Official Paper

MPPKVVCL Assistant Engineer (Civil) Official Paper (Held On: 04 Jun, 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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Non Technical (25 questions)

1

Which state produced the most pulses in 2023-24?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

2

Who was the Sannidhata in the Mauryan Empire?

  1. ((a))

    Head of the council of ministers

  2. ((b))

    Chief of the army

  3. ((c))

    Chief custodian of the State treasury

  4. ((d))

    Chief of the fort management

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Head of the council of ministers

3

Which city of India did Vasco da Gama reach in 1498?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Calicut

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kolkata

4

When did the French Company acquire Mahe on the Malabar Coast?

  1. ((a))

    1758

  2. ((b))

    1721

  3. ((c))

    1768

  4. ((d))

    1755

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1758

5

How many permanent members are there in the Security Council as of March 2025?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

6

Where is Furnace Creek in Death Valley? 

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Syria

  3. ((c))

    United States of America

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iran

7

When was Project Dolphin announced in India?

  1. ((a))

    2 October 2022

  2. ((b))

    15 August 2020

  3. ((c))

    26 January 2019

  4. ((d))

    14 April 2018

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 October 2022

8

In 2015, India's National Disaster Response Force helped which country in Earthquake disaster?

  1. ((a))

    Bhutan

  2. ((b))

    Sri Lanka

  3. ((c))

    Nepal

  4. ((d))

    Afghanistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhutan

9

When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?

  1. ((a))

    15 August 1948

  2. ((b))

    26 November 1949

  3. ((c))

    26 January 1949

  4. ((d))

    10 May 1949

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 August 1948

10

Who is the Chief Electoral Officer of Madhya Pradesh as of March 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Manu Srivastava

  2. ((b))

    Smita Bharadwaj

  3. ((c))

    Sukhveer Singh

  4. ((d))

    Manoj Govil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manu Srivastava

11

Identify the correct description of 'Send Backward' from the following options.

  1. ((a))

    Down one layer

  2. ((b))

    To the top of the stack

  3. ((c))

    To the bottom of the pile

  4. ((d))

    Moving the object up one layer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Down one layer

12

Which of the following is the correct option for saving the presentation in Windows on the Go? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + C

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + S

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + V

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + X

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + C

13

Padma Bhushan 2025 awardee PR Sreejesh is associated with which sport?

  1. ((a))

    Hockey

  2. ((b))

    Cricket

  3. ((c))

    Badminton

  4. ((d))

    Wrestling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hockey

14

Which organisation won the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar in National Sports Awards 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Physical Education Foundation of India

  2. ((b))

    Sports Authority of India

  3. ((c))

    Olympic Gold Quest

  4. ((d))

    Indian Olympic Association 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Physical Education Foundation of India

15

What does the acronym 'PARTH' stand for in the context of the PARTH Yojana launched in Madhya Pradesh in 2025? 

  1. ((a))

    Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar

  2. ((b))

    Public and Agricultural Resource Training Hub

  3. ((c))

    People’s Association for Rural Trade and Health

  4. ((d))

    Professional and Academic Resource Training House

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar

16

When was Burhanpur Tapti Mills established?

  1. ((a))

    1920

  2. ((b))

    1915

  3. ((c))

    1935

  4. ((d))

    1906

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1920

17

Which of the following state's border does NOT touch Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Chhattisgarh

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

18

Which department of the Madhya Pradesh Government runs Vikramaditya Yojana?

  1. ((a))

    Department of Home

  2. ((b))

    Department of Agriculture

  3. ((c))

    Department of Rural Development

  4. ((d))

    Department of Higher Education

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Department of Home

19

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. C sits third to the right of B. G sits third to the right of C. E is the immediate neighbour of D and B. A sits third to the right of E. How many people sit between F and E when counted from the left of E?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

20

In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,

A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,

A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,

A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ and

A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is N related to G if ‘G % Y # Q # E x N’?

  1. ((a))

    Brother’s son

  2. ((b))

    Husband’s father

  3. ((c))

    Wife’s father

  4. ((d))

    Father’s brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brother’s son

21

Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

QCL : THO

WMR : ZRU

  1. ((a))

    UWR : YBV

  2. ((b))

    CWX : FBA

  3. ((c))

    RNL : TSN

  4. ((d))

    WTH : BWM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UWR : YBV

22

Two varieties of coffee powders - A and B - with costs ₹5.50 per kg and ₹12.50 per kg, respectively, are mi×ed. The mi×ture is sold at a cost of ₹10.50 per kg. If the weight of variety B is 25 kg, what is the weight of variety A?

  1. ((a))

    10 kg

  2. ((b))

    10.25 kg

  3. ((c))

    11 kg

  4. ((d))

    9.8 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 kg

23

Simplify \(\rm \left[13\frac{1}{5}-\left{8\frac{1}{3}-\left(3\frac{3}{4}-8\frac{1}2{}\right)\right}\right]\)

  1. ((a))

    920\frac{9}{20}

  2. ((b))

    835\frac{8}{35}

  3. ((c))

    760\frac{7}{60}

  4. ((d))

    524\frac{5}{24}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

920\frac{9}{20}

24

The maximum day temperature on 1st March is 35°C. If it is increased by 10% on 3rd March and decreased by 8% on 5th March, what is the maximum day temperature on 5th March?

  1. ((a))

    35.42°C

  2. ((b))

    36°C

  3. ((c))

    34.25°C

  4. ((d))

    32.56°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35.42°C

25

A person travels from station A and crosses a flyover of length 2 km in 3 min. They travel 45 min at the speed of 60 km/hr and 8 km at the speed of 80 km/hr to reach station B. How much time will they take if they travel at three-fourth of their average speed on their return journey from station B to station A?

  1. ((a))

    1.6 hr

  2. ((b))

    0.9 hr

  3. ((c))

    1.2 hr 

  4. ((d))

    2.3 hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.6 hr

Technical (75 questions)

26

Lami’s theorem is applicable to a body in equilibrium when the:

  1. ((a))

    body is acted upon by any number of forces in a plane

  2. ((b))

    body is acted upon by three concurrent and non-parallel forces

  3. ((c))

    body is acted upon by four forces forming a closed polygon

  4. ((d))

    forces are non-concurrent and acting in different planes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

body is acted upon by any number of forces in a plane

27

In a screw jack, the load can be lifted with less effort when the:

  1. ((a))

    helix angle is greater than the friction angle

  2. ((b))

    helix angle is equal to the friction angle

  3. ((c))

    helix angle is less than the friction angle

  4. ((d))

    screw is made of aluminium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

helix angle is greater than the friction angle

28

If a particle moves along a straight line and its displacement ‘s’ is given by s = 4t2 + 2t, then the velocity at time t = 3 seconds is:

  1. ((a))

    14 m/s

  2. ((b))

    26 m/s

  3. ((c))

    30 m/s

  4. ((d))

    38 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14 m/s

29

In a planar force system, which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to be in equilibrium?

  1. ((a))

    Only ∑Fx = 0

  2. ((b))

    Only ∑Fy = 0

  3. ((c))

    Only ∑Fx = 0 and ∑Fy = 0

  4. ((d))

    ∑Fx = 0, ∑Fy = 0 and ∑M = 0 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only ∑Fx = 0

30

For a solid circular shaft subjected to a torque T, the maximum shear stress (τmax) occurs:

  1. ((a))

    at the centre of the shaft

  2. ((b))

    at the surface of the shaft

  3. ((c))

    mid-radius of the shaft

  4. ((d))

    equally throughout the shaft

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

at the centre of the shaft

31

Which of the following correctly defines true stress as compared to engineering stress?

  1. ((a))

    True stress is based on the initial cross-sectional area

  2. ((b))

    True stress = Engineering stress × (original length / instantaneous length)

  3. ((c))

    True stress = Load / instantaneous cross-sectional area

  4. ((d))

    True stress is always less than engineering stress 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

True stress is based on the initial cross-sectional area

32

According to Euler’s theory, the critical buckling load for a column with both ends pinned is: 

  1. ((a))

    Pcr=π2EIL2\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2}

  2. ((b))

    Pcr=π2EI4L2\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{4L^2}

  3. ((c))

    Pcr=π2EIL\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{L}

  4. ((d))

    Pcr=π2EI2L\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{2L}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pcr=π2EIL2\rm P_{cr}=\frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2}

33

When a shaft is subjected to a bending moment M and torque T, the equivalent stress can be computed using:

  1. ((a))

    only torsion equation

  2. ((b))

    only bending equation

  3. ((c))

    Maximum shear stress theory or Von Mises theory

  4. ((d))

    Rankine’s theory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

only torsion equation

34

In matrix analysis, the global coordinate system is: 

  1. ((a))

    local to each member

  2. ((b))

    based on material properties

  3. ((c))

    a fixed reference for the whole structure

  4. ((d))

    arbitrarily changing for each load case

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

local to each member

35

A three-hinged arch does not develop thermal stresses because:

  1. ((a))

    it is statically indeterminate

  2. ((b))

    there are no vertical loads

  3. ((c))

    it is flexible at the crown hinge

  4. ((d))

    temperature affects only pinned supports

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

it is statically indeterminate

36

The flexibility and stiffness matrices are:

  1. ((a))

    additive 

  2. ((b))

    multiplicative inverses

  3. ((c))

    identical

  4. ((d))

    diagonal matrices

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

additive 

37

A two-hinged arch, subjected to a temperature increase, will generally develop:

  1. ((a))

    no horizontal thrust

  2. ((b))

    increased vertical reactions

  3. ((c))

    an increased horizontal thrust

  4. ((d))

    a decreased span

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

no horizontal thrust

38

What is the main disadvantage of the Working Stress Method?

  1. ((a))

    It always gives the lightest structure possible

  2. ((b))

    It does not consider the actual collapse behaviour and results in uneconomical designs.

  3. ((c))

    It ignores the elastic behaviour of materials.

  4. ((d))

    It cannot be used for steel design.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It always gives the lightest structure possible

39

When is it NOT necessary to check deflection in a reinforced concrete member, as per IS 456 (2000)?

  1. ((a))

    When the beam is simply supported

  2. ((b))

    When the span-to-depth ratio is within permissible limits

  3. ((c))

    When the member is short

  4. ((d))

    When the live load is less than 5 kN/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When the beam is simply supported

40

According to IS 800:2007, the shear buckling resistance of an unstiffened web of a beam is checked when its depth-to-thickness ratio (d/tw) exceeds ____ Where ∈=fy250\in=\sqrt{\frac{f_y}{250}}

fy = Yield stress of the web material in MPa

d = Clear depth of web between flanges

tw = Thickness of the web

  1. ((a))

    50 ε

  2. ((b))

    67 ε

  3. ((c))

    85 ε

  4. ((d))

    100 ε

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 ε

41

In the context of structural design, characteristic load is defined as _____.

  1. ((a))

    the average value of the load from tests

  2. ((b))

    load that has 95% of probability of not being exceeded during the life of the structure

  3. ((c))

    the maximum load ever applied

  4. ((d))

    the arbitrary assumed load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the average value of the load from tests

42

In an under-reinforced concrete beam section designed using Limit State Design (LSD), the failure is primarily initiated by _______.

  1. ((a))

    crushing of concrete in compression

  2. ((b))

    yielding of the tensile steel reinforcement

  3. ((c))

    simultaneous yielding of steel and crushing of concrete

  4. ((d))

    yielding of the compression steel reinforcement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

crushing of concrete in compression

43

As per IS 456 (2000), for a column design, the cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement, shall be ________ of gross cross-sectional area of the column.

  1. ((a))

    not less than 0.8% nor more than 6%

  2. ((b))

    not less than 1.8% nor more than 4%

  3. ((c))

    not less than 0.06% nor more than 0.8%

  4. ((d))

    not less than 1% nor more than 5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

not less than 0.8% nor more than 6%

44

As per IS 456:2000, the nominal shear stress (tv) in a rectangular beam is calculated by _______

Where: Vu = Factored shear force at the section (in N)

b = Width of the beam (in mm)

d = Effective depth of the beam (in mm)

  1. ((a))

    Vud\rm \frac{V_u}{d}

  2. ((b))

    Vub.d\rm \frac{V_u}{b.d}

  3. ((c))

    Vu.db\rm \frac{V_u.d}{b}

  4. ((d))

    b.dVu\rm \frac{b.d}{V_u}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vud\rm \frac{V_u}{d}

45

Identify the INCORRECT statement about mild steel.

  1. ((a))

    It is malleable and ductile.

  2. ((b))

    It cannot be magnetised permanently

  3. ((c))

    It can be welded easily

  4. ((d))

    It is equally strong in tension and in compression.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is malleable and ductile.

46

Identify the INCORRECT statement about the setting time of concrete.

  1. ((a))

    Setting time of concrete coincides with the setting time of cement used for making the concrete.

  2. ((b))

    The setting time of concrete is found using penetrometer test.

  3. ((c))

    Setting time of cement is found using the Vicat’s apparatus.

  4. ((d))

    Retarding plasticizers increases the setting time of concrete.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Setting time of concrete coincides with the setting time of cement used for making the concrete.

47

Earliest Finish time of an activity is ______.

  1. ((a))

    Earliest start time + Duration of that activity

  2. ((b))

    Earliest start time − Duration of that activity

  3. ((c))

    Latest start time + Duration of that activity

  4. ((d))

    Latest start time − Duration of that activity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Earliest start time + Duration of that activity

48

Which of the following is/are included in the CPWD schedule of rates?

I: The period of completion of each item of work

II: The basic rates of materials

III: The basic rates of labour

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Only II 

  3. ((c))

    II and III

  4. ((d))

    I and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

49

Consider the following statements about the detailed specification of a work.

Statement I : Only the nature and class of works and the names of the materials that should be used are described.

Statement II : They form a part of the contract document.

Statement III : While writing the detailed specifications, the same order of sequence as the work to be carried out is maintained.

Identify the correct statement(s).

  1. ((a))

    II and III only

  2. ((b))

    I and III only

  3. ((c))

    I only

  4. ((d))

    III only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

II and III only

50

Which of the following methods are used for compacting different types of soil in the field?

  1. ((a))

    Rolling, ramming, vibration

  2. ((b))

    Rolling, ramming, crushing

  3. ((c))

    Consolidating, ramming, vibration

  4. ((d))

    Rolling, ramming, consolidating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rolling, ramming, vibration

51

To preclude the possibility of erosion and piping in soils, the specification of protective filters to be adopted are _____ (where D15, D50 and D85 indicate particle sizes from the grain size distribution curve, f indicates the filter material and P indicates the protective material).

  1. ((a))

    D15 (f)/D85 (P) < 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) < 25

  2. ((b))

    D15 (f)/D85 (P) > 5; D50 (f)/D50(P) > 25

  3. ((c))

    D15 (f)/D85 (P) > 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) < 25

  4. ((d))

    D15 (f)/D85 (P) < 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) > 25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D15 (f)/D85 (P) < 5; D50 (f)/D50 (P) < 25

52

In a consolidated drained shear test, under the influence of confining pressure, the loose sand generally _____ in volume, while dense sand _______, when the soil is subjected to shear.

  1. ((a))

    decrease; dilate

  2. ((b))

    increase; dilate

  3. ((c))

    increase; contract

  4. ((d))

    decrease; contract 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

decrease; dilate

53

Among the methods for constructing flow nets, which of the following methods adopt Laplace’s equation and Darcy’s equation, respectively?

  1. ((a))

    Analytical method and electrical flow analogy

  2. ((b))

    Analytical method and capillary flow analogy

  3. ((c))

    Electrical flow analogy and capillary flow analogy

  4. ((d))

    Capillary flow analogy and sand model

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Analytical method and electrical flow analogy

54

Which of the following is NOT a type of soil sample collected during soil boring?

  1. ((a))

    Disturbed sample

  2. ((b))

    Representative sample

  3. ((c))

    Non-representative sample

  4. ((d))

    Constructive sample

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Disturbed sample

55

While estimating the stability of slope, the failure envelope for a cohesionless soil in an infinite slope is defined by the equation _____ (where c is cohesion of soil, φ is angle of internal friction, σ is normal stress, τf is shear stress and ψ is angle of repose).

  1. ((a))

    τf = σ tan φ

  2. ((b))

    τf = c − σ tan φ

  3. ((c))

    τf = c + σ tan φ

  4. ((d))

    τf = c − σ tan ψ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

τf = σ tan φ

56

The contact pressure distribution for a flexible footing resting in a saturated clay soil, subjected to a uniformly distributed load, is _____. 

  1. ((a))

    uniformly distributed

  2. ((b))

    uniformly varying

  3. ((c))

    more near the edges than the centre

  4. ((d))

    more near the centre and edges

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

uniformly distributed

57

A long natural slope in a c-φ soil is inclined at 12° to the horizontal. The water table is at the surface and seepage is parallel to the slope. If a plane slip has developed at a depth of 4 m, determine the factor of safety. Take c = 8 kN/m2, φ = 22°, ϒsat = 19 kN/m3, ϒw = 10 kN/m3.

  1. ((a))

    1.55

  2. ((b))

    1.42

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    1.88

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.55

58

Identify the basis on which a triangulation system is classified.

  1. ((a))

    The shape of the triangles

  2. ((b))

    The baseline direction

  3. ((c))

    The extent and accuracy required

  4. ((d))

    The tower height used

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The shape of the triangles

59

Which type of display is commonly found in modern total stations for data representation?

  1. ((a))

    CRT display

  2. ((b))

    LCD display

  3. ((c))

    LED display

  4. ((d))

    OLED display

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CRT display

60

Identify the type of surveying used for large-scale mapping with high accuracy over short distances?  

  1. ((a))

    Geodetic surveying

  2. ((b))

    Plane surveying

  3. ((c))

    Astronomical surveying

  4. ((d))

    Remote sensing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Geodetic surveying

61

Which of the following is a systematic error that can be eliminated by applying corrections?

  1. ((a))

    Instrumental error

  2. ((b))

    Personal error

  3. ((c))

    Accidental error

  4. ((d))

    Random error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Instrumental error

62

Why are signals and towers primarily used in a triangulation survey?

  1. ((a))

    For ensuring line of sight over long distances and obstacles

  2. ((b))

    For increasing the strength of the triangle

  3. ((c))

    For weather monitoring

  4. ((d))

    For enhancing signal reception

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

For ensuring line of sight over long distances and obstacles

63

If the fore bearing and back bearing of a line differ by more or less than 180°, it indicates which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Compass is defective

  2. ((b))

    Local attraction is present

  3. ((c))

    Magnetic dip is high

  4. ((d))

    Sighting was incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compass is defective

64

Why is a transition curve necessary between a straight and a circular curve?

  1. ((a))

    To increase vehicle speed suddenly

  2. ((b))

    To adjust for road widening

  3. ((c))

    To satisfy requirements like gradual curvature, super elevation and comfort

  4. ((d))

    To create sharp turns

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase vehicle speed suddenly

65

Which assumption is made in one-dimensional flow analysis?

  1. ((a))

    Flow properties change only along a single spatial coordinate.

  2. ((b))

    Velocity remains constant in one direction but varies in others

  3. ((c))

    The flow is governed by one fundamental conservation equation only

  4. ((d))

    There is only one possible flow regime (either laminar or turbulent)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flow properties change only along a single spatial coordinate.

66

According to the momentum principle, the impact force of a jet is independent of the:

  1. ((a))

    velocity of the jet

  2. ((b))

    density of the fluid

  3. ((c))

    cross-sectional area of the jet

  4. ((d))

    atmospheric pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

velocity of the jet

67

Why is the velocity distribution coefficient important in open channel hydraulics?

  1. ((a))

    It helps in accurately computing energy and momentum fluxes.

  2. ((b))

    It determines the slope of the channel bed.

  3. ((c))

    It defines the maximum velocity in the channel.

  4. ((d))

    It is used only for laminar flow calculations. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It helps in accurately computing energy and momentum fluxes.

68

The discharge equation for a broad-crested weir is derived using:

  1. ((a))

    the energy equation and critical flow conditions

  2. ((b))

    the momentum equation alone

  3. ((c))

    the Darcy-Weisbach equation

  4. ((d))

    the continuity equation only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the energy equation and critical flow conditions

69

Which type of Rotodynamic pump uses both axial and radial flow?

  1. ((a))

    Mixed-flow pump

  2. ((b))

    Centrifugal pump

  3. ((c))

    Reciprocating pump

  4. ((d))

    Vane pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mixed-flow pump

70

Which of the following best describes the behaviour of moderate viscosity fluids in pipelines?

  1. ((a))

    High energy losses due to turbulence

  2. ((b))

    No viscosity effects on flow

  3. ((c))

    Combination of laminar and turbulent characteristics

  4. ((d))

    Flow remains completely uniform throughout.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High energy losses due to turbulence

71

Which type of precipitation occurs when raindrops freeze before reaching the ground?

  1. ((a))

    Snow

  2. ((b))

    Sleet 

  3. ((c))

    Hail

  4. ((d))

    Drizzle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Snow

72

In which of the following cases is flood duration likely to be the longest?

  1. ((a))

    Heavy rain over a mountainous area with steep slope

  2. ((b))

    Rainfall over a flat area with poor drainage

  3. ((c))

    A flash flood caused by sudden cloudburst

  4. ((d))

    A flood due to dam failure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heavy rain over a mountainous area with steep slope

73

In a confined aquifer, how does compressibility affect groundwater storage?

  1. ((a))

    Water is released only due to gravity drainage

  2. ((b))

    Water is released due to expansion of water and compression of the aquifer.

  3. ((c))

    Water movement is independent of compressibility.

  4. ((d))

    Compressibility does not affect confined aquifers.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water is released only due to gravity drainage

74

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of irrigation?

  1. ((a))

    Salinisation of soil

  2. ((b))

    Increased agricultural productivity

  3. ((c))

    Waterlogging of fields

  4. ((d))

    Groundwater depletion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Salinisation of soil

75

If the base period (B) increases and Delta (Δ) remains constant, what happens to Duty (D)?

  1. ((a))

    Increases

  2. ((b))

    Decreases 

  3. ((c))

    Remains the same

  4. ((d))

    Becomes zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases

76

Which of the following options is correct with respect to the statements regarding Kennedy’s and Lacey’s theories?

Statement 1: Kennedy’s theory is based on the concept of critical velocity.

Statement 2: Lacey’s theory assumes that a stable channel is formed naturally by the flow

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both statements are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are true.

77

What is the primary purpose of camber in roads?

  1. ((a))

    To provide structural support

  2. ((b))

    To enhance aesthetics

  3. ((c))

    To drain off surface water

  4. ((d))

    To reduce noise levels

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To provide structural support

78

Which of the following combinations correctly lists the four basic requirements of a highway alignment?

  1. ((a))

    Long, Difficult, Unsafe, Costly

  2. ((b))

    Short, Easy, Safe, Economical

  3. ((c))

    Short, Curvy, Steep, Expensive

  4. ((d))

    Strategic, Difficult, Unsafe, Economical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Long, Difficult, Unsafe, Costly

79

What is the primary reason for conducting reconnaissance in a new highway project?

  1. ((a))

    To finalise pavement design

  2. ((b))

    To prepare land acquisition plans

  3. ((c))

    To inspect the topography and identify construction materials

  4. ((d))

    To mark the alignment on the ground

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To finalise pavement design

80

What is the minimum sight distance required on a highway, also known as the non-passing sight distance?

  1. ((a))

    Intermediate sight distance

  2. ((b))

    Headlight sight distance

  3. ((c))

    Overtaking sight distance

  4. ((d))

    Stopping sight distance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Intermediate sight distance

81

Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) was formed in 1934.

Reason (R): It was recommended by the Jayakar Committee to form a semi-official technical body to advise on road development.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

82

Which of the following is generally preferred for embankment construction?

  1. ((a))

    Organic soil

  2. ((b))

    Peat

  3. ((c))

    Granular soil

  4. ((d))

    Black cotton soil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Organic soil

83

Why are inferior materials acceptable in the lower layers of flexible pavements?

  1. ((a))

    Because they are protected from environmental exposure

  2. ((b))

    Because they are not in contact with traffic and bear lower stresses

  3. ((c))

    Because they provide better drainage

  4. ((d))

    Because they increase the strength of the upper layers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Because they are protected from environmental exposure

84

During the monsoons, potholes in bituminous pavements are best repaired using which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Hot mix bitumen

  2. ((b))

    Cutback bitumen or bituminous emulsion

  3. ((c))

    Dry aggregate and binder mix

  4. ((d))

    Cement concrete patch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hot mix bitumen

85

Select the option with the correct pair(s) from the following pairs.

A. Taxiway width – Depends on aircraft wingspan

B. Taxiway slope – Ignored in flat regions

C. Shoulder width – Optional for all airports

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Both A and C

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

86

Loading aprons are designed to:

  1. ((a))

    support air traffic control

  2. ((b))

    accommodate parked aircraft for boarding

  3. ((c))

    store fire extinguishers

  4. ((d))

    maintain ground support vehicles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

support air traffic control

87

Which of the following is NOT a type of railway sleeper?

  1. ((a))

    Wooden sleeper

  2. ((b))

    Steel sleeper

  3. ((c))

    Concrete sleeper

  4. ((d))

    Plastic sleeper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wooden sleeper

88

Match the requirements of ballast with their corresponding functions/effects in railway track maintenance.

Requirement of BallastFunction/Effect
A.Drainage capability1.Prevents track settlement
B.Resistance to wear2.Allows water to flow freely
C.Stability3.Helps resist external loads
  1. ((a))

    A-2, B-3, C-1 

  2. ((b))

    A-1, B-2, C-3

  3. ((c))

    A-3, B-1, C-2

  4. ((d))

    A-1, B-3, C-2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-2, B-3, C-1 

89

Iron and manganese in water cause which of the following issues?

  1. ((a))

    Hardness and foaming

  2. ((b))

    Incrustation and taste issues

  3. ((c))

    Fluorosis

  4. ((d))

    Algae growth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hardness and foaming

90

Which of the following organisms is used as an indicator of fecal contamination in drinking water?

  1. ((a))

    E. coli

  2. ((b))

    Streptococcus

  3. ((c))

    Salmonella

  4. ((d))

    Giardia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E. coli

91

Which device measures velocity head in open channels or pressurised pipelines?

  1. ((a))

    Pitot tube

  2. ((b))

    Orifice meter

  3. ((c))

    Venturimeter

  4. ((d))

    Ultrasonic flowmeter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pitot tube

92

Which of the following is NOT a part of domestic water demand?

  1. ((a))

    Bathing

  2. ((b))

    Road washing

  3. ((c))

    Gardening

  4. ((d))

    Washing clothes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bathing

93

The material commonly used for pressurised sewer pipes is:

  1. ((a))

    clay

  2. ((b))

    RCC

  3. ((c))

    stoneware

  4. ((d))

    PVC or ductile iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

clay

94

Which of the following materials is the most suitable for large diameter sewer mains?

  1. ((a))

    Cast iron

  2. ((b))

    Stoneware

  3. ((c))

    RCC

  4. ((d))

    HDPE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cast iron

95

The main purpose of providing a minimum gradient in sewer lines is to:

  1. ((a))

    ensure self-cleansing velocity

  2. ((b))

    reduce pipe cost

  3. ((c))

    avoid backflow

  4. ((d))

    increase manhole count

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ensure self-cleansing velocity

96

Sludge drying beds are the most effective in:

  1. ((a))

    dry and hot climates

  2. ((b))

    high rainfall areas 

  3. ((c))

    cold and humid places

  4. ((d))

    coastal regions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

dry and hot climates

97

Lack of ventilation in buildings may lead to the accumulation of:

  1. ((a))

    harmful indoor pollutants

  2. ((b))

    oxygen

  3. ((c))

    water vapour

  4. ((d))

    air pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

harmful indoor pollutants

98

Which of the following natural processes is responsible for dilution and removal of air pollutants?

  1. ((a))

    Photochemical smog formation

  2. ((b))

    Chemical precipitation

  3. ((c))

    Thermal stratification

  4. ((d))

    Wind dispersion and rain washing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Photochemical smog formation

99

Which of the following is a step in the recycling process of e-waste?

  1. ((a))

    Dismantling devices manually to recover valuable materials

  2. ((b))

    Storing e-waste in landfills for long periods

  3. ((c))

    Incinerating all e-waste

  4. ((d))

    Ignoring hazardous substances during recycling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dismantling devices manually to recover valuable materials

100

The primary source of municipal solid waste is:

  1. ((a))

    household waste

  2. ((b))

    industrial waste

  3. ((c))

    agricultural waste

  4. ((d))

    hazardous waste

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

household waste

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