Previous Year Paper

NDA-I 2024 (GAT) Official Paper (Held On: 21 April, 2024) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

150 questions150 minutes
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.

  1. AOption (a)

    reprehensible

  2. BOption (b)

    opprobrious

  3. COption (c)

    despicable

  4. DOption (d)

    commendable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

commendable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. commendable.

Key Points

  • The word "deplorable" means something deserving strong condemnation; shockingly bad in quality. (शर्मनाक)
  • Example: The living conditions in the slum were deplorable.
  • "Commendable" refers to something that is deserving praise or admiration. (प्रशंसनीय)
  • Example: Her efforts in organizing the charity event were truly commendable.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'deplorable' is 'commendable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. commendable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Reprehensible (निंदनीय): Deserving censure or condemnation.
  • Example: His actions were reprehensible and shocked everyone.
  • Opprobrious (अपमानजनक): Expressing scorn or criticism.
  • Example: She was subjected to opprobrious remarks by her peers.
  • Despicable (घृणित): Deserving hatred and contempt.
  • Example: The villain's despicable actions made him the most hated character in the story.

Question 2

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

These exercises will counteract the effects of stress and tension.

  1. AOption (a)

    exacerbate

  2. BOption (b)

    foil

  3. COption (c)

    thwart

  4. DOption (d)

    contravene

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

exacerbate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. exacerbate.

Key Points

  • The word "counteract" means to act against something in order to reduce its force or neutralize it. (प्रतिक्रिया करना)
  • Example: Drinking water can counteract the dehydrating effects of caffeine.
  • "Exacerbate" means to make a problem, bad situation, or negative feeling worse. (बिगाड़ना)
  • Example: His angry comments have exacerbated tensions in the negotiation.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'counteract' is 'exacerbate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. exacerbate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Foil (विफल करना): To prevent someone or something from succeeding.
  • Example: The police foiled the robbery attempt at the bank.
  • Thwart (विफल करना): To prevent someone from accomplishing something.
  • Example: The security guard thwarted the thief's plan to steal the jewels.
  • Contravene (उल्लंघन करना): To do something that is not allowed by a law or rule.
  • Example: The new policy contravenes the existing regulations.

Question 3

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

You have to persevere with difficult students.

  1. AOption (a)

    give up

  2. BOption (b)

    persist

  3. COption (c)

    carry on

  4. DOption (d)

    stand firm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

give up

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. give up.

Key Points

  • The word "persevere" means to continue in a course of action even in the face of difficulty or with little or no indication of success. (दृढ़ रहना)
  • Example: Despite the challenges, she decided to persevere with her studies.
  • "give up" means to cease making an effort; to stop trying. (हार मान लेना)
  • Example: He decided to give up after multiple failed attempts.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'persevere' is 'give up'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. give up.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • persist (दृढ़ रहना): To continue firmly or obstinately in an opinion or a course of action in spite of difficulty, opposition, or failure.
  • Example: She persisted in her efforts to improve her performance.
  • carry on (जारी रखना): To continue doing something.
  • Example: Despite the interruptions, he decided to carry on with his work.
  • stand firm (दृढ़ खड़ा रहना): To refuse to change one's decision or opinion.
  • Example: She stood firm in her belief despite criticism.

Question 4

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Their new colour scheme is hideous.

  1. AOption (a)

    appalling

  2. BOption (b)

    beautiful

  3. COption (c)

    grotesque

  4. DOption (d)

    macabre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

beautiful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 (beautiful).

Key Points

  • The word "hideous" means something that is extremely ugly or unpleasant to look at. (विकराल)
  • Example: The monster in the movie was so hideous that it gave me nightmares.
  • "Beautiful" refers to something that is pleasing to the senses or mind, especially in appearance. (सुंदर)
  • Example: The sunset over the mountains was absolutely beautiful.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'hideous' is 'beautiful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (beautiful).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Appalling (भयावह): Something that is shocking or horrifying.
  • Example: The conditions in the refugee camp were appalling.
  • Grotesque (विकृत): Something that is comically or repulsively ugly or distorted.
  • Example: The gargoyles on the old cathedral were grotesque.
  • Macabre (भयानक): Something that is disturbing and horrifying because it involves death or injury.
  • Example: The novel's plot is filled with macabre scenes.

Question 5

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Everywhere they go, they squander their earnings.

  1. AOption (a)

    fritter away

  2. BOption (b)

    splurge

  3. COption (c)

    squabble

  4. DOption (d)

    manage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

manage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. manage.

Key Points

  • The word "squander" means to waste something, especially money or time, in a reckless and foolish manner. (अपव्यय करना)
  • Example: He squandered all his savings on gambling.
  • "Manage" refers to the act of handling or controlling something with skill and efficiency. (प्रबंधन करना)
  • Example: She manages her finances very wisely.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'squander' is 'manage'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. manage.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fritter away (बरबाद करना): To waste time, money, or energy on trifling matters.
  • Example: He frittered away his inheritance on unnecessary luxuries.
  • Splurge (फिजूलखर्ची करना): To spend money freely or extravagantly.
  • Example: She decided to splurge on a new dress for the party.
  • Squabble (झगड़ा करना): To engage in a petty quarrel.
  • Example: The siblings often squabble over trivial matters.

Directions: In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The Earth's climate is _______ (1) changing and evolving. Some of ______ (2) changes have been due to natural causes but others can be attributed to__________(3) activities such as deforestation, emissions from industry and transport, etc., which have led to the__________.(4) of gases and aerosols in (5) atmosphere.  These gases are known as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and(6) air temperatures near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the______(7) In order to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity_________(8) assessment of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme___________(9) Many important bilateral and multilateral meetings and negotiations are held_________(10) regular intervals.

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (1)?

  1. AOption (a)

    passionately

  2. BOption (b)

    continually

  3. COption (c)

    deadly

  4. DOption (d)

    thoughtfully

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

continually

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (2)' i.e. 'continually'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "The Earth's climate is _______ changing and evolving" suggests an ongoing process.
  • "Continually" means something that happens repeatedly or constantly over a period of time, which fits well with the context of climate change occurring progressively.
  • The other options, such as "passionately," "deadly," and "thoughtfully," do not convey the idea of a process that occurs over time.
  • The sentence requires an adverb that describes an ongoing, uninterrupted action, which "continually" effectively provides.

Therefore, the correct answer is- continually.

Additional Information

  • Passionately: Implies doing something with strong emotion or zeal, not suitable for describing processes or changes in climate.
  • Deadly: Implies that something has the potential to cause death, which does not fit well in describing the nature of climate change.
  • Thoughtfully: Implies doing something with careful consideration or thought, which is inappropriate in the context of describing natural processes.

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (2)?

  1. AOption (a)

    these

  2. BOption (b)

    those

  3. COption (c)

    this

  4. DOption (d)

    that

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

these

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (1)' i.e. 'these'.

Key Points

  • The passage talks about changes that have been occurring. The phrase "Some of ______ (2) changes" requires a demonstrative pronoun that refers back to something recently mentioned.
  • "These" is used to refer to multiple items that are close in concept or time, fitting the context of ongoing changes in the climate.
  • The other options are either singular like "this" and "that," or refer to something further away in concept, like "those."
  • Using "these" specifies the changes being discussed and aligns with the closer context of "the Earth's climate" and its changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is- these.

Additional Information

  • Those: Refers to multiple items but suggests they are further away in concept or time, which doesn't align well with the previously mentioned changes.
  • This: Refers to a singular item, which is not appropriate for referring to multiple changes.
  • That: Also refers to a singular item, making it unsuitable for the plural "changes."

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (3)?

  1. AOption (a)

    practical

  2. BOption (b)

    geological

  3. COption (c)

    human

  4. DOption (d)

    animal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

human

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (3)' i.e. 'human'.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses two types of changes in the Earth's climate: those due to natural causes and those attributed to certain activities.
  • The blank (3) refers to activities such as deforestation and emissions from industry and transport. These activities are the result of human intervention.
  • "Human" correctly identifies the source of these activities, contrasting with natural causes.
  • The other options do not fit the context of the activities described. "Practical" refers to something being useful, "geological" refers to earth processes, and "animal" refers to living organisms other than humans.

Therefore, the correct answer is- human.

Additional Information

  • Practical: Means useful or suited for actual use, which doesn’t describe the source of activities like deforestation and emissions.
  • Geological: Relates to physical processes of the Earth, inappropriate for describing human activities such as industrial emissions.
  • Animal: Refers to non-human living organisms, which doesn't fit the context of deforestation and industrial emissions.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (4)?

  1. AOption (a)

    assimilation

  2. BOption (b)

    absolution

  3. COption (c)

    collection

  4. DOption (d)

    accumulation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

accumulation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (4)' i.e. 'accumulation'.

Key Points

  • The passage describes how activities such as deforestation and emissions from industry and transport lead to the increase of gases and aerosols in the atmosphere.
  • "Accumulation" refers to the gradual gathering or amassing of substances, fitting the idea of gases and aerosols building up in the atmosphere over time.
  • The other options do not convey the same sense of a gradual build-up.

Therefore, the correct answer is- accumulation.

Additional Information

  • Assimilation: Refers to the process of taking in and fully understanding information or ideas, or the absorption of nutrients, which doesn't fit the context of gases building up in the atmosphere.
  • Absolution: Refers to the formal release from guilt, obligation, or punishment, which is not relevant in this context.
  • Collection: Refers to a group of things accumulated over a period of time, but it is not as contextually fitting as "accumulation," which specifically conveys the ongoing process of gathering and building up.

Question 10

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (5)?

  1. AOption (a)

    an

  2. BOption (b)

    a

  3. COption (c)

    the

  4. DOption (d)

    no article

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

no article

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (4)' i.e. 'no article'.

Key Points

  • The sentence structure "which have led to the accumulation of gases and aerosols in atmosphere." does not require an article before "atmosphere" when referring to it in a general sense.
  • Using "no article" is appropriate in this context, as in scientific and formal writing, "atmosphere" without an article is standard when discussing it in a general and broad sense.

Therefore, the correct answer is- no article.

Additional Information

  • An: Used before words that start with a vowel sound, but not appropriate here.
  • A: Used before words that start with a consonant sound, but also not needed here.
  • The: Used to refer to specific or particular items; it would be redundant in this broad, general context.

Question 11

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (6)?

  1. AOption (a)

    raise

  2. BOption (b)

    hike

  3. COption (c)

    rise

  4. DOption (d)

    balance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

raise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (1)' i.e. 'raise'.

Key Points

  • The sentence discusses the effect of greenhouse gases, which "trap heat and raise air temperatures near the ground."
  • "Raise" means to elevate or increase, which accurately describes the effect of greenhouse gases on air temperature.
  • The other options do not fit as precisely in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- raise.

Additional Information

  • Hike: Typically used informally to describe a sudden or large increase in prices or rates; not commonly used in this scientific context.
  • Rise: incorrect in this context because "rise" as a verb is intransitive, meaning it does not take a direct object. It describes something that elevates by itself, e.g., "Temperatures rise."
  • Balance: Implies making or keeping equal or stable, which is contrary to the described effect of greenhouse gases.

Question 12

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (7)?

  1. AOption (a)

    crust

  2. BOption (b)

    core

  3. COption (c)

    mantle

  4. DOption (d)

    planet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

planet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (4)' i.e. 'planet'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the planet" refers to the Earth as a whole.
  • "Planet" is the most appropriate word as it accurately reflects the context of global environmental effects.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Planet'.

Additional Information

  • Crust: Refers to the Earth's outermost layer but is too specific and not appropriate in this context.
  • Core: Refers to the Earth's innermost part, which is not relevant here.
  • Mantle: Refers to the layer between the Earth's crust and core, which is also not relevant in this context.

Question 13

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (8)?

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    of

  3. COption (c)

    in

  4. DOption (d)

    to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

for

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (1)' i.e. 'for'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "capacity for assessment of climate change" is idiomatic and grammatically correct.
  • "For" indicates the purpose or objective of strengthening the capacity.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'For'.

Additional Information

  • Of: Would indicate possession but does not correctly convey the intended purpose.
  • In: Might imply location or participate but does not fit well with "capacity".
  • To: Would indicate a direction or relationship but is not idiomatically correct in this context.

Question 14

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (9)?

  1. AOption (a)

    are developed

  2. BOption (b)

    are initiated

  3. COption (c)

    have developed

  4. DOption (d)

    have initiated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

are initiated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (2)' i.e. 'are initiated'.

Key Points

  • The sentence structure indicates ongoing or recently started actions, making "are initiated" the most appropriate choice.
  • "Are initiated" refers to the starting of studies which fits the context where different studies are commenced under a specific program.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Are initiated'.

Additional Information

  • Are developed: Suggests the studies have been completed, which does not fit the context as well as "are initiated."
  • Have developed: incorrect here because it implies that the studies themselves have evolved or grown, rather than simply been initiated or started under the program.
  • Have initiated: Incorrect usage; the correct form would involve "have been initiated."

Question 15

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in blank space (10)?

  1. AOption (a)

    with

  2. BOption (b)

    at

  3. COption (c)

    in

  4. DOption (d)

    on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

at

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option (2)' i.e. 'at'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "at regular intervals" is idiomatic and commonly used to indicate periodic occurrences.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'at'.

Additional Information

  • With: Incorrect preposition in this context.
  • In: Incorrect preposition for indicating intervals.
  • On: Incorrect preposition for indicating intervals.

Question 16

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives, Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He paused

  1. AOption (a)

    with a few moments.

  2. BOption (b)

    for a few moments.

  3. COption (c)

    by a few moments.

  4. DOption (d)

    into a few moments.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

for a few moments.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'for a few moments'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "for a few moments" is commonly used to indicate a short pause or break in time.
  • Other prepositions like "with," "by," and "into" do not correctly convey the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • "For" is the appropriate preposition to describe the duration of the pause.
  • The sentence "He paused for a few moments" is grammatically correct and clearly understood.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'for a few moments'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "with a few moments" - "With" is not the correct preposition to indicate a pause. It suggests accompaniment, which is not suitable here.
  • Option 3: "by a few moments" - "By" is not appropriate in this context. It might suggest the means or agent, but not the duration of a pause.
  • Option 4: "into a few moments" - "Into" suggests movement or transformation, which does not make sense in the context of pausing.

Question 17

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Late at night, our car

  1. AOption (a)

    broke down on the highway.

  2. BOption (b)

    broke up on the highway.

  3. COption (c)

    broke into the highway.

  4. DOption (d)

    broke out on the highway.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

broke down on the highway.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. broke down on the highway.

Key Points

  • The phrase "broke down" is a common term used to describe a vehicle that has stopped functioning properly.
  • The other options do not fit the context of a car experiencing mechanical failure.
  • "Broke up" typically refers to the end of a relationship or separation into pieces, which does not apply here.
  • "Broke into" implies entering a place illegally, which is not relevant to the context of a car on the highway.
  • "Broke out" usually means to escape or start suddenly, which is again not relevant in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. broke down on the highway.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "Broke up" is used for ending relationships or breaking into pieces, not suitable for a car on a highway.
  • Option 3: "Broke into" means entering a place forcefully or illegally, irrelevant in the context of a car.
  • Option 4: "Broke out" means to escape or start suddenly, also irrelevant for describing a car's mechanical failure.

Question 18

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

All the countries signed the treaty

  1. AOption (a)

    beneath Germany and France.

  2. BOption (b)

    except Germany and France.

  3. COption (c)

    among Germany and France.

  4. DOption (d)

    during Germany and France.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

except Germany and France.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. except Germany and France.

Key Points

  • The phrase "except Germany and France" correctly indicates that all countries, other than Germany and France, signed the treaty.
  • "Except" is used to specify exclusion, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • The other options do not correctly convey the intended meaning of exclusion.
  • This option provides a clear and grammatically correct way to complete the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is except Germany and France.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "beneath Germany and France" - This phrase suggests a physical position under Germany and France, which does not make sense in the context of signing a treaty.
  • Option 3: "among Germany and France" - This phrase implies inclusion within Germany and France, which is incorrect as it doesn't convey the intended meaning of exclusion.
  • Option 4: "during Germany and France" - This phrase suggests a time period related to Germany and France, which is irrelevant to the context of signing a treaty.

Question 19

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives, Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I reminded her

  1. AOption (a)

    to turn off the lights at night.

  2. BOption (b)

    to call off the lights at night.

  3. COption (c)

    to drop off the lights at night.

  4. DOption (d)

    to break off the lights at night.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to turn off the lights at night.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. to turn off the lights at night.

Key Points

  • The phrase "turn off the lights" is the correct and commonly used expression for switching off the lights.
  • "Call off," "drop off," and "break off" do not make sense in the context of lights and are incorrect usage.
  • In English, "turn off" is the appropriate phrasal verb used with lights, appliances, or any electrical devices.
  • The sentence "I reminded her to turn off the lights at night" is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: to turn off the lights at night.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: to call off the lights at night - "Call off" means to cancel or postpone and is not used with lights.
  • Option 3: to drop off the lights at night - "Drop off" means to deliver or leave something/someone at a particular place, which does not apply to lights.
  • Option 4: to break off the lights at night - "Break off" means to end or discontinue something abruptly and is not used with lights.

Question 20

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

They told us about the woman

  1. AOption (a)

    whom lived next door.

  2. BOption (b)

    which lived next door.

  3. COption (c)

    who lived next door.

  4. DOption (d)

    whose lived next door.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

who lived next door.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. who lived next door.

Key Points

  • The word "who" is used as a subject pronoun for people.
  • The sentence requires a relative pronoun to introduce the clause about the woman living next door.
  • "Whom" is used as an object pronoun, which is not appropriate here.
  • The correct relative pronoun in this context is "who" as it refers to the subject "woman".

Therefore, the correct answer is who lived next door.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "whom lived next door" - "Whom" is incorrect here as it is used for the object of a verb or preposition, not the subject.
  • Option 2: "which lived next door" - "Which" is used for things, not people, so it is not suitable.
  • Option 4: "whose lived next door" - "Whose" is a possessive pronoun, which does not fit the context of this sentence.

Question 21

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I'll see you

  1. AOption (a)

    at the end of February.

  2. BOption (b)

    on the end of February.

  3. COption (c)

    along the end of February.

  4. DOption (d)

    for the end of February.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

at the end of February.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'at the end of February'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "at the end of" is the correct idiomatic expression in English to indicate a specific point in time.
  • Other prepositions like "on," "along," and "for" do not convey the intended meaning in this context.
  • "On the end of February" is incorrect because "on" is used to refer to specific days and dates, not periods.
  • "Along the end of February" and "for the end of February" are grammatically incorrect and do not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- at the end of February

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "on the end of February" - "On" is used for specific days and dates, not for periods of time. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
  • Option 3: "along the end of February" - "Along" is used for indicating movement or a path, which makes this option incorrect in this context.
  • Option 4: "for the end of February" - "For" is used to indicate a purpose or duration, which does not fit the context here.

Question 22

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives, Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I dislike films

  1. AOption (a)

    who have sad endings.

  2. BOption (b)

    that have sad endings.

  3. COption (c)

    whose have sad endings.

  4. DOption (d)

    whom have sad endings.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

that have sad endings.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'that have sad endings'.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, 'films' is the noun that needs to be described by a relative clause.
  • The correct relative pronoun to use with 'films' is 'that' when referring to things.
  • The phrase 'that have sad endings' correctly describes the films.
  • The other options use incorrect relative pronouns or incorrect forms.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'that have sad endings'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: 'who have sad endings' - 'who' is used for people, not for things like films.
  • Option 3: 'whose have sad endings' - 'whose' is a possessive pronoun and is incorrectly used here.
  • **Option 4: '**whom have sad endings' - 'whom' is used as the object of a verb or preposition and is incorrect here.

Question 23

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives, Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The thieves denied

  1. AOption (a)

    having stealing the money.

  2. BOption (b)

    stealing the money.

  3. COption (c)

    had stolen the money.

  4. DOption (d)

    having to steal the money.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

stealing the money.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. stealing the money.

Key Points

  • The correct expression to use after "denied" is the gerund form "stealing".
  • "Having stealing" is grammatically incorrect as "having" should be followed by the past participle.
  • "Had stolen" is incorrect in this context as it changes the tense and meaning.
  • "Having to steal" implies an obligation, which is not the intended meaning here.
  • Therefore, the correct phrase is "stealing the money".

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: The thieves denied stealing the money.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "having stealing the money" is incorrect because "having" should be followed by a past participle (e.g., "having stolen").
  • Option 3: "had stolen the money" is incorrect because it uses the past perfect tense, which is not appropriate in this context.
  • Option 4: "having to steal the money" implies an obligation or necessity, which is not the intended meaning.

Question 24

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Did you

  1. AOption (a)

    drop out to see Sunita on your way home?

  2. BOption (b)

    drop in to see Sunita on your way home?

  3. COption (c)

    drop behind to see Sunita on your way home?

  4. DOption (d)

    drop away to see Sunita on your way home?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

drop in to see Sunita on your way home?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. drop in to see Sunita on your way home.

Key Points

  • The phrase "drop in" means to visit someone informally and briefly.
  • The context of the sentence suggests a casual visit to Sunita on the way home, which aligns with the meaning of "drop in."
  • Other options like "drop out," "drop behind," and "drop away" do not fit the context of visiting someone.
  • "Drop in" is commonly used in everyday language to describe a short visit, making it the most appropriate choice here.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Drop out" means to withdraw from something, such as a course or activity, which is not suitable in the context of visiting someone.
  • Option 3: "Drop behind" means to fall behind or lag in progress, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 4: "Drop away" means to diminish or decrease in number or intensity, which is unrelated to the context of visiting someone.

Question 25

Directions

Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Would you like to

  1. AOption (a)

    meeting her?

  2. BOption (b)

    meet her?

  3. COption (c)

    met her?

  4. DOption (d)

    meet with her?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

meet her?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. meet her?.

Key Points

  • The sentence is an interrogative sentence asking a question.
  • The verb form "meet" is the base form and is appropriate after "would you like to".
  • "Meeting" and "met" are not appropriate in this context.
  • "Meet with her" is grammatically correct but less common in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is meet her?.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: meeting her? - The gerund form "meeting" is not appropriate after "would you like to".
  • Option 3: met her? - The past tense form "met" does not fit in this context.
  • Option 4: meet with her? - While grammatically correct, "meet with her" is less common and slightly awkward in this context.

Question 26

Directions

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Be bad news

  1. AOption (a)

    feelings of hate

  2. BOption (b)

    someone who behaves in a dishonest way

  3. COption (c)

    someone who is considered undesirable

  4. DOption (d)

    to be ill

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

someone who is considered undesirable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. someone who is considered undesirable.

Key Points

  • The phrase "Be bad news" refers to someone or something that is considered harmful or undesirable. (हानिकारक या अवांछनीय होना)
  • Example: John is bad news; every time he comes around, trouble follows.
  • Undesirable refers to something or someone that is not wanted or welcomed because they are likely to cause problems. (अवांछनीय)
  • Example: His constant lateness makes him an undesirable employee.
  • Hence, we can infer that the meaning of 'Be bad news' is 'someone who is considered undesirable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. someone who is considered undesirable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Feelings of hate (घृणा की भावनाएँ): Intense dislike or ill will.
  • Example: His feelings of hate towards his rival were obvious.
  • Someone who behaves in a dishonest way (कोई जो बेईमानी से व्यवहार करता है): A person who is deceitful or untrustworthy.
  • Example: She realized too late that her business partner was someone who behaves in a dishonest way.
  • To be ill (बीमार होना): To be in a state of poor health.
  • Example: He had to cancel his plans because he was ill.

Question 27

Directions

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Back to the drawing board

  1. AOption (a)

    to draw comparisons

  2. BOption (b)

    to be a member of planning group

  3. COption (c)

    to start planning again because the previous plan has failed

  4. DOption (d)

    to be fast at understanding a situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

to start planning again because the previous plan has failed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. to start planning again because the previous plan has failed.

Key Points

  • The phrase "Back to the drawing board" means to start planning again because the previous plan has failed. (फिर से योजना बनाना क्योंकि पिछली योजना असफल हो गई है)
  • Example: After the first prototype failed, the engineers had to go back to the drawing board.
  • "to start planning again because the previous plan has failed" means to reassess and create a new plan after the original one did not succeed. (पहली योजना असफल होने के बाद पुनः योजना बनाना)
  • Example: The marketing team went back to the drawing board after the initial campaign did not generate enough interest.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. to start planning again because the previous plan has failed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • to draw comparisons (तुलना करना): To highlight similarities and differences between two or more items.
  • Example: The study drew comparisons between urban and rural healthcare services.
  • to be a member of planning group (योजना समूह का सदस्य होना): To be part of a team responsible for creating plans.
  • Example: She was excited to be a member of the planning group for the new project.
  • to be fast at understanding a situation (स्थिति को जल्दी समझने में सक्षम होना): To quickly grasp the details and implications of a situation.
  • Example: His ability to be fast at understanding a situation made him an excellent crisis manager.

Question 28

Directions

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Be in the eye of the storm

  1. AOption (a)

    to look at something quickly

  2. BOption (b)

    to fail miserably at a sport

  3. COption (c)

    to see something that you do not want to see

  4. DOption (d)

    to be in the midst of a controversy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to be in the midst of a controversy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. to be in the midst of a controversy.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Be in the eye of the storm" means to be at the center of a difficult or controversial situation. (किसी कठिन या विवादास्पद स्थिति के केंद्र में होना)
  • Example: After the scandal broke, the politician found himself in the eye of the storm.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. to be in the midst of a controversy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: to look at something quickly (जल्दी से किसी चीज़ को देखना)
  • Example: She glanced at her watch quickly before entering the meeting.
  • Option 2: to fail miserably at a sport (खेल में बुरी तरह से असफल होना)
  • Example: He failed miserably at tennis, losing every match he played.
  • Option 3: to see something that you do not want to see (कुछ ऐसा देखना जो आप नहीं देखना चाहते)
  • Example: She walked into the room and saw something she really did not want to see.

Question 29

Directions

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Life in the fast lane

  1. AOption (a)

    to lead a selfless life

  2. BOption (b)

    to have a happy life without complaints

  3. COption (c)

    life without money or comforts

  4. DOption (d)

    an exciting and eventful lifestyle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

an exciting and eventful lifestyle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. an exciting and eventful lifestyle.

Key Points

  • The phrase "Life in the fast lane" refers to living a lifestyle that is full of excitement, activity, and often risk. (रोमांचक और घटनापूर्ण जीवनशैली)
  • Example: After getting a high-paying job in the city, John started living life in the fast lane, attending parties and traveling frequently.
  • Exciting and eventful lifestyle means a way of living that includes many thrilling and notable experiences. (रोमांचक और घटनापूर्ण जीवनशैली)
  • Example: Her career as a journalist allows her to lead an exciting and eventful lifestyle, meeting new people and visiting new places regularly.
  • Hence, we can infer that 'Life in the fast lane' is best described as 'an exciting and eventful lifestyle'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: an exciting and eventful lifestyle.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • To lead a selfless life (निःस्वार्थ जीवन जीना): Living a life dedicated to the welfare of others.
  • Example: Mother Teresa is an example of someone who led a selfless life, helping the poor and the sick.
  • To have a happy life without complaints (शिकायतों के बिना एक खुशहाल जीवन जीना): Living a content and satisfied life without any grievances.
  • Example: Despite his modest means, he managed to have a happy life without complaints.
  • Life without money or comforts (पैसे या आराम के बिना जीवन): Living a life that lacks financial resources and basic comforts.
  • Example: During the Great Depression, many people experienced life without money or comforts.

Question 30

Directions

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

To pass the buck

  1. AOption (a)

    to collect money from a group of people

  2. BOption (b)

    to shift the responsibility of something to someone

  3. COption (c)

    to have a short conversation with someone

  4. DOption (d)

    to have the credentials for a particular job

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to shift the responsibility of something to someone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. to shift the responsibility of something to someone.

Key Points

  • The idiom "to pass the buck" means to shift the responsibility for something to someone else. (जिम्मेदारी किसी और पर डालना)
  • Example: Whenever there's a problem at work, he always tries to pass the buck to his colleagues.
  • "To shift the responsibility of something to someone" refers to the act of making someone else responsible for something you should deal with. (जिम्मेदारी किसी और पर डालना)
  • Example: Instead of solving the issue himself, he shifted the responsibility to his assistant.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: to shift the responsibility of something to someone.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • To collect money from a group of people (समूह से पैसे इकट्ठा करना):
  • Example: We decided to collect money from everyone in the office to buy a gift for our retiring colleague.
  • To have a short conversation with someone (किसी से छोटी बातचीत करना):
  • Example: She stopped by my desk to have a short conversation about the upcoming project.
  • To have the credentials for a particular job (किसी विशेष नौकरी के लिए प्रमाण पत्र होना):
  • Example: He has all the necessary credentials for the managerial position.

Question 31

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

include basic freedoms (P) / the fundamental rights are (Q) / guaranteed to the individual (R) /  basic rights and (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    QSPR

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    SQRP

  4. DOption (d)

    RQSP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. QSPR

Key Points

  • The sentence begins with "the fundamental rights are," which is correctly indicated by part (Q).
  • Following this, "basic rights and" (S) continues the logical sequence, building on what the fundamental rights are.
  • The next part, "include basic freedoms" (P), specifies what these basic rights are.
  • Ending with "guaranteed to the individual" (R) completes the sentence by stating the assurance provided by these rights.

Therefore, the correct answer is QSPR.

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (QRSP): This option starts with "the fundamental rights are guaranteed to the individual basic rights and," which disrupts the logical flow.
  • Option 3 (SQRP): This option starts with "basic rights and guaranteed to the individual the fundamental rights are," making the sentence grammatically incorrect and unclear.
  • Option 4 (RQSP): This option starts with "guaranteed to the individual the fundamental rights are basic rights and," which does not form a coherent sentence.

Question 32

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

for many millennia (P)/ been in the making (Q) / of a historical process that has (R) / the Indian nation is the product (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    SRQP

  2. BOption (b)

    SQPR

  3. COption (c)

    PRSQ

  4. DOption (d)

    RSQP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SRQP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e., SRQP.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence should state that the Indian nation is a result of a historical process that spans millennia.
  • Starting with "The Indian nation is the product" (S) immediately establishes the subject and the assertion.
  • Following S with "of a historical process that has" (R) logically extends the sentence, detailing what the Indian nation is a product of.
  • Then, "been in the making" (Q) appropriately follows R, indicating the duration of the process.
  • Finally, "for many millennia" (P) concludes the sentence, specifying the time span over which this process occurred.

Therefore, the correct answer is SRQP.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (SQPR): "The Indian nation is the product been in the making of a historical process that has for many millennia" - this sequence is grammatically incorrect and disrupts logical flow.
  • Option 3 (PRSQ): "For many millennia been in the making of a historical process that has the Indian nation is the product" - this sequence is awkward and does not start with the subject.
  • Option 4 (RSQP): "Of a historical process that has been in the making the Indian nation is the product for many millennia" - this sequence is convoluted and places the subject unnaturally at the end.

Question 33

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

an epoch that was imbued (P)/ for its people the start of (Q)/ with a new vision (R)/ India's Independence represented (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    SQPR

  2. BOption (b)

    QRPS

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    RQSP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SQPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e., SQPR.

Key Points

  • The sentence should convey that India's Independence symbolized the beginning of an era imbued with a new vision for its people.
  • Starting with "India's Independence represented" (S) perfectly sets the context and subject of the sentence.
  • Following S with "for its people the start of" (Q) clarifies what Independence represented for the people.
  • Next, "an epoch that was imbued" (P) should follow to describe the epoch being referred to.
  • Concluding with "with a new vision" (R) completes the description of that epoch.

Therefore, the correct answer is SPQR.

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (QRPS): Does not start with the main subject "India's Independence," leading to a lack of clear context.
  • Option 3 (SPQR): Incorrectly places "an epoch that was imbued" before explaining "the start of," disrupting logical flow.
  • Option 4 (RQSP): Misplaces "with a new vision" immediately after "for its people," making the sentence awkward and less coherent.​

Question 34

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

science and mathematics exhibition (P)/ for a discussion on the forthcoming (Q)/ to be present before the Principal (R)/ all students have been instructed (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    SQPR

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    SRQP

  4. DOption (d)

    QPRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SRQP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3) i.e., SRQP.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence should instruct all students to be present before the Principal for a discussion on the forthcoming science and mathematics exhibition.
  • Starting with "All students have been instructed" (S) makes it clear who is being instructed.
  • Following S with "to be present before the Principal" (R) specifies what the students are instructed to do.
  • Then, "for a discussion on the forthcoming" (Q) smoothly follows to give the purpose of the instruction.
  • Finally, "science and mathematics exhibition" (P)** completes the sentence by detailing what the discussion is about.

Therefore, the correct answer is SRQP.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (SQPR): "All students have been instructed for a discussion on the forthcoming science and mathematics exhibition to be present before the Principal" - this sequence incorrectly delays identifying "to be present before the Principal" until the end.
  • Option 2 (RPQS): "To be present before the Principal for a discussion on the forthcoming science and mathematics exhibition all students have been instructed" - this sequence disrupts the logical structure by leading with "to be present before the Principal".
  • Option 4 (QPRS): "For a discussion on the forthcoming science and mathematics exhibition to be present before the Principal all students have been instructed" - this sequence improperly delays revealing who is being instructed until the end.

Question 35

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

two bowlers and two batsmen respectively (P)/ to the new team (Q)/ with the selection of another player (R)/  the team now has (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    SQRP

  3. COption (c)

    RQSP

  4. DOption (d)

    RPSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

RQSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e., RQSP.

Key Points

  • The sentence should communicate that with the selection of another player, the team now has two bowlers and two batsmen respectively.
  • Starting with "with the selection of another player" (R) introduces the condition or event that has occurred.
  • Following R with "to the new team" (Q) specifies where this selection is happening.
  • Next, "the team now has" (S) explains the result of this selection.
  • Finally, "two bowlers and two batsmen respectively" (P) provides the specifics about the team composition.

Therefore, the correct answer is RQSP.

Additional Information

  • **QPRS: "To the new team two bowlers and two batsmen respectively with the selection of another player the team now has" – This sequence is grammatically incorrect and awkward.
  • SQRP: "The team now has with the selection of another player to the new team two bowlers and two batsmen respectively" – This improves from option 1 but disrupts the logical flow by placing the result "the team now has" before the condition "with the selection of another player."
  • RPSQ: "With the selection of another player two bowlers and two batsmen respectively the team now has to the new team" – This sequence could be confusing, as it puts the specifics "two bowlers and two batsmen respectively" before clarifying the team.

Question 36

Directions

Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

You are most welcome to visit my humble (abode).

  1. AOption (a)

    Noun

  2. BOption (b)

    Adjective

  3. COption (c)

    Adverb

  4. DOption (d)

    Participle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Noun

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e 'Noun'.

Key Points

  • The underlined word "abode" is a noun because it refers to a place, specifically someone's home or residence.
  • Nouns often name people, places, things, or ideas. In this case, "abode" is naming a place.
  • The word "abode" functions as the subject or object in a sentence, which is a common role for nouns.
  • Nouns can be modified by adjectives and can function as the main elements in a sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In the given sentence, "humble" is an adjective modifying "abode".
  • Adverb: An adverb modifies a verb, adjective, or other adverb. In the sentence, there is no adverb present.
  • Participle: A participle is a form of a verb used as an adjective. In the sentence, there is no participle present.

Question 37

Directions

Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The situation is (beyond) our control.

  1. AOption (a)

    Adjective

  2. BOption (b)

    Adverb

  3. COption (c)

    Conjunction

  4. DOption (d)

    Preposition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Preposition

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e 'Preposition'.

Key Points

  • The underlined word "beyond" shows a relationship between the noun "situation" and the phrase "our control", which is a characteristic of a preposition.
  • Prepositions often indicate relationships in terms of direction, place, time, cause, manner, and amount. In this case, "beyond" indicates the extent of control.
  • The word "beyond" does not modify a verb, adjective, or other adverb, nor does it act as a conjunction or an adjective, confirming its role as a preposition.
  • Prepositions typically precede a noun or pronoun to form a prepositional phrase, as seen here with "beyond our control".

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In the given sentence, there is no word being used to directly modify a noun in this manner.
  • Adverb: An adverb modifies a verb, adjective, or other adverb, explaining how, when, where, or to what extent. "Beyond" does not serve this function in the sentence.
  • Conjunction: A conjunction connects words, phrases, clauses, or sentences. "Beyond" does not perform this role in the sentence.

Question 38

Directions

Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I didn't tell him anything (except) that I needed the money.

  1. AOption (a)

    Adjective

  2. BOption (b)

    Adverb

  3. COption (c)

    Preposition

  4. DOption (d)

    Conjunction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Conjunction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e 'Conjunction'.

Key Points

  • The underlined word "except" is used to introduce the only thing or person that is not included in a statement that follows, which is a characteristic of a conjunction.
  • Conjunctions are words that connect clauses or sentences or to coordinate words in the same clause.
  • In this case, "except" is connecting the clause "I needed the money" to the rest of the sentence.
  • Conjunctions can be coordinating, subordinating, or correlative. "Except" functions as a subordinating conjunction here.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In the given sentence, "except" is not used to modify a noun.
  • Adverb: An adverb modifies a verb, an adjective, or another adverb. "Except" does not function as an adverb here.
  • Preposition: A preposition shows the relationship between a noun (or pronoun) and other words in a sentence. "Except" can be a preposition, but in this context, it is used as a conjunction.

Question 39

Directions

Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He dry-cleaned my coat (nicely).

  1. AOption (a)

    Adjective

  2. BOption (b)

    Adverb

  3. COption (c)

    Relative pronoun

  4. DOption (d)

    Conjunction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Adverb

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'Adverb'.

Key Points

  • The underlined word "nicely" modifies the verb "dry-cleaned" by explaining how the action was performed, which is a characteristic of an adverb.
  • Adverbs often answer the questions how, when, where, and to what extent. In this case, "nicely" is answering "how" the coat was dry-cleaned.
  • The word "nicely" ends in -ly, which is a common suffix for adverbs, although not all words that end in -ly are adverbs.
  • Adverbs can modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, further specifying or qualifying the action or characteristic they are describing.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In the given sentence, there is no word being used to directly modify a noun in this manner.
  • Noun: A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. In the sentence, "coat" is an example of a noun. "Nicely," however, is not a noun.
  • Verb: A verb is a word expressing an action, occurrence, or state of being. In the sentence, "dry-cleaned" is the verb, indicating the action being taken. "Nicely" serves to modify how the action is performed, not to act as an action itself.

Question 40

Directions

Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Would you like to buy (this) new item?

  1. AOption (a)

    Determiner

  2. BOption (b)

    Conjunction

  3. COption (c)

    Interjection

  4. DOption (d)

    Adjective

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Determiner

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e 'Determiner'.

Key Points

  • The underlined word "this" is used to specify a particular item, which is a characteristic of a determiner.
  • Determiners are words placed in front of a noun to make it clear what the noun refers to. In this case, "this" is specifying which new item is being referred to.
  • The word "this" is commonly used as a demonstrative determiner, which points to a specific noun.
  • Determiners can include articles, demonstratives, possessives, and quantifiers, all of which help to clarify the noun.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In this sentence, "new" is an adjective modifying "item".
  • Conjunction: A conjunction connects words, phrases, or clauses. The word "this" does not perform this function in the sentence.
  • Interjection: An interjection is an abrupt remark, usually standing apart from a sentence. The word "this" is not used in this manner in the sentence.

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based solely on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author.

The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals and microbes we observe when we study a natural forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area's biota or biotic community. The plant portion of the biotic community includes all vegetation, from large trees down through to microscopic algae. Likewise, the animal portion includes everything from large mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians through to earthworms, tiny insects and mites. Microbes encompass a large array of microscopic bacteria, fungi and protozoans. Thus, the biotic community comprises a plant community, an animal community and a microbial community. 

The particular kind of biotic community found in a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic factors such as the amount of water or moisture present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of soil in the area. These abiotic factors both support and limit the particular community. For example, a relative lack of available moisture prevents the growth of most species of plants, but supports certain species, such as cacti; these kinds of areas are deserts. Land with plenty of available moisture and a suitable temperature supports forests. The presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities. 

The first step in investigating a biotic community may be simply to catalogue all the species present. Species are the different kinds of plants, animals and microbes in the community. A given species includes all those individuals which have a strong similarity in appearance to one another and which are distinct in appearance from other such groups. Each species in a biotic community is represented by a certain population - that is, by a certain number of individuals that make up the interbreeding, reproducing group.

Question 41

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following does not belong to the biotic community?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water

  2. BOption (b)

    Human

  3. COption (c)

    Protozoa

  4. DOption (d)

    Bush

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Water

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option(1)' i.e. 'Water'.

Key Points

  • The passage defines a biotic community as comprising plants, animals, and microbes.
  • Water is an abiotic factor according to the passage.
  • The correct defining elements of a biotic community include living organisms such as plants, animals, and microbes.
  • Humans, protozoa, and bushes fall within these categories as they are living organisms.

Therefore, the correct answer is - Water.

Additional Information

  • Humans: They are considered part of the animal portion of the biotic community.
  • Protozoa: These are microbes and thus part of the microbial community within the biotic community.
  • Bush: This is part of the plant community within the biotic community.

Question 42

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The nature of the biotic community largely depends on :

  1. Biotic components
  2. Abiotic components

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option(2)' i.e. 'Abiotic components'.

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly states that the particular kind of biotic community found in a given area is largely determined by abiotic factors.
  • Examples of abiotic factors mentioned are water, moisture, temperature, salinity, and soil type.
  • These abiotic factors both support and limit the biotic communities.
  • Biotic components (plants, animals, and microbes) form the biotic community but do not determine its nature; they are part of it.

Therefore, the correct answer is - Abiotic components.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 only (Biotic components): This option is incorrect because while biotic components form part of the biotic community, they do not determine its nature.
  • Option 3 (Both 1 and 2): This option is incorrect because the passage specifies that the nature of the biotic community is determined by abiotic factors, not a combination of biotic and abiotic.
  • Option 4 (Neither 1 nor 2): This option is incorrect because the passage clearly attributes the determination of the biotic community to abiotic factors.

Question 43

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Temperature

  2. BOption (b)

    Humidity

  3. COption (c)

    Algae

  4. DOption (d)

    Moisture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Algae

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option(3)' i.e. 'Algae'.

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly describes algae as part of the plant portion of the biotic community.
  • Abiotic factors include non-living environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, soil type, and moisture levels.
  • Algae, being a type of vegetation, is a living organism and therefore part of the biotic community.
  • Abiotic factors support and limit the biotic community but are not themselves living organisms.

Therefore, the correct answer is - Algae.

Additional Information

  • Temperature: This is a non-living environmental factor that affects the types of biotic communities in an area, making it an abiotic factor.
  • Humidity: This refers to the amount of moisture in the air; it is non-living and therefore an abiotic factor.
  • Moisture: This refers to the presence of water in the environment, another non-living factor that influences the biotic community, making it an abiotic factor.

Question 44

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In the passage, the word 'aquatic community' refers to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Biotic community inhabiting the land

  2. BOption (b)

    Biotic community found in water

  3. COption (c)

    Biotic community found in the air

  4. DOption (d)

    Assemblage of rain and moisture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Biotic community found in water

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option(2)' i.e. 'Biotic community found in water'.

Key Points

  • The passage explains that the presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities.
  • The term "aquatic community" logically refers to the biotic community found in water environments.
  • This includes organisms that live in water such as ponds, rivers, lakes, seas, and coral reefs.

Therefore, the correct answer is - Biotic community found in water.

Additional Information

  • Biotic community inhabiting the land (Option 1): This would refer to terrestrial biotic communities, not aquatic.
  • Biotic community found in the air (Option 3): This is not applicable to the described types of biotic communities in the passage.
  • Assemblage of rain and moisture (Option 4): This does not describe a biotic community but rather abiotic factors.

Question 45

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Species are defined on the basis of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Similarities only

  2. BOption (b)

    Differences only

  3. COption (c)

    Both similarities and differences

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both similarities and differences

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option(3)' i.e. 'Both similarities and differences'.

Key Points

  • The passage states, "A given species includes all those individuals which have a strong similarity in appearance to one another and which are distinct in appearance from other such groups."
  • This definition incorporates both the similarities among individuals within a species and the differences between this group and other groups (species).

Therefore, the correct answer is - Both similarities and differences.

Additional Information

  • Similarities only (Option 1): This is incorrect because species are defined not only by similarities among members but also by differences from other groups.
  • Differences only (Option 2): This is incorrect because the passage highlights the importance of similarities within the species.
  • None of the above (Option 4): This is incorrect because the passage provides a clear combined basis for defining species.

Question 46

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The king's son was banished due to the political rivalry.

  1. AOption (a)

    deported

  2. BOption (b)

    called back

  3. COption (c)

    accepted

  4. DOption (d)

    notified

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

deported

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. deported.

Key Points

  • The word "banished" means to send someone away from a country or place as an official punishment. (निर्वासित करना)
  • Example: The traitor was banished from the kingdom for his crimes.
  • "Deported" refers to the act of expelling a foreigner from a country, typically on the grounds of illegal status or for having committed a crime. (देश निकाला देना)
  • Example: The government deported the illegal immigrants back to their home country.

Therefore, the correct answer is: deported.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Called back (बुला लिया): To summon someone to return.
  • Example: The manager called back the employee for an urgent meeting.
  • Accepted (स्वीकार किया): To consent to receive or undertake something offered.
  • Example: She accepted the job offer without any hesitation.
  • Notified (सूचित किया): To inform someone of something, typically in a formal or official manner.
  • Example: The residents were notified about the upcoming water supply interruption.

Question 47

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He gave a dazzling performance at the opera.

  1. AOption (a)

    brilliant

  2. BOption (b)

    dismal

  3. COption (c)

    pathetic

  4. DOption (d)

    puerile

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

brilliant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. brilliant.

Key Points

  • The word "dazzling" means extremely bright, impressive, or beautiful; capable of causing admiration or wonder. (चमकदार)
  • Example: The fireworks display was dazzling and left the audience in awe.
  • "Brilliant" refers to something that is exceptionally clever, impressive, or bright. (प्रतिभाशाली)
  • Example: She gave a brilliant lecture on quantum physics that captivated the entire audience.
  • Hence, we can infer that the meaning of 'dazzling' is closest to 'brilliant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: brilliant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Dismal (निराशाजनक): Depressing or dreary.
  • Example: The weather was dismal, with rain pouring down all day.
  • Pathetic (दयनीय): Arousing pity, especially through vulnerability or sadness.
  • Example: His attempt to climb the wall was pathetic and ended in failure.
  • Puerile (बालसुलभ): Childishly silly and trivial.
  • Example: His puerile jokes were not appreciated by the serious audience.

Question 48

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends.

  1. AOption (a)

    took

  2. BOption (b)

    rejected

  3. COption (c)

    criticized

  4. DOption (d)

    granted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

rejected

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. rejected.

Key Points

  • The word "rebuffed" means to reject someone or something in an abrupt or ungracious manner. (अस्वीकार करना)
  • Example: She rebuffed his advances with a firm "no".
  • "Rejected" means to refuse to accept, consider, or use something. (अस्वीकृत)
  • Example: He rejected the job offer because it did not meet his salary expectations.

Therefore, the correct answer is: rejected.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Took (लिया): To accept or receive something.
  • Example: She took the advice seriously and made changes accordingly.
  • Criticized (आलोचना की): To express disapproval of someone or something.
  • Example: The teacher criticized the student's lack of effort.
  • Granted (स्वीकृत): To agree to give or allow something requested.
  • Example: The committee granted him permission to start the project.

Question 49

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He disowned his royal legacy and became a commoner.

  1. AOption (a)

    accepted

  2. BOption (b)

    abandoned

  3. COption (c)

    allowed

  4. DOption (d)

    questioned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

abandoned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. abandoned.

Key Points

  • The word "disowned" means to refuse to acknowledge or maintain any connection with something. (त्यागना)
  • Example: He disowned his family after a major dispute.
  • "Abandoned" refers to leaving something completely and not intending to return. (त्यागना)
  • Example: She abandoned her dreams of becoming a singer to focus on her studies.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. abandoned.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Accepted (स्वीकार किया): To consent to receive or undertake something offered.
  • Example: He accepted the new job offer with enthusiasm.
  • Allowed (अनुमति दी): To give permission for something to happen or to be done.
  • Example: Pets are not allowed in this hotel.
  • Questioned (सवाल किया): To ask questions about something, especially in order to express doubts about it or to check its validity.
  • Example: The detective questioned the suspect thoroughly.

Question 50

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The public was sceptical about the new government policy.

  1. AOption (a)

    hopeful

  2. BOption (b)

    anxious

  3. COption (c)

    doubtful

  4. DOption (d)

    expectant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

doubtful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. doubtful.

Key Points

  • The word "sceptical" means not easily convinced; having doubts or reservations. (संदेहपूर्ण)
  • Example: She was sceptical about the effectiveness of the new drug.
  • "Doubtful" refers to feeling uncertain about something; not sure. (संदिग्ध)
  • Example: He was doubtful about the success of the plan.
  • Hence, we can infer that the word 'sceptical' is nearest in meaning to 'doubtful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. doubtful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Hopeful (आशावादी): Feeling or inspiring optimism about a future event.
  • Example: She is hopeful that her application will be accepted.
  • Anxious (चिंतित): Experiencing worry, unease, or nervousness.
  • Example: He felt anxious before the job interview.
  • Expectant (उम्मीदवार): Having or showing an excited feeling that something is about to happen.
  • Example: The expectant crowd waited eagerly for the concert to begin.

Question 51

An infinite combination of resistors, each having resistance R=4 Ω , is given below. What is the net resistance between the points A and B ? (Each resistance is of equal value,R=4)

  1. AOption (a)

    0 Ω

  2. BOption (b)

    2+252+2 \sqrt{5} Ω

  3. COption (c)

    2+52+\sqrt{5} Ω

  4. DOption (d)

    ∞ Ω

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2+252+2 \sqrt{5} Ω

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT: 

Resistance:

  • The measurement of the opposition of the flow of electric current through a conductor is called the resistance of that conductor. It is denoted by R.

There are mainly two ways of the combination of resistances:

  1. Resistances in series:
  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them are called as resistances in series.
  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance (R) of resistances in series is given by:
  • Equivalent resistance,

​

⇒ R = R1 + R2

  1. Resistances in parallel:
  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called resistances in parallel.
  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

⇒R=R1R2R1+R2⇒ R = \frac{R_1R_2}{R_1+R_2}

Calculation:

Let Req be the equivalent resistance of the network.

Hence above circuit can be summarised as

By using the above formula, eq. of R = 4Ω & Req

⇒ Req = (4 × Req) / (4 + Req)

Now, R & Req  are in series. Therefore, 

⇒ Net resistance = R + (4 × Req) / (4 + Req)

As, this is an infinite series. Hence, net resistance will be equal to Req

⇒ Req (4 + Req) = 4(4 + Req) + 4Req

⇒ Req2 + 4Req = 16 + 4Req + 4Req

⇒ Req2 + 4Req = 16 + 8Req

⇒ Req2 - 4Req - 16 = 0

Solving this quadratic equation:

⇒ Req = (-b ± √(b2 - 4ac)) / 2a

Where a = 1, b = -4, and c = -16:

⇒ Req = (4 ± √(16 + 64)) / 2

⇒ Req = (4 ± √80) / 2

⇒ Req = (4 ± 4√5) / 2

⇒ Req = 2 ± 2√5

Since resistance cannot be negative, we take the positive value:

∴ Req = 2 + 2√5

Question 52

An electric circuit is given below. V1 = 1V and Resistance R=1000 Ω.

The current through the resistance R is very close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A and B, VAB = 1V. Now the circuit is changed to:

where value of V2 = 5V. The internal resistances of both the batteries are 0.1Ω . The current through the resistance R is about:

  1. AOption (a)

    1.0 mA

  2. BOption (b)

    1.2 mA

  3. COption (c)

    3.0 mA

  4. DOption (d)

    5.0 mA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3.0 mA

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Equivalent potential 

Eeq = E1r1+E2r21r1+1r2=10.1+50.110.1+10.1=3V\frac{\frac{E_1}{r_1} + \frac{E_2}{r_2}}{\frac{1}{r_1}+\frac{1}{r_2}} = \frac{\frac{1}{0.1} + \frac{5}{0.1}}{\frac{1}{0.1}+\frac{1}{0.1}} = 3V

Equivalent internal resistance 

1/req = 1/0.1 + 1/0.1 

req = 0.05 Ω 

The total resistance in the circuit, Rtotal = R + r

⇒ Rtotal = 1000 Ω + 0.05 Ω

⇒ Rtotal = 1000.05 Ω

⇒ Current, I = V1 / Rtotal

⇒ I = 3 / 1000.05 Ω

⇒ I ≈ 3 mA

∴ The current through the resistance R in the initial circuit is 3 mA.

Question 53

If the current through an electrical machine running on direct current is 15 A and the machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that passes through the machine during this time is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1.50 C

  2. BOption (b)

    150 C

  3. COption (c)

    900 C

  4. DOption (d)

    9000 C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9000 C

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

Charge = Current × Time

Q = I × R

Calculation:

Given that 

I = 15 A, T = 10 min = 10 × 60 = 600 sec

By using the above formula

Q = 15 × 600 

Q = 9000 C

∴ Correct answer is 9000 C.

Question 54

Which one of the following is the best shape of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a lightning conductor?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

 

Lightning conductors work by providing a low-resistance path for the

lightning discharge to travel safely to the ground.

 

The shape of the top end influences the electric field concentration and hence the efficiency of lightning capture.

 

Formula Used:

 

Electric field concentration is higher at sharp points due to dV/dr where

V is the potential and r is the radius of curvature.

 

⇒ The electric field E is given by E ∝ 1/r

 

Explanation:

 

Sharp Point:

 

A sharp pointed rod has a very small radius of curvature.

 

Blunt Shape:

 

A blunt or rounded rod has a larger radius of curvature.

 

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Additional Information

Sharp point ⇒⇒⇒⇒

⇒ High electric field ⇒⇒⇒⇒

⇒ More efficient at attracting lightning

Blunt shape ⇒⇒⇒⇒

⇒ Lower electric field ⇒⇒⇒⇒

⇒ Less efficient at attracting lightning

Question 55

Which of the following forces is/are fundamental in nature?

  1. Gravitational force
  2. Electromagnetic forces
  3. Strong and weak nuclear forces

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

 

The fundamental forces in nature are:

 

Gravitational Force: This force acts between all masses in the universe and is responsible for the attractive force between objects with mass.

 

Electromagnetic Forces: These forces act between charged particles and include both electric forces (between stationary charges) and magnetic forces (between moving charges).

 

Strong Nuclear Force: This force acts between the particles in the nucleus of an atom, holding the nucleus together.

 

Weak Nuclear Force: This force is responsible for radioactive decay and other forms of particle decay involving fundamental particles.

 

All of the above-mentioned forces are considered fundamental in nature, hence the correct answer is D) 1, 2, and 3.

Question 56

A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner radius R/2 contains a solid sphere of radius R/2 (see figure). The density of the material of the solid sphere is ρ and that of the shell is ρ/2. What is the average mass density of the larger sphere thus formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    3ρ/4

  2. BOption (b)

    9ρ/16

  3. COption (c)

    7ρ/8

  4. DOption (d)

    5ρ/8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9ρ/16

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

Volume of a sphere, V = (4/3)πr3

Mass = Density × Volume

Average Density, ρavg = Total Mass / Total Volume

Calculation:

Volume of the solid sphere (radius R/2):

⇒ Vsolid = (4/3)π(R/2)3 = (πR3/6)

Volume of the spherical shell:

⇒ Vshell = (4/3)πR3 - (4/3)π(R/2)3

⇒ Vshell = (4/3)πR3(1 - 1/8) = (7/6)πR3

Mass of the solid sphere:

⇒ Msolid = ρ × Vsolid = ρ × (πR3/6) = (πρR3/6)

Mass of the spherical shell:

⇒ Mshell = (ρ/2) × Vshell = (7/12)πρR3

Total mass of the system:

⇒ Mtotal = Msolid + Mshell

⇒ Mtotal = (πρR3/6) + (7/12)πρR3

⇒ Mtotal = (2πρR3/12) + (7πρR3/12)

⇒ Mtotal = (9πρR3/12)  = (3/4)πρR3

Total volume of the system:

⇒ Vtotal = (4/3)πR3

Average mass density:

⇒ ρavg = Mtotal / Vtotal

⇒ ρavg = [(3/4)πρR3] / [(4/3)πR3]

⇒ ρavg = [(3/4)ρ] / (4/3) = (9/16)ρ

∴ The average mass density of the larger sphere in terms of ρ is (9/16)ρ.

Question 57

The human eye is like a camera that has a lens with:

  1. AOption (a)

    fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.

  2. BOption (b)

    variable focal length and fixed aperture size.

  3. COption (c)

    fixed focal length and variable aperture size.

  4. DOption (d)

    variable focal length and variable aperture size.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

variable focal length and variable aperture size.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

 

The human eye is often compared to a camera due to its ability to focus

 

light and form images. Here's how the analogy works:

 

Variable Focal Length:

  • The eye can change the focal length through a process called accommodation.
  • This is done by the ciliary muscles, which adjust the shape of the lens to focus light from objects at various distances onto the retina.
  • This ability allows us to see clearly at different distances, similar to a camera's zoom function.

 

Variable Aperture Size:

  • The pupil of the eye, controlled by the iris, functions like the aperture of a camera.
  • The iris can expand or contract to adjust the size of the pupil, thereby controlling the amount of light entering the eye.
  • This is similar to how a camera's aperture adjusts to let in more or less light, depending on the lighting conditions.

 

∴ This allows it to adapt to different viewing conditions and light levels, much like a sophisticated camera.

Question 58

Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the following item(s) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides?

  1. Religious or social practices of Nagas
  2. Naga customary law and procedure
  3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources
  4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1,2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2,3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1,2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.

Key Points

  • Religious or social practices of Nagas:
  • Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special provisions for the state of Nagaland.
  • Under this Article, the Acts of the Parliament of India relating to the religious or social practices of the Nagas shall not apply to the state unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution decides to do so.
  • This provision respects the unique cultural and social practices of the Naga people.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Naga customary law and procedure:
  • Article 371A also ensures that the customary law and procedure of the Nagas are protected.
  • These customary laws are an integral part of the Naga culture and have been traditionally followed by the Naga tribes.
  • Any Act of Parliament affecting these customary laws will not apply to Nagaland unless approved by the state's Legislative Assembly.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Ownership and transfer of land and its resources:
  • Another significant provision under Article 371A is related to the ownership and transfer of land and its resources.
  • This provision recognizes the traditional rights of the Nagas over their land and resources, ensuring that these rights are not overridden by central laws without state consent.
  • It aims to protect the economic and environmental interests of the Naga people.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Boundaries of Nagaland with other states:
  • This statement is not covered under Article 371A.
  • The boundaries of Nagaland with other states are determined by other constitutional provisions and agreements, not by the special provisions of Article 371A.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Article 371A:
  • Article 371A is a special provision in the Constitution of India that grants special status to the state of Nagaland.
  • It was inserted by the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962.
  • The article aims to preserve and protect the unique social, cultural, and economic practices of the Nagas.
  • Naga Customary Laws:
  • These laws are traditional laws observed by the Naga tribes, passed down through generations.
  • They govern various aspects of life, including marriage, inheritance, and dispute resolution.
  • The protection of these laws under Article 371A ensures that the cultural identity of the Nagas is maintained.
  • Legislative Assembly Resolution:
  • For any Act of Parliament to be applicable to Nagaland in matters covered under Article 371A, a resolution must be passed by the Nagaland Legislative Assembly.
  • This provision ensures that the state has a significant say in the application of central laws that may affect its unique practices.

Question 59

Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the person holds any office of profit under:

  1. the Government of India.
  2. any State Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is **Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsArticle 191

  • Article 191 of the Constitution of India outlines the grounds for disqualification for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state.
  • One of the conditions specified is holding an office of profit. This clause is aimed at ensuring that the legislator does not have a conflict of interest due to their financial ties with the government.
  • According to Article 191 (1)(a) :
  • "A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder."
  • Thus, the person shall be disqualified from holding any office of profit under:
  • The Government of India.
  • Any State Government.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 60

Consider the following UN Declarations/Covenants :

  1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
  2. Convention on the Elimination of Al Forms of Discrimination Against Women
  3. International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
  4. Convention on Refugees

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the above?

  1. AOption (a)

    1,4,3,2

  2. BOption (b)

    1,2,3,4

  3. COption (c)

    1,3,2,4

  4. DOption (d)

    4,1,2,3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1,4,3,2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 4, 3, 2.

Key PointsChronological Order of UN Declarations/Covenants

  • Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)
  • The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 10, 1948.
  • It is a milestone document in the history of human rights, proclaiming the inalienable rights which everyone is entitled to as a human being.
  • Convention on Refugees (1951)
  • The Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, also known as the 1951 Refugee Convention, was adopted on July 28, 1951.
  • It defines who a refugee is and sets out the rights of individuals who are granted asylum and the responsibilities of nations that grant asylum.
  • International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966)
  • This covenant was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 16, 1966, and came into force on January 3, 1976.
  • It commits its parties to work toward the granting of economic, social, and cultural rights (ESCR) to individuals, including labor rights and the right to health, education, and an adequate standard of living.
  • Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (1979)
  • This convention was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 18, 1979, and came into force on September 3, 1981.
  • Often described as an international bill of rights for women, it aims to eliminate discrimination against women in all areas of life.
  • Hence, the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) is 1, 4, 3, 2.

Additional Information

  • Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
  • The UDHR is not a legally binding document but it has inspired a rich body of legally binding international human rights treaties.
  • It consists of 30 articles affirming an individual's rights which, although not legally binding, have been elaborated in subsequent international treaties, regional human rights instruments, national constitutions, and laws.
  • Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees
  • The 1951 Refugee Convention is a key legal document that forms the basis of the work of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR).
  • The Convention defines the term 'refugee' and outlines the rights of the displaced as well as the legal obligations of states to protect them.
  • International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)
  • The ICESCR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the UDHR and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR).
  • It obligates countries to work toward granting economic, social, and cultural rights to individuals.
  • Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)
  • CEDAW is often described as an international bill of rights for women.
  • It defines what constitutes discrimination against women and sets up an agenda for national action to end such discrimination.

Question 61

Which one of the following statements regarding the objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Development of the basic and heavy industry sector

  2. BOption (b)

    Increase in national income to raise living standards

  3. COption (c)

    Expansion of the consumer goods sector

  4. DOption (d)

    Expansion of employment opportunities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Expansion of the consumer goods sector

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Expansion of the consumer goods sector.

Key Points

  • The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) of India primarily focused on the development of the basic and heavy industry sector.
  • This plan was based on the Mahalanobis model, which emphasized industrialization as the path to economic development.
  • The main objectives of the plan included increasing the national income to raise living standards and expanding employment opportunities.
  • The plan laid significant emphasis on building infrastructure for steel production, heavy engineering, and machine building.
  • Consumer goods sector expansion was not a primary objective; the focus was on long-term growth through heavy industry.

 Additional Information

  • Development of the basic and heavy industry sector
  • The Second Five-Year Plan aimed at the rapid industrialization of India, with a strong focus on basic and heavy industries.
  • It prioritized sectors like steel, coal, and heavy engineering to build a robust industrial base.
  • Increase in national income to raise living standards
  • The plan focused on increasing the national income to improve the overall living standards of the population.
  • It aimed at balanced economic growth to ensure equitable distribution of wealth.
  • Expansion of employment opportunities
  • The plan aimed at creating more jobs through the establishment of new industries and infrastructure projects.
  • Employment generation was seen as a key factor in combating poverty and improving living conditions.

Question 62

Consider the following statements about the emergence of urban centres in India from circa 6th Century BCE:

  1. All of them developed away from the capitals of Mahajanpadas.
  2. Major towns were located along routes of communication.
  3. Many were bustling centres of commercial, cultural and political activity.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  2.

Key PointsEmergence of Urban Centres in India (circa 6th Century BCE)

  • Statement 1: All of them developed away from the capitals of Mahajanpadas.
  • In reality, many urban centres did develop around the capitals of Mahajanpadas, which were major administrative and political hubs.
  • Some urban centres were indeed located away from capitals, but it is not accurate to state that all of them were.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Statement 2: Major towns were located along routes of communication.
  • This statement is correct as many urban centres emerged along major trade routes, rivers, and highways, facilitating commerce and communication.
  • Examples include cities like Pataliputra and Varanasi which were strategically located along significant trade routes.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Statement 3: Many were bustling centres of commercial, cultural and political activity.
  • This is also correct; urban centres in this period were not just commercial hubs but also centres of cultural and political activities.
  • These cities often hosted significant cultural events, political assemblies, and were the seats of important educational institutions.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Mahajanapadas:
  • The term "Mahajanapada" refers to the large kingdoms that existed in ancient India around the 6th century BCE.
  • There were sixteen Mahajanapadas which are mentioned in Buddhist and Jain texts.
  • These included kingdoms like Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa, and Avanti.
  • Trade Routes:
  • Ancient India had an extensive network of trade routes that facilitated the movement of goods, people, and ideas.
  • These routes connected the Indian subcontinent with Central Asia, the Middle East, and even the Mediterranean world.
  • Urban Centres:
  • Urban centres like Pataliputra (modern-day Patna), Varanasi, and Taxila were prominent during this period.
  • These cities were not only political capitals but also significant centres for education, art, and religion.
  • Commercial Activity:
  • The rise of urban centres led to increased commercial activity, including trade in goods like textiles, spices, and precious stones.
  • Markets and bazaars flourished, attracting traders from various regions.
  • Cultural and Political Activity:
  • Urban centres were also the focal points for cultural activities such as festivals, religious ceremonies, and artistic performances.
  • Politically, these cities often served as the administrative centres of the kingdoms, where rulers and their courts resided.

Question 63

Consider the following statements about ancient Indian inscriptions:

  1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
  2. Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area.
  3. Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention.

How many of the above statements is/are correct

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1

Key PointsAncient Indian Inscriptions

  • Statement 1: The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
  • This statement is incorrect because the earliest inscriptions in India were not in Sanskrit but in Prakrit, which was the language commonly used during the Mauryan period.
  • The earliest known inscriptions are the edicts of Emperor Ashoka, which were primarily written in Prakrit using the Brahmi script.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Statement 2: Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area.
  • This statement is correct. The Kharosthi script was used in the north-western regions of ancient India and was deciphered with the help of bilingual coins issued by the Indo-Greek kings.
  • The presence of Greek and Kharosthi scripts on these coins provided the key to understanding and deciphering the Kharosthi script.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Statement 3: Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention.
  • This statement is incorrect. While many inscriptions do mention grand events such as royal decrees, victories, and religious donations, there are also numerous inscriptions that provide information on routine agricultural practices, land grants, and local administration.
  • For example, the inscriptions often record land grants to individuals or institutions, which include details about the types of crops grown and the agricultural practices followed.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Prakrit Language:
  • Prakrit was the language commonly used in ancient India during the Mauryan period.
  • It was used in the earliest known inscriptions, including the edicts of Emperor Ashoka.
  • Prakrit is considered to be an early form of the middle Indo-Aryan languages.
  • Kharosthi Script:
  • Kharosthi is an ancient script used in the north-western regions of India.
  • It was deciphered with the help of bilingual coins issued by the Indo-Greek kings.
  • The script was primarily used for writing the Gandhari language, a Prakrit dialect.
  • Brahmi Script:
  • Brahmi is one of the earliest scripts used in ancient India, primarily for writing Prakrit and Sanskrit.
  • The script was used in the edicts of Emperor Ashoka and is considered the precursor to many modern Indian scripts.
  • Indo-Greek Kings:
  • The Indo-Greek kings ruled over parts of north-western India and issued bilingual coins with Greek and Kharosthi inscriptions.
  • These coins played a crucial role in deciphering the Kharosthi script.

Question 64

The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists in two isotopic forms 10B and 11B ) is 10.81. What will be the abundance of 10B and 11B, respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?

  1. AOption (a)

    19% and 81%

  2. BOption (b)

    81% and 19%

  3. COption (c)

    38% and 62%

  4. DOption (d)

    62% and 38%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

19% and 81%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 19% and 81%.

Key Points

  • The relative atomic mass of an element is a weighted average of the atomic masses of its isotopes.
  • Boron exists in two isotopic forms, 10B and 11B, with atomic masses of 10 and 11 respectively.
  • The relative atomic mass of boron is given as 10.81.
  • Let the abundance of 10B be represented as x% and the abundance of 11B be represented as (100 - x)%.
  • The average atomic mass can be calculated using the formula: (10 * x + 11 * (100 - x)) / 100 = 10.81.
  • Solving the equation, 10x + 1100 - 11x = 1081, we get -x = -19, hence x = 19.
  • Thus, the abundance of 10B is 19% and the abundance of 11B is 81%.

 Additional Information

  • Isotopic Forms
  • Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, and consequently in nucleon number.
  • For example, 10B and 11B are isotopes of boron with 10 and 11 nucleons respectively.
  • Relative Atomic Mass
  • The relative atomic mass of an element is a measure of the mass of its atoms relative to 1/12th the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
  • This value is a weighted average based on the abundance of each isotope.

Question 65

Which among the following are essential constituents of Portland cement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sand, lime, clay

  2. BOption (b)

    Silica, alumina, lime

  3. COption (c)

    Silica, lime, graphite powder

  4. DOption (d)

    Sand, graphene, clay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Silica, alumina, lime

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Silica, alumina, lime.

Key Points

  • Portland cement is a type of cement used in construction that sets and hardens when mixed with water.
  • The essential constituents of Portland cement are silica (SiO2), alumina (Al2O3), and lime (CaO).
  • Silica is a key component that contributes to the strength and durability of the cement.
  • Alumina helps in the quick setting of cement and also imparts strength.
  • Lime is the main ingredient that reacts with water to form calcium silicate hydrate, which is responsible for the hardening of the cement.
  • The chemical reactions among these components result in the formation of compounds like tricalcium silicate (C3S) and dicalcium silicate (C2S), which are crucial for the cement's properties.

 Additional Information

  • Sand is used as an aggregate in concrete but is not an essential constituent of Portland cement itself.
  • Clay is often involved in the manufacturing process of cement but is not a primary constituent in the final product.
  • Graphite powder is not used in the composition of Portland cement. It is primarily used in lubricants and batteries.
  • Graphene is a form of carbon known for its strength and electrical conductivity but is not used in the composition of Portland cement.

Question 66

Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is derived from:

  1. AOption (a)

    Fungi

  2. BOption (b)

    Lichens

  3. COption (c)

    Bacteria

  4. DOption (d)

    Termite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lichens

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Lichens.

Key Points

  • Litmus is a well-known acid-base indicator used in chemistry.
  • It is derived from lichens, which are symbiotic associations between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium.
  • The most common lichens used for extracting litmus are of the genus Roccella and Leconora.
  • Litmus changes color in response to pH levels: it turns red in acidic solutions (pH < 7) and blue in basic solutions (pH > 7).
  • This indicator is used in various applications including laboratory experiments, educational demonstrations, and industrial processes to determine the acidity or alkalinity of substances.

 Additional Information

  • Fungi
  • Fungi are a kingdom of usually multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that are heterotrophic (they cannot produce their own food).
  • They include microorganisms such as yeasts, molds, and mushrooms.
  • Fungi play a crucial role in the decomposition of organic matter and have applications in food production, medicine, and biotechnology.
  • Bacteria
  • Bacteria are single-celled, prokaryotic microorganisms that come in various shapes, including rods, spirals, and spheres.
  • They are found in virtually every habitat on Earth, from soil to water to the human body.
  • Bacteria play essential roles in processes such as nitrogen fixation, decomposition, and fermentation.
  • Termite
  • Termites are social insects that live in colonies and are known for consuming wood and other cellulose materials.
  • They play a significant role in the ecosystem by breaking down dead plant material, contributing to nutrient cycling.
  • Some termite species can cause considerable damage to buildings and wooden structures.

Question 67

What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in V2O5?

  1. AOption (a)

    +2

  2. BOption (b)

    +4

  3. COption (c)

    +3

  4. DOption (d)

    +5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

+5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is +5.

Key Points

  • The oxidation state of an element is the charge it would have if all bonds were ionic.
  • In V2O5, oxygen typically has an oxidation state of -2.
  • Since there are 5 oxygen atoms, their total oxidation state is 5 x -2 = -10.
  • To balance this, the total oxidation state of the two vanadium atoms must be +10.
  • Therefore, the oxidation state of each vanadium atom is +10 / 2 = +5.

 Additional Information

  • Oxidation States
  • Oxidation states are used to keep track of electrons in atoms.
  • They are especially useful in redox reactions where electrons are transferred between species.
  • Vanadium
  • Vanadium can exhibit multiple oxidation states, commonly +2, +3, +4, and +5.
  • It is often used in industries for producing strong alloys.
  • Vanadium Pentoxide (V2O5)
  • Vanadium pentoxide is a compound where vanadium is in the +5 oxidation state.
  • It is used as a catalyst in the production of sulfuric acid and in the ceramics industry.

Question 68

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I
​(Allotrope of Carbon)
​List-II
(Property)
A.Graphite1.Thinnest and strongest material
B.Diamond2.Hardest natural substance
C.Fullerene3.Very light and strong material
D.Graphene4.Soft and slippery material
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key PointsAllotropes of Carbon and Their Properties

  • Graphite:
  • Graphite is well known for being a soft and slippery material due to its layered structure.
  • The carbon atoms in graphite are arranged in layers, and the layers can slide over one another, which makes graphite an excellent lubricant and useful in pencils. Hence, A matches with 4.
  • Diamond:
  • Diamond is renowned for being the hardest natural substance known to man.
  • This property makes diamonds useful in cutting, grinding, and drilling tools. Hence, B matches with 2.
  • Fullerene:
  • Fullerenes are a form of carbon molecule that is very light and strong.
  • Fullerenes have applications in materials science, electronics, and nanotechnology due to their unique properties. Hence, C matches with 3.

Graphene:

  • Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a two-dimensional honeycomb lattice and is recognized as the thinnest and strongest material known.
  • It has exceptional electrical, thermal, and mechanical properties, making it useful in a wide range of applications, including electronics and materials science. Hence, D matches with 1.**

Additional Information

  • Allotropes of Carbon:
  • Graphite: Used in pencils, as a lubricant, and in batteries.
  • Diamond: Used in jewelry, cutting tools, and as abrasives.
  • Fullerene: Known for its unique structure, used in nanotechnology, and materials science.
  • Graphene: Emerging material with potential applications in electronics, composites, and energy storage.
  • Properties of Carbon Allotropes:
  • Graphite's layers allow it to be an effective lubricant.
  • Diamond's tetrahedral structure contributes to its extreme hardness.
  • Fullerenes' spherical shape gives them unique physical and chemical properties.
  • Graphene's single-layer structure allows it to have remarkable electrical conductivity and mechanical strength.

Question 69

Consider the following statements regarding the International Date Line:

  1. It is roughly 180∘ meridian, which deviates slightly East and West to avoid land areas surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.
  2. The date to the East of this line is ( 24 hours) earlier than to the West.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  2 only.

Key PointsInternational Date Line

  • The International Date Line (IDL) is an imaginary line on the surface of the Earth that runs from the North Pole to the South Pole and demarcates the change of one calendar day to the next.
  • It is roughly based on the 180° meridian, but it deviates in several places to avoid splitting countries into different time zones.
  • For example, the IDL zigzags to avoid the Chukchi Peninsula of Russia and the Aleutian Islands of Alaska.
  • The statement that the IDL deviates to avoid land areas is accurate. However, it is not surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean but rather the Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The date to the east of the IDL is one day earlier than the date to the west. This means that if it is Monday just west of the IDL, it is Sunday just east of the IDL.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Time Zones:
  • The world is divided into 24 time zones, each one covering 15 degrees of longitude.
  • Time zones are based on the mean solar time at a particular longitude, with the Prime Meridian (0° longitude) being the reference point.
  • Countries and regions may adjust their time zones to better align with their geographical and socio-economic needs.
  • History of the International Date Line:
  • The concept of the International Date Line was first suggested by Sir Sandford Fleming in the late 19th century.
  • The IDL was formally established at the International Meridian Conference in 1884.
  • It is not fixed by any international treaty or law, and countries are free to adjust their time zones and the IDL as they see fit.
  • Impact on Travel:
  • Crossing the International Date Line can be confusing for travelers, as they may "lose" or "gain" a day depending on the direction of travel.
  • Airlines and shipping companies must carefully coordinate schedules to account for the date change.
  • Examples of Deviation:
  • The IDL deviates around the Kiribati Islands, which moved the line eastward to ensure the entire country is on the same day.
  • Similarly, Tonga and Samoa have adjusted their positions relative to the IDL to better align with their main trading partners.

Question 70

Which of the following statements regarding 'aurora' is/are correct?

  1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth's atmosphere is directed towards two magnetic poles and a colourful display of lights is seen in the night sky.
  2. The particles interact with the different gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows with a particular colour.
  3. In April 2023, aurora was captured in the night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1,2 and 3.**

Key Points

  • Statement 1: Correct. The solar wind, upon reaching the Earth's atmosphere, is directed towards the magnetic poles, resulting in a colourful display of lights known as aurora (aurora borealis in the northern hemisphere and aurora australis in the southern hemisphere).
  • Statement 2: Correct. The particles from the solar wind interact with the different gases in the Earth's atmosphere, and each gas glows with a particular colour. For example, oxygen can emit green or red light, while nitrogen can emit blue or purple light.
  • Statement 3: Correct. In April 2023, Aurora was indeed captured in the night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.

Additional Information

  • Auroras are natural light displays predominantly seen in high-latitude regions around the Arctic and Antarctic. They are known as Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights) in the northern hemisphere and Aurora Australis (Southern Lights) in the southern hemisphere.
  • Solar Wind is a stream of charged particles released from the upper atmosphere of the Sun, known as the corona. The solar wind can affect Earth's magnetosphere and cause geomagnetic storms.
  • The Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) is located in Hanle, Ladakh, and is one of the world's highest observatories. It is operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA).
  • Geomagnetic Storms are temporary disturbances of Earth's magnetosphere caused by solar wind shock waves and/or clouds of magnetic field that interact with Earth's magnetic field. These storms can enhance auroral activity.

Question 71

Which of the following statements regarding Barchan is/are correct?

  1. It is a crescent shaped mound of sand, which is deposited by the wind blowing constantly from one direction in a desert.
  2. The windward side has a convex steep slope with maximum height at the centre.
  3. Two ends of Barchan are called horns and point opposite to the direction the wind blows.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key PointsBarchan

  • Statement 1: It is a crescent shaped mound of sand, which is deposited by the wind blowing constantly from one direction in a desert.
  • This statement is accurate. A barchan is indeed a crescent-shaped sand dune formed by the action of wind in desert regions where the wind comes predominantly from one direction.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Statement 2: The windward side has a convex steep slope with maximum height at the centre.
  • This statement is incorrect. In reality, the windward side of a barchan dune is gently sloping and concave, not steep. The steep slope, known as the slip face, is on the leeward side of the dune.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Statement 3: Two ends of Barchan are called horns and point opposite to the direction the wind blows.
  • This statement is also incorrect. The horns of a barchan dune actually point in the direction the wind is blowing towards, not opposite.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Barchan Dunes:
  • Formation: Barchan dunes form in arid regions where there is a steady wind from one direction and a limited amount of sand.
  • Characteristics: They are crescent-shaped with a gentle slope on the windward side and a steep slope on the leeward side. The horns of the barchan point downwind.
  • Movement: Barchan dunes migrate across the desert floor as the wind pushes sand up the gentle slope and it cascades down the slip face.
  • Desert Geomorphology:
  • Wind Erosion and Deposition: Wind plays a significant role in shaping desert landscapes through processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition of sand and other materials.
  • Other Dune Types: Besides barchans, there are other types of dunes such as transverse dunes, longitudinal dunes, star dunes, and parabolic dunes, each with distinct shapes and formation processes.
  • Importance of Understanding Dunes:
  • Environmental Indicators: Dunes can provide valuable information about wind patterns, climatic conditions, and environmental changes over time.
  • Ecological Significance: Dunes can host unique ecosystems and are important for biodiversity in desert regions.

Question 72

Which of the following statements regarding Regur soil is/are correct?

  1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.
  2. It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.
  3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  2 and 3.

Key PointsRegur Soil (Black Soil)

  • Regur soil, also known as black soil, is famously found in the Deccan Plateau region of India.
  • It is well-known for its moisture-retentive capacity and high fertility.

Statement Analysis:

  • Statement 1: It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.
  • Regur soil is actually dark in colour (hence the name black soil) and not light coloured.
  • It is indeed clayey and fertile, but the statement incorrectly mentions the colour.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Statement 2: It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.
  • This is a correct statement as Regur soil is formed from the weathering of basaltic lava spread over the Deccan Plateau.
  • The formation occurs under hot and humid climatic conditions.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Statement 3: Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.
  • Black soil is famously known as cotton soil because of its suitability for cotton cultivation.
  • The soil's properties make it ideal for growing cotton, making this statement accurate.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Black Soil:
  • Black soil is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime.
  • It has a high capacity to retain moisture and becomes sticky when wet.
  • This soil is generally poor in phosphorous content.
  • Geographical Distribution:
  • Black soil is predominantly found in the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
  • Importance in Agriculture:
  • Apart from cotton, black soil is also suitable for the cultivation of cereals, oilseeds, citrus fruits, and vegetables.
  • The soil’s moisture-retentive properties make it highly dependable for rain-fed agriculture.

Question 73

Which of the following statements regarding clouds is/are correct?

  1. Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude and their form.
  2. According to altitude they are classified as High, Middle and Low clouds.
  3. Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are high clouds.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key PointsUnderstanding Clouds

  • Statement 1: Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude and their form.
  • Clouds are indeed classified based on their altitude and their form. This classification helps in understanding their impact on weather and climate.
  • Altitude classification divides clouds into high, middle, and low categories.
  • Form classification includes types like cumulus, stratus, and cirrus.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: According to altitude they are classified as High, Middle and Low clouds.
  • Clouds are indeed classified based on altitude into high, middle, and low clouds.
  • High clouds are found above 20,000 feet and include types like cirrus, cirrostratus, and cirrocumulus.
  • Middle clouds are found between 6,500 and 20,000 feet and include types like altostratus and altocumulus.
  • Low clouds are found below 6,500 feet and include types like stratus, stratocumulus, and nimbostratus.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3: Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are high clouds.
  • Stratus, nimbostratus, and stratocumulus are actually low clouds, not high clouds.
  • High clouds include cirrus, cirrostratus, and cirrocumulus.
  • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • High Clouds
  • High clouds are found above 20,000 feet.
  • They include cirrus, cirrostratus, and cirrocumulus.
  • These clouds are composed mostly of ice crystals due to the lower temperatures at high altitudes.
  • Middle Clouds
  • Middle clouds are found between 6,500 and 20,000 feet.
  • They include altostratus and altocumulus.
  • These clouds are primarily composed of water droplets but can also contain ice crystals in colder temperatures.
  • Low Clouds
  • Low clouds are found below 6,500 feet.
  • They include stratus, stratocumulus, and nimbostratus.
  • These clouds are composed mostly of water droplets and can lead to precipitation.
  • Importance of Cloud Classification
  • Understanding cloud types and classifications helps meteorologists predict weather patterns and climatic conditions.High clouds often indicate changes in weather, such as an approaching warm front.
  • Middle clouds can signal the development of thunderstorms or signify fair weather.
  • Low clouds are closely associated with precipitation and can lead to overcast skies.

Question 74

Consider the following statements regarding 'fronts':

  1. The movement of a front causes a slow change in weather in the area over which it moves.
  2. Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.
  3. Warm front is the boundary between an advancing mass of warm air where it is overriding and rising above a mass of colder air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3.

Key PointsConsider the following statements regarding 'fronts'

  • The movement of a front causes a slow change in weather in the area over which it moves.
  • Fronts are the boundaries between different air masses, and their movement can significantly impact local weather conditions.
  • When a front moves through an area, it often brings a change in temperature, humidity, and wind patterns.
  • The changes can be gradual and may include cloud formation and precipitation.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.
  • Cold fronts occur when a cold air mass pushes into a warmer air mass, causing the warm air to rise rapidly.
  • This rapid ascent of warm air can lead to the development of thunderstorms, heavy rain, and even severe weather events like tornadoes.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • A warm front is the boundary between an advancing mass of warm air where it is overriding and rising above a mass of colder air.
  • Warm fronts move more slowly than cold fronts and typically bring prolonged periods of steady precipitation.
  • As the warm air rises over the cold air, it cools and condenses, forming clouds and precipitation.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Types of Fronts:
  • Cold Front: Characterized by a steep temperature gradient and rapid weather changes, often leading to severe weather such as thunderstorms and heavy rain.
  • Warm Front: Typically associated with gradual weather changes, bringing steady precipitation and overcast skies.
  • Stationary Front: Occurs when two air masses are in a standoff, leading to prolonged periods of cloudiness and precipitation.
  • Occluded Front: Forms when a cold front overtakes a warm front, often leading to complex weather patterns including rain and thunderstorms.
  • Weather Patterns:
  • Thunderstorms: Usually form in association with cold fronts due to the rapid uplift of warm, moist air.
  • Steady Rain: More common with warm fronts where the warm air gradually rises over the cold air mass.
  • Cloud Formation: Both warm and cold fronts can lead to significant cloud formation as air masses interact.
  • Meteorological Importance:
  • Understanding fronts is crucial for weather forecasting and predicting severe weather events.
  • Fronts are key indicators in meteorology for anticipating changes in weather conditions, temperature, and precipitation.

Question 75

Consider the following statements regarding soils :

  1. Soils having a very high content of sodium and calcium and pH of more than 7.0 are alkaline soils.
  2. Black cotton soil had developed on the Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.
  3. Laterite soils are characterised by a deep weathered layer from which silica has been leached.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key PointsSoils Characteristics

  • Alkaline Soils:
  • Alkaline soils are typically characterized by a high pH level, usually above 7.0.
  • They often contain a high concentration of salts, particularly sodium and sometimes calcium.
  • However, the presence of both sodium and calcium in very high concentrations is uncommon together in alkaline soils.
  • Generally, soils with high sodium content are referred to as sodic soils.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Black Cotton Soil:
  • Black cotton soil, also known as Regur soil, is predominantly found in the Deccan Plateau region of India.
  • It is formed from the weathering of basaltic lava under specific climatic conditions that include hot and humid weather.
  • This soil is rich in clay minerals and has high moisture retention properties, making it suitable for cotton cultivation.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Laterite Soils:
  • Laterite soils are heavily leached soils found in tropical and subtropical regions with high rainfall.
  • They are characterized by a deep weathered layer from which silica and other soluble minerals have been leached out.
  • These soils are rich in iron and aluminum oxides, which give them a distinctive red or yellow color.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Soil pH:
  • The pH of soil is a measure of its acidity or alkalinity.
  • A pH below 7 indicates acidic soil, while a pH above 7 indicates alkaline soil.
  • Soil pH affects nutrient availability and microbial activity, which are crucial for plant growth.
  • Deccan Basaltic Lava:
  • The Deccan Plateau in India is known for its extensive basaltic lava flows that date back to the Cretaceous period.
  • These lava flows have weathered over time to form fertile soils like black cotton soil.
  • Laterite Soil Uses:
  • Laterite soils are used for building materials and road construction due to their hardness and ability to withstand weathering.
  • In agriculture, they are less fertile but can be improved with proper management and fertilization.
  • Soil Management:
  • Understanding the characteristics of different soils is crucial for effective soil management and sustainable agriculture.
  • Soil amendments, crop rotation, and proper irrigation are some techniques used to manage soil health.

Question 76

Consider the following characteristics of a grassland :

  1. An extensive area of mid latitude grasslands are devoid of trees and shrubs.
  2. The climate is characterised by hot summers, cold winters and relatively low rainfall occurring mainly in spring and summer.
  3. In humid parts, grasses grow to a meter or more in height.

On the basis of the above characteristics, select the correct grassland from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Steppes

  2. BOption (b)

    Prairies

  3. COption (c)

    Savanna

  4. DOption (d)

    Pampas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Steppes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Steppes.

Key PointsCharacteristics of Grasslands

  • An extensive area of mid latitude grasslands are devoid of trees and shrubs.
  • Mid-latitude grasslands, such as the Steppes, are known for their vast expanses without trees and shrubs. This is primarily due to the semi-arid climate that does not support the growth of large vegetation.
  • These grasslands are typically found in regions with continental climates, where the temperature and precipitation patterns are not conducive to tree growth
  • The climate is characterised by hot summers, cold winters and relatively low rainfall occurring mainly in spring and summer.
  • The Steppes experience extreme temperature variations with hot summers and cold winters. This continental climate is typical of mid-latitude regions.
  • The rainfall in these regions is generally low, averaging between 250 to 500 mm annually, and mostly occurs during the spring and summer months
  • In humid parts, grasses grow to a meter or more in height.
  • In the more humid areas of the Steppes, the grasses can grow quite tall, often reaching a meter or more. This is because the increased humidity and slightly better soil moisture conditions support better grass growth.
  • However, in drier parts of the Steppes, the grass remains shorter due to the lack of sufficient moisture.

Hence, based of the above characteristics, the mentioned grassland is Steppes.

Additional Information

  • Steppes are extensive plains found in regions such as Central Asia, Eastern Europe, and parts of North America.
  • They are characterized by a semi-arid climate, which limits the growth of trees and large shrubs.
  • The Steppes are often used for grazing livestock due to the abundance of grasses.
  • Historically, the Steppes have been home to various nomadic tribes and civilizations.
  • Prairies are found in North America, particularly in the United States and Canada.
  • Prairies also experience hot summers and cold winters, but they receive more rainfall compared to the Steppes, supporting taller grasses and even some isolated trees.
  • Savanna is a type of grassland found in tropical regions, such as Africa, South America, and Australia.
  • Savannas are characterized by a mix of grasses and scattered trees, and they experience a distinct wet and dry season.
  • Pampas are vast plains located in South America, particularly in Argentina and Uruguay.
  • The Pampas have a more moderate climate and receive more rainfall than the Steppes, supporting lush grasslands suitable for agriculture and cattle ranching.

Question 77

Which of the following statements regarding animal cell membrane is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are composed of phospholipids only.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are composed of proteins only.

  3. COption (c)

    They are composed of phospholipids and proteins only.

  4. DOption (d)

    They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).

Key Points

  • Animal cell membranes are primarily composed of three major components: phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol.
  • Phospholipids form a bilayer that provides the fundamental structure of the membrane.
  • Proteins are embedded within this bilayer and serve various functions such as transport, signal transduction, and acting as enzymes.
  • Cholesterol is interspersed within the phospholipid bilayer, providing stability and fluidity to the membrane.
  • This structure is often referred to as the fluid mosaic model because of the flexible nature of the lipid bilayer and the mosaic-like distribution of proteins.

 Additional Information

  • Phospholipids
  • They have hydrophilic (water-attracting) heads and hydrophobic (water-repelling) tails.
  • This dual nature allows them to form bilayers in aqueous environments, which is essential for creating the cell membrane's structure.
  • Proteins
  • Integral proteins span the membrane, while peripheral proteins are attached to the exterior or interior surfaces.
  • They play crucial roles in transport, acting as channels or carriers for molecules to enter or exit the cell.
  • Cholesterol
  • It helps to modulate the fluidity of the membrane, making it less permeable to very small water-soluble molecules that might otherwise pass through more easily.
  • Cholesterol is particularly important in maintaining the integrity and functionality of the cell membrane under varying temperature conditions.

Question 78

Which of the following is not a part of compound microscope?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mirror

  2. BOption (b)

    Stage

  3. COption (c)

    Clip

  4. DOption (d)

    Retina

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Retina

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Retina.

Key Points

  • The retina is a part of the human eye, not a component of a compound microscope.
  • A compound microscope is an optical instrument used to magnify small objects and is composed of multiple lenses.
  • Key parts of a compound microscope include the mirror, stage, and clip.
  • The mirror is used to reflect light through the specimen for better visibility.
  • The stage is the platform where the specimen slide is placed for observation.
  • The clip holds the slide securely on the stage.

 Additional Information

  • Mirror
  • The mirror is often a concave or flat mirror that directs light upward through the diaphragm, the specimen, and the lenses.
  • It is crucial for illuminating the sample being observed under the microscope.
  • Stage
  • The stage is typically a flat platform where the slide is placed.Some stages have mechanical controls to move the slide precisely.
  • It often includes a hole in the center to allow light to pass through the specimen from below.
  • Clip
  • Clips are used to hold the microscope slide firmly in place on the stage.
  • They ensure that the slide does not move during observation, providing a stable view of the specimen.

Question 79

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing complexity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Protein - Organism - Tissue - Organ

  2. BOption (b)

    Protein - Organ - Tissue - Organism

  3. COption (c)

    Protein - Organism - Organ - Tissue

  4. DOption (d)

    Protein - Tissue - Organ - Organism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Protein - Tissue - Organ - Organism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Protein - Tissue - Organ - Organism.

Key Points

  • Proteins are complex molecules that play many critical roles in the body. They are made up of hundreds or thousands of smaller units called amino acids, which are attached in long chains.
  • Tissues are groups of cells that have a similar structure and act together to perform a specific function. Examples include muscle tissue, nervous tissue, and connective tissue.
  • Organs are collections of tissues that form a functional unit to perform a specific function or group of functions. Examples include the heart, liver, and lungs.
  • An organism is an individual living thing that can react to stimuli, reproduce, grow, and maintain homeostasis. Organisms can be unicellular or multicellular.
  • The sequence from protein to organism shows an increase in complexity as it moves from the molecular level to the cellular level, then to the tissue level, followed by the organ level, and finally to the whole organism.

Question 80

Consider the following cell types:

  1. Monocyte 2. Chondrocyte

3.Basophil

4.Lymphocyte

How many of the above belong to animal cell types?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • Monocyte is a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that is part of the immune system in animals.
  • Chondrocyte is a cell that is found in cartilage, a type of connective tissue in animals.
  • Basophil is another type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that plays a role in immune responses in animals.
  • Lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that is crucial for the immune system in animals.
  • All the mentioned cells—Monocyte, Chondrocyte, Basophil, and Lymphocyte—are types of animal cells.

 Additional Information

  • Monocyte
  • Monocytes are the largest type of white blood cells and can differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells.
  • They are crucial for phagocytosis, a process where cells engulf and digest pathogens.
  • Chondrocyte
  • Chondrocytes produce and maintain the cartilaginous matrix, which includes collagen and proteoglycans.
  • They are essential for the growth and repair of cartilage tissue.
  • Basophil
  • Basophils release histamine and other chemicals during allergic reactions and asthma attacks.
  • They are involved in the inflammatory response and help to protect the body against parasites.
  • Lymphocyte
  • Lymphocytes are divided into B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, each with distinct roles in the immune response.
  • They are essential for adaptive immunity, recognizing and remembering specific pathogens.

Question 81

In the human digestive system, which one among the following is the role of the pancreas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid droplets

  2. BOption (b)

    Storage and regulated release of bile

  3. COption (c)

    Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease

  4. DOption (d)

    Neutralizing stomach acids

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease.

Key Points

  • The pancreas is a vital organ in the human digestive system.
  • It secretes digestive enzymes such as lipase, amylase, and protease.
  • Lipase helps in the breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
  • Amylase aids in the digestion of carbohydrates by converting starch into simple sugars.
  • Protease is responsible for breaking down proteins into amino acids.
  • The pancreas also plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels by producing hormones like insulin and glucagon.

 Additional Information

  • Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid droplets
  • This function is primarily performed by the liver and gallbladder.
  • The liver produces bile, which contains bile salts that act as surfactants to break up lipid droplets.
  • The bile is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder before being released into the small intestine.
  • Storage and regulated release of bile
  • This is the primary function of the gallbladder.
  • The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver and releases it into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of fats.
  • Neutralizing stomach acids
  • The pancreas does produce bicarbonate ions that help neutralize stomach acids, but its primary role is the secretion of digestive enzymes.
  • These bicarbonate ions are secreted into the small intestine to create an alkaline environment, which is essential for the proper functioning of digestive enzymes.

Question 82

Consider the following statements:

  1. DNA replication takes place when chromatin is opened up.
  2. Chromatin organizes itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division.
  3. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the same process for cell division.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1,2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1 only.

Key Points

  • DNA replication takes place when chromatin is opened up:
  • During the process of DNA replication, chromatin must be relaxed and opened up to allow the replication machinery to access the DNA strands.
  • This process ensures that the genetic material is accurately copied before cell division.
  • Chromatin remodeling is essential for replication, as it enables the replication forks to progress along the DNA.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Chromatin organizes itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division:
  • Chromatin organizes itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division.

Before cell division (during prophase), chromatin condenses into visible, rod-shaped chromosomes.

This condensation is essential for proper segregation of genetic material.

  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the same process for cell division:
  • Prokaryotes and eukaryotes have fundamentally different mechanisms for cell division.
  • Prokaryotes undergo binary fission, a simpler process where the cell divides into two identical daughter cells.
  • Eukaryotes undergo a more complex process involving mitosis (for somatic cells) or meiosis (for gametes).
  • The processes involve different stages, regulatory mechanisms, and cellular machinery.
  • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • DNA Replication:
  • DNA replication is a biological process that occurs in all living organisms and is the basis for biological inheritance.
  • It involves the unwinding of the double helix and the synthesis of new complementary strands by DNA polymerase.
  • Accurate replication is crucial for maintaining genetic integrity across generations.
  • Chromatin Structure:
  • Chromatin is composed of DNA and histone proteins and is found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
  • It exists in a less condensed form during interphase to allow for transcription and replication.
  • During cell division, chromatin condenses into chromosomes to ensure proper segregation of genetic material.
  • Cell Division in Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes:
  • Prokaryotic cell division is relatively simple and involves binary fission, where the cell splits into two identical cells.
  • Eukaryotic cell division is more complex and can involve either mitosis or meiosis, depending on the type of cell and its function.
  • These processes ensure genetic material is accurately divided and distributed to daughter cells.

Question 83

A uniform meter scale of mass 0.24 kg is made of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W1  and W2 , in a horizontal position. W1 is at a distance of 0.2 m from one of its ends, while W2  is at distance of 0.4 m from the other end. If the force on the scale is N1 due to W1 and N2 due to W2, then : (take g =10·0 m s-2

  1. AOption (a)

    N1 = 1.6N and N2 = 0.8 N

  2. BOption (b)

    N1 = 0.8 N and N2 =1.6 N

  3. COption (c)

    N1 = 0.6 N and N2 = 1.8 N

  4. DOption (d)

    N1 = 1.8 N and N2 = 0.6 N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

N1 = 0.6 N and N2 = 1.8 N

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Mg will act at the center i.e. 0.5 m from end 

Distance b/w W1 & W2 = 1 - 0.2 - 0.4 = 0.4 m

(Fnet)y-axis = 0

N1 + N2 = 0.24 × 10

N1 + N2 = 2.4                    ----(1)

Net torque about point mg

N1 × (0.3) = N2 × (0.1)

3N1 = N2 

From equation (1)

N1 + 3N1 = 2.4 

4N1 = 2.4

N1 = 0.6 N

Again, from equation (1)

N2 = 2.4 - 0.6 = 1.8 N

∴ N1 = 0.6 N and N2 = 1.8 N

Question 84

Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11.2 km s-1. On another planet whose radius is half of the Earth's radius and whose mass density is four times that of the Earth, the escape speed in km s-1 will be close to:

  1. AOption (a)

    11.2

  2. BOption (b)

    15.8

  3. COption (c)

    5.6

  4. DOption (d)

    7.9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11.2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Escape speed from Earth, ve = 11.2 km/s

Radius of another planet, Rp = 0.5 × Radius of Earth

Mass density of another planet, ρp = 4 × Density of Earth

Formula Used:

The escape speed from a planet is given by:

ve = √(2GM/R)

Where G is the gravitational constant,

M is the mass of the planet, and

R is the radius of the planet

Calculation:

Density, ρ = Mass/Volume

⇒ Mp = ρp × Volume

⇒ Volume, V = (4/3)πRp3

⇒ Mp = 4 × ρEarth × (4/3)π(0.5REarth)3

⇒ Mp = 4 × ρEarth × (4/3)π(0.125REarth3)

⇒ Mp = 4 × (1/8) × MEarth

⇒ Mp = 0.5 × MEarth

Escape speed calculation for the new planet

⇒ ve(new) = √(2GMp/Rp)

⇒ ve(new) = √(2G(0.5MEarth)/(0.5REarth))

⇒ ve(new) =  ve

⇒ ve(new) ≈ 11.2 km/s

⇒ ve(new) ≈ 11.2 km/s

∴ The escape speed on the other planet is approximately 11.2 km/s.

Question 85

Which one of the following does not apply to sound waves in fluids?

  1. AOption (a)

    They transport energy

  2. BOption (b)

    They need a medium to travel

  3. COption (c)

    They are transverse

  4. DOption (d)

    They travel faster in liquids than in gases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

They are transverse

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

 

Sound waves in fluids (such as gases and liquids) are longitudinal

 

waves, not transverse waves. Here's an explanation of each option:

 

They transport energy: True. Sound waves carry energy as they travel through a medium. This energy is transferred through the vibration of particles in the medium.

 

They need a medium to travel: True. Sound waves require a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to propagate. They cannot travel through a vacuum.

 

They are transverse: False. In fluids, sound waves are longitudinal waves, meaning the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave propagation. Transverse waves, where particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, do not typically occur in fluids.

 

They travel faster in liquids than in gases: True. Sound waves generally travel faster in liquids than in gases because particles in liquids are closer together than in gases, allowing vibrations to be transmitted more quickly.

 

Therefore, option 3 is the one that does not apply to sound waves in fluids.

Question 86

A ball of 0.1 kg mass is dropped on a hard floor from a height of 0.45 m and rises to a height of 0.20 m. If it was in touch with the floor for 0.1 s, the net force it applied on the floor while bouncing is : (take the gravitational acceleration g = 10 m s-2)

  1. AOption (a)

    1.0 N

  2. BOption (b)

    6.0 N

  3. COption (c)

    3.0 N

  4. DOption (d)

    5.0 N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5.0 N

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mass of the ball, m = 0.1 kg

Initial height, h1 = 0.45 m

Final height, h2 = 0.20 m

Time in contact with the floor, t = 0.1 s

Gravitational acceleration, g = 10 m/s2

Concept:

To find the net force applied on the floor, we need to calculate the change in momentum (impulse) and divide it by the contact time.

Formula Used:

Initial velocity, u = √(2gh1)

Final velocity, v = √(2gh2)

Impulse (change in momentum), I = m(v + u)

Net force, F = I / t

Calculation:

Initial velocity:

⇒ u = √(2 × 10 × 0.45)

⇒ u = √(9)

⇒ u = 3 m/s

Final velocity:

⇒ v = √(2 × 10 × 0.20)

⇒ v = √(4)

⇒ v = 2 m/s

Impulse (change in momentum):

⇒ I = 0.1 × (2 + 3)

⇒ I = 0.1 × 5

⇒ I = 0.5 kg m/s

Net force:

⇒ F = 0.5 / 0.1

⇒ F = 5 N

Hence, the net force applied on the floor while bouncing is 5 N.

Question 87

Which one of the following statements regarding simple pendulum is correct?

Simple pendulum has a time period independent of amplitude:

  1. AOption (a)

    only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is independent of its displacement.

  2. BOption (b)

    for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is always proportional to its displacement.

  3. COption (c)

    for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is independent of its displacement.

  4. DOption (d)

    only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

T = 2π √(l/g)

Where,

  • T = Time period
  • L = Length of the pendulum
  • g = Acceleration due to gravity
  • This formula is derived under the assumption that the amplitude of the pendulum's swing is small.
  • When the amplitude is small, the restoring force (which brings the pendulum back to its equilibrium position) is approximately proportional to the displacement of the bob from the equilibrium position.
  • This proportionality leads to simple harmonic motion, which has the time period described by the formula above.
  • For larger amplitudes, this proportionality no longer holds exactly because the restoring force is no longer strictly proportional to the displacement.
  • Instead, it depends on the sine of the displacement angle. As the amplitude increases, the approximation that 

∴ The correct statement is: "only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.

Question 88

Which one of the following about different frictional forces is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kinetic friction > Static friction > Rolling friction

  2. BOption (b)

    Static friction > Rolling friction > Kinetic friction

  3. COption (c)

    Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

  4. DOption (d)

    Static friction > Kinetic friction = Rolling friction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Friction is the force that opposes the relative motion or tendency of such motion of two surfaces in contact. There are three main types of friction:

  • Static Friction: The frictional force that prevents relative motion between two surfaces in contact when at rest.
  • Kinetic Friction: The frictional force acting between two surfaces in relative motion.
  • Rolling Friction: The frictional force that resists the motion of a rolling object over a surface.

 

Generally, the order of magnitude for these forces is:

Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

Explanation:

Given the options:

Option 1: Kinetic friction > Static friction > Rolling friction

Option 2: Static friction > Rolling friction > Kinetic friction

Option 3: Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

Option 4: Static friction > Kinetic friction = Rolling friction

We know from the concept that:

Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

Hence, the correct option is: Option 3.

Question 89

A metallic bob X of mass m is released from position A. It collides elastically with another identical bob Y placed at rest at position B on a horizontal frictionless table. The angle AOB is 30°.

How high does the bob X rise immediately after the

  1. AOption (a)

    To the same height as that of position A on the other side in the same trajectory

  2. BOption (b)

    To half the height as that of position A on the other side along the same trajectory

  3. COption (c)

    The same height at position A

  4. DOption (d)

    It stops at position B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It stops at position B

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A metallic bob X of mass m is released from position A. It collides

elastically with another identical bob Y placed at rest at position B. The

angle AOB is 30°.

Concept Used:

In an elastic collision between two identical masses, the moving mass

comes to rest, and the mass at rest starts moving with the velocity of the

first mass.

Formula Used:

Conservation of energy and conservation of momentum principles are

used. The height reached by the bob X after the initial potential energy can

determine the collision.

Calculation

⇒ Initial potential energy of bob X at A:

⇒ PEA = mgh

⇒ h = L(1 - cos(θ)),

Where L is the length of the pendulum and θ is the angle.

⇒ h = L(1 - cos(30°))

⇒ h = L(1 - √3/2)

Since the collision is elastic and bobs are identical

The velocity of bob X just after the collision is u1=2ghu_1=\sqrt{2gh}.

The Bob Y is at rest initially u2=0u_2=0. 

The initially momentum is :

pi=mu1+mu2=m2ghp_i=mu_1+mu_2=m\sqrt{2gh}

Let's say the final velocity is bob X and bob Y is v1v_1 and v2v_2

The final momentum  is 

pf=mv1+mv2p_f=mv_1+mv_2

The momentum conservation gives:

pi=pfμ1=mv1+mv2 2gh=v1+v2(1)p_i=p_f\mu_1=mv_1+mv_2 \ \sqrt{2gh}=v_1+v_2 \quad \quad (1)

The energy conservation gives:

mu122+0=mv122+mv222 2gh=v12+v22(2).\frac{mu_1^2}{2}+0=\frac{mv_1^2}{2}+\frac{mv_2^2}{2} \ 2gh=v_1^2+v_2^2 \quad \quad (2).

Squaring (1) and putting the value of (2) in (1). we get,

2gh=v12+v22+2v1v2 2gh=2gh+2v1v2 v1v2=02gh=v_1^2+v_2^2+2v_1v_2 \ 2gh=2gh+2v_1v_2 \ v_1v_2=0

Either v1 or v2 is zero. Hence The Bob x will stop and transfer its full energy to the bob Y.

∴ Bob X stops at position B.

Question 90

Consider the two statements given below :

Statement-1: Infrared waves are also called heat waves.

Statement-2: Water molecules readily absorb infrared waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement-1 is true, but Statement-2 is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement-2 is true, but Statement-1 is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Statement-1: Infrared waves are also called heat waves.

Statement-2: Water molecules readily absorb infrared waves.

Concept Used:

Infrared waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation. These waves are often associated with heat because they are emitted by objects that are warm and can be felt as heat.

Water molecules have a strong absorption band in the infrared region due to their molecular vibrations.

Calculation:

⇒ Infrared waves are known to transfer heat energy, hence they are called heat waves.

⇒ Water molecules absorb infrared waves, which leads to an increase in their vibrational energy.

⇒ This absorption of infrared waves by water molecules is a well-known fact in spectroscopy and atmospheric science.

∴ Both statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.

Question 91

Which of the following statements are correct

  1. British 'trade surplus' with India in the nineteenth century meant that the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India.
  2. India played a crucial role in the late-nineteenth-century world economy by helping Britain balance its deficits.
  3. Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China and, therefore, for a while after the 1820 s, opium became India's single largest export.
  4. The nineteenth century saw export of Indian raw materials decline, and that of manufactured goods increase.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • British 'trade surplus' with India:
  • In the nineteenth century, Britain had a "trade surplus" with India. This means that the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India.
  • This trade surplus was essential for Britain to balance its trade deficits with other countries, especially in Europe and America.
  • India was a major market for British manufactured goods, which helped Britain maintain its economic stability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • India's role in the world economy:
  • India played a crucial role in the late-nineteenth-century world economy by helping Britain balance its deficits with other regions.
  • India provided a steady flow of revenue and resources to Britain, which was used to pay off Britain's debts and deficits incurred in Europe and America.
  • This economic relationship was vital for Britain's global economic dominance during that period. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Opium trade:
  • Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China. This trade was highly profitable for the British East India Company.
  • After the 1820s, opium became India's single largest export, significantly contributing to the British economy.
  • This trade had significant social and economic impacts on China, leading to the Opium Wars. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Export of Indian raw materials and manufactured goods:
  • The nineteenth century saw a decline in the export of Indian manufactured goods and an increase in the export of raw materials.
  • India was de-industrialized and turned into a supplier of raw materials for British industries, while British manufactured goods flooded the Indian market.
  • This shift significantly impacted India's traditional industries and economic structure. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Opium Wars:
  • These were two wars fought between China and Western countries (mainly Britain) in the mid-19th century.
  • The First Opium War (1839-1842) and the Second Opium War (1856-1860) were triggered by the trade of opium and resulted in significant territorial and commercial concessions to Western powers.
  • De-industrialization of India:
  • During British rule, India saw the decline of its traditional industries, especially textiles, due to the influx of British manufactured goods.
  • This led to widespread unemployment and economic distress among Indian artisans and craftsmen.
  • British East India Company:
  • A British trading company that played a central role in the colonization of India.
  • It was granted a royal charter by Queen Elizabeth I in 1600 and ruled large parts of India until the British Crown took control in 1858.

Question 92

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (unit in use in early India)List-II (content)
A.Muhurta1.Measure of weight
B.Raktika2.Measure of time
C.Angula3.Metre of poetry
D.Pada4.Measure of length
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    .A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3.

Key PointsUnits in Use in Early India

  • Muhurta is a unit of time measurement in ancient India.
  • A Muhurta is equivalent to approximately 48 minutes.
  • It was commonly used in Vedic astrology and daily rituals.
  • Hence, A matched with 2.
  • Raktika is a measure of weight.
  • Raktika is a small unit of weight measurement, historically used in the Indian subcontinent.
  • It is often equated to the weight of a single Ratti seed, which is approximately 0.1215 grams.
  • Hence, B matched with 1.
  • Angula is a measure of length.
  • Angula is an ancient Indian unit of length, which is roughly equivalent to the breadth of a finger.
  • It is commonly used in traditional Indian architecture and sculpture.
  • Hence, C matched with 4.
  • Pada is a metre of poetry.
  • In Sanskrit literature, Pada refers to a foot or a quarter of a verse in poetry.
  • It is a fundamental unit in the structure of classical Indian poetry.
  • Hence, D matched with 3.

Question 93

First coins in Indian history bearing the names and images of rulers were issued by the:

  1. AOption (a)

    Mauryas

  2. BOption (b)

    Pushyabhutis

  3. COption (c)

    Guptas

  4. DOption (d)

    Indo-Greeks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indo-Greeks

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Indo-Greeks.

Key Points

  • The Indo-Greeks were the first in Indian history to issue coins bearing the names and images of rulers.
  • This innovation was an important development in the history of coinage in India.
  • Indo-Greek coins were notable for their high artistic quality and Greek inscriptions.
  • These coins often featured the portraits of kings on the obverse and various deities on the reverse.
  • The introduction of these coins marked a significant cultural exchange between the Greeks and the Indian subcontinent.
  • The most famous Indo-Greek ruler was Menander I (Milinda), who ruled in the 2nd century BCE.

 Additional Information

  • Mauryas
  • The Maurya Empire (322-185 BCE) was one of the largest empires in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Founded by Chandragupta Maurya, it reached its zenith under Ashoka the Great.
  • The Mauryas issued punch-marked coins, but these did not bear the names and images of rulers.
  • Pushyabhutis
  • The Pushyabhuti dynasty, also known as the Vardhana dynasty, ruled parts of northern India during the 6th and 7th centuries CE.
  • The most notable ruler was Harsha, who expanded the empire significantly.
  • They did not introduce coins bearing the names and images of rulers.
  • Guptas
  • The Gupta Empire (c. 320-550 CE) is often referred to as the Golden Age of India.
  • Gupta coins are renowned for their artistic excellence and depicted various deities, but they came much later than the Indo-Greeks.
  • Rulers like Chandragupta I and Samudragupta issued coins with their images, continuing the tradition introduced by the Indo-Greeks.

Question 94

Social theorists in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries emphasised the emergence of industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation and bureaucratisation as hallmarks of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Modernity

  2. BOption (b)

    Feudalism

  3. COption (c)

    Kingship

  4. DOption (d)

    Medievalism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Modernity

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Modernity.

Key Points

  • Modernity is characterised by significant changes in social, economic, and cultural conditions.
  • The emergence of industrialisation marked the transition from agrarian economies to industrial economies.
  • Urbanisation involved the movement of people from rural areas to cities, leading to the growth of urban centres.
  • Secularisation refers to the declining influence of religion and the increasing emphasis on rationality and science.
  • Bureaucratisation involves the establishment of formal administrative structures and procedures in organisations and governments.
  • These changes collectively signify the shift towards a modern society, often contrasted with traditional or pre-modern societies.
  • Important theorists like Max Weber and Emile Durkheim studied these phenomena extensively.

 Additional Information

  • Feudalism
  • Feudalism is a medieval European social system in which land was owned by lords who allowed peasants to work on it in exchange for military protection and other services.
  • It is characterised by a rigid hierarchical structure and a strong dependency between lords and vassals.
  • Kingship
  • Kingship refers to the political and social organisation where a king or monarch is the supreme ruler.
  • It often involves hereditary succession and divine right of kings.
  • Medievalism
  • Medievalism refers to the social, cultural, and political characteristics of the Middle Ages, roughly from the 5th to the late 15th century.
  • This period is marked by feudalism, the dominance of the Church, and the lack of strong centralised states.

Question 95

Consider the following events:

  1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
  2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi
  3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act
  4. Jallianwala Bagh incident

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?

  1. AOption (a)

    1,2,3,4

  2. BOption (b)

    3,4,2,1

  3. COption (c)

    3,2,4,1

  4. DOption (d)

    2,3,4,1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3,4,2,1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  3, 4, 2, 1.

Key PointsChronological Order of Events

  • The passing of the Rowlatt Act: March 1919
  • This act was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council in British India.
  • It gave the British government in India the power to arrest and detain individuals without trial.
  • The act was seen as repressive and led to widespread anger and protests across India
  • Jallianwala Bagh incident: April 13, 1919
  • On April 13, 1919, a large crowd gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar to protest against the arrest of two nationalist leaders.
  • General Dyer ordered his troops to fire on the unarmed crowd, resulting in a massacre.
  • This incident intensified Indian anger against British rule and was a pivotal moment in the Indian independence movement
  • All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi: November 1919
  • This conference took place in November 1919 as part of the Khilafat Movement.
  • The Khilafat Movement aimed to support the Turkish Caliphate and protect it from dismemberment after World War I.
  • It was also a significant part of the Indian freedom struggle, as it brought together Muslims and Hindus in a common cause
  • Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement: August 1920
  • Launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1920.
  • It was a mass protest against British rule, urging Indians to withdraw from British institutions and boycott British goods.
  • The movement saw widespread participation and was a major step towards Indian independence.

Hence, the correct chronological order of the given events is 3, 4, 2, 1.​**

Question 96

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (System / Category)List-II (Description)
A.Upari1.Peasants directly responsible for the payment of revenue
B.Pattadar2.Category of tenancy tenure held under the Marathas
C.Mirasidar3.Gifts of land or land revenue
D.Inam lands4.Co-parcenary title holder and designated revenue payer in southern India
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3.

Key PointsMatch List-I with List-II

  • Upari - Category of tenancy tenure held under the Marathas.
  • Pattadar - Peasants directly responsible for the payment of revenue.
  • Mirasidar - Co-parcenary title holder and designated revenue payer in southern India.
  • Inam lands - Gifts of land or land revenue.

Additional Information

  • Upari refers to a category of tenancy tenure that was prevalent under the Maratha rule. This system allowed tenants to cultivate the land, but they were not the absolute owners of the land. The Marathas implemented this system to ensure a steady revenue stream from the tenants.
  • Pattadar refers to peasants who were directly responsible for the payment of revenue to the government. These peasants held the pattas (land grants) and were accountable for the revenue generated from the land.
  • Mirasidar refers to co-parcenary title holders and designated revenue payers in southern India. These individuals had hereditary rights over the land and were responsible for paying the revenue to the government.
  • Inam lands refer to gifts of land or land revenue. These lands were granted as rewards or charitable donations and were often exempt from regular revenue payments.

Question 97

Which of the following statements about Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya's expeditions are correct?

  1. In the early years of his reign he marched against the ruler of Orissa.
  2. In 1520 CE, he captured the fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan.
  3. Krishnadevaraya restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power and assumed the title of Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1,2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1,2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key PointsVijayanagara King Krishnadevaraya's Expeditions

  • In the early years of his reign, he marched against the ruler of Orissa:
  • Krishnadevaraya, the most famous ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, led several military campaigns during his reign.
  • In the initial years, he indeed marched against the ruler of Orissa, Gajapati Prataparudra, to expand his territory and assert his dominance in the region.
  • This campaign was a significant military endeavour that showcased his prowess as a military commander.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • In 1520 CE, he captured the fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan:
  • The Battle of Raichur in 1520 CE was a significant conflict between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Sultanate of Bijapur.
  • Krishnadevaraya successfully captured the strategically important fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan, the ruler of Bijapur.
  • This victory further solidified his reputation as a formidable warrior and expanded his empire's territory.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Krishnadevaraya restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power and assumed the title of Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya:
  • Krishnadevaraya also played a role in the politics of the Deccan Sultanates.
  • He restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to the throne of Bidar after defeating the rebellious nobles who had deposed him.
  • For this act, he assumed the title of "Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya," which means "Restorer of the Yavana kingdom."

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Krishnadevaraya:
  • He ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1509 to 1529 CE and is considered one of its greatest rulers.
  • His reign is often regarded as the golden age of the Vijayanagara Empire due to the extensive expansion and consolidation of the empire, as well as significant contributions to art, literature, and architecture.
  • Vijayanagara Empire:
  • Founded in 1336 CE by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, the empire was known for its administrative prowess, military strength, and contributions to South Indian culture.
  • The empire served as a bulwark against the invasions of the Deccan Sultanates and maintained a strong Hindu cultural presence in South India.
  • Battle of Raichur:
  • Fought in 1520 CE, it was a decisive battle between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Sultanate of Bijapur.
  • The victory at Raichur was a significant achievement for Krishnadevaraya and demonstrated his military acumen.
  • Title of Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya:
  • This title was adopted by Krishnadevaraya after he restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to the throne of Bidar.
  • It highlighted his role in the political dynamics of the Deccan region and his influence over the neighbouring Sultanates.

Question 98

Water gas is a mixture of:

  1. AOption (a)

    CO2 and H2

  2. BOption (b)

    CO and  H2

  3. COption (c)

    CO2 and H2O

  4. DOption (d)

    CO and H2O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CO and  H2

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is CO and H2.

Key Points

  • Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H2).
  • It is produced by passing steam over hot coke in a process known as the water-gas shift reaction.
  • The chemical reaction involved is: C + H2O → CO + H2.
  • Water gas is an important industrial gas used as a fuel and as a reducing agent in various chemical processes.
  • It is also utilized in the Fischer-Tropsch process to produce synthetic fuels.
  • The production of water gas is a critical step in the manufacture of syngas (synthesis gas), which is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.

 Additional Information

  • CO2 and H2
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen (H2) do not form water gas.
  • This mixture is not commonly utilized in industrial processes.
  • CO2 and H2O
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) are the products of the combustion of hydrocarbons, not constituents of water gas.
  • CO and H2O
  • Carbon monoxide (CO) and water (H2O) are reactants in the water-gas shift reaction, not the products.
  • They are used to produce water gas.

Question 99

Human body works in the pH range of:

  1. AOption (a)

    6.8 - 7.2

  2. BOption (b)

    7.0 - 7.8

  3. COption (c)

    6.5 - 7.5

  4. DOption (d)

    7.5 - 8.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7.0 - 7.8

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7.0 - 7.8.

Key Points

  • The human body works within the range of 7.0 - 7.8.
  • The human body maintains a tight pH range for optimal functioning.
  • The normal pH range of human blood is slightly alkaline, typically between 7.35 and 7.45.
  • The digestive system has varying pH levels, with the stomach being highly acidic (around 1.5 to 3.5) to aid in digestion.
  • Homeostasis is the process by which the body maintains a stable internal environment, including pH levels.
  • Enzyme activity and biochemical reactions are highly dependent on the pH levels.
  • Buffer systems in the body, such as bicarbonate, phosphate, and protein buffers, help maintain the pH balance.

Question 100

Which one among the following statements with reference to the properties of water is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The specific heat of water is abnormally high.

  2. BOption (b)

    Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.

  3. COption (c)

    Density of water is higher than ice.

  4. DOption (d)

    Pure water is a non-conductor of electricity.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.

Key Points

  • The latent heat of fusion of water is actually very high compared to many other substances. This is the amount of heat required to change water from a solid (ice) to a liquid without changing its temperature.
  • For water, this value is 334 kJ/kg, which is significantly higher than many other substances.
  • This high latent heat of fusion is crucial for climate regulation, as it helps to moderate the Earth's temperature.
  • It also plays a vital role in the natural cycle of water, affecting processes like ice melting and freezing.
  • This property is essential for life on Earth, as it provides stability in aquatic environments and influences weather patterns.

 Additional Information

  • The specific heat of water is abnormally high
  • Water has a high specific heat capacity, which means it can absorb a lot of heat before it begins to get hot.
  • This property makes water an excellent temperature buffer in both the environment and in living organisms.
  • Density of water is higher than ice
  • Ice is less dense than liquid water, which is why ice floats on water. This is due to the hydrogen bonding that forms a crystalline structure in ice.
  • Pure water is a non-conductor of electricity
  • Pure water is indeed a non-conductor of electricity. It is the impurities and ions in water that make it conductive.

Question 101

Which one among the following compounds has a sweet and fruity smell?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethyl alcohol

  2. BOption (b)

    Acetic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Ethyl acetate

  4. DOption (d)

    Acetophenone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ethyl acetate

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Ethyl acetate.

Key Points

  • Ethyl acetate is a colorless liquid with a characteristic sweet and fruity smell.
  • It is commonly used as a solvent in the production of various products, including paints, coatings, adhesives, and perfumes.
  • The fruity odor of ethyl acetate makes it a popular choice for flavorings and fragrances in the food and beverage industry.
  • It is produced through the esterification reaction between acetic acid and ethanol.
  • Ethyl acetate is also used in laboratory settings for extractions and purifications due to its relatively low toxicity and pleasant odor.

 Additional Information

  • Ethyl alcohol
  • Also known as ethanol, it has a distinct smell but not typically described as sweet or fruity.
  • It is widely used in alcoholic beverages and as a disinfectant.
  • Acetic acid
  • Has a sharp, pungent smell often associated with vinegar.
  • It is commonly used in food preservation and as a chemical reagent.
  • Acetophenone
  • Has a pleasant, sweet, and somewhat floral odor, but it is not typically described as fruity.
  • It is used in fragrances and as a flavoring agent.

Question 102

What is the coordination number of Na+ and Cl- ions in NaCl lattice?

  1. AOption (a)

    6,1

  2. BOption (b)

    1,6

  3. COption (c)

    6,6

  4. DOption (d)

    5,5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6,6

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 6,6.

Key Points

  • The coordination number refers to the number of ions of opposite charge that surround an ion in a crystal lattice.
  • In an NaCl lattice, each Na+ ion is surrounded by 6 Cl- ions.
  • Similarly, each Cl- ion is surrounded by 6 Na+ ions.
  • This arrangement is known as the face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice.
  • The high coordination number ensures the lattice is highly stable and forms a strong ionic bond.
  • This type of structure is also known as a rock-salt structure.

 Additional Information

  • Face-Centered Cubic (FCC) Lattice
  • In an FCC lattice, atoms are located at each of the corners and the centers of all the cubic faces.
  • This arrangement is highly efficient and is observed in many metallic crystals and ionic compounds.
  • Rock-Salt Structure
  • The rock-salt structure is a specific type of FCC lattice where each ion is surrounded by six ions of the opposite charge.
  • This structure is common in alkali halides like NaCl, KCl, and others.

Question 103

Which one among the following is present in the nettle leaf hairs that causes burning pain?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methanoic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Ethanoic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Benzoic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Acetic acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Methanoic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Methanoic acid.

Key Points

  • Methanoic acid, also known as formic acid, is the chemical responsible for the burning pain caused by nettle leaf hairs.
  • When the nettle's tiny hair-like structures, called trichomes, come into contact with skin, they inject methanoic acid along with histamine and other irritants.
  • This injection leads to a stinging sensation, redness, and swelling.
  • Formic acid is also found in the venom of ants and is used by these insects as a defense mechanism.
  • The chemical structure of methanoic acid is HCOOH, making it the simplest carboxylic acid.

 Additional Information

  • Ethanoic acid
  • Ethanoic acid is commonly known as acetic acid.
  • It is the main component of vinegar, giving it its sour taste and pungent smell.
  • The chemical formula for ethanoic acid is CH₃COOH.
  • Benzoic acid
  • Benzoic acid is commonly used as a food preservative.
  • It is found naturally in many plants and serves as an intermediate in the biosynthesis of many secondary metabolites.
  • The chemical formula for benzoic acid is C₇H₆O₂.
  • Acetic acid
  • Acetic acid is another name for ethanoic acid.
  • It is used in the production of chemical compounds and as a solvent in the manufacture of various products.

Question 104

Which one among the following is known as Milk of Magnesia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnesium bicarbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnesium carbonate

  3. COption (c)

    Magnesium sulphate

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium hydroxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Magnesium hydroxide

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Magnesium hydroxide.

Key Points

  • Magnesium hydroxide is commonly known as Milk of Magnesia.
  • It is used primarily as an antacid to neutralize stomach acid and relieve indigestion and heartburn.
  • It also serves as a laxative to alleviate constipation.
  • The substance appears as a white, water-insoluble powder that forms a suspension in water, which is referred to as Milk of Magnesia.
  • It works by neutralizing hydrochloric acid in the stomach, forming magnesium chloride and water.

 Additional Information

  • Magnesium bicarbonate
  • Magnesium bicarbonate is not commonly found in solid form and is typically present in natural mineral water.
  • It is used to improve the taste of drinking water and can contribute to the dietary intake of magnesium.
  • Magnesium carbonate
  • Magnesium carbonate is often used as an antacid and a mineral supplement.
  • It is also used in the production of magnesium oxide by calcination.
  • Additionally, it is used in sports, particularly gymnastics and rock climbing, to dry hands and enhance grip.
  • Magnesium sulphate
  • Magnesium sulphate, also known as Epsom salt, is used in bath salts to relieve sore muscles.
  • It is also used medically to treat low magnesium levels in the blood and as a laxative.
  • In agriculture, it is used to correct magnesium deficiency in soil.

Question 105

Soap with water forms:

  1. AOption (a)

    Metallotropic liquid crystal

  2. BOption (b)

    Thermotropic liquid crystal

  3. COption (c)

    Homogeneous solution

  4. DOption (d)

    Lyotropic liquid crystal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lyotropic liquid crystal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lyotropic liquid crystal.

Key Points

  • Lyotropic liquid crystals are a type of liquid crystal that forms when certain substances are mixed with a solvent, usually water.
  • Soap molecules, when mixed with water, form micelles and bilayers, leading to the formation of lyotropic liquid crystals.
  • These structures have ordered phases that depend on the concentration of the soap in water.
  • Lyotropic liquid crystals are widely used in biological systems and industrial applications such as detergents and drug delivery systems.
  • The formation of lyotropic liquid crystals is influenced by temperature, pressure, and concentration of the solute.

 Additional Information

  • Metallotropic liquid crystal
  • Metallotropic liquid crystals are formed by mixing metal-containing compounds with organic molecules.
  • They are not formed by mixing soap with water.
  • These liquid crystals often exhibit unique optical and electronic properties.
  • Thermotropic liquid crystal
  • Thermotropic liquid crystals change their phase in response to changes in temperature.
  • They are commonly used in liquid crystal displays (LCDs).
  • They do not form by mixing soap with water.
  • Homogeneous solution
  • A homogeneous solution is a single-phase system where the solute is uniformly distributed within the solvent.
  • Soap in water does not form a homogeneous solution; instead, it forms micelles and lyotropic liquid crystals.

Question 106

Which among the following is the correct composition of Borax?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium, Boron, Magnesium and Hydrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium, Boron, Nitrogen and Hydrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen.

Key Points

  • Borax is a chemical compound with the formula Na₂B₄O₇·10H₂O.
  • It is also known as sodium borate, sodium tetraborate, or disodium tetraborate.
  • Borax is composed of the elements sodium (Na), boron (B), oxygen (O), and hydrogen (H).
  • It is a white, crystalline powder that is easily soluble in water.
  • Borax is commonly used in cleaning products, cosmetics, and as a flux in metallurgy.

 Additional Information

  • Sodium, Boron, Magnesium and Hydrogen
  • This option is incorrect because magnesium is not a component of borax.
  • Magnesium is a different element and is not involved in the chemical composition of borax.
  • Potassium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
  • This option is incorrect because it mentions potassium instead of sodium.
  • Potassium is not a part of the borax compound.
  • Sodium, Boron, Nitrogen and Hydrogen
  • This option is incorrect because it includes nitrogen, which is not present in borax.
  • Nitrogen is not a component of borax’s chemical formula.

Question 107

Which one among the following oxides has the highest melting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    Na2O

  2. BOption (b)

    MgO

  3. COption (c)

    Fe2O3

  4. DOption (d)

    CuO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

MgO

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is MgO.

Key Points

  • MgO (Magnesium Oxide) has the highest melting point among the given oxides.
  • Magnesium oxide has a melting point of approximately 2852°C (5166°F).
  • This high melting point is attributed to the strong ionic bonds between magnesium and oxygen atoms.
  • MgO is a refractory material, meaning it can withstand very high temperatures without breaking down.
  • It is commonly used in furnaces, kilns, and crucibles for its ability to endure high temperatures.

 Additional Information

  • Na2O (Sodium Oxide)
  • Na2O has a melting point of around 1132°C (2070°F), which is significantly lower than that of MgO.
  • Sodium oxide is used in glass and ceramics but is not suitable for high-temperature applications like MgO.
  • Fe2O3 (Iron(III) Oxide)
  • Fe2O3 has a melting point of approximately 1565°C (2849°F), which is lower than that of MgO.
  • Commonly known as rust, it is used in pigments and metal polishing.
  • CuO (Copper(II) Oxide)
  • CuO has a melting point of about 1326°C (2419°F).
  • It is used in batteries, superconductors, and as a pigment.

Question 108

Which of the following statements regarding neap tides is/are correct?

  1. It occurs every 14-15 days, which coincides with the first and third quarter of the Moon.
  2. This tide has a small tidal range because the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are in quadrature.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsNeap Tides

  • Neap tides occur when the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are perpendicular to each other, which happens during the first and third quarters of the Moon.
  • Statement 1: "It occurs every 14-15 days, which coincides with the first and third quarter of the Moon."
  • Neap tides occur approximately every two weeks, aligning with the first and third quarters of the lunar cycle. During these phases, the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun counteract each other.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: "This tide has a small tidal range because the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are in quadrature."
  • During neap tides, the Sun and Moon form a right angle relative to the Earth, resulting in a weaker combined gravitational pull. This leads to smaller differences between high and low tides, known as a small tidal range.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Tidal Range: The difference in height between consecutive high and low tides. Tidal ranges are influenced by the positions of the Earth, Moon, and Sun.
  • Spring Tides: Occur during full and new moons when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned. This alignment causes the gravitational forces to combine, leading to higher high tides and lower low tides, resulting in a larger tidal range.
  • Lunar Cycle: The Moon's phases change over approximately 29.5 days, passing through new moon, first quarter, full moon, and third quarter phases.
  • Gravitational Forces: The force exerted by the Moon and the Sun on the Earth's water bodies, causing the rise and fall of tides. The alignment and relative positions of these celestial bodies determine the strength and pattern of tides.
  • Quadrature: A term used to describe the position of the Moon when it is at a right angle to the line connecting the Earth and the Sun, resulting in neap tides.

Question 109

Which of the following statements regarding earthquakes is/are correct?

  1. The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre of the earthquake.
  2. Earthquakes generate Primary and Secondary waves that radiate outward from the earthquake focus.
  3. Deep-focus earthquakes are likely to cause more damage than shallow-focus earthquakes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key PointsUnderstanding Earthquakes

  • The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre of the earthquake:
  • The focus, also known as the hypocenter, is the point within the Earth where an earthquake rupture starts.
  • The epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface located directly above the focus.
  • This is a well-established geophysical term and is crucial for mapping and understanding the impact of an earthquake. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Earthquakes generate Primary and Secondary waves that radiate outward from the earthquake focus:
  • Primary waves (P-waves) are compressional waves that travel fastest through the Earth and can move through both solid and liquid layers.
  • Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves that travel slower than P-waves and can only move through solid materials.
  • These waves are crucial for understanding the internal structure of the Earth and for earthquake detection and analysis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Deep-focus earthquakes are likely to cause more damage than shallow-focus earthquakes:
  • Deep-focus earthquakes occur at depths greater than 300 km, while shallow-focus earthquakes occur at depths less than 70 km.
  • Shallow-focus earthquakes generally cause more damage at the surface compared to deep-focus earthquakes because they are closer to the surface.
  • Deep-focus earthquakes lose much of their energy before reaching the surface. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Primary Waves (P-waves):
  • P-waves are the fastest seismic waves and are the first to be detected by seismographs.
  • They can travel through both solid rock and fluids, like water or the liquid layers of the Earth.
  • P-waves compress and expand the material they move through, similar to sound waves.
  • Secondary Waves (S-waves):
  • S-waves are slower than P-waves and arrive at seismograph stations after the P-waves.
  • They can only move through solid rock, not through any liquid medium.
  • S-waves move the ground up and down or side-to-side, perpendicular to the direction the wave is traveling.
  • Seismograph:
  • A seismograph is an instrument that measures and records details of earthquakes, such as force and duration.
  • It is crucial for monitoring seismic activity and for early warning systems.
  • Earthquake Focus and Epicenter:
  • The focus (hypocenter) is the point inside the Earth where the earthquake originates.
  • The epicenter is the point directly above the focus on the surface of the Earth.
  • The distance between the focus and the epicenter can affect the intensity and distribution of seismic waves.
  • Shallow-focus vs. Deep-focus Earthquakes:
  • Shallow-focus earthquakes are more common and tend to cause more damage due to their proximity to the Earth's surface.
  • Deep-focus earthquakes, while less common, can still be powerful but usually cause less damage on the surface.
  • The depth of an earthquake is a critical factor in determining its potential impact on buildings and infrastructure.

Question 110

Which of the following statements regarding air temperature is/are correct?

  1. Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1.2 m ( 4.0 feet) above the ground surface.
  2. The average rate of temperature decrease with height is termed as the environmental temperature lapse rate.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsStatements regarding Air Temperature

  • Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1.2 m (4.0 feet) above the ground surface.
  • This is a standard practice in meteorology to avoid the influence of ground heat and other surface effects.
  • Measuring temperature at this height ensures more accurate and consistent readings.
  • The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) recommends this standard height for temperature measurements.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The average rate of temperature decrease with height is termed as the environmental temperature lapse rate.
  • The environmental lapse rate refers to the rate at which atmospheric temperature decreases with an increase in altitude.
  • On average, the temperature decreases by about 6.5°C per kilometer (3.6°F per 1,000 feet) in the troposphere.
  • This lapse rate is critical for understanding weather patterns, atmospheric stability, and climate dynamics.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
  • The WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for promoting international cooperation in meteorology, climatology, hydrology, and related fields.
  • It sets global standards for weather observations, including the standard height for measuring air temperature.
  • Troposphere
  • The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface to about 8-15 kilometers (5-9 miles) high.
  • It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and is where most of our weather occurs.
  • Environmental Lapse Rate
  • The environmental lapse rate is crucial for weather forecasting and understanding atmospheric processes.
  • It helps meteorologists predict phenomena such as thunderstorms, temperature inversions, and cloud formation.
  • Applications of Temperature Measurement
  • Accurate temperature measurements are essential for agriculture, aviation, environmental monitoring, and public health.
  • Temperature data is used to model climate change, predict extreme weather events, and manage natural resources.

Question 111

Which of the following statements regarding humidity is/are correct?

  1. It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere and the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature.
  2. When the relative humidity is high, more water evaporates from the skin.
  3. The higher the air temperature lower the relative humidity of the air.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points Humidity

  • Humidity refers to the amount of water vapour present in the air.
  • Statement 1: It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere and the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature.
  • This statement is correct. This describes the concept of relative humidity, which is expressed as a percentage. It's a measure of how saturated the air is with water vapor at a certain temperature.
  • Relative humidity can be calculated using the formula:

Relative Humidity (%) = (Actual Water Vapor Content / Maximum Water Vapor Capacity) x 100

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Statement 2: When the relative humidity is high, more water evaporates from the skin.
  • This statement is incorrect. High relative humidity means the air already contains a large amount of water vapor, reducing its capacity to absorb additional moisture from sources like sweat on the skin.
  • Conversely, when relative humidity is low, evaporation of sweat increases, cooling the body more effectively.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Statement 3: Higher the air temperature, lower the relative humidity of the air.
  • This statement is generally correct. As air temperature rises, its capacity to hold water vapor increases. If the amount of water vapor in the air does not change, the relative humidity decreases.
  • For instance, in warmer conditions, the same amount of water vapor results in lower relative humidity because the air can hold much more water vapor than at cooler temperatures.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information 

  • Types of Humidity:
  • Absolute Humidity: The total mass of water vapor present in a given volume or mass of air.
  • Relative Humidity: The ratio of the current absolute humidity to the highest possible absolute humidity at the same temperature, expressed as a percentage.
  • Specific Humidity: The ratio of the mass of water vapor to the total mass of the air parcel.
  • Importance of Humidity:
  • Weather Prediction: Humidity levels help in predicting weather conditions like fog, dew, and precipitation.
  • Human Comfort: High humidity levels make it difficult for sweat to evaporate, causing discomfort, while low humidity levels can cause dryness and irritation.
  • Environmental Impact: Humidity affects plant transpiration, soil moisture levels, and overall ecosystem health.
  • Measurement of Humidity:
  • Hygrometer: An instrument used for measuring the moisture content in the atmosphere.
  • Psychrometer: Consists of two thermometers (dry-bulb and wet-bulb) and is used to measure the humidity level.

Question 112

Which of the following statements regarding cyclones and anti-cyclones is/are correct?

  1. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counter clockwise and anticyclones rotate clockwise.
  2. Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather, whereas anticyclones are often associated with fair weather.
  3. In the Southern Hemisphere, the cyclonic spiral will be clockwise because the Coriolis force acts to the left.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3

Key PointsExplanation of Cyclones and Anticyclones

  • Cyclones are low-pressure systems characterized by spiraling winds that move inwards towards the center of the storm. In the Northern Hemisphere, these winds rotate counterclockwise due to the Coriolis effect. Conversely, in the Southern Hemisphere, they rotate clockwise.
  • Anticyclones are high-pressure systems where the winds spiral outwards from the center. In the Northern Hemisphere, anticyclones rotate clockwise, while in the Southern Hemisphere, they rotate counterclockwise.
  • Weather Association: Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather because of the low-pressure system that causes air to rise, cool, and condense into clouds. On the other hand, anticyclones usually bring fair weather as high-pressure systems cause air to descend, warming it and reducing cloud formation.

Explanation of Statements:

  • Statement 1: In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counterclockwise and anticyclones rotate clockwise.
  • This statement is correct. The Coriolis effect causes cyclonic systems in the Northern Hemisphere to rotate counterclockwise and anticyclonic systems to rotate clockwise. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather, whereas anticyclones are often associated with fair weather.
  • This statement is also correct. Cyclones, being low-pressure systems, lead to rising air that cools and condenses to form clouds and precipitation. Anticyclones, being high-pressure systems, result in descending air that warms and inhibits cloud formation, leading to fair weather. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3: In the Southern Hemisphere, the cyclonic spiral will be clockwise because the Coriolis force acts to the left.
  • This statement is incorrect. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force acts to the right, causing cyclonic systems to rotate clockwise and anticyclonic systems to rotate counterclockwise. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Coriolis Effect: This is a deflection of moving objects when they are viewed in a rotating reference frame. In the context of Earth's rotation, it causes moving air and water to turn and twist in predictable ways:
  • To the right in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • To the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • Pressure Systems:
  • Low-Pressure Systems (Cyclones): Characterized by rising air, which cools and condenses to form clouds and precipitation.
  • High-Pressure Systems (Anticyclones): Characterized by descending air, which warms and inhibits cloud formation, leading to clear skies and fair weather.
  • Weather Patterns:
  • Cyclones are associated with stormy weather, including rain, thunderstorms, and even hurricanes or typhoons.
  • Anticyclones are associated with calm, clear, and dry weather conditions.

Question 113

Identify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics:

  1. It is more than a century old port on the west coast of India.
  2. It is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole.
  3. A deep draft channel of about 14 metres depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour.

Select the correct sea-port from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Mormugao Port

  2. BOption (b)

    Deendayal Port

  3. COption (c)

    Cochin Port

  4. DOption (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru Port

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mormugao Port

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mormugao Port.

Key PointsIdentify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics:

  • More than a century old port on the west coast of India: Mormugao Port, located in Goa, is one of the oldest ports on the western coast of India. It has been operational for over a century, making it a significant historical port in the region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • A natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole: Mormugao Port is known for its natural harbour which is well-protected by a breakwater and a mole. These structures help in protecting the harbour from the strong waves and currents of the Arabian Sea. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • A deep draft channel of about 14 metres depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour: The port has a deep draft channel with a depth of approximately 14 metres, allowing large vessels to dock and operate efficiently. This makes it capable of handling significant maritime traffic and large cargo ships. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Mormugao Port:
  • Location: Mormugao Port is located in the state of Goa, on the western coast of India.
  • Historical Significance: It has been operational for over a century, playing a crucial role in the maritime trade of the region.
  • Natural Harbour: The port is naturally sheltered, which makes it an ideal location for maritime activities.
  • Infrastructure: The port is well-equipped with modern facilities and infrastructure, including a deep draft channel of about 14 metres, allowing it to handle large vessels.
  • Economic Importance: Mormugao Port is a critical hub for the export of iron ore, contributing significantly to the economy of Goa and India.
  • Other Ports on the West Coast of India:
  • Deendayal Port: Located in Gujarat, it is one of the largest ports in India but is not more than a century old.
  • Cochin Port: Situated in Kerala, it is a major port but does not match the specific characteristics mentioned in the question.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru Port: Also known as Nhava Sheva, located in Maharashtra, it is a significant port but relatively new compared to Mormugao Port.
  • Importance of Natural Harbours:
  • Natural harbours provide safe anchorage and are less prone to natural disasters.
  • They usually require less maintenance and dredging compared to artificial harbours.
  • They play a crucial role in the economic development by facilitating maritime trade.

Question 114

Identify the Iron and Steel Plant on the basis of the given characteristics:

  1. It receives coal from Jharia and iron-ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar.
  2. Power for the electric furnaces is procured from Hirakund.
  3. Water is obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.

Select the correct Iron and Steel Plant from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhilai Steel Plant

  2. BOption (b)

    Durgapur Steel Plant

  3. COption (c)

    Rourkela Steel Plant

  4. DOption (d)

    Bokaro Steel Plant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rourkela Steel Plant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rourkela Steel Plant.

Key PointsCharacteristics of the Iron and Steel Plant:

  • Coal from Jharia: The Rourkela Steel Plant receives its coal supplies from the Jharia coalfields. Jharia is one of the largest coalfields in India and is located in the state of Jharkhand.
  • Iron-Ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar: The plant sources its iron ore from the Sundargarh and Kendujhar districts in Odisha. These regions are known for their rich iron ore deposits.
  • Power from Hirakund: The electric furnaces at the Rourkela Steel Plant are powered by electricity procured from the Hirakund Dam. Hirakund is one of the longest dams in the world and is located on the Mahanadi River in Odisha.
  • Water from Koel and Sankh Rivers: The plant utilizes water from the Koel and Sankh rivers, which are tributaries of the Brahmani River. These rivers provide a reliable source of water for the plant's operations.
  • Based on the given characteristics, Rourkela Steel Plant will be the correct answer.

 

Additional Information

  • Rourkela Steel Plant:
  • Located in Rourkela, Odisha, it was the first integrated steel plant in the public sector in India.
  • The plant was set up with German collaboration with an installed capacity of 1 million tonnes in the 1960s.
  • It is operated by Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL).
  • The plant specializes in the production of flat steel products.
  • Jharia Coalfields:
  • Located in Dhanbad district of Jharkhand, these coalfields are known for their high-quality coking coal.
  • Jharia coalfields are one of the oldest and most important coalfields in India.
  • They have been a significant source of coal for the iron and steel industry in India.
  • Hirakund Dam:
  • Constructed across the Mahanadi River in Odisha, it is one of the longest dams in the world.
  • The dam is a major source of hydroelectric power and provides irrigation to the surrounding regions.
  • It plays a crucial role in flood control and water supply in the region.
  • Koel and Sankh Rivers:
  • These rivers are tributaries of the Brahmani River, which flows through the states of Jharkhand and Odisha.
  • The rivers provide vital water resources for agricultural, industrial, and domestic use.

Question 115

Which of the following statements regarding Earth's internal structure is/are correct?

  1. The oceanic crust is heavier than the continental crust.
  2. Most of the Earth's internal heat is contained within the mantle.
  3. Large convective cells in the crust circulate heat and drive plate-tectonic processes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) 1 and 2.

Key PointsUnderstanding Earth's Internal Structure

  • Density of Oceanic vs. Continental Crust
  • Oceanic crust is denser and thinner compared to continental crust.
  • It primarily consists of basalt, which is denser than the granite that largely makes up the continental crust. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Heat Containment within the Mantle
  • The mantle contains most of the Earth's internal heat due to radioactive decay and residual heat from Earth’s formation.
  • It plays a crucial role in geothermal processes and heat transfer within the planet. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Role of Convective Cells in Heat Circulation
  • Large convective cells are present in the mantle, not the crust, and they drive plate-tectonic processes by circulating heat.
  • This convection in the mantle causes movement of tectonic plates at the Earth’s surface. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Oceanic Crust Details
  • The oceanic crust averages about 7-10 km in thickness and is primarily composed of mafic rocks such as basalt and gabbro.
  • Because of its higher density, it subducts under the lighter continental crust during tectonic interactions.
  • Heat Generation in Earth's Interior
  • The Earth's mantle extends to a depth of about 2,900 kilometers and is composed of solid yet convective silicate material.
  • Heat from the mantle is transferred to the crust, influencing geothermal gradients and volcanic activity.
  • Convective Processes in the Mantle
  • Convection within the mantle is driven by the heat from the core and the mantle itself, causing the semi-solid rock to flow.
  • This movement is a fundamental mechanism driving plate tectonics, leading to events such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and mountain building.

Question 116

Which of the following statements regarding the given rivers is/are correct?

  1. Tsangpo crosses over into India under the name of Dihang.
  2. Godavari has the second largest river basin covering about 10 percent of the area of India.
  3. Rivers Chambal and Betwa are the important tributaries of river Ganga which join river Ganga directly in Uttar Pradesh.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.**

Key PointsAnalysis of Statements

  • Statement 1: "Tsangpo crosses over into India under the name of Dihang."
  • The Tsangpo River originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo.
  • Upon entering India through Arunachal Pradesh, it is referred to as the Dihang or Siang River.
  • Eventually, it merges with other rivers to become the Brahmaputra in Assam.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: "Godavari has the second largest river basin covering about 10 percent of the area of India."
  • The Godavari River, often referred to as the 'Dakshina Ganga' or 'South Ganges', is the second largest basin in India. It covers about 10% of India's geographical area, making it one of the most significant river systems in the country.
  • The Godavari River basin is vast and supports a large population by providing water for irrigation, drinking, and other purposes.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3: "Rivers Chambal and Betwa are the important tributaries of river Ganga which join river Ganga directly in Uttar Pradesh."
  • The Chambal and Betwa rivers are indeed significant rivers in India, but they do not join the Ganga directly.
  • Both rivers are tributaries of the Yamuna River, which itself is a major tributary of the Ganga.
  • They join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh, not the Ganga directly.
  • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Tsangpo River
  • The river originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet and is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo.
  • It is called the Dihang or Siang upon entering India and eventually becomes the Brahmaputra River in Assam.
  • It is one of the major trans-boundary rivers in Asia.
  • Godavari River
  • The Godavari is the largest river in peninsular India and the second longest river in India after the Ganga.
  • It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
  • It is often referred to as the "Dakshina Ganga" or "Ganga of the South."
  • Chambal and Betwa Rivers
  • The Chambal River originates in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh before joining the Yamuna River.
  • The Betwa River also originates in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Uttar Pradesh to join the Yamuna River.
  • Both rivers are known for their deep gorges and ravines, particularly the Chambal, which is famous for its badlands.

Question 117

Which of the following statements regarding the World Climate Types and their relation with Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is/are correct?

  1. Tropical Wet Climate is one of the world's rainiest due to the dominance of the ITCZ over it.
  2. Tropical Savanna Climate experiences a distinctive alternation of wet and dry seasons, caused chiefly by the seasonal shift in latitude of the subtropical highs and ITCZ.
  3. The Tropical Monsoonal Climate experiences heavy rainfall as a consequence of the nearness of the ITCZ for much of the year.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3.

Key PointsWorld Climate Types and ITCZ

  • Tropical Wet Climate
  • This climate type is characterized by high temperatures and heavy rainfall throughout the year.
  • The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) plays a dominant role in this climate, as it brings consistent precipitation due to the convergence of trade winds.
  • The ITCZ is typically located near the equator and shifts seasonally, influencing the rainfall patterns in tropical regions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Tropical Savanna Climate
  • This climate type features a distinct wet and dry season.
  • The seasonal shift in the ITCZ and subtropical high-pressure systems cause this alternation. During the wet season, the ITCZ moves over the region, bringing rain, while during the dry season, the subtropical highs dominate, leading to dry conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Tropical Monsoonal Climate
  • Regions with this climate experience heavy rainfall, especially during the monsoon season.
  • The proximity of the ITCZ for much of the year results in significant precipitation, particularly during the summer months when the ITCZ moves northward. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
  • The ITCZ is a region near the equator where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together.
  • This convergence causes air to rise and results in cloud formation and precipitation.
  • The ITCZ shifts north and south with the seasons, influencing rainfall patterns in tropical regions.

Question 118

Which of the following statements regarding tropical cyclones is/are correct?

  1. These storms develop during the summer and autumn in every tropical ocean except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific Oceans.
  2. Tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific Oceans are known as typhoons.
  3. Tropical cyclones that occur in the Indian and South Pacific Oceans are called cyclones.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key PointsTropical Cyclones

  • Statement 1: "These storms develop during the summer and autumn in every tropical ocean except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific Oceans."
  • Tropical cyclones typically form over warm ocean waters near the equator. They are most common in the summer and autumn seasons when sea surface temperatures are at their highest.
  • However, tropical cyclones are rare in the South Atlantic and the eastern South Pacific Oceans due to unfavorable conditions such as cooler sea surface temperatures and higher wind shear.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: "Tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific Oceans are known as typhoons."
  • This statement is incorrect. Tropical cyclones in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific are referred to as hurricanes, not typhoons.
  • Typhoons occur in the Northwest Pacific Ocean, particularly affecting East Asia, including countries like Japan, the Philippines, and China.
  • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Statement 3: "Tropical cyclones that occur in the Indian and South Pacific Oceans are called cyclones."
  • This statement is correct. In the Indian Ocean and South Pacific Ocean regions, tropical cyclones are indeed referred to as cyclones.
  • These terms help differentiate the same meteorological phenomenon in different regions.
  • Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Tropical Cyclones:
  • A tropical cyclone is a rapidly rotating storm system characterized by a low-pressure center, strong winds, and a spiral arrangement of thunderstorms that produce heavy rains.
  • Depending on its location and strength, a tropical cyclone is referred to by different names, such as hurricane, typhoon, or simply cyclone.
  • Hurricanes:
  • These are tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic Ocean and the Northeast Pacific Ocean.
  • They can cause significant damage due to high winds, heavy rainfall, and storm surges.
  • Typhoons:
  • These occur in the Northwest Pacific Ocean and are known for their intensity.
  • Regions like East Asia, including countries such as Japan, the Philippines, and China, are commonly affected by typhoons.
  • Cyclones:
  • These are tropical cyclones occurring in the South Pacific and Indian Oceans.
  • They can lead to severe weather conditions, including heavy rainfall, strong winds, and flooding.
  • Formation Conditions:
  • Tropical cyclones require specific conditions to form, including warm sea surface temperatures (at least 26.5°C), low vertical wind shear, and high humidity in the mid-troposphere.
  • These conditions are generally met during the late summer and early autumn periods, leading to the formation of these powerful storms.

Question 119

Identify the land biome on the basis of the given characteristics:

  1. Their climates are characterised by high rainfall and temperatures that vary from cold to mild.
  2. These forests contain primarily deciduous trees - including maple, oak, hickory and beechwood.
  3. Raccoons, opossums, bats and squirrels are found in the trees.

Select the correct land biome from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Tropical forest

  2. BOption (b)

    Temperate forest

  3. COption (c)

    Boreal forest

  4. DOption (d)

    Mediterranean forest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Temperate forest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Temperate forest.

Key PointsLand Biome Characteristics

  • High rainfall and varying temperatures: Temperate forests are characterized by a moderate to high amount of rainfall. The temperatures in these regions can vary greatly, ranging from cold winters to mild summers.
  • Deciduous trees: These forests predominantly contain deciduous trees such as maple, oak, hickory, and beechwood. Deciduous trees are known for shedding their leaves annually, which is a significant feature of temperate forests.
  • Animal species: The presence of raccoons, opossums, bats, and squirrels is typical in temperate forests. These animals are adapted to the changing seasons and the availability of food sources in these forests.
  • Based on the given characteristics the given land biome is a Temperate forest.

Additional Information

  • Temperate Forests:
  • Location: Found primarily in the Eastern United States, Canada, Europe, China, Japan, and parts of Russia.
  • Climate: These regions experience four distinct seasons - winter, spring, summer, and autumn.
  • Flora: Besides deciduous trees, temperate forests also contain a variety of shrubs, herbs, and mosses.
  • Fauna: Apart from raccoons, opossums, bats, and squirrels, other animals such as deer, foxes, and various bird species are also common.
  • Importance of Temperate Forests:
  • Ecological Function: These forests play a crucial role in carbon sequestration, helping to mitigate climate change.
  • Economic Value: Temperate forests are sources of timber, paper, and other forest products.Biodiversity: They provide habitat for a wide range of plant and animal species.
  • Recreational Use: These forests are popular for activities such as hiking, camping, and bird watching.
  • Comparison with Other Forest Types:
  • Tropical Forests: Characterized by high temperatures and significant rainfall year-round, with a rich biodiversity including many evergreen trees.
  • Boreal Forests: Also known as taiga, these forests are found in the Northern Hemisphere and are dominated by coniferous trees such as pines, spruces, and larches.
  • Mediterranean Forests: Found in regions with hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters, these forests are characterized by evergreen trees and shrubs like olives and cork oaks.

Question 120

Leaves of most plants appear green because the chlorophyll present in it:

  1. AOption (a)

    absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.

  2. BOption (b)

    absorbs green light only.

  3. COption (c)

    absorbs green light while reflecting red and blue light.

  4. DOption (d)

    reflects red light and absorbs blue and green light.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.

Key Points

  • Chlorophyll is the primary pigment found in the chloroplasts of plants.
  • It plays a crucial role in photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy.
  • Chlorophyll absorbs light most efficiently in the red and blue wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  • The green light is not absorbed but rather reflected, which is why plants appear green to our eyes.
  • There are two main types of chlorophyll: chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b. Both contribute to the absorption of light.

 Additional Information

  • absorbs green light only
  • This is incorrect because chlorophyll does not absorb green light. Instead, it reflects green light.
  • absorbs green light while reflecting red and blue light
  • This is incorrect because it is the red and blue light that is absorbed, not reflected.
  • reflects red light and absorbs blue and green light
  • This is incorrect because chlorophyll reflects green light and absorbs red and blue light.

Question 121

In most prokaryotes, the chromosome number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 1.

Key Points

  • In most prokaryotes, the chromosome number is typically one.
  • Prokaryotic organisms, such as bacteria and archaea, generally possess a single, circular chromosome.
  • This single chromosome contains all the genetic information necessary for the cell's functions and reproduction.
  • Unlike eukaryotic cells, which have multiple chromosomes contained within a nucleus, prokaryotic chromosomes are located in the nucleoid, a region within the cell.
  • The simplicity of having one chromosome allows for efficient replication and division, which is crucial for the rapid growth rates observed in many prokaryotic species.

 Additional Information

  • Key Points
  • Prokaryotes are organisms that lack a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
  • They reproduce asexually through binary fission, a process where the single chromosome is replicated and the cell divides into two identical daughter cells.
  • Some prokaryotes may have additional small DNA molecules called plasmids, which can carry extra genes, such as those for antibiotic resistance.
  • Understanding the genetics of prokaryotes is crucial for fields such as microbiology, biotechnology, and medicine.

Question 122

Bacterial DNA is referred to as naked because it is not associated with:

  1. AOption (a)

    any scaffold

  2. BOption (b)

    proteins

  3. COption (c)

    ribozymes

  4. DOption (d)

    plasmid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

proteins

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is proteins.

Key Points

  • Bacterial DNA is referred to as naked because it is not associated with histone proteins, which are typically found in eukaryotic cells.
  • In eukaryotes, DNA is wrapped around histone proteins to form a structure called chromatin.
  • This association with histones helps in the compaction and organization of DNA within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
  • In contrast, bacterial DNA is circular and free-floating within the cytoplasm, without being wrapped around histones.
  • This lack of histone association is one of the key differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genetic material.

 Additional Information

  • Any scaffold
  • In the context of DNA, a scaffold refers to a structural framework that supports the organization of chromosomal material.
  • While scaffolds are more relevant in eukaryotes, bacterial DNA does not require such structures because of its simpler organization.
  • Ribozymes
  • Ribozymes are RNA molecules with enzymatic activity, and they play a role in various biological processes such as RNA splicing and translation.
  • They are not involved in the structural organization of DNA.
  • Plasmid
  • Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules found in bacteria, separate from the chromosomal DNA.
  • They often carry genes that provide advantages such as antibiotic resistance but are not involved in the primary structure of bacterial DNA.

Question 123

Which one among the following cells produces antibodies against a foreign antigen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lymphocytes

  2. BOption (b)

    Erythrocytes

  3. COption (c)

    Eosinophils

  4. DOption (d)

    Platelets

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lymphocytes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lymphocytes.

Key Points

  • Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system.
  • There are two main types of lymphocytes: B cells and T cells.
  • B cells are responsible for producing antibodies against foreign antigens.
  • Antibodies are proteins that specifically recognize and bind to antigens, neutralizing them or marking them for destruction by other immune cells.
  • T cells assist in the immune response by attacking infected cells and supporting B cells.
  • Lymphocytes are primarily found in the blood, lymph nodes, and other lymphatic tissues.

 Additional Information

  • Erythrocytes
  • Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are primarily responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues and returning carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs.
  • They contain the protein hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and gives red blood cells their color.
  • Eosinophils
  • Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the body's response to allergic reactions and parasitic infections.
  • They release enzymes and toxic proteins that help combat parasites and modulate allergic inflammatory responses.
  • Platelets
  • Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are cell fragments that play a key role in blood clotting and wound healing.
  • They gather at the site of a blood vessel injury, adhere to the vessel's wall, and form a platform for blood coagulation.

Question 124

If the block P as shown in the figure below were to be at rest, what should the magnitude of force F be?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 N

  2. BOption (b)

    6 N

  3. COption (c)

    8 N

  4. DOption (d)

    10 N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 N

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Since the block is at rest. Therefore

The sum of force applied on both sides will be equal. 

⇒ 10 + 15  = 2 + 15 + F

⇒ 25 = 17 + F

⇒ F = 25 - 17 

∴ F = 8 N

Question 125

Of the following, which does not belong to a nuclear reactor?

  1. AOption (a)

    A turbine

  2. BOption (b)

    A heat exchanger

  3. COption (c)

    A mechanism to reduce CO2 emission

  4. DOption (d)

    A reaction chamber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A mechanism to reduce CO2 emission

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Nuclear reactors are designed to facilitate and control nuclear fission reactions. The primary components of a nuclear reactor include:​

Option 1 (A turbine) is a part of a nuclear reactor as it is used to generate electricity from steam.

Option 2 (A heat exchanger) is a part of a nuclear reactor as it transfers heat from the reactor to generate steam.

Option 3 (A mechanism to reduce CO2 emission) is not a part of a nuclear reactor as nuclear reactors do not produce CO2 during operation.

Option 4 (A reaction chamber) is a part of a nuclear reactor as it is where the fission reaction occurs.

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 126

Consider the following electric circuit:

The current in the above electric circuit is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 A

  2. BOption (b)

    (10/15) A

  3. COption (c)

    2 A

  4. DOption (d)

    1.5A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 A

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

There are mainly two ways of combining resistances:

  1. Resistances in series combination
  2. Resistances in parallel combination
  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them- this system is called series combination

The net resistance/equivalent resistance (R) of resistances in series is given by:

Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called as resistances in parallel.

The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

1R=1R1+1R2\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

 

Calculation:

The 10Ω and 0Ω resistors are in parallel:

⇒ 1/Rparallel = 1/10 + 1/0

⇒ Since 1/0 is undefined, the parallel combination results in 0Ω for practical purposes.

⇒ The total resistance in the circuit is the sum of the series of resistances:

⇒ Rtotal = 5Ω + 0Ω + 5Ω

⇒ Rtotal = 10Ω

⇒ Using Ohm's Law to find the current:

⇒ I = V / Rtotal

⇒ I = 10V / 10Ω

⇒ I = 1A

∴ The current in the given electric circuit is 1A.

Question 127

A microscope may be a combination of:

  1. AOption (a)

    two convex lenses.

  2. BOption (b)

    a convex and a concave lens.

  3. COption (c)

    two concave lenses.

  4. DOption (d)

    a convex lens and a convex mirror.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

two convex lenses.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Microscopes: These are optical instruments that use lenses to magnify

small objects. The most common type of microscope, the compound

microscope, uses two convex lenses to achieve high magnification.

Explanation:

  • A convex lens converges light and can form an enlarged image.
  • Using two convex lenses, one as the objective lens and the other as the eyepiece, increases the overall magnification of the microscope.
  • The objective lens forms a real, inverted, and magnified image of the object.
  • The eyepiece lens then magnifies this image further, allowing detailed observation.

∴ A microscope may be a combination of two convex lenses.

Question 128

For a human eye, where u is the distance of an object from the eye, f is the focal length of the lens and v is the distance of image from the eye, which is the correct schematic graph?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

For a human eye, where u is the distance of an object from the eye, f is the focal length of the lens, and v is the distance of the image from the eye.

Concept Used:

The lens formula for a thin lens is given by:

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

Where:

  • u is the object distance (measured from the lens)
  • v is the image distance (measured from the lens)
  • f is the focal length of the lens

Calculation:

We need to plot the graph based on the lens formula:

⇒ If we rearrange the lens formula, we get:

1/v = 1/f + 1/u

⇒ As u changes, v will change accordingly to satisfy the lens formula. The relationship between u and v is hyperbolic.

Let's consider a few cases:

⇒ When u = ∞ (object is at infinity),

1/v = 1/f + 0

v = f

⇒ When u = f (object is at the focal length),

1/v = 1/f + 1/f

v = ∞

⇒ When u < f (object is between the lens and the focal point),

v is negative indicating a virtual image.

Based on this, the correct schematic graph is option 1, which shows the hyperbolic relationship between u and v.

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 129

Which of the following statements with regard to the phenomenon of the primary rainbow formation by water droplets is/are correct?

  1. It involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight.
  2. It involves refraction of sunlight only.
  3. It is formed as the inner bow.
  4. It may involve more than one internal reflection as well as refraction of sunlight.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Which of the following statements about the phenomenon of the primary rainbow formation by water droplets is/are correct?

  1. It involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight.
  2. It involves refraction of sunlight only.
  3. It is formed as the inner bow.
  4. It may involve more than one internal reflection as well as the refraction of sunlight.

Concept Used:

A primary rainbow is formed due to the refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion of light in water droplets. The light undergoes one internal reflection inside the droplet before emerging to form the primary rainbow.

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct. A primary rainbow involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight.

Statement 2: Incorrect. It involves both refraction and internal reflection, not just refraction.

Statement 3: Correct. The primary rainbow is indeed formed as the inner bow.

Statement 4: Incorrect. The primary rainbow involves only one internal reflection, not more than one.

∴ The correct answer is option 1 (1 and 3).

Question 130

Which one of the following scientists mentioned that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ernest Rutherford

  2. BOption (b)

    J.J. Thomson

  3. COption (c)

    Niels Bohr

  4. DOption (d)

    Albert Einstein

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Niels Bohr

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Niels Bohr proposed that electrons revolve in certain stable orbits around the nucleus without the emission of radiant energy.
  • These stable orbits are called "stationary orbits" or "energy levels."
  • The energy of an electron in a stationary orbit is quantized, meaning it can only take on certain discrete values.
  • When an electron jumps from one orbit to another, it absorbs or emits a photon of energy equal to the difference in energy between the two orbits.

 

∴ Niels Bohr is the scientist who mentioned that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy.

Question 131

LIGO experiment confirmed one of the predictions of:

  1. AOption (a)

    String theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Special theory of relativity

  3. COption (c)

    Quantum mechanics

  4. DOption (d)

    General theory of relativity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

General theory of relativity

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

  • The LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) experiment is designed to detect gravitational waves.
  • Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime caused by certain movements of massive objects, such as the merging of black holes.
  • The existence of gravitational waves was first predicted by Albert Einstein in his General Theory of Relativity.

 

Explanation:

Since the LIGO experiment successfully detected gravitational waves, it

confirmed the prediction made by the General Theory of Relativity.

∴ The correct answer is option 4) General theory of relativity.

Question 132

A block of mass 2 kg, moving with the initial speed of 3 m/s comes to rest on a rough horizontal surface after travelling a distance of 3 m. The magnitude of the frictional force is:

  1. AOption (a)

    9 N

  2. BOption (b)

    3 N

  3. COption (c)

    18 N

  4. DOption (d)

    1 N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 N

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mass of the block (m) = 2 kg

Initial speed (u) = 3 m/s

Final speed (v) = 0 m/s

Distance travelled (s) = 3 m

Concept:

The work done by friction is equal to the block's kinetic energy change.

Formula Used:

Work done by friction (W) = Change in kinetic energy

W = F × s

Change in kinetic energy = (1/2) m u2 - (1/2) m v2

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ Change in kinetic energy = (1/2) × 2 × (3)2 - (1/2) × 2 × (0)2

⇒ Change in kinetic energy = (1) × 9 - 0

⇒ Change in kinetic energy = 9 J

Work done by friction (W) = F × s

⇒ 9 = F × 3

⇒ F = 9 / 3

⇒ F = 3 N

∴ The magnitude of the frictional force is 3 N.

Question 133

Which one of the following is primarily responsible for conduction of current in a metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bound electrons

  2. BOption (b)

    Free electrons

  3. COption (c)

    Both bound and free electrons

  4. DOption (d)

    Ions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Free electrons

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

In metals, the atoms are arranged in a lattice structure where the outer electrons are not bound to any particular atom. These electrons are free to move throughout the lattice, making them responsible for conducting current.

Calculation:

  • Conducting current in a metal involves the movement of free electrons.
  • The bound electrons are tightly held by the atoms and do not contribute to electrical conductivity.
  • Only free electrons can move freely to conduct electricity.

 

∴ The primary responsibility for conduction of current in a metal is held by free electrons.

Question 134

Which of the following were features of the postal system of India as described by Ibn Battuta?

  1. The foot post carries a ringing bell in one hand.
  2. The horse post is called uluq, stationed at a distance of every four miles.
  3. The foot post or dawa has one station at every four kos of distance.
  4. The foot post is quicker than the horse post.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1,2 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1,2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 4.

Key PointsFeatures of the Postal System of India as Described by Ibn Battuta

  • The foot post carries a ringing bell in one hand:
  • Ibn Battuta described the postal system in India, where the foot post (dawa) carriers would hold a ringing bell in one hand to announce their arrival and ensure swift communication.
  • This method was used to alert the next relay station of the approaching messenger, ensuring continuous and rapid transmission of messages.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The horse post is called uluq, stationed at a distance of every four miles:
  • Ibn Battuta noted that the horse post, referred to as "uluq," was stationed at intervals of every four miles (approximately 6.4 kilometers).
  • This system allowed for the quick relay of messages over long distances, as fresh horses and riders were available at regular intervals.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The foot post or dawa has one station at every four kos of distance:
  • While the foot post system did have relay stations, the distance mentioned by Ibn Battuta was four miles, not four kos (which is approximately 12-15 kilometers).
  • This discrepancy indicates that this statement is not in line with Ibn Battuta's description.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  • The foot post is quicker than horse post:
  • Ibn Battuta observed that the foot post was indeed quicker than the horse post in certain contexts, primarily due to the shorter intervals between relay stations and the efficiency of the system.
  • This efficiency was achieved through the continuous relay of messages by foot runners, who could cover shorter distances more rapidly than horses over the same period.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Ibn Battuta:
  • Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan explorer and traveler who visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq in the 14th century.
  • His travel accounts provide valuable insights into the administrative systems, culture, and daily life in the regions he visited.
  • Postal System in Medieval India:
  • The postal system in medieval India was highly organized and efficient, with relay stations and messengers ensuring rapid communication across vast distances.
  • This system was crucial for administrative control, military communication, and trade.
  • Kos:
  • Kos is a traditional unit of distance measurement in India, approximately equivalent to 3-4 kilometres.
  • It was commonly used in historical texts to describe distances between locations.
  • Uluq:
  • Uluq refers to the horse post system used in medieval India, where horses were stationed at regular intervals for speedy relay of messages.
  • This system was part of a broader network that included both foot and horse posts to ensure efficient communication.

Question 135

Which one of the following texts is a commentary written by Chakrapanidatta (11 Century CE from Bengal) on the Sushrut Samhita?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sabdachandrika

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhanumati

  3. COption (c)

    Nitiratnakara

  4. DOption (d)

    Lohasarvasava

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhanumati

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhanumati.

Key Points 

  • Chakrapanidatta (11th Century CE from Bengal) is known for his commentary on the Sushrut Samhita, called "Bhanumati."
  • Chakrapanidatta was an important figure in the field of Ayurveda, and his works are significant in understanding ancient Indian medical practices.

Hence, Bhanumati is the correct answer.

 Additional Information

  • Nitiratnakara
  • Nitiratnakara is a treatise on political science and statecraft, not related to Ayurveda or medical texts.
  • It is written by Kautilya, who is also known as Chanakya.
  • Lohasarvasava
  • Lohasarvasava is a lesser-known text and not a commentary on the Sushrut Samhita.
  • It deals with alchemy and metallurgy in ancient India.

Question 136

Consider the following statements about the arrival of tobacco in India:

  1. Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan.
  2. Tobacco spread to northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points Arrival of Tobacco in India

  • Statement 1: "Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan."
  • This statement is correct. The tobacco plant was introduced to India around the beginning of the 17th century, and it is believed to have first arrived in the Deccan region.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Statement 2: "Tobacco spread to northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century."
  • This statement is correct. After its introduction to the Deccan, tobacco quickly spread to northern India in the early years of the 17th century.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Portuguese Influence: The Portuguese were instrumental in introducing tobacco to India. They established colonies in Goa and other coastal regions, bringing with them new crops and goods, including tobacco.
  • Spread of Tobacco: The spread of tobacco in India was facilitated by the existing trade networks and the movement of traders and merchants. It quickly became a popular commodity.
  • Economic Impact: The cultivation of tobacco had significant economic implications. It became a cash crop for many farmers, contributing to the agricultural economy of the regions where it was grown.
  • Health Concerns: Over time, the widespread use of tobacco has raised significant health concerns, including its association with various diseases such as cancer, respiratory illnesses, and cardiovascular diseases.
  • Regulation and Control: In modern times, governments around the world, including India, have implemented regulations to control the use and sale of tobacco products to address public health concerns.

Question 137

Consider the following Women's Associations and their important associates in early twentieth century India:

  1. Women's Indian Association of 1917 : Margaret Cousins  
  2. National Council of Women in India of 1925 : Sarala Devi Chaudhuran
  3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910 : Lady Meherbai  Tata

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    1,2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1 only.

Key PointsWomen's Associations and their Important Associates

  • Women's Indian Association of 1917:
  • Founded in 1917 by Margaret Cousins along with other key figures like Annie Besant and Dorothy Jinarajadasa.
  • This association was one of the earliest women's organizations in India, focusing on social reforms and women's rights.
  • It played a significant role in advocating for women's suffrage and education.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • National Council of Women in India of 1925:
  • Founded in 1925, this organization aimed to represent women's voices in the national discourse.
  • However, Sarala Devi Chaudhurani was not associated with this organization. She was a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement and a notable poet and social worker.
  • The correct associate for this organization is Lady Meherbai Tata, who played a crucial role in its establishment.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910:
  • Founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in 1910, this was the first major women's organization in India.
  • The aim was to promote education and social reforms for women in India.
  • Lady Meherbai Tata was not associated with this organization; she was more involved with the National Council of Women in India.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Margaret Cousins:
  • An Irish-Indian educationist and theosophist, who played a significant role in the women's suffrage movement in India.
  • Co-founded the Women's Indian Association in 1917.
  • Sarala Devi Chaudhurani:
  • A prominent Indian independence activist, poet, and social worker.
  • Founded the Bharat Stree Mahamandal in 1910 to promote women's education and social reform.
  • Lady Meherbai Tata:
  • Associated with the National Council of Women in India and played a crucial role in women's social reform movements.
  • Wife of Sir Dorabji Tata, she was instrumental in various philanthropic activities.

Question 138

Consider the following statements about the issue of the separate electorate during the early decades of the twentieth century in India as a means to secure adequate representation for the deprived social categories in the absence of a universal adult franchise:

  1. The All India Depressed Classes Association of M.C. Rajah was staunchly in favour of a joint electorate.
  2. The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference demanded a separate electorate.
  3. The Communal Award in September 1932 recognised the right to separate the electorate for the 'untouchables'.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points Separate Electorate Issue in Early 20th Century India

  • Statement 1: "The All India Depressed Classes Association of M.C. Rajah was staunchly in favour of joint electorate."
  • This statement is incorrect. While M.C. Rajah did play a significant role in advocating for the rights of the depressed classes, he was actually known for supporting the idea of a separate electorate, contrary to the stance attributed in the statement.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Statement 2: "The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference demanded a separate electorate."
  • This statement is correct. The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference, which represented leaders of the depressed classes, indeed demanded separate electorates as a means to secure adequate representation.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Statement 3: "The Communal Award in September 1932 recognised the right to separate electorate for the 'untouchables'."
  • This statement is correct. The Communal Award, announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald in September 1932, recognized separate electorates for various communities, including the 'untouchables' (now referred to as Scheduled Castes).

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Communal Award (1932)
  • The Communal Award was a decision by the British Government to grant separate electorates to various minority communities in India, including Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and the 'untouchables' (Scheduled Castes).
  • This award aimed at addressing the demand for political representation by these communities but faced opposition from various Indian leaders who feared it would lead to further divisions within Indian society.
  • Poona Pact (1932)
  • The Poona Pact was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1932 to resolve the issue of separate electorates for the Scheduled Castes.
  • According to the pact, instead of separate electorates, there would be reserved seats for the Scheduled Castes in provincial legislatures, but the election would be through joint electorates.
  • This agreement was aimed at promoting social integration while ensuring adequate political representation for the Scheduled Castes.
  • Universal Adult Franchise in India
  • Universal adult franchise, which grants all adult citizens the right to vote regardless of their social, economic, or educational status, was adopted in India post-independence.
  • It was a significant move towards establishing a democratic and inclusive political system in the country.
  • The adoption of universal adult franchise was enshrined in the Indian Constitution and was a critical step in ensuring equal political rights for all citizens.

Question 139

Which of the following statements with regard to the famous 'silk routes' are correct?

  1. Silk routes refer to East-bound European silk cargoes along these routes.
  2. There were several silk routes, over land and by sea, joining together vast regions of Asia with Europe and northern Africa.
  3. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century.
  4. Besides silk, Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-east Asia travelled the same route.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1,2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  2, 3 and 4.

Key PointsSilk Routes

  • Silk routes refer to East-bound European silk cargoes along these routes.
  • This statement is incorrect. The term "silk routes" does not specifically refer to East-bound European silk cargoes. Instead, it encompasses the extensive network of trade routes that facilitated the exchange of goods, culture, and ideas between the East and the West.
  • These routes were used for the transportation of a variety of goods, not limited to silk. They connected different regions across Asia, Europe, and northern Africa.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • There were several silk routes, over land and by sea, joining together vast regions of Asia with Europe and northern Africa.
  • This statement is correct. The silk routes were a complex network of interlinking trade routes that spanned both land and sea.
  • They connected vast regions, facilitating trade and cultural exchange between Asia, Europe, and northern Africa.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century.
  • This statement is correct. The silk routes have a long history, dating back to before the Christian Era.
  • They continued to thrive until around the fifteenth century, playing a crucial role in the development of civilizations along these routes.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Besides silk, Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-east Asia travelled the same route.
  • This statement is correct. While silk was one of the primary goods traded along these routes, other items such as Chinese pottery, textiles, and spices from India and Southeast Asia were also significant.
  • These goods contributed to the rich cultural and economic exchanges that occurred along the silk routes.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Silk Routes:
  • The Silk Routes were historically important trade routes that connected the East and West. They were central to cultural interaction through regions of the Asian continent, connecting the East and West by commerce.
  • The Silk Routes were named after the lucrative trade in silk carried out along their length, beginning during the Han dynasty (206 BCE – 220 CE).
  • Goods Traded:
  • While silk was the most famous export from China, many other goods were traded, including spices, textiles, precious stones, and metals.
  • Other notable items included Chinese pottery, which was highly valued in the West, and various spices from India and Southeast Asia.
  • Cultural Exchange:
  • The Silk Routes were not just pathways for commercial goods; they also facilitated the exchange of culture, religion, technology, and ideas. Buddhism, for example, spread from India to East Asia through these routes.
  • Historical Significance:
  • The Silk Routes played a crucial role in the development of the civilizations they connected, fostering economic and cultural growth.
  • They enabled not only the exchange of goods but also the transmission of knowledge, science, and art across continents.

Question 140

Consider the following statements about Ajanta paintings:

  1. The surface of the rock was coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum and a coat of lime was applied over this.
  2. The outline drawing was done first on the lime coating and colours were added subsequently.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsAjanta Paintings

  • Statement 1: The surface of the rock was coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum and a coat of lime was applied over this.
  • The preparation of the surface for painting was a meticulous process in Ajanta, involving a base layer of clay mixed with organic materials like rice husk and gum.
  • This was followed by a coat of lime to create a smooth and stable surface for the application of paint.
  • This technique helped in preserving the vibrancy and durability of the paintings over centuries.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: The outline drawing was done first on the lime coating and colours were added subsequently.
  • The artists at Ajanta followed a systematic process where they first created an outline of the drawing on the lime-coated surface.
  • After ensuring the accuracy of the outlines, they proceeded to fill in the colors, adding details and layers to bring the images to life.
  • This method allowed for precision and depth in the artwork, contributing to the intricate and expressive nature of the Ajanta paintings.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Ajanta Caves:
  • Located in Maharashtra, India, the Ajanta Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • The caves date back to the 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE.
  • They consist of 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments, which include paintings and sculptures considered masterpieces of Buddhist religious art.
  • Techniques and Materials:
  • The paintings were created using a technique called "fresco-secco," where pigments are applied on a dry plaster surface.
  • The use of natural pigments and organic materials like rice husk and gum contributed to the longevity and preservation of the artwork.
  • Historical Significance:
  • The Ajanta paintings provide valuable insights into the life, culture, and religious practices of ancient India.They depict various Jataka tales which are stories of the previous lives of Buddha.
  • The intricate details and vibrant colors reflect the advanced artistic skills and creativity of the period.

Question 141

Which of the following statements with regard to the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project is/are correct?

  1. SKA is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world's biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.
  2. The Government of India has accorded its approval for India's participation in the international mega science project.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsStatements regarding the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project

  • Statement 1: SKA is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world's biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.
  • The SKA project is indeed a groundbreaking international effort to construct the world's largest and most sensitive radio telescope.
  • This telescope aims to address numerous scientific objectives, including the study of the universe's evolution, the formation and evolution of galaxies, fundamental physics in extreme environments, and the search for extraterrestrial life.
  • The SKA will be constructed in two phases, with the first phase (SKA1) focusing on building a portion of the full array, and the second phase (SKA2) expanding the array to its full capacity.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Statement 2: The Government of India has accorded its approval for India's participation in the international mega science project.
  • India has shown significant interest in participating in the SKA project. The Government of India has indeed accorded its approval for India's involvement in this international mega science project.
  • India's participation is facilitated through various scientific institutions and organizations that collaborate with the international SKA consortium.
  • India's involvement in the SKA project includes contributions in terms of technology, expertise, and funding.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Square Kilometer Array (SKA)
  • The SKA will be the world's largest radio telescope, with a total collecting area of over one square kilometer.
  • The project is an international collaboration involving multiple countries and institutions, aiming to revolutionize our understanding of the universe.
  • The SKA will be located in two primary sites: South Africa and Australia.
  • It will operate across a wide range of frequencies and its size will make it 50 times more sensitive than any other radio instrument.
  • India's Participation
  • India, through its scientific community and institutions like the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) and the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), is actively participating in the SKA project.
  • India's contributions include the development of critical technologies, software, and algorithms required for the SKA.
  • The participation also involves training and capacity building for Indian scientists and engineers, providing them opportunities to work on cutting-edge scientific and technological developments.
  • Scientific Goals
  • The SKA aims to address fundamental questions about the universe, including the formation and evolution of galaxies, the role of cosmic magnetism, and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.
  • It also aims to explore the origins of life by searching for bio-signatures and other indicators of life beyond our solar system.
  • The SKA's unprecedented sensitivity and resolution will enable it to detect faint signals from the early universe, providing insights into the first stars and galaxies.
  • Technological Innovations
  • The SKA project involves significant technological advancements, including the development of advanced radio receivers, signal processing systems, and data management infrastructure.
  • The project will generate vast amounts of data, requiring innovative solutions for data storage, processing, and analysis.
  • These technological developments have potential applications beyond astronomy, including telecommunications, computing, and data science.

Question 142

Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and:

  1. AOption (a)

    Kuwait

  2. BOption (b)

    Saudi Arabia

  3. COption (c)

    United Arab Emirates

  4. DOption (d)

    Oman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

United Arab Emirates

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates.

Key Points

  • Exercise Desert Cyclone
  • Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
  • The exercise aims to enhance military cooperation and interoperability between the Indian Army and the UAE Land Forces.
  • This exercise involves a series of tactical drills and maneuvers designed to improve the operational readiness of both forces.
  • The exercise also focuses on developing a mutual understanding of the combat strategies and operational procedures of each nation.
  • Significance
  • Such exercises are crucial for fostering military relationships between countries, enhancing defense capabilities, and ensuring regional stability.
  • It helps in sharing best practices, strategies, and operational techniques, which can be crucial during joint operations.
  • The exercise underlines the strong bilateral military ties between India and the UAE.

Question 143

Which of the following statements with regard to the constitution of Finance Commission is/are correct?

  1. The Government of India has recently constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya.
  2. Finance Commission is constituted in pursuance to Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 only.**

Key PointsConstitution of Finance Commission

  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that is constituted by the President of India every five years, or earlier if needed.
  • It is established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
  • The primary function of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States, and among the States themselves.

Explanation of the Statements:

  • Statement 1: "The Government of India has recently constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya."
  • The Sixteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 31.12.2023 with Shri Arvind Panagariya, former Vice-Chairman, NITI Aayog as its Chairman.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Statement 2: "Finance Commission is constituted in pursuance to Article 263 of the Constitution of India."
  • This statement is incorrect. The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, not Article 263. Article 263 deals with the provisions related to the Inter-State Council.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Article 280: This article mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission at the end of every five years or earlier. The commission's main task is to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments.
  • Functions of the Finance Commission:
  • Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Centre and States.
  • Determine the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre.
  • Measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the state.
  • Inter-State Council (Article 263): This article provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes which may arise between states. It is different from the Finance Commission and has a separate set of functions.
  • Chairpersons of Previous Finance Commissions:
  • The Fifteenth Finance Commission was chaired by N.K. Singh.
  • Other notable chairpersons include Dr. Vijay Kelkar (Thirteenth Finance Commission) and Dr. C. Rangarajan (Twelfth Finance Commission).

Question 144

Recently the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Which one among the following cities is not one among them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indore

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhopal

  3. COption (c)

    Udaipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Jodhpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Jodhpur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jodhpur.

Key PointsWetland City Accreditation (WCA)

  • Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has recently submitted nominations for the Wetland City Accreditation under the Ramsar Convention.
  • The nominations are aimed at recognizing cities that have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their wetlands.
  • Cities Nominated:
  • Indore: Located in Madhya Pradesh, Indore has been known for its initiatives in cleanliness and urban development.
  • Bhopal: Also in Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal is home to the Bhoj Wetland, a Ramsar site, and has proposed conservation zones around its wetlands in its City Development Plan 2031.
  • Udaipur: Known as the City of Lakes, Udaipur in Rajasthan is famed for its intricate lake systems and commitment to wetland conservation.

Hence, the cities nominated for the Wetland City Accreditation are Indore, Bhopal, and Udaipur.

  • City Not Nominated:
  • Jodhpur: Jodhpur, another city in Rajasthan, is not among the cities nominated for Wetland City Accreditation under the Ramsar Convention by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Hence, Jodhpur is not one of the cities nominated for Wetland City Accreditation.

Additional Information

  • Ramsar Convention:
  • The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
  • It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.
  • The convention promotes international cooperation and national action to protect wetland ecosystems.
  • Wetland City Accreditation:
  • This accreditation was established as part of the Ramsar Convention to recognize cities that demonstrate strong and positive relationships with their wetlands.
  • Cities granted this status must meet specific criteria related to sustainable urban development and wetland conservation.
  • The accreditation aims to promote effective wetland management practices and raise awareness of the vital role wetlands play in urban environments.
  • Significance of Wetlands:
  • Wetlands provide numerous ecosystem services, including water purification, flood control, and habitat for diverse flora and fauna. They act as buffers during storms and help in recharging groundwater.
  • Wetlands also offer recreational and aesthetic benefits, contributing to the well-being of urban populations.

Question 145

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. In India, 12th March is celebrated as the National Youth Day.
  2. National Youth Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key PointsAnalysis of Statements

  • Statement 1: In India, 12th March is celebrated as the National Youth Day.
  • This statement is incorrect. In India, National Youth Day is celebrated on 12th January, not 12th March.
  • 12th January was chosen to honor the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, who was born on this day in 1863.
  • Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Statement 2: National Youth Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
  • This statement is correct. National Youth Day is indeed celebrated to honor the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
  • Swami Vivekananda was a key figure in the introduction of Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
  • He was also a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India and contributed significantly to the concept of nationalism in colonial India.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Swami Vivekananda
  • Swami Vivekananda, born as Narendranath Datta, was an Indian Hindu monk and a chief disciple of the 19th-century Indian mystic Ramakrishna.
  • He was born on 12th January 1863 in Kolkata, India.
  • He is best known for his speech at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he began his address with "Sisters and brothers of America..."
  • His teachings and philosophy stressed the importance of self-belief and the idea of universal brotherhood.
  • National Youth Day
  • National Youth Day is celebrated in India on 12th January every year to mark the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
  • The day was declared as National Youth Day by the Government of India in 1984 and has been celebrated annually since 1985.
  • The objective of the day is to spread the ideals and philosophies of Swami Vivekananda among the youth of India.
  • The day is marked by various activities like processions, speeches, youth conventions, seminars, and Yogasanas.

Question 146

Consider the following statements about INS Sagardhwani:

  1. It is an oceanographic research vessel of Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO.
  2. Recently it embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to establish long-term scientific partnerships with Indian Ocean Rim countries in Ocean Research and Development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • INS Sagardhwani is an oceanographic research vessel of the Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO.
  • It is specifically designed and equipped for oceanographic research and studies.
  • The ship is operated by the Indian Navy and supports various scientific missions and research activities.
  • As part of DRDO, it contributes to defense-related research, particularly in the marine domain.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Recently, INS Sagardhwani embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to establish long-term scientific partnerships with Indian Ocean Rim countries in Ocean Research and Development.
  • The Sagar Maitri Mission aims to enhance collaboration and partnership in oceanographic research among Indian Ocean Rim countries.
  • The mission underscores India's commitment to fostering scientific cooperation and sharing knowledge for mutual benefit.
  • The fourth phase of this mission continues the efforts to build and strengthen these international relationships.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • INS Sagardhwani:
  • Commissioned in 1994, INS Sagardhwani is equipped with state-of-the-art oceanographic and marine research equipment.
  • The vessel supports various scientific missions, including studies on ocean currents, marine ecosystems, and underwater acoustics.
  • It plays a crucial role in enhancing the Indian Navy's understanding of the marine environment, which is vital for strategic and defense purposes.
  • Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL):
  • NPOL is a premier laboratory of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) located in Kochi, Kerala.
  • It focuses on research and development in underwater surveillance systems, acoustic sensors, and oceanographic research.
  • NPOL's work is critical for the Indian Navy's anti-submarine warfare capabilities and overall maritime security.
  • Sagar Maitri Mission:
  • Launched by the Indian Navy, the Sagar Maitri Mission aims to promote scientific cooperation with Indian Ocean Rim countries.
  • It emphasizes the importance of sharing oceanographic data and research for the benefit of all participating nations.
  • The mission includes various phases, each focusing on different aspects of ocean research and development.
  • Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):
  • IORA is an inter-governmental organization aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region.
  • It includes 23 member states and 9 dialogue partners, focusing on various areas such as maritime safety, trade, and scientific research.
  • India is a founding member and plays a significant role in promoting collaboration and partnerships within IORA.

Question 147

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the issue of holding simultaneous elections in the country and to make recommendations thereon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah

  2. BOption (b)

    Chief Justice of India Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud

  3. COption (c)

    Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind

  4. DOption (d)

    Chief Election Commissioner of India Shri Rajiv Kumar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind.

Key Points

  • The Government of India constituted a committee to examine the issue of holding simultaneous elections in the country.
  • The committee is chaired by Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind.
  • This committee is responsible for studying and making recommendations regarding the feasibility and implementation of holding simultaneous elections.
  • Simultaneous elections refer to holding Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections at the same time.
  • The concept aims to reduce the frequency of elections, thereby reducing costs and administrative burden.
  • Shri Ram Nath Kovind, a prominent figure in Indian politics, served as the 14th President of India from 2017 to 2022.

 Additional Information

  • Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah
  • Shri Amit Shah is the current Union Home Minister of India.
  • He is a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • He has played a significant role in many political strategies and reforms in India.
  • Chief Justice of India Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
  • Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud is the current Chief Justice of India.
  • He has a distinguished career in the Indian judiciary and has delivered several landmark judgments.
  • Chief Election Commissioner of India Shri Rajiv Kumar
  • Shri Rajiv Kumar is the current Chief Election Commissioner of India.
  • He is responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in India.
  • The Election Commission of India ensures free and fair elections in the country.

Question 148

In January 2024, India's first all-girls' Sainik School was inaugurated at:

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhopal

  2. BOption (b)

    Kohima

  3. COption (c)

    Vrindavan

  4. DOption (d)

    Namsai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vrindavan

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Vrindavan.

Key Points

  • India's first all-girls' Sainik School was inaugurated at Vrindavan in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.
  • The inauguration ceremony was conducted by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on January 1, 2024.
  • The Sainik School, named Samvid Gurukulam Girls Sainik School, opened with a strength of approximately 870 students.
  • This school was established under an initiative to set up 100 new Sainik Schools in collaboration with NGOs, private organizations, and state governments across all states and union territories.

Hence, Vrindavan is the correct answer.

 Additional Information

  • Kohima
  • Kohima is the capital of the Indian state of Nagaland.
  • It is known for its role in the Battle of Kohima during World War II.
  • Kohima is a significant cultural and historical center in the northeastern region of India.
  • Namsai
  • Namsai is a town in the Namsai district of Arunachal Pradesh, India.
  • It is known for its natural beauty and significant Buddhist sites.
  • Namsai is a growing hub for tourism and cultural activities in the region.

Question 149

In February 2024, Government of India has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and:

  1. AOption (a)

    Myanmar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhutan

  3. COption (c)

    Bangladesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Myanmar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Myanmar.

Key Points

  • The Free Movement Regime (FMR) allows people living along the border of India and Myanmar to travel up to 16 km across the border without a visa.
  • This arrangement is aimed at facilitating the movement of tribal communities living on both sides of the border.
  • The Government of India decided to scrap the FMR in February 2024 due to security concerns and to curb the movement of insurgents and smugglers.
  • The decision is also part of a broader effort to strengthen border security and manage illegal activities.
  • This move has significant implications for the socio-economic conditions of the border communities who have historically relied on this regime for trade and social interactions.

 Additional Information

  • Bhutan
  • Bhutan shares a border with India along the states of Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • India and Bhutan have a strong bilateral relationship, marked by trade and cultural exchanges.
  • There is no Free Movement Regime between India and Bhutan similar to the one with Myanmar.
  • Bangladesh
  • India shares a long border with Bangladesh along the states of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • The Indo-Bangladesh border is heavily guarded, and there is no Free Movement Regime between the two countries.
  • India and Bangladesh have agreements in place for trade and transit, but these are regulated and require proper documentation.
  • Nepal
  • India and Nepal share an open border policy, allowing citizens of both countries to travel and work across the border without a visa.
  • This open border policy is different from the FMR as it is based on bilateral agreements and historical ties.
  • The socio-cultural and economic ties between India and Nepal are strong, fostering a unique relationship.

Question 150

Who among the following is the author of the book Why Bharat Matters?

  1. AOption (a)

    L.K. Advani

  2. BOption (b)

    S. Jaishankar

  3. COption (c)

    Mohan Bhagwat

  4. DOption (d)

    Pranab Mukherjee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

S. Jaishankar

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is S. Jaishankar.

Key Points

  • S. Jaishankar is the author of the book "Why Bharat Matters?".
  • The book delves into the geopolitical significance of India, also known as Bharat.
  • It discusses India's strategic importance in the global arena.
  • S. Jaishankar is a seasoned diplomat and currently serves as the Minister of External Affairs of India.
  • He has had a long and illustrious career in the Indian Foreign Service, serving as India's Ambassador to the United States, China, and Singapore.
  • His insights in the book are based on his extensive experience and deep understanding of international relations.

 Additional Information

  • L.K. Advani
  • Lal Krishna Advani is a senior politician from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • He has served as the Deputy Prime Minister of India and has authored the book "My Country My Life".
  • Mohan Bhagwat
  • Mohan Bhagwat is the current chief of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).
  • He has written on various subjects related to Hindu philosophy and nationalism.
  • Pranab Mukherjee
  • Pranab Mukherjee was the 13th President of India.
  • He has authored several books, including "The Coalition Years".

150 questions in the full paper