Which state produced the most pulses in 2023-24?
- AOption (a)
Uttar Pradesh
- BOption (b)
Jharkhand
- COption (c)
Madhya Pradesh
- DOption (d)
Gujarat
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Correct answer
Uttar Pradesh
Held in 2025
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Which state produced the most pulses in 2023-24?
Uttar Pradesh
Jharkhand
Madhya Pradesh
Gujarat
Correct answer
Uttar Pradesh
Who was the Sannidhata in the Mauryan Empire?
Head of the council of ministers
Chief of the army
Chief custodian of the State treasury
Chief of the fort management
Correct answer
Head of the council of ministers
Which city of India did Vasco da Gama reach in 1498?
Kolkata
Mumbai
Calicut
Chennai
Correct answer
Kolkata
When did the French Company acquire Mahe on the Malabar Coast?
1758
1721
1768
1755
Correct answer
1758
How many permanent members are there in the Security Council as of March 2025?
8
10
5
7
Correct answer
8
Where is Furnace Creek in Death Valley?
Iran
Syria
United States of America
Russia
Correct answer
Iran
When was Project Dolphin announced in India?
2 October 2022
15 August 2020
26 January 2019
14 April 2018
Correct answer
2 October 2022
In 2015, India's National Disaster Response Force helped which country in Earthquake disaster?
Bhutan
Sri Lanka
Nepal
Afghanistan
Correct answer
Bhutan
When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
15 August 1948
26 November 1949
26 January 1949
10 May 1949
Correct answer
15 August 1948
Who is the Chief Electoral Officer of Madhya Pradesh as of March 2025?
Manu Srivastava
Smita Bharadwaj
Sukhveer Singh
Manoj Govil
Correct answer
Manu Srivastava
Identify the correct description of 'Send Backward' from the following options.
Down one layer
To the top of the stack
To the bottom of the pile
Moving the object up one layer
Correct answer
Down one layer
Which of the following is the correct option for saving the presentation in Windows on the Go?
Ctrl + C
Ctrl + S
Ctrl + V
Ctrl + X
Correct answer
Ctrl + C
Padma Bhushan 2025 awardee PR Sreejesh is associated with which sport?
Hockey
Cricket
Badminton
Wrestling
Correct answer
Hockey
Which organisation won the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar in National Sports Awards 2024?
Physical Education Foundation of India
Sports Authority of India
Olympic Gold Quest
Indian Olympic Association
Correct answer
Physical Education Foundation of India
What does the acronym 'PARTH' stand for in the context of the PARTH Yojana launched in Madhya Pradesh in 2025?
Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar
Public and Agricultural Resource Training Hub
People’s Association for Rural Trade and Health
Professional and Academic Resource Training House
Correct answer
Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar
When was Burhanpur Tapti Mills established?
1920
1915
1935
1906
Correct answer
1920
Which of the following state's border does NOT touch Madhya Pradesh?
Uttar Pradesh
Rajasthan
Chhattisgarh
Punjab
Correct answer
Uttar Pradesh
Which department of the Madhya Pradesh Government runs Vikramaditya Yojana?
Department of Home
Department of Agriculture
Department of Rural Development
Department of Higher Education
Correct answer
Department of Home
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. C sits third to the right of B. G sits third to the right of C. E is the immediate neighbour of D and B. A sits third to the right of E. How many people sit between F and E when counted from the left of E?
Four
One
Three
Two
Correct answer
Four
In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
How is N related to G if ‘G % Y # Q # E x N’?
Brother’s son
Husband’s father
Wife’s father
Father’s brother
Correct answer
Brother’s son
Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
QCL : THO
WMR : ZRU
UWR : YBV
CWX : FBA
RNL : TSN
WTH : BWM
Correct answer
UWR : YBV
Two varieties of coffee powders - A and B - with costs ₹5.50 per kg and ₹12.50 per kg, respectively, are mi×ed. The mi×ture is sold at a cost of ₹10.50 per kg. If the weight of variety B is 25 kg, what is the weight of variety A?
10 kg
10.25 kg
11 kg
9.8 kg
Correct answer
10 kg
Simplify \(\rm \left[13\frac{1}{5}-\left{8\frac{1}{3}-\left(3\frac{3}{4}-8\frac{1}2{}\right)\right}\right]\)
\(\frac{9}{20}\)
\(\frac{8}{35}\)
\(\frac{7}{60}\)
\(\frac{5}{24}\)
Correct answer
\(\frac{9}{20}\)
The maximum day temperature on 1st March is 35°C. If it is increased by 10% on 3rd March and decreased by 8% on 5th March, what is the maximum day temperature on 5th March?
35.42°C
36°C
34.25°C
32.56°C
Correct answer
35.42°C
A person travels from station A and crosses a flyover of length 2 km in 3 min. They travel 45 min at the speed of 60 km/hr and 8 km at the speed of 80 km/hr to reach station B. How much time will they take if they travel at three-fourth of their average speed on their return journey from station B to station A?
1.6 hr
0.9 hr
1.2 hr
2.3 hr
Correct answer
1.6 hr
Lami’s theorem is applicable to a body in equilibrium when the:
body is acted upon by any number of forces in a plane
body is acted upon by three concurrent and non-parallel forces
body is acted upon by four forces forming a closed polygon
forces are non-concurrent and acting in different planes
Correct answer
body is acted upon by any number of forces in a plane
In a screw jack, the load can be lifted with less effort when the:
helix angle is greater than the friction angle
helix angle is equal to the friction angle
helix angle is less than the friction angle
screw is made of aluminium
Correct answer
helix angle is greater than the friction angle
If a particle moves along a straight line and its displacement ‘s’ is given by s = 4t2 + 2t, then the velocity at time t = 3 seconds is:
14 m/s
26 m/s
30 m/s
38 m/s
Correct answer
14 m/s
In a planar force system, which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to be in equilibrium?
Only ∑Fx = 0
Only ∑Fy = 0
Only ∑Fx = 0 and ∑Fy = 0
∑Fx = 0, ∑Fy = 0 and ∑M = 0
Correct answer
Only ∑Fx = 0
For a solid circular shaft subjected to a torque T, the maximum shear stress (τmax) occurs:
at the centre of the shaft
at the surface of the shaft
mid-radius of the shaft
equally throughout the shaft
Correct answer
at the centre of the shaft
Which of the following correctly defines true stress as compared to engineering stress?
True stress is based on the initial cross-sectional area
True stress = Engineering stress × (original length / instantaneous length)
True stress = Load / instantaneous cross-sectional area
True stress is always less than engineering stress
Correct answer
True stress is based on the initial cross-sectional area
According to Euler’s theory, the critical buckling load for a column with both ends pinned is:
\(\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2}\)
\(\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{4L^2}\)
\(\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{L}\)
\(\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{2L}\)
Correct answer
\(\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2}\)
When a shaft is subjected to a bending moment M and torque T, the equivalent stress can be computed using:
only torsion equation
only bending equation
Maximum shear stress theory or Von Mises theory
Rankine’s theory
Correct answer
only torsion equation
In matrix analysis, the global coordinate system is:
local to each member
based on material properties
a fixed reference for the whole structure
arbitrarily changing for each load case
Correct answer
local to each member
A three-hinged arch does not develop thermal stresses because:
it is statically indeterminate
there are no vertical loads
it is flexible at the crown hinge
temperature affects only pinned supports
Correct answer
it is statically indeterminate
The flexibility and stiffness matrices are:
additive
multiplicative inverses
identical
diagonal matrices
Correct answer
additive
A two-hinged arch, subjected to a temperature increase, will generally develop:
no horizontal thrust
increased vertical reactions
an increased horizontal thrust
a decreased span
Correct answer
no horizontal thrust
What is the main disadvantage of the Working Stress Method?
It always gives the lightest structure possible
It does not consider the actual collapse behaviour and results in uneconomical designs.
It ignores the elastic behaviour of materials.
It cannot be used for steel design.
Correct answer
It always gives the lightest structure possible
When is it NOT necessary to check deflection in a reinforced concrete member, as per IS 456 (2000)?
When the beam is simply supported
When the span-to-depth ratio is within permissible limits
When the member is short
When the live load is less than 5 kN/m2
Correct answer
When the beam is simply supported
According to IS 800:2007, the shear buckling resistance of an unstiffened web of a beam is checked when its depth-to-thickness ratio (d/tw) exceeds ____ Where \(\in=\sqrt{\frac{f_y}{250}}\)
fy = Yield stress of the web material in MPa
d = Clear depth of web between flanges
tw = Thickness of the web
50 ε
67 ε
85 ε
100 ε
Correct answer
50 ε
In the context of structural design, characteristic load is defined as _____.
the average value of the load from tests
load that has 95% of probability of not being exceeded during the life of the structure
the maximum load ever applied
the arbitrary assumed load
Correct answer
the average value of the load from tests
In an under-reinforced concrete beam section designed using Limit State Design (LSD), the failure is primarily initiated by _______.
crushing of concrete in compression
yielding of the tensile steel reinforcement
simultaneous yielding of steel and crushing of concrete
yielding of the compression steel reinforcement
Correct answer
crushing of concrete in compression
As per IS 456 (2000), for a column design, the cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement, shall be ________ of gross cross-sectional area of the column.
not less than 0.8% nor more than 6%
not less than 1.8% nor more than 4%
not less than 0.06% nor more than 0.8%
not less than 1% nor more than 5%
Correct answer
not less than 0.8% nor more than 6%
As per IS 456:2000, the nominal shear stress (tv) in a rectangular beam is calculated by _______
Where: Vu = Factored shear force at the section (in N)
b = Width of the beam (in mm)
d = Effective depth of the beam (in mm)
\(\rm \frac{V_u}{d}\)
\(\rm \frac{V_u}{b.d}\)
\(\rm \frac{V_u.d}{b}\)
\(\rm \frac{b.d}{V_u}\)
Correct answer
\(\rm \frac{V_u}{d}\)
Identify the INCORRECT statement about mild steel.
It is malleable and ductile.
It cannot be magnetised permanently
It can be welded easily
It is equally strong in tension and in compression.
Correct answer
It is malleable and ductile.
Identify the INCORRECT statement about the setting time of concrete.
Setting time of concrete coincides with the setting time of cement used for making the concrete.
The setting time of concrete is found using penetrometer test.
Setting time of cement is found using the Vicat’s apparatus.
Retarding plasticizers increases the setting time of concrete.
Correct answer
Setting time of concrete coincides with the setting time of cement used for making the concrete.
Earliest Finish time of an activity is ______.
Earliest start time + Duration of that activity
Earliest start time − Duration of that activity
Latest start time + Duration of that activity
Latest start time − Duration of that activity
Correct answer
Earliest start time + Duration of that activity
Which of the following is/are included in the CPWD schedule of rates?
I: The period of completion of each item of work
II: The basic rates of materials
III: The basic rates of labour
Only I
Only II
II and III
I and III
Correct answer
Only I
Consider the following statements about the detailed specification of a work.
Statement I : Only the nature and class of works and the names of the materials that should be used are described.
Statement II : They form a part of the contract document.
Statement III : While writing the detailed specifications, the same order of sequence as the work to be carried out is maintained.
Identify the correct statement(s).
II and III only
I and III only
I only
III only
Correct answer
II and III only
Which of the following methods are used for compacting different types of soil in the field?
Rolling, ramming, vibration
Rolling, ramming, crushing
Consolidating, ramming, vibration
Rolling, ramming, consolidating
Correct answer
Rolling, ramming, vibration
To preclude the possibility of erosion and piping in soils, the specification of protective filters to be adopted are _____ (where D15, D50 and D85 indicate particle sizes from the grain size distribution curve, f indicates the filter material and P indicates the protective material).
D15 (f)/D85 (P) < 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) < 25
D15 (f)/D85 (P) > 5; D50 (f)/D50(P) > 25
D15 (f)/D85 (P) > 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) < 25
D15 (f)/D85 (P) < 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) > 25
Correct answer
D15 (f)/D85 (P) < 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) < 25
In a consolidated drained shear test, under the influence of confining pressure, the loose sand generally _____ in volume, while dense sand _______, when the soil is subjected to shear.
decrease; dilate
increase; dilate
increase; contract
decrease; contract
Correct answer
decrease; dilate
Among the methods for constructing flow nets, which of the following methods adopt Laplace’s equation and Darcy’s equation, respectively?
Analytical method and electrical flow analogy
Analytical method and capillary flow analogy
Electrical flow analogy and capillary flow analogy
Capillary flow analogy and sand model
Correct answer
Analytical method and electrical flow analogy
Which of the following is NOT a type of soil sample collected during soil boring?
Disturbed sample
Representative sample
Non-representative sample
Constructive sample
Correct answer
Disturbed sample
While estimating the stability of slope, the failure envelope for a cohesionless soil in an infinite slope is defined by the equation _____ (where c is cohesion of soil, φ is angle of internal friction, σ is normal stress, τf is shear stress and ψ is angle of repose).
τf = σ tan φ
τf = c − σ tan φ
τf = c + σ tan φ
τf = c − σ tan ψ
Correct answer
τf = σ tan φ
The contact pressure distribution for a flexible footing resting in a saturated clay soil, subjected to a uniformly distributed load, is _____.
uniformly distributed
uniformly varying
more near the edges than the centre
more near the centre and edges
Correct answer
uniformly distributed
A long natural slope in a c-φ soil is inclined at 12° to the horizontal. The water table is at the surface and seepage is parallel to the slope. If a plane slip has developed at a depth of 4 m, determine the factor of safety. Take c = 8 kN/m2, φ = 22°, ϒsat = 19 kN/m3, ϒw = 10 kN/m3.
1.55
1.42
1
1.88
Correct answer
1.55
Identify the basis on which a triangulation system is classified.
The shape of the triangles
The baseline direction
The extent and accuracy required
The tower height used
Correct answer
The shape of the triangles
Which type of display is commonly found in modern total stations for data representation?
CRT display
LCD display
LED display
OLED display
Correct answer
CRT display
Identify the type of surveying used for large-scale mapping with high accuracy over short distances?
Geodetic surveying
Plane surveying
Astronomical surveying
Remote sensing
Correct answer
Geodetic surveying
Which of the following is a systematic error that can be eliminated by applying corrections?
Instrumental error
Personal error
Accidental error
Random error
Correct answer
Instrumental error
Why are signals and towers primarily used in a triangulation survey?
For ensuring line of sight over long distances and obstacles
For increasing the strength of the triangle
For weather monitoring
For enhancing signal reception
Correct answer
For ensuring line of sight over long distances and obstacles
If the fore bearing and back bearing of a line differ by more or less than 180°, it indicates which of the following?
Compass is defective
Local attraction is present
Magnetic dip is high
Sighting was incorrect
Correct answer
Compass is defective
Why is a transition curve necessary between a straight and a circular curve?
To increase vehicle speed suddenly
To adjust for road widening
To satisfy requirements like gradual curvature, super elevation and comfort
To create sharp turns
Correct answer
To increase vehicle speed suddenly
Which assumption is made in one-dimensional flow analysis?
Flow properties change only along a single spatial coordinate.
Velocity remains constant in one direction but varies in others
The flow is governed by one fundamental conservation equation only
There is only one possible flow regime (either laminar or turbulent)
Correct answer
Flow properties change only along a single spatial coordinate.
According to the momentum principle, the impact force of a jet is independent of the:
velocity of the jet
density of the fluid
cross-sectional area of the jet
atmospheric pressure
Correct answer
velocity of the jet
Why is the velocity distribution coefficient important in open channel hydraulics?
It helps in accurately computing energy and momentum fluxes.
It determines the slope of the channel bed.
It defines the maximum velocity in the channel.
It is used only for laminar flow calculations.
Correct answer
It helps in accurately computing energy and momentum fluxes.
The discharge equation for a broad-crested weir is derived using:
the energy equation and critical flow conditions
the momentum equation alone
the Darcy-Weisbach equation
the continuity equation only
Correct answer
the energy equation and critical flow conditions
Which type of Rotodynamic pump uses both axial and radial flow?
Mixed-flow pump
Centrifugal pump
Reciprocating pump
Vane pump
Correct answer
Mixed-flow pump
Which of the following best describes the behaviour of moderate viscosity fluids in pipelines?
High energy losses due to turbulence
No viscosity effects on flow
Combination of laminar and turbulent characteristics
Flow remains completely uniform throughout.
Correct answer
High energy losses due to turbulence
Which type of precipitation occurs when raindrops freeze before reaching the ground?
Snow
Sleet
Hail
Drizzle
Correct answer
Snow
In which of the following cases is flood duration likely to be the longest?
Heavy rain over a mountainous area with steep slope
Rainfall over a flat area with poor drainage
A flash flood caused by sudden cloudburst
A flood due to dam failure
Correct answer
Heavy rain over a mountainous area with steep slope
In a confined aquifer, how does compressibility affect groundwater storage?
Water is released only due to gravity drainage
Water is released due to expansion of water and compression of the aquifer.
Water movement is independent of compressibility.
Compressibility does not affect confined aquifers.
Correct answer
Water is released only due to gravity drainage
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of irrigation?
Salinisation of soil
Increased agricultural productivity
Waterlogging of fields
Groundwater depletion
Correct answer
Salinisation of soil
If the base period (B) increases and Delta (Δ) remains constant, what happens to Duty (D)?
Increases
Decreases
Remains the same
Becomes zero
Correct answer
Increases
Which of the following options is correct with respect to the statements regarding Kennedy’s and Lacey’s theories?
Statement 1: Kennedy’s theory is based on the concept of critical velocity.
Statement 2: Lacey’s theory assumes that a stable channel is formed naturally by the flow
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false
Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.
Correct answer
Both statements are true.
What is the primary purpose of camber in roads?
To provide structural support
To enhance aesthetics
To drain off surface water
To reduce noise levels
Correct answer
To provide structural support
Which of the following combinations correctly lists the four basic requirements of a highway alignment?
Long, Difficult, Unsafe, Costly
Short, Easy, Safe, Economical
Short, Curvy, Steep, Expensive
Strategic, Difficult, Unsafe, Economical
Correct answer
Long, Difficult, Unsafe, Costly
What is the primary reason for conducting reconnaissance in a new highway project?
To finalise pavement design
To prepare land acquisition plans
To inspect the topography and identify construction materials
To mark the alignment on the ground
Correct answer
To finalise pavement design
What is the minimum sight distance required on a highway, also known as the non-passing sight distance?
Intermediate sight distance
Headlight sight distance
Overtaking sight distance
Stopping sight distance
Correct answer
Intermediate sight distance
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) was formed in 1934.
Reason (R): It was recommended by the Jayakar Committee to form a semi-official technical body to advise on road development.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true, but R is false
A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Which of the following is generally preferred for embankment construction?
Organic soil
Peat
Granular soil
Black cotton soil
Correct answer
Organic soil
Why are inferior materials acceptable in the lower layers of flexible pavements?
Because they are protected from environmental exposure
Because they are not in contact with traffic and bear lower stresses
Because they provide better drainage
Because they increase the strength of the upper layers
Correct answer
Because they are protected from environmental exposure
During the monsoons, potholes in bituminous pavements are best repaired using which of the following?
Hot mix bitumen
Cutback bitumen or bituminous emulsion
Dry aggregate and binder mix
Cement concrete patch
Correct answer
Hot mix bitumen
Select the option with the correct pair(s) from the following pairs.
A. Taxiway width – Depends on aircraft wingspan
B. Taxiway slope – Ignored in flat regions
C. Shoulder width – Optional for all airports
Only A
Only B
Both A and C
Both B and C
Correct answer
Only A
Loading aprons are designed to:
support air traffic control
accommodate parked aircraft for boarding
store fire extinguishers
maintain ground support vehicles
Correct answer
support air traffic control
Which of the following is NOT a type of railway sleeper?
Wooden sleeper
Steel sleeper
Concrete sleeper
Plastic sleeper
Correct answer
Wooden sleeper
Match the requirements of ballast with their corresponding functions/effects in railway track maintenance.
| Requirement of Ballast | Function/Effect | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| A. | Drainage capability | 1. | Prevents track settlement |
| B. | Resistance to wear | 2. | Allows water to flow freely |
| C. | Stability | 3. | Helps resist external loads |
A-2, B-3, C-1
A-1, B-2, C-3
A-3, B-1, C-2
A-1, B-3, C-2
Correct answer
A-2, B-3, C-1
Iron and manganese in water cause which of the following issues?
Hardness and foaming
Incrustation and taste issues
Fluorosis
Algae growth
Correct answer
Hardness and foaming
Which of the following organisms is used as an indicator of fecal contamination in drinking water?
E. coli
Streptococcus
Salmonella
Giardia
Correct answer
E. coli
Which device measures velocity head in open channels or pressurised pipelines?
Pitot tube
Orifice meter
Venturimeter
Ultrasonic flowmeter
Correct answer
Pitot tube
Which of the following is NOT a part of domestic water demand?
Bathing
Road washing
Gardening
Washing clothes
Correct answer
Bathing
The material commonly used for pressurised sewer pipes is:
clay
RCC
stoneware
PVC or ductile iron
Correct answer
clay
Which of the following materials is the most suitable for large diameter sewer mains?
Cast iron
Stoneware
RCC
HDPE
Correct answer
Cast iron
The main purpose of providing a minimum gradient in sewer lines is to:
ensure self-cleansing velocity
reduce pipe cost
avoid backflow
increase manhole count
Correct answer
ensure self-cleansing velocity
Sludge drying beds are the most effective in:
dry and hot climates
high rainfall areas
cold and humid places
coastal regions
Correct answer
dry and hot climates
Lack of ventilation in buildings may lead to the accumulation of:
harmful indoor pollutants
oxygen
water vapour
air pressure
Correct answer
harmful indoor pollutants
Which of the following natural processes is responsible for dilution and removal of air pollutants?
Photochemical smog formation
Chemical precipitation
Thermal stratification
Wind dispersion and rain washing
Correct answer
Photochemical smog formation
Which of the following is a step in the recycling process of e-waste?
Dismantling devices manually to recover valuable materials
Storing e-waste in landfills for long periods
Incinerating all e-waste
Ignoring hazardous substances during recycling
Correct answer
Dismantling devices manually to recover valuable materials
100 questions in the full paper