most of the dhundhar area from Bargurjars.
  • His descendant Raja Pajvan helped Prithviraj Chauhan on his conquest.
  • Kachhwaha King Prithviraj fought along with Rana Sanga at the battle of Khanwa.
16

‘COP’ 23rd annual “Conference of the Parties” (UNFCC) was held at -

  1. ((a))

    Helsinki

  2. ((b))

    Bonn

  3. ((c))

    Paris

  4. ((d))

    Stockholm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bonn

The correct answer is Bonn.

  • ‘COP’ 23rd annual “Conference of the Parties” (UNFCC) was held at Bonn, Germany.

Key Points

  • The ‘COP’ 23rd annual “Conference of the Parties” was presided over by the Government of Fiji. 
  • The conference concluded with countries putting in place a roadmap for ‘Talanoa Dialogue’which is a year-long process to assess countries’ progress on climate actions.
  • It also made progress on framing rules for implementing the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change and brought rich nations on board on their pre-2020 commitments as demanded by developing nations.​

Additional Information

  • COP is the supreme decision-making body of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). ‎
  • All countries that are Parties to UNFCCC are represented at COP.
  • ‎At COP, the parties review the implementation of the Convention and take decisions necessary to promote the effective implementation of the Convention.
  • COP24 was held in Katowice, Poland.
  • COP25 was held in Madrid, Spain.
17

‘BHORAT PLATEAU’ is located -

  1. ((a))

    In the Northwest of Udaipur from Kumbhalgarh to Gonguda

  2. ((b))

    From East Delhi to Jaipur

  3. ((c))

    From Amber to Nahargarh

  4. ((d))

    From Jodhpur to North Ajmer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In the Northwest of Udaipur from Kumbhalgarh to Gonguda

The correct answer is In the Northwest of Udaipur from Kumbhalgarh to Gonguda.

  • ‘BHORAT PLATEAU’ is located in the Northwest of Udaipur from Kumbhalgarh to Gonguda.
  • The largest and highest portion of the Aravalli range lies in between the forts of Kumbhalgarh & Gogunda in the form of plateau generally called Bhorat.
  • The northern western mountain part of the Udaipur is called Maghra.
  • It lies at an average elevation of 1225 m.
  • The height o some peaks are also 1300m.
  • Its steeply sloping and bumpy part in the west is called 'Bhakar' in the local language.

Important Points

  • The southwestern wing of the Bhorat Plateau acts as a water divider between the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
18

The biodiversity hotspot of “Succulent Karoo” is situated in -

  1. ((a))

    Pacific Ocean

  2. ((b))

    Asia

  3. ((c))

    Central America

  4. ((d))

    Africa

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Africa

The correct answer is Africa.

  • The biodiversity hotspot of “Succulent Karoo” is situated in Africa.

Key Points

  • The Succulent Karoo Biodiversity Hotspot has the richest succulent flora on Earth.
  • Reptiles in the region also show relatively high levels of endemism.
  • It has the highest diversity of succulent plants and the most species-rich semi-desert.
  • The Succulent Karoo is one of only two arid zones to have been declared a biodiversity hotspot as 40% of the plant species found here occur nowhere else on the planet.
  • Only 7.8% of the Succulent Karoo is protected.
19

Which of the following groups of districts witnessed lowest female literacy rate as per 2011 census?

  1. ((a))

    Jaisalmer, Sirohi, Jalore, Chittorgarh

  2. ((b))

    Jaisalmer, Sirohi, Banswara, Jalore

  3. ((c))

    Jaisalmer, Sirohi, Jalore, Barmer

  4. ((d))

    Jaisalmer, Sirohi, Barmer, Sawai-Madhopur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jaisalmer, Sirohi, Jalore, Barmer

The correct answer is Jaisalmer, Sirohi, Jalore, Barmer.

The literacy rate in these districts (literacy rate in %):

Name of State / DistrictAllMalesFemales
Jaisalmer57.2272.0439.71
Sirohi55.2569.9839.73
Jalore​54.8670.6738.47
Barmer56.5370.8640.63

Key Points

  • The rural literacy rate of Rajasthan as per Census 2011 was 61.44%.
  • The total number of Literates in the rural area was 26,471,786. Out of which the females were 9,567,197 and males were 16,904,589.
  • The literacy rate of rural males was 76.16 % and that of rural females was 45.8 %.

Additional Information

  • Census:
  • In 1872 AD, the first Census was done in India in the time of Lord Mayo.
  • The first synchronised census in India took place in 1881 in the time of Lord Rippon
  • Since 1901, it has been taking place every decade.
  • Census 2011, is the 15th census and 7th after independence.
  • The slogan of Census 2011 is “Our Census, Our Future”.
  • India was the first country to adopt family planning in the world.
20

Uspallata Pass is situated in between -

  1. ((a))

    Chile and Argentina

  2. ((b))

    Kirthar and Sulaiman

  3. ((c))

    Leh and Khardungla

  4. ((d))

    Lahaul and Spiti

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chile and Argentina

The correct answer is Chile and Argentina.

  • Uspallata Pass is situated between Chile and Argentina.

Key Points

  • The Uspallata Pass is an Andean pass that provides a route between the wine-growing region around the Argentine city of Mendoza, the Chilean city Los Andes and Santiago the Chilean capital situated in the central Chilean valley.
  • This pass is also known as Bermejo Pass or Cumbre Pass.

Additional Information

  • Kirthar and Sulaiman hills are located in Pakistan.
  • Khardung La is the pass connecting to Shyok and Nubra valleys.
  • Kunzum Pass connects Lahaul and Spiti.
  • Lahaul and Spiti are located in Himachal Pradesh
21

The season of Retreating Monsoon in Rajasthan is -

  1. ((a))

    July to August

  2. ((b))

    January to February

  3. ((c))

    October to December

  4. ((d))

    March to June

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

October to December

The correct answer is October to December.

  • The season of Retreating Monsoon in Rajasthan is October to December.

Key Points

  • The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons.
  • By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low-pressure trough of the Ganga plain starts moving southward in response to the southward march of the sun.
  • The monsoon retreats from the western Rajasthan by the first week of September. It then withdraws from Rajasthan, Gujarat, Western Ganga plain and the Central Highlands by the end of the month.
  • The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and a rise in temperature and the land is still moist resulting in the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the October heat.
  • Average Mean Temperature: The temperature is fairly uniform with a maximum ranging from 33-36o C and a minimum ranging from 17-21oC.
22

As per the “State of Forest Report-2017” released by Forest Survey of India, the total area under forest in Rajasthan is -

  1. ((a))

    10.23%

  2. ((b))

    9.57%

  3. ((c))

    9.18%

  4. ((d))

    8.34%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9.57%

The correct answer is 9.57%.

  • As per the “State of Forest Report-2017” released by the Forest Survey of India, the total area under forest in Rajasthan is 9.57%.

Key Points

  • India is placed 8th in the list of Top Ten nations reporting the greatest annual net gain in the forest area.
  • 24.4% of land area under forest and tree cover.
  • According to ISFR 2017:
  • The total forest and tree cover is 24.39 per cent of the geographical area of the country. In this forest cover is 21.54%.
  • The largest forest cover in terms of area is:
  • Madhya Pradesh (77414 sq. km)
  • Arunachal Pradesh (66964 sq. km)
  • Chhattisgarh (55547 sq. km)
  • The top three states/UTs in terms of percentage of forest cover with respect to the total geographical area are:
  • Lakshadweep with (90.33 per cent)
  • Mizoram (86.27 per cent)
  • Andaman & Nicobar Island (81.73 per cent)

Additional Information

  • ISFR:
  • ISFR is a biennial publication of FSI, an organization under, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • ISFR 2017 is the 15th in the series since 1987.
  • It provides state-wise and district (633) wise forest cover.
  • It provides the estimates of
  • Growing stock within and outside the forest areas
  • Special thematic information on forest cover in the hill, tribal and northeastern states
  • Carbon Sink
  • Bamboo
  • Mangrove cover
23

Which coast is not a part of the Western Coast?

  1. ((a))

    Kathiawara Coast

  2. ((b))

    Konkan Coast

  3. ((c))

    Malabar Coast

  4. ((d))

    Coromandel Coast

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Coromandel Coast

The correct answer is the Coromandel Coast.

  • Coromandel Coast is not a part of the Western Coast.

Key Points

  • The West Coastal Plain:
  • It is about 1500 km long from Surat to Cape Comorin.
  • This plain which lies between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats spreads from Gujarat in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.
  • Its northern part from Gujarat to Goa is called Konkan, while the southern part from Goa to Kanyakumari is known as Malabar.
  • Kuchchh Plains: An Island surrounded by sea and lagoons.
  • Kathiawar Plains: It extends from the rann of kuchchh to daman in the south.
  • Gujarat Plains: East to kuchchh and Kathiawar formed by the river Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Sabarmati.
  • Konkan Coast: It extends from Daman to Goa for a distance of about 500 km.
  • Karnataka or Conora Coast: It extends from Goa to Mangalore in a narrow belt.
  • Malabar Coast/Kerala Coast: It extends between Mangalore and Kanyakumari. The back-waters, locally Kayals, are the shallow lagoons.
  • The East Coastal Plain:
  • This broader coastal plain spreads along the Bay of Bengal from Orissa in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.
  • Its northern part is known as the Northern Circar plains and the southern part is called Coromandel Coast.
  • Chilka and Pulicat Lakes are fine examples of lagoons on the east coast.
24

Which of the following iron and steel industry is not governed by Hindustan Steel Limited?

  1. ((a))

    Durgapur

  2. ((b))

    Rourkela

  3. ((c))

    Kulti

  4. ((d))

    Bhilai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kulti

The correct answer is Kulti.

  • Kulti iron and steel industry is not governed by Hindustan Steel Limited.

Key Points

  • Kulti Steel plant is governed by the Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCo).
  • Kulti steel plant is also Asia's oldest steel plant.
  • It was established in 1918 in West Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Durgapur, Rourkela and Bhilai steel plants come under the Hindustan Steel Limited**.**
  • Industries like Steel Plant at Durgapur, Bhilai and Rourkela were established during the Second Five-Year Plan (1956‑61) plan.
  • Durgapur Steel Plant is in West Bengal.
  • Rourkela Steel plant is located in Odisha.
  • Bhilai Steel Plant is in Chhattisgarh.
25

What do you mean by ‘SELVAS’?

  1. ((a))

    Thick equatorial forests or rain forest

  2. ((b))

    It is land slide

  3. ((c))

    State farms in Russia

  4. ((d))

    Parabolic Dunes in deserts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thick equatorial forests or rain forest

The correct answer is Thick equatorial forests or rain forest.

  • SELVAS is a thick equatorial forest or rain forest.

Key Points

  • Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate:
  • The equatorial, hot, wet climate is found between 5° and 10° north and south of the equator.
  • Its greatest extent is found in the lowlands of the Amazon, the Congo, Malaysia and the East Indies.
  • Further away from the equator, the influence of the on-shore Trade Winds gives rise to a modified type of equatorial climate with monsoonal influences.
  • There is no winter in this region.
  • The diurnal range of temperature is small.
  • Heavy downpour is caused due to conventional rain.
  • Vegetation is the luxuriant type and tropical rainforest which is termed as Selvas.
  • The equatorial vegetation comprises a multitude of evergreen trees that yield tropical hardwood, e.g. mahogany, ebony, greenheart, cabinet woods and dyewoods.
26

The ‘Nepal Himalayas’ lies between -

  1. ((a))

    Beas and Kali

  2. ((b))

    Tista and Tsangpo

  3. ((c))

    Kali and Tista

  4. ((d))

    Sutlej and Tista

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kali and Tista

The correct answer is Kali and Tista.

  • The ‘Nepal Himalayas’ lies between Kali and Tista.

Key Points

  • The Himalayan Mountains:
  • Himalayan mountains are stretched over the northern borders of India.
  • These mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
  • The Himalaya consists of 3 parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent.
  • The northern-most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri.
  • It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
  • The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature.
  • The core of this part of the Himalayas is composed of granite.
  • The range lying to the south of the Himadri forms the most rugged mountain system and is known as Himachal or lesser Himalaya.
  • Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range.
  • The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Shiwaliks. These ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments.
  • The longitudinal valley lying between the lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks are known as Duns.
  • Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun are some of the wellknown Duns.
  • The part of the Himalayas lying between Indus and Satluj has been traditionally known as Punjab Himalaya but it is also known regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya from west to east respectively.
  • The part of the Himalayas lying between the Satluj and Kali rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas.
  • The Kali and Teesta rivers divide the Nepal Himalayas and the part lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas.
27

Majority of the iron ore found in India is of which quality?

  1. ((a))

    Haematite

  2. ((b))

    Magnetite

  3. ((c))

    Limonite

  4. ((d))

    Siderite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haematite

The correct answer is Haematite.

  • The majority of the iron ore found in India is of Haematite quality.

Key Points

  • Hematite and magnetite are the most prominent of the iron ores found in India.
  • Of these two hematite is considered to be the most important iron ore because of its high-grade quality & lumpy nature, which is consumed by a large number of steel & sponge iron industries in the country.
  • Iron ores are mainly Magnetite (Fe3O4), Haematite (Fe2O3), Siderite (FeCO3).

Additional Information

  • The iron and Steel Industry took birth in India in the year 1870 when Bengal Iron Works Company established its plant at Kulti, West Bengal.
  • Large scale iron and steel production was started in 1907 by TISCO established at Jamshedpur (Jharkhand).
  • As per the data from the International Iron and Steel Institute (IISI) India is the 7th largest producer of steel in the world.
  • At present India is the 5th largest CrudeSteel producing country in the world.
  • India is the largest producer of sponge iron in the world.
28

Which of the following states was the largest producer of coffee in 2016-17?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Tamilnadu

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karnataka

The correct answer is Karnataka.

  • Karnataka was the largest producer of coffee in 2016-17.

Key Points

  • Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu are India’s largest coffee producing states.
  • Karnataka is the leader and produces more than 70% of the total coffee produced in the country.
  • India accounts for only 4-5 per cent of the world’s coffee output.

Additional Information

  • Coffee needs a hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28°C. and is generally grown under shady trees.
  • Strong sunshine, high temperature above 30°C, frost and snowfall are harmful for coffee cultivation.
  • Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of berries
  • Rainfall between 150 to 250 cm is favourable for coffee cultivation.
  • Well-drained, rich friable loamy soil with humus and minerals are ideal for coffee cultivation.
  • The types of coffee are Robusta Coffee, Coffea Arabica, Coffea liberica, Coffea charrieriana and Mocha Coffee.
29

The ‘Ruhr Industrial region’ is located in -

  1. ((a))

    North America

  2. ((b))

    Poland

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    London

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Germany

The correct answer is Germany.

  • The ‘Ruhr Industrial region’ is located in Germany.

Key Points

  • Ruhr is a major industrial region along the course of the Ruhr River, western Germany.
  • The river has given its name to one of the world’s largest single industrial regions.
  • Rhine-Ruhr is a highly industrialized and densely populated region that includes the major cities of Bonn, Cologne, Dusseldorf, Dortmund and Essen.
  • It is the historic headquarters of steel, mining and automobile production.

Additional Information

  • Germany:
  • Capital: Berlin
  • Currency: Euro
30

In which district of Rajasthan ‘JAKHAM’ Multipurpose project is located?

  1. ((a))

    Tonk

  2. ((b))

    Banswara

  3. ((c))

    Bharatpur

  4. ((d))

    Pratapgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pratapgarh

The correct answer is Pratapgarh.

  • ‘JAKHAM’ Multipurpose project is located in Pratapgarh.

Key Points

  • Jakham Irrigation Project:
  • The irrigation project comprises a storage dam on the river Jakham near village Anuppura in Dhariawad tehsil of district Pratapgarh.
  • It was completed in the year 1986.
  • It is constructed on river Jakham, which is a tributary of river Mahi.
  • The project provides irrigation benefits to tribal people of the area consisting of 104 villages of Dhariawad Tehsil and 3 villages of Pratapgarh Tehsil.
  • The area near the dam is hilly and consists of wasteland, hence a pickup weir at Nagalia, which is 13 km away from the dam is constructed from which the main canal emerges.
  • The project also consists of a weir located near village Naglia, about 11 km from Mahi dam.

Additional Information

  • Bisalpur Dam is situated on the Banas river in Tonk district is a gravity dam and a major source of drinking water supply to the capital city of Jaipur.
  • Mahi Bajaj Sagar Dam is across the Mahi River and is the second-largest dam in Rajasthan.
  • Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is built on the Chambal river, located in Rawatbhata in Rajasthan.
31

By vesting the residuary powers in the Union, the Indian Constitution has followed the:

  1. ((a))

    French Constitution

  2. ((b))

    The Canadian System

  3. ((c))

    The British System

  4. ((d))

    The German System

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Canadian System

The correct answer is The Canadian System.

Key Points

  • By vesting the residuary powers in the Union, the Indian Constitution has followed the Canadian System.
  • The provisions of a Federation with a strong center, Residuary powers of the Centre, the appointment of State governors by the Centre, and the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, are all borrowed from the Canadian constitution.

Additional Information

Important borrowed features of the constitution:

CountriesBorrowed Features of Indian Constitution
France- Ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble
Australia- Concurrent list - Joint-sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
Ireland- Directive Principles of State Policy
Japan- Procedure Established by law
Russia- Fundamental duties - Ideals of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble
United Kingdom- Rule of Law - Legislative procedure - Single Citizenship - Cabinet system - Parliamentary privileges - Bicameralism
United States- Fundamental rights - Independence of judiciary - Judicial review - Impeachment of the president
Germany (Weimar)- Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
32

Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation was introduced to the Indian Judicial System?

  1. ((a))

    A. M. Ahmadi

  2. ((b))

    M. Hidayatullah

  3. ((c))

    A. S. Anand

  4. ((d))

    P. N. Bhagwati

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P. N. Bhagwati

The correct answer is P. N. Bhagwati.

  • P. N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation was introduced to the Indian Judicial System.

Key Points

  • PN Bhagwati, the 17th Chief Justice of India introduced the concepts of Public interest Litigation and absolute liability in India.
  • Public interest Litigation (PIL) is litigation filed in a court of law, for the protection of “Public Interest”, such as Pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, Constructional hazards etc.
  • It is not defined in any statute or in any act.
  • The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to entertain an application under Article 32 for the issue of writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is treated as an ‘original’ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court though called writ jurisdiction.
  • The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal from all courts in the territory of India.
  • Supreme Court is the highest authority for interpretation of the Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Article 124 states the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court.
  • Under Article 124 (3), a person to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
  • He should be a citizen of India. He should have been a Judge of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years. Or
  • He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years. Or
  • He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.
33

Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission is comprised of -

  1. ((a))

    One Chairman and two members

  2. ((b))

    One Chairman, one deputy Chairman and one secretary

  3. ((c))

    One Chairman and three members

  4. ((d))

    One Chairman and four members

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One Chairman and two members

The correct answer is One Chairman and two members.

  • Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission is comprised of One Chairman and two members.

 

Key Points

  • Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006 consists of three members including a chairperson. The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
  • The other members should be:
  • A serving or retired judge of a High Court or a District Judge in the state with a minimum of seven years experience as a District judge.
  • A person having practical experience or knowledge related to human rights.
  • The State Government of Rajasthan issued a Notification on January 18, 1999, for the constitution of the State Commission in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • The Human Rights Commission became functional in March 2000 with the appointment of Justice Kanta Kumari Bhatnagar, as the first Chairperson with Shri R. K. Akodia, Shri B. L. Joshi, and Prof. Alamshah Khan as the members of the commission.
34

Which states adopted Panchayati Raj form of local Government first?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.

  • Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh were the first states to adopt the Panchayati Raj form of local Government.

Additional Information 

  • First Panchayat in Nagaur district of Rajasthan on 2nd October 1959.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992: The Act added Part IX to the Constitution, “The Panchayats” and also added the Eleventh Schedule which consists of the 29 functional items of the panchayats**.**
  • Features of Panchayati Raj:
  • Gram Sabha: Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system.
  • It is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters within the area of the panchayat.
  • Three Tier System: village, intermediate and district levels.
  • Election of members and chairperson: The members to all the levels of the Panchayati Raj are elected directly and the chairpersons to the intermediate and the district levels are elected indirectly.
  • Important committees for Panchayati Raj:
  • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  • Ashok Mehta Committee
  • G V K Rao Committee
  • L M Singhvi Committee
35

The P. I. L. petition related to Fundamental Rights can be filed in -

  1. ((a))

    Supreme Court only

  2. ((b))

    High Courts only

  3. ((c))

    Any court

  4. ((d))

    Both Supreme Court and High Court

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both Supreme Court and High Court

The correct answer is Both Supreme Court and High Court.

  • The P. I. L. petition related to Fundamental Rights can be filed with both the Supreme Court and High Court.

Additional Information

  • History of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India:
  • In 1979, Kapila Hingorani filed a petition and secured the release of almost 40000 undertrials from Patna’s jails in the famous ‘Hussainara Khatoon’ case. Hingorani was a lawyer.
  • This case was filed in the SC before a Bench led by Justice P N Bhagwati.
  • Hingorani is called the ‘Mother of PILs’ as a result of this successful case.
  • The court permitted Hingorani to pursue a case in which she had no personal locus standi making PILs a permanent fixture in Indian jurisprudence.
  • The Supreme Court of India and the High Courts have the right to issue PILs.
  • The concept of PILs stems from the power of judicial review.
  • The concept of PILs has diluted the principle of locus standi, which implies that only the person/party whose rights have been infringed upon can file petitions.
  • Procedure to File PIL in India:
  • Any Indian citizen or organisation can move the court for a public interest/cause by filing a petition:
  • In the SC under Article 32
  • In the High Courts under Article 226
  • The court can treat a letter as a writ petition and take action on it.
  • The court has to be satisfied that the writ petition complies with the following: the letter is addressed by the aggrieved person or a public-spirited individual or a social action group for the enforcement of legal or constitutional rights to any person who, upon poverty or disability, are not able to approach the court for redress.
  • The court can also take action on the basis of newspaper reports if it is satisfied with the case.
36

Before being removed from the Fundamental Rights, the Right to Property was a part of which Article?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

19

The correct answer is 19.

  • Before being removed from the Fundamental Rights, the Right to Property was a part of Article 19.

Key Points

  • In 1967, when the government forcibly took over the land, ‘right to private property was still a fundamental right’ under Article 31 of the Constitution.
  • Right to Property ceased to be a fundamental right with the 44th Constitution Amendment in 1978.
  • It was made a Constitutional right under Article 300A.
  • Article 300A requires the state to follow due procedure and authority of law to deprive a person of his or her private property.
  • Fundamental right in the Constitution, i.e., the right to property.
  • This was because this right proved to be a hindrance towards attaining the goal of socialism and redistributing wealth (property) equitably among the people.

Confusion Points

  • Right to property belonged to Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 from Part III of the Indian constitution which was deleted after The Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment, 1978.
  • where Art. 19(1) (f) guaranteed to the Indian citizens a right to acquire, hold and dispose of the property.
37

How many members are nominated in the present State Assembly of Rajasthan?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    None

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

None

The correct answer is None.

  • No members are nominated in the present State Assembly of Rajasthan.
  • Member indirectly elected and nominated in Legislative Council, not Legislative Assembly.

Additional Information 

  • Member indirectly elected and nominated in Legislative Council, not Legislative Assembly.
  • The members being drawn from various sources, the Council shall have a variegated composition.
  • 5/6 of the total number of members of the Council shall be indirectly elected and 1/6 will be nominated.
  • One-third of the total number of members of the Council would be elected by electorates consisting of members of local bodies like the municipalities and the district boards.
  • One-third would be elected by members of the Legislative Assembly from amongst people who are not Assembly members.
  • One-twelfth of the members would be elected by electorates comprising of graduates of the standing of three years dwelling in that particular state.
  • One-twelfth of the members would be elected by electorates consisting of teachers who have been in the teaching profession for at least 3 years in educational institutes in that state, which are not lower than secondary schools in the standard.
  • The rest would be nominated by the Governor from persons having knowledge or practical experience in matters like science, literature, cooperative movement, art and social service.
38

The correct sequence of assurances given in the Preamble of India Constitution is:

  1. ((a))

    Justice, Equality, Fraternity, Liberty

  2. ((b))

    Liberty, Equality, Justice, Fraternity

  3. ((c))

    Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

  4. ((d))

    Equality, Justice, Liberty, Fraternity

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

The correct answer is Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.

  • The correct sequence of assurances given in the Preamble of India Constitution is Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.

Additional Information 

  • Preamble Of Indian Constitution
  • WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
  • JUSTICE, social, economic, and political;
  • LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship;
  • EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
  • And to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
  • IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
39

According to the Indian Constitution, at one time, a person can be the Governor of a maximum number of how many State/States?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    The maximum number is not fixed

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The maximum number is not fixed

The correct answer is The maximum number is not fixed.

  • According to the Indian Constitution, at one time, a person can be the Governor of a maximum of any number of states, the maximum number is not fixed.

Key Points

  • The office of the Governor is the highest office in the state.
  • The Governor is also called the first-person of the state.
  • The Governor is appointed and removed by the President of India.
  • Governor holds the office till the President of India.
  • Condition for the office of the governor:
  • He should be an Indian Citizen.
  • He should be 35 years old or more.
  • He should not hold any office of profit.
  • He cannot be a member of parliament or state legislature.

Additional Information

  • Article Related to Governor:
  • Article 152: Definition
  • Article 153: Governors of states.
  • Article 154: Executive Power of Governor.
  • Article 155: Appointment of Governor
  • Article 156: Term of office of Governor
  • Article 157: Qualifications for that appointment of Governor
  • Article 158: Conditions of Governor's office.
  • Article 159: Oath or Affirmation by Governor
  • Article 160: Discharge Of the functions of the Governor in Contingencies
  • Article 161: Power of Governor to grant pardon, etc.
  • Article 162: Extent of Executive Power of State.
40

Features of the Government of India Act 1935 are:

(a) The provincial autonomy

(b) The establishment of Federal Court

(c) The establishment of All India Federation at the Centre

  1. ((a))

    a and b

  2. ((b))

    b and c

  3. ((c))

    a and c

  4. ((d))

    a, b and c

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a, b and c

The correct answer is a, b and c.

Key Points

  • Some of the features of the Government of India Act 1935 are:
  • The provincial autonomy
  • The establishment of the Federal Court
  • The establishment of the All India Federation at the Centre
  • Hence the correct answer is a, b and c.

 

Additional Information 

  • Features of the Government of India Act 1935 
  • It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
  • The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists - Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items).
  • Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it.
  • It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
  • The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres.
  • Moreover, the Act introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.
  • This came into effect in 1937 and was discontinued in 1939.
  • It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.
  • Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects.
  • However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at all.
  • It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.
  • Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lower house). However, many restrictions were placed on them.
  • It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
  • It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors.
  • It extended the franchise, About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right.
  • It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country.
  • It provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.
  • It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court.
41

Who is/are under the purview of enquiry of 'LOKAYUKTA' in Rajasthan?

I. Ministers

II. Secretaries

III. Governor

IV. Chairpersons of autonomous institutions

  1. ((a))

    I, II, IV

  2. ((b))

    I, III

  3. ((c))

    II, III, IV

  4. ((d))

    I, II, III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II, IV

The correct answer is I, II, IV.

Key Points

  • Under the purview of enquiry of 'LOKAYUKTA' in Rajasthan
  • Ministers
  • Secretaries
  • Chairpersons of autonomous institutions

Additional Information 

  • The Lokayukta has been empowered under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Sub-Lokayukta Act, 1973 to investigate allegations against ministers and public servants, in certain cases.
  • According to the definition of public servant given in section 2 (i) of the Act, the Lokayukta has the jurisdiction to investigate against the following:
  • A member of the Council of Ministers of the State of Rajasthan (other than the Chief Minister and Governor), by whatever name is known, namely, Minister, Minister of State or Deputy Minister,
  • A person appointed to public service or a public post in relation to the activities of the State of Rajasthan,
  • Every head and deputy head of the Zilla Parishad, the head and deputy head of the:
  • Panchayat Samiti and the chairman of any standing committee constituted by or under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act.
  • Every Mayor and Deputy Mayor of the Municipal Corporation, each Chairman and Vice- Chairman of the Municipal / Council, the Chairman of the Municipal Board, and the Vice- Chairman and the Chairman of any committee constituted under the Rajasthan Municipal Act.
  • Every person who is in the service of the following or has been paid his salary, namely:
  • Any local authority in the State of Rajasthan, to be notified on this behalf by the State Government in the Gazette,
  • Any corporation (not being a local authority), established by or under a State Act and owned or controlled by the State Government.
  • Any Government company under section 617 of the Companies Act, in which twenty-one per cent of the paid-up share capital is held by the State Government or any company which is a subsidiary of any such company in which the State Government is holding fifty-one per cent of the paid-up share capital.
42

How was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

  1. ((a))

    By indirect elections by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies established in 1935.

  2. ((b))

    Through Nomination by the Viceroy.

  3. ((c))

    By direct election by the members of Provincial Legislative Assemblies established in 1935.

  4. ((d))

    By direct elections in Provinces.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By indirect elections by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies established in 1935.

The correct answer is By indirect elections by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies established in 1935.

  • The members of this assembly were elected indirectly, that is by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote of proportional representation.

Additional Information 

  • Important facts about the Constituent Assembly
  • In 1934, M N Roy first proposed the idea of a constituent assembly.
  • The demand was taken up by the Congress Party in 1935 as an official demand.
  • The British accepted this in the August Offer of 1940.
  • Under the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946, elections were held for the formation of the constituent assembly.
  • The members of this assembly were elected indirectly, that is by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote of proportional representation
  • The constituent assembly was formed for the purpose of writing a constitution for independent India
  • Initially, the number of members was 389.
  • After partition, some of the members went to Pakistan and the number came down to 299.
  • Out of this, 229 were from the British provinces and 70 were nominated from the princely states.
  • Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was the first temporary chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
  • Later, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President and its Vice President was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee.
  • BN Rau was the constitutional advisor.
  • The assembly first met on 9 December 1946.
  • On 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the ‘Objective Resolution’.
  • The National Flag of the Union was adopted on 22 July 1947.
  • The final document had 22 parts, 395 articles and 8 schedules.
  • The assembly had met for 11 sessions.
  • The last session was held during 14 – 26 November 1949.
  • The constitution was passed and adopted by the assembly on 26 November 1949.
  • On 24 January 1950, ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted as the national anthem.
  • The constitution came into force on 26 January 1950 (which is celebrated as Republic Day).
43

The minimum number of Council of Ministers in Rajasthan can be:

  1. ((a))

    29 + one Chief Minister

  2. ((b))

    11 + one Chief Minister

  3. ((c))

    15 + one Chief Minister

  4. ((d))

    12 + one Chief Minister

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11 + one Chief Minister

The correct answer is 11 + one Chief Minister.

Key Points

  • The minimum number of Council of Ministers in Rajasthan can be 11 + one Chief Minister.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Up to 15% of the strength of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.

  • According to the constitution, the Council of Ministers constitutes 15% of the total number of legislators (91st Amendment Amendment).
  • The maximum number of ministers in Rajasthan is 30 which is 15% of 200.
  • The Council of Ministers in states is mentioned in Articles 163, 164, and 167.
  • The Council of Ministers is headed by the Chief Minister.
  • There are three classes of ministers:
  • Cabinet minister
  • Minister of State
  • Deputy Minister
  • Cabinet ministers are in charge of important departments.
  • The cabinet-level group of ministers is called the cabinet ministers.
  • Ministers of State are appointed to assist cabinet ministers.
  • Deputy Ministers are there to assist the State Ministers.
  • Sometimes the Ministers of State are also given independent departments.
  • Cabinet Secretariat:
  • The administrative head is the chief secretary.
  • The political head is the chief minister.
44

Which of the statements is/are correct:

I. If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill, a joint sitting can be called.

II. A joint sitting can be called only on ordinary bills.

III. A provision for joint sitting on Constitutional Amendment Bills is also described in Article 102.

  1. ((a))

    I, II, III

  2. ((b))

    I, III

  3. ((c))

    II, III

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is I.

Key Points

  • In case of disagreement between both the houses of the Indian Parliament, there is a provision for joint sitting.
  • A joint sitting can be called on ordinary bills and Financial Bill.
  • Article 108 of the Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
  • However, it's important to note that Article 108 does not apply to Constitutional Amendment Bills. Constitutional Amendment Bills require a special majority in both Houses separately, and there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a deadlock.
  • Hence the correct answer is I.

Additional Information

  • Joint Sitting of Parliament
  • The Constitution of India provides for a joint session of the Parliament.
  • India has a bicameral Parliament.
  • To pass any bill, both the Houses (the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha) must concur. The bill has to be passed by both Houses before the President can give his/her assent.
  • The founding fathers foresaw situations where there could be a deadlock between both Houses of Parliament.
  • Therefore, they provided for a constitutional mechanism to break this deadlock, in the form of joint sittings.
  • The President summons a Joint Sitting of Parliament.
  • The Speaker presides over a joint sitting.
  • In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over it, and in his absence, the sitting is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • If any of the above-mentioned people are not available, any Member of Parliament (MP) can preside over the sitting by consensus of both Houses.
  • The quorum to constitute a joint sitting: 1/10th of the total number of members of the House.
  • Joint Sitting Constitutional Provision
  • Article 108 of the Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
  • Accordingly, a joint session can be summoned when: If after a bill is passed by one House and transmitted to the other House.
  • The other House rejects this bill, or The Houses do not agree on the amendments made to the bill, or More than six months elapse with the bill being received by the other House without it being passed.
45

The founder of 'BHARTIYA JANSANGH' was -

  1. ((a))

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee

  2. ((b))

    C. Rajagopalachari

  3. ((c))

    Deen Dayal Upadhyay

  4. ((d))

    Dr. Shyamaprasad Mukherjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dr. Shyamaprasad Mukherjee

The correct answer is Dr. Shyamaprasad Mukherjee.

  • The founder of 'BHARTIYA JANSANGH' was Dr Shyamaprasad Mukherjee.

Additional Information 

  • Syama Prasad Mukherjee, founder of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
  • The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was an Indian right-wing political party that existed from 1951 to 1977 and was the political arm of Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), a Hindu nationalist volunteer organisation.
  • In 1977, it merged with several other lefts, centre and right parties opposed to the Indian National Congress and formed the Janata Party.
  • In 1980, the Jana Sangh faction broke away from Janata Party over the issue of dual membership (of the political Janata Party and the social organization RSS) and formed Bharatiya Janata Party.
  • Syama Prasad Mukherjee was an Indian politician, barrister and academician, who served as the Minister for Industry and Supply in Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet.
  • After falling out with Nehru, protesting against the Nehru-Liaquat Pact, Mukherjee resigned from Nehru's cabinet.
46

According to Human Development Report 2016, which rank was assigned to India's Human Development Index?

  1. ((a))

    139

  2. ((b))

    129

  3. ((c))

    131

  4. ((d))

    137

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

131

The correct answer is 131.

  • According to Human Development Report 2016, the 131st rank was assigned to India's Human Development Index.

Additional Information 

  • Human Development Report  
  • Released by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • Four major indicators:
  • Life expectancy for health,
  • Expected years of schooling,
  • Mean years of schooling for an education
  • Gross National Income per capita for the standard of living
  • Objectives of the Human Development Report
  • Advancement of human development
  • Expansion of opportunities, choices and freedom of people across the globe.
  • Introduction to the innovative ideas concerning human development.
  • The advocation of practical policy changes.
  • Challenging the policies and approaches that hinder human development.
47

Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?

  1. ((a))

    N. K. Singh

  2. ((b))

    M. N. Vohra

  3. ((c))

    Arvind Mehta

  4. ((d))

    Vijay Kelkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N. K. Singh

The correct answer is N. K. Singh.

  • N. K. Singh is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission.

Additional Information

  • 15th Finance Commission
  • The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements.
  • Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at an interval of five years or earlier.
  • The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India, under the chairmanship of NK Singh.
  • Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.
  • Grants Devolution Criteria
  • Population:
  • The population of a State represents the needs of the State to undertake expenditure for providing services to its residents.
  • It is also a simple and transparent indicator that has a significant equalising impact.
  • Area:
  • The larger the area, the greater is the expenditure requirement for providing comparable services.
  • Forest and Ecology:
  • By taking into account the share of the dense forest of each state in the aggregate dense forest of all the states, the share on these criteria is determined.
  • Income Distance:
  • Income distance is the distance of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of a particular state from the state with the highest GSDP.
  • To maintain interstate equity, the states with lower per capita income would be given a higher share.
  • Demographic Performance:
  • It rewards efforts made by states in controlling their population.
  • This criterion has been computed by using the reciprocal of the total fertility ratio of each state, scaled by 1971 population data.
  • Tax Effort:
  • This criterion has been used to reward states with higher tax collection efficiency.
48

At which of the following places it was announced, in the budget of Rajasthan 2018-19, to establish a mini plant for processing and marketing of camel milk?

  1. ((a))

    Bikaner

  2. ((b))

    Jaipur

  3. ((c))

    Barmer

  4. ((d))

    Jaisalmer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jaipur

The correct answer is Jaipur.

  • In Jaipur it was announced, in the budget of Rajasthan 2018-19, to establish a mini plant for processing and marketing of camel milk.

Additional Information 

  • Jaipur will have a mini plant of camel milk.
  • A mini plant of camel milk will be set up on the lines of Saras Dairy, with the help of the state government and Saras Dairy in Jaipur.
  • Camel milk is rich in many nutrients that are important for overall health.
  • When it comes to calorie, protein, and carb content, camel milk is comparable to whole cow's milk.
49

Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-90) mainly emphasized on:

  1. ((a))

    Removal of Poverty

  2. ((b))

    Sustainable Development

  3. ((c))

    Food grain production, employment & productivity

  4. ((d))

    Rapid industrialization

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Food grain production, employment & productivity

The correct answer is Foodgrain production, employment & productivity.

  • The main objectives of the Seventh Five-Year Plan were to establish growth in areas of increasing economic productivity, production of food grains, and generating employment through "Social Justice".​

Additional Information

  • The Seventh Five-Year Plan was led by the Congress Party with Rajiv Gandhi as the prime minister.
  • The plan laid stress on improving the productivity level of industries by upgrading technology.
  • The main objectives of the Seventh Five-Year Plan were to establish growth in areas of increasing economic productivity, production of food grains, and generating employment through "Social Justice".
  • The Seventh Plan had strived towards socialism and energy production at large.
  • The thrust areas of the Seventh Five-Year Plan were:
  • Social justice, removal of oppression of the weak, using modern technology, agricultural development, anti-poverty programmes, a full supply of food, clothing, and shelter, increasing the productivity of small- and large-scale farmers, and making India an independent economy.
  • The target growth rate was 5.0% and the actual growth rate was 6.01% and the growth rate of per capita income was 3.7%.
50

National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture consists of which of the following sub-mission?

  1. ((a))

    Animal husbandry

  2. ((b))

    Health Management

  3. ((c))

    Cooperative agriculture

  4. ((d))

    Soil Health Management

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Soil Health Management

The correct answer is Soil Health Management.

  • Sustainable Agriculture consists of Soil Health Management as one of the sub-missions.

Additional Information 

  • National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA):
  • It is one of the major missions of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Change in agricultural practices also plays a crucial role in the mitigation of climate change effects. This mission tries to comprehensively revamp the agricultural practices so that the desired objectives of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC’s) can be achieved.
  • Major Programmes of NMSA
  • Rainfed Area Development (RAD)
  • Develops an area-based approach for the development and conservation of natural resources along with farming systems.
  • It is a combination of various aspects of agriculture such as crops, fishery, livestock, horticulture, forestry and other agro-based activities which will act as a source of generating revenue.
  • Implement practices that will regulate soil nutrient based on soil health card, development of farming lands.
  • Using an approach that is cluster-based, with an area of 100 hectares or more
  • Develop new property resources which would be common, like a bank for grains, fodder, shredders for biomass, combined marketing initiative.
  • On-Farm Water Management (OFWM)
  • The primary focus is optimum utilisation of water by promoting advanced on-farm water conservation equipment and technologies.
  • Emphasize efficient harvesting and management of rainwater.
  • Water conservation on the farm itself by digging farm ponds utilising funds from the MGNREGA mission.
  • Soil Health Management
  • Promote sustainable practices which preserve the health of soil based on a specific location and the type of crops that could be grown in those locations by taking the help of various techniques like management of residue, organic farming
  • By making new maps with details on soil fertility and linking them with macro-management and micromanagement of nutrients, optimum land use, right utilisation of fertilisers and reducing degradation & erosion of soil.
  • Use of thematic maps generated with the help of Geographical Information System (GIS) technology and the databases created on soil and land with the help of scientific surveys.
  • State Government, Soil and land Use Survey of India (SLUSI), National Centre of Organic Farming (NCOF), Central Fertilizer Quality Control and Training Institute (CFQC&TI).
  • Climate Change and Sustainable Agriculture: Monitoring, Modeling and Networking (CCSAMMN)
  • Create and disseminate knowledge and updated information on climate change.
  • Support pilot blocks for spreading rainfed technologies and co-ordinate with other schemes or missions like MGNREGS, NFSM, RKVY, IWMP, Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Program (AIBP), NMAET.
51

Goods and Service Tax was implemented in India from -

  1. ((a))

    1-Jun-2017

  2. ((b))

    1-Jul-2017

  3. ((c))

    1-Aug-2017

  4. ((d))

    1-Sep-2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1-Jul-2017

The correct answer is 1-Jul-2017.

Key Points

  • Goods and Service (GST) came into effect from 1 July 2017 through the implementation of the One Hundred and First Amendment of the Constitution.

Additional Information 

  • Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax (or consumption tax) used in India on the supply of goods and services.
  • It has subsumed almost all the indirect taxes except a few state taxes.
  • Multi-staged as it is, the GST is imposed at every step in the production process but is meant to be refunded to all parties in the various stages of production other than the final consumer and as a destination-based tax, it is collected from point of consumption and not point of origin like previous taxes.
  • Goods and services are divided into five different tax slabs for collection of tax - 0%, 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.
  • However, petroleum products, alcoholic drinks, and electricity are not taxed under GST and instead are taxed separately by the individual state governments, as per the previous tax system.
  • There is a special rate of 0.25% on rough precious and semi-precious stones and 3% on gold.
  • In addition, a cess of 22% or other rates on top of 28% GST applies to a few items like aerated drinks, luxury cars and tobacco products.
  • Pre-GST, the statutory tax rate for most goods was about 26.5%, Post-GST, most goods are expected to be in the 18% tax range.
  • The tax came into effect from 1 July 2017 through the implementation of the One Hundred and First Amendment of the Constitution of India by the Indian government. The GST replaced existing multiple taxes levied by the central and state governments.
52

Which of the following agencies has taken the initiative for mitigating the poverty in the western districts of Rajasthan?

  1. ((a))

    International fund for agricultural development (IFAD) and Ratan Tata Trust

  2. ((b))

    International Monetary Fund (IMF) and Reliance industry

  3. ((c))

    World Bank and Adani Trust

  4. ((d))

    World Health Organisation (WHO) and Goenka Trust

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

International fund for agricultural development (IFAD) and Ratan Tata Trust

The correct answer is International fund for agricultural development (IFAD) and Ratan Tata Trust.

  • International fund for agricultural development (IFAD) and Ratan Tata Trust has taken the initiative for mitigating poverty in the western districts of Rajasthan.

Additional Information 

  • The International Fund for Agricultural Development is an international financial institution and a specialised agency of the United Nations that works to address poverty and hunger in rural areas of developing countries.
  • Ratan Tata Trust established in 1919, the Sir Ratan Tata Trust is one of the oldest philanthropic institutions in India and has played a pioneering role in changing traditional ideas of charity.
  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international financial institution, headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world while periodically depending on the World Bank for its resources.
  • The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects
53

What was the road density (per 100 sq. km.) in Rajasthan at the end of March 2017?

  1. ((a))

    66.29 km.

  2. ((b))

    79.27 km.

  3. ((c))

    55.21 km.

  4. ((d))

    92.28 km.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66.29 km.

The correct answer is 66.29 km.

  • 66.29 km. road density (per 100 sq. km.) in Rajasthan at the end of March 2017.

Additional Information 

  • Road Infrastructure of Rajasthan:
  • Road Infrastructure development plays an important role in social and economic development.
  • Road network is necessary for agriculture, commerce, safety, education and social welfare to take place.
  • On 31 March 1951, Rajasthan had a road network of 17339 Kms and it grew to 2,64,244 Kms till March 2019.
  • The maximum length of roads is in the Jodhpur district while the minimum length is in the Dholpur district.
  • The longest Highway in the state is NH-15 of length 878.3 Km and the smallest is 71B of 5 Km length.
  • After Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan (3rd) has the highest length of National Highways.
  • As of March 2019, the road density of the state was 77.21 km per 100 sq. km.
  • Rajasthan has 12 Regional Transport Offices (RTO) & 39 District Transport Offices (DTO's).
54

Which among the following formulates the Fiscal Policy in India?

  1. ((a))

    RBI

  2. ((b))

    SEBI

  3. ((c))

    Finance Ministry

  4. ((d))

    NITI Aayog

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Finance Ministry

The correct answer is Finance Ministry.

  • Finance Ministry formulates the Fiscal Policy in India.

Additional Information 

  • Fiscal policy is the use of government revenue collection (mainly taxes but also non-tax revenues such as divestment, loans) and expenditure (spending) to influence the economy.
  • Through fiscal policy, the government of a country controls the flow of tax revenues and public expenditure to navigate the economy.
  • Receipts:
  • It indicates the money received by the government.
  • This includes the money earned by the government the money it receives in the form of borrowings or repayment of loans by states.
  • Plan Expenditure:
  • All expenditures done in the name of planning (i.e. Five Year Plans) were called plan expenditures.
  • For example expenditure on electricity generation, irrigation and rural developments, construction of roads, bridges, canals, etc.
  • Non-plan Expenditure:
  • All expenditures other than plan expenditure were known as non-plan expenditure.
  • For example interest payments, pensions, statutory transfers to States and Union Territories governments, etc.
55

What is the objective of National Ayush Mission in Rajasthan?

  1. ((a))

    Promotion of medical facilities in Western districts

  2. ((b))

    To provide the medical insurance facility to the BPL families in the State

  3. ((c))

    Development of Ayurveda, Homeo, Unani, Yoga and Naturopathy in the State

  4. ((d))

    To provide free medical facilities to SC/ST and OBC families of the State

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Development of Ayurveda, Homeo, Unani, Yoga and Naturopathy in the State

The correct answer is Development of Ayurveda, Homeo, Unani, Yoga, and Naturopathy in the State.

Key Points

  • The objective of the National Ayush Mission in Rajasthan: Development of Ayurveda, Homeo, Unani, Yoga, and Naturopathy in the State.

Additional Information 

  • National Ayush Mission in Rajasthan:
  • The basic objective of NAM is to promote AYUSH medical system through cost-effective services, strengthening the educational system, facilitate the enforcement of quality control Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani & Homoeopathy (ASU&H) Drugs, and sustainable availability of ASU&H raw-material.
  • The objective of the mission is to promote AYUSH Medical Systems
  • The Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy  (AYUSH) is purposed with developing education, research, and propagation of indigenous alternative medicine systems in India.
56

What was the share of service sector in India's Gross Value Added (GVA) in the year 2017-18?

  1. ((a))

    72.5%

  2. ((b))

    56.7%

  3. ((c))

    54.3%

  4. ((d))

    55.2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

55.2%

The correct answer is 55.2%.

Key Points

  • 55.2% share of the service sector in India's Gross Value Added (GVA) in the year 2017-18.

Additional Information 

  • In economics, gross value added (GVA) is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry or sector of an economy.
  • Gross value added is the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption.
  • It is a measure of the contribution to GDP made by an individual producer, industry or sector.
  • Gross value added is the source from which the primary incomes of the SNA are generated and is therefore carried forward into the primary distribution of income account."
57

What is the main objective of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)?

  1. ((a))

    To adopt the traditional methods of irrigation.

  2. ((b))

    To promote organic farming.

  3. ((c))

    To adopt the technique of rain harvesting.

  4. ((d))

    To reduce the use of mechanised technique in Agriculture.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To promote organic farming.

The correct answer is To promote organic farming.

  • The main objective of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is to promote organic farming.

Additional Information

  • The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
  • The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)– a traditional farming improvement programme was launched in 2015.
  • It is an extended component of Soil Health Management (SHM) under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
  • PKVY aims at supporting and promoting organic farming, reducing in dependence on fertilizers and agricultural chemicals, in turn, resulting in improvement of the soil health while increasing the yields.
  • Organic food, thus produced will be linked with modern marketing tools and local markets.
  • The revamped PKVY promotes organic farming through the adoption of the organic village by cluster approach and the Participatory Guarantee System of certification.
  • Funding pattern:
  • The funding pattern under the scheme is in the ratio of 60:40 by the Central and State Governments respectively.
  • In the case of North Eastern and the Himalayan States, Central Assistance is provided in the ratio of 90:10 (Centre: State) and for Union Territories, the assistance is 100%.
  • Objectives:
  • The objective is to produce agricultural products free from chemicals and pesticidal residues by adopting eco-friendly, low-cost technologies.
  • Promote organic farming among rural youth/ farmers/ consumers/ traders
  • Disseminate the latest technologies in organic farming
  • Utilize the services of experts from the public agricultural research system in India
  • Organize a minimum of one cluster demonstration in a village
  • Implementation of the programme:
  • PKVY is being implemented by the Organic Farming cell of the Integrated Nutrient Management (Division) of the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW)
  • At the State level, the State Department of Agriculture and Cooperation has been implementing the scheme with the involvement of Regional Councils that are registered under the PGS- India Certification Programme
  • At the district level, the Regional Councils (RCs) within the district anchor the implementation of PKVY.
58

Which of the following funds is being used by the Government of India to meet the unforeseen expenses?

  1. ((a))

    Consolidated Fund

  2. ((b))

    Public Account of India

  3. ((c))

    Contingency Fund

  4. ((d))

    Borrowing Account

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Contingency Fund

The correct answer is Contingency Fund.

  • Contingency Fund is being used by the Government of India to meet the unforeseen expenses.

Additional Information 

  • Consolidated Fund of India:
  • This is the most important of all accounts of the government.
  • This fund is filled by Direct and indirect taxes Loans taken by the Indian government, Returning of loans/interests of loans to the government by anyone/agency that has taken it.
  • The government meets all its expenditure from this fund.
  • The government needs parliamentary approval to withdraw money from this fund.
  • The provision for this fund is given in Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India.
  • Each state can have its own Consolidated Fund of the state with similar provisions.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India audit these funds and reports to the relevant legislatures on their management.
  • Contingency Fund of India:
  • Provision for this fund is made in Article 267 (1) of the Constitution of India.
  • Its corpus is Rs. 500 crores.
  • The Secretary of, Finance Ministry holds this fund on behalf of the President of India.
  • This fund is used to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditure.
  • Contingency Fund is being used by the Government of India to meet the unforeseen expenses
  • Each state can have its own contingency fund.
  • Public Accounts of India:
  • This is constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution.
  • All other public money (other than those covered under the Consolidated Fund of India) received by or on behalf of the Indian Government are credited to this account/fund.
  • This is made up of Bank savings account of the various ministries/departments, National small savings fund, defence fund, National Investment Fund (money earned from disinvestment), National Calamity & Contingency Fund (NCCF) (for Disaster Management), Provident fund, Postal insurance, etc.
59

Rajasthan Mukhyamantri Rajshree Yojna was announced in the budget of:

  1. ((a))

    2014-15

  2. ((b))

    2015-16

  3. ((c))

    2016-17

  4. ((d))

    2017-18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2016-17

The correct answer is 2016-17.

  • Rajasthan Mukhyamantri Rajshree Yojna was announced in the budget of 2016-17.

Additional Information 

  • Some important Budget Highlights of 2021:
  • The medical insurance facility of 5 lacs will be provided to all the family.
  • Nursing colleges will be opened at 25 district headquarters.
  • Colleges of Naturopathy to be opened in Udaipur and Jodhpur.
  • State Ayush Research Center to be established in Ajmer.
  • 200 days of employment instead of 100 days.
  • Jaipur SMS will expand heart lugs transplant facilities.
  • Incentive amount for sending the injured person to the hospital in critical condition.
  • 5000 incentives will be given for transporting injured in a road accident.
  • Center of Excellence to be established to promote Ayurveda wellness tourism at Ayurveda University, Jodhpur.
  • Rs 100 crore provision in the Road Safety Fund.
60

Which of the following fiscal measures is used to get the economy out of recession?

  1. ((a))

    Increase in government expenditure

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in government expenditure

  3. ((c))

    Increase in taxes

  4. ((d))

    Demonetisation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in government expenditure

The correct answer is an Increase in government expenditure.

  • Fiscal measures are used to get the economy out of recession when Increase in government expenditure.

Additional Information Main objectives of Fiscal Policy in India:

  • Economic growth: Fiscal policy helps maintain the economy’s growth rate so that certain economic goals can be achieved.
  • Price stability: It controls the price level of the country so that when inflation is too high, prices can be regulated.
  • Employment: It aims to achieve full employment, or near full employment, as a tool to recover from low economic activity.
61

Which set of the elements have 4, 5 and 6 electrons in their outer most orbit?

  1. ((a))

    C, Si, Cl

  2. ((b))

    B, C, N

  3. ((c))

    O, F, S

  4. ((d))

    Si, N, S

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Si, N, S

The correct answer is Si, N, S.

  • Si, N, S set of the elements have 4, 5 and 6 electrons in their outermost orbit.

Additional Information 

  • Silicon electron configuration will be 1s22s22p63s23p2
  • Electronic configuration of Nitrogen is 1s22s22p3
  • Electron configuration for Sulfur is 1s2 2s22p63s2 3p
62

Which year was declared as the International Year of Biodiversity?

  1. ((a))

    2002

  2. ((b))

    2010

  3. ((c))

    2016

  4. ((d))

    1972

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2010

The correct answer is 2010.

  • 2010 was declared as the International Year of Biodiversity.

Key Points

  • The United Nations has declared 2010 the International Year of Biodiversity.
  • Since 1959 the United Nations has designated International years in order to draw attention to major issues.
  • Thus the United Nations designates specific days, weeks, years and decades as occasions to mark particular events or topics in order to promote, through awareness and action, the objectives of the Organization.

Additional Information

  • Other important years recognized by the UN:
  • International Year of Plant Health- 2020
  • International Year of the Nurse and the Midwife- 2020
  • International Year of Peace and Trust- 2021
  • International Year of Fruits and Vegetables- 2021
  • International Year of Artisanal Fisheries and Aquaculture- 2022
63

Which of the following nutrients is not an antioxidant?

  1. ((a))

    Selenium

  2. ((b))

    Tocopherol

  3. ((c))

    Carotenoids

  4. ((d))

    Cholecalciferol

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cholecalciferol

The correct answer is Cholecalciferol.

  • Cholecalciferol is not an antioxidant.

Key Points

  • Cholecalciferol
  • Cholecalciferol​ is vitamin D3.
  • Vitamin D helps our body to absorb calcium.
  • Cholecalciferol is used as a dietary supplement in people who do not get enough vitamin D in their diets to maintain adequate health.

Additional Information

  • Selenium 
  • Selenium is a powerful antioxidant.
  • It fights oxidative stress and helps defend your body from chronic conditions, such as heart disease and cancer.
  • Tocopherols
  • It belongs to a class of phenolic antioxidants that can inhibit lipid autoxidation by scavenging free radicals.
  • For antioxidant purposes, both beta-carotene and ascorbic acid must be added to vegetable oils after deodorization.
  • ​Carotenoids
  • ​​Carotenoids also act as antioxidants in the human body.
  • They have strong cancer-fighting properties.
  • Some carotenoids are converted by the body to vitamin A, which is essential to vision and normal growth and development.
64

In which of the following ecosystems the pyramid of biomass is inverted?

  1. ((a))

    Forest

  2. ((b))

    Grassland

  3. ((c))

    Pond

  4. ((d))

    Desert

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pond

The correct answer is Pond.

  • In a pond or aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is inverted.

Key Points

  • The pond ecosystem
  • In a pond ecosystem, the biomass of phytoplankton is less as compared with that of the small herbivorous fish.
  • Fishes feed on these producers.
  • The biomass of large carnivorous fish that depends on small fishes is much greater.

Additional Information

  • The Tree ecosystem
  • ​An inverted pyramid of numbers can also be found in a tree ecosystem.
  • The energy pyramids
  • The energy pyramids are always upright because at lower trophic level producers possess high energy.
65

On 15 February 2017, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched a record of 104 satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre Sriharikota. The launch Vehicle used for the purpose was -

  1. ((a))

    PSLV-C33

  2. ((b))

    PSLV-C47

  3. ((c))

    PSLV-C37

  4. ((d))

    GSLV-C37

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

PSLV-C37

The correct answer is PSLV-C37.

  • PSLV-C37 successfully carried and deployed a record 104 satellites in sun-synchronous orbits.

Key Points

  • PSLV-C37
  • PSLV-C37 successfully carried and deployed a record 104 satellites in sun-synchronous orbits.
  • It was launched on 15 February 2017 by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
  • The total weight of all the 104 satellites carried onboard PSLV-C37 was 1378 kg.
  • Of the 103 co-passenger satellites carried by PSLV-C37, two – ISRO Nano Satellite-1 (INS-1) weighing 8.4 kg and INS-2 weighing 9.7 kg – are technology demonstration satellites from India.
  • The remaining 101 co-passenger satellites carried were international customer satellites from the USA (96), The Netherlands (1), Switzerland (1), Israel (1), Kazakhstan (1) and UAE (1).

​​

Additional Information

  • PSLV-C33
  • The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its thirty-fifth flight (PSLV-C33), launches IRNSS-1G, the seventh satellite of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) into a Sub-Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (Sub-GTO).
  • The launch took place from the First Launch Pad (FLP) of Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota on April 28, 2016.
  • ​PSLV-C47
  • India’s PSLV-C47 successfully launched Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial nanosatellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
  • PSLV-C47 lifted-off at 0928Hrs (IST) on November 27, 2019, from the Second Launch Pad of SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
  • PSLV-C47 was the 74th launch vehicle mission from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
  • This is the 21st flight of PSLV in 'XL' configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors).
66

For which of the following words has the letter 'G' been used in 4G technology in mobile communication?

  1. ((a))

    Grade

  2. ((b))

    Group

  3. ((c))

    Global

  4. ((d))

    Generation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Generation

The correct answer is Generation.

  • The letter 'G' has been used for Generation in 4G technology in mobile communication.

Key Points

  • Meaning of 'G' in mobile signal
  • The G in 2G, 3G and 4G stands for Generation, and they refer to the 2nd, 3rd and 4th generation of wireless technology.
  • The higher the generation the better, fast, and powerful will be the network.
  • Letter G stands for GPRS (General Packet Radio Service).
  • It indicates the slowest speed of internet data transfer on our mobile phone.

Additional Information

  • Meaning of 'E' in mobile signal
  • Letter E stands for EDGE (Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution).
  • It is also called Enhanced GPRS.
  • This technology lies somewhere in between 2G and 3G technology.
  • So, some people refer to it as 2.5G.
67

The forest biome characterised by 3-4 tree species per km. square is -

  1. ((a))

    Tropical

  2. ((b))

    Temperate

  3. ((c))

    Boreal

  4. ((d))

    Taiga

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Temperate

The correct answer is Temperate.

  • The forest biome characterised by 3-4 tree species per km. square is ​Temperate.

Key Points

  • Temperate biome
  • ​A temperate forest is a forest found between the tropical and boreal regions, located in the temperate zone.
  • It is the second-largest biome on the planet, covering 25% of the world's forest area.

Additional Information

  • Taiga or Boreal biome 
  • The boreal forest covers about 33%  area of the earth.
  • Taiga generally referred to in North America as boreal forest or snow forest.
  • It is a biome characterized by coniferous forests consisting mostly of pines, spruces.
  • Tropical biome
  • The tropical rainforest is the earth's most species-rich biome in terms of both structure and species diversity.
  • It occurs under optimal growing conditions: abundant precipitation and year-round warmth.
  • The World Wildlife Fund's biome classification puts the tropical rainforests under Tropical Moist Broadleaf Forest.
68

In the human body which amino acid is converted to Niacin?

  1. ((a))

    Tyrosine

  2. ((b))

    Valine

  3. ((c))

    Tryptophan

  4. ((d))

    Phenyl alanine

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tryptophan

The correct answer is Tryptophan.

  • In the human body Tryptophan amino acid is converted to Niacin.

Key Points

  • Tryptophan
  • Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that cannot be produced by the human body and must be obtained through your diet, primarily from animal or plant-based protein sources.
  • Tryptophan was discovered in the early 1900s.
  • It was isolated from casein, a protein found in milk.
  • The liver can also use tryptophan to produce niacin (Vitamin B3), which is needed for energy metabolism and DNA production.

Additional Information

  • Valine 
  • Valine is an aliphatic and extremely hydrophobic essential amino acid in humans related to leucine.
  • Valine is found in many proteins, mostly in the interior of globular proteins helping to determine the three-dimensional structure.
  • Phenylalanine 
  • Phenylalanine is a precursor for tyrosine, the monoamine neurotransmitters dopamine, norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and epinephrine (adrenaline), and skin pigment melanin.
  • Phenylalanine is found naturally in the breast milk of mammals.
  • Tyrosine 
  • ​Tyrosine is an amino acid that is naturally produced in the body from another amino acid called phenylalanine.
  • It's found in many foods, especially in cheese.
69

India is in the process of buying Rafale fighter jets for its Defence Ministry. The country of origin of these fighter jets is -

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    Germany

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

France

The correct answer is France.

  • The country of origin of Rafale fighter jets is France.

Key Points

  • Rafale fighter jets
  • ​India had signed an inter-governmental agreement with France to procure 36 aircraft at a cost of Rs 59,000 crore.
  • Rafale is a twin-jet combat aircraft manufactured by Dassault Aviation, a France based manufacturing company.
  • It is capable of carrying out a wide range of short and long-range missions.​

Additional Information

 The list of active Indian military aircraft 

AircraftCountry of origin
Rafale fighter jetsFrance
Sukhoi Su-30Russia
Mig-29Russia
Mig-29Russia
IAI HeronIsrael
70

The prefix "nano" comes from a -

  1. ((a))

    French word meaning billion

  2. ((b))

    Latin word meaning invisible

  3. ((c))

    Greek word meaning dwarf

  4. ((d))

    Spanish word meaning particle

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Greek word meaning dwarf

The correct answer is the Greek word meaning dwarf.

  • The prefix "nano" comes from a Greek word meaning dwarf.

Key Points

  • Nano - (symbol n) is a unit prefix meaning "one billionth".
  • It is used primarily with the metric system.
  • This prefix denotes a factor of 10−9 or 0.000000001.
  • The prefix "nano" comes from a Greek word meaning dwarf.

Additional Information 

PurposePrefix NameValue
smaller quantities or sub-unitsnano10-9
pico10-12
femto10-15
atto10-18
71

In January 2018, the Prime Minister of India inaugurated the HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Ltd. in which district of Rajasthan?

  1. ((a))

    Bikaner

  2. ((b))

    Barmer

  3. ((c))

    Jaisalmer

  4. ((d))

    Kota

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Barmer

The correct answer is Barmer.

  • In January 2018, the Prime Minister of India inaugurated the HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Ltd.
  • It is located in the Barmer district of Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Barmer Refinery
  • Barmer Refinery is a public sector refinery and petrochemical complex in the Pachpadra in the Barmer district.

Additional Information

  • HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Ltd. (HRRL) was incorporated on 18th September 2013, as a Joint Venture between Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and the Government of Rajasthan (GOR).
  • Equity participation of 74% by HPCL and 26% by the Government of Rajasthan (GOR) respectively.
  • The Barmer refinery is expected to process 1.5MMtpa of crude indigenously produced in Rajasthan at the Mangala fields.
72

Percentage of Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere is about -

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    < 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

< 1

The correct answer is < 1.

  • The percentage of Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere is about 0.03% OR less than 1%.​

Key Points

  • CO2 makes up about 0.04% of the atmosphere.
  • CO2  is the dominant greenhouse gas in our atmosphere.
  • It is denser than air.
  • The largest source of greenhouse gas emissions from human activities is from burning fossil fuels for electricity, heat, and transportation.

Additional Information

  • Nitrogen accounts for 78% of the atmosphere, oxygen 21% and argon 0.9%.
  • Gases like carbon dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, and ozone are trace gases that account for about 0.1 per cent of the atmosphere.
  • CO2 makes up only about 0.04% of the atmosphere.
  • Water vapour can vary from 0 to 4%.
73

The London smog was observed in the year -

  1. ((a))

    1750

  2. ((b))

    1952

  3. ((c))

    1972

  4. ((d))

    2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1952

The correct answer is 1952.

  • The London smog was observed in the year 1952.

Key Points

  • The London smog 
  • Great Smog of London, lethal smog that covered the city of London for five days (December 5–9) in 1952.
  • It was caused by a combination of industrial pollution and high-pressure weather conditions.
  • This combination of smoke and fog brought the city to a near standstill and resulted in thousands of deaths.
  • Itis is also known as classical smog.
  • Physician Harold Des Veaux coined the word smog in 1905 to describe natural fog contaminated by smoke: smoke + fog yielded smog.

Additional Information

  • Photochemical smog or Los angels smog 
  • This type of smog is prevalent in dry and sunny areas of the world.
  • Automobiles emit smoke which contains hydrocarbons and nitrogen dioxide, these compounds under the action of sunlight become the major component of photochemical smog.
  • This smog contains a high concentration of oxidizing agent hence it is also known as oxidizing smog.
  • It was first observed in Los angels, USA, in 1943.
74

Another name for n-6 polyunsaturated fatty acid is -

  1. ((a))

    Linoleic Acid

  2. ((b))

    Linolenic Acid

  3. ((c))

    Palmitic Acid

  4. ((d))

    Arachidonic Acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Linoleic Acid

The correct answer is Linoleic Acid.

  • Another name for n-6 polyunsaturated fatty acid is​ Linolenic Acid.

Key Points

  • n-6 polyunsaturated fatty acid or PUFA
  • The (n-6) PUFA are derived from the parent compound linoleic acid.
  • They are fatty acids containing at least two double bonds where the first double bond is 6 carbons from the methyl end of the molecule.

Additional Information

  • Omega-3 fats 
  • Omega-3 fats are healthy unsaturated fats.
  • It is important that we get them from the foods we eat.
  • There are three types of omega-3 fats:
  • ALA (alpha linoleic acid)
  • DHA (Docosahexanoic acid)
  • EPA (Eicosapentaenoic acid)
  • Omega-3 fats play a role in brain, nerve and eye development in infants.
  • Omega-6 fats
  • Omega-6 fats are also healthy unsaturated fats.
  • Like omega-3 fats, we need to get omega-6 fats from food in our diet.
  • There are four types of omega-6 fats:
  • LA (Linoleic acid)
  • ARA (Arachidonic Acid)
  • GLA (Gamma linoleic)
  • CLA (Conjugated linoleic acid)
  • Omega-6 fats play an important role in regulating our genes and promoting immune health and blood clotting.
75

The SI Unit of Charge is -

  1. ((a))

    Ampere

  2. ((b))

    Volt

  3. ((c))

    Coulomb

  4. ((d))

    Ohm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Coulomb

The correct answer is Coulomb.

  • The SI Unit of Charge is Coulomb.​

Key Points

  • Coulomb
  • The SI Unit of Charge is Coulomb.
  • It is denoted as C.
  • The coulomb is defined as the quantity of electricity transported in one second by a current of one ampere.

Additional Information

  • Ampere
  • It is denoted as symbol A.
  • It is the SI unit of electric current.
  • Volt
  • The SI unit of electric potential difference is the volt (V) 1 V = 1 W/A.
  • Ohm
  • The ohm (symbol: Ω) is the SI derived unit of electrical resistance.
  • It is named after German physicist Georg Ohm.
76

In an election of two candidates, the candidate who gets 39% votes is rejected by 19800 votes. The total number of votes polled was?

  1. ((a))

    90,000

  2. ((b))

    1,65,000

  3. ((c))

    72,000

  4. ((d))

    61,875

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90,000

Given:

Losing candidate got 39% of total votes

Concept used:

% of winning candidate's vote = % of losing candidate's vote + difference margin 

Calculation:

Let total number of votes be 100x

So losing candidate got (100x × 39/100)

⇒ 39x

So, winning candidate got (100x – 39x)

⇒ 61x

According to the question,

61x – 39x = 19800

⇒ 22x = 19800

⇒ x = 900

⇒ 100x = 90000

⇒ Total polled votes = 90,000

∴ The total number of votes polled was 90,000.

Alternate Method

Total number of votes will always be 100%

So, [19800/{(100 – 39) – 39] × 100

⇒ {19800/(61 – 39)} × 100

⇒ {19800/22} × 100

⇒ 900 × 100

⇒ 90,000

∴ The total number of votes polled was 90,000.

77

Here, two columns in which the numbers given under column - B are the codes for the letters given under column - A. By observing each letter and its code, find out the code for the word NIK.

Column - AColumn - B
S T R O K E3 4 6 1 5 2
T R A I N2 3 7 8 9
K I T E6 2 8 5
T E S T1 2 2 6
  1. ((a))

    895

  2. ((b))

    875

  3. ((c))

    879

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cannot be determined

The code for each letter is shown below:

  1. 895 → I, A/N, K 

  2. 875 → I, A/N, K

  3. 879 → I, A/N, A/N

None of the above given options gives the code for NIK as the code for letter N is not definitely known from the given data.

So, the code for NIK cannot be determined.

Hence, 'Cannot be determined' is the correct answer.

78

An amount of money grows upto ₹ 4850 in 2 years and upto ₹5335 in 3 years on compound interest. The yearly rate of interest is:

  1. ((a))

    8%

  2. ((b))

    9%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    10.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10%

Given:

A sum of money with compound interest in 2 years becomes ₹ 4850.

And the same sum of money with compound interest in 3 years becomes ₹ 5335.

Formula used:

Amount = P{1 + (R/100)}t

Where p = Principal

R = Rate of interest

t = Time

Calculations:

Apply the formula for 2 years

⇒ 4850 = P{1 + (R/100)}2       ----(i)

Now apply the formula for 3 years

⇒ 5335 = P{1 + (R/100)}3       ----(ii)

Now Divide equation (ii) by (i)

53354850=P(1+R100)3P(1+R100)2\frac{ 5335}{4850} = \frac{P {(1 + \frac{R}{100})}^3}{P {(1 + \frac{R}{100})}^2}

1110=(1+R100)3(1+R100)2\frac{ 11}{10} = \frac{{(1 + \frac{R}{100})}^3}{{(1 + \frac{R}{100})}^2}

⇒ 1 + (R/100) = 11/10

⇒ R/100 = (11/10) - 1

⇒ R/100 = 1/10

⇒ R = 10

∴ The Rate of interest is 10%.

79

In the figure given below the difference between number of triangles and rectangles is:

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8

Number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

So, number of triangles = 22

Number of rectangles in the given figure is shown below:

So, number of rectangles = 14

The difference between number of triangles and rectangles = 22 - 14

= 8

Hence, '8' is the correct answer.

80

A and B are sisters. R and S are brothers. A's daughter is R's sister. What is B's relation to S?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Paternal Grandmother

  3. ((c))

    Sister

  4. ((d))

    Maternal Aunt

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Maternal Aunt

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

So, B is the aunt of S.

Hence, ‘Maternal Aunt’ is the correct answer.

81

In two alloys the ratios of copper to tin are 3 : 4 and 1 : 6 respectively. If 7 kg of the first alloy and 21 kg of the second alloy are mixed together to form a new alloy, then the ratio of copper to tin in the new alloy is:

  1. ((a))

    3 : 11

  2. ((b))

    1 : 4

  3. ((c))

    3 : 7

  4. ((d))

    4 : 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3 : 11

Given:

The ratio of copper to tin of 1st alloy = 3 : 4

The ratio of copper to tin of 2nd alloy = 1 : 6

Weight of 1st alloy = 7 kg

Weight of 2nd alloy = 21 kg

Calculation:

The quantity of copper in 7 kg alloy = (3/7) × 7 = 3 kg

The quantity of tin in 7 kg alloy = (4/7) × 7 = 4 kg

The quantity of copper in 21 kg alloy = (1/7) × 21 = 3 kg

The quantity of tin in 21 kg alloy = (6/7) × 21 = 18 kg

New alloy = 1st alloy + 2nd alloy 

Total quantity of copper in new alloy = 3 + 3 = 6 kg

Total quantity of tin in new alloy = 4 + 18 = 22 kg

The ratio of copper to tin in new alloy = 6 : 22 = 3 : 11

 ∴ The ratio of copper to tin in the new alloy is 3 : 11.

82

Here, a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing -

Statement: There is a considerable increase in the number of malaria patients during monsoon period.

Course of Action:

I. The question should be raised in the Legislative Assembly.

II. The government should disseminate adequate information regarding preventive measures to be taken by the people.

III. All the hospitals should be equipped properly for the treatment of malaria patients during monsoon period.

  1. ((a))

    All

  2. ((b))

    Only I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only II and III

  4. ((d))

    Only I and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only II and III

I. It does not follows as doing so will not provide a solution to the problem.

II. It does follows as prevention will help to decrease the number of malaria patients during monsoon period.

III. It does follows as being prepared to provide treatment for malaria will help in the recovery of malaria patients.

Hence, only II and III follows.

83

Study the pie chart given below and answer the question that follows. The total amount collected for flood relief from different sources is shown in the pie chart -

What is the ratio of collection from corporates to Central Government?

  1. ((a))

    11 : 34

  2. ((b))

    1 : 3

  3. ((c))

    2 : 3

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11 : 34

Given:

The percentage of collection from Corporates is 11%.

The percentage of collection from Government servant is 4%.

The percentage of collection from General Public is 2%.

The percentage of collection from State Government is 33%.

The percentage of collection from NRI is 16%.

Calculation:

Let the total percentage be 100.

The percentage of collection from Central Government = [100 - (11 + 4 + 2 + 33 + 16)] = 34

The percentage of collection from Corporates is 11%.

The ratio of collection from corporates to Central Government = 11 : 34 

∴ The ratio of collection from corporates to Central Government is 11 : 34.

84

Next number in the series 15, 35, 77, 143, ______ is -

  1. ((a))

    179

  2. ((b))

    197

  3. ((c))

    219

  4. ((d))

    221

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

221

Concept used:

Prime number: Prime numbers are those numbers that have only one factor and are divisible by themselves.

Example: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 and so on 

Calculation:

15 = 3 × 5

35 = 5 × 7

77 = 7 × 11

143 = 11 × 13

So, the next prime number pair = 13 × 17

⇒ 221

∴ The next number in the series is 221.

85

Here, a statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong argument' and which is a 'weak argument'.

Statement: Should student union election in Universities be banned?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it will help to create an academic atmosphere in Universities.

II. No, we will not find any future political leaders.

  1. ((a))

    only argument I is strong

  2. ((b))

    only argument II is strong

  3. ((c))

    neither I nor II is strong

  4. ((d))

    both I and II are strong arguments

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

only argument I is strong

I. Argument I is strong as the student union election in Universities disturb the healthy environment of Universities. So, stopping it will help in creating an academic atmosphere in Universities.

II. Argument II is not strong as Student Union is not the only way of creating future political leaders. 

Hence, only argument I is strong.

86

Why was the 'Walled City of Jaipur' in the news recently?

  1. ((a))

    The commercial run of Metro Train has started inside the walled city.

  2. ((b))

    A long tunnel of Medieval times has been discovered under the walled city.

  3. ((c))

    Government permitted the markets of the walled city to remain open round the clock.

  4. ((d))

    The walled city has been proposed as the UNESCO World Heritage site.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The walled city has been proposed as the UNESCO World Heritage site.

The correct answer is The walled city has been proposed as the UNESCO World Heritage site.

  • The 'Walled City of Jaipur' in the news recently because the walled city has been proposed as the UNESCO World Heritage site.

Key Points

  • The walled city of Jaipur
  • The walled city of Jaipur in Rajasthan was founded in 1727 by Sawai Jai Singh II.
  • Unlike other cities in the region located in hilly terrain, Jaipur was established on the plain and built according to a grid plan interpreted in the light of Vedic architecture.

Additional Information

  • Other places recommended by UNESCO in Rajasthan 
  • Chittorgarh Fort
  • Kumbalgarh Fort
  • Gagron Fort
  • Amber or Amer Fort
  • Jaisalmer Fort
  • Ranthambore Fort
  • Keoladeo National Park
  • Jantar Mantar
87

Who is Prateek Hajela?

  1. ((a))

    India's new ambassador to Russia.

  2. ((b))

    Newly appointed Election Commissioner of India.

  3. ((c))

    Newly appointed governor of Jammu & Kashmir.

  4. ((d))

    Assam state coordinator of the National Register of Citizens.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Assam state coordinator of the National Register of Citizens.

The correct answer is ​Assam state coordinator of the National Register of Citizens.

  • Prateek Hajela is an ​Assam state coordinator of the National Register of Citizens.

Key Points

  • About Prateek Hajela
  • ​Prateek Hajela is a 1995-batch IAS officer.
  • He is an IAS officer of the Assam-Meghalaya cadre
  • He remained in controversy after the exclusion of nearly 40 lakh people from Assam's NRC list.

Additional Information

  • NRC
  • ​The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register of all Indian citizens.
  • Its creation is mandated by the 2003 amendment of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
  • Its purpose is to document all the legal citizens of India so that the illegal immigrants can be identified and deported.
88

The head of the Prime Minister's Science, Technology and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) is -

  1. ((a))

    K. Vijay Raghavan

  2. ((b))

    A. S. Kiran Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Manjul Bhargava

  4. ((d))

    V. K. Saraswat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K. Vijay Raghavan

The correct answer is K. Vijay Raghavan.

  • The head of the Prime Minister's Science, Technology and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) is K. Vijay Raghavan.

Key Points

  • Professor Krishnaswamy VijayRaghavan FRS. Professor Krishnaswamy VijayRaghavan FRS succeeded Dr R. Chidambaram as the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India on April 3, 2018.
  • Professor Krishnaswamy VijayRaghavan
  • He also served as Secretary, Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India, from January 2013 to January 2018.
  • He also served as the Director of the National Centre for Biological Sciences, Bengaluru.

Additional Information

  • The Prime Minister's Science, Technology and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC)
  • In November 1999, Cabinet Secretariat established the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
  • The PSA’s office aims to provide pragmatic and objective advice to the Prime Minister and Cabinet on matters related to science, technology and innovation.
  • It focuses on the application of science and technology in critical infrastructure, economic and social sectors in partnership with Government departments, institutions and industry.
  • This council facilitates the PSA’s Office to assess the status in specific science and technology domains, comprehend challenges, formulate interventions, develop a futuristic roadmap and advise the Prime Minister accordingly.
  • The project management team at investing India, together with the office of the PSA, facilitate the delivery and progress of all Nine national missions under PM-STIAC.
89

BIMSTEC permanent Secretariat is situated at?

  1. ((a))

    Dhaka

  2. ((b))

    Bangkok

  3. ((c))

    Colombo

  4. ((d))

    Thimphu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dhaka

The correct answer is Dhaka.

  • 'BIMSTEC's permanent Secretariat is situated in Dhaka.

Key Points

  • The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) which was launched as a sub-regional grouping on 6th June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, was finally anchored with a Permanent Secretariat in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
  • The BIMSTEC Secretariat was officially inaugurated in Dhaka, Bangladesh on 13 September 2014 by Her Excellency Sheikh Hasina, Honourable Prime Minister of Bangladesh.

Additional Information

  • About BIMSTEC
  • ​The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.
  • This sub-regional organization came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
  • It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
  • Initially, the economic bloc was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).
  • Following the inclusion of Myanmar on 22 December 1997 during a special Ministerial Meeting in Bangkok, the Group was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).
  • With the admission of Nepal and Bhutan at the 6th Ministerial Meeting (February 2004, Thailand), the name of the grouping was changed to ‘Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation’ (BIMSTEC).
90

Who has become the first Indian gymnast to clinch an individual medal at the Gymnastics World Cup in Melbourne on February 24, 2018?

  1. ((a))

    Deepa Karmakar

  2. ((b))

    Rohan More

  3. ((c))

    Aruna Budda Reddy

  4. ((d))

    Deepak Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Aruna Budda Reddy

The correct answer is Aruna Budda Reddy.

  • Aruna Budda Reddy has become the first Indian gymnast to clinch an individual medal at the Gymnastics World Cup in Melbourne on February 24, 2018.

Key Points

  • Aruna Budda Reddy
  • Aruna Budda Reddy became the first Indian gymnast to clinch an individual medal at the Gymnastics World Cup in Melbourne by securing bronze in the women's vault.
  • Reddy, 22, scored 13.649 to finish behind gold medallist Tjasa Kysslef of Slovenia and Emily Whitehead of Australia who took silver.

Additional Information

  • Dipa Karmakar
  • In July 2018, Karmakar became the first Indian gymnast to win a gold medal at a global event, when she finished first in the vault event of the FIG Artistic Gymnastics World Challenge Cup at Mersin, Turkey.
  • She was the first Indian female gymnast to represent the country at the Olympics and the first Indian gymnast to do so in 52 years.
  • ​Indian gymnastics famous players
  • ​Dipa Karmakar
  • Ashish Kumar
  • Aruna Budda Reddy
91

The winner of the US Open Tennis-2018 Women's Singles title is -

  1. ((a))

    Serena Williams

  2. ((b))

    Simona Halep

  3. ((c))

    Naomi Osaka

  4. ((d))

    Madison Keys

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Naomi Osaka

The correct answer is Naomi Osaka.

  • The winner of the US Open Tennis-2018 Women's Singles title is Naomi Osaka.

Key Points

  • Naomi Osaka 
  • Naomi Osaka is a Japanese professional tennis player.
  • She is a four-time Grand Slam singles champion and is the reigning champion at the US Open and the Australian Open.
  • Naomi Osaka shocked Serena Williams, 6-2, 6-4, in an emotional final that left both players in tears to win the 2018 US Open women's singles titles Saturday, becoming the first Japanese player to win a major singles title in the history of the sport.

Additional Information

  • The United States Open Tennis Championships
  • The United States Open Tennis Championships is a hard court tennis tournament.
  • The tournament is the modern version of one of the oldest tennis championships in the world.
  • The U.S. National Championship, for which men's singles and men's doubles were first played in 1881.
92

Till now who among the following is the Youngest Indian player to win a medal in the Asian Games?

  1. ((a))

    Saurabh Chaudhary

  2. ((b))

    Shardul Vihan

  3. ((c))

    Vinesh Phogat

  4. ((d))

    Hima Das

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Saurabh Chaudhary

The correct answer is Saurabh Chaudhary.

  • Saurabh Chaudhary​ is the Youngest Indian player to win a medal in the Asian Games.

Key Points

  • Saurabh Chaudhary 
  • Saurabh Chaudhary is India's youngest Asian Games individual gold medallist.
  • He won the gold medal at the 2018 Asian Games in 10 m Air Pistol.
  • He was the youngest Indian gold medalist at the Asian Games.

Additional Information

  • PV Sindhu
  • PV Sindhu became India's youngest individual Olympic medalist after winning the silver medal in the singles badminton event at the Rio Olympics.
  • She also became the first-ever Indian woman to win the Silver medal at the Olympics.
93

The objective of the Panini Language Laboratory is -

  1. ((a))

    To develop Sanskrit as the medium of education.

  2. ((b))

    To research on the utility of Sanskrit as a computer language.

  3. ((c))

    To promote reading and writing of Hindi and other Indian languages.

  4. ((d))

    To preserve the nearly extinct Indian languages.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To promote reading and writing of Hindi and other Indian languages.

The correct answer is To promote reading and writing of Hindi and other Indian languages.

  • The objective of the Panini Language Laboratory is to promote the reading and writing of Hindi and other Indian languages.

Key Points

  • Panini language lab
  • Panini language lab aims to promote reading and writing Hindi amongst the young generation and its further development.
  • It will serve as a medium to generate more interest in learning Hindi amongst youngsters thereby strengthening the language.
  • It has been established in Mauritius with support from the Indian External Affairs Ministry.

Additional Information

  • Panini language laboratory was inaugurated at Mahatma Gandhi institute in Mauritius to promote reading and writing Hindi amongst the young and its further development.
  • It was launched by External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj on the sidelines of the 11th World Hindi Conference held in Mauritius.
  • Various Indian languages installed by Indian IT professionals to aid students of junior, middle and high schools to assimilate new techniques of language learning and hearing, pronunciation, reading and writing through easy and scientific ways.
94

From the following players of Rajasthan, identify the one who won a medal in an individual event in the recently held Asian Games 2018 -

  1. ((a))

    Rajat Chauhan

  2. ((b))

    Apurvi Chandela

  3. ((c))

    Om Prakash

  4. ((d))

    Raju Lal Chaudhary

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Om Prakash

The correct answer is ​Om Prakash.

  • ​Om Prakash won a medal in an individual event in the recently held Asian Games 2018.

Key Points

  • Om Prakash
  • Om Prakash is an Indian rower from Rajasthan.
  • He won the gold medal in the 2018 Asian Games in Men's Quadruple Sculls.

Additional Information

  • Rajat Chauhan
  • Rajat Chauhan is an Indian Archer. Rajat Chauhan created history by winning a silver medal in the World Archery Championships in Copenhagen.
  • He won the Gold Medal Asian Games 2014 in Incheon.
  • Apurvi Singh Chandela 
  • Apurvi Singh Chandela is a Shooting player from Rajasthan in the 10-metre air rifle event.
  • She won the gold medal in the 2019 ISSF World Cup in New Delhi.
  • She is the world champion and currently ranked number one in 10-metre air rifle shooting.
  • She is a recipient of the Arjuna award.
  • Raju Lal Chaudhary
  • Raju Lal Choudhary is a Kabaddi player from Rajasthan.
95

Read the following statements about 'COMCASA' -

  1. It is an agreement between the Indian and USA governments.
  2. It will enhance cultural relations between the two nations.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

The correct answer is 1 only.

  • COMCASA is one of the four foundational agreements that the U.S. signs with allies and close partners to facilitate interoperability between militaries and the sale of high-end technology.

Key Points

  • COMCASA
  • ​COMCASA stands for Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement.
  • COMCASA is an India-specific version of the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA) between India and the USA.
  • It comes into force immediately and is valid for a period of 10 years.
  • COMCASA allows India to procure transfer specialised equipment for encrypted communications for US origin military platforms like the C-17, C-130 and P-8Is.

Additional Information

  • India and the USA
  • The agreement COMCASA was signed by US secretary of defence Jim Mattis and Indian defence minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
  • In August 2016, both countries had also signed the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) that lays down the guidelines for reciprocal use of each other’s military facilities.
  • The third ‘foundational’ agreement, is the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA).
96

Consider the following statements about the US senator John Mc.Cain -

(a) He was a Senator from Arizona.

(b) He was the Republican Party nominee in the US presidential election of 2008.

Which of the above statement/statements are true?

  1. ((a))

    Only (a) is true

  2. ((b))

    Only (b) is true

  3. ((c))

    Both (a) and (b) are true

  4. ((d))

    Neither (a) nor (b) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both (a) and (b) are true

The correct answer is Both (a) and (b) are true.

  • The US senator John Mc.Cain -
  • He was a Senator from Arizona.
  • He was the Republican Party nominee in the US presidential election of 2008.

Key Points

  • The US senator John Mc.Cain
  • ​John Sidney McCain III was an American politician and the United States Navy officer.
  • He served as the United States Senator for Arizona from 1987 until his death in 2018.
  • He served two terms in the United States House of Representatives.
  • He was the Republican nominee for president of the United States in the 2008 election, which he lost to Barack Obama.

Additional Information

  • The United States Senate
  • The United States is the upper chamber of the United States Congress.
  • Along with the United States House of Representatives, the lower chamber constitutes the legislature of the United States.
  • The Senate chamber is located in Washington, D.C.
97

Consider the following statements about the Annapurna milk scheme -

(a) CM Raje launched the scheme at the government school in Jaipur.

(b) Under the scheme, students of Class I to V will get 150 mL and those in class VI to VIII will get 200 mL of hot milk thrice a week.

(c) In urban areas the milk will be provided on Monday, Wednesday and Friday.

From the above statements, which of the following is/are true?

  1. ((a))

    only (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b) & (c)

  3. ((c))

    (a) & (b)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) & (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a), (b) & (c)

The correct answer is (a), (b) & (c).

Key Points

  • The Annapurna milk scheme main features
  • ​To ensure a regular supply of fresh milk to the school students.
  • It was launched by former CM Raje at the government school in Jaipur. Hence statement 1 is true.
  • Under the scheme, students of Class I to V will get 150 mL and those in class VI to VIII will get 200 mL of hot milk thrice a week. Hence the statement 3 is true.
  • With an aim to increasing enrollment in government schools, the Annapurna Milk Scheme in which students will get a glass of milk three a week.
  • Every student of class I to V will be provided 150 ml and students of class VI to VIII will be provided 200 ml of milk. Hence statement 2 is true.
  • The students will be given milk immediately after the school assembly.

Important Points

  • The state government had recently shut down the Annapurna Milk Scheme for school children in the coming months because of execution problems and budget constraints.
98

Who is appointed as the new chairperson of the Lalit Kala Academy?

  1. ((a))

    M. L. Srivastav

  2. ((b))

    Brij Bhushan

  3. ((c))

    P. Krishna Shetty

  4. ((d))

    Uttam Pacharne

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uttam Pacharne

The correct answer is Uttam Pacharne.

  • On 17 May 2018, President Ram Nath Kovind appointed Uttam Pacharne, an artist and sculptor as chairman of the Lalit Kala Akademi.

Key Points

  • Uttam Pacharne
  • ​He also served as a member of the advisory committee, Kala Academy, Goa, and member of the advisory committee, P L Deshpande State Lalit Kala Academy and director, Janseva Sahakari Bank, Borivali.
  • He is the recipient of the National Lalit Kala Award 1985, Maharashtra Gaurav Puraska 1985 from the Government of Maharashtra, Junior National Award 1986, and Jeevan Gaurav Puraskar 2017 from Prafulla Dahanukar Foundation.

Additional Information

  • The Lalit Kala Akademi
  • The Lalit Kala Akademi was inaugurated in New Delhi on August 5th, 1954, by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
  • The youngest of the three Academies founded by the Government of India, the Lalit Kala Akademi was established in pursuance of the dream of the first Prime Minister of independent India, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru for cultural and national identity.
  • Thus the Lalit Kala Akademi was one of three such national organizations, that emerged.
  • The LKA was the principal establishment to direct its focus on activities in the field of visual arts.
99

Besides Sonam Wangchuk, the other Indian who won the Ramon Magsaysay Award this year (2018) is -

  1. ((a))

    Sanjeev Chaturvedi

  2. ((b))

    Bezwada Wilson

  3. ((c))

    Bharat Vatwani

  4. ((d))

    Prakash Amte

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bharat Vatwani

The correct answer is Bharat Vatwani.

  • Besides Sonam Wangchuk, Bharat Vatwani won the Ramon Magsaysay Award in the year (2018).

Key Points

  • The Magsaysay Award 2018
  • The Magsaysay Award 2018 had been conferred upon Sonam Wangchuk for his work in education and science in Ladakh.
  • Along with Wangchuk, Bharat Vatwani had also been recognised for his contributions to mental health.

Additional Information

  • The Magsaysay Award 
  • The prize was established in April 1957 by the trustees of the Rockefeller Brothers Fund based in New York City with the concurrence of the Philippine government.
  • The award is named after Ramon Magsaysay, the third president of the Republic of the Philippines after World War II.
  • The Ramon Magsaysay Award is Asia's highest honour.
  • It is given every year to individuals or organisations in Asia who manifest the same selfless service and transformative influence.
100

Jinson Johnson won two medals in the recently concluded Asian games - 2018.

Mark the correct description of his Medals -

  1. ((a))

    Gold in 1500 m. race and silver in 800 m. race

  2. ((b))

    Gold in 1500 m. race and Bronze in 800 m. race

  3. ((c))

    Silver in 1500 m. race and Bronze in 800 m. race

  4. ((d))

    Gold in 800 m. race and Silver in 1500 m. race

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gold in 1500 m. race and silver in 800 m. race

The correct answer is Gold in 1500 m. race and silver in 800 m. race

  • Jinson Johnson won two medals in the Asian games - 2018 - Gold in 1500 m. race and silver in 800 m. race

Key Points

  • About Jinson Johnson 
  • Jinson Johnson comes from the ​Kozhikode district of Kerala.
  • He also won 800 metres silver at the 2015 Asian Athletics Championships held in Wuhan.
  • Jinson Johnson also qualified for the 800m at Rio 2016.

Additional Information

  • Asian games:
  • ​The Asian Games, also known as Asiad.
  • It is a continental multi-sport event.
  • It is held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
  • 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta-Palembang, Indonesia
  • 2022 Asian Games, also known as XIX Asiad, will be held in Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China from 10 to 25 September 2022.

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