MP Police Constable : (10 Nov 2025, Shift 2) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Sir John Child was the English Governor in India who was expelled by Aurangzeb.

Key Points

• Sir John Child, Baronet, was the first person to be placed in control of all the British East India Company’s trading establishments in India.
• He served there as deputy governor of Bombay (1679–81) and president of Surat (1682–90).
• He was made a baronet in 1684.
• Following orders from London, Child became involved in a war with the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb.
• Aurangzeb's army captured Surat and forced Child to make peace.
• One of the peace terms required Child to leave India, but he died while the matter was still pending.

​Thus, Sir John Child was the English Governor in India who was expelled by Aurangzeb.

The correct answer is Bali Yatra.

Key Points

• The Government of India has recognized the Bali Yatra festival of Cuttack as a 'national fair.'
• This recognition follows growing demands and highlights the historical and cultural significance of the festival, which commemorates the maritime trade and cultural exchange between Odisha and Southeast Asian countries, particularly Bali.

The correct answer is Chess

Key Points

• Deep Sengupta
• Date of Birth: June 30, 1988
• Place of Birth: Chakradharpur, Jharkhand, India
• Sport: Chess
• Notable Achievements:
• He became India's 22^nd Grandmaster awarded by FIDE in 2010.
• He participated in the FIDE World Cup in 2015.
• Clinched the World Under-12 title in Spain in 2000.
• Secured numerous national titles across different age categories, including Under-12, Under-14, and Under-16.
• Achieved the status of Commonwealth Champion.
• Emerged as the World Champion in the Chess Under-19 category.
• Career Highlights:
• Earned his first Grandmaster norm in the World Junior Chess Championship in Kochi, India, in 2004.
• Secured his second Grandmaster norm by winning the Doeberl Cup in April 2009.
• Completed the requirements for the Grandmaster title by tying for the top position in the 24^th Open "Pierre and Vacances" in Cannes in 2010.
• He won the 2014 Commonwealth Chess Championship in Glasgow.
• He was Victorious in the 2016/2017 Hastings tournament.
• He works at Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).

The correct answer is the South-Eastern Part.

Key Points

• Rainfall season in Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh receives rainfall from June to September.
• The rain in Madhya Pradesh occurs from both the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
• The state receives 100-120 cm of rainfall from the southwest monsoon.
• The actual rainfall in 2018 was recorded at 82.5 cm in the state.
• The rainy season in the state is known as 'Chaumasa'.
• Classification of Rainfall in the state
• Excess rainfall
• Heavy rainfall that is more than 150 cm occurs in the south-eastern area of the state.
• The reason behind heavy rainfall is the southwest monsoon originating from the Arabian Sea.
• Places: Sidhi, Pachmarhi, Balaghat, Mahadeo hills, and Mandla.
• Pachmarhi receives the highest rainfall (215 cm).
• More than Average Rainfall
• The Eastern part receives more than average rainfall that is between 125-150 cm.
• Place: Betul, Chhindwara, Seoni, and Narsinghpur.
• Average Rainfall
• The north-eastern part of the state receives average rainfall.
• The rainfall here ranges between 75-100 cm.
• Minimum Rainfall
• The western part of the state receives less rainfall.
• The reason behind less rainfall is the absence of humidity.
• The rainfall here ranges between 50-75 cm.
• Bhind receives less rainfall (55 cm) in the state.

The correct answer is Alpine Forest.

Key Points

• Silver fir:
• In Alpine Forest, Silver fir is found and rainfall here is less than 100cm. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• These grasslands start at an elevation of above 3000 m and grow up in the region just below the snowline.
• They are common in both the main Himalayan regions as well as the barren cold deserts of the Tran Himalaya.
• Low alpine grasslands are common with the vegetation not growing higher than 1.5m.
• Climatic conditions vary from the sub-arctic to the arctic, with snow covering the ground for over 5 months a year.
• The growing season for the plants is thus stunted.
• Pastures are grazed by migratory cattle in summer.
• The vegetation consists mainly of the black juniper, the drooping juniper; honeysuckle and willow are the common trees.

Additional Information

• Mangrove forest
• Mangroves are trees that live along tropical coastlines, rooted in salty sediments, often underwater.
• Like seagrasses, mangroves are flowering plants, but unlike seagrasses, most of the plant lives above water.
• The upper trunk and all of the branches and leaves of a mangrove tree live completely above the waterline, while the lower trunk and the very large system of aboveground roots (called prop roots) are often covered by seawater.
• Monsoon forest
• It is also called dry forest or tropical deciduous forest, open woodland in tropical areas that have a long dry season followed by a season of heavy rainfall.
• The trees in a monsoon forest usually shed their leaves during the dry season and come into leaf at the start of the rainy season.

The correct answer is Ahsanabad.

Key Points

• Ahsanabad(also known as Gulbarga) became the capital of the Bahamani sultanate immediately after its foundation.
• The Bahmani Sultanate was a Muslim state of the Deccan Plateau in southern India between 1347 and 1527.
• This kingdom occupied the Northern area Deccan region to the river Krishna.
• The Bahmani capital was Ahsanabad (Gulbarga) between 1347 and 1425 later on it became Muhammadabad (Bidar).
• The sultanate reached the zenith of its power during the reign of Mahmud Gawan.

The correct answer is Chambal.

Key Points

• Jawahar Sagar Dam is constructed over the Chambal River near Kota district and the completion of the dame was done of 1972.
• At the time of construction of this dam, various dams were built of the River Chambal of different places of Rajasthan.
• Chambal Valley Project (CVP) has undertaken the construction responsibility of dams of the CV region. This dam was not built with the purpose of irrigation facility only.

Some other major tasks were also related with the construction of this dam.

• The natural water flow of River Chambal was found ideal and it was decided to produce hydro electricity from this dam. 
• A plant to generate electricity was established on the left side of the dam.
• To provide irrigation facilities to the surrounding areas, to produce hydro electricity, to regulate the water discharge after using the same for power generation through Kota Barrage, this dam was constructed of 1972.

The correct answer is 18.

Key Points

• The 12^th schedule came under the 74^th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution.
• It is consist of 18 functions, which are related to the power, authority, and responsibilities of the municipalities all over the country.

Additional Information

• The 74^th  Amendment Act came in December 1992.
• Under this, a new Part IXA ( from Article 243-P to 243-ZG) was added, which is entitled "THE MUNICIPALITIES".
• A constitution of three types of Municipalities was set up; **Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, and Municipal Corporation. **​

**​

CONCLUSION:

** There are 18 items under the 12^th schedule of the constitution of India.​​

The correct answer is Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Key Points

• In Western India, Dadra and Nagar Haveli is a union territory.
• According to the 2011 census, it is the union territory with the lowest literacy rates ever recorded.
• The overall literacy rate in Dadra and Nager Haveli is 77.24 percent.
• The literacy rate for men is higher than for women.
• The literacy rate for men is 85.17%, while the rate for women is 64.32%.

Important Points

• A individual who is seven years of age or older and is able to read and write in any language comprehension is considered literate for the purposes of the 2011 Census.
• A person is not literate if they are limited to reading and not writing. Children under five years old have to be considered as illiterates in censuses taken before 1991.
• The nation's literacy rate has increased, according to the 2011 census findings.
• The nation's literacy rate is 74.04%, with 82.14 percent of men and 65.46 percent of women literate.
• Kerala continued to lead with a literacy rate of 93.91 percent, closely followed by Mizoram (91.58 percent) and Lakshadweep (92.28 percent).

The correct answer is Yuvraj Singh.

Key Points

• The Test of My Life is an autobiography of Yuvraj Singh.
• In his debut book 'The Test of My Life', he reveals how, plagued with insomnia, coughing fits that left him vomiting blood, and an inability to eat, he made a deal with God.
• Yuvraj Singh is a former Indian cricketer and a cancer survivor.
• In 2011, he emerged as the player of the tournament in the ICC World Cup.
• 'Playing It My Way' is the autobiography of former Indian cricketer Sachin Tendulkar.

The correct answer is Silver and Gold.

Key Points

• The metal does not give H2 on treatment with dilute HCL is Silver and Gold.
• Metals below hydrogen (copper, silver, gold and platinum), will not react with dilute acid.
• They cannot displace hydrogen from the non-metal anion.
• When a metal reacts with dilute acid, salts are formed.
• During this reaction, hydrogen gas is evolved.
• In other words, when a metal is added to dilute acids, salt and hydrogen gas are formed.
• Sulfate salts and chloride salts are formed when metals react with dilute sulfuric acid and hydrochloric acid.

Additional Information

• HCl is also known as non-oxidizing HCl.
• When concentrated sulphuric acid is poured onto a copper plate, effervescence is observed.
• The copper metal dissolves in hot concentrated sulphuric acid to form solutions containing the aquated Cu(II) ion together with hydrogen gas, H2.

The correct answer is 1927.

Key Points

• Mohamed Barakatullah Bhopali is also known as Maulana Barkatullah.
• He was an Indian revolutionary from Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, and served as the Prime Minister of the Provisional Government of India.
• He carried out his revolutionary activities from abroad with fiery speeches.
• He came in contact with Raja Mahendra Pratap and Lala Hardayal while he was in England.
• He along with others founded the Ghadar Party in San Francisco in 1913.
• He died in San Francisco in 1927.
• He went to several countries to seek support for the freedom of India from famous leaders like Kaiser Wilhelm II, Amir Habibullah Khan, Ghazi Pasha, Lenin, and Hitler.

The correct answer is Gains 3% or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is higher.

Key Points

• At present (2019), a party is recognized as a state party in a state if any of the following conditions are fulfilled:

1. If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 2 seats in the assembly of the state concerned; or (Hence, option 2 is not correct)
2. If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or (Hence, option 24 not correct)
3. If it wins three percent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is more; or (Hence, option 1 is correct)
4. If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to

the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or
5. If it secures eight percent of the total valid votes polled in the state at a General Election to the Lok Sabha from the state or to the legislative assembly of the state. This condition was added in 2011.

• A party is given the status of a National-level political party when it fulfills one of the following conditions:

1. Gains at least 4 Lok Sabha seats in 4 or more states; or
2. Gains at least 2% in the Lok Sabha, i.e. 11 seats, and together these seats have come from three different states; or
3. Recognized as a state-level party in at least **four states. (**Hence, option 3 is not correct)

Additional Information

As per an article in Times of India, published on 11^th April 2023, the Election Commission withdrew the National party status of Trinamool Congress, Nationalist Congress Party, Communist Party, and the Communist Party of India and recognized Arvind Kejriwal's Aam Aadmi Party as a National Party.

India has now 6 National Parties, which are:

1. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
2. Indian National Congress (INC)
3. Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
4. Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M)
5. Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
6. National People's Party (NPP)

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/movement-against-corruption-will-continue-sachin-pilot-after-ending-fast/articleshow/99407652.cms?from=mdr

The correct answer is Central Pollution Control Board.

• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (Mo.E.F.C.C.).
• It was established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• The CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• The board has approximately 500 full-time employees.
• It Coordinates the activities of the State Pollution Control Boards by providing technical assistance and guidance and also resolves disputes among them.
• It is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control, as a technical wing of MoEFCC.

Additional Information

• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was formed on 22 September 1974.
• The chairperson of CPCB is Sh. Vir Vikram Yadav.
• Environmental Pollution Control Authority is a pollution controlling agency only for the National Capital Region (NCR).

The correct answer is Pench National Park.

Key Points

Pench National Park

• It is also known as Mogliland. Hence option 2 is correct.
• ​It is located in the districts of Seoni and Chhindwara, Madhya Pradesh.
• It was started in 1965 as a Wildlife Sanctuary.
• It got recognition as a National Park in 1975.
• It got the recognition of Tiger Reserve in1992.
• The animals generally found here are Royal Bengal Tiger, jackal, peafowl, wild dog, wild bear, sloth bear, Indian leopard, fox, striped hyena, monkey, gaur, barking deer, four-horned antelope, Indian wolf.

The correct answer is Tawa.

Key Points:

• Following the completion of the Tawa Dam in 1978, the entire town relocated outside the park in order to take advantage of various local government initiatives.
• On the other side of the river Denwa, the village was divided, and the families moved into various pockets of the micro village settlements.
• The entire area is now referred to as Madhai.
• A lifeline for the locals and the surrounding ecosystem, the Denwa river (later known as the Tawa reservoir) flows ahead to join the Tawa river.

Additional Information:

• On the Tawa River in central India, there is a reservoir called Tawa Reservoir.
• It is situated above Betul district in Itarsi of the Narmadapuram District of the State of Madhya Pradesh.
• The reservoir was created as a result of the Tawa Dam's construction, which started in 1958 and ended in 1978.
• The Satpura Tiger Reserve (STR), also known as Satpura National Park, is situated in India's Madhya Pradesh state's Narmadapuram district.
• The Satpura range inspired the name of the region.

The correct answer is Kshipra River.

Key Points

Additional Information

Major rivers and cities on their bank:-

The correct answer is ​Devi Ahilyabai Holkar.

Key Points

• Devi Ahilyabai Holkar Airport is the busiest airport in Madhya Pradesh.
• The airport is located in Indore.
• The airport was the brainchild of the Holkar State Administration.
• The land was selected in 1935 after consulting  Nevill Vintcent of Messrs Tata and Sons (Aviation Department).
• The airport is named after Maharani Ahilya Bai Holkar of Holkar dynasty of the Maratha Empire.
• In July 1948 air services from Indore to Gwalior, Delhi and Mumbai began.
• The Indian government took control over the operations in 1950.
• It is the first airport in Madhya Pradesh to get approval from the Aviation Ministry to operate international flights.
• It was adjudged as the best airport in the under 2 million annual passenger footfall category in the Asia Pacific region in the Airports Council International (ACI)'s airport service quality (ASQ) rankings for the year 2017.
• In 2018, the World Book of Records, UK bestowed Worlds Standardization Certification to Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport, Indore for the achievement of ACI Award 2017.

The correct answer is Pectin.

Key Points

• Pectin is a polysaccharide starch found in the cell wall of fruits and vegetables.
• In the context of food composition, pectin is a gelling agent.
• It partially mimics the effects of gelatin, but unlike gelatin—which is derived from animals—pectin comes entirely from plants.
• Both liquid pectin and dry pectin are found in a wide variety of foods, from homemade freezer jams to mass-produced gummy candies.

Additional Information

• Lignin is an important organic polymer that is abundant in the cell wall of certain cells.
• It has many biological functions such as water transport, mechanical support and resistance to various stresses.
• ​Lecithin is a mixture of fats that are essential for cells in the human body.
• It can be found in many foods, including soybeans and egg yolks.
• Oleic acid is a fatty acid that occurs naturally in various animal and vegetable fats and oils.
• It is an odorless, colorless oil, although commercial samples may be yellowish.

The correct answer is Rocks.

Key Points:

• The challenging process of lithification converts loose silt grains that have recently been deposited into rock.
• After a silt is deposited, lithification may occur immediately or later.
• Cementation is one of the crucial processes, particularly for sandstones and conglomerates.
• Additionally, interactions between various minerals and between minerals and the fluids contained in the pores of a sediment take place.
• These processes, collectively known as authigenesis, may produce new minerals or contribute to those already present in the sediment.
• It is possible for minerals in solution that enter the sediment from another area to be deposited or to interact with minerals already present.
• In the form of nodules and other concretions, minerals can also disintegrate and be redistributed.

Additional Information:

• Sand, gravel, bones, and silt are examples of material bits that have been carried by water, ice, or wind and deposited in a specific location.
• Other natural processes, such as erosion, which reduce large boulders to small pieces, may have produced these sediments.
• These minute components are subsequently transformed into rock through lithification.
• It is the last stage in the formation of sedimentary rock.
• Compaction and cementation are typical steps in lithification.

The correct answer is Anuppur.

Key Points

• Doodhdhara and Durgadhara waterfalls are located at Anuppur.
• Anuppur is a town in northeastern Madhya Pradesh state of central India.
• It is the administrative headquarters of the Anuppur Tehsil and Anuppur District. Previously, it was in the Shahdol district.

Additional Information

• Total districts in Madhya Pradesh - 55
• Major crops cultivated in Madhya Pradesh - Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Jowar among Cereals, Gram, Tur, Urad, and Moong among Pulses, while Soybean.

The total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

• In optical fibre glasses of high and lower index are assembled in the precise order.
• The light comes in from one end of fibre and after thousands of successive internal reflections the light reaches the opposite end of the fibre with almost zero loss.

The correct answer is Electromagnetic Induction.

• The modern electrical generator works on the Electromagnetic Induction principle.

Additional Information

• Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction states that whenever a conductor is placed in a varying magnetic field, emf is induced which is called induced emf. If the conductor circuit is closed, the current will also circulate through the circuit and this current is called induced current.
• Faraday's second law of electromagnetic induction states that the magnitude of emf induced in the coil is equal to the rate of change of flux that linkages with the coil. The flux linkage of the coil is the product of a number of turns in the coil and flux associated with the coil.

Important Points

• Electric generator function-
• ​An Electric generator works on the principle of Faraday's law of Electromagnetic Induction.
• An electric generator uses mechanical energy to generate electricity applying Faraday's law of induction.
• It spins a coil at a constant rate in a magnetic field to induce an oscillating emf.
• A conductor coil (a copper coil tightly wound onto a metal core) is rotated rapidly between the poles of a horseshoe-type magnet. The conductor coil along with its core is known as an armature.
• The armature is connected to a shaft of a mechanical energy source such as a motor and rotated.
• The mechanical energy required can be provided by engines operating on fuels such as diesel, petrol, natural gas, etc., or via renewable energy sources.
• When the coil rotates, it cuts the magnetic field which lies between the two poles of the magnet.
• The magnetic field will interfere with the electrons in the conductor to induce a flow of electric current inside it.

Concept:

• In a closed blood circulation system three types of blood vessels are present:
• Arteries: These carry pure oxygenated blood from the heart to different organs of the body.
• Veins: These carry impure deoxygenated blood from body organs to the heart.
• Capillaries: These are present in organs, and these are the vessels through which exchange takes place.

Explanation:

• The liver receives a blood supply from two sources. The first is the hepatic artery which delivers pure oxygenated blood from the general circulation.
• The second is the hepatic portal vein that delivers impure deoxygenated blood from the small intestine containing nutrients.
• This system of dual blood supply is called the Hepatic portal system
• About 75% of the total blood is supplied by the hepatic portal vein while the rest is supplied by the hepatic artery

Additional Information

Pulmonary artery:

• All the arteries carry pure blood except the pulmonary artery which carries impure blood.
• The pulmonary artery takes impure deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle.

Carotid artery:

• It is the main artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the brain, head & neck region of the body. There are two carotid arteries: The right carotid artery & The left carotid artery
• The internal carotid artery: This supplies oxygenated blood to the brain
• The external carotid artery: It delivers oxygenated blood to the neck & face region

Coronary arteries:

• These carry oxygenated blood to the muscles of the heart.
• Any type of hindrance in Coronary arteries causes a heart attack.

The correct answer is Protect the shocks.

Key Points

• Electrical appliances are earthed to protect from an electric shock.
• Due to the break of insulation of the wire, the live wire may come in contact with the body of the appliance and pass the current to the appliance, and on being touched a fatal shock can occur.
• On earth, the appliance will not come in contact with the wire, instead the current will pass through the earth and we remain protected from an electric shock.

Additional Information

• ​MCB
• MCB stands for Miniature Circuit Breaker.
• It automatically switches OFF electrical circuit during any abnormal condition in the electrical network such as overload & short circuit conditions.
• However, the fuse may sense these conditions but it has to be replaced through MCB can be reset.
• The MCB is an electromechanical device that guards the electric wires & electrical load against overcurrent so as to avoid any kind of fire or electrical hazards.
• Electrical Earthing
• The process of transferring the immediate discharge of the electrical energy directly to the earth with the help of the low resistance wire is known as electrical earthing.
• The electrical earthing is done by connecting the non-current carrying part of the equipment or neutral supply system to the ground.
• Importance of Earthing
• The earthing is essential because of the following reasons:
• The earthing protects the personnel from the shortcircuit current.
• The earthing provides the easiest path to the flow of shortcircuit current even after the failure of the insulation.
• The earthing protects the apparatus and personnel from high voltage surges and lightning discharge.​

Concept:

• The scientific name of the coconut tree is Cocos nucifera.
• It is a monocot and is a widely distributed tree in the world.
• The coconut palm belongs to the Family Arecaceae.
• Coconut is the edible fruit of the coconut palm that is rich in fat and can be eaten either fresh or dried.

Explanation:

• Option 1: Pericarp - INCORRECT
• ​The pericarp is the wall of fruit. It is divided into an outer epicarp, a middle mesocarp, and an inner endocarp.
• In coconut fruit, the pericarp is thick and has a stony endocarp hence classified under drupes.
• The epicarp of coconut is smooth (due to the coating of wax) and green in color.
• The mesocarp is fibrous and is used for making things like ropes.
• The endocarp is stony and it protects the edible part of the coconut.
• Option 2: Perisperm - INCORRECT
• ​In some plants like beet and black pepper, the nucellus in the ovule persists as a thin papery layer called perisperm.
• It is a food storing nutritive tissue in such plants.
• However, perisperm is absent in a coconut.
• Option 3: Cotyledon - INCORRECT
• ​Cotyledons are the seed leaf that is present in an embryo.
• They provide nourishment to the developing plant (a seedling).
• There is a single cotyledon in a coconut. It is found near the three germination pores in a mature coconut that is ready to shoot out.
• Option 4: Endosperm - CORRECT
• The endosperm is formed during the double fertilization in angiosperms.
• It is a nutritive tissue that is present inside the seed. It provides nutrients to the developing embryo.
• In a coconut, the edible part of the fruit is the endosperm.
• Coconut has double endosperm. A multicellular outer endosperm which is the white fleshy part of the coconut fruit.
• The inner endosperm is free nuclear and vacuolated. The coconut water is the inner free liquid endosperm present at the center.

So the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is Zinc.

EXPLANATION:

• Galvanization is the process of applying a zinc layer on Iron and Steel to prevent corrosion.
• Galvanization is done by two methods-
• Dipping metal in hot molted Zinc
• By process of Electroplating
• Mechanism-
• The Zinc layer protects the Iron surface from interacting with the atmosphere thus preventing corrosion of the surface.

Important Points

Examples of corrosion are-

• Silver tarnishing/blackening
• Brownish layer on Iron surface
• Green coloured layer on copper or brass surface
• Dull aluminium surface

Additional Information

• Some other methods to prevent corrosion are as below-
• Metal Type
• Protective Coating
• Environmental Measures
• Sacrificial Coatings
• Corrosion Inhibitors
• Design Modification

The correct answer is Momentum.

Key Points

• Momentum is a vector quantity, it has both magnitude and direction. Isaac Newton’s second law of motion states that the  rate of change of momentum is equal to the force acting on the particle.
• In the absence of a net external force acting on a collection of particles, their total momentum never changes, it is the meaning of the law of conservation of momentum.

Important Points

• Angular momentum-
• Angular momentum is a vector quantity, requiring the specification of both a magnitude and a direction for its complete description
• Angular momentum, a property characterizing the rotary inertia of an object or system of objects in motion about an axis that may or may not pass through the object or system.
• The Earth has orbital angular momentum by reason of its annual revolution about the Sun and spins angular momentum because of its daily rotation about its axis.
• Energy- 
• It is the capacity for doing work. It may exist in potential, kinetic, thermal, electrical, chemical, nuclear, or other various forms.
• All forms of energy are associated with motion. For example, any given body has kinetic energy if it is in motion.​

Concept:

Polymers - Polymers are high molecular mass molecules containing a large number of repeating units called 'monomers' are joined by a process 'polymerization'.

• PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) and Polyethene are examples of polymers.

Explanation:

• Thermosetting polymers -
• These polymers are permanently settled and can not be softened or moulded even after heating.
• They can tolerate a high value of temperature.
• These cannot be recycled or reused.
• Example - bakelite and vulcanized rubber.
• Thermoplastic polymers - 
• The polymer that can be softened again and again by means of heating is called thermoplastic polymers.
• They can be moulded into different shapes through heating as they have low melting points.
• They can be recycled or reused a no. of times.
• Example - Natural rubber and nylon.
• Elastomers - 
• They are polymers having weak intermolecular forces.
• They are having good elastic properties.
• They come into their original shape when stretched.
• Example - Natural rubber.
• Fibers - 
• They can be obtained from plants as well as animals.
• They are thin thread-like structures.
• They are having high tensile strength which depends upon the length of their thread.
• Example - Cotton, coconut fibre.

Statement 1 saying "Thermosetting polymers are reusable" is incorrect as "thermosetting polymers can -not be recycled or used even after heating because they can sustain over a high value of temperature and permanently hardened once set to a shape".

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Physical change.

Key Points 

• Dissolving a solid in liquid, such as table salt in water, is a physical change because only the state of the matter has changed.
• Physical changes can often be reversed.
• Allowing the water to evaporate will return the salt to a solid-state.
• It has not combined with the water to cause a chemical reaction.

The correct answer is Supply energy.

• In human systems, vitamins cannot Supply energy.

Key Points

• Vitamins
• It was first invented by FG Hopkins. However, the term vitamin was coined by C Funk.
• They provide no calories, they only regulate chemical reactions occurring in the metabolism of the body.
• They also help in the growth of the body and metabolizing drugs.

Additional Information

• Vitamins that are soluble in water: Vitamin-B and Vitamin-C.
• Vitamins that are soluble in fat: Vitamin-A, Vitamin-D, Vitamin-E and Vitamin-K.
• | Vitamin | Chemical Name | Deficiency Disease | | --- | --- | --- | | Vitamin A | Retinol | Night blindness | | Vitamin B1 | Thiamine | Beriberi | | Vitamin B2 | Riboflavin | Ariboflavinosis, Glossitis | | Vitamin B3 | Niacin, Nicotinamide | Pellagra | | Vitamin B5 | Pantothenic | Paresthesia | | Vitamin B6 | Pyridoxine | Anaemia | | Vitamin B7 | biotin | Dermatitis, enteritis | | Vitamin B9 | Folic acid | Megaloblastic anaemia | | Vitamin B12 | Cyanocobalamin | Pernicious anaemia | | Vitamin C | Ascorbic acid | Scurvy | | Vitamin D | Cholecalciferol | Rickets | | Vitamin K | Phylloquinone | Bleeding diathesis |

The correct answer is 746 watts.

Key Points

• Horsepower: Horsepower is a popular imperial unit of power of an engine. It is defined as the work done by a person or machine per unit amount of time.
• The term Horsepower was invented by James Watt.
• It is a unit of power that compares the power of a machine to the muscle power of the horse.
• In earlier days it was used to measure steam engine power output compared to the power of draft horses. But later on, its usage was expanded to different types of piston engines, electric motors, turbines, and other machinery.
• One mechanical horsepower of 550 foot-pounds per second is equivalent to 745.7 watts.

⇒ 1 Hp = 550 Foot pounds per second

⇒ 1 Pound = 4044822 Newtons

⇒ 1 Foot = 0.3048 meters

⇒ 1 Hp = 550 × 4.44822 × 0.3048 meters

⇒ 1Hp = 745.69 newton meter per second = 746 watt

The Correct Answer is Option (4) i.e. Potassium.

• Potassium belongs to the group of alkali metals and belongs to the group-1 of the periodic table which lies in the s-block of the periodic table.
• The alkali metals consist of the chemical elements lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, cesium, and francium.
• The alkaline earth metals are six chemical elements in group-2 of the periodic table.
• Beryllium, Magnesium, Calcium, Strontium, Barium, and Radium are the six elements of the group of alkaline earth metals.

The correct answer is use of copper T

Key Points

• The use of copper T is a contraceptive technique that increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
• Copper T is an intrauterine device (IUD) that releases copper ions in the uterus, which are toxic to sperms and increase their phagocytosis.
• This method is highly effective and provides long-term contraception.
• Unlike condoms or oral contraceptives, copper T works by creating a local inflammatory reaction that is spermicidal.

Additional Information

• Condoms act as a barrier method and do not affect sperm within the uterus.
• Oral contraceptives work by preventing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus but do not increase phagocytosis of sperms.
• Surgery generally refers to sterilization procedures like vasectomy or tubectomy, which prevent the union of sperm and egg.
• The copper IUD is a preferred choice for women seeking a non-hormonal, long-term contraception method.
• Side effects of copper T may include heavier menstrual periods and cramping, especially in the initial months after insertion.

Key Points

• The normal line divides the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray into two equal angles.
• The angle between the incident ray and the normal is known as the Angle of Incidence.
• The angle of incidence and the angle of reflection is always equal and they are both on the same plane along with the normal.

The correct answer is Calcium sulfate and water.

• The acid-base reaction is a type of chemical reaction that involves the exchange of one or more hydrogen ions.
• When diluting Sulphuric acid is added to Lime water the calcium sulfate (CaSO4) and water are formed.
• During the reaction more heat is released because it is a reaction with strong acid and strong base hence also known as an exothermic reaction.
• The free lime is insoluble in water and lime water is also known as calcium hydroxide.
• The major use of calcium sulfate is to produce Plaster of Paris and gypsum.

The correct answer is option 3.

Concept:

Impulse

• When a large force works on a body for a very small time interval, it is called impulsive force
• SI unit of impulse is Newton-second or kg-m-s-1.

​\(\vec I = \mathop \smallint \nolimits_{{t_1}}^{{t_2}} \overrightarrow {F\;} \cdot dt\)

Where, I = impulse, F = force and dt = very small time interval

Linear momentum (p) of the particle can be defined as the product of mass time its velocity

• And it can be expressed as p = m × v
• Momentum has both direction and magnitude and direction of momentum is the same as that of velocity its v.
• The SI unit of momentum is kg m/s.

Surface Tension (σ) of a liquid: It is defined as the force per unit length in the plane of the liquid surface at right angles to either side of an imaginary lines drawn on that surface.

• Mathematically, σ = (F / L)
• where, σ = surface tension of liquid, F = force , L = lenght.
• The SI unit of surface tension is N/m.

Explanation:

• The SI unit of Surface Tension is Newton per Meter.
• The SI unit of Impulse is Newton-Second.
• The SI unit of Momentum is Kilogram meter per second.
• The SI unit of pressure is Pascal.

Extra points:

Some Popular SI Units are - ​

The correct answer is Liver

Key Points

• The liver is the largest Exocrine gland in the body.
• It weighs about 1.5 kg.
• It is situated on the right side of the body.
• Many toxic waste products, as well as excretory products, are produced in the liver.
• It also produces proteins like Prothrombin and Fibrinogen and Vitamins like A, D, K, and B12.
• Heparin, Urea, and Bile Juice are produced in the liver.
• The liver is only present in Vertebrate animals.
• Iron is stored in the liver in the form of 'Ferritin' while glucose is stored in the form of "Glycogen".
• "Kupffer cells work as a scavenger for micro-organisms in the liver and also help in eliminating toxic substances.
• Waste products such as Urea, Uric Acid, Creatine, and Bilirubin are produced in the liver.
• Many factors such as Bile Juice, fatty acids cholesterol, phospholipids and also 50% of lymph in the body are produced by the Liver only.
• Most of the metabolic processes in the body such as Glycogenesis (conversion of Glucose to Glycogen), Glycogenolysis(conversion of Glycogen to Glucose), Gluconeogenesis(formation of Glucose from noncarbohydrate substance), Deamination(conversion of ammonia to Urea) are carried out in the liver, that's why liver is considered as 'Busy Organ'.
• The liver is supplied by both oxygenated as well as deoxygenated blood.
• The rate of blood supply to the liver is 1500ml/min.(1000ml deoxygenated +500ml oxygenated).
• The artery providing blood supply to the liver is known as the Hepatic artery.
• The major supply of blood to the liver is by 'portal vein'(75%) & the remaining (25%) by the Hepatic artery. That is why the liver is known to have a 'Dual blood supply.
• Maximum blood is stored in 'liver' in human beings while in frogs it is stored maximally in the 'Spleen'.

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, ‘117’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 1. Only argument I is strong. 

The first argument states that if lights are switched off after midnight, then it can result in increased crime and accidents, thus it is a strong argument as it has a direct impact on life of people.

Argument II, in comparison with argument I, is weaker as there are other ways to save electricity, such as switching to more efficient sources, managing the usage of electricity, etc. Switching off streetlights after midnight will increase the risk to human lives which cannot be allowed. Thus, argument II is not strong.

The pattern followed here is,

Second number = (First number) × 2) + 1

Third number = Second number + [(First number) × 2]

Let's check each option as per the pattern,

1. (8, 17, 33) = 8, [(8 × 2) + 1 = 17], [17 + (8 × 2) = 33]

2. (11, 23, 45) = 11, [(11 × 2) + 1 = 23], [23 + (11 × 2) = 45]

3) (13, 27, 51) = 13, [(13 × 2) + 1 = 27], [27 + (13 × 2) = 52 ≠ 51]

4. (17, 35, 69) = 17, [(17 × 2) + 1 = 35], [35 + (17 × 2) = 69]

Here, we can see that Only option 3 doesn't satisfy the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is " (13, 27, 51) ".

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes 'rc' is the code for the word 'hot'.

Hence, the correct answer is "rc".

The sequence is mopn mopn mopn mopn.

Hence, ‘mnpmon’ is the correct set of letters.

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "BKT".

**Given

Statement:

**  X < U = F > R ≥ P < T < W 

According to the given information:

X is less than U, U equal to F, and F is greater than R. And R is greater equal to P, P is less than T and T is less than W.

Conclusions

I:  \(X<T\) → False (X < U = F > R ≥ P < T; A definite relation cannot be established between X and T)

II:​ \(R>W\)  → False(R ≥ P < T < W  ; A definite relation cannot be established between R and W)

Hence the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II is true".

It is possible that despite having jobs they are not happy with the system they are living in. The reason why honest people cannot pay bribes is that they are honest.  However, honesty does not make them poor.

Hence neither conclusion I nor II follows and option 4 is correct.

The logic followed here is:

1^st word is "the item" and 2^nd word is "collection of those items".

According to the given information:

Cup ∶ Crockery → Cup is a type of Crockery.

Similarly

​Sharpener ∶ Stationery → Sharpener is a type of Stationery.

Hence, the correct answer is "​Sharpener ∶ Stationery".

Seven students: R, S, T, U, V, W and X.

1. V scored more than W but less than U. 

U > V > W

2. X scored more than S but less than R.

R > X > S

3. T scored more than U but less than S. 

S > T > U

Combining all the

Statements:

R > X > S > T > U > V > W

 W score the least marks in all the students.

Hence, the correct answer is "W".

The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

Hence, "option 4" is the correct answer.

Conclusions:

I. All irregular students pass in exams. → The conclusion does not follows. (As Some irregular students pass in the examinations)

II. Some irregular students fail in the exam. → The conclusion does follows. (As Some irregular students pass in the examinations → Some irregular students fail in the exam)

Hence, only conclusion (II) follows.

Additional Information

• If there are two or more sentences that are used to frame a statement, then, the sentences must be interrelated, and mutual contradiction should be there.
• Do not look for truthful notions. The information provided in the statement is the only requirement for a student to answer the question.

No assumptions must be made.

• Read the statement carefully and look for keywords that are common between the statement and the conclusions
• If there is more than one conclusion that is applicable to the statement, students must ensure that the conclusions they opt for have some relation with each other.

When '+' and ‘-' are interchanged and also '×' and ‘÷’ are interchanged, the given equation becomes:

120 × 4 ÷ 2 - 8 + 10 = ?

After interchanging symbols: 

120 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 - 10 = ?

Now we solve the equation using the BODMAS rule:

120 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 - 10 = ?

30 × 2 + 8 - 10 = ?

60 + 8 - 10 = ?

68 - 10 = ?

58 = Answer

Hence, the correct answer is 58.

The logic followed here is :-

ORATOR : RQDSRQ

Similarly,

TACKLE : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "WZFJOD".

Conclusions:

1: P has an echo-point.

Conclusion 1 follows.

All hill stations have an echo-point and P is a hill station, which clearly means P has an echo-point as P is a hill station and all hill stations have an echo-point.

2: Places other than hill stations do not have echo-points.

Conclusion 2 does not follows. The statements do no mentions whether places other than hill stations have an echo-point or not.

Hence, only conclusion 1 follows.

Additional Information

• If there are two or more sentences that are used to frame a statement, then, the sentences must be interrelated, and mutual contradiction should be there.
• **Do not look for truthful notions. The information provided in the statement is the only requirement for a student to answer the question.

No assumptions must be made.**

• Read the statement carefully and look for keywords that are common between the statement and the conclusions.
• If there is more than one conclusion that is applicable to the statement, students must ensure that the conclusions they opt for have some relation with each other.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Distance AB = \( √(AC^2 + BC^2)\)

AB = \(​​​​√(15^2 + 20^2)\) = 25 km

Hence, The student is 25 km in North West direction from his starting point.

The logic follows here is :-

Given word is :

A B H I L A S H

If first and eighth letter from left of word, also the second and seventh letters, the third and sixth letters and so on are interchanged the word is as follows :

H S A L I H B A 

Hence, L is fourth from the left in the word after interchanging the letters.

Thus, the correct answer is "L".

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For first box alternate series : 

• Alternately bottom left corner element and center element interchange positions.
• Alternately center left element and bottom center element interchange positions.
• Alternately top center element and center right element interchange positions.

​

2) For second box alternate series :

• Alternately center element is replaced by new element and remains constant i.e 'D' is replaced by 'V' and 'A' is replaced by '6'.
• Alternately all elements except center element shifts in the anti-clockwise direction.

The final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (3)’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

RAM ∶ PBO

Similarly,

SPQ ∶ ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

‘RAJESH’ is written as ‘IUHNFX’

And,

GARIMA’ is written as ‘BOLVFM’

Similarly,

‘RITIKA’ be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "BMLXNX".

The logic followed here is :-

∴ Here, 'with power' is coded as 'fu co'.

Hence, the correct answer is "fu co".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

**Given

Statements:

**

All rivers are lakes.

Some seas are rivers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusion:

I) Some seas are lakes - True (Those parts of seas which is rivers will also lakes)

II) All lakes are rivers - False (It can be possible, but not definite)

Thus, Only Conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

According to the given information,

1. Four persons are sitting between V and G. V sits on the left side of G.

2. G sits third right of A, who sits immediate left of Q.

3. F is not an immediate neighbour of A.

Two persons are sitting between F and Q.

The positional values of English alphabet is as follows: 

The pattern followed here is as follows:

Hence, ZCM is the correct answer.

As, given 21^st August 1998 = Friday

So, 21^st August 1997 = Thursday as the number of. odd day = 1 (Friday - 1 = Thursday).

On 21^st August 1996 = Wednesday as the number of. odd day = 1 

On 21^st August 1995 = Monday as the number of. odd day = 2 (As 1996 is a leap year, there will be 29 days in February 1996)

On 21^st August 1994 = Sunday as the number of. odd day = 1

Then 21^st August to 16^th August = 5 days.

So, Sunday - 5 = Tuesday.

Hence, on 16^th August 1994, it's Tuesday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Tuesday".

Additional Information

Year - One year has 365 days or 366 days on this basis the year is divided into two parts:

• Normal year - It has 365 days.
• Leap year - It has 366 days and completely divisible by 4.

Century leap year - The year which is exactly divisible by 400. Example - 1200, 1600, 2000 etc.

Counting of Odd days

Ordinary Year: 365 days (52 weeks + 1 days)

= 1 Odd days

Leap Year: 366 days (52 weeks + 2 days)

= 2 Odd days

The least possible Venn diagram is given according to the given information.

Conclusions:

I. Some workers are officers → Follow → (As all clerks are worker and some officers are clerks, so some workers are officer is definite true)

Il. No worker is an officer → Does not follow → (As all clerks are worker and some officers are clerks, so no worker is an officer is not definite follow)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

The logic followed here is:

1. The elements shift clockwise diagonally.

2. The center element is replaced by new elements.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

As stated in statement, “time and tide wait for none”, which means that time and tide do not work according to us and we can’t control either one of them.

So, conclusions 1 is correct according to the statement.

There is nothing mentioned about past in the statement so conclusion 2 is not correct according to statement. Hence, conclusion 2 does not follow.

If 4 December 1987 is a Friday. Then, 12 December 1987 is (Friday + 8) = Saturday

Logic: We know a normal year advances the start of the next year by 1 day and a leap year advances the start of the year by 2 days.

Number of odd days between 12 December 1987 and 12 December 2009:

→ (2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 28 = Four weeks

So, 12 December 2009 will be (Saturday + 28) = Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Saturday".

Odd number: Any number that is not divisible by 2. Odd number always end up with the last digit as 1, 3, 5, 7 or 9.

Even number: Any number that can be exactly divided by 2. Even numbers always end up with the last digit as 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8.

6 7 8 8 9 7 4 5 3 8 2 1 3 7 4 7 2 5 4 8 2 4 3 9 1 2 7 2 1 7 3 2

There are 9 such odd numbers that are immediately followed by an even number .

Hence option 2 is the correct answer.

BODMAS RULE

Option 1): 2 and 7

Given equation: 8 × 7 - 42 ÷ 14 × 2 + 21 = 66

By interchanging 2 and 7 in the given equation.

Interchanged equation is: 8 × 2 - 42 ÷ 14 × 7 + 21 = 66

⇒ 8 × 2 - 3 × 7 + 21 = 66

⇒ 16 - 21 + 21 = 66

⇒ 37 - 21

⇒ 16 ≠ 66

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2): 7 and 14

Given equation: 8 × 7 - 42 ÷ 14 × 2 + 21 = 66

By interchanging 7 and 14 in the given equation.

Interchanged equation is: 8 × 14 - 42 ÷ 7 × 2 + 21 = 66

⇒ 8 × 14 - 6 × 2 + 21 = 66

⇒ 112 - 12 + 21 = 66

⇒ 133 - 12

⇒ 121 ≠ 66

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3): 14 and 42 

Given equation: 8 × 7 - 42 ÷ 14 × 2 + 21 = 66

By interchanging 14 and 42 in the given equation.

Interchanged equation is: 8 × 7 - 14 ÷ 42 × 2 + 21 = 66

⇒ 8 × 7 - 0.33 × 2 + 21 = 66

⇒ 56 - 0.66 + 21 = 66

⇒ 77 - 0.66

⇒ 76.34 ≠ 66

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4): 14 and 21

Given equation: 8 × 7 - 42 ÷ 14 × 2 + 21 = 66

By interchanging 14 and 21 in the given equation.

Interchanged equation is: 8 × 7 - 42 ÷ 21 × 2 + 14 = 66

⇒ 8 × 7 - 2 × 2 + 14 = 66

⇒ 56 - 4 + 14 = 66

⇒ 70 - 4

⇒ 66 = 66

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "14 and 21".

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

According to given information,

1. Vaishali is the sister-in-law of Sanjay, who is only brother of Ajay.
2. Ajay is the father of Om.

There are two possibilities-

Case- 1

Case-2

3. Mahi is the granddaughter of Sanjay.
4. Madhuri is niece of Ajay and mother of Mahi.

Case-1

Case - 2

5. There are three male and three female members in the family.

The only possible diagram is given below-

Hence, Om is the uncle of Mahi.

Therefore, Uncle is the correct answer.

Note:

As mentioned “There are three male and three female members in the family” so if we take Vaishali is the sister of Sanjay’s wife then there will be 4 female and this is not possible hence, this could not be considered.

The government servant makes up the excuse of being busy despite sitting idle. Therefore, it is safe to assume that he is expecting a favour from the visitor. This act of the government servant nowhere resembles his intention to help the visitor. Hence only assumption 2 is implicit.

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

Drawing the family tree as per the given information:

1. U is the mother of X who is the father of V.

2. V who is the wife of W is also the mother of Y and  and V has no son then we get the final diagram:

From the family tree, Y is related to X as a granddaughter.

Hence, the correct answer is "Granddaughter".

"Who" is used for the second person in a sentence.

For example,

U is the mother of X who is the father of V → It means U is the mother of X and X is the father of V.