MP Police Constable : (11 Nov 2025, Shift 1) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Male and Female.

Key Points

• The Walar dance of Rajasthan is a beautiful and enthusiastic tribal dance performed particularly by Male and females.
• The 'Walar' danced by women is without instruments.
• Whereas in 'Walar' performed in duet form of men and women, drums are played.
• Walar is an important dance of a Rajasthani tribe- Garasia
• Known to be a prototype of the famous Ghoomar dance of Rajasthan, it also involves simple circular movements of dancers on beats.
• It is believed that its sophisticated version was performed in royal places of Rajasthan
• Gangaur and Teej festivals are the best occasions to watch Valar dance.

The correct answer is Article 176.

Key Points

• Article 176 defines a Special address by the Governor.
• At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year, the Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses assembled and inform the Legislature of the causes of its summons.
• Provision shall be made by the rules regulating the procedure of the House or either House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in such address.​

Additional Information

| Article 169 |

• Article 169- States about the Abolition of certain legislative councils in states. | | --- | --- | | Article 176 |
• Article 176- States about the Special address by the governor. | | Article 177 |
• Article 177- States about the Rights of minister and advocate general as respects of the houses. | | Article 178 |
• Article 178- States about The Speaker and deputy speaker of the state legislative assembly. | | Article 182 |
• Article 182- States about The chairman and deputy chairman of a state legislate council. | | Article 183 |
• Article 183- States about the Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the office of chairman and deputy chairman in the state legislature. | | Article 180 |
• Article 180- States the Power of the deputy speaker or another person to perform the duties of the office of, or to act as a speaker in the state legislature. | | Article 179 |
• Article 179- States about the Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the office of speaker and deputy speaker in the state legislature. | | Article 181 |
• Article 181- States about The Speaker or the deputy speaker no to preside while a resolution for his removal from the office is under consideration in the state legislature | | Article 175 |
• Article 175- States the Right of the governor to address and send messages to the houses of the house. | | Article 174 |
• Article 174- States about the Sessions of the state legislature, propagation and dissolution. | | Article 173 |
• Article 173- States about the Qualification for membership of the state legislature. | | Article 172 |
• Article 172- States about the Duration of the state legislature. | | Article 171 |
• Article 171- States about the Composition of the legislative council. | | Article 170 |
• Article 170- States about the Composition of the legislative assembly.
  |

The correct answer is Coal and iron.

Key Points

• Among the options, coal and iron are the most important minerals in Madhya Pradesh.
• The State of Madhya Pradesh is rich in terms of mineral wealth.
• Madhya Pradesh is blessed with favourable geological and geotectonic features.
• Madhya Pradesh ranks third next only to Jharkhand and Chhatisgarh In terms of mineral production in India.
• India's largest Open Cast Copper mine is located at Malajkhand in Madhya Pradesh.
• Madhya Pradesh contains 7.71% of the total coal reserve of the country.
• The main minerals occurring in Madhya Pradesh are:
• Coal.
• Manganese ore.
• Fire clay.
• Iron.
• Limestone.
• Bauxite.
• Copper ore.
• Dolomite.
• Madhya Pradesh is the sole producer of diamonds in India.
• The only working mines of diamond in India are in Panna, Madhya Pradesh.
• Madhya Pradesh is the highest cement producing state in India.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• The Indian Grey Wolf (Canis lupus pallipes) is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which provides it the highest level of protection against poaching and hunting.
• Schedule I species are considered critically endangered or highly threatened, and harming them is a punishable offense under Indian law.
• The inclusion under Schedule I aims to conserve the dwindling population of the Indian Grey Wolf, which faces threats like habitat destruction and human-wildlife conflict.
• India's Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, is a comprehensive legislation aimed at the conservation of wildlife and biodiversity through the categorization of species across six schedules.
• Illegal killing or capturing of a Schedule I species, including the Indian Grey Wolf, can result in imprisonment of up to seven years and a fine.

Additional Information

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:
• This act was enacted to safeguard wildlife and their habitats, and it provides a legal framework for the establishment of protected areas like national parks and sanctuaries.
• The act categorizes animals into Schedules I-VI, with Schedule I providing the highest protection and Schedule VI focusing on plant conservation.
• Threats to the Indian Grey Wolf:
• Major threats include habitat fragmentation, retaliatory killings by farmers due to livestock predation, and competition with feral dogs for resources.
• Its population is declining in many regions of India, necessitating strict conservation measures.
• Conservation Efforts in India:
• India has several conservation programs and policies in place, including Project Tiger and Project Elephant, with similar initiatives being encouraged for other endangered species like the Indian Grey Wolf.
• Protected areas such as national parks and wildlife sanctuaries play a crucial role in preserving wolf habitats.
• Role of Schedules in Wildlife Protection:
• Schedules in the Wildlife Protection Act categorize species based on their conservation status and the level of protection required.
• Species listed in Schedule I and II are provided the highest legal protection, while those in lower schedules like V may be considered less endangered or even vermin in certain contexts.

The correct answer is Badminton.

Key Points

• Aditya Joshi is an Indian badminton player from Madhya Pradesh known for his exceptional skills in the sport.
• He became the first Indian male shuttler to be ranked World No. 1 in the junior category by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) in January 2014.
• Aditya Joshi has represented India in numerous national and international badminton tournaments.
• He is a recipient of the Eklavya Award, a prestigious sports honor given by the government of Madhya Pradesh.
• Aditya started training in badminton at a young age and was trained under the guidance of top coaches, which contributed to his rise in the sport.

Additional Information

• Badminton World Federation (BWF):
• BWF is the international governing body for the sport of badminton.
• It was established in 1934 and is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
• BWF organizes major tournaments such as the All England Open, Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, and World Championships.
• Junior Badminton Rankings:
• The BWF maintains a ranking system for junior players based on their performance in tournaments.
• A high ranking in the junior category is often a stepping stone to a successful professional career in badminton.
• Badminton in India:
• Badminton is one of the most popular sports in India, governed by the Badminton Association of India (BAI).
• Indian players like Saina Nehwal, PV Sindhu, and Kidambi Srikanth have brought international recognition to Indian badminton.
• Training and Development:
• Young players like Aditya Joshi often train at top sports academies such as the Prakash Padukone Badminton Academy and Pullela Gopichand Academy.
• Such academies focus on technical skills, fitness, and mental conditioning to develop world-class players.

The correct answer is Anniversary of the first time that Hindi was spoken in the United Nations General.

Key Points

• World Hindi Day:
• World Hindi Day is celebrated every year on January 10.
• World Hindi Day commemorates the anniversary of the first time that Hindi was spoken in the United Nations General.
• World Hindi Day was first celebrated in 2006 by former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

Additional Information

• India became a member of the 'Commonwealth of Nations' on 17 May, 1945.
• Hindi became the official language of the Union of India in 1950.

The correct answer is Ladakh.

In News

• Ladakh topped the medal tally in the Khelo India Winter Games 2025 with seven medals, including four golds.

Key Points

• Ladakh hosted the first phase of the KIWG 2025, with the final phase scheduled in Gulmarg, Jammu & Kashmir, from February 22-25, 2025.
• Ladakh secured two gold medals in ice hockey and mixed relay, among other events.
• Tamil Nadu finished second with five medals, including three golds, followed by Maharashtra, which secured 10 medals but only two golds.
• Ladakh’s women’s ice hockey team defeated ITBP 4-0 to claim the title in their category.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG): A flagship event aimed at promoting winter sports in India, organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Ladakh’s Performance: The Union Territory demonstrated strong performances in events such as ice hockey and mixed relay, contributing to their top position.
• Tamil Nadu’s Rise: Tamil Nadu emerged as a new hub for skating, securing three golds in long-track skating events.
• Ice Hockey Final: The Indian Army retained their crown by defeating ITBP 2-1 in a closely contested men’s final.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Banaphari dialect is spoken in the western Baghelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh, which includes parts of districts like Rewa, Satna, and adjoining areas. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Linguistic Affiliation: It is a subdialect of Bagheli, which belongs to the Indo-Aryan language family.
• Cultural Context: Banaphari reflects the linguistic diversity of Baghelkhand, showcasing subtle variations within the Bagheli-speaking population of western Baghelkhand.

The Correct Answer is Option 2 i.e The Life Divine.

The correct answer is Unhala.

• The summer season called in Madhya Pradesh is called 'Unhala.'
• It starts around February and ends in July.
• In Rajasthan, the farmers call January rain Mavath.
• Chaumasa means the four months of rainfall or the traditional songs sung in the rainy season.

Key Points

• Summers can reach a temperature of around 45^oC.
• In Morena, Gwalior, and Datia districts it is around 42^oC.
• In some parts, it reaches around 49^oC.

The correct answer is Chambal. 

Key Points

• The river flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, running for a time through Rajasthan
• It then formed the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh state.
• The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River in Central and Northern India, and thus forms part of the greater Gangetic drainage system.

Additional Information

• The Ghaggar-Hakra River is an intermittent river in India and Pakistan that flows only during the monsoon season. The river is known as Ghaggar in India, before the Ottu barrage, and as the Hakra in Pakistan, downstream of the barrage, ending in the Thar Desert
• The Kothari River rises from the Aravalli hills near Devgarh in the Rajsamand district. It flows through the tehsils of Raipur, Mandal, Bhilwara, and Kotri and ultimately joins the river Banas at Nandrai in Kotri tehsil. The Meja dam on the Kothari river provides drinking water to the Bhilwara district
• The Banas is a river that lies entirely within the state of Rajasthan in western India. It is a tributary of the Chambal River, itself a tributary of the Yamuna, which in turn merges into the Ganga. The Banas is approximately 512 kilometers in length

Thus, Chambal forms the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

The Correct Answer is Additional Chief Conservator of Forest.

Key PointsAdditional Chief conservator of forest is responsible for-

(J) Nature preservation and protection ofwild life in the State.

{2) Enforcement of the provisions oft he wild Lite (Protection) Act,]972, in the State

(3) Creation, supervision and management of National parks and Sanctuaries in the State.

( 4) Functioning as Administration/supervision of Zoo ..

(5) Breeding of endangered and threatened species of wild life at breeding Centres .

(6) Census of  important wild life species.

The correct answer is Vidisha.

• Vidisha:

• It is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India, associated with King Ashoka of ancient History.

• Its name is mentioned in the Puranas.

• The caves of Udayagiri are rock-cut caves near Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh present since 5^th century CE. 

• The caves have the oldest surviving Hindu temples and iconography in India.

• This place is also associated with a Gupta period monarch from its inscriptions.

• Raisen:

• This district is located in Madhya Pradesh.

• Its name is associated with the massive fort at the top of a hill.

• Raisen district is located at the foot.

• Ujjain:

• It is an ancient city beside the Kshipra River in the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.

• It is a famous religious pilgrimage centre with the Kumbh Mela held here every 12 years.

• The famous temple of Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga is also located in this city.

• Bhopal:

• It is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh.

• Famous as the City of Lakes with the various natural and artificial lakes.

• Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh it is the 16^th largest city in India.

• The Bharat Bhawan is located in this capital city.

The correct answer is Incredible India.

Key Points

• Incredible India is the name of an international tourism campaign by the Government of India since 2002, to promote tourism in India.
• "Incredible India" title was officially branded and promoted since 2002 to an audience of global appeal.
• The first marketing initiative of its kind, Incredible India was conceptualized in 2002 by V Sunil (while he was Creative Director, O&M Delhi), and Amitabh Kant, Joint Secretary, Ministry of Tourism.

Additional Information

• In 2017, Actor Amitabh Bachchan and Priyanka Chopra are chosen as the brand ambassador of the Incredible India campaign.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• First Forest Protection Policy:
• Implemented in 1952 to strengthen and develop forests in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Amended and re-implemented as the new forest policy on April 4, 2005.
• Historical Milestones:
• Madhya Pradesh was the first state in India to establish a Forest Department in 1860.
• The British Forest Policy was introduced in the state in 1894.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e Fiji

Suva is the capital city of Fiji.

The correct answer is Violin.

Key Points

• The Mysore Brothers, Dr. Mysore Manjunath and Dr. Mysore Nagaraj, are renowned for their exceptional artistry on the violin.
• They are globally acclaimed musicians in the field of Carnatic classical music, a prominent form of South Indian classical music.
• The brothers have performed in prestigious venues worldwide, including the Royal Albert Hall in London and the Sydney Opera House.
• They are known for their unique blend of technical brilliance, emotive expressions, and improvisational skills in their violin performances.
• Dr. Mysore Manjunath and Dr. Mysore Nagaraj have received numerous accolades, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and the Karnataka Rajyotsava Award, for their contributions to music.

Additional Information

• Violin in Carnatic Music
• The violin was introduced into Carnatic music in the 18^th century by Baluswami Dikshitar, who adapted it to suit Indian classical music styles.
• In Carnatic music, the violin is often used as an accompaniment instrument to vocalists and also as a solo instrument.
• Unlike in Western classical music, the violin in Carnatic music is played while sitting cross-legged, with the instrument resting on the player’s shoulder and ankle.
• Carnatic Music
• Carnatic music is one of the two main traditions of Indian classical music, the other being Hindustani music.
• It primarily focuses on kriti compositions, which are devotional songs composed by revered saints like Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Syama Sastri.
• Raga (melodic framework) and Tala (rhythmic cycles) form the backbone of Carnatic music.
• Violin Techniques in Carnatic Music
• Carnatic violinists use intricate bowing techniques and microtonal variations (gamakas) to match the expressive requirements of the raga.
• The techniques emphasize smooth transitions between notes, creating a continuous and melodic flow.
• Recognition of Mysore Brothers
• The Mysore Brothers have contributed significantly to spreading Indian classical music on global platforms.
• Their collaborations with Western classical, jazz, and world music artists have added a unique dimension to their art.

The correct answer is Khajuraho (Chhatarpur).

Key Points

• The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple is located in Khajuraho, in the Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is one of the largest and most ornate temples in the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, which are UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and was constructed during the reign of the Chandela dynasty in the 11^th century CE.
• Its architecture is a prime example of the Nagara style of temple building, characterized by intricate carvings and towering spires.
• The temple features over 800 sculptures, showcasing themes such as mythology, spirituality, and human emotions.

Additional Information

• Khajuraho Group of Monuments
• A collection of Hindu and Jain temples built between the 10^th and 12^th centuries by the Chandela rulers.
• The monuments are renowned for their erotic sculptures alongside depictions of daily life, spirituality, and divine figures.
• UNESCO designated the site as a World Heritage Site in 1986.
• Nagara Style of Architecture
• One of the three main styles of temple architecture in India, prominent in northern India.
• Characterized by shikaras (spire-like structures) and intricate carvings.
• Temples under this style often feature a garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) where the deity resides.
• Chandela Dynasty
• A medieval Indian dynasty that ruled central India, particularly the Bundelkhand region.
• Known for their patronage of art and architecture, especially the construction of the Khajuraho temples.
• They practiced a blend of Shaivism, Vaishnavism, and Jainism.
• UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India
• India has 40 UNESCO World Heritage Sites, including cultural, natural, and mixed categories.
• Examples include the Taj Mahal, Ajanta Caves, and Kaziranga National Park.
• These sites are recognized for their outstanding cultural or natural significance.

The correct answer is The Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Commerce and Industry brings out the Wholesale Price (WPI) data in India.
• The Wholesale Price Index measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
• It is published by the Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce & Industry).
• The base year for WPI is 2011-12.
• It is effective from April 2017.
• It is unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which tracks the prices of goods and services purchased by consumers.
• It captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator.
• WPI(2011-12) reckons only basic prices and does not include taxes, rebate/trade discounts, transport and other charges.

The correct answer is 150^th.

In News

• The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will celebrate its 150^th anniversary on January 15, 2025.
• The event will culminate with Prime Minister Narendra Modi as the chief guest.

Key Points

• Dr. Jitendra Singh announced the establishment of a Regional Meteorological Centre in Jammu.
• MoUs with institutions like Jammu University and SKUAST aim to foster research in meteorological sciences.
• Jammu and Kashmir now have double the Automated Weather Stations (AWS) to enhance weather services.

Additional Information

• About IMD:
• Founded in 1875, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) provides critical weather forecasts and warnings.
• Significance of the Regional Meteorological Centre:
• Enhances real-time weather monitoring and forecasting services in the Jammu and Kashmir region.

The correct answer is 1953.

Key Points

• Backward Classes Commission: The first Backward Classes Commission in India was established in 1953.
• Kaka Kalelkar: The commission was chaired by Kaka Kalelkar.
• Objective: The main objective of the commission was to identify the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.
• Report Submission: The commission submitted its report in 1955, recommending measures for the upliftment of backward classes.
• Impact: The findings of the commission laid the foundation for future policies and reservations for backward classes in India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Potassium.

Key Points

• Metals react violently with cold water
• Metals at the top of the reactivity series such as potassium and sodium react violently with cold water. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The reaction is so violent and exothermic that the evolved hydrogen immediately catches fire.
• Metals reacting with water, produce metal oxide and hydrogen gas.
• Metal oxides that are soluble in water dissolve in them and form metal hydroxide.
• But all metals do not react with water.
• The reaction of calcium with water is less violent.
• Magnesium does not react with cold water.
• It reacts with hot water and forms magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen. Metals like aluminium, iron, and zinc do not react either with cold or hot water.
• But on reacting with steam they form a metal oxide and hydrogen.

Important Points

• Sodium
• When sodium is added to water, it melts to form a ball that moves around on the surface. It fizzes rapidly, and the hydrogen produced may burn with an orange flame before the sodium disappears.
• Sodium + water → sodium hydroxide + hydrogen
• 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
• Potassium
• When potassium is added to water, it melts and floats.
• It moves around very quickly on the surface of the water.
• The hydrogen ignites instantly.
• The metal is also set on fire, with sparks and a lilac flame.
• There is sometimes a small explosion at the end of the reaction.
• Calcium
• Calcium is a mineral that is necessary for life.
• In addition to building bones and keeping them healthy, calcium enables our blood to clot, our muscles to contract, and our heart to beat.
• About 99% of the calcium in our bodies is in our bones and teeth.
• Mercury
• It is a chemical element with the symbol Hg and atomic number 80.
• It is commonly known as quicksilver and was formerly named hydrargyrum.

Explanation:

• Metal salts commonly used in firework displays include calcium chloride, sodium nitrate, barium chloride, copper chloride, etc.
• The green flame produced in fireworks is due to the presence of Barium.
• The blue flame is due to the presence of Copper.
• The orange flame is due to the presence of Calcium.
• A yellow flame is due to the presence of Sodium.
• Lithium /Strontium are used to impart a red colour to fireworks.

So,  Sodium metal is used for yellow colour In fireworks.

The correct answer is Lead.

Key Points

• Metallic minerals, as the name suggests, are minerals containing one or more metals.
• These usually occur as mineral deposits and are great heat and electricity conductors, such as iron, copper, silver, bauxite, Lead, manganese, etc
• Lead is a chemical element with the symbol Pb.
• It is a heavy metal.
• Lead is soft and malleable, and also has a relatively low melting point.
• Lead is a solid at room temperature.
• Lead was one of the earliest metals discovered by the human race and was in use by 3000 B.C.
• Lead is **highly toxic.**​

​

Additional Information

• Non-metallic mineral reserves consist of quarries of stone and clay and sand pits; mineral deposits with chemical and fertilizer; salt deposits; quartz deposits, gypsum, Lime stone, Mica, natural gemstones, asphalt and bitumen, peat, and other non-metallic minerals other than coal and oil

The correct answer is ​Cl2.

Key Points

• Chloropicrin is one type of Tear gas agent.
• It stimulates the nerves which supply the tear gland of our eye and increases the secretion of the tear.
• It is widely used in riot control nowadays.
• The chemical name of chloropicrin is Trichloronitromethane.
• The chemical formula is CCl₃NO₂.
• Thus Chlorine gas is used in tear gas.

The correct answer is Acidic - alkaline.

Key Points

• The Ph of mouth is 6.2 to 7.6 with 6.7 pHs being the average.
• In the oral activity, the Ph is maintained near neutrality by saliva. The saliva contributes to the maintenance of the Ph by two mechanisms.
• The normal volume of the stomach fluid is 20 to 100 mL and the pH is acidic (1.5 to 3.5).
• Gastric acid or Gastric juice is a digestive fluid formed within the stomach lining.
• A typical adult human stomach will secrete about 1.5 liters of gastric acid daily.

Additional Information

• Different levels of Ph in different organs is as follows-

Concept:

• Joints are points of contact between bones, or between bones and cartilages.
• Joints have been classified into three major structural forms,
• Fibrous: They do not allow any movement. This type of joint is shown by the flat skull bones.
• Cartilaginous: The bones involved are joined together with the help of cartilages. The joint between the adjacent vertebrae is an example.
• Synovial: these are characterized by the presence of a fluid-filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces of the two bones. Such an arrangement

allows considerable movement.

Explanation:

Ball and Socket joint:

• It is present between the humerus and pectoral girdle.
• The rounded end of one bone fits into the cavity (hollow space) of the other bone
• Such a joint allows movements in all directions i.e 360⁰ movements.

​Thus, the ball and socket joint allows 360⁰ movements.

Additional Information

Hinge Joint:

• It allows only a back and forth movement.
• Example of such joints is the elbow and knee.

Pivot joint:

• The joint where our neck joins the head is a pivotal joint.
• It allows us to bend our heads forward and backward

and turn the head to our right or left.

Saddle joints:

• Saddle joints are types of synovial joints.

The correct answer is Blood Pressure.

Key Points

• A Sphygmomanometer is a device used to measure Blood Pressure.
• It consists of an inflatable cuff, a measuring unit, the mercury manometer, and a mechanism for inflation which may be manually operated bulb and valve or a pump electrically operated.
• It was invented in 1881 by Samuel Siegfried Karl Ritter Von Basch.

Additional Information

• Electric Current is measured by Ammeter.
• Wind speed is measured by Anemometer.
• Humidity is measured by Hygrometers.

The correct answer is the Product of their masses.

• According to Newton’s law, the gravitational force between two objects is directly proportional to the product of their masses.

Key Points

• Newton's law of universal gravitation states that any two bodies in the universe attract each other with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• Universal Gravitational Constant (G): 
• ​The universal constant relating force to mass and distance in Newton's law of gravitation (G), constant of gravitation, gravitational constant type of constant, a number representing a quantity assumed to have a fixed value in a specified mathematical context.
• Value of G = 6.67 × 10-11  c.g.s. Unit.
• Mathematical form: 
• F = Gravitational Force.
• M1 & M2 = Mass of 2 different objects which attract each other.
• G = Universal gravitational constant.

\(F = G\frac{{{M_1}\;{M_2}}}{{{R^2}}}\)

• From this above equation, we can say that the gravitational force is directly proportionate with the mass of two significant objects but inverse proportional with the square of the distance(R) between those two objects.

The correct answer is Axe.

Key Points

• Anvil: The Anvil, or Incus, is one of the three small bones in the middle ear known as the ossicles. This bone helps transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.
• The Anvil is a critical component in the process of hearing, acting as a bridge between the Malleus (Hammer) and Stapes (Stirrup).

Hence, Anvil is an actual bone in the human body.

• Hammer: The Hammer, or Malleus, is another bone in the middle ear. It is attached to the eardrum and conveys sound vibrations to the Incus.
• The Malleus works in conjunction with the other ossicles to amplify and transfer sound waves from the outer ear to the inner ear.

Hence, a Hammer is an actual bone in the human body.

• Stirrup: The Stirrup, or Stapes, is the smallest bone in the human body and part of the ossicles in the middle ear. It transmits sound vibrations from the Incus to the oval window of the cochlea.
• The Stapes plays a crucial role in hearing by enhancing sound vibrations and ensuring they are efficiently transferred to the inner ear.

Hence, Stirrup is an actual bone in the human body.

• Axe: The Axe is not a bone in the human body. It is a tool used for chopping wood, and its naming often creates confusion due to its phonetic similarity with bones like Anvil, Hammer, and Stirrup.
• The term "Axe" is unrelated to human anatomy and is instead connected to tools and instruments used in various manual tasks.

Hence, Axe is NOT a bone in the human body.

Additional Information

• Ossicles of the Middle Ear:
• The ossicles consist of three tiny bones: Malleus (Hammer), Incus (Anvil), and Stapes (Stirrup).
• These bones are essential for hearing as they amplify and convey sound from the outer ear to the inner ear.
• They are located in the tympanic cavity and are the smallest bones in the human body.
• Hearing Mechanism:
• The Malleus is connected to the eardrum and vibrates in response to sound waves.
• These vibrations are passed to the Incus, which then moves the Stapes.
• The Stapes transmits the vibrations to the fluid-filled cochlea in the inner ear, where the sound waves are converted into nerve signals for the brain to interpret.

Concept:

• Temperature: It is the measure of the degree of hotness and coldness of a body.
• The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin (K).

Fahrenheit and Celsius are measurements of temperature and are related to each other as follows:

C = (F - 32) × \(\frac{5}{9}\)

Where C is the temperature in Celsius and F is the temperature in Fahrenheit.

EXPLANATION:

Since we need temperature in fahrenheit and celsius to be equal:

Now, let C = F = x

So,

x = (x - 32) × \(\frac{5}{9}\)

or, 9x = 5x – 160

or, 4x = -160

or, x = -40

Therefore, -40°C = -40°F

• Monera are single-celled organisms with no true nuclear membrane.
• It is a kingdom that contained unicellular organisms with a prokaryotic cell organization having no nuclear membrane and vacuoles but having a rigid cell wall, reproducing through binary fission. Example: bacteria.
• R.H. Whittaker was the first to propose the five-kingdom classification of the world's flora and fauna into the Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista, and Monera in 1969.

The correct answer is Polarity cannot be changed.

Key Points

• Electromagnets:
• The electromagnet is a device consisting of a core of magnetic material surrounded by a coil.
• An electric current is passed through this coil to magnetize the core.
• This is made out of a coil of wire.
• This coiled wire technique is more effective in producing a magnetic field than just a wire running straight.
• This effect can be strengthened by winding a wire tightly around a powerful core, made of magnetic material.
• It is a temporary type of magnet.
• Ferromagnetic materials are attracted by magnets.
• Like poles repel each other while unlike poles attract each other.
• Its strength can be changed.
• Its strength varies with the air gap between its poles.

The correct answer is Bakelite.

• Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic.

Key Points

• Thermosetting plastics:
• These are the polymers which when condensed have a permanent change on heating.
• On heating they undergo extensive cross-linking in molds and become hard and infusible; therefore, they cannot be reused.
• Its examples are Bakelite, glyptal.
• Bakelite (Phenol-formaldehyde resin):
• It is a condensation polymer.
• It is obtained from phenol and formaldehyde in presence of either an acid or a base catalyst.
• It is used in making combs, fountain pens, photographs, records, electrical goods, etc.​
• It was invented by Leo H Baekeland.

Additional Information

• Poly Vinyl Chloride(PVC) is a synthetic plastic polymer.
• Polyester is a polymer of the ester functional group.
• There are two kinds of polyesters that each lead to thermoplastic or thermosetting products. The difference between the two kinds of polyester is their chemical structures.

The correct answer is be of spherical shape.

CONCEPT:

EXPLANATION:

• When a water drop falls on the surface of the oil, two forces come into play i.e., the cohesion forces within the water molecules and the other is adhesion forces between oil and water.
• As we know that oil is hydrophobic in nature, therefore, the adhesive forces between oil and water are much weaker compared to the cohesive forces between water and water.
• Therefore, the water drop on the surface of oil has a tendency to maintain its spherical shape in order to minimize the surface energy.

The correct answer is Christiaan Huygens.

Key Points

• Wave Theory of Light
• In the late 17^th century, scientists were embroiled in a debate about the fundamental nature of light – whether it was a wave or a particle.
• Sir Isaac Newton was a strong advocate of the particle nature of light.
• But, the Dutch physicist, Christiaan Huygens believed that light was made up of waves
• These waves vibrate up and down perpendicular to the direction of the wave propagation and therefore formulated a way of visualizing wave propagation.
• This became known as ‘Huygens’ Principle‘
• This theory was proposed by Huygens in 1678.
• Huygens suggested that each point on the source of light acts as a centre of disturbance from which the waves spread out in all directions,
• The locus of all the particles in a medium vibrating in the same phase is called the wavefront.
• The wavefront due to a point source is spherical and due to a line source is cylindrical. The wavefront corresponding to a parallel beam of light rays is the plane.
• The direction of propagation of the light (ray of light) is perpendicular to the wavefront.
• Each point on a wavefront acts as a source of a new disturbance called secondary wavelets.
• Secondary wavelets spread out as spherical secondary wavefronts with the speed of light.
• The wave theory explains the laws of reflection, refraction, rectilinear propagation, interference, diffraction, as well as dispersion of light.
• The wave theory fails to explain the photoelectric effect of light.

The correct answer is Joule.

Key Points

• Heat
• It is a form of energy that flows from one body to another due to the difference in temperature between the bodies.
• It is simply the potential energy stored in the bonds that hold particles within the object together.
• Heat or thermal energy is the form this energy possesses when it is transferred between systems and surroundings.
• SI unit of energy is Joule (J) and from above it is clear that heat is a form of energy.
• Therefore the SI unit of heat energy is Joule (J).

Additional Information

• SI unit of other quantities is as shown below

1. J, K L, M, N and are six teachers.
2. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order.
3. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday not necessarily in the same order.
4. J teaches Science on Wednesday.
5. O teaches Math second after J.
6. K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English.
7. M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J.

Hindi can be placed only in N’s row, so N teaches Hindi on Saturday.

Only Social Science is left, which will be placed in the only vacant position, i.e, in the row of K.

The final arrangement is:

So, ‘Hindi’ is taught on Saturday.

Hence, ‘Hindi’ is the correct answer.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. T is third to the left of U.
2. Only Q is between S and T.

 Case -I

 Case -II

3. P is fourth to the left of S.

Case -I

Case -II

4. V is second to the right of R.

The above condition cannot be satisfied in Case II, so it is eliminated.

Case -I

As W is the only person left, it will occupy the vacant position.

Case -I

Clearly, V is is sitting between P and T.

Hence, 'V' is the correct answer.

Conclusions:

I. Some vitamins are plants → true (as per the diagram, some vitamins are plants, hence, it is true)

II. Some vitamins are vegetables → true (as all vegetables are vitamins, some vitamins will definitely be the vegetables).

III. No vitamin is plant → False (It is not possible).

Hence, only conclusions I and II follow.

As per the given information:

1) Seven people Tanu, Rano, Beena, Shirin, Kanak, Aditya and Anshul are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

2)  Only two people sit to the left of Tanu.

3) Only three people sit between Tanu and Rano.

5) Beena is an immediate neighbour of Rano.

4)  Beena sits second to the right of Shirin.

6) Kanak sits to the immediate right of Aditya. So, Anshul is sitting between Shirin and Beena.

Here, "Anshul" sits second to the left of Rano as per the sitting arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Anshul".

Statements:

A < = B < C > = D; C < = E < = F

Conclusion:

(I) F > = D → True (D < = C < = E < = F; F > = D)

(II) A > E → False (A < = B < C < = E; A < E)

Hence, only conclusion I follows.

The diagrammatic representation of the given data is as follows:

• The distance between the starting point and her final position is: 1km - 450 m = 1000 m - 450 m = 550 m.

Hence, '550 m is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows,

Conclusion I: Some cells are chargers → Follows (In the above diagram shows there is a relation between cells and charges.)

Conclusion II: All chargers are cells → Not follows (It is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows ".

The logic is:

 → The circle and quadrilateral in Image 1 swapped their position in Image 2.

Similarly,

 → The outer images in Image 3 will swap their position in Image 4.

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (The sum of the digits of the first number) × 4 = second number.

Now,

For, 113 : 20

Sum of the digits of 113 = 1 + 1 + 3 = 5

⇒ 5 × 4 = 20.

For, 393 : ??

Sum of the digits of 393 = 3 + 9 + 3 = 15

⇒ 15 × 4 = 60.

Hence, the correct answer is "60".

The logic followed is:

Here is can be clearly seen because of the action in 1^st statement the effect in the 2^nd statement has taken place.

So, statement A is the cause, and statement B is its effect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information 

What are Causes?

Causes are the conditions under which an event occurs.

For example, can you guess the causes for the following? 

The police increasing security around the President's house.

Lots of people buying a particularly expensive brand of washing machines around Diwali. Easily, we can guess the causes for the above events. 

There were reports of threats against the President. 

There was a high discount or sale for that brand during Diwali.

Sufficient & Necessary Conditions:

In a cause and effect question, the cause is the sufficient condition. It is assumed that the sufficient condition of the occurrence of the events must include the different necessary conditions as well. 

A necessary condition is one that must be satisfied for the occurrence of an event. 

E.g. You must adhere to the deadline to get your work appraised. 

This means if you get your work appraised, you have to adhere to the deadline. Or; if you do not adhere to the deadline, you do not get your work appraised. 

A condition is called a sufficient condition if in a certain event, you are satisfied with the results.

E.g. Being human is a sufficient condition for being a mammal. The act of being a human is not possible unless one is also a mammal. But it is not necessary that being human is a necessary condition for being a mammal.

Given

Statements:

I. The prime minister will address the people at 10 a.m.

II. You are requested to take your seats before 10 a.m.

Assumptions:

I. Statement I implies that there is some significance to being seated before 10 a.m. While this may hint at the timing of the function's start, it doesn't definitively state that the function will not start if people are not seated. So, the assumption I does not necessarily follow from the given statements.

II. Statement II specifies a specific time the prime minister will address the people, implying a scheduled start. Therefore, assumption II logically follows from the given statements.

So, Only assumption II logically follows from the given statements.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed here is:​

IJLO is related to GHJM

​ 

​And,

HIKN is related to FGIL

​ 

​Similarly,

EFHK is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

1. DCE → D - 1 = C; C + 2 = E

2. YXZ → Y - 1 = X; X + 2 = Z

3. RPQ → R - 2 = P; P + 1 = Q

4. KJL → K - 1 = J; J + 2 = L

Hence, ‘RPQ’ is the odd one out.

Given:-

Position of Mohini from the left end → 23^rd

Position of Mohini from the right end → 37^th

Total number of person in the row → (Position of a person from the left end + position of a person from the right end) - 1

Total number of girls in the row → (23 + 37) - 1

Total number of girls in the row → 60 - 1 = 59

Hence, the correct answer is "59".

Let us discuss the inferences:

1. The school can remain closed for other reasons as well. So it would be erroneous to conclude that it is a rainy day.
2. The probability of rain does not affect the school remaining open. The school is closed when it rains and not when it is about to rain.
3. This can be inferred because there must be a reason behind the school remaining closed.
4. Information is not adequate to infer whether there are any other holidays.

Therefore, only option 3 can be inferred from at least one of the two given sentences.

Thus, option 3 is the logical inference.

The code for each word is shown below:

Case-(I)

Hence, the correct answer is "pa".

The logic followed here is:

Break the series in 5 letters consist of 1 code, now notice the pattern that last 4 letters are same in every code, and the first letter get changed by the very next of it in the English alphabets.  Like S is changed by T, T is changed by U and  U is changed by V.

So the series is as follows,

Given: S _ O Z Q T L O _ Q U _ O _ Q V L O Z _

1) L Z L Z Q → S L O Z Q - T L O Z Q - U L O Z Q - V L O Z Q

2) Z L Z Q L → S Z O Z Q - T L O L Q - U Z O Q Q - V L O Z L

3) Z L Q L Z → S Z O Z Q - T L O L Q - U Q O L Q - V L O Z Z

4) L Z Q Z L → S L O Z Q - T L O Z Q - U Q O Z Q - V L O Z L

Correct sequence of given series is:  S L O Z Q, T L O Z Q, U L O Z Q, V L O Z Q

Therefore,  the correct answer is "L Z L Z Q".

Hence, the correct option is option(1).

Option 1 is correct as it is mentioned that it is true 'even if the children are separated from their parents at birth'. It means that there is a connection on some level, between drug addiction and genetics. Option 2 is an assumption that cannot be concluded from the paragraph given. Option 3 is also an invalid conclusion, as nowhere in the paragraph is anything about the treatment of the disease, mentioned.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

Today, it is Thursday. We have to find the day after 91 days.

First we will find number of odd days in these 91 days.

91 ÷ 7 = 0 (Remainder)

This means 91 days is exactly 13 full weeks, with no extra days remaining.

Thus, the day after 91 days will be: Thursday + 0 = Thursday.

Today (23/02/2012) is Thursday, so after 91 days, it will also be Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Thursday".

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘BONE' is written as 'F15R5’,

Similarly, for 'NOSE'

So, 'NOSE' will be written as 'R15W5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand when the clock shows 2:20 can be calculated using the following formula :

Angle = |11/2M - 30H|

Where M = minutes and H = hours

Here, M = 20 and H = 2

Therefore, angle = 11/2 × 20 - 30 × 2 = 110 - 60 = 50

Hence, 50° is the correct answer.

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Option(1) is correct.

Option1: form a committee to look into the complaint and if true will take necessary action: Yes, we need to investigate before taking action and when it comes true then we need to take necessary actions so that no such activities are going to happen in the future.

Option2: send a letter to the person against whom the complaint has been made, to stop stealing: No, without investigating we never go to the conclusion/action, we need to confirm first.

Option3: tell the complainant not to bother about such small issues: No, stealing anything whether it's big or small is a crime. we need to sort this situation.

Option4: call an office meeting and without naming the person, give general advice not to steal office property: No, we need to take investigate the complaint and if it comes true then we need to take necessary action.

Hence, the correct answer is an option(1) i.e., form a committee to look into the complaint and if true will take necessary action.

Given:

14 March 2007 = Wednesday

17 June 2013 = ?

As we know odd days in a normal year and a leap year are '1' and '2'.

Odd days up to 17 June 2013 = (2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 17 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 103

Odd days up to 17 June 2013 = (103 ÷ 7) = 5 (Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday and Monday)

17 June 2013 = Monday

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

​When folded paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows:

Hence, correct answer is in option 2.

Seven floor: P, Q, R, S, W, U and V.

1) S lives on the 2^nd floor.

2) There are four floor between P and W.

3) W does not live immediately above or below S.

4. Two person live between P and R.

5) V lives on the top most floor.

5. R is live between Q and U.

Clearly, 3 Person live between W and S.

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

Venn diagram according to the given information is:

Quadrilateral, Rectangle, and Square.

From the Venn diagram.

All the rectangle are quadrilateral.

All the squares are rectangles.

This is because A rectangle is a quadrilateral with four right angles and A square is a special type of rectangle because it possesses all the properties of a rectangle.

Here (c) represents Square, (b) represents Rectangle, and (a) represents Quadrilateral.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• A rectangle is a quadrilateral with four right angles. Thus, all the angles in a rectangle are equal (360°/ 4 = 90°). Moreover, the opposite sides of a rectangle are parallel and equal, and diagonals bisect each other.
• A square is a special type of rectangle because it possesses all the properties of a rectangle. Similar to a rectangle, a square has: interior angles which measure 90∘ each. opposite sides that are parallel and equal.

As I know swimming, So I will dive immediately into the water to save the body.

Hence, the correct answer is "Dive immediately into the water to save the boy."

The pattern followed here is:

Step 1 - Addition of the place value of the alphabet.

Step 2 - Interchange the digit we get after addition.

'FORM' is coded as 25

⇒F(6) + O(15) + R(18) + M(13) = 52

⇒52 After interchange the digit = 25 

and,

'SUIT' is coded as 96

⇒S(19) + U(21) + I(9) + T(20) = 69 

⇒69 After interchange the digit = 96

Similarly, 

'RING' is coded as '?'

⇒R(18) + I(9) + N(14) + G(7) = 48

⇒48 After interchange the digit = 84

Hence the correct answer is "84".

1. E is older than C.

E > C

2. D is older than C but younger than E.

E > D > C

3. A is younger than B and C.

B > A and C > A

4. C is older than B.

C > B

Combining all the statements together, we get:

E > D > C > B > A

Clearly, A is the youngest.

Hence, ‘A’ is the correct answer.

The years which are multiple of 400 have 0 odd days.

So, No. of odd days in 2000 = 0

No. of odd days in 2001 = 1 (Non leap year)

No. of odd days in 2002 = 1 (Non leap year)

No. of odd days in 2003 = 1 (Non leap year)

No. of odd days in 2004 = 2 (Leap year)

Total no. of days in from 1^st January 2005 to 15^th September 2005 = (31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 15) = 258 = 36 weeks and 6 odd days

Total no. of odd days = 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 6 = 11 = 1 week and 4 odd days

Therefore, No. of odd days = 4 which is the code for Thursday.

So, 15^th September 2005 was Thursday.

Hence, Thursday is the correct answer.

Logic : Each number is multiplied by whole number series along with the addition of consecutive multiples of (2).

Hence, "306" is the correct answer.

Five friends: A, B, C, D, and E

1. E is sitting to the immediate left of B.

2. D is to the immediate right of B.

(These three case are possible)

3. B is third to the left of A.

(Case-3 & Case-2 are eliminated because, B is third left from A and Only Case-1 is possible)

4. A is sitting to the immediate right of C.

(Only one place are left for A)

So, "C" is sitting at the third place to the right of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

The logic followed here is:

• The difference between the difference of numbers is increasing by +2.

​Hence, the correct answer is "104".

According to the question:

Thus, the code for 23549 is NPTSL.

Option(4) is correct.

Option 1: Order a platoon of policemen to demolish the temple at night: No, It will create the riots 

Option 2: Do nothing for fear of offending the local religious leaders: No, It will be incorrect.

Option 3: Try to get a transfer to another police station: No, it will ethically and morally incorrect.

Option 4: Convince the local religious leaders of the importance of the highway and with their help relocate the temple: Yes, it will sort the things and maintain the Law and Order.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Given → C and D start cycling from their fitness club

The route taken by C is shown in definite lines and route taken by D is shown in dashed lines.

Hence, the correct answer is "6 km East ".