Previous Year Paper

MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 24 Mar, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Test (200 questions)

1

Where is the only Jama Masjid in India without minars found?

  1. ((a))

    Chanderi 

  2. ((b))

    Sagar

  3. ((c))

    Indore 

  4. ((d))

    Burhanpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chanderi 

The correct answer is  Chanderi 

Key Points

  • The Jama Masjid at Chanderi bears three marble domes and does not have miners like all other mosques.
  • The foundations of this Jama Masjid were laid during the reign of Ghyasuddin Balban.
  • The mosque imbibes leaf ornament decorations and floral and geometrical patterns.
  • The mosque has a capacity of 200 people and is one of the oldest mosques in the region.

Additional Information 

  • Some other important archaeological sites of Chanderi are as follows-
  • Ahmednagar Sultan's tomb- situated on Chanderi Mungaoli road, is the tomb of saint Sheikh Raji's wife and was built in Mughal style.
  • Kirti Durg- constructed in the 11th century by Gurjar Pratihar king Kritipal. It provided safe heaven to chanderi kings for centuries.
  • Nizamuddin Family Tombs- these are tombs of followers of the Chisti Nizamia sect. it was constructed in 1425 during the rule of Hoshung Shah Ghori's minister Malik Salar.
  • Battisi Bawdi- is square in shape and its stairs have Arabic and Persian inscriptions. It was constructed during the time of Ghyasuddin Khilji.
  • Maharaja Devi Singh Bundela Chhateri - Built in 1663 and it is a three-story building decorated with a mosque arched.
2

Who among the Pushyabhuti rulers assumed the title of Param Bhattarak Maharajadhiraja?

  1. ((a))

    Harshavardhana

  2. ((b))

    Bhatarka

  3. ((c))

    Shashank

  4. ((d))

    Prabhakar Vardhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Prabhakar Vardhan

The correct answer is Prabhakar Vardhan

Key Points

  • Prabhakar Vardhan assumed the title of Param Bhattaraka Maharajadhiraja.
  • Prabhakarvardhan was the king of Thaneshwer.
  • He was the first notable ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
  • Prabhakarvardhan was the father of King Harsha Vardhan.

Important Points

  • Pushyabhuti Dynasty
  • The book Harshacharita written by Bana mentions the dynasty.
  • The dynasty ruled north and northwestern India.
  • Harsha or Harshavardhana  ruled from 606 to 647 CE.
  • The capital was Sthanvishvara (modern Thanesar, Haryana). Later Harsha shifted it to Kanyakubja (modern Kannauj, Uttar Pradesh).
  • The dynasty ended after the death of Harsha as he had no heirs.
3

What was the staple food of the Vedic Aryans?

  1. ((a))

    Vegetables and fruits

  2. ((b))

    Milk and its products

  3. ((c))

    Barley and rice

  4. ((d))

    Rice and pulses

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Milk and its products

The correct answer is ​Milk and its products

Key Points

  • The Rigvedic Aryans consumed both vegetarian and non-vegetarian food.
  • Curd, ghee, and butter made from milk were used on a large scale.
  • Different types of dishes were made from grains and milk.
  • Barley was very important in food.
  • Roasted grains were grinded and consumed by making sattu.
  • Oatmeal (karambh) was also eaten by the people.
  • Karambh was the favorite food of the Pushan god.
  • Kheer (Sreerpakam odanam) was prepared by cooking grains in milk.
  • These people used fruits and vegetables.
  • Samish food was mainly cooked on the occasion of celebrations or family gatherings.
  • On the arrival of the guest, the meat of a fat calf was cooked, from which the guest was also called Godhan.
4

Who among the following was not involved in the murder of Lieutenant Sanders?

  1. ((a))

    Raj Guru

  2. ((b))

    Ram Prasad Bismil

  3. ((c))

    Sukhdev

  4. ((d))

    Bhagat Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ram Prasad Bismil

The correct answer is ​Ram Prasad Bismil

Key Points

  • Ram Prasad Bismil
  • He Was born on 11th June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district to Murlidhar and Moolmati.
  • He Was among the most noteworthy Indian freedom fighters who resisted British colonial forces till his last breath.
  • Joined the Arya Samaj founded by Dayananda Saraswati in 1875. This had a profound influence on him, he often employed poetry as his weapon of choice in the fight against the imperialist forces.
  • The ideals of a revolution first took root in his mind when he read about the death sentence awarded to Bhai Parmanand, an Indian nationalist and Arya Samaj missionary.
  • He was all of 18 then and vented his anguish through his poem ‘Mera Janm’.
  • Believed that freedom cannot be achieved without violence, bloodshed, which meant his views were in stark contrast to Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals of ‘ahimsa’.
  • Formed organization Matrivedi and got in touch with Genda Lal Dixit, a school teacher.
  • Both shared revolutionary ideas and wanted to organize the youth of the country to fight the British government.
  • Bismil was one of the chief founders of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) along with Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Jadugopal Mukherjee.
  • HRA was founded in 1924 and its constitution was drafted chiefly by Bismil.

Additional Information

  • Major Cases:
  • He Was involved in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918 in which police found a few young people including Bismil selling books that were not prescribed by the government.
  • Published a pamphlet titled ‘Deshwasiyo ke Naam’ and distributed it along with his poem ‘Mainpuri ki Pratigya’.
  • To collect funds for the parties, they looted government coffers.
  • He escaped arrest by jumping into the Yamuna River.
  • In 1925, Bismil and his companions Chandrasekhar Azad and Ashfaqulla Khan decided to loot a train in Kakori near Lucknow.
  • They were successful in their attempt but were arrested alongside a dozen other HRA members within a month of the attack and tried under the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
  • The legal process lasted 18 months. Bismil, Lahiri, Khan, and Thakur Roshan Singh were awarded death sentences.
5

Of all the Khajuraho temples of Madhya Pradesh, which temple has the loftiest basement with numerous elegantly ornamented mouldings?

  1. ((a))

    Parvati Temple

  2. ((b))

    Kandariya Temple

  3. ((c))

    Javari Temple

  4. ((d))

    Adinatha Temple

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kandariya Temple

The Correct Answer is Kandariya Temple

Key Points

  • The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple:
  • The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple "the Great God of the Cave" is the largest and most ornate Hindu temple in the medieval temple group found at Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Kandariya Mahadeo temple at Khajuraho is the epitome of temple architecture in Central India.
  • The Kandariya Mahadeva temple was built during the reign of Vidyadhara (r. c. 1003-1035 CE).
  • Khajuraho’s temples are also known for their extensive erotic sculptures.
  • The Lakshmana temple of Khajuraho, dedicated to Vishnu, was built in 954 by the Chandela king, Dhana.
  • It is a nagara temple placed on a high platform accessed by stairs.

Additional Information

  • Khajuraho’s temples are also known for their extensive erotic sculptures.
  • The Lakshmana temple of Khajuraho, dedicated to Vishnu, was built in 954 by the Chandela king, Dhana.
  • It is a nagara temple placed on a high platform accessed by stairs.
6

Sanjay- Dubri Tiger Reserve is located in the ________ district of Madhya Pradesh.

  1. ((a))

    Morena

  2. ((b))

    Jabalpur

  3. ((c))

    Khargone

  4. ((d))

    Sidhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sidhi

  • The correct answer is Sidhi.

Key Points 

  • The Tiger Reserve comprises Sanjay National Park and the Dubri Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • Both of which cover more than 831 sq.km and are located in Sidhi District.
  • The area with its large size and rich biodiversity, is well-known.
  • It has Sal, Bamboo and mixed forests.
  • The reserve is part of the Bandhavgarh-Sanjay-Guru Ghasidas-Palamau landscape, and has been identified as one of four potential tiger meta-populations landscapes which require conservation inputs.
  • The terrain of Dubri sanctuary is almost plain while that of Sanjay National Park is undulating.

Additional InformationTiger Reserves of Madhya Pradesh:

Kanha Tiger Reserve:

  • The park is located in the Maikal Hills of the Satpuras and is known for its lush green forests, open grasslands, and rocky ravines.
  • Kanha Tiger Reserve was established in 1955 and was declared a tiger reserve in 1973.

Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve:

  • The park is located in the Vindhya Mountains.
  • Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve was established in 1968 and was declared a tiger reserve in 1993.

Pench Tiger Reserve:

  • Pench Tiger Reserve is a national park and tiger reserve located in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • Pench Tiger Reserve was established in 1973 and is a popular tourist destination

Panna Tiger Reserve:

  • Panna Tiger Reserve is a national park located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • It was declared in 1994 as the twenty second Tiger reserve of India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh.

Satpura Tiger Reserve:

  • Satpura Tiger Reserve is a tiger reserve and national park located in the Narmadapuram district of Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • The reserve was established in 1981 and was declared a tiger reserve in 2000.
7

In which year was Madhav Rao Scindia born?

  1. ((a))

    1954 

  2. ((b))

    1948 

  3. ((c))

    1951 

  4. ((d))

    1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1945

The correct answer is 1945

Key Points

  • Madhavrao Jivajirao Scindia (10 March 1945 – 30 September 2001) was an Indian politician and a minister in the Government of India.
  • He was a member of the Indian National Congress party.
  • Scindia was the son of Jiwajirao Scindia, the last ruling Maharaja of the princely state of Gwalior during the British Raj.
  • Upon the death of his father in 1961, and under terms agreed to during the political integration of India, Scindia succeeded to a privy purse, certain privileges, and the use of the title "Maharaja of Gwalior," which lasted until 1971, whereupon all were abolished by the 26th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
  • Madhavrao Scindia died at the age of 56, in a plane crash in Motta village, which is on the outskirts of Mainpuri district of Uttar Pradesh, on 30 September 2001.
8

NASA's InSight Lander has detected space rocks hitting which planet?

  1. ((a))

    Saturn

  2. ((b))

    Neptune

  3. ((c))

    Mars

  4. ((d))

    Jupiter

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mars

The answer is Mars

Key Points

  • NASA's robotic Mars InSight lander had recorded a likely Mars quake for the first time ever.
  • The US space agency said the faint seismic signal, detected by the lander's Seismic instrument, was recorded on April 6, 2019.
  • This is the first recorded trembling that appears to have come from inside the planet, as opposed to being caused by forces above the surface, such as wind.

Additional Information 

  • About NASA: (as of June 2023)
  • NASA stands for National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
  • NASA is a U.S. government agency that is responsible for science and technology related to air and space.
  • The Space Age started in 1957 with the launch of the Soviet satellite Sputnik.
  • NASA opened for business on Oct. 1, 1958.
  • The agency was created to oversee U.S. space exploration and aeronautics research.
  • Headquarter: Washington, D.C., United States
  • Current CEO: Bill Nelson
9

Which among the following Ghazal was written by Nida Fazli?

  1. ((a))

    koi ummid bar nahin aati

  2. ((b))

    hosh vāloñ ko ḳhabar kyā be-ḳhudī kyā chiiz hai

  3. ((c))

    dil-e-nadan tujhe hua kya hai

  4. ((d))

    chupke chupke raat din aansu bahana yaad hai

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

hosh vāloñ ko ḳhabar kyā be-ḳhudī kyā chiiz hai

The correc t answer is hosh vāloñ ko ḳhabar kyā be-ḳhudī kyā chiiz hai

Key Points

  • Nida Fazil
  • Nida Fazli (12 October 1938 - 8 February 2016) also known as Muqtida Hasan Nida Fazli, was a well-known Hindi and Urdu poet, lyricist, and dialogue writer from India.
  • Nida was motivated to start writing poetry by the beautiful beauty of the Pad, which spoke of the tight connection and bond between people.
  • In 1969, he released the first volume of his poetry in Urdu.
  • List of his famous Poetry
  • Duniya ek khilona hai
  • Lafzon ka Phool
  • Khoya Hua Sa Kach
  • Mor Naach
  • The Indian government honoured him with the Padma Shri in 2013 for his contributions to literature.

Additional Information 

  • For Khoya Hua Sa Kuch, Nida Fazli was awarded the 1998 Sahitya Akademi Prize in Urdu.
  • For his writings on societal harmony, he also received the National Harmony Award.
  • He published 24 novels in Urdu, Hindi, and Gujarati, some of which are used as Maharashtra school textbooks.
  • The Madhya Pradesh government presented him with the Mir Taqi Mir award for his autobiographical book Deewaron Ke Bich.
  • Ek Atoot Bandhan is a book which is written by Ratnesh Kumar. 

Important PointsOther Options:

GhazalWriter
koi ummid bar Nahin aatiMirza Ghalib
dil-e-nadan tujhe hua kya haiMirza Ghalib
chupke chupke raat din aansu bahana yaad haiHassan Kamaal
10

On May 16, 2022, Elizabeth Borne was appointed as the new prime minister of which country?

  1. ((a))

    Greenland

  2. ((b))

    France

  3. ((c))

    Poland

  4. ((d))

    Italy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

France

The correct answer is ‘France’

Key Points 

  • Elisabeth Borne was appointed France's new prime minister to become the second woman to hold the post in the country.
  • Borne, 61, succeeds Jean Castex, whose resignation was expected after President Emmanuel Macron's reelection last month.
  • Borne is the second woman to hold the position after Edith Cresson, who was prime minister from 1991-to 1992 under Socialist President Francois Mitterrand.
  • She has served as Labor Minister in Macron's previous government since 2020.
  • Prior to that, she was transport minister and then minister of ecological Transition, also under Macron.
  • In France, it's common for presidents to have more than one prime minister during their terms.
  • Macron also promised a bill addressing the rising cost of living in France, where food and energy prices are surging.
  • Macron also promised that the new prime minister would be directly in charge of "green planning," seeking to accelerate France's implementation of climate-related policies.

Additional Information

Prime Ministers
GreenlandMúte B. Egede
PolandMateusz Morawiecki
ItalyGiorgia Meloni
11

Who was the RBI governor during the time of Independence?

  1. ((a))

    Hyat Khan

  2. ((b))

    Bengal Rama Rau

  3. ((c))

    CD Deshmukh

  4. ((d))

    James Taylor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CD Deshmukh

The correct answer is CD Deshmukh

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • RBI was originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
  • Osborne Smith(non Indian) was the first governor of RBI.
  • C. D. Deshmukh was the 3rd governor of RBI but its first Indian governor.
  • Benegal Rama Rau was the 4th governor of RBI and 2nd Indian governor.
  • Shaktikanta Das is the present and 25th governor of RBI.

Additional Information

  • RBI  was set up on the recommendation of the Hilton Young Commission also called the Royal Commission in 1926.
  • RBI Act was passed in the year - 1934
  • RBI was established on 1st April 1935.
  • RBI was nationalized on 1st January 1949.
  • RBI issues all currency notes except one rupee.
  • The signature of the RBI Governor on the notes is in English and Hindi.
  • The currency notes except one rupee hold the signature of the RBI Governor.
  • One rupee holds the signature of the Finance Secretary.

Important Points 

  • The first Governor of RBI -  Sir Osborne Smith
  • The first Indian Governor of RBI - C. D. Deshmukh
  • The longest-serving RBI Governor - Benegal Rama Rao
  • The Indian Prime Minister who had served as RBI Governor - Dr. Manmohan Singh
  • Present and 25h Governor of RBI - Shakthikanta Das
  • Deputy Governors of RBI - Michael Patra, M. Rajeshwar Rao, T. Ravi Shankar & Swaminathan Jankiraman
  • Headquarter - Mumbai
12

Where is the Atal Bihari Vajpayee-Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management located in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Betul

  2. ((b))

    Gwalior

  3. ((c))

    Balaghat

  4. ((d))

    Jabalpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gwalior

The correct answer is Gwalior.

Key Points

  • Atal Bihari Vajpayee Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management is located at Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is an autonomous institute set by the Ministry of Human Resources and Development, GOI in 1997.
  • Initially commenced as IITM, and prefix ABV was added in 2002 to honour former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • Prof. Sri Niwas Singh is the present Director and Shri Deepak Ghaisas is the present chairman of this institute.

Important Points

  • Note that it is recognized as an Institute of National importance.
  • The Institute of national importance is a status conferred by an act of the Parliament of India.

Additional Information

Some major institutes of MP:

  • State Institute of Health Management and Communication - Gwalior (2012)
  • Indian Institute of Forest Management- Bhopal (1982)
  • Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management- Gwalior (1983)
  • Indian Institute of Science Education and Research- Bhopal (2008)
  • National Institute of Fashion Technology- Bhopal
  • Indian Institue of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing- Jabalpur (2005)
  • Indian Institute of Management (IIM) - Indore (1996)
  • Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)- Indore (2009)
13

As per the Census 2011, what is the sex ratio of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    949

  2. ((b))

    913

  3. ((c))

    903

  4. ((d))

    931

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

931

The correct answer is 931

Key Points Sex Ratio:

  • According to the census data of the year 2011, the sex ratio of Madhya Pradesh is 931.
  • Whereas in the 2001 census, the sex ratio of the state was 919, i.e. the sex ratio has increased by 12 in the last decade.
  • Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in a geographical area.
  • (Total No. of Females) / (Total No. of Males) x 100
  • Despite the improvement, Madhya Pradesh still lags behind the national sex ratio of India, which is 940 females per 1000 males.​

Important Points

  • The government of Madhya Pradesh has taken several initiatives to address this issue and improve the status of women in the state.
  • ​Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) campaign:
  • The BBBP campaign was launched in Madhya Pradesh in 2015 to address the issue of declining child sex ratio and to promote the education of girls.
  • The campaign aims to create awareness about the importance of girl child and encourage parents to send their daughters to school.
  • Laadli Laxmi Yojana:
  • This is a cash incentive scheme launched by the Madhya Pradesh government in 2007.
  • The scheme provides financial assistance to parents who have a girl child.
  • The amount of assistance ranges from Rs. 5,000 to Rs. 1 lakh, depending on the girl's age and education level.
  • Mukhya Mantri Kanyadan Yojana:
  • This scheme was launched in 2006 to promote the marriage of girls from economically weaker sections.
  • Under this scheme, the government provides financial assistance to the parents of the bride to meet the expenses of the marriage.
  • Janani Suraksha Yojana:
  • This scheme was launched in 2005 to promote institutional deliveries and reduce maternal and infant mortality rates.
  • Under this scheme, pregnant women are provided free transportation to reach the hospital for delivery, and they also receive financial assistance for delivery and postnatal care.
  • Self-help groups:
  • The Madhya Pradesh government has promoted the formation of self-help groups (SHGs) among women in rural areas.
  • These SHGs provide a platform for women to come together, share their experiences, and support each other.
  • They also help women to acquire skills and start their own businesses.
  • These initiatives have helped to raise awareness about the importance of the girl child and promote the education and welfare of girls in Madhya Pradesh.
14

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the Indus Valley Civilization?

  1. ((a))

    The open courtyard was the basic feature of house planning

  2. ((b))

    The assembly Hall was discovered at Mohenjo Daro

  3. ((c))

    The Indus Valley people were not acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving

  4. ((d))

    The excavations at Harappa are attributed to R.B.Daya Ram Sahni

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The Indus Valley people were not acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving

The correct answer is The Indus Valley people were not acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving

Key Points

  • The Indus Valley people were very familiar with the art of spinning and weaving. In fact, they were some of the earliest people in the world to develop this skill.
  • There is evidence of spinning and weaving in the Indus Valley civilization from as early as 3300 BCE. This evidence includes spindle whorls, which are small, weighted objects that were used to spin yarn, and loom weights, which were used to keep the warp threads taut in a loom.
  • John Marshall was the first researcher to use the term, ‘Indus Valley Civilization’.
  • Indus Valley Civilization spread from the year 2500 – 1750 BC according to radio-carbon dating.
  • Indus Valley Civilization is Bronze Age Civilization.
  • The most distinctive feature of the Harappan Civilization was its urbanization.
  • Moreover, sheep and goats, dogs, humped cattle buffalo, and elephants were domesticated in the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • The capital cities are Mohenjodaro and Harappa.

Additional Information

Some important features of architectures in the Indus Valley Civilization :

  • Urban Cities - Remarkable town planning, and an excellent system of drainage and sanitation.
  • Large cities divided into two parts-The ‘Citadel’ mound built on the high podium of mud-brick to the west. The town to the east was the main hub of the residential area, which was also surrounded by a massive brick wall.
  • Streets - Fine drainage system, Well-arranged water supply system, The street lights system, Watch and ward arrangement during the night to oust the lawbreakers, Particular places to throw thrash and waste material, Public wells in every street, Well in every house, Main streets varying for 9 feet to as wide as 30-34 feet and were divided into networks of narrow lanes with great skills of dividing the cities.
  • Building Materials - No stone-built house in the Indus cities and the staircases of big buildings were solid; the roofs were flat and were made of wood.
  • Material used - Burnt bricks and Sun-dried bricks
  • Drainage System - Advanced drainage and sanitation system. Each house had horizontal and vertical drains and the house drains were connected with road drains. There were underground drains for the streets and there drains were shielded by stone slabs. Bricks were used to make the soak pits.
  • Great Granary - Great granary at Harappa measuring 169 fit x 135 fits. Attached to the granary were two-roomed tenements with a common courtyard.
  • Great Bath -The overall dimension of the Great Public Bath is 180 feet by 108 feet. The bathing pool measured about 39 feet by 23 feet with 8 feet depth. There is a device to fill and empty the water of the bathing pool and the bathing pools were encircled with galleries and rooms.
  • The urban planning of the Harappan has become a landmark for contemporary civilization and we can get a hint of the modern-day swimming pools and storehouses from their concept of bathing pools and granaries.
  • Overall the Harappa town planning was very scientific and clearly indicates that the Harappan were chiefly urban people.

Thus , The Indus Valley people were not acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving is an wrong statement

15

In economic equilibrium _____

  1. ((a))

    Supply is equal to the demand

  2. ((b))

    Price elasticity of demand is unity

  3. ((c))

    Elasticity of demand equals elasticity of supply

  4. ((d))

    The surplus is larger than the shortage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Supply is equal to the demand

The correct answer is Supply is equal to the demand

Key Points

  • Supply and demand curves intersect at the equilibrium price. This is the price at which we would predict the market will operate.
  • The word equilibrium means balance. If a market is at its equilibrium price and quantity, then it has no reason to move away from that point.
  • However, if a market is not at equilibrium, then economic pressures arise to move the market toward the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity.
  • If the price is above the equilibrium level, then the quantity supplied will exceed the quantity demanded. Excess supply or a surplus will exist. In either case, economic pressures will push the price toward the equilibrium level.
  • If the price is below the equilibrium price, there will be excess demand for the product (shortage of supply), since the quantity demanded exceeded the quantity supplied, meaning consumers are willing to buy more than producers are willing to sell.
16

Which of the following district of Madhya Pradesh shares its border with Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra?

  1. ((a))

    Harda

  2. ((b))

    Balaghat

  3. ((c))

    Khandwa

  4. ((d))

    Hoshangabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Balaghat

The correct answer is Balaghat

Key Points 

  • Balaghat district is a district of Madhya Pradesh state in Central India. The town of Balaghat serves as its administrative headquarters.
  • Balaghat is known for its tile factories, rice mills and forests.
  • Balaghat District is located in the southern part of Jabalpur Division.
  • Balaghat District is bounded by Mandla District of Madhya Pradesh to the north, Dindori District to the northwest, Rajnandgaon District of Chhattisgarh state to the east, Gondia and Bhandara districts of Maharashtra state to the south, and Seoni District of Madhya Pradesh to the west.
  • Balaghat District is currently a part of the Red Corridor.

Additional Information Harda

  • Harda District is a district of Madhya Pradesh state of central India.
  • The town of Harda is the district headquarters. The district is part of Narmadapuram Division. Harda district was organized in 1998.Harda is also known as 'Hridaynagar

Khandwa

  • Khandwa district, formerly known as the East Nimar district, is a district of the Madhya Pradesh state in central India.
  • The city of Khandwa is the administrative headquarters of the district. Other notable towns in the district include Mundi, Harsud, Pandhana and Omkareshwar.

Hoshangabad

  • Hoshangabad district, officially Narmadapuram district, is one of the districts of Madhya Pradesh state of India, and Hoshangabad city is the district headquarters.
17

Which district is closest to Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve by road?

  1. ((a))

    Umaria

  2. ((b))

    Satna

  3. ((c))

    Shahdol

  4. ((d))

    Jabalpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Umaria

The correct answer is Umaria

Key Points

  • Bandhavgarh National Park is a famous Tiger Reserve located in Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • The  Umaria district is Nearest to Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
  • It was declared a national park in 1968 and then became Tiger Reserve in 1993.
  • The Tiger Reserve is Known for the healthy population of tigers and a variety of herbivores.

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh was declared the Tiger State in 2019.
  • This state has the highest population of tigers in India with a total of 526 tigers.
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • ​Capital - Bhopal
  • CM - Shivraj Singh Chouhan
  • Governor- Mangubhai C. Patel
18

What is the name of the famous author whose novel is "Two Years Eight Months and Twenty-Eight Nights"?

  1. ((a))

    Salman Rushdie

  2. ((b))

    Amitav Ghosh

  3. ((c))

    Ruskin Bond

  4. ((d))

    Chetan Bhagat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Salman Rushdie

The correct answer is Sulman Rushdie.

Key Points

  • Two Years Eight Months and Twenty - Eight Nights is a book written by Sulman Rushdie.
  • Other famous books by Salman Rushdie: Midnight's Children, The Satanic Verses, The Moor's Last Sigh etc.

Additional Information

Famous books by other authors
Amitav GhoshThe Circle of Reason, The Shadow Lines, The Calcutta Chromosome, Gun Island
Ruskin BondThe Room on the Roof, The Blue Umbrella, Rusty, the Boy from the Hills
Chetan BhagatFive Point Someone, One Night at the Call Center, 2 States: The Story of My Marriage

 

Important Points

Some Important Books & Authors

BooksAuthors
Geetanjali, Chitra, BisarjanRabindra Nath Tagore
One Day in the Life of Ivan DenisovichAlexander Solzhenitsyn
UtopiaSir Thomas Moor
Origin of SpeciesCharles Darwin
Crime and PunishmentDostoevsky Das
KapitalKarl Marx
Count of Monte CristoAlexander Dumas
Canterbury TalesChaucer
Divine ComedyDante
The Wild IrisLouis Gluck
19

Who among the following has the constitutional authority to summon a joint session of Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister

  2. ((b))

    President

  3. ((c))

    Lok Sabha Speaker

  4. ((d))

    Rajya Sabha Speaker

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

President

The correct answer is The President 

Key Points

  • The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108).
  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha rule over it.
  • The joint session is not presided over by the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, who is also the Vice President of India.
  • If any of the aforementioned officers are not present, any other member of Parliament may preside by unanimous consent of both Houses.

Additional Information 

  • Joint Sitting of Indian parliament has been called for only 3 bills that have been passed at joint sessions::
  • Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961
  • Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978
  • Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
20

Other than Madhya Pradesh, the Chambal river runs through ________.

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Chhattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is "Rajasthan".

Key Points

  • The Chambal river is the chief tributary of the Yamuna River and rises in the Vindhya Range just south of Mhow, western Madhya Pradesh state.
  • Left bank tributaries of Chambal river: Banas River, Mej River, Retam River, Parwati River
  • Right bank tributaries if Chambal river: Parbati River, Kali Sindh River, Shipra River

Additional Information

  • The Banas River is the largest tributary of the Chambal River. It originates in the Aravalli Range in Rajasthan and flows for 512 kilometers (318 mi) before joining the Chambal River near Rameshwar.
  • The Parbati River is another major tributary of the Chambal River. It originates in the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh and flows for 458 kilometers (284 mi) before joining the Chambal River near Kota.

Important Points 

Chambal River
OriginJanapav Near Mhow (M.P.)in the Vindhya mountain range
Length965km
DischargeThe Yamuna, Pachnada near Bhareh in Uttar Pradesh
States CoveredMadhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh
Major DamsGandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Jawahar Sagar, Kota Barrage
21

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

​The review officer brought up this issue during the meeting.

  1. ((a))

    ​This issue was being brought by the review officer during the meeting.

  2. ((b))

    ​This issue was brought up by the review officer during the meeting.

  3. ((c))

    This issue was to be brought up by the review officer during the meeting.

  4. ((d))

    This issue had been brought by the review officer during the meeting.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

​This issue was brought up by the review officer during the meeting.

The correct answer is "​This issue was brought up by the review officer during the meeting."

Key Points 

  • "This issue" is the object in the original sentence that becomes the subject in the passive voice sentence.
  • "Was brought up" is a be verb ('was') acting in the past simple tense, paired with a past participle ('brought up'). This corresponds appropriately to "brought up" in the active sentence.
  • "By" typically introduces the 'agent' in passive voice sentences.
  • "The review officer" is the subject in the original sentence that becomes the agent in the passive sentence.
  • "During the meeting" is an adverbial phrase providing additional context.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

22

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Active/Passive voice

I was watching my favourite movie yesterday.

  1. ((a))

    My favourite movie was being watched by me yesterday.

  2. ((b))

    I watched my favourite movie yesterday.

  3. ((c))

    My favourite movie had been watched by me yesterday.

  4. ((d))

    My favourite movie would be watched by me yesterday

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

My favourite movie was being watched by me yesterday.

The correct answer is "My favourite movie was being watched by me yesterday."

Key Points 

  • "My favourite movie" originally serves as the object in the active sentence and is now the subject in the passive voice sentence.
  • "Was being watched" is a form of the be verb in this case 'was being', in past continuous tense, and 'watched', a past participle. This accurately corresponds to "was watching" in the active sentence.
  • "By" is typically used in passive-voice sentences to introduce the agent.
  • "Me" is the subject in the original, active sentence, which is now the agent in the passive voice sentence.
  • "Yesterday" is a time clause that gives additional context.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

23

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracket segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No substitution required.

Air quality in many of the world's megacities is five times (worst then what the WHO recommends.)

  1. ((a))

    No substitution required

  2. ((b))

    worst than the WHO recommend

  3. ((c))

    worse than what the WHO recommends

  4. ((d))

    worse then what WHO recommended

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

worse than what the WHO recommends

The correct answer is "Worse than what the WHO recommends."

Key Points

This sentence structure is suitable due to the following reasons:

  • "Worse" is used correctly as the comparative form of "bad". We use "worse" when comparing two things. Here, it's comparing air quality in many of the world's megacities with what the WHO recommends.
  • "Than" is the right word to use in making comparisons. The word "than" always follows the comparative form of an adjective, which in this case is "worse".
  • "What the WHO recommends" is a noun clause, acting as the object of the preposition "than". It's the standard against which the air quality is being compared.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct Sentence: Air quality in many of the world's megacities is five times worse than what the WHO recommends.

24

Select the meaning of the given idiom.

Spill the beans

  1. ((a))

    To reveal a secret

  2. ((b))

    Lacking in support

  3. ((c))

    To be idle

  4. ((d))

    Waste money

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reveal a secret

The correct answer is "To reveal a secret".

Key Points Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom:

  • The phrase "spill the beans" is an idiom that means to disclose secret or hidden information, often inadvertently or because of pressure.
  • For Example - After a lot of coaxing, Sarah finally spilled the beans about her surprise birthday party plan for Mark.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

25

In the below question, a part of the sentence is bracketed. Below are given alternatives to the bracketed part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, choose 'No Improvement' option.

The others pressed her to change her mind, but she (shook them away).

  1. ((a))

    shook them off

  2. ((b))

    shook them by

  3. ((c))

    No Improvement

  4. ((d))

    shook them below

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

shook them off

The correct answer is shook them off.

Key Points

  • In the context of the sentence**, shook them off** is the correct option.
  • It means getting rid of it or freeing oneself from it.
  • Here, she shook them off suggests that she freed herself from the others' attempts to change her mind.
  • It conveys a figurative sense of getting rid of or dismissing the pressure or attempts by others to change her mind.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The others pressed her to change her mind, but she shook them off.

26

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Himanshu was offered a huge salary by us to become team manager in the company.

  1. ((a))

    We offered Himanshu a huge salary to become team manager in the company.

  2. ((b))

    A huge salary was offered to Himanshu to become team manager in the company.

  3. ((c))

    We have offered a huge salary to Himanshu to become team manager n the company.

  4. ((d))

    We were offering a huge salary to Himanshu to become team manager in the company.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

We offered Himanshu a huge salary to become team manager in the company.

The correct answer is "We offered Himanshu a huge salary to become team manager in the company."

Key Points 

  • In the given sentence, the action is performed on the subject 'Himanshu'. This sentence is in passive voice.
  • The structure of the passive voice sentence is:
  • [Subject + Verb (to be) + Past Participle + by + Agent + Complement]
  • When we convert this into active voice we need to move the 'agent' ('us' in this case) to the position of the subject, and the 'subject' of the passive sentence ('Himanshu') to the position of direct object in the active sentence.
  • The 'to be verb + past participle' is replaced with the appropriate tense of the action verb (in this case, 'offered').
  • The structure used here for the active voice sentence is:
  • [Subject + Verb + Direct Object + Complement]

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

27

In the below question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The teacher said that cheating is only done by stupid or lazy people.

  1. ((a))

    "Cheating is done by stupid or lazy people," said the teacher.

  2. ((b))

    "Cheating is only done by stupid or lazy people," said the teacher.

  3. ((c))

    "Cheating is only done by people who are lazy and stupid," said the teacher.

  4. ((d))

    "Cheating was only done by stupid or lazy people," said the teacher.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

"Cheating is only done by stupid or lazy people," said the teacher.

The correct answer is "Cheating is only done by stupid or lazy people," said the teacher.

Key Points

  • In this option, the sentence maintains the original meaning and structure of the reported speech while changing it from direct speech to indirect speech.
  • The introductory phrase "The teacher said that" is replaced with "said the teacher,".
  • The verb tense remains consistent.
  • The word "only" is accurately placed in the reported speech, and the qualities of being "stupid or lazy" are retained, preserving the speaker's intended message.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

28

In the below question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

"I want you to see my house sometime," he said to his mother.

  1. ((a))

    He told his mother that he is wanting her to see his house sometime.

  2. ((b))

    He told his mother that he wants her to see his house sometime.

  3. ((c))

    He told his mother that he wanted her to see his house sometime.

  4. ((d))

    He told his mother that he had wanted her to see his house sometime.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

He told his mother that he wanted her to see his house sometime.

The correct answer is "He told his mother that he wanted her to see his house sometime."

Key Points

  • The reporting verb "said" is changed to "told," and the word "that" is introduced to connect the reporting verb with the reported speech.
  • The pronoun "I" becomes "he" to match the third-person perspective.
  • Furthermore, the verb tense also needs to be adjusted.
  • In this case, the verb "want" changes from the present tense to the past tense "wanted" because the reporting of the statement is also happening in the past.
  • The infinitive form "to see" remains unchanged.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

29

Directions: In this section each of the following sentences has a blank space and each sentence is followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option to fill the blank space.

He was in a _____ mood.

  1. ((a))

    cheerfully

  2. ((b))

    filthy

  3. ((c))

    average

  4. ((d))

    brightly

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

filthy

The correct answer is "Filthy".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "Filthy".
  • "Filthy" means extremely dirty or unpleasant, and in this context, it's used metaphorically to describe a person's mood as being negative, irritable, or foul.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2."

Correct Sentence: He was in a filthy mood.

Additional Information Let's understand the meanings of the other given options:

  • Cheerfully - It means in a happy or joyful manner.
  • Average - It means typical or ordinary.
  • Brightly - It means with brightness or vividness.
30

Find the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Recommend

  2. ((b))

    Priviledge

  3. ((c))

    Publicaly

  4. ((d))

    Possesion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Recommend

The correct answer is "Recommend".

Key Points

  • "Recommend" is the correct spelling.
  • It means to suggest, endorse, or advise someone to do something or to consider something favorably.

​​​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

  • Here are the correct spellings and meanings of the above words:
  • "Recommend" is spelled correctly.
  • Meaning: To endorse or suggest as a course of action or as appropriate, valuable, or beneficial.
  • "Privilege" is the correct spelling for "Priviledge"
  • Meaning: A special right, advantage, or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group of people.
  • "Publicly" is the correct spelling for "Publicaly"
  • Meaning: In a way that is open and observable; not secretly or confidentially.
  • "Possession" is the correct spelling for "Possesion"
  • Meaning: The state of having, owning, or controlling something; an item of property; something belonging to one.
31

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Extravagant

  1. ((a))

    Capricious

  2. ((b))

    Flexible

  3. ((c))

    Meagre

  4. ((d))

    Suave

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Meagre

The correct answer is "Meagre".

Key Points Let's understand the meaning of the given and the marked word:

  • Extravagant - Spending money or resources in a wasteful or excessive manner; characterized by excessive or unnecessary luxury, often beyond what is reasonable or practical.
  • For Example - She hosted an extravagant party with gourmet food, live entertainment, and luxurious decorations.
  • Meagre - Lacking in quantity, quality, or substance; insufficient or inadequate in amount.
  • For Example - The hiker's backpack contained only a meagre supply of water and a few energy bars for the long journey ahead.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information Let's understand the meaning of the other given options:

  • Capricious - Changing one's mind or behavior suddenly and unpredictably; guided by a whim or impulse rather than a consistent pattern.
  • Flexible - Able to bend, adapt, or adjust easily without breaking; capable of being changed or modified to suit different circumstances or requirements.
  • Suave - Smoothly charming, confident, and sophisticated in manner; displaying polished and refined social skills.
32

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which can make the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

I can't reach the shelf - it's ______ high for me.

  1. ((a))

    too

  2. ((b))

    up

  3. ((c))

    full

  4. ((d))

    only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

too

The correct answer is "Too".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate to fill in the blank is "too".
  • In this context, "too" is an adverb that means "to an excessive degree" or "more than is desirable or suitable."
  • When used in the sentence "I can't reach the shelf - it's too high for me," it indicates that the height of the shelf is greater than what the speaker can comfortably reach.
  • This makes the sentence grammatically correct and conveys that the shelf's height is beyond the speaker's ability to reach.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Correct SentenceI can't reach the shelf - it's too high for me.

33

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P. Unless we understand what another is saying, how can we approach even the fringes of consensus?

Q. Many conflicts of this world are believed to be the result of misunderstandings.

R. Even where people speak the same language, grave difficulties of semantics still often arise.

S. But where better to begin the process of understanding than in the well springs of communication-of language, of speech?

  1. ((a))

    PQSR

  2. ((b))

    PRQS

  3. ((c))

    QSPR

  4. ((d))

    SPRQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

QSPR

The correct answer is "QSPR".

Key Points

  • Sentence R introduces the idea that even when people share a common language, issues related to the meanings of words (semantics) can create significant challenges in communication.
  • Sentence S expands on the notion of communication, suggesting that understanding begins at the source of communication, which is language and speech.
  • Sentence Q builds on the theme of communication by stating that many global conflicts are rooted in misunderstandings, indicating the importance of effective communication to prevent such conflicts.
  • Sentence P concludes the paragraph by emphasizing that without understanding what others are saying, achieving consensus becomes difficult. This sentence ties the ideas of communication and understanding together.

The order of sentences in option 3 creates a coherent flow of ideas, starting from the challenges of communication to the importance of understanding for consensus.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

34

In the below given question, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase bracketed. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase

(Live in a shell)

  1. ((a))

    spend time alone

  2. ((b))

    like the company of others

  3. ((c))

    talk very softly

  4. ((d))

    be unpleasant towards others

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

spend time alone

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Spent time alone'

Key Points

  • Live in a shell - the idiom means to be or live alone. (अकेला रहना) 
  • For Example - Jim is extremely shy so, he prefers to live in a shell.
  • So, Spend time alone is the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom Live in a shell

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Spend time alone'

 Additional InformationLet's look at the Hindi meaning of the other options:

  • Like the company of others (दूसरों का साथ पसंद है)
  • Talk very softly. (बहुत धीरे से बात करना)
  • Be unpleasant towards others. (दूसरों के प्रति अप्रिय होना)
35

Rearrange the following sentences in their correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.

A: That trip-possible only because of drastically melted ice-inspired Ousland's current project.

B: Polar explorer Borge Ousland has been making history in the Arctic for a quarter century.

C: He and fellow explorer Mike Horn then became the first people to ski unsupported to the North Pole.

D: In 1994 and 1996, the Norwegian was the first person to ski alone without resupply to the North Pole and across Antarctica.

  1. ((a))

    BDAC

  2. ((b))

    BCAD

  3. ((c))

    BDCA

  4. ((d))

    BCDA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BDCA

The correct answer is "BDCA".

Key Points

  • Sentence B introduces the main subject, Borge Ousland, and establishes his significance as a polar explorer.
  • Sentence D provides additional information about Borge Ousland's achievements, specifically mentioning his accomplishments of skiing alone to the North Pole and across Antarctica without resupply.
  • Sentence C continues the narrative by explaining that Borge Ousland and Mike Horn were the first to ski unsupported to the North Pole, building upon the information provided in the previous sentence.
  • Sentence A concludes the paragraph by explaining how the drastically melted ice inspired Ousland's current project and trip, connecting back to his history as a polar explorer.
  • BDCA, creates a logical and coherent flow of information about Borge Ousland's achievements, his partnership with Mike Horn, and the inspiration behind his current project.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct Paragraph:  Polar explorer Borge Ousland has been making history in the Arctic for a quarter century. In 1994 and 1996, the Norwegian was the first person to ski alone without resupply to the North Pole and across Antarctica. He and fellow explorer Mike Horn then became the first people to ski unsupported to the North Pole. That trip-possible only because of drastically melted ice-inspired Ousland's current project.

36

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Where do you keep your current magazines for banking exams?

  1. ((a))

    Where are your current magazines for banking exams being kept?

  2. ((b))

    Where were your current magazines for banking exams kept?

  3. ((c))

    Where have your current magazines for banking exams been kept?

  4. ((d))

    Where are your current magazines for banking exams kept by you?

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Where are your current magazines for banking exams kept by you?

The correct answer is "Where are your current magazines for banking exams kept by you?"

Key Points 

  • The subject "you" in the active voice becomes the agent "by you" in the passive voice.
  • The auxiliary verb "are" is used to form the passive construction.
  • The past participle "kept" indicates the action of keeping the magazines.
  • The passive voice maintains the interrogative structure of the original sentence.
  • The passive construction emphasizes the action of keeping the magazines rather than the doer of the action.
  • The phrase "for banking exams" remains unchanged in both the active and passive constructions.

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

37

Select the incorrectly spelled word.

  1. ((a))

    megre

  2. ((b))

    matter

  3. ((c))

    measure

  4. ((d))

    meadow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

megre

The correct answer is "Megre".

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is "meager," not "megre."
  • "Meager" means lacking in quantity, quality, or richness.
  • For Example - The portion of food on his plate was quite meager, leaving him hungry for more.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

38

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which makes the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

She runs a successful software company ______ she didn't complete her college degree.

  1. ((a))

    when

  2. ((b))

    now that

  3. ((c))

    even though

  4. ((d))

    in case

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

even though

The correct answer is "Even though".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate phrase to fill in the blank is "even though".
  • The phrase "even though" is used to introduce a contrast or contradiction between two clauses.
  • In this sentence, it establishes the contrast between the fact that the subject runs a successful software company and the fact that she didn't complete her college degree.
  • This option effectively conveys the idea that despite not having completed her college degree, she has managed to run a successful software company.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct Sentence: She runs a successful software company even though she didn't complete her college degree.

39

Identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

  1. ((a))

    Canadian Armed Forces personnels were

  2. ((b))

    called in at these homes after they proved

  3. ((c))

    to be the epicentre of Covid-19 related fatalities.

  4. ((d))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Canadian Armed Forces personnels were

The correct answer is "Canadian Armed Forces personnels were"

Key Points

  • The error is in the use of the word "personnels."
  • The correct term is "personnel."
  • "Personnel" is a collective noun that refers to a group of people employed in an organization or workforce.
  • It is treated as a singular noun and does not need an "s" at the end to indicate plurality.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

40

In the following question, the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read

P. Morse code is named for Samuel Morse, an inventor of the telegraph

Q. Called 'dots' and 'dashes' or 'dits' and 'dahs'

R. As standardized sequences of two different signal durations

S. Morse code is a method used in telecommunication to encode text characters

  1. ((a))

    SRQP

  2. ((b))

    QSPR

  3. ((c))

    PQRS

  4. ((d))

    RQPS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SRQP

The correct answer is "SRQP".

Key Points 

  • The first sentence (S) introduces the topic by stating that Morse code is a method used in telecommunication to encode text characters.
  • The second sentence (R) follows up by explaining that Morse code consists of standardized sequences of two different signal durations. This connects logically with the previous sentence, as it provides more information about how Morse code works.
  • The third sentence (Q) elaborates on the elements used in Morse code, specifically mentioning that the signal durations are referred to as 'dots' and 'dashes' or 'dits' and 'dahs'. This builds upon the idea of signal durations from the previous sentence and introduces terminology associated with Morse code.
  • The fourth sentence (P) provides historical context by mentioning that Morse's code is named after Samuel Morse, who was an inventor of the telegraph. This finalizes the passage by adding information about the origin of the Morse code and its association with a historical figure.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Correct Paragraph: Morse code is a method used in telecommunication to encode text characters. As standardized sequences of two different signal durations called 'dots' and 'dashes' or 'dits' and 'dahs'.Morse code is named for Samuel Morse, an inventor of the telegraph

41

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Perfunctory

  1. ((a))

    Creative

  2. ((b))

    Punctual

  3. ((c))

    Superficial

  4. ((d))

    Attentive

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Superficial

The correct answer is "Superficial".

Key Points

Let's understand the meaning of the given and the correct word:

  • Perfunctory - It means doing something with minimal effort, often mechanically or as a routine, without real interest or enthusiasm.
  • ​For Example - She gave a perfunctory apology without truly acknowledging her mistake.
  • Superficial: This word means shallow, lacking in depth, or concerned only with the surface aspects of something. 
  • For Example - His knowledge of the subject was only superficial, lacking in depth or thorough understanding.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

  • Let's understand the meanings of the other given options:
  • Creative - This word refers to the ability to produce something new and original, often involving imagination and innovation.
  • Punctual - This word refers to being on time and adhering to schedules.
  • Attentive -  This word implies being attentive, observant, and showing interest or care.
42

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A person concerned with practical results and values.

  1. ((a))

    Pragmatist

  2. ((b))

    Fundamentalist

  3. ((c))

    Plagiarist

  4. ((d))

    Scientist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pragmatist

The correct answer is "Pragmatist".

Key Points

Let's understand the meaning of the marked word:

  • Pragmatist - A pragmatist is someone who is concerned with practical results and values. Pragmatism is a philosophical approach that emphasizes practicality, effectiveness, and real-world consequences.
  • For Example - Sara, a pragmatist, focused on finding the most efficient and effective way to complete the project rather than getting lost in unnecessary details.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

43

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which makes the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The _____ smell of freshly made coffee made me happy.

  1. ((a))

    eager

  2. ((b))

    energetic

  3. ((c))

    delicious

  4. ((d))

    dull

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

delicious

The correct answer is "Delicious".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "delicious".
  • In the sentence, the word "smell" is a sensory perception, and the context suggests that the speaker is describing the pleasant aroma of freshly made coffee.
  • The word "delicious" is used to describe something that has a highly pleasing taste or aroma.
  • Therefore, the word "delicious" fits well in this context, conveying the idea that the smell of the coffee is so inviting and enjoyable that it makes the speaker happy.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct Sentence: The delicious smell of freshly made coffee made me happy.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other given options:

  • Eager - It refers to a strong desire or enthusiasm for something.
  • Energetic - It describes a lively and active state.
  • Dull - It means lacking in interest or excitement.
44

In the following question, four words are given, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    suspencion

  2. ((b))

    anexxure

  3. ((c))

    conspicius

  4. ((d))

    flourish

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

flourish

The correct answer is 'flourish'.

Key Points

  • "Flourish" is correctly spelt, meaning to grow or develop in a healthy or vigorous way, especially as the result of a particularly favorable environment.
  • It is used to describe plants, businesses, or any other entities that are thriving or prospering.
  • The word "flourish" can also be used in a figurative sense to describe someone's success or excellence in a particular field.
  • Common phrases include "business is flourishing" or "she flourished in her new job."
  • "Flourish" can function as both a verb (e.g., The company continues to flourish) and a noun (e.g., He signed his name with a flourish).
  • The spelling of "flourish" follows standard English rules for words borrowed from French, maintaining the "ou" vowel combination.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

  • "Suspencion" is incorrect; the correct spelling is "suspension."
  • "Anexxure" is incorrect; the correct spelling is "annexure."
  • "Conspicius" is incorrect; the correct spelling is "conspicuous."
45

In the following question, four words are given, out of which only one word is correctly spelled. Find the correctly spelled word.

  1. ((a))

    mundiane

  2. ((b))

    irrational

  3. ((c))

    revolte

  4. ((d))

    unreasonible

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

irrational

The correct answer is "Irrational".

Key Points

  • "Irrational" is spelled correctly.
  • It refers to something that is not based on reason or logic, or something that is unreasonable or illogical.
  • For Example - Her fear of flying was irrational, as she knew statistically, it was one of the safest modes of travel.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

  • Mundane: Related to the ordinary and routine aspects of life.
  • Revolt: Participate in a rebellion or show strong objection or resistance against an authority or control.
  • Unreasonable: Not guided by good sense or logic.
46

CnH2n-2 is the general chemical formula of-

  1. ((a))

    Alkynes

  2. ((b))

    Cycloalkanes

  3. ((c))

    Alkenes

  4. ((d))

    Alkanes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alkynes

The correct answer is Alkynes

Key Points

  • Alkynes - The simplest alkyne—a hydrocarbon with carbon-to-carbon triple bond—has the molecular formula CnH2n-2 and is known by its common name—acetylene. Acetylene is used in oxyacetylene torches for cutting and welding metals.
  • For example: Propyne
  • C3H4 follows the general formula for a compound with n = 3. C3H4 belongs to the alkyne family.

Additional Information

AlkenesAlkanes
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons that contain one or more double bonds.Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons that contain a single bond.
The general formula for Alkenes is CnH2n.The General Formula for Alkanes is CnH2n+2.
Example: Ethylene (C2H4)Example: Ethane (C2H6)
<br>
47

Consider the following matches of environment related conventions and their respective subject matter:

Budapest Convention - Cybercrime

Bonn Convention - Migratory Species

Basel Convention - Hazardous wastes

Which of the above is/are correct matches?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1 & 2

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 & 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 1 & 3

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 & 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1, 2 & 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 & 3.

Key Points

  • Budapest Convention - It is the first international treaty on crimes committed via the Internet and other computer networks, addressing cybercrime.
  • Bonn Convention - Officially known as the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), it aims to conserve terrestrial, marine, and avian migratory species throughout their range.
  • Basel Convention - It controls the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal, aiming to protect human health and the environment.
  • All three conventions are accurately matched with their respective subject matters.

Additional Information

  • Budapest Convention
  • It was adopted by the Council of Europe in 2001 and is also known as the Convention on Cybercrime.
  • It serves as a guideline for any country developing comprehensive national legislation against cybercrime.
  • It also provides a framework for international cooperation between member states.
  • Bonn Convention
  • Also known as the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), it was signed in 1979 in Bonn, Germany.
  • The CMS is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • It aims to conserve migratory species and their habitats on a global scale.
  • Basel Convention
  • Formally called the Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal.
  • It was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992.
  • The convention aims to reduce hazardous waste generation and promote environmentally sound management and disposal practices.
  • Other Related Conventions
  • Kyoto Protocol - An international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the premise that global warming exists and human-made CO2 emissions have caused it.
  • Paris Agreement - An international treaty on climate change, aiming to limit global warming to below 2 degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • Montreal Protocol - A global agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
48

Polycarbonate is used to make

  1. ((a))

    Glass

  2. ((b))

    Straws

  3. ((c))

    Compact discs

  4. ((d))

    Switches

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Compact discs

The correct answer is Compact discs

Key Points

  • Polycarbonate is a durable thermoplastic polymer.
  • It is used to make compact discs, eyewear, automotive parts, electronics, and medical devices.
  • Offers high impact resistance, transparency, lightweight, and thermal resistance.
  • Produced through the polymerization process, forming long chains of repeating units.

Additional Information

  • Glass:
  • Glass is made from silica sand and other additives.
  • It is commonly used for windows, containers, and decorative items due to its transparency and durability.
  • Straws:
  • Straws are typically made from materials like plastic, paper, or stainless steel.
  • Switches:
  • Switches can be made from various materials, including plastic, metal, or ceramics.
49

How do the released electrons interact with the electrostatic precipitator's surface?

  1. ((a))

    By decreasing voltage to very small value

  2. ((b))

    By increasing air velocity between the plates

  3. ((c))

    They receive a net negative charge from dust particles

  4. ((d))

    By acquiring net positive charge

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

They receive a net negative charge from dust particles

The correct answer is They receive a net negative charge from dust particles

Key Points

Electrostatic precipitators (ESP):

  • In electrostatic precipitators, the flue gas is made to pass through a highly ionized zone, where the particles get electrically charged and are separated out from the gas, with the help of electrostatic forces in the power full electric field.
  • An electrostatic precipitator is used in ash handling.
  • An electrostatic precipitator in a coal-based thermal power plant collects dust from flue gas.
  • They are widely used in Thermal power plants, Pulp and Paper industries, Mining and Metallurgical Industries, Iron and Steel plants, Chemical industries, etc.
  • The main two advantages of ESP are particles may be collected wet or dry and efficiency of more than 99% can be achieved.
  • ESP can handle both gases and mists for high-volume flow and even very small particles can be removed.
  • It uses very high voltage to generate a powerful electric field. Hence, power consumption is very high and subsequently, ESP is very costly as compared to other air pollution control devices.
50

Which element is added to water to prevent tooth decay?

  1. ((a))

    Salt

  2. ((b))

    Sugar

  3. ((c))

    Fluoride

  4. ((d))

    Chlorine

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fluoride

The correct answer is Fluoride

Key Points

  • Water fluoridation is the process of adjusting the amount of fluoride in drinking water to a level recommended for preventing tooth decay.
  • Fluoride has been proven to protect teeth from decay.
  • Bacteria in the mouth produce acid when a person eats sugary foods.
  • This acid eats away minerals from the tooth’s surface, making the tooth weaker and increasing the chance of developing cavities.
  • Fluoride helps to rebuild and strengthen the tooth’s surface, or enamel.
  • Water fluoridation prevents tooth decay by providing frequent and consistent contact with low levels of fluoride.
  • Fluoride stops cavities from forming and can even rebuild the tooth’s surface.

Additional Information

  • Salt:
  • Used for seasoning and food preservation.
  • Also employed in industrial processes and water softening.
  • Excessive intake is linked to health issues like high blood pressure.
  • Sugar:
  • Common sweetener in foods and beverages.
  • Overconsumption can lead to obesity and diabetes.
  • Contributes to dental cavities when consumed excessively.
  • Chlorine:
  • Widely used for water disinfection.
  • Also utilized in swimming pools and wastewater treatment.
  • Exposure to high levels can cause respiratory irritation and health problems.
51

The value of G was found out by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Archimedes

  2. ((b))

    Newton

  3. ((c))

    Henry Cavendish

  4. ((d))

    Copernicus

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Henry Cavendish

The correct answer is Henry Cavendish.

Key Points

  • The first reliable measurement of G was made by Henry Cavendish in 1798.
  • He calculated that G was equal to 6.754 x 10-11 N2 m2 kg-2.
  • The Cavendish experiment, performed by English scientist Henry Cavendish, was the first experiment to measure the force of gravity between masses in the laboratory and the first to yield accurate values for the gravitational constant.
  • Because of the unit conventions then in use, the gravitational constant does not appear explicitly in Cavendish's work.
  • Instead, the result was originally expressed as the specific gravity of the Earth, or equivalently the mass of the Earth.
  • His experiment gave the first accurate values for these geophysical constants.

Additional Information 

  • The gravitational constant, denoted by the capital letter G, is an empirical physical constant involved in the calculation of gravitational effects in Sir Isaac Newton's law of universal gravitation and in Albert Einstein's general theory of relativity. 
  • Gravitational constant = 6.67408 × 10-11 m3 kg-1 s-2
  • Gravitational acceleration is the acceleration of an object in free fall within a vacuum.
  • This is the steady gain in speed caused exclusively by the force of gravitational attraction.
52

What is the mass of one atom of Oxygen?

  1. ((a))

    3.66 × 10-23 g

  2. ((b))

    2.66 × 10-23 g

  3. ((c))

    2.90 × 10-23 g

  4. ((d))

    2.66 × 10-24 g

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2.66 × 10-23 g

The correct answer is 2.66 × 10-23 g

Key Points

  • One mole of any substance contains 6.02 × 1023 units of that substance.
  • Equally important is the fact that one mole of a substance has a mass in grams numerically equal to the formula weight of that substance.
  • Thus, one mole of an element has a mass in grams equal to the atomic weight of that element and contains 6.02 × 1023 atoms of the element.

Calculation:

Atomic number of oxygen is 8

Atomic weight of oxygen = 16 amu.

One mole of oxygen = 16g/mol

No.of atoms present in one mole of oxygen is 6.023 x 1023

Therefore mass of 1 atom of oxygen  16g6.023x102316�6.023�102316�6.023�1023

= 2.66 x 10-23

53

Which of the following methods is better for the solid waste problem?

  1. ((a))

    Landfilling

  2. ((b))

    None of the given options

  3. ((c))

    Both a and b

  4. ((d))

    Recycling

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Recycling

The correct answer is Recycling

Key Points

  • Recycling: It is the process of converting waste materials into new materials. It can prevent the waste of potentially useful materials and reduce the consumption of fresh raw materials. It is an effective way to deal with solid waste problems.

Additional Information

  • Landfill: Waste management through the use of landfills involves the use of a large area. This place is dug open and filled with waste.
  • It is the simplest and most common method used in cities to collect and dump the waste.
54

What is the name of the structure that gives colour to the eye?

  1. ((a))

    Retina

  2. ((b))

    Iris

  3. ((c))

    Pupil

  4. ((d))

    Cornea

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Iris

The correct answer is Iris

Key Points

Human Eye

  • The eye is an important and one of the most complex sensory organs.
  • It helps us in viewing objects as well as light, colour, and depth perception.
  • A human eye has a diameter of about 2.3 cm and is almost a spherical ball filled with fluid.
  • The eyes are situated in the deep protective bone cavities,called the orbits or eye sockets present in the skull.

The Human Eye: Anatomy, Structure, Working, Function and Defects

Explanation:

  • Iris is a muscular curtain-like layer that is thinly pigmented and located in front of our eyes.
  • It serves two primary purposes, which are as follows:
  1. Pigmentation in the iris is responsible for the colour of our eyes.
  2. It also controls the amount of light that enters the eye from outside sources.
  • It should be noted that the colour of the eye is unrelated to the kind of pigmentation in the iris.
  • However, it is dependent on the amount of pigmentation in it.
  • When the quantity of pigmentation in the iris is very less, the eye appears blue.
  • At the same time, if the amount of pigmentation is more the eyes look dark brown or black.

Thus, the iris is the part of the eye that contains the pigment responsible for the colour of the eye.

Additional Information 

Different parts of the eyes and their functions:

PartsFunctions
Cornea- Light enters the eye through this membrane.
Iris- The pigment present in it gives characteristic colour to the eyes. - It also regulates the amount of light that enters the eye.
Retina- The retina converts light into electrical impulses that are sent to the brain through the optic nerve.
Eye lens- It helps to focus light and images on the retina.
55

Parathion and Sevin are sprayed on young plants to-

  1. ((a))

    Prevent pests and diseases.

  2. ((b))

    Protect them from excessive sunlight.

  3. ((c))

    Quicken their growth.

  4. ((d))

    Protect them from excessive cold.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prevent pests and diseases.

The correct answer is prevent pests and diseases.

Key Points

  • Insecticides:
  • Insecticides are pesticides that are formulated to kill, harm, repel or mitigate one or more species of insect.
  • Different insecticides work in different ways.
  • Some insecticides disrupt the nervous system, whereas others may damage their exoskeletons, repel them or control them by some other means.
  • Example: Mosquito and cockroach repellent.
  • Farmers use insecticides in their agricultural work to kill insects that harm their crops.
  • Parathion is a highly toxic organic phosphorus compound that is commonly used as an insecticide.
  • Sevin is widely used insecticide as a foliar spray to control spiny ball worms.
  • Parathion and Sevin spray do not affect plant growth, stem thickness, or leaf number.

Additional Information 

  • Pesticides:
  • A pesticide is a chemical that is used to kill or prevent small animals which are considered to be unwanted.
  • These organisms are called pests.
  • Some of these pests are insects, microbes that destroy plants.
  • It includes other organisms that affect humans in a bad way and it may kill humans too.
  • Many pesticides are poisonous and are bad for not only the organisms but are also harmful to humans.
  • Example: DDT, rat poison, insect spray, etc.
  • Fertilizers:
  • A fertilizer is a chemical that helps plants to grow.
  • It is used to replace the mineral salts taken by plants or removed by rain.
  • The important things in fertilizer are Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potash (K).
  • Common fertilizers include Ammonia and Urea.
  • Sedatives:
  • A sedative is a substance that is used to calm a person.
  • It is also called a tranquillizer.
  • Sedatives are a category of drugs that slow brain activity.
  • Sedative drugs help treat anxiety and sleep problems.
56

Which type of energy is associated with the flow of electric charge?

  1. ((a))

    Heat energy

  2. ((b))

    Electric energy

  3. ((c))

    Potential energy

  4. ((d))

    Kinetic energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Electric energy

The correct answer is Electric energy

Key Points

  • Electric charge is the basic physical property of matter that causes it to experience a force when kept in an electric or magnetic field.
  • An electric charge is associated with an electric field and the moving electric charge generates a magnetic field.
  • A combination of electric and magnetic fields is known as the electromagnetic field.
  • Interaction of the charges generates an electromagnetic force which is the foundation of Physics.
  • The two types of electric charges are:
  1. Positive
  2. Negative

Additional Information

  • Conductor-
  • A substance that allows electric charge to flow through itself is called a Conductor.
  • It is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
  • eg- silver, copper, iron, etc.
  • Insulator-
  • A substance that does not allow electric charge to flow through itself is called an Insulator.
  • It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
  • eg- plastic, glass, etc.
  • Semiconductor-
  • A substance that allows electric charge to flow through itself moderately is called a Conductor.
  • It is a good conductor of heat and electricity but having a lower conductivity as compared to the Conductor.
  • eg- Silicon, Germanium, etc.
57

The reaction between an acid and a base to give a salt and water is known as a _____ reaction

  1. ((a))

    Displacement

  2. ((b))

    neutralisation

  3. ((c))

    Oxidation

  4. ((d))

    Reduction

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

neutralisation

The correct answer is neutralisation

Key Points

  • Neutralisation reaction 
  • ​A neutralization reaction is a chemical reaction in which an acid and base react together to form salt and water as products.
  • In a neutralization reaction, there is a combination of H+ ions and OH– ions which form water.
  • Neutralization reaction examples:
  • Formation of Sodium Chloride (Common Salt)

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

  • Titration methods using phenolphthalein
  • Applications of a neutralization reaction are:
  • Titration method
  • Wastewater treatment
  • Nanomaterial synthesis

Additional Information

  • Displacement reactions:
  • Those reactions in which one element takes the place of another element in a compound, are known as displacement reaction.
  • In general, a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound.
  • In the given reaction, magnesium displaces copper from copper sulfate solution.
  • The blue color of copper sulfate solution fades due to the formation of a colorless solution of magnesium sulfate.
  • A red-brown deposit of copper metal is formed on the magnesium piece.
  • Magnesium can displace copper from the copper sulfate solution because magnesium is more reactive than copper.
  • ​CuSO4 + Mg → MgSO4​ + Cu
  • Oxidation
  • Oxidation Reaction refers to a reaction in which either the addition of Oxygen takes place or the removal of Hydrogen takes place.
  • It can also be said as the process of loss of one or more electrons by atoms or ions.
  • Example is: 2Mg + O2 = 2MgO
  • Reduction Reaction:
  • Reduction Reaction refers to a reaction in which either the addition of Hydrogen takes place or the removal of oxygen takes place.
  • In the process of reduction, a chemical species also gains electrons.
  • It is the reverse of the oxidation reaction.
  • Example is  : H2 + F2 → 2 HF
58

Tap root system is more useful then the fibrous root system in _____

  1. ((a))

    Absorption of water and minerals

  2. ((b))

    Storage of food

  3. ((c))

    Protection

  4. ((d))

    Transport of water and organic food

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Absorption of water and minerals

The correct answer is the Absorption of water and minerals

Key Points

  • Upon germination,, the first structure to emerge from most seeds is the root of the embryonic radicle.
  • This primary root is a taproot.
  • In plants in which the taproot persists, smaller lateral roots (secondary roots) commonly arise from the taproot and may in turn produce even smaller lateral roots (tertiary roots).
  • This serves to increase the surface area for water and mineral absorption.
  • Fibrous root systems are generally shallower than taproot systems.
  • Examples of tap root systems: Grape, Gram, Cotton, Tur, Carrot, Beetroot, and Sugar beet.
  • Examples of fibrous root systems: Rice, Wheat, Barley, Sorghum, millet, Oats, and Rye.​

Additional Information

  • Storage of food:
  • Tap roots, being thicker and more fleshy, are better suited for storing food reserves.
  • Plants with tap root systems often store carbohydrates and nutrients in their roots, aiding in survival during adverse conditions.
  • Protection:
  • Tap roots can anchor the plant more firmly into the soil, providing stability and protection against wind and soil erosion.
  • They also protect against drought by reaching deeper soil layers for water.
  • Transport of water and organic food:
  • Tap roots serve as primary conduits for the transport of water and nutrients absorbed by the roots to other parts of the plant.
  • They facilitate the movement of water and organic food (sugars) between the roots and the rest of the plant more efficiently than fibrous root systems.
59

A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10 m. The force on the bike due to the road is 200 N throughout this process and is directly opposite to the motion. How much work does the road do on the bike?

  1. ((a))

    -1000 J

  2. ((b))

    1000 

  3. ((c))

    2000 J

  4. ((d))

    -2000 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

-2000 J

The correct answer is -2000 J.

Key Points

  • The work done by a force is calculated as the product of the force and the displacement in the direction of the force.
  • Here, the force is 200 N, and the displacement is 10 m in the opposite direction of the force.
  • Since the force is opposite to the displacement, the work done is negative.
  • The formula for work done is Work = Force × Displacement × cos(θ), where θ is the angle between force and displacement.
  • In this case, θ = 180 degrees, so cos(180°) = -1, leading to Work = 200 N × 10 m × (-1) = -2000 J.

Additional Information

  • Work
  • Work is a measure of energy transfer that occurs when an object is moved over a distance by an external force.
  • It is a scalar quantity and is measured in joules (J) in the International System of Units (SI).
  • Force
  • Force is an interaction that causes an object to change its motion, direction, or shape.
  • It is measured in newtons (N) in the SI system.
  • Displacement
  • Displacement is the vector quantity that defines the distance and direction between two positions.
  • It is different from distance as it considers the direction of movement.
  • Energy
  • Energy is the capacity to do work and can exist in various forms such as kinetic, potential, thermal, and more.
  • It is conserved in isolated systems according to the law of conservation of energy.
60

During a monohybrid cross, the genotypic ratio is ______.

  1. ((a))

    3 ∶ 1

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶1

  3. ((c))

    1 ∶ 2 ∶ 1

  4. ((d))

    9 ∶ 2 ∶ 2 ∶ 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1 ∶ 2 ∶ 1

  • The correct answer is 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 1.

Key Points

  • In the F2 generation of a typical monohybrid cross, we get homozygous and heterozygous combinations.
  • These combinations appear in the following ratio.
  • 1(homozygous dominant): 2(heterozygotes):1 (homozygous recessive).
  • Thus the genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is 1:2:1.

Additional Information 

61

Which of the following gases are used as tear-gases?

  1. ((a))

    Cl2

  2. ((b))

    CN

  3. ((c))

    NPK

  4. ((d))

    HCN

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CN

The correct answer is CN

Key Points

  • Tear gas, also called lacrimator, is any of a group of substances that irritate the mucous membranes of the eyes, causing a stinging sensation and tears.
  • They may also irritate the upper respiratory tract, causing coughing, choking, and general debility.
  • Tear gas was first used in World War I in chemical warfare, but since its effects are short-lasting and rarely disabling, it came into use by law-enforcement agencies as a means of dispersing mobs, disabling rioters and flushing out armed suspects without the use of deadly force.
  • The substances most often used as tear gases are synthetic organic halogen compounds.
  • They are not true gases under ordinary conditions but are liquids or solids that can be finely dispersed in the air through the use of sprays, fog generators, or grenades and shells.
  • The two most commonly used tear gases are ω-chloroacetophenone, or CN, and o-chlorobenzylidenemalononitrile, or CS.
  • CN is the principal component of the aerosol agent

Additional Information

  • Cl2 (Chlorine gas):
  • It is highly toxic and was used as a chemical weapon during World War I.
  • Exposure to chlorine gas causes severe respiratory distress, and irritation to the eyes and skin, and can be lethal in high concentrations.
  • NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium):
  • NPK refers to the three primary nutrients essential for plant growth.
  • Nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K) are commonly found in fertilizers.
  • HCN (Hydrogen Cyanide):
  • Hydrogen cyanide is a highly toxic gas and a chemical weapon.
  • Exposure to hydrogen cyanide can lead to rapid death by inhibiting cellular respiration.
62

What is the main difference between the way fungi and animals obtain nutrition?

  1. ((a))

    Fungi absorb food material from outside the body, while animals take in whole material and break it down inside their bodies.

  2. ((b))

    Fungi use photosynthesis to synthesise their own food, while animals derive nutrition from other organisms.

  3. ((c))

    Fungi and animals both take in whole material and break it down inside their bodies.

  4. ((d))

    Fungi break down complex substances into simpler ones inside the body, while animals break down food material outside the body and then absorb it.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fungi absorb food material from outside the body, while animals take in whole material and break it down inside their bodies.

The correct answer is Fungi absorb food material from outside the body, while animals take in whole material and break it down inside their bodies.

 Key Points

  • Fungi Nutrition
  • Fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms. It shows a great diversity in morphology and habitat.
  • Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil, animals, and plants.
  • Fungi are categorized into 4 classes: Ascomycetes, basidiomycetes, Phycomycetes & Deuteromycetes
  • Most fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates and hence are called saprophytes.
  • Those that depend on living plants and animals are called parasites.
  • They can also live as symbionts – in association with algae as lichens and with roots of higher plants as mycorrhiza.
  • Animal Nutrition 
  • The Dairy animals have two types of food requirements, they are Maintenance requirement and Milk-producing requirements.
  • Health Maintenance food materials that include different types of vitamins, proteins, and other nutrients which are necessary for their health and disease-free life span.
  • Roughages include pasture forages, hays, silages, and byproduct feed that contain a high percentage of fibre.
  • Concentrates are energy-rich grains and molasses, protein- and energy-rich supplements and byproduct feeds, vitamin supplements, and mineral supplements.

Additional Information

  • Photosynthesis
  • It's a vital biological process that occurs in plants, algae, and some bacteria.
  • Plants capture sunlight using chlorophyll, a pigment in their leaves.
  • Plants take in CO2 from the air through small openings called stomata on their leaves.
  • Plants absorb water from the soil through their roots.
  • In the chloroplasts of plant cells, sunlight energy is used to convert CO2 and water into glucose (a type of sugar) and oxygen (O2).
  • Oxygen produced during photosynthesis is released into the atmosphere, which is essential for the survival of most living organisms.
63

Which components of air are harmful to living organisms?

  1. ((a))

    Oxygen and carbon dioxide

  2. ((b))

    Water vapour

  3. ((c))

    Dust and smoke

  4. ((d))

    Nitrogen and oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dust and smoke

The correct answer is Dust and smoke

Key Points 

  • A mixture of gases known as air makes up the Earth's atmosphere.
  • 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% other gases, and water vapor make up its composition.
  • The composition of the air doesn't change as you pass through the layers of the atmosphere.
  • What changes is the number of molecules.

Explanation:

Dust and smoke:

  • There are significant threats to human health from airborne dust.
  • A significant factor in determining the possible risk to human health is dust particle size.
  • The only organs that can be harmed by particles larger than 10 m are the skin, eyes, and nose, which are frequently irritated, develop conjunctivitis, and the eyes, which are more susceptible to infection.
  • Smaller than 10 nm inhalable particles frequently become lodged in the mouth, nose, and upper respiratory tract, leading to respiratory conditions such as asthma, tracheitis, pneumonia, allergic rhinitis, and silicosis.
  • Finer particles, on the other hand, have the potential to pass through the lower respiratory tract and reach the bloodstream, where they can impact all internal organs and cause cardiovascular diseases.
  • Smoke exposure can result in runny noses, coughs, aching eyes, and tears.
  • Smoke that lasts for days or even weeks or that is very heavy might harm the lungs and prolong a cough.
  • Smoke exposure can exacerbate lung and heart diseases.

Thus, the components of air that are harmful to living beings are dust and smoke.

64

Which one is the least porous soil?

  1. ((a))

    Peat soil

  2. ((b))

    Loam

  3. ((c))

    Clay soil

  4. ((d))

    Silt soil

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Clay soil

The correct answer is Clay soil.

Key Points

  • Permeability is defined as the property of a porous material which permits the passage or seepage of water through its interconnecting voids.
  • Usually, the finer the soil texture, the slower the permeability.
  • The decreasing order of permeability is:
  • Gravel > Coarse sand > Sand mixture > Clay
  • Clay is impermeable, or at least it has a very low permeability. The grains in clay are so fine that the spaces between the grains are extremely small. This makes it difficult for water to squeeze through, so water is more likely to simply run off.

 Important Points

Different type of soil and their standard permeability rate:

Type of soilAverage Size of ParticlesPermeability (k)
Gravel80 mm - 4.75 mm> 1 cm/sec
Sand4.75 mm - 0.075 mm1-10-3 cm/sec
Silt0.075 mm - 0.002 mm10-3 -10-7 cm/sec
Clay< 0.002 mm< 10-7 cm/sec

Factors affecting the permeability of soil: 

ParameterDescription
Size of particleHigher the size of particle higher will be the permeability
Specific surface areaHigher the specific surface area lower will be the permeability
Void RatioHigher the void ratio higher the permeability
Viscosity of waterHigher the viscosity lower will be the permeability and we know that the viscosity of liquids (water) increases with a decrease in temperature and hence, permeability reduces.
Degree of saturationHigher the degree of saturation higher the permeability
Entrapped gasesHigher the amount of entrapped gasses in soil mass lower will be the permeability
65

Where are the reflex arcs formed in our body?

  1. ((a))

    Heart

  2. ((b))

    Spinal cord

  3. ((c))

    Brain

  4. ((d))

    Liver

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Spinal cord

The correct answer is Spinal cord.

Key Points

  • The entire process of response to peripheral nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily is known as reflex action.
  • The reflex arc is the nervous pathway followed by nerve impulses during a reflex action.
  • A sensory nerve and a motor nerve with synapses are involved in the reflex arc.
  • The reflex arc is formed in the spinal cord when sensory neurons carry signals from the receptor organs to the spinal cord.
  • The spinal cord transmits and receives impulses from the brain and controls the most of reflex activities. It also provides a means of communication between the brain and the spinal nerves.

Important Points 

  • The spinal cord is a part of the central nervous system in the human body.
  • Human central neural system includes the brain and the spinal cord and is the site of information processing and control.
  • The medulla of the brain is connected to the spinal cord.
  • Spinal cord is composed of nerve fibres that mediate reflex actions and that transmit impulses to and from the brain.
  • Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves.

66

The term ____ refers to the number that is assigned to each atom or ion in a compound to describe the degree of oxidation.

  1. ((a))

    Oxidation molecule only

  2. ((b))

    Oxidation state and number

  3. ((c))

    Oxidation class only

  4. ((d))

    Oxidation degree only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Oxidation state and number

The correct answer is Oxidation state and number.

Key Points

  • An oxidation number or oxidation state is an indicator of the level of oxidation of an atom bound in a chemical compound.
  • This number counts how many electrons that atom has lost in the chemical bond of that compound to other atoms located in that compound.
  • For example, in water (whose chemical formula is H2O), both hydrogen atoms have given one electron each to the oxygen atom.
  • Therefore the oxidation number of every hydrogen atom in water is +1 while that of oxygen is -2 (because it gains two electrons instead of losing it).
  • The oxidation number of oxygen in the Ozone is 0 because there are no electrons transferred.
67

The main purpose of the modified underground stem is ______.

  1. ((a))

    Absorb water

  2. ((b))

    Storage

  3. ((c))

    Reproduction

  4. ((d))

    Perennation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Perennation

The correct answer is Perennation

Key Points

  • In botany, perennation is the ability of organisms, particularly plants, to survive from one germinating season to another, especially under unfavourable conditions such as drought or winter.
  • It typically involves the development of a perennating organ, which stores enough nutrients to sustain the organism during the unfavourable season and develops into one or more new plants the following year.
  • Common forms of perennating organs are storage organs (e.g. tubers, rhizomes and corm), and buds.
  • Perennation is closely related to vegetative reproduction, as the organisms commonly use the same organs for both survival and reproduction.
  • Solomon's seal, tubers (for example dahlia), bulbs (for example daffodil, snowdrop), or corms (for example crocus, gladiolus).
  • These perennating organs are also recurrently responsible for vegetative propagation.
68

Which one of the following word means 'any substance that causes an allergic reaction'?

  1. ((a))

    Ingest

  2. ((b))

    Fungicidal

  3. ((c))

    Allergen

  4. ((d))

    Disease

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Allergen

The correct answer is Allergen.

Key Points

  • Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 law identifies eight foods as major food allergens: milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soybean.
  • People with food allergies should read labels and avoid the foods they are allergic to.
  • The law requires that food labels identify the food source of all major food allergens used to make the food.
  • This requirement is met if the common or usual name of an ingredient already identifies that allergen's food source name (for example, buttermilk) Otherwise, the allergen's food source must be declared at least once on the food label.

Important Points 

  • Milk: Allergy to cow's milk is the most common food allergy in infants and young children. About 2.5% of children under age 3 are allergic to milk.
  • Egg: When a person with an egg allergy is exposed to an egg, proteins in the egg bind to specific IgE antibodies made by the person’s immune system. This triggers the person’s immune defences, leading to reaction symptoms that can be mild or very severe.
  • Peanut: Peanut allergy is the most common food allergy in children under age 18 and the second-most common food allergy in adults. Peanut allergy is usually lifelong only about 20 per cent of children with peanut allergy outgrow it over time.
69

A substance that is a source of Cl and is found in freezers and air conditioners is ______.

  1. ((a))

    Freons

  2. ((b))

    Carbon monoxide

  3. ((c))

    Methane

  4. ((d))

    Sulphur dioxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Freons

The correct answer is Freons.

Key Points

  • Trichloromethane: It is commonly known as chloroform.
  • It is used in the production of freon.
  • Inhaling chloroform depresses the central nervous system.
  • p, p- Dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane(DDT): It is the first chlorinated organic insecticide.
  • It is a highly toxic insecticide.
  • Dichloromethane: It is used as a solvent, as a paint remover, as a propellant in aerosols.
  • It is harmful to the central nervous system of humans.

Additional Information

EXPLANATION:

  • Freons are chlorofluorocarbons compounds of methane and ethane.
  • Freon 12 - dichlorodifluoromethane (CCl2F2) is commonly known as freon.
  • It is a colourless gas.
  • It is usually used as a refrigerant, aerosol propellants.
  • It can cause ozone depletion.
70

The flow of energy in an ecosystem starts from which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Volcano

  2. ((b))

    Acid rain

  3. ((c))

    Air

  4. ((d))

    Sunlight

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sunlight

The correct answer is Sunlight.

Key Points

  • The ecosystem is the functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment.
  • Energy flow is one of the most important functions of an ecosystem.
  • It refers to the transfer of energy from one trophic level in the form of food
  • This cycle of interconnected organisms in the linear chain is called a food chain
  • A number of interlinked food chains form a network/web-like structure known as food web

Additional Information

  • Lindeman’s 10% rule: States that only 10% of energy gets transferred from one trophic level to the higher one
  • The rest of the energy is lost in the form of heat.

Primary (100%) → First level/ Primary (10%) → Second-level/ Secondary (1%) → Third level / Tertiary (0.1%).

Hence , The flow of energy in an ecosystem starts from Sunlight or Light Energy

71

Internet services are provided to us by whom?

  1. ((a))

    ISP

  2. ((b))

    HTTP

  3. ((c))

    FTP

  4. ((d))

    TCP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ISP

The correct answer is ISP

Key Points

  • ISP stands for Internet Service Provider, which is a company that provides internet access to individuals and organizations.
  • An ISP connects its users to the internet using various technologies such as DSL, cable modem, fiber-optics, and wireless connections.
  • ISPs may also provide other services such as email accounts, web hosting, and domain registration.
  • Examples of ISPs include companies like AT&T, Comcast, Verizon, and many others globally.

Additional Information

  • HTTP stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol, which is used for transmitting web pages over the internet.
  • FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, which is used for transferring files between computers on a network.
  • TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol, which is a core protocol of the internet protocol suite that ensures reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data between applications.
  • While these protocols are essential for internet functionality, they do not provide internet services directly to users.
72

The ______ protocol specifies the message formatting and transmission rules as well as the responses that Web servers and browsers should provide to certain commands.

  1. ((a))

    FTP

  2. ((b))

    TCP/IP

  3. ((c))

    HTTP

  4. ((d))

    SMTP

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

HTTP

The correct answer is HTTP

Key Points

  • HTTP stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol.
  • The HTTP protocol specifies the message formatting and transmission rules as well as the responses that Web servers and browsers should provide to certain commands.
  • It is the foundation of any data exchange on the Web and it is a protocol used for transmitting hypertext requests and information between servers and browsers.
  • HTTP functions as a request-response protocol in the client-server computing model.

Additional Information

  • FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between computers on a network.
  • TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is a suite of communication protocols used to interconnect network devices on the internet.
  • SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails across the Internet.
  • HTTP was originally proposed by Tim Berners-Lee in 1989 and has undergone several revisions, the most recent being HTTP/2.
  • HTTP is an application layer protocol built on top of the TCP/IP suite of protocols.
73

The Internet, intranets, extranets, and certain other networks all use the same set of protocols, which are

  1. ((a))

    Open system

  2. ((b))

    Internet work processor

  3. ((c))

    TCP/IP

  4. ((d))

    Protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

TCP/IP

The correct answer is TCP/IP

Key Points

  • TCP/IP stands for Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.
  • It is the fundamental suite of protocols that is used for communication over the Internet and other similar networks.
  • TCP/IP ensures that data can be sent and received between different devices on a network, regardless of the underlying hardware or software.
  • This protocol suite is essential for enabling interoperability between diverse network devices and platforms.
  • It includes various protocols such as HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and DNS, among others, which facilitate different types of data exchanges and services over the network.

Additional Information

  • TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is responsible for ensuring reliable communication by establishing connections and managing the data transfer process.
  • IP (Internet Protocol) is responsible for addressing and routing packets of data so that they can travel across networks and reach the correct destination.
  • The adoption of TCP/IP as the standard protocol suite has been a key factor in the widespread growth and success of the Internet.
  • TCP/IP is designed to be robust, scalable, and flexible, allowing it to support a wide range of applications and services.
  • It is an open standard, meaning it is not owned by any single company or organization, which has contributed to its universal acceptance and use.
74

Which of the following flows is appropriate?

  1. ((a))

    Arithmetic logic unit ⇒ Primary memory ⇒ Secondary memory ⇒ Control unit

  2. ((b))

    Control unit ⇒ Primary memory ⇒ Secondary memory ⇒ Arithmetic logic unit

  3. ((c))

    Arithmetic logic unit ⇒ Control unit ⇒ Secondary memory ⇒ Primary memory

  4. ((d))

    Arithmetic logic unit ⇒ Control unit ⇒ Primary memory ⇒ Secondary memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Arithmetic logic unit ⇒ Control unit ⇒ Primary memory ⇒ Secondary memory

The correct answer is Arithmetic logic unit → Control unit → Primary memory → Secondary memory

Key Points

  • The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is responsible for performing arithmetic and logical operations.
  • The Control Unit (CU) directs the operation of the processor. It tells the computer's memory, ALU, and input and output devices how to respond to the instructions that have been sent to the processor.
  • Primary memory (also known as main memory or RAM) is used to store data and instructions that are currently in use.
  • Secondary memory (such as hard drives and SSDs) is used for long-term storage of data.
  • The flow from ALU → CU → Primary memory → Secondary memory represents the correct sequence of operations in a computer system.

Additional Information

  • The Arithmetic Logic Unit performs all arithmetic and logical operations in the CPU.
  • The Control Unit manages and coordinates the activities of all other components within the computer.
  • Primary memory is volatile, meaning it loses its data when the power is turned off.
  • Secondary memory is non-volatile, meaning it retains data even when the computer is turned off.
  • Understanding the flow of data and control signals within a computer system is crucial for designing efficient and effective computer architectures.
75

Which of the following is related to Source program?

  1. ((a))

    Symbolic language

  2. ((b))

    Sign language

  3. ((c))

    High level language

  4. ((d))

    Alphanumeric characters

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

High level language

The correct answer is High level language.

Key Points

  • A source program is written in a high-level language before being translated into machine code by a compiler or interpreter.
  • Examples of high-level languages include Python, Java, C++, and others.
  • High-level languages are designed to be easily readable and understandable by humans, making the programming process more intuitive and less error-prone.
  • These languages allow programmers to write instructions using syntax and commands that are closer to human languages and abstracted from the hardware specifics of the computer.
  • By using high-level languages, developers can focus more on the logic and functionality of the program rather than dealing with the complexities of the machine code.

Additional Information

  • Symbolic languages like assembly language are closer to machine code but still require translation by an assembler.
  • Sign language and alphanumeric characters are not related to programming languages in the context of writing source code.
  • High-level languages provide various constructs such as loops, conditionals, and data structures to facilitate complex programming tasks.
  • Compilers and interpreters are tools that translate high-level language code into machine code that can be executed by a computer's CPU.
  • Understanding high-level languages is essential for modern software development and forms the basis of learning more advanced programming concepts.
76

Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination is called:

  1. ((a))

    Hacking

  2. ((b))

    Formatting

  3. ((c))

    Backup

  4. ((d))

    Data diddling

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Backup

The correct answer is Backup.

Key Points

  • Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination is called Backup.
  • Backup is essential for data protection and recovery in case of data loss or corruption.
  • It is a common practice in IT to ensure business continuity and data integrity.
  • There are various types of backups including full, incremental, and differential backups.

Additional Information

  • Hacking refers to unauthorized access to data in a system.
  • Formatting is the process of preparing a storage device for initial use, often erasing all data in the process.
  • Data diddling involves the alteration of data before or during input into a computer system.
  • Regular backups can help mitigate the impact of data breaches and hardware failures.
  • It is advisable to store backups in multiple locations, including offsite or cloud storage, for added security.
77

The first computer's programming was done via?

  1. ((a))

    Assembly language

  2. ((b))

    Object code

  3. ((c))

    Machine language

  4. ((d))

    Source code

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Machine language

The correct answer is Machine language

Key Points

  • Machine language was the first type of programming language used to program computers.
  • Machine language consists of binary code that is directly executed by the computer's CPU.
  • It is a low-level language that is specific to the architecture of the computer's hardware.
  • Programming in machine language is complex and error-prone, which led to the development of higher-level programming languages.

Additional Information

  • Assembly language was developed after machine language to simplify the programming process by using mnemonic codes instead of binary.
  • Object code is the output of a compiler or assembler, which is then linked to create an executable program.
  • Source code is written in high-level programming languages like C++, Java, or Python and is human-readable.
  • Early computers like the ENIAC were programmed using machine language, which required setting switches and plugging in cables to configure the machine.
  • As computer technology evolved, more user-friendly programming languages were developed to increase productivity and reduce errors.
78

The main part of the first computer was _____.

  1. ((a))

    Vacuum tubes and valves

  2. ((b))

    None of the given options

  3. ((c))

    Integrated circuits

  4. ((d))

    Transistors

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vacuum tubes and valves

The correct answer is Vacuum tubes and valves

Key Points

  • Vacuum tubes and valves were the main components used in the first computers.
  • The first generation of computers, developed in the 1940s and 1950s, relied heavily on these components for processing and memory functions.
  • These computers were large, consumed a lot of power, and generated significant heat.
  • Examples of early computers that used vacuum tubes include the ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer) and the UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer).
  • The use of vacuum tubes and valves marked the beginning of the electronic computing era, replacing earlier mechanical computing devices.

Additional Information

  • Vacuum tubes were eventually replaced by transistors in the late 1950s and 1960s, leading to the second generation of computers.
  • Transistors were smaller, more energy-efficient, and more reliable than vacuum tubes, which allowed computers to become more compact and powerful.
  • The development of integrated circuits in the 1960s and 1970s marked the advent of the third generation of computers.
  • Modern computers use microprocessors, which are complex integrated circuits containing millions of transistors on a single chip.
  • The evolution of computer technology has continued to progress rapidly, leading to the powerful and compact devices we use today.
79

Which one of the following application software can be broadly classified into Generalized packages?

  1. ((a))

    Collective packages

  2. ((b))

    Customized packages

  3. ((c))

    Color packages

  4. ((d))

    Control packages

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Customized packages

The correct answer is option 2

Key Points

  • Customized packages are application software that can be broadly classified into generalized packages.
  • Generalized packages are designed to cater to a wide range of users and can be customized to meet specific needs.
  • Examples of generalized packages include word processors, spreadsheets, and presentation software.
  • These packages are versatile and can be adapted for various tasks across different industries.
  • Customized packages provide flexibility and scalability, making them suitable for both individual and organizational use.

Additional Information

  • Application software is a type of computer program that performs specific functions for the user.
  • It includes software for word processing, database management, graphic design, and more.
  • Generalized packages are essential tools in both personal and professional settings, offering a range of functionalities to enhance productivity.
  • These packages are continuously updated to include new features and improve user experience.
  • Understanding the different categories of application software helps in selecting the right tools for specific tasks.
80

What is the default file extension of Excel 2010?

  1. ((a))

    xlsb

  2. ((b))

    xlsm

  3. ((c))

    xIs

  4. ((d))

    xIsx

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

xIsx

The correct answer is xIsx.

Key Points 

  • The default file extension of Excel 2010 is xlsx.
  • Excel 2010 introduced the XML-based file format, which is more efficient and offers better data recovery options.
  • Other file extensions used by Excel include .xlsm for macro-enabled workbooks and .xlsb for binary workbooks.
  • The previous versions of Excel used the .xls file extension.

Additional Information

  • Excel 2010 is part of the Microsoft Office 2010 suite, which includes other applications like Word, PowerPoint, and Outlook.
  • The XML-based file format introduced in Excel 2007 and continued in Excel 2010 helps in reducing file size and improving data integrity.
  • Excel 2010 also introduced new features like Sparklines, Slicers, and an improved conditional formatting option.
  • Users can save Excel files in various formats including .pdf and .csv for data sharing and reporting purposes.
  • Excel 2010 supports both 32-bit and 64-bit versions, enhancing its performance on modern hardware.
81

What does "A" in "RGBA"?

  1. ((a))

    Automatic

  2. ((b))

    AII

  3. ((c))

    Analog

  4. ((d))

    Alpha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Alpha

The correct answer is Alpha

Key Points

  • Alpha represents the transparency or opacity of a color in the RGBA color model.
  • RGBA stands for Red, Green, Blue, and Alpha.
  • The Alpha component defines the level of transparency where 0 represents fully transparent and 1 represents fully opaque.
  • The RGBA color model is widely used in digital graphics and web design to specify colors.

Additional Information

  • RGB stands for Red, Green, and Blue, which are the primary colors of light used in digital displays.
  • The Alpha channel is used in various graphics and image editing software to control the blending of colors and transparency effects.
  • In CSS, the RGBA color model is often used to create semi-transparent elements on web pages.
  • Example of RGBA color code: rgba(255, 0, 0, 0.5) represents a semi-transparent red color.
82

G.I.F. stands for?

  1. ((a))

    Graphics Interchange Format

  2. ((b))

    Graphics Interface Format

  3. ((c))

    Graphics Interface Form

  4. ((d))

    Graphics Interchange Form

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Graphics Interchange Format

The correct answer is Graphics Interchange Format

Key Points

  • Graphics Interchange Format (GIF) is a bitmap image format that was developed by CompuServe in 1987.
  • GIFs are widely used on the web due to their wide support and portability.
  • They support up to 8 bits per pixel for each image, allowing a single image to reference a palette of up to 256 distinct colors chosen from the 24-bit RGB color space.
  • GIFs are particularly suitable for simple graphics, line drawings, and animations.
  • The format also supports animations and allows a separate palette of up to 256 colors for each frame.

Additional Information

  • GIF uses lossless compression that does not degrade the quality of the image.
  • It is a common format for web graphics, especially for small images and images that contain text, such as navigation buttons.
  • The format was created by Steve Wilhite while working at CompuServe and has since become one of the most recognizable image formats on the internet.
  • Despite the advent of newer formats like PNG and JPEG, GIF remains popular for its simplicity and wide compatibility.
83

Which of the following is not a computer's characteristic?

  1. ((a))

    Diligence

  2. ((b))

    Accuracy

  3. ((c))

    Speed

  4. ((d))

    Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Limited

The correct answer is Limited

Key Points

  • Computers are known for their diligence, which means they can perform repetitive tasks consistently without getting tired.
  • Accuracy is another hallmark of computers, as they can perform calculations and processes with high precision.
  • Computers are also renowned for their speed, being able to process vast amounts of data in a fraction of a second.
  • However, computers are not limited by human constraints, but rather by their programming and hardware capabilities.

Additional Information

  • Computers have revolutionized various fields, including science, engineering, medicine, and education.
  • They are capable of performing complex simulations and data analysis that would be impossible for humans to achieve manually.
  • Despite their capabilities, the performance of a computer is dependent on its software and hardware, and they require human input for programming and maintenance.
  • Advancements in technology continue to push the boundaries of what computers can achieve, making them an integral part of modern society.
84

Which document view given an appearance as in web browser?

  1. ((a))

    Web layout view

  2. ((b))

    Outline view

  3. ((c))

    Full screen reading

  4. ((d))

    Draft view

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Web layout view

The correct answer is Web layout view

Key Points

  • The Web layout view is used to view the document as it would appear in a web browser.
  • This view helps users design and edit documents that are intended to be published on the web.
  • It provides a way to visualize how the document will look when viewed online, ensuring proper formatting and layout.
  • Other views like Outline view, Full screen reading, and Draft view serve different purposes such as organizing content, reading without distraction, and quick editing, respectively.

Additional Information

  • In Outline view, you can see the structure of your document and easily reorganize it by dragging sections around.
  • Full screen reading view is designed for reading documents on the screen with minimal distractions.
  • Draft view is used for quick editing and formatting without worrying about the final appearance.
  • Choosing the right view can significantly enhance your productivity and ensure that your document meets its intended purpose.
85

Which option will create a link with the external documents?

  1. ((a))

    Embedding information

  2. ((b))

    Add file

  3. ((c))

    Cell Merge

  4. ((d))

    Mail merge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Embedding information

The correct answer is Embedding information.

Key Points

  • Embedding information refers to the process of incorporating data from external documents within a document, creating a link to those external documents.
  • This technique is often used in digital documents to provide additional context or reference without duplicating the content.
  • Embedding helps maintain the integrity and accuracy of the information by linking to the original source.
  • It is commonly used in various types of software applications, including word processors, spreadsheets, and presentation tools.

Additional Information

  • Embedding information can be done in different formats such as hyperlinks, embedded objects, or linked files.
  • In many software applications, embedding is accomplished through the "Insert" or "Object" menu options.
  • This approach is particularly useful in collaborative environments where multiple users need to access and reference the same external documents.
  • Ensuring the accessibility and security of the embedded information is crucial, especially in professional and academic settings.
86

Which one of the aforementioned is an application layer service?

  1. ((a))

    Create a virtual terminal

  2. ((b))

    File transfer, access, and administration

  3. ((c))

    Mail service

  4. ((d))

    Data service

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mail service

The correct answer is Mail service

Key Points

  • Mail service is an application layer service.
  • The application layer in the OSI model is responsible for providing network services directly to the users.
  • Other examples of application layer services include file transfer, virtual terminal, and data service.
  • These services facilitate end-user processes and are crucial for network communication and resource sharing.
  • The application layer is the seventh layer in the OSI model and plays a key role in network applications like email, file sharing, and web browsing.

Additional Information

  • The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model is a conceptual framework used to understand and implement network protocols in seven layers.
  • The seven layers are: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.
  • The Application Layer interacts directly with software applications to provide communication functions as required by the end-user.
  • Protocols used in the application layer include HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and DNS, among others.
  • It ensures that communication is possible between different systems and provides interfaces and protocols that facilitate this interaction.
87

In MS excel the combination of row and column is called _________.

  1. ((a))

    Line

  2. ((b))

    Cell

  3. ((c))

    Row

  4. ((d))

    Column

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cell

The correct answer is Cell

Key Points

  • A Cell is the intersection of a row and a column in MS Excel.
  • Each cell is identified by a unique address combining the column letter and row number, for example, A1, B2, etc.
  • Cells are the basic units where data is entered and stored in a spreadsheet.
  • You can perform various operations on cells such as entering data, formulas, and functions.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel is a spreadsheet application developed by Microsoft.
  • It is widely used for data analysis, visualization, and complex calculations.
  • Excel supports various functions and formulas to perform mathematical, statistical, and financial operations.
  • Excel also includes features like charts, pivot tables, and conditional formatting to enhance data representation.
88

Generally the TCP port used by SMTP is:

  1. ((a))

    Port 50

  2. ((b))

    Port 15

  3. ((c))

    Port 35

  4. ((d))

    Port 25

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Port 25

The correct answer is Port 25

Key Points

  • Port 25 is the default port used by the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for sending emails.
  • SMTP is a protocol used for sending emails from one server to another and is widely used in email communication.
  • Other ports used by SMTP include Port 587 for mail submission and Port 465 for secure SMTP (SMTPS).
  • Port 25 is primarily used for relaying emails between mail servers.

Additional Information

  • SMTP was first defined by RFC 821 in 1982, and the current version is defined by RFC 5321.
  • SMTP works in conjunction with other protocols like IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and POP3 (Post Office Protocol) for retrieving emails.
  • While Port 25 is the standard port for SMTP, it is often blocked by ISPs to prevent spam.
  • In such cases, Port 587 is recommended for email submission as it supports authentication.
89

Which is the "weak-copy left" license that has been adopted by several other companies and organization?

  1. ((a))

    MIT licence

  2. ((b))

    Apache license

  3. ((c))

    Mozilla License

  4. ((d))

    BSD license

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mozilla License

The correct answer is Mozilla License

Key Points

  • The Mozilla License is a weak copyleft license.
  • It allows files licensed under it to be combined with files under other licenses, including proprietary licenses, under certain conditions.
  • Several companies and organizations have adopted the Mozilla License for their open-source projects.
  • It aims to balance the benefits of open-source collaboration with the ability to use the software in proprietary products.

Additional Information

  • The Mozilla Public License (MPL) is currently at version 2.0, which was released in 2012.
  • It was originally developed by the Mozilla Foundation for use in the Mozilla Application Suite, and it has been adopted by other projects such as LibreOffice and the Mozilla Firefox web browser.
  • The MPL is considered more permissive than the GNU General Public License (GPL) but more restrictive than the MIT and BSD licenses.
  • It is designed to encourage both open-source collaboration and commercial use.
90

Which of the following keyboard shortcut is used to hide/show desktop in Windows system?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + Ctrl + H

  2. ((b))

    Windows Key + H

  3. ((c))

    Alt + Ctrl + D

  4. ((d))

    Windows Key + D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Windows Key + D

The correct answer is Windows Key + D

Key Points

  • Windows Key + D is the keyboard shortcut used to hide/show the desktop in a Windows system.
  • Pressing this combination minimizes all open windows and displays the desktop.
  • Pressing it again will restore the windows to their previous state.
  • This shortcut is useful for quickly accessing the desktop without closing any applications or windows.

Additional Information

  • Windows Key + M can also be used to minimize all windows, but it does not toggle them back like Windows Key + D.
  • Windows Key + H is used for dictation in Windows.
  • Alt + Ctrl + H and Alt + Ctrl + D do not have any predefined functions in Windows for showing or hiding the desktop.
  • Knowing keyboard shortcuts can significantly improve productivity by reducing the time spent navigating through the user interface.
91

Select the set in which the numbers are not related in the same way as are the numbers of following set: 

(4, 5, 25)

  1. ((a))

    (25, 10, 16)

  2. ((b))

    (64, 24, 49)

  3. ((c))

    (49, 42, 144)

  4. ((d))

    (36, 24, 64)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(64, 24, 49)

The logic follow here is:

Logic: (√1st number × (√3rd number ÷ 2) ) = 2nd number.

For (4, 5, 25)

→ ( √4 × (√25 ÷ 2) ) 

→ ( 2 × (5 ÷ 2) )

→ ( 2 × 2.5)

→ 5 (equal to 2nd number)

Check each option:

Option 1) (25, 10, 16)

→ ( √25 × (√16 ÷ 2) ) 

→ ( 5 × (4 ÷ 2) )

→ ( 5 × 2)

→ 10 (equal to 2nd number)

Option 2) (64, 24, 49)

→ ( √64 × (√49 ÷ 2) ) 

→ ( 8 × (7 ÷ 2) )

→ ( 8 × 3.5)

→ 28 ≠ 2nd number

Option 3) (49, 42, 144)

→ ( √49 × (√144 ÷ 2) ) 

→ ( 7 × (12 ÷ 2) )

→ ( 7 × 6)

→ 42 (equal to 2nd number)

Option  4) (36, 24, 64)

→ ( √36 × (√64 ÷ 2) ) 

→ ( 6 × (8 ÷ 2) )

→ ( 6 × 4)

→ 24 (equal to 2nd number)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

92

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    62

  2. ((b))

    54

  3. ((c))

    64

  4. ((d))

    57

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

57

The logic follow here is:

All number are even number except one number.

62, 54, 64, are even numbers and 57 is odd number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

93

In the question given below, select the one which is different from the other three options.

  1. ((a))

    Mule

  2. ((b))

    Camel

  3. ((c))

    Donkey

  4. ((d))

    Cow

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cow

Meaning of given words:

Mule: A mule is a hybrid animal and primarily used to carry heavy loads.

Camel: A camel is adapted to desert environment, are used for transportation in

desert regions.

Donkey: Donkey is known for its ability to carry heavy loads.

Cow: A cow is a domesticated animal and, primarily raised for milk. Cows are

also considered sacred in some cultures.

So, Mule, Camel and Donkey all are commonly used as working animals to transport goods. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

94

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation:

42 * 7 * 3 * 2 * 20

  1. ((a))

    × - + =

  2. ((b))

    - × ÷ =

  3. ((c))
    • = ÷ ×
  4. ((d))

    ÷ × + =

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

÷ × + =

Given equation:

42 * 7 * 3 * 2 * 20

Check each option and apply BODMAS rule.

Option 1) × - + =

After putting sign.

42 × 7 - 3 + 2 = 20

→ 294 - 3 + 2

→ 293 ≠  20

Option 2) - × ÷ =

→ 42 - 7 × 3 ÷ 2 = 20

→ 42 - 7 × 1.5 

→ 42 - 10.5 

→ 31.5 ≠ 20

Option 3) + = ÷ ×

→ 42 + 7 = 3 ÷ 2 × 20

→ 42 + 7 = 1.5 × 20

→ 49 ≠ 30 

Option 4) ÷ × + =

42 ÷ 7 × 3 + 2 = 20

6 × 3 + 2

→ 18 + 2

→ 20 = 20.

So, In option 4 we get the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

95

Which figure in the supplied question will finish the question figure's pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Given series:

  

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

96

Find the next term of the given series

AMN, BOP COR, ?

  1. ((a))

    DST

  2. ((b))

    BAS

  3. ((c))

    EQP

  4. ((d))

    FRS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DST

The logic follow here is:

Logic: 1st logic: If 3rd and 1st letter are even and odd then we subtract their place value and get 2nd letter.

2nd logic: If 3rd and 1st letter are even place value then we subtract 1 from 3rd letter and get 2nd letter.

Thus, DST will come next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

97

Find the missing letter in the series.

BAZ, DBY, FCX, HDW, ?

  1. ((a))

    HJY

  2. ((b))

    JEW

  3. ((c))

    JER

  4. ((d))

    JEV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

JEV

The logic follow here is:

So, "JEV" is the missing letter in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

98

If 'L' means '÷', 'O' means '+', 'N' means '×', and 'M' means '-', then: 98 L 7 O 26 M 18 = ?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22

Given:

98 L 7 O 26 M 18 = ?

SymbolMeans
L÷
O+
N×
M-

New equation after replacing symbols-

98 ÷ 7 + 26 - 18 = ?

According to the BODMAS rule-

→ 98 ÷ 7 + 26 - 18 = ?

14 + 26 - 18 

→ 40 - 18 

→ 22 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

99

A man is facing south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

  1. ((a))

    South-west

  2. ((b))

    North

  3. ((c))

    East

  4. ((d))

    North-east

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South-west

Given:

A man is facing south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then

180° in the clockwise direction.

Now, man is facing in South-West direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

100

Which of the boxes comes next in the sequence?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic follow here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

101

Ram and Sham are ranked 13th and 14th respectively is a class of 23. What are their ranks from the last respectively?

  1. ((a))

    12th, 13th

  2. ((b))

    11th, 10th

  3. ((c))

    11th, 12th

  4. ((d))

    10th, 11th

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10th, 11th

Given:

Ram is ranked 13th from the top.

Sham is ranked 14th from the top.

Rank from the bottom = Total number of students − Rank from the top + 1

For Sham:

Rank from the bottom

= 23 − 14 + 1

= 10

For Ram:

Rank from the bottom

<br>

= 23 − 13 + 1

= 11.

So, Sham rank from bottom is 10th and Ram rank from bottom is 11th.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

102

If thread is called knife, knife is called scissor, scissor is called needle, needle is called cutter, cutter is called machine. Then we cut the vegetables from which of the following kitchen tool?

  1. ((a))

    Scissor

  2. ((b))

    Needle

  3. ((c))

    Cutter

  4. ((d))

    Machine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Scissor

Given:

Thread is called knife.

Knife is called scissor.

Scissor is called needle.

Needle is called cutter.

Cutter is called machine.

We need to find out which tool is used to cut vegetables.

The tool we use to cut vegetables is a knife. However, in the given case, knife

is called scissor.

So, we use Scissor for cutting the vegetables.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

103

In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the letters in the second term are a rearranged/ transformed form of the letters in the first term in a particular pattern. In which two pairs, has the transformation been done in the same way?

A. HOURS : HRSOU

B. THERE : EEHRT

C. TYPES : ESTPY

D. OFTEN : FNTEO

E. SPACE : CAEPS

  1. ((a))

    D and A

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    A and B

  4. ((d))

    C and E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D and A

The logic follow here is:

Logic: First consonants are arrange increasing order and then vowels are arrange in increasing order.

Option A and D follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

104

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

SALT ∶ OWWEHPPX ∶∶ GAME ∶ ?

  1. ((a))

    CKEWIQAI

  2. ((b))

    KCEWIQAI

  3. ((c))

    KCWEIQAI

  4. ((d))

    CKWEIQAI

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CKWEIQAI

The logic follow here is:

SALT ∶ OWWEHPPX

Similarly, 

GAME ∶ ?

So, 'CKWEIQAI' is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

105

Find the missing number in a series given below:

12, 14, 17, 15, 22, 16, ?

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27

The logic followed here is:

So, the missing number in a series is 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

106

The students are seated at different places in the class. Aman is sitting in between Ronak and Rajat in the class and is 8 places after Ronak. Aman's rank is 20th from the start in the class, while Rajat is 16th from the end.

How many total students are there in the class?

  1. ((a))

    43

  2. ((b))

    41

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    44

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

43

Given:

Aman is sitting in between Ronak and Rajat in the class and is 8 places after Ronak.

Aman's rank is 20th from the start,

Rajat is 16th from the end.

Now, Aman rank from last = Rajat rank from end + 7 students sitting between them + 1

= 16 + 7 + 1

= 24.

Now,

Total students in a class = Aman rank from left end + Aman rank from last - 1

= 20 + 24 - 1

= 43.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

107

In the question given below, select the one which is different from the other three options. 

  1. ((a))

    UHRNI

  2. ((b))

    HBOKL

  3. ((c))

    AIJBY

  4. ((d))

    KLTNV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

KLTNV

The logic follow here is:

Logic: In each option we have vowel except one.

Option 1)

UHRNI: Contain 2 vowels (U, I) and 3 consonants.

Option 2)

HBOKL: Contain 1 vowel (O) and 4 consonants.

Option 3)

AIJBY: Contain 2 vowels (A, I) and 3 consonants.

Option 4)

KLTNV: Contain 0 vowel and 5 consonants.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

108

Five boys are standing in a row facing towards South. Jack is standing in the immediate right of Harry. Tom is between Nick and Sam. Sam is between Jack and Tom. Who is standing in the middle?

  1. ((a))

    Jack

  2. ((b))

    Tom

  3. ((c))

    Nick

  4. ((d))

    Sam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sam

Given:

Five boys are standing in a row facing towards South.

Jack is standing in the immediate right of Harry.

Sam is between Jack and Tom.

Tom is between Nick and Sam.

So, SAM is standing in the middle of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

109

Choose the odd one from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    i81

  2. ((b))

    o225

  3. ((c))

    k121

  4. ((d))

    p255

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

p255

The logic follow here is:

Logic: (Place value of letter)2 = Number.

For example,

B place value is 2,

→ (2)2 = 4.

Check each option,

Option 1) i81 

i place value is 9,

→ (9)2 = 81

Option 2) o225 

o place value is 15,

→ (15)2 = 225.

Option 3) k121 

k place value is 11,

→ (11)2 = 121.

Option 4) p255 

p place value is 16,

→ (16)2 = 256 ≠ 255

Thus, Option 4 not follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

110

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Articles

  2. ((b))

    Encyclopedias

  3. ((c))

    Dictionaries

  4. ((d))

    Calculator

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Calculator

Given:

Articles: Articles are written pieces of text, commonly found in newspapers,

magazines, or online. 

Encyclopedias: Encyclopedias are collections of detailed information on

various topics. They are used for reference and learning.

Dictionaries: Dictionaries provide definitions, meanings, spellings, and

pronunciations of words. They are also a source of knowledge and reference.

Calculator: A calculator is a device used for performing mathematical

calculations.

The first three options Articles, Encyclopedias, Dictionaries are all related to

written materials and are sources of knowledge. and Calculator is different from them.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

111

If 5 θ 9 ∂ 3 = 15 and 5 θ 6 ∂ 2 = 15, then 6 θ 8 ∂ 2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24

The logic follow here is:

θ means ×  and ∂ means ÷ 

For, 5 θ 9 ∂ 3 = 15

→ 5 × 9 ÷ 3 = 15

→ 5 × 9 ÷ 3 

5 × 3

→ 15 = 15

And, 

5 θ 6 ∂ 2 = 15

→ 5 × 6 ÷ 2 = 15

→ 5 × 6 ÷ 2 

→ 5 × 3

→ 15 = 15

Similarly, for

6 θ 8 ∂ 2 = ?

→ 6 × 8 ÷ 2 = 

→ 6 × 8 ÷ 2 

→ 6 × 4

→ 24 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

112

Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from folding the given sheet of paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Given:

Opposite pairs:

A ⇔ C

B ⇔ D

E ⇔ F

Note :- Two opposite pairs are never seen together or adjacent to each other.

Check each option,

Option 1)

This cannot be possible as B and D are opposite pair.

Option 2)

This can be possible as no pairs are opposite to each other.

Option 3)

This cannot be possible as E and F are opposite pair.

Option 4)

This cannot be possible as A and C are opposite pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

113

X bought a product and sold it to Y for Rs. 2100. Y marked the price of the product 50% above the cost price and sold it at a discount of 12%. If the profit earned by X and Y was equal, for how much did X buy the product?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1648

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1428

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1378

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1538

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1428

Given:

X bought a product and sold it to Y for Rs. 2100

Y marked the price of the product 50% above the cost price.

Y  sold it at a discount of 12%.

Calculation:

Cost price of Y = Rs. 2100

Marked price of Y = 2100 + 50% of 2100 = Rs. 3150

∵ Selling price = Marked price – Discount

⇒ Selling price of Y = 3150 – 12% of 3150 = Rs. 2772

⇒ Profit earned by Y = 2772 – 2100 = Rs. 672

∵ X and Y earned equal profit,

⇒ Profit earned by X = Rs. 672

∵ Selling price of X = Rs. 2100

∴ X bought the product for = 2100 – 672 = Rs. 1428

114

A library contained books in Hindi, English and several regional languages, such that the average number of books per language are 525 , while the average number of books per regional language are 225. If the total number of Hindi and English books in the library is 2100 more than the total number of books in the regional languages, find the number of regional languages in which books are kept in the library.

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

Given:

Average number of books per language = 525 

Average number of books per regional language =  225.

Total number of Hindi and English books in the library  = 2100

Calculation:

Let the number of regional languages be ‘x’

⇒ Total no. of languages = x + 2

∵ Average no. of books per language = 525

⇒ Total no. of books in library = 525 × (x + 2) = 525x + 1050

Also, average no. of books per regional language = 225

⇒ Total no. of books in regional languages = 225x

⇒ Total no. of books in Hindi and English = 525x + 1050 – 225x = 300x + 1050

Now,

Total no. of books in Hindi and English – Total no. of books in regional languages = 2100

⇒ 300x + 1050 – 225x = 2100

⇒ x = 1050/75 = 14

∴ No. of regional languages = 14

115

If one card is drawn at random from 52 cards, then find the probability of getting a face card.

  1. ((a))

    326\frac{3}{26}

  2. ((b))

    313\frac{3}{13}

  3. ((c))

    513\frac{5}{13}

  4. ((d))

    726\frac{7}{26}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

313\frac{3}{13}

Concept Used:

P(Face card) = Number of face cards / Total number of cards

Calculation:

A standard deck of 52 playing cards contains 12 face cards.

There are four suits (hearts, diamonds, clubs, and spades) and each suit has three face cards (King, Queen, and Jack).

So the probability of drawing a face card will be :

⇒ 1252\dfrac{12}{52}

⇒ 313\dfrac{3}{13}

The correct answer is option 2

116

Two chords AB and CD of a circle when produced, meet at a point P outside the circle. If AB = 6 cm, PB = 5 cm, PD = 5 cm, then CD is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    8.25 cm

  2. ((b))

    7.5 cm

  3. ((c))

    9 cm

  4. ((d))

    6 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6 cm

Given :

 AB = 6 cm, PB = 5 cm, PD = 5 cm

Calculation:

Let the length of CD be x, PA = (5 + 6 = 11) and PC = (5+ x)

As we know,

PB × PA = PD × PC

⇒ 5 × 11 = 5 × (5 + x)

⇒ (5+ x) = 55/45

⇒ (5 + x) = 11

⇒ x = 11 - 5 = 6 cm 

The correct answer is option 4 i.e.6 cm

117

In the given bar graph, in which college, the percentage of boys is the highest?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

E

Concept used :

Total number of students in college = number of boys + number of girls.

Calculation :

The percentage of boys is the highest  in college A :

⇒ 6001100×100\dfrac{600 }{1100} \times100 = 54.54%

The percentage of boys is the highest  in college B:

⇒ 4501000×100\dfrac{450}{1000} \times100 = 45%

The percentage of boys is the highest  in college C:

⇒ 7501400×100\dfrac{750}{1400} \times100 = 53.57%

The percentage of boys is the highest  in college D ⇒ 7001300×100\dfrac{700}{1300} \times100 = 53.84%

The percentage of boys is the highest  in college E:

⇒ 8001450×100\dfrac{800}{1450} \times100 = 55.17%

The percnatege of boys is highest in College E

118

The curved surface area and the diameter of a right circular cylinder are 132 cm2 and 7 cm respectively. Find its height (in cm).

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6

Given:

Curved surface area = 132 cm2

Diameter = 7 cm

Formula used:

Curved surface area = 2 × π × radius × height

Calculation:

Radius = diameter/2 = 7/2 cm

2 × π × radius × height = Curved surface area

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × (7/2) × height = 132

⇒ Height = 6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm.

119

Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 3.25.

  1. ((a))

    55.5 degrees

  2. ((b))

    47.5 degrees

  3. ((c))

    57.5 degrees

  4. ((d))

    45.5 degrees

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

47.5 degrees

Formula used:

Ø = (30)H - (11/2)M  OR = (11/2)M - (30)H

Where:

H = Hour

M = Minute

Ø = The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand.

Calculation :

Ø = (30)H - (11/2)M

Ø = (30 × 3) - (11/2)(25) 

= 90 -2752\dfrac{275}{2}  

1802752\dfrac{180 - 275 }{2}

= 47.5 degrees

Here, the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand is  47.5 degrees..

120

The following table shows the number of persons with different salary intervals in five different companies A, B, C, D and E.

26-30 (in thousand rupees)31-35 (in thousand rupees)36-40 (in thousand rupees)41-45 (in thousand rupees)45-50 (in thousand rupees)
MenWomenMenWomenMenWomenMenWomenMenWomen
A251423243215109810
B218169422011669
C38121812163514477
D47241914201216753
E3216116301618835

What is the total number of men whose salaries are more than 35 thousand from company C?

  1. ((a))

    37 

  2. ((b))

    30 

  3. ((c))

    16 

  4. ((d))

    23 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

30 

Calculation:

Total number of men whose salaries are 41-45 (in thousand rupees)  from company C

⇒ 16 

Total number of men whose salaries are 36-40 (in thousand rupees)  from company C

⇒ 14

total number of men whose salaries are more than 35 thousand from Company C :

⇒ 16 + 14 

⇒  30

121

Arrange the given words in a meaningful order.

a) India

b) Asia

c) Lucknow

d) World

e) Uttar Pradesh

  1. ((a))

    caedb

  2. ((b))

    ceadb

  3. ((c))

    ceabd

  4. ((d))

    cedab

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ceabd

Given words arrange in meaningful order:

(c) Lucknow

(e) Uttar Pradesh

(a) India

(b) Asia

(d) World

Lucknow is a city in Uttar Pradesh.

Uttar Pradesh is a state in India.

India as a country is a part of this Asia continent.

And the Asia is a part of the World.

So, ‘ceabd’ is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

122

In the given pie-chart, the expenditure on steel is what percent of the expenditure on cement?

Degree of cost inccurred in different expenditure (Total Rs. 4,50,000)

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    55%

  3. ((c))

    45%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

50%

​Calculation 

 

Cost of expenditure in steel = 360

Cost of expenditure in cement  = 720

Required Percentage = 360720×100\dfrac{ 36^{0} }{ 72^{0} } \times 100

⇒ 50 % 

The correct answer is 50%

123

In the question below are given three statements followed by four conclusion. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Inductors are Capacitors.

Some Resistors are Inductors.

All Atomic Number are Resistors.

Conclusions:

I. All Atomic Number are Capacitors.

II. Some Atomic Number are Capacitors.

III. Some Capacitors are Resistors.

IV. All Resistors are Capacitors.

  1. ((a))

    Only III follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only I follows

  4. ((d))

    Only I and III follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only III follows

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. All Atomic Number are Capacitors → False(As, there is no direct relation between Atomic Number are Capacitors. So it can be possible but definite)

II. Some Atomic Number are Capacitors → False(As, there is no direct relation between Atomic Number are Capacitors. So it can be possible but definite)

III. Some Capacitors are Resistors → True(As, All Inductors are Capacitors and Some Resistors are Inductors, so Some Capacitors are Resistors is true.)

IV. All Resistors are Capacitors → False(As, All Inductors are Capacitors and Some Resistors are Inductors, so All Resistors are Capacitors cannot be definite but possible.)

124

In question, find out the wrong number in the series.

27, 81, 1331, 125

  1. ((a))

    1331 

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    81

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

81

The logic follow here is:

Logic: All numbers are cube of a number except one.

→ 27

→ 33 = 27

→ 81

→ 92 = 81

→ 1331

→ 113 = 1331

→ 125

→ 53 = 125

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

125

Find the value of question mark '?' in the following question.

40% of 4400 + ?% of 200 = 90% of 2840

  1. ((a))

    550

  2. ((b))

    320

  3. ((c))

    280

  4. ((d))

    398

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

398

Given:

40% of 4400 + ?% of 200 = 90% of 2840

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Let the Value to be found is x 

Calculation:

40% of 4400 + x% of 200 = 90% of 2840

⇒ 40100×4400+x100×200=90100×2840\dfrac{40}{100} × 4400 + \dfrac{x}{100} × 200 = \dfrac{90}{100} × 2840

⇒ 40 × 44 + 2x = 9 × 284

⇒ 1760 + 2x = 2556

⇒ 2x = 2556 - 1760 

⇒ 2x = 796

⇒ x = 398

The correct answer is option 4 i.e.398

126

Arrange the given names in the order in which they would occur in a telephone directory and choose the one which appears in the third.

  1. ((a))

    Rama

  2. ((b))

    Randhir

  3. ((c))

    Randesh

  4. ((d))

    Raamesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Randesh

Given words arrange in a telephone directory:

4 - Raamesh

1 -Rama

3 - Randesh

2 - Randhir

So, the Randesh appears in the third place.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

127

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Country, State, City

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Given: 

Country, State, City

We know that City come under State and State come under Country.

The diagram best express relationship between City, State and Country.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

128

Study the following information carefully and answer the related question.

The following table represents the data regarding the number of table fans manufactured and sold by different companies in the given time period.

Company201420152016
ProductionSaleProductionSaleProductionSale
A333001850025600144003200020000
B312002400014800111001890014700
C22500150001760096002050012300
D198001260024800155003000020000

What is the respective ratio of sales of fans in company B in 2014 to the number of fans remaining unsold in company B and C together in 2016?

  1. ((a))

    19 ∶ 6

  2. ((b))

    None of these

  3. ((c))

    60 ∶ 31

  4. ((d))

    43 ∶ 27

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

60 ∶ 31

concept used :

Unsold fans =  Production  -  Sales.

Calculation :

Sales of fans in company B in 2014 = 24000

Number of fans remaining unsold in company B in 2016  = 18900 - 14700 = 4200

Number of fans remaining unsold in Company C in 2016  = 20500 - 12300  = 8200

The respective ratio of sales of fans in company B in 2014 to the number of fans remaining unsold in companies B and C together in 2016 :

⇒ 24000 : 4200 + 8200

⇒ 24000: 12400

⇒ 60 ∶ 31

129

A is 40% more efficient than B. If B alone can complete a work in 42 days, then A alone can complete the same work in how many days?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

30

Given:

A  is 40%  more efficient than B.

B takes 42 days more than A to complete a work alone.

Concept Used:

Total work =  Efficiency × time 

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of  B  = 100

∴ Efficiency of  A = 140

Total Work = 100× 42 = 4200

Time taken by A to do the same work :

⇒ 4200 / 140 

⇒ 30 days 

∴ A alone can complete the same work in 30  days.

130

A and B play a game where each is asked to select a number from 1 to 7. If the two numbers same, both of them win a prize. What is the probability that they will win a prize in a single trial?

  1. ((a))

    17\frac{1}{7}

  2. ((b))

    1249\frac{12}{49}

  3. ((c))

    27\frac{2}{7}

  4. ((d))

    1049\frac{10}{49}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17\frac{1}{7}

Calculation:

The probability that player A and player B both choose the same number is the probability that player B chooses the same number as player A.

Since player A can choose his number freely (we have 7 possibilities here), the key thing here is that player B must choose the same as A did, and since he has 7 options to choose from, the chances of this are 1 out of 7.

Thus, the probability that both pick the same number 

⇒ 1 / 7

131

Which of the following is not correct about risk and return?

  1. ((a))

    Higher risk entails higher gain and lower risk entails low gain.

  2. ((b))

    To trade off between risk and return is not a responsibility of a financial manager.

  3. ((c))

    Risk is defined as the variability in returns from investments.

  4. ((d))

    Return is defined as a gain or loss expected over a given period of time by decision makers.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To trade off between risk and return is not a responsibility of a financial manager.

The correct answer is - To trade off between risk and return is not a responsibility of a financial manager.

Key Points

  • Responsibilities of a Financial Manager
  • One of the primary responsibilities of a financial manager is to trade off between risk and return to optimize the financial performance of the organization.
  • This involves evaluating investment opportunities, balancing potential returns against associated risks, and making informed decisions to maximize shareholder value.
  • Higher Risk Entails Higher Gain
  • There is a positive correlation between risk and potential return, meaning investments with higher risk typically offer the possibility of higher returns.
  • Definition of Risk
  • Risk is defined as the variability in returns from investments, reflecting the uncertainty associated with achieving expected returns.
  • Definition of Return
  • Return is defined as the gain or loss expected over a given period of time by decision-makers, which can be in the form of income, capital gains, or other benefits.

Additional Information

  • Risk-Return Tradeoff
  • The risk-return tradeoff is a fundamental principle in finance that states that potential return rises with an increase in risk.
  • Low levels of uncertainty (low risk) are associated with low potential returns, whereas high levels of uncertainty (high risk) are associated with high potential returns.
  • Investment Decision-Making
  • Financial managers use various models and tools such as the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) to evaluate and manage risk and return.
  • These tools help in constructing a diversified portfolio that aims to maximize returns while minimizing risk.
  • Types of Risk
  • Systematic Risk: Risk inherent to the entire market or market segment, which cannot be mitigated through diversification.
  • Unsystematic Risk: Risk specific to a particular company or industry, which can be reduced through diversification.
132

Which of the following is used to compare the actual performance with the plan and take necessary corrective action accordingly?

  1. ((a))

    Formation of Action programmes

  2. ((b))

    Reviewing the planning process

  3. ((c))

    Evaluation of Alternative course

  4. ((d))

    Forecasting

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Reviewing the planning process

The correct answer is - Reviewing the planning process

Key Points

  • Reviewing the planning process
  • This involves assessing whether actual performance aligns with planned objectives.
  • It helps identify deviations and provides the opportunity to take corrective actions.
  • By continuously monitoring and reviewing, organizations ensure that they stay on track to meet their goals.
  • It is an essential part of the management control cycle.

Additional Information

  • Formation of Action Programmes
  • Involves outlining specific activities to achieve objectives.
  • It is the step before implementing and monitoring performance.
  • Evaluation of Alternative Courses
  • Involves comparing various options to determine the best course of action.
  • This step is critical in the planning phase rather than the control phase.
  • Forecasting
  • Entails predicting future conditions and trends.
  • It helps in setting objectives and preparing plans but does not deal with performance review.
133

What indicates the time framework within which activities are to be performed in an organisation?

  1. ((a))

    Schedule

  2. ((b))

    Aims

  3. ((c))

    Budget

  4. ((d))

    Programmes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Schedule

The correct answer is - Schedule

Key Points

  • Schedule
  • A schedule outlines the specific time frames within which tasks and activities are to be performed.
  • Schedules help in the efficient management of resources and time, ensuring that activities are completed in a timely manner.
  • In organizational contexts, schedules are essential for planning and coordination of various operations and projects.
  • Schedules also provide a clear timeline for employees and management to follow, reducing the risk of delays and missed deadlines.

Additional Information

  • Aims
  • Aims are broad, long-term goals that an organization seeks to achieve.
  • They provide a general direction and purpose for the organization's activities but do not specify the time frame for individual tasks.
  • Budget
  • A budget outlines the financial resources allocated for various activities and projects within an organization.
  • While it is crucial for financial planning, it does not specify the time frame for when activities should be performed.
  • Programmes
  • Programmes are a set of related activities aimed at achieving specific objectives within an organization.
  • They often encompass multiple projects or tasks but do not necessarily provide detailed time frames for each activity.
134

Which of the following refers to the process of deciding best course of action for accomplishing organisational objectives?

  1. ((a))

    Strategy formulation

  2. ((b))

    Environmental Scanning

  3. ((c))

    Strategy Evaluation

  4. ((d))

    Strategy implementation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strategy formulation

The correct answer is - Strategy formulation

Key Points

  • Strategy formulation
  • It refers to the process of deciding the best course of action for accomplishing organizational objectives.
  • Involves setting goals, defining actions to achieve these goals, and mobilizing resources to execute the actions.
  • It is a critical phase in the strategic management process that lays the foundation for all other activities.
  • Ensures that the organization can navigate through its external and internal environments effectively.

Additional Information

  • Environmental Scanning
  • Involves the process of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting information about the external environment.
  • Helps organizations identify opportunities and threats that could affect their strategy and operations.
  • This step precedes strategy formulation and provides essential inputs for making informed strategic decisions.
  • Strategy Evaluation
  • The process of assessing the effectiveness of a given strategy in achieving organizational goals.
  • Involves measuring performance, reviewing internal and external factors, and making corrective actions if necessary.
  • Ensures that the strategy remains relevant and aligned with the organization's objectives.
  • Strategy Implementation
  • The phase where plans and strategies are put into action to achieve the desired goals.
  • Involves allocating resources, developing policies, and ensuring that employees and managers are executing the plan effectively.
  • Requires strong leadership and effective communication to ensure successful execution.
135

What is the ultimate goal of Financial Management?

  1. ((a))

    Maximising shareholder's wealth

  2. ((b))

    Maximisation of return on capital employed

  3. ((c))

    Optimum level of leverage

  4. ((d))

    Maximisation of profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximising shareholder's wealth

The correct answer is - Maximising shareholder's wealth

Key Points

  • Maximising shareholder's wealth
  • The primary objective of financial management is to maximize the wealth of the shareholders.
  • This goal aligns with the broader objective of enhancing the overall value of the firm in the long term.
  • Shareholder wealth maximization is often reflected in the price of the company's stock.
  • Achieving this goal involves making decisions that increase the firm's profitability and market value.
  • This approach considers the time value of money, risk factors, and future cash flows.

Additional Information

  • Maximisation of return on capital employed
  • Return on capital employed (ROCE) measures the profitability and efficiency of a company's capital investments.
  • While important, it is a secondary objective compared to maximizing shareholder wealth.
  • Optimum level of leverage
  • Leverage involves using borrowed capital for investment to increase the potential return of an investment.
  • Maintaining an optimum level of leverage is crucial, but it supports the broader goal of maximizing shareholder wealth.
  • Maximisation of profit
  • Profit maximization focuses on increasing the company's earnings in the short term.
  • It does not always consider risk or the time value of money, making it less comprehensive than shareholder wealth maximization.
136

Mondex and Visa Cash cards are examples of

  1. ((a))

    Debit Card

  2. ((b))

    Smart Cards

  3. ((c))

    Credit Card

  4. ((d))

    Digital Disruptions

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Smart Cards

The correct answer is - Smart Cards

Key Points

  • Smart Cards
  • Both Mondex and Visa Cash cards are types of Smart Cards.
  • They contain an embedded microchip that can store and process data, making them intelligent cards.
  • Smart Cards are commonly used for secure transactions and can hold various types of information such as personal identification and financial data.
  • They are more secure compared to traditional magnetic stripe cards due to advanced encryption and authentication technologies.

Additional Information

  • Types of Smart Cards
  • Contact Smart Cards
  • Require physical contact with a reader to perform a transaction.
  • Commonly used in credit cards, debit cards, and identification cards.
  • Contactless Smart Cards
  • Use radio frequency identification (RFID) technology to communicate with a reader without physical contact.
  • Often used in public transportation systems and access control systems.
  • Advantages of Smart Cards
  • Enhanced security through encryption and secure authentication.
  • Ability to store more data compared to traditional magnetic stripe cards.
  • Versatility in applications such as banking, healthcare, and identification.
137

Which of the following is the misstatement of the financial statements by company management?

  1. ((a))

    Fraudulent Financial Reporting

  2. ((b))

    Disclosure

  3. ((c))

    Misappropriation of Assets

  4. ((d))

    Penalties

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fraudulent Financial Reporting

The correct answer is - Fraudulent Financial Reporting

Key Points

  • Fraudulent Financial Reporting
  • Involves intentional misstatements or omissions in financial statements to deceive financial statement users.
  • Typically carried out by management to meet financial targets, influence stock prices, or achieve personal bonuses.
  • Examples include manipulating revenue recognition, overstating assets, or understating liabilities.
  • Can result in significant legal consequences and loss of stakeholder trust.

Additional Information

  • Disclosure
  • Refers to providing relevant financial information to stakeholders in financial statements.
  • Aims to ensure transparency and help stakeholders make informed decisions.
  • Misappropriation of Assets
  • Involves theft or misuse of a company's assets by employees or management.
  • Examples include stealing cash, inventory, or intellectual property.
  • While serious, it primarily affects the company's assets rather than the accuracy of financial statements.
  • Penalties
  • Refer to fines or sanctions imposed for regulatory non-compliance or unethical practices.
  • Penalties can arise from fraudulent financial reporting or other violations.
138

Which of the following is that one which cannot be accurately measured, assessed or quantified?

  1. ((a))

    Physical standard

  2. ((b))

    Programme standard

  3. ((c))

    Intangible standard

  4. ((d))

    Tangible standard

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Intangible standard

The correct answer is - Intangible standard

Key Points

  • Intangible standard
  • An intangible standard refers to a benchmark or criterion that cannot be physically measured or quantified.
  • Examples include employee morale, brand reputation, and customer satisfaction.
  • These standards are often subjective and rely on qualitative assessments rather than quantitative data.

Additional Information

  • Physical standard
  • These are quantifiable and can be measured accurately.
  • Examples include weight, height, and temperature.
  • Programme standard
  • These are benchmarks set for the performance of a specific program or project.
  • They can be both quantitative and qualitative depending on the nature of the program.
  • Tangible standard
  • These are standards that can be physically measured and assessed.
  • Examples include financial metrics, production outputs, and inventory levels.
139

Identify the incorrect statement

  1. ((a))

    Selection is a negative process

  2. ((b))

    Succession planning covers all levels of employees

  3. ((c))

    HRP provides information about human resource availability

  4. ((d))

    Career planning is a process of developing human resources

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Succession planning covers all levels of employees

The correct answer is - Succession planning covers all levels of employees

Key Points

  • Succession planning covers all levels of employees
  • Succession planning primarily focuses on key positions and leadership roles rather than covering all levels of employees.
  • It aims to ensure that critical roles can be filled without significant disruption to the organization.
  • While succession planning can involve employees at various levels, its primary focus is not on all employees.

Additional Information

  • Selection as a negative process
  • Selection is termed a negative process because it involves eliminating unsuitable candidates and choosing the most appropriate ones for the job.
  • This process ensures that only the best-fit candidates are selected.
  • Human Resource Planning (HRP)
  • HRP provides crucial information about the availability and requirements of human resources within an organization.
  • It helps in forecasting future HR needs and planning accordingly.
  • Career Planning
  • Career planning is a proactive process aimed at developing human resources by aligning individual career aspirations with organizational goals.
  • This process involves assessing skills, setting career objectives, and taking steps to achieve them.
140

Class groups 0-9, 10-19, 20-29 is

  1. ((a))

    inclusive class limits

  2. ((b))

    individual series

  3. ((c))

    exclusive class limits

  4. ((d))

    discrete series

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

inclusive class limits

Class Limits

Inclusive Class Limits: In inclusive class limits, the upper limit of a class interval is included in that class. 

The given class intervals are 0-9, 10-19, 20-29,

This type of classification follows the inclusive class limits, where:

Both lower and upper class limits are included in the class.

For example, in the class 0-9, both 0 and 9 are considered within that group.

Similarly, in 10-19, both 10 and 19 are included.

Additional Information

Exclusive Class Limits: In exclusive class limits, the upper limit of a class interval is excluded from that class and is instead included in the next class.

This means the classes are defined in a way that the upper limit serves as a boundary, and values falling exactly on that limit go into the subsequent class.

There's no gap between the upper limit of one class and the lower limit of the next.

141

Additional guidance given in Ind AS over and above what is given in IFRS are called

  1. ((a))

    Carve-outs

  2. ((b))

    Consistency

  3. ((c))

    Carve-ins.

  4. ((d))

    Carve clarifications.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Carve-ins.

The correct answer is - Carve-ins

Key Points

  • Carve-ins
  • In accounting standards, Carve-ins refer to the additional guidance or requirements included in the Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) that are not present in the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
  • These additions are intended to address specific requirements or contexts relevant to the Indian economic environment.
  • Carve-ins are implemented to ensure that the standards are more comprehensive and aligned with the local regulatory framework.

Additional Information

  • Carve-outs
  • Carve-outs refer to the exclusions or modifications made to the IFRS to suit the Indian context in Ind AS.
  • These modifications are usually made to address local economic conditions or regulatory requirements that differ from global standards.
  • Consistency
  • This term refers to the uniform application of accounting principles and standards over time.
  • Consistency ensures that financial statements are comparable across different periods.
  • Carve clarifications
  • Although not a standard term, it would logically mean clarifications provided within Ind AS to make certain aspects of the standards clearer for users.
  • This could involve providing additional examples or explanations to ensure proper implementation.
142

Those contract that are inferred through the conduct of parties are

  1. ((a))

    Express contract

  2. ((b))

    implied contract

  3. ((c))

    tacit contracts

  4. ((d))

    illegal contracts

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

tacit contracts

The correct answer is - tacit contracts

Key Points

  • tacit contracts
  • These contracts are not explicitly stated but are inferred from the actions or conduct of the parties involved.
  • The conduct or actions of the parties involved indicate an understanding that a contract exists.
  • Examples include situations where someone takes a bus or purchases a product from a vending machine.

Additional Information

  • Express contracts
  • These are contracts where the terms are explicitly stated, either orally or in writing.
  • Both parties are clearly aware of the terms and consent to them.
  • Implied contracts
  • These contracts can be either implied in fact or implied in law.
  • Implied in fact contracts arise from the circumstances or conduct of the parties.
  • Implied in law contracts, also known as quasi-contracts, are imposed by law to prevent unjust enrichment.
  • Illegal contracts
  • These are agreements that involve illegal activities or terms that are against public policy.
  • Such contracts are not enforceable by law.
143

What is social marketing?

  1. ((a))

    Activities aimed at changing behaviour for 'common good'.

  2. ((b))

    Marketing products to social service organisations.

  3. ((c))

    Marketing products to poor people of society.

  4. ((d))

    Using social media for marketing purposes.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Activities aimed at changing behaviour for 'common good'.

The correct answer is - Activities aimed at changing behaviour for 'common good'.

Key Points

  • Social marketing
  • Involves the use of marketing principles and techniques to influence a target audience to voluntarily accept, reject, modify, or abandon a behaviour for the benefit of individuals, groups, or society as a whole.
  • Aims at promoting the common good rather than commercial profit.
  • Often used in public health campaigns, environmental efforts, and community development projects.

Additional Information

  • Key Elements of Social Marketing
  • Audience Research
  • Understanding the target audience's needs, desires, and barriers to change.
  • Utilizing surveys, focus groups, and other research methods to gather insights.
  • Segmentation
  • Dividing the target audience into subgroups with similar characteristics.
  • Crafting tailored messages and interventions for each subgroup.
  • Marketing Mix (4 Ps)
  • Product: The behaviour change or social good being promoted.
  • Price: The cost (financial, time, effort) that the audience must pay to adopt the behaviour.
  • Place: Where and how the behaviour change is promoted and supported.
  • Promotion: The communication strategies used to persuade the audience.
  • Examples of Social Marketing Campaigns
  • Anti-smoking campaigns that promote quitting smoking for better health.
  • Environmental campaigns encouraging recycling and conservation of resources.
  • Public health initiatives promoting vaccination and healthy lifestyles.
144

Which of the following belong to the category of political risks?

  1. ((a))

    Election, war risks, civil riots etc

  2. ((b))

    Rate of raw materials, lead time etc.

  3. ((c))

    Borrowing limits, liquidity risks

  4. ((d))

    Environment and Pollution control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Election, war risks, civil riots etc

The correct answer is - Election, war risks, civil riots etc

Key Points

  • Political Risks
  • Political risks refer to the potential for losses due to changes in a country's political environment or government policies.
  • Examples of political risks include elections, war risks, and civil riots.
  • These events can impact the stability and operations of businesses within a country.
  • Understanding political risks is crucial for companies operating internationally to mitigate potential adverse effects.

Additional Information

  • Types of Political Risks
  • Macro Risks
  • These affect all foreign operations in a country. Examples include significant regulatory changes, large-scale social unrest, and major political instability.
  • Micro Risks
  • These affect specific industries or companies. Examples include targeted expropriation, discriminatory regulatory changes, and contract breaches by the government.
  • Management of Political Risks
  • Companies can manage political risks through various strategies, such as:
  • Political risk insurance
  • Local partnerships
  • Lobbying and advocacy
  • Diversification of investments
145

Which of the following refers to the important phase of job description and has to be prepared with extreme care?

  1. ((a))

    Job Title

  2. ((b))

    Working hours

  3. ((c))

    Job duties and responsibilities

  4. ((d))

    Job summary

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Job duties and responsibilities

The correct answer is - Job duties and responsibilities

Key Points

  • Job duties and responsibilities
  • The section detailing job duties and responsibilities outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities expected of the position.
  • This phase is crucial as it gives potential candidates a clear understanding of the role and what is expected of them.
  • Accurate and clear job duties help in attracting the right candidates who possess the necessary skills and experience.
  • This section also sets the foundation for performance evaluations and helps in defining the scope of the job.

Additional Information

  • Job Title
  • The job title is important as it gives a brief idea about the position, but it does not provide detailed information about the role.
  • It should be clear and reflective of the duties involved, but it is not as critical as the job duties and responsibilities section.
  • Working hours
  • While working hours are important for understanding the time commitment, they are not as critical as the duties and responsibilities of the job.
  • This section helps candidates determine if the job fits their personal schedule and work-life balance needs.
  • Job summary
  • The job summary provides a brief overview of the role and its purpose within the organization.
  • It is useful for giving candidates a quick snapshot of the job, but the detailed duties and responsibilities section is more important for a comprehensive understanding of the role.
146

Channel Strategy & Channel Selection are elements of which Marketing Mix

  1. ((a))

    Price

  2. ((b))

    Product

  3. ((c))

    Place

  4. ((d))

    Promotion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Place

The correct answer is - Place

Key Points

  • Place
  • Channel Strategy refers to the plan for selecting and managing channels through which products or services are distributed to customers.
  • Channel Selection involves choosing the most effective and efficient channels to ensure products reach the intended market.
  • These elements are crucial in determining the availability and accessibility of products to consumers.

Additional Information

  • Marketing Mix
  • The marketing mix is commonly referred to as the 4Ps: Product, Price, Place, and Promotion.
  • Product deals with what the company is selling, including the quality, design, features, branding, and services.
  • Price involves the pricing strategy, including discounts, payment terms, and financing options.
  • Promotion covers the methods used to communicate and persuade the market, such as advertising, sales promotions, and public relations.
  • Place focuses on distribution channels, market coverage, and logistics, ensuring that products are available to consumers at the right place and time.
  • Importance of Channel Strategy
  • Effective channel strategy can significantly impact a company's market reach and customer satisfaction.It involves decisions on whether to use direct or indirect channels, the number of intermediaries, and the types of intermediaries to employ.
  • Examples of Channels
  • Retail stores, online platforms, wholesalers, and distributors are common types of channels.
  • Choosing the right mix of channels helps in optimizing the market coverage and customer service.
147

Which of the following does not constitute Taylor's principle of scientific management?

  1. ((a))

    No thumb rules

  2. ((b))

    Individualism

  3. ((c))

    Growth of every one

  4. ((d))

    Cooperation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Individualism

The correct answer is - Individualism

Note: As per the NCERT the correct answer is Individualism. The correct answer is No thumb rules as per answer key but it is not correct. Therefore we explained answer as per NCERT.

Key Points

  • Individualism
  • Individualism refers to a focus on individual achievements and autonomy, which is contrary to the collaborative and systematic approach advocated by Taylor.
  • Taylor's principle of scientific management emphasizes cooperation over individualism to improve efficiency and productivity.
  • Encouraging individualism can lead to disjointed efforts and inefficiencies, which is against the core tenets of scientific management.
  • No thumb rules
  • Taylor advocated replacing traditional work methods based on "rule of thumb" with methods based on scientific study.
  • He believed that scientifically determined methods would lead to greater efficiency and productivity.
  • Growth of everyone
  • Taylor's principles emphasize the mutual benefit of both workers and management.
  • The idea is that improving the efficiency of workers will lead to higher wages, and improved productivity will benefit the organization.
  • Cooperation
  • One of Taylor's key principles is fostering cooperation between workers and management to achieve the best performance.
  • He believed that conflict between workers and management was detrimental to productivity and that cooperation would lead to better outcomes for both parties.

Additional Information

  • Scientific Management
  • Developed by Frederick Winslow Taylor in the early 20th century.
  • Aims to improve economic efficiency and labor productivity through systematic observation, measurement, and analysis.
  • Principles of Scientific Management
  • Scientific Job Analysis: Determine the most efficient way to perform a job.
  • Selection of Personnel: Select and train the right workers for the job.
  • Management Cooperation: Ensure cooperation between management and workers to ensure that work is done according to scientific principles.
  • Functional Foremanship: Utilize specialized supervisors to oversee different aspects of the work.
  • Impact of Scientific Management
  • Introduced systematic study and standardization of work processes.
  • Improved productivity and efficiency in various industries.
  • Criticized for being too mechanistic and overlooking human and social aspects of work.
148

Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale is related with

  1. ((a))

    Human Resource Planning

  2. ((b))

    Job Evaluation

  3. ((c))

    Performance Appraisal

  4. ((d))

    Retirement

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Performance Appraisal

The correct answer is - Performance Appraisal

Key Points

  • Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
  • It is a method used in performance appraisal to measure employee performance.
  • It combines elements of traditional rating scales and critical incidents methods.
  • BARS measures performance by comparing specific behavioral examples with a numerical rating scale.
  • This method aims to provide a more accurate and objective evaluation of an employee's performance.

Additional Information

  • Human Resource Planning
  • Involves forecasting the future human resources needs of an organization.
  • Ensures that the organization has the right number of employees, with the right skills, at the right time.
  • Job Evaluation
  • Systematic process of determining the relative worth of jobs within an organization.
  • Helps in establishing a fair and equitable pay structure.
  • Retirement
  • The phase where an employee stops working after reaching a certain age or years of service.
  • Involves planning for financial security and lifestyle changes post-employment.
149

An e-commerce technology which measure the physical characteristics of users such as fingerprints, palm, face, or voice to solve security issues.

  1. ((a))

    Artificial Intelligence

  2. ((b))

    Predictive Analysis

  3. ((c))

    Biometric

  4. ((d))

    Blockchain

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Biometric

The correct answer is - Biometric

Key Points

  • Biometric
  • Biometric technology involves the measurement and analysis of unique physical characteristics of an individual.
  • Common biometric identifiers include fingerprints, palm prints, facial recognition, and voice patterns.
  • These identifiers are used to enhance security by ensuring that access is granted only to authorized individuals.
  • Biometrics provide a high level of security as they are difficult to forge or replicate compared to traditional passwords.

Additional Information

  • Artificial Intelligence (AI)
  • AI involves the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are programmed to think like humans and mimic their actions.
  • AI technologies include machine learning, natural language processing, and robotics.
  • Predictive Analysis
  • Predictive analysis involves using data, statistical algorithms, and machine learning techniques to identify the likelihood of future outcomes based on historical data.
  • It is commonly used in marketing, financial services, and healthcare for forecasting and risk assessment.
  • Blockchain
  • Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology that ensures data integrity and security through decentralization and cryptographic hashing.
  • It is widely used for cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and for secure, transparent transactions in various industries.
150

Which type of policy are formulated at the higher managerial level in regard to the appeals made by the lower managerial levels?

  1. ((a))

    Externally imposed policies

  2. ((b))

    Implied policies

  3. ((c))

    Originated policies

  4. ((d))

    Appealed policies

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Appealed policies

The correct answer is - Appealed policies

Key Points

  • Appealed policies
  • These policies are formulated at the higher managerial level in response to specific requests or appeals made by lower managerial levels.
  • They address particular issues that are not covered by the existing policy framework and require higher-level intervention.
  • Appealed policies ensure that the concerns and needs of lower levels are considered and appropriately addressed.
  • They provide a mechanism for lower managerial levels to seek guidance and assistance on specific matters.

Additional Information

  • Externally imposed policies
  • These are policies imposed by external entities such as government agencies, regulatory bodies, or parent companies.
  • They are not created internally but must be followed by the organization.
  • Implied policies
  • These policies are not explicitly stated but are understood to be followed based on organizational culture or past practices.
  • They often evolve from unwritten rules and norms within the organization.
  • Originated policies
  • These are policies that are internally created by the organization to address its specific needs and objectives.
  • They are typically developed by top management or specialized departments within the organization.
151

The real number to be added to 12784 to get a number which is divisible by 87 is:

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5

Given:

Number = 12784

Divisor = 87

Concept Used:

Number = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Calculation:

⇒ Dividing 12784 by 87, we get

⇒ Quotient = 146

⇒ Remainder = 82

⇒ Smallest number to be added = 87 – 82 = 5

Hence, the real number should be added to make is 5

152

If 9 men or 16 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days, then 10 men and 8 boys together will take how many days to finish the same work?

  1. ((a))

    11122911 \frac{12}{29} days

  2. ((b))

    14122914 \frac{12}{29} days

  3. ((c))

     days

  4. ((d))

    812298 \frac{12}{29} days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 days

Given:

9 men or 16 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days

10 men and 8 boys together will take how many days.

Concept Used:

Total Work =  Efficiencies × time 

Calculation:

Efficiencies of Men and Boys:

⇒ 9 men = 16 boys 

∴ men : boy = 16 : 9 

Total Work = 16 × 20 = 320

Efficiencies of 10 Men and 8 Boys:

⇒ 10 × 16 + 8 × 9  =  232 

10 men and 8 boys together will take  days 

⇒ 320 / 232 days 

⇒ \() days 

**The correct answer is option 3 i.e. \()**days.

153

What is the simplest form of 1137+534+414+104711 \frac{3}{7}+5 \frac{3}{4}+4 \frac{1}{4}+10 \frac{4}{7}?

  1. ((a))

    37

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

32

Given:

1137+534+414+104711 \frac{3}{7}+5 \frac{3}{4}+4 \frac{1}{4}+10 \frac{4}{7}

Calculation:

⇒ 1137+534+414+104711 \frac{3}{7}+5 \frac{3}{4}+4 \frac{1}{4}+10 \frac{4}{7}

⇒ 11 + 5 + 4 + 10 + 37+34+14+47 \frac{3}{7}+ \frac{3}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{4}{7}

⇒ 30 + 77+44 \frac{7}{7}+ \frac{4}{4}

⇒ 30 + 1 + 1 

⇒ 32 

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 32.

154

If 142 N is divisible by 7, then what is the value of N?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8

Concept used:

To be divisible by 7, 142 N must be divisible by 7.

Calculation:

From options , Put the value of N.

Put N = 2

⇒ 1422 is not divisible by 7.

Put  N = 8 

⇒1428 is divisible by 7 

Put  N = 6 

⇒1426  is not divisible by 7.

Put  N = 6 

⇒1429  is not divisible by 7.

∴ The correct answer is option 3 i.e.8

155

Solve:

{4.65 ÷ 5 + 2.4 × 3 - 454.5 ÷ 9 - [5.24 × 5 + 36.3 ÷ 3 - (4.5 × 8 + 2.4 of 5)]}

  1. ((a))

    -32.67

  2. ((b))

    27.64

  3. ((c))

    28.5

  4. ((d))

    29.51

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-32.67

Given:

{4.65 ÷ 5 + 2.4 × 3 - 454.5 ÷ 9 - [5.24 × 5 + 36.3 ÷ 3 - (4.5 × 8 + 2.4 of 5)]}

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

{4.65 ÷ 5 + 2.4 × 3 - 454.5 ÷ 9 - [5.24 × 5 + 36.3 ÷ 3 - (4.5 × 8 + 2.4 of 5)]}

⇒{ 0.93 + 7.2 - 50.5 - [26.2+ 12.1 -(36 + 12)]}

⇒{ - 42.37 - [ 38.3 - (48)]}

⇒{- 42.37 - (-9.7)

⇒  - 32.67 

The correct answer is option 1 i.e.- 32.67

156

How many number are the between 1000 to 10000 which are divisible by 7 but not 11?

  1. ((a))

    1069 

  2. ((b))

    969 

  3. ((c))

    1169 

  4. ((d))

    1269

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1169 

Given:

Number are the between 1000 to 10000 which are divisible by 7 but not 11.

Calculation:

1000 divided by 7 gives us about 142.85, so the next whole number divisible by 7 would be 143 ×7 = 1001.

10000 divided by 7 gives us about 1428.57,

so the previous whole number divisible by 7 would be 1428 ×7  = 10000.

So the numbers we're concerned with are the ones multiplied by 7 from 143 to 1428, inclusive.

There are 1428 - 143 + 1 = 1286 numbers in this range.

The range of numbers divisible by 11 and 7 within our limits (1000 - 10000) would be those which can be achieved by multiplying 7 and 11 and some other integer.

Let's find the closest number divisible by 77 (since 711 = 77) after 1000. 1000 divided by 77 gives us about 12.98, so the next whole number divisible by 77 would be 1377 = 1001.

10000 divided by 77 gives us about 129.87, so the previous whole number divisible by 77 would be 129 × 77 = 9943.

There are 129 - 13 + 1 = 117 

So the total number of elements that are divisible by 7 and not by 11 in the range is 1286 - 117 = 1169.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 1169.

157

Solve:

646 ÷ 2 - 212 + 24 × 5 + (23 of 5 + 154 ÷ 14 - 212)

  1. ((a))

    135

  2. ((b))

    150 

  3. ((c))

    165 

  4. ((d))

    145

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

145

Given:

646 ÷ 2 - 212 + 24 × 5 + (23 of 5 + 154 ÷ 14 - 212) Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

646 ÷ 2 - 212 + 24 × 5 + (23 of 5 + 154 ÷ 14 - 212) 

⇒ 323 - 212 + 120 + ( 115 + 11 - 212 ) 

⇒ 443 - 212 + (126 - 212 )

⇒ 231 + ( - 86)

⇒ 145 

The correct answer is option 4 i.e.145

158

A train crosses a person who is running towards the train with speed 10 m/s) in 12 seconds. If the length of the train is 420 m, then what is the speed of the train (in km/hr)?

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

90

Given:

Length of Train = 420 m 

Train crosses a person who is running towards the train with speed 10 m/s) in 12 seconds. 

Calculation:

Let the speed of the train be t m/s. 

⇒ (t + 10 m/s) × 12 s = 420 m

⇒ t × 12 s + 120 m = 420 m

⇒ t ×  12 s = 300 m

⇒ t = 300 m / 12 s 

⇒ t = 25 m/s × 185 \dfrac{ 18} {5}

Speed of train = 25 m/s × 185 \dfrac{ 18} {5} =  90 km/hr

So, the speed of the train is 90 kilometers per hour.

159

Find the value of n if (5n × 58) ÷ 25-2 = 515

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

Given:

 (5n × 58) ÷ 25-2 = 515

Concept Used:

Calculation:

 (5n × 58) ÷ 25-2 = 515

⇒  (5n × 58) ÷ 5-4 = 515

⇒  n + 8 - (- 4) = 15

⇒  n + 8 + 4 = 15

⇒ n = 15 - 12 = 3

160

The marked price of a Gift box is 50% above cost price. When marked price is increased by 20% and selling price is increased by 20% the Profit doubles. If original marked price is Rs. 600 , then what is the original selling price?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 500

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 480

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 450

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 440

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 500

Calculation 

Let the original Cost price of the cycle be = CP

Case 1:

Let the original Selling price of the cycle be = SP1 = Rs. x

Let Profit be = P1

We are provided original Marked price = Rs. 600

Also the Marked price is given to be 50% above the CP

MP1 = CP + 50100\frac{{50}}{{100}} CP

⇒ MP1 = 150100\frac{{150}}{{100}} CP

⇒ 600= 150100\frac{{150}}{{100}} CP

⇒ CP = Rs. 400

We know Profit = Selling price –  Cost price

P1 = x –  400

Case 2:

Let the changed selling price be = SP2

Let the changed Profit be = P2

SP2 = SP1 + 20% of SP1

⇒ SP2 = x + 20100\frac{{20}}{{100}} x

⇒ SP2 = 120100\frac{{120}}{{100}} x

Also, P2 = SP2 –  CP

⇒ P2 = 120100\frac{{120}}{{100}} x –  400

We are given that,

2P1 = P2

⇒ 2 (x –  400) = 120100\frac{{120}}{{100}}x –  400

⇒ (x - 400) = 6x10\dfrac{6x}{10}  - 200

⇒10x - 4000  = 6x - 2000

⇒4x = 2000

⇒ x = 500

The correct answer is option 1 i.e.Rs500

161

What is the time taken by a 220 m long train moving at 21 m/s to cross a child running at 11 m/s in the same direction?

  1. ((a))

    36 sec

  2. ((b))

    22 sec

  3. ((c))

    15 sec

  4. ((d))

    18 sec

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

22 sec

Given:

Time taken by a 220 m long train moving = 21 m/s 

Train cross a child running = 11 m/s.

Formula used:

Relative speed = speed of train - speed of child.

Time = Distance / Speed.

Calculation:

Relative speed =  = 21 m/s - 11 m/s = 10 m/s.

Time = 220 m / 10 m/s 

⇒ 22 sec

The correct is option 2 i.e 22 sec

162

Two pipes can fill a tank in 12 hours and 18 hours respectively. The pipes are opened simultaneously and it is found that due to leakage in the both, it took 48 minutes more to fill the tank. When the tank is completely full, in what time will the leak empty it?

  1. ((a))

    76 hours

  2. ((b))

    74 hours

  3. ((c))

    75 hours

  4. ((d))

    72 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

72 hours

Given:

Two pipes can fill a tank in 12 hours and 18 hours respectively

Due to leakage in the both, it took 48 minutes more to fill the tank.

Calculation:

two pipes can fill a tank in 12 hours and 18 hours respectively

1 hr, they can fill 1/12 and 1/18 part respectively.

Thus, working together, in 1 hr part of tank they can fill = 1/12 + 1/18 = 1/15

∴ They can fill the tank in 15 hours.

Now due to the leak it took 48 minutes more.

Thus, the tank was filled in 15 hours 48 minutes.

In 1 hr, part of tank filled = 79/5

⇒ 1/15 - 1/h = 79/5

⇒ 1/15 - 79/5= 1/h

⇒ h =236/5

163

Aman can do a piece of work in 40 days. Naman is 25% more efficient than Aman. What is the number of days taken by Naman to do the same piece of work?

  1. ((a))

    32 days

  2. ((b))

    30 days

  3. ((c))

    48 days

  4. ((d))

    45 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32 days

Given:

Aman completes the work = 40 days,

Naman is 25% more efficient than Aman.

Formula used:

Total work = Efficiency × days

Calculation:

Let Efficiency of Aman  = 100 unit

According to the question

Efficiency of Naman  = 125 unit

The ratio of Aman and Naman = 100: 125

= 4: 5

Efficiency of Aman = 4 unit

Total work = 4 × 40 

= 160 unit

Efficiency of Naman = 5 unit

The number of days taken by Naman = 160/5

= 32 days

∴ The correct answer is the 32 days.

164

There were 5 sections in an exam. The average score of Prashant in first 3 sections was 76 and the average of last three sections was 98 . The average of all the sections was 89 . So, his score in the third section was:

  1. ((a))

    77

  2. ((b))

    66

  3. ((c))

    86

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

77

Given:

Average marks in first 3 sections = 76

Average marks in last 3 sections = 98

Concept used:

Average = sum of all observations/number of observations

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of marks in first 3 sections = 76 × 3 = 228 marks

⇒ Sum of marks in last 3 sections = 98 × 3 = 294 marks

Also

⇒ Sum of marks in all 5 sections = 89 × 5 =445

∴ Score in the third section was :

⇒ 228 + 294 - 445

⇒ 77 marks 

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 77 marks

165

If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60 and 45 students are 50, 55 and 60 respectively, then average marks of all the students is:

  1. ((a))

    54.68

  2. ((b))

    56.67

  3. ((c))

    55.34

  4. ((d))

    55

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54.68

Given:

Average marks of the batch with 55 students = 50

Average marks of the batch with 60 students = 55

Average marks of the batch with 45 students = 60

Formula used :

If the values a, b, c, and d are the individual averages of each of the groups and n1, n2, n3 and n4 are the numbers of observations then

Weighted average = (an1 + bn2 + cn3 + dn4)/( n1 + n2 + n3 + n4)

Calculation:

Average = [(50 × 55) + (55 × 60) + (60 × 45)]/(55 + 60 + 45)

⇒ Average = (2750 + 3300 + 2700)/(160)

Average = 8750/160 = 54.68

∴ The average mark of all students is 54.68

166

Train 'X' is running with speed 108 km/hr and crosses train 'Y' which is running in the same direction as X in 80 seconds. If the length of train Y is half of the length of train X and the speed of train Y is 81 km/hr, then what is the length of train X (in metres)?

  1. ((a))

    400 

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    600

  4. ((d))

    144

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 

Given:

Speed of Train X = 108 km/hr 

Speed of Train Y =  81 km/hr

Train X crosses train 'Y' which is running in the same direction =  80 seconds. 

Concept used:

Speed=DistanceTImeSpeed = \dfrac{ Distance } {TIme}

Calculation:

When two trains are moving in the same direction, The relative speed at which Train X is moving related to Train Y is:

⇒ 108 km/hr - 81 km/hr = 27 km/hr

To convert km/hr to m/s, we multiply the value by 5/18.

Therefore, the relative speed = 27 km/hr ×  5/18 = 7.5 m/sec

Let's denote the length of Train X  =  "L". 

The length of Train Y is half the length of Train X, =  0.5  L.

the distance covered is L =  (length of Train X) + 0.5  L (length of Train Y) = 1.5  L

⇒ 1.5 L = 7.5 m/sec × 80 seconds

⇒ 1.5 × L = 600 metres

L =6001.5 \dfrac{ 600} {1.5} = 400 metres

Therefore, the length of Train X is 400 metres.

167

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?

2890, ?, 1162, 874, 730, 658

  1. ((a))

    1684 

  2. ((b))

    1784 

  3. ((c))

    1672 

  4. ((d))

    1738

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1738

Calculation :

Take the differences between the numbers then from the bottom.

Let missing tern is x 

730 - 658  = 72

874 - 730 =  144

1162 - 874  = 288

The next difference will be 

x  -1162  =  576

x = 576 + 1162 

x = 1738 

The missing term is 1738

168

What least value which should be added to 2712 to make it divisible by 9, 11 and 13?

  1. ((a))

    1149

  2. ((b))

    1159 

  3. ((c))

    1059 

  4. ((d))

    1049

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1149

Given:

Value added to 2712 to make it divisible by 9, 11 and 13.

Calculation:

To check the divisibility, first we have to check the LCM of 9, 11 and 13.

⇒ LCM = 9 x 11 x 13 = 1287 

Find the multiple of  LCM  more than 2712.

⇒ 1287 × (2) =  2574 ( it is not more than 2712)

⇒ 1287 × (3) = 3861( More than 2712)

Now Take difference = 3861 - 2712 = 1149 

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 1149

169

In a bag, there are 25 P, 50 P and 1 Re. coins in the ratio 2 ∶ 1 ∶ 3. If there are Rs. 100 in all, how many 25 P, 50 P and 1 Re. coins are there in the bag?

  1. ((a))

    50, 25, 75

  2. ((b))

    48, 24, 72

  3. ((c))

    40, 20, 60

  4. ((d))

    60, 30, 90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50, 25, 75

Given :

The  25 P, 50 P and 1 Re. coins in the ratio 2 ∶ 1 ∶ 3

Concept used :

Total Value = (25P ×  number of 25 Paise coins) + (50P ×  number of 50 Paise coins) + (100P ×  number of 1 Rupee coins) .

Calculation:

⇒ The ratio of 25-paise coins to 50-paise coins to 1-rupee coins is 2 : 1 : 3.

⇒ You have Rs.100 in total, and you convert it into paise, it becomes 10,000 paise.

Total Value = (25P × 2x) + (50P × x) + (100P ×  3x) = 50x + 50x + 300x = 400x

∴ 400x = 10,000

⇒ x = 25 

⇒ The number of 25 Paise coins is 2x = 2 × 25 = 50 coins.

⇒ The number of 50 Paise coins is x = 25 ×  1 = 25 coins.

⇒ The number of 1 Rupee coins is 3x = 3 ×  25 = 75 coins.

So, there are 50 coins of 25 Paise, 25 coins of 50 Paise, and 75 coins of 1 Rupee in the bag.

170

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?

130, 139, 155, 180, 216, ?

  1. ((a))

    265 

  2. ((b))

    290

  3. ((c))

    260

  4. ((d))

    296

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

265 

Given:

130, 139, 155, 180, 216,? 

Calculation:

Solving by taking the gap between numbers 

139 - 130 = 9 

155 .- 139 = 16 

180 - 155 = 25 

216 - 180 = 36 

The gap is the square of number starting from 3 and so on , next number will be 

x - 216  = 49 

x = 49 + 216  = 265

The correct answer is option 1 i.e.265.

171

Shyamji sold a commodity at a loss of 2%. If he has been able to sell it at a profit of 10% he would have fetched Rs. 12000 more than what he did. What was the cost price of the commodity?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2.5 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1.5 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 0.5 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 1 lakh

Given:

Shyamji sold a commodity at a loss of 2%.

If he had been able to sell it at a profit  of 10%, it would have fetched Rs.12000 more.

Concept used:

S.P = C.P × (100 + P%)/100 

S.P = C.P × (100 – L%)/100

Where,

S.P → Selling price 

C.P → Cost price 

P% → Profit%

L% → Loss% 

Calculations:

Let the cost price of a commodity be 100x 

Selling price of the commodity when it is sold at 2% loss = 100x × (100 – 2)/100 = 98x 

The selling  price of the commodity when it is sold at 10% gain = 100x × (100 + 10)/100 = 110x

According to the question,

⇒ 110x – 98x = 12000

⇒ 12x = 12000

⇒ x = 1000

The cost price of the  house  = 100x = 100 (1000)

⇒ 1,00,000

∴ The cost price of the house is Rs**.** 1 lakh

172

Find the value of the quantities-

(0.0009)0.5

  1. ((a))

    0.04

  2. ((b))

    0.03

  3. ((c))

    0.006

  4. ((d))

    0.002

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.03

Given:

(0.0009)0.5

Calculation:

⇒ (0.0009)1/2

⇒ 0.0009\sqrt{0.0009}

⇒ 0.03

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 0.03

173

A seller sells his goods at 20% profit. Had he bought it at 10% more and sold it for Rs. 140 more, he would have earned a profit of 25%. Find the cost price of the goods.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 600

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 900

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 800

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 800

Given:

Profit earned by the shopkeeper after selling the article = 20%

Had he bought it at 10% more  and sold it for Rs. 140  more, then he would have earned a profit of 25%

Formula used:

Selling Price = CP × (100 + P%)/100

Calculation:

Let the cost price be Rs. 100x

So, selling price at 20% profit =  120100×100x \dfrac{120}{100} \times 100x= 120x

According to the question,

New cost price 10% more  = 110100×100x \dfrac{110}{100} \times 100x = 110x

New selling price = 110x + 140

Profit = 25%

So, 125100×110x \dfrac{125}{100} \times 110x = 137.5x

137.5x - 110x = 140

27.5x = 140

x = Rs. 509

∴ Cost price of the article = Rs. 509

174

A train passes a man in 9 seconds and a platform 95 m long in 12 seconds. Find the speed of the train.

  1. ((a))

    116 km/hour

  2. ((b))

    114 km/hour

  3. ((c))

    108 km/hour

  4. ((d))

    112 km/hour

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

114 km/hour

GIven:

Length of Platform = 95 m 

Time taken to pass the Platform = 12 seconds.

Time taken to pass the Man =  9 seconds

Formula Used:

Speed=DistanceTimeSpeed = \dfrac{ Distance} {Time}

Calculation:

Now, let's 

The length of the train = L (unknown)

The speed of the train = V (what we're trying to find)

So, while passing the man, we have the equation:

⇒ V =L9\dfrac{ L} {9}

And when passing the platform, we have:

⇒  V = L+9512\dfrac{ L+95} {12}

Since the speed V is the same in both cases, we can set these two equations equal to each other:

L9=L+9512\dfrac{ L} {9} = \dfrac{L+95}{12}

⇒  12L = 9(L+95)

⇒  12L = 9L + 855 ⇒  3L = 855

 ⇒  L = 855 / 3 = 285 meters

So the length of the train is 285 meters.

Using this, we can now determine the speed of the train in km/hour :

⇒  V =L9\dfrac{ L} {9}  = 2859×185\dfrac{ 285} {9} \times \dfrac{18}{5}  

⇒ 114 km/hour

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 114 km/hour

175

The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. Four years ago, the ratio of their ages was 10 ∶ 3. What is the difference between the present ages of the man and his son?

  1. ((a))

    26 years

  2. ((b))

    24 years

  3. ((c))

    28 years

  4. ((d))

    30 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

28 years

Given:

The average age of a man and his son is 30 years.

Four years ago, the ratio of their ages was 10 ∶  3

Calculation:

Total Age of  man and his son = 30 × 2 = 60 years 

Ratio of their  Present ages are = 10x + 4 : 3x + 4

∴ 10x  + 4 + 3x + 4 = 60 

⇒ 13x +8 = 60 

⇒ 13x = 52 

⇒ x = 4

Present ages of a man and his son is:

⇒ 10 (4) + 4 = 44 years and  3(4) + 4 = 16 years 

Difference between the present ages of the man and his son :

⇒ 44 - 16 = 28 years 

The correct answer is option 3 i.e.28  years

176

छन्दों को पढ़ते समय बीच-बीच में कुछ रुकना पड़ता है। इन्हीं विराम स्थलों को _____ कहते हैं।

  1. ((a))

    मात्रा

  2. ((b))

    क्रम

  3. ((c))

    वर्ण

  4. ((d))

    यति

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

यति

छन्दों को पढ़ते समय बीच-बीच में कुछ रुकना पड़ता है। इन्हीं विराम स्थलों को यति कहते हैं।

Key Points

प्रकारपरिभाषा
यतिछंद में नियमित वर्ण पर साँस लेने के लिए रुकना पड़ता है। यति कहलाता है।
पद या चरणछंद के प्रत्‍येक पंक्ति को चरण या पद कहते हैं।
गतिछंद के पढ़ने के प्रवाह या लय को गति कहते हैं।
तुकछंद के चरणों के अंत में आने वाले समान वर्णों को तुक कहते हैं।

Additional Information 

छंद- अक्षर, अक्षरों, की संख्‍या एवं क्रम, मात्रा-गणना तथा यति, गति आदि से सम्‍बन्धित विशिष्‍ट नियमों से नियोजित पद्य रचना छंद कहलाती है।

छंद के मुख्‍यत: तीन भेद है। 

छंदपरिभाषा
मात्रिकजिन छंदों की योजना मात्राओं के आधार पर की जाती है, उसे मात्रिक छंद कहते हैं। जैसे- चौपाई, रोला, दोहा, सोरठा आदि।
वर्णिकवर्णों की गणना पर आधारित छंद वर्णिक छंद कहलाते हैं। जैसे- शालिनी, इन्‍द्रवज्रा, उपजाति, वंशस्‍थ आदि।
मुक्‍तकजिस छंद में मात्राओं तथा वर्णों की निश्चित संख्‍या को बन्‍धन न मानकर भावाभिव्‍यक्ति को ही प्रमुखता दी जाय, उसे मुक्‍तक छंद कहते हैं।
177

दिए गए वाक्य के लिए निम्न में से एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए

"जिसने बहुत कुछ सुन रखा हो"

  1. ((a))

    भग्नहृदय

  2. ((b))

    बहुश्रुत

  3. ((c))

    शूर्पणखा

  4. ((d))

    शत्रुघ्न

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बहुश्रुत

"जिसने बहुत कुछ सुन रखा हो" "हुश्रुत" कहलाता है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • बहुश्रुत- जिसने बहुत कुछ सुन रखा हो।

​अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
भग्नहृदयजिसका हृदय दुख के कारण टूट गया हो
शूर्पणखाएक प्रसिद्ध राक्षसी जो रावण की बहिन थी
शत्रुघ्नशत्रु को मारनेवाला

Important Points 

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
दुर्गमजहॉं पहुँचना कठिन हो।
अगमजहॉं पहुँचा न जा सके।
दुष्‍करजिसे करना बहुत कठिन हो।

Additional Information 

परिभाषा- कम से कम शब्‍दों में अधिकाधिक भावों एवं विचारों की अभिव्‍यक्ति का प्रयास करना ही अनेक शब्‍दों के लिए एक शब्‍द है। जैसे- जिसके हृदय में ममता न हो- निर्मम
178

निम्नलिखित में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द एकवचन है?

  1. ((a))

    होश, केश, समाचार

  2. ((b))

    दूध, जनता, पानी

  3. ((c))

    लोग, हस्ताक्षर, प्राण

  4. ((d))

    प्रजा, ऑसू, दर्शन

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

दूध, जनता, पानी

सही उत्तर दूध, जनता, पानी है। अन्य विकल्प सही उत्तर नहीं हैं।

Key Points

  • दूध, जनता, पानी शब्द एकवचन में प्रयुक्त होता है।
  • द्रव्य सूचक संज्ञाएँ एकवचन में प्रयुक्त होती हैं।
  • जैसे- दूध, दही, लस्सी, तेल, घी आदि।

अन्य विकल्प

  • होश, केश, समाचार, लोग, हस्ताक्षर, प्राण, ऑसू, दर्शन  बहुवचन के रूप में प्रयुक्त किये जाते हैं।
  • 'प्रजा' का बहुवचन शब्द 'प्रजाजन' होगा ।

Additional Information 

वचन- संज्ञा के जिस रूप से किसी व्यक्ति और वस्तु के एक या एक से अधिक होने का बोध होता है उसे वचन कहते हैं। जैसे-व्यक्ति-व्यक्तियों, वस्तु-वस्तुएं आदि। वचन दो प्रकार के होते है- 1. एकवचन और 2. बहुवचन।
एकवचनजिस शब्द से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति, पदार्थ आदि के एक होने का बोध हो उसे एकवचन कहते है।कमरा, घड़ी, कुत्ता आदि
बहुवचनजिस शब्द से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति, पदार्थ आदि के एक से अधिक होने का बोध हो उसे बहुवचन कहते है।कमरे, घड़ियाँ, कुत्ते आदि
179

निम्नलिखित में से "अल्पसंख्यक" का विलोम शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    नीरूजता

  2. ((b))

    बहुसंख्यक

  3. ((c))

    अत्यधिक

  4. ((d))

    अनैसर्गिक

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बहुसंख्यक

"अल्पसंख्यक" का सही व‍िलोम शब्‍द बहुसंख्‍यक है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • अल्पसंख्यक का अर्थ- कम जनसंख्या वाला (पक्ष)
  • बहुसंख्‍यक का अर्थ- गिनती में बहुत, अनेक, बहुत
  • अल्‍पसंख्‍यक का व‍िलोम बहुसंख्‍यक है।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दव‍िलोम
नीरूजतारुग्णता
अत्यधिकअत्यल्प
अनैसर्गिकनैसर्गिक

Important Pointsकुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
जड़चेतन
वक्‍ताश्रोता
उन्‍मूलनरोपण
आघातप्रतिघात
अनिवार्यऐच्छिक
आवृत्तअनावृत्त
विज्ञअ��्ञ
आलोकतिमिर
कृत्रिमप्राकृतिक

Additional Information 

विलोम शब्‍द- एक-दूसरे के विपरीत या उल्‍टा अर्थ देने वाले शब्‍द विलोम शब्‍द कहलाते हैं।उदाहरण-  अच्‍छा- बुरा लाभ- हानि
180

निम्नलिखित में से "उजाला" का विलोम शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    प्रधान

  2. ((b))

    उद्धत

  3. ((c))

    अँधियारा

  4. ((d))

    उपार्जित

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अँधियारा

उजाला का उचित विलोम शब्‍द "अँध‍ियारा" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • उजाला का अर्थ- प्रकाश
  • अँध‍ियारा का अर्थ- अंधेरा
  • अत: उजाला का व‍िलोम अँध‍ियारा है।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प-

शब्‍दव‍िलोम
प्रधानगौण
उद्धतशालीन
उपार्जितअनुपार्जित

Important Points कुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
जड़चेतन
वक्‍ताश्रोता
उन्‍मूलनरोपण
आघातप्रतिघात
अनिवार्यऐच्छिक
आवृत्तअनावृत्त
विज्ञअज्ञ
आलोकतिमिर
कृत्रिमप्राकृतिक

Additional Information 

विलोम शब्‍द- एक-दूसरे के विपरीत या उल्‍टा अर्थ देने वाले शब्‍द विलोम शब्‍द कहलाते हैं।उदाहरण-  अच्‍छा- बुरा लाभ- हानि
181

दिए गए वाक्य के लिए निम्न में से एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

"जो दूसरे के अधीन हो"

  1. ((a))

    प्रलंबबाहु

  2. ((b))

    प्राणदा

  3. ((c))

    शूर्पणखा

  4. ((d))

    पराधीन

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

पराधीन

जो दूसरे के अधीन हो "पराधीन" कहलाता है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • पराधीन- जो दूसरे के अधीन हो।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
प्रलंबबाहुजिसकी भुजाएँ लंबी हों
प्राणदाजीवन देने वाली दवा
शूर्पणखाएक प्रसिद्ध राक्षसी जो रावण की बहिन थी

Important Points  

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
दुर्गमजहॉं पहुँचना कठिन हो।
अगमजहॉं पहुँचा न जा सके।
दुष्‍करजिसे करना बहुत कठिन हो।

Additional Information 

परिभाषा- कम से कम शब्‍दों में अधिकाधिक भावों एवं विचारों की अभिव्‍यक्ति का प्रयास करना ही अनेक शब्‍दों के लिए एक शब्‍द है। जैसे- जिसके हृदय में ममता न हो- निर्मम
182

निम्नलिखित में से पूर्ण भूतकाल का सही उदाहरण कौन-सा है?

  1. ((a))

    अंशु इंजीनियर बन गई होती यदि पालिटेक्निक की परीक्षा पास हो जाती।

  2. ((b))

    जापान उस घटना को भूल चुका होगा।

  3. ((c))

    उस समय ताजमहल का निर्माण कार्य चल रहा था।

  4. ((d))

    अमरीका ने हिरोशिमा पर बम गिराया था।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

अमरीका ने हिरोशिमा पर बम गिराया था।

दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर अमरीका ने हिरोशिमा पर बम गिराया था। है। अन्य विकल्प इसके असंगत उत्तर हैं।

Key Points 

  • "अमरीका ने हिरोशिमा पर बम गिराया था।" पूर्ण भूतकाल का उदाहरण है।​
पूर्ण भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से यह ज्ञात हो कि कार्य पहले ही पूरा हो चुका है, उसे पूर्ण भूतकाल कहते हैं।उसने मोहन को मारा था।

अन्य विकल्प- 

  • अंशु इंजीनियर बन गई होती यदि पालिटेक्निक की परीक्षा पास हो जाती। - हेतुहेतुमद भूतकाल
  • जापान उस घटना को भूल चुका होगा। - संदिग्ध वर्तमान काल
  • उस समय ताजमहल का निर्माण कार्य चल रहा था। - अपूर्ण भूतकाल

Additional Information 

भूतकालजिस क्रिया से कार्य की समाप्ति का बोध हो, उसे भूतकाल की क्रिया कहते हैं। भूतकाल के छह भेद होते है-उदाहरण
सामान्य भूतकालजिससे भूतकाल की क्रिया के विशेष समय का ज्ञान न हो, उसे सामान्य भूतकाल कहते हैं।राधा गयी।
आसन्न भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि क्रिया अभी कुछ समय पहले ही पूर्ण हुई है, उसे आसन्न भूतकाल कहते हैं।मैंने आम खाया है।
अपूर्ण भूतकालजिस क्रिया से यह ज्ञात हो कि भूतकाल में कार्य सम्पन्न नहीं हुआ था, अभी चल रहा था, उसे अपूर्ण भूत कहते हैं।मोहन सो रहा था।
संदिग्ध भूतकालइसमें यह सन्देह बना रहता है कि भूतकाल में कार्य पूरा हुआ या नही।दुकानें बंद हो चुकी होंगी।
हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकालभूतकाल में एक क्रिया के होने या न होने पर दूसरी क्रिया का होना या न होना निर्भर करता है, तो वह हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल क्रिया कहलाती है।यदि वर्षा होती, तो फसल अच्छी होती।
183

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "कुत्ता भी दुम हिलाकर बैठता है" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. ((a))

    ठोकर खाने के बाद आदमी सावधान हो जाता है

  2. ((b))

    सफ़ाई सबको पसन्द होती है

  3. ((c))

    योग्यतानुसार कार्य न मिलना

  4. ((d))

    आजीवन किसी चीज़ से पिण्ड न छूटना

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

सफ़ाई सबको पसन्द होती है

'कुत्ता भी दुम हिलाकर बैठता है।' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है - सफ़ाई सबको पसन्द होती है

  • अर्थ: सफाई सबको पसन्द होती है।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - तुम्हारी कुर्सी पर कितनी धूल जमी है। कैसे आदमी हो तुम, "कुत्ता भी दुम हिलाकर बैठता है"।

Key Points 

  • जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है तो लोकोक्ति कहलाता है।
  • इसी को कहावत कहते है। लोकोक्ति वाक्यांश न होकर स्वतंत्र वाक्य होते हैं।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण लोकोक्ति, अर्थ और वाक्य प्रयोग:-

  • लालच बुरी बला- लालच से बहुत हानि होती है इसलिए हमें कभी लालच नहीं करना चाहिए

          वाक्य प्रयोग - सब जानते हैं कि "लालच बुरी बला है", फिर भी लालच में पड़ जाते हैं।

  • यह मुँह और मसूर की दाल - जब कोई अपनी हैसियत से अधिक पाने की इच्छा रखने वाला

          वाक्य प्रयोग - सोहन कहने लगा कि मैं तो सिल्क का सूट बनवाऊँगा। मैंने कहा - जरा आईना देख आओ - "यह मुँह और मसूर की दाल"।

  • सहज पके सो मीठा पकवान - जो काम धीरे - धीरे होता है वह संतोषप्रद और पक्का होता है।

          वाक्य प्रयोग - तुम हर काम में जल्दीबाजी क्यों करती हो? जल्दी का काम तो शैतान का होता है और काम बिगड़ जाता है। यह बात ध्यान रखो "सहज पके सो मीठा होय"।

  • नाम बड़े पर दर्शन छोटे - नाम बहुत हो परन्तु गुण कम या बिल्कुल नहीं हों

          वाक्य प्रयोग - लखपति बुआ ने विदा के समय भतीजों को बस एक-एक रुपया दिया। ये तो वही बात हुई - "नाम बड़ा और दर्शन छोटे"।

  • आँख के अन्धे गाँठ के पूरे - मूर्ख धनवान

           वाक्य प्रयोग - वकीलों की आमदनी के क्या कहने, उन्हें आँख के "अन्धे गाँठ के पूरे रोज ही मिल जाते हैं"।

  • उतर गई लोई तो क्या करेगा कोई - इज्जत जाने पर डर किसका?

          वाक्य प्रयोग - जब लोगों ने उसे बिरादरी से ख़ारिज कर दिया है अब वह खुलेआम आवारागर्दी कर रहा है- "उतर गई लोई तो क्या करेगा कोई"।

184

"राम कृपा भव-निसा सिरानी।" उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अलंकार है?

  1. ((a))

    विरोधाभास अलंकार

  2. ((b))

    श्लेष अलंकार

  3. ((c))

    रूपक अलंकार

  4. ((d))

    यमक अलंकार

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

रूपक अलंकार

  • राम कृपा भव-निसा सिरानी में रूपक अलंकार है।
  • इस पंक्ति में कवि यह कह रहे है कि संसार रूपी रात्रि भगवान की कृपा से व्यतीत हो रही है।
  • इस पंक्ति में रात्रि पर संसार का आरोप किया गया है, इसलिए यहाँ रुपक अलंकार है।
  • दूसरे शब्दों में यह कहा जा सकता है कि रात और संसार में कोई भेद नहीं होने के कारण दोनों एकाकार हो गयें है, इसे ही उपमेय पर उपमान का आरोप कहतें हैं।

Key Points

रूपक अलंकार की मुख्य परिभाषा -  

  • उपमेय पर उपमान का आरोप या उपमान और उपमेय का अभेद ही 'रूपक' है।
  • जब उपमेय पर उपमान का निषेध-रहित आरोप करते हैं, तब रूपक अलंकार होता है।
  • उपमेय में उपमान के आरोप का अर्थ है- दोनों में अभिन्नता या अभेद दिखाना। इस आरोप में निषेध नहीं होता है।
  • जैसे- यह जीवन क्या है ? निर्झर है।''
  • इस उदाहरण में जीवन को निर्झर के समान न बताकर जीवन को ही निर्झर कहा गया है। अतएव, यहाँ रूपक अलंकार हुआ।

Additional Information 

अलंकारपरिभाषाउदाहरण
विरोधाभास अलंकारजहाँ वास्तविक विरोध न होकर केवल विरोध का आभास हो, वहाँ विरोधाभास अलंकार होता है।या अनुरागी चित्त की, गति समुझै नहि कोय।
ज्यौं ज्यौं बूङै स्याम रंग, त्यौं त्यौं उजलो होय।।
श्लेष अलंकार​श्लेष का अर्थ होता है चिपका हुआ या मिला हुआ। जब किसी शब्द का प्रयोग एक बार ही किया जाता है पर उसके एक से अधिक अर्थ निकलते हैं, तब श्लेष अलंकार होता है।रहिमन पानी राखिये,बिन पानी सब सून।
पानी गये न ऊबरै, मोती मानुष चून।।
यमक अलंकारजब एक शब्द का प्रयोग दो बार होता है और दोनों बार उसके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं तब यमक अलंकार होता है।कनक कनक ते सौगुनी मादकता अधिकाय। वा खाये बौराय जग या पाये बौराय।।
185

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य अधिकरण कारक का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    ओ लड़को! खेलना बन्द करो।

  2. ((b))

    यह चार मीटर की साड़ी है।

  3. ((c))

    छोटी सी बात पर मत लड़ो।

  4. ((d))

    वह चार माह के लिए मुंबई जाएगा।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

छोटी सी बात पर मत लड़ो।

छोटी सी बात पर मत लड़ो। सही है।

Key Points 

  • 'छोटी सी बात पर मत लड़ो।' यह वाक्य ‘अधिकरण कारक’ का उदाहरण है।
  • अधिकरण का मतलब आश्रय होता है।
  • संज्ञा का वह स्वरूप जिसमें क्रिया कि आधार का बोध होता हो, उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।
  • अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण - 
  • विकल्प एक "ओ लड़को! खेलना बन्द करो।" में संबोधन कारक है।
  • विकल्प दो "यह चार मीटर की साड़ी है।" सम्बन्ध कारक।
  • विकल्प चार "वह चार माह के लिए मुंबई जाएगा।" में सम्प्रदान कारक है।

Additional Information 

  • वाक्य में प्रयुक्त संज्ञा या सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ क्रिया का सम्बन्ध कारक कहलाता है।

जैसे- 

  • राम ने डंडे से घोङे को पीटा।
  • मोहन दस दिन में दिल्ली जायेगा।

ये आठ प्रकार के होते हैं -

  • “कर्ता ने कर्म को, करण से।
  • संप्रदान को, के लिए, अपादान से मान।
  • का, के, की, संबंध हैं, अधिकरण में मान।
  • रे ! हे ! हो ! संबोधन, मित्र धरहु यह ध्यान।“
186

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द अंग्रेजी शब्द नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    वार्ड

  2. ((b))

    मुक़दमा

  3. ((c))

    स्वेटर

  4. ((d))

    मोटर

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

मुक़दमा

उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में से विकल्प "मुक़दमा" सही है तथा अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points 

  • मुक़दमा अरबी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • मुक़दमा - अदालत में पेश किया गया मामला।

Additional Information

अन्य विकल्प - 

  • वार्ड, स्वेटर, मोटर - सभी शब्द अंग्रेजी भाषा के हैं।
187

निम्नलिखित में से असंगत/बेमेल शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    भिक्षुक

  2. ((b))

    याचक

  3. ((c))

    भुजाग्र

  4. ((d))

    भिखारी

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

भुजाग्र

"भुजाग्र" असंगत/बेमेल शब्द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • भ‍िक्षुक शब्‍द के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची- याचक, भिखारी, भिक्षु, दरवेश, फ़कीर, भिखमंगा, साधु आद‍ि।

Important Points कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:- 

  • अतिथि- मेहमान, अभ्यागत, आगन्तुक, पाहूना।
  • इंदु- चाँद, चंद्रमा, चंदा, शशि, राकेश, मयंक, महताब।
  • उत्कृष्ट- उत्तम, उन्नत, श्रेष्ठ, अच्छा, बढ़िया, उम्दा।
  • ओझल- अदृश्य, अंतर्धान, तिरोहित, लुप्त, गायब, विलुप्त।
  • कुबेर- कित्ररेश, यक्षराज, धनद, धनाधिप, राजराज।
  • खादिम- नौकर, चाकर, भृत्य, अनुचर।
  • गहन- अभेद्य, दुर्गम, घना, निविड़, सघन, गंभीर, गहरा।

Additional Information 

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा दूध- अमृत, क्षीर, गोरस
188

निम्नलिखित में से तत्सम शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    मिठाई

  2. ((b))

    नीबू

  3. ((c))

    निर्झर

  4. ((d))

    जुआरी

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

निर्झर

उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में निर्झर तत्सम शब्द है। 

ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के लिए जाते हैं, उन्हें ही तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं।

  • निर्झर शब्द में विकृत आने से झरना शब्द बना है।
  • निर्झर शब्द तत्सम है वहीं झरना शब्द तद्भव है। ​

Key Points अन्य विकल्प - 

तत्समतद्भव
मिष्टिमिठाई
निम्बुकनीबू

Important Points कुछ अन्य महत्त्वपूर्ण तत्सम व तद्भव शब्दों के उदाहरण -

तत्समतद्भव
उच्छवासउसास
कृपाकिरपा
घृतघी
स्वसुरससुर
पक्कपका
नवनौ
कुक्षीकोख
यज्ञोपवीतजनेऊ
वाष्पभाप
पृष्ठपीठ

Additional Information 

  • ऐसे शब्द जो समय के साथ संस्कृत से विकृत हो कर हिंदी में प्रयोग किये जाते हैं उन्हें ही तद्भव शब्द कहते हैं।
  • तद्भव का अर्थ है तद् + भव अर्थात ‘ऐसा हो गया’। 
  • जैसे - आग, घोड़ा, कबूतर, लोहा।
  • ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के लिए जाते हैं, उन्हें ही तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं।
  • तत्सम का अर्थ है तत् + सम अर्थात ‘ऐसा था’। 
  • जैसे - वायु, धोनु, हरि, पत्र, राजा, अग्नि, सूर्य आदि।
189

निम्नलिखित में से "अपयश" का विलोम शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    सुयश

  2. ((b))

    अँधियारा

  3. ((c))

    स्वयंप्राप्त

  4. ((d))

    डूबना

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सुयश

अपयश का उचित विलोम शब्द 'सुयश' होता है।

  • जो शब्द एक दूसरे का उल्टा अर्थ देते हैं उन्हें विलोम शब्द कहते हैं।
  • अपयश का अर्थ बदनामी होता है तथा यश का अर्थ प्रसिद्धि होता है।

Key Points

  • अँधियारा का अर्थ - अंधेरा।
  • स्वयंप्राप्त का अर्थ - स्वयं के प्रयत्न से प्राप्त किया हुआ।
  • डूबना का अर्थ - जल में समाना।

Additional Information  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

शब्दविलोम शब्द
आकाशपाताल
सुमितदुर्मति
विरहमिलन
एकताअनेकता
190

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "झोपड़ी में रह, महलों का ख्वाब देखें" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. ((a))

    योग्यतानुसार कार्य न मिलना

  2. ((b))

    बचपन से ही अच्छे लक्षणों का दिखाई देना

  3. ((c))

    सामर्थ्य से बढ़कर चाह रखना

  4. ((d))

    खिसियाहट में क्रोधवश लोग अटपटा कार्य करते हैं

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सामर्थ्य से बढ़कर चाह रखना

  • लोकोक्ति-  'झोपड़ी में रह, महलों का ख्वाब देखें'
  • अर्थ - अपनी सीमा से अधिक पाने की इच्छा करना
  • वाक्य प्रयोग – सीमा देखने में तो बिल्कुल सुंदर नहीं है लेकिन उसने मिस इंडिया प्रतियोगिता में अपना नामांकन करवाया है इसे कहते हैं झोपड़ी में रहकर महलों के सपने देखें।

Key Points 

  • लोकोक्ति- जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है तो लोकोक्ति कहलाता है।
  • इसी को कहावत कहते है।

उदाहरण-

< >लोकोक्ति< >अर्थ< >वाक्य प्रयोग
< >अपना रख पराया चख< >निजी वस्तु की रक्षा एवं अन्य वस्तु का उपभोग।< > अपना रख पराया चख अब तो संजय की प्रकृति हो गई है।
< >ऐरा-गैरा नत्थू खैरा< >मामूली आदमी।< >कोई 'ऐरा-गैरा नत्थू खैरा' महेश के ऑंफिस के अन्दर नहीं जा सकता।
< >करे कोई, भरे कोई< >अपराध कोई करे, दण्ड किसी और को मिले।< >चोरी रामू ने की और पकड़ा गया राजू। इसी को कहते हैं- 'करे कोई, भरे कोई'।
< >घर का भेदी लंका ढाए< >आपस की फूट से हानि होती है।< >तस्करी के सोने पर तीनों दोस्तों में झगड़ा हो गया। एक ने पुलिस को खबर दे दी और पुलिस सारे सोने समेत तीनों को पकड़ कर ले गई। सच है, घर का भेदी लंका ढाए।
191

संज्ञा के जिस रूप से किसी को पुकारने, चेतावनी देने या संबोधित करने का बोध हो, ____ कहते हैं।

  1. ((a))

    अपादान कारक

  2. ((b))

    सम्बन्ध कारक

  3. ((c))

    सम्बोधन कारक

  4. ((d))

    अधिकरण कारक

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सम्बोधन कारक

संज्ञा के रूप से किसी को पुकारने का बोध होता है - 'संबोधन - कारक'

  • संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जिससे किसी को बुलाने, पुकारने या बोलने का बोध होता है, तो वह सम्बोधन कारक कहलाता है।
  • सम्बोधन कारक के अरे, हे, अजी आदि विभक्ति चिन्ह होता हैं।

उदाहरण -

  • हे ईश्वर! मेरे साथ ही ऐसा क्यों होता है।
  • अरे ! तुम इतनी जल्दी कैसे आये।

Key Points  हिन्दी में ’आठ कारक’ होते हैं -

कारकविभक्तियाँ
कर्ताने
कर्मको
करणसे, द्वारा
सम्प्रदानको, के लिये, हेतु
अपादानसे (अलग होने के अर्थ में)
सम्बन्धका, की, के, रा, री, रे
अधिकरणमें, पर
सम्बोधनहे! अरे! ऐ! ओ! हाय!

Additional Information 

संबंध कारक:- - संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं। उदाहरण- - यह मानव का घर है। - यह सुनील की किताब है। संप्रदान कारक:- - सम्प्रदान का अर्थ ‘देना’ होता है। - जब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है। - सम्प्रदान कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह के लिए या को हैं। उदाहरण- - विकास तुषार को किताबें देता है। - नरेश मीना के लिए फल लाया है। अपादान कारक:- - अपादान का अर्थ है- अलग होना। - जिस संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम से किसी वस्तु का अलग होना ज्ञात हो, उसे अपादान कारक कहते हैं। - अपादान कारक का चिन्ह भी ’से’ (अलगाव) के भाव में है। उदाहरण- - हिमालय से गंगा निकलती है। - चूहा बिल से बाहर आया।
192

निम्नलिखित में से किस मुहावरे का अर्थ "नियंत्रण कम करना/सँभालकर काम न करना" है?

  1. ((a))

    जी का जंजाल होना

  2. ((b))

    उलटे छुरे से मूंड़ना

  3. ((c))

    डोरी ढीली करना

  4. ((d))

    मुँह में लगाम न होना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

डोरी ढीली करना

"डोरी ढीली करना" मुहावरे का अर्थ "नियंत्रण कम करना/सँभालकर काम न करना" है। 

Key Points 

मुहावराअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
डोरी ढीली करनानियंत्रण कम करना/सँभालकर काम न करनापिताजी ने जरा-सी डोरी ढीली छोड़ दी तो पिंटू ने पढ़ना ही छोड़ दिया।

Important Points अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

मुहावरेंअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
जी का जंजाल होनाव्यर्थ की परेशानीसमाज सेवा तो अब मेरे जी का जंजाल बन गया है।
उलटे छुरे से मूंड़नाकिसी को मूर्ख बनाकर उससे धन ऐंठना या अपना काम निकालना।हरिद्वार जैसे तीर्थ-स्थलों में पण्डे और रिक्शा वाले गरीब ग्रामीणों को उल्टे छुरे से मूँड़ देते हैं।
मुँह में लगाम न होनाजो मुँह में आवे सो कह देनामानसी के मुँह में तो कोई बात नहीं रहती है, जो भी मुँह में आता है बोल देती है।  

Additional Information  

मुहावराउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'अभ्‍यास' है। मुहावरा शब्‍द अरबी भाषा का शब्‍द है। हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्‍यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है। जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्‍यक्‍त करते हैं।अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाना-अर्थ- सबसे पृथक् काम करना।
वाक्य प्रयोग-वह अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाता है
193

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    नहाना

  2. ((b))

    मारना

  3. ((c))

    खेलना

  4. ((d))

    पढ़वाना

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

पढ़वाना

दिए गए विकल्पों में से  "पढ़वाना" क्रिया प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया है। 

Key Points 

  • मुल क्रिया - पढ़ना
  • प्रथम प्रेरणार्थक - पढ़ाना
  • द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक - पढ़वाना

प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया:

  • जब कर्ता खुद कार्य न करके किसी और से कार्य करवा रहा है या किसी और को कार्य करने की प्रेरणा दे रहा हो तो उसे प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया कहते हैं।

उदाहरण:- 

  • करवाना, कटवाना, पिलवाना, पढवाना, लिखवाना, सुनाना, बोलवाना, पिलवाता, पिलवाती, बुलवाना, सुलवाना तथा अन्य व्स्तुएं।
  • मालिक नौकर से कार साफ करवाता है।
  • अध्यापक बच्चे से पाठ पढवाते है।
  • मैंने राधा से पत्र लिखवाया।

Additional Information प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया के दो रूप हैं -

(1) प्रथम प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया

  • माँ परिवार के लिए भोजन बनाती है।
  • जोकर सर्कस में खेल दिखाता है।
  • रानी अनिमेष को खाना खिलाती है।
  • नौकरानी बच्चे को झूला झुलाती है।

इन वाक्यों में कर्ता प्रेरक बनकर प्रेरणा दे रहा है। अतः ये प्रथम प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया के उदाहरण हैं।

सभी प्रेरणार्थक क्रियाएँ सकर्मक होती हैं।

(2)द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया:

  • माँ पुत्री से भोजन बनवाती है।
  • जोकर सर्कस में हाथी से करतब करवाता है।
  • रानी राधा से अनिमेष को खाना खिलवाती है।
  • माँ नौकरानी से बच्चे को झूला झुलवाती है।

इन वाक्यों में कर्ता स्वयं कार्य न करके किसी दूसरे को कार्य करने की प्रेरणा दे रहा है और दूसरे से कार्य करवा रहा है। अतः यहाँ द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया है।

194

निम्नलिखित में से असंगत/बेमेल शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    ओझल

  2. ((b))

    साक्षात

  3. ((c))

    अदृश्य

  4. ((d))

    तिरोहित

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

साक्षात

"साक्षात" असंगत/बेमेल शब्द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Key Points

  • साक्षात शब्‍द के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची- सीधे, प्रत्यक्ष, प्रकट, स्पष्ट, मूर्तिमान आद‍ि।

Important Points कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

  • अतिथि- मेहमान, अभ्यागत, आगन्तुक, पाहूना।
  • इंदु- चाँद, चंद्रमा, चंदा, शशि, राकेश, मयंक, महताब।
  • उत्कृष्ट- उत्तम, उन्नत, श्रेष्ठ, अच्छा, बढ़िया, उम्दा।
  • ओझल- अदृश्य, अंतर्धान, तिरोहित, लुप्त, गायब, विलुप्त।
  • कुबेर- कित्ररेश, यक्षराज, धनद, धनाधिप, राजराज।
  • खादिम- नौकर, चाकर, भृत्य, अनुचर।
  • गहन- अभेद्य, दुर्गम, घना, निविड़, सघन, गंभीर, गहरा।

Additional Information

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा दूध- अमृत, क्षीर, गोरस
195

हिन्दी साहित्य में छंद शास्त्र की दृष्टि से पहली कृति कौन-सी है?

  1. ((a))

    छन्दानाभ

  2. ((b))

    छन्दमाला

  3. ((c))

    छन्दावकाश

  4. ((d))

    छन्दाभिलाष

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

छन्दमाला

हिन्दी साहित्य में छंद शास्त्र की   दष्टि   से पहली कृति छन्दमाला है। 

Key Pointsछन्दमाला-

  • रचनाकार- केशवदास
  • मुख्य-
  • 'छन्दमाला' पिगलशास्त्र का ग्रंथ है और इसमें दो खण्ड हैं।
  • पहले खण्ड में वर्णवृत्तों का विचार किया गया है और दूसरे मात्रावृतों का।
  • पहला खण्ड महादेव की स्तुति से तथा दूसरा गणेश और पिंगलाचार्य की स्तुति से आरम्भ होता है।
  • इसमें लक्षण लक्ष्य सहित छन्दों की संख्या 157 है।
  • मात्रिक की अपेक्षा वर्णिक वृतों के विवेचन की ओर अधिक दृष्टि रही है। इ
  • सका आधार संस्कृत के 'वृत्तरत्नाकर' आदि पिंगल ग्रंथ ही हैं।
  • इसमें कोई नवीनता नहीं है।

Important Pointsकेशवदास-

  • जन्म- 1555-1617 ई.
  • रीतिकाल की रीतिबद्ध शाखा के प्रमुख कवि है।
  • यह निम्बार्क सम्प्रदाय में दीक्षित थे।
  • उपनाम- वेदांती मिश्र।
  • ये इंद्रजीत सिंह के दरबारी कवि थे,'कविप्रिया' ग्रन्थ की रचना इंद्रजीत सिंह की प्रेमिका गणिका प्रवीण राय को शिक्षा देने के लिए की गयी थी।
  • रचनाएँ-
  • रसिकप्रिया(1591 ई.)
  • कविप्रिया(1601 ई.)
  • रामचंद्रिका(1601 ई.)
  • रतनबावनी(1607 ई.)
  • विज्ञान गीता(1610 ई.) आदि।
  • रामचन्द्र शुक्ल-
  • ​"केशवदास जी संस्कृत के पंडित थे अतः शास्त्रीय पद्धति से साहित्यचर्चा का प्रचार भाषा मे पूर्ण रूप से करने की इच्छा उनके लिए स्वभाविक थी।"

Additional Information

  • इसके अतिरिक्त हिन्दी साहित्य में छन्दानाभ, छन्दावकाश तथा छन्दाभिलाष नाम से कोई कृति नहीं है।
196

निम्नलिखित में से योगरूढ़ शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    नाक

  2. ((b))

    नीलकण्ठ

  3. ((c))

    कलम

  4. ((d))

    रेलगाड़ी

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

नीलकण्ठ

दिये गए विकल्पों सही उत्तर नीलकण्ठ हैं।

Key Points 

  • योगरूढ़ शब्द:- जो शब्द अन्य शब्दों के योग से बनते हो, परन्तु एक विशेष अर्थ के लिए प्रसिद्ध होते है, उन्हें योगरूढ़ शब्द कहते है।
  • जैसे:- सेनापति = सेना + पति = सेना का नेतृत्व करने वाला   
  • ​​ लम्बोदर (लम्ब + उदर) अर्थात बड़े पेट वाला = गणेश, दशानन (दश + आनन) अर्थात दस मुखों वाल = रावण, पंकज (पंक + ज) अर्थात कीचड़ में उत्पन्न = कमल आदि।

अन्य विकल्प:- 

  • नाक यह रूढ़ शब्द है।
  • कलम यह रूढ़ शब्द है।
  • रेलगाड़ी यह यौगिक शब्द है।

Additional Information 

रचना के आधार पर शब्दों के तीन भेद माने गए हैं -

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
रूढ़ शब्दजो शब्द हमेशा किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करते हो तथा जिनके खण्डों का कोई अर्थ न निकले, उन्हें 'रूढ़' कहते है। इन शब्दों का निर्माण अन्य शब्दों के मेल या संयोग से नहीं होता।'नाक' शब्द  में 'ना' और 'क' का कोई अर्थ नहीं निकल रहा है।
यौगिक शब्दजो शब्द अन्य शब्दों के योग से बने हो तथा जिनके प्रत्येक खण्ड का कोई अर्थ हो, उन्हें यौगिक शब्द कहते है। यह मेल प्रत्यय, उपसर्ग तथा अन्य रूढ़ शब्दों का होता है।डाकघर, पीला - पन, देशवासी आदि।
योगरूढ़ शब्दजो शब्द अन्य शब्दों के योग से बनते हो, परन्तु एक विशेष अर्थ के लिए प्रसिद्ध होते है, उन्हें योगरूढ़ शब्द कहते है। इन शब्दों के सांकेतिक अर्थ होते हैं।पंकज, जलज, लम्बोदर आदि।
197

खटखट से खटखटना, थपथप से थपथपाना, भनभन से भनभनाना। आदि निम्न में से किस क्रिया के उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    संयुक्त क्रिया

  2. ((b))

    अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया

  3. ((c))

    द्विकर्मक क्रिया

  4. ((d))

    पूर्वकालिक क्रिया

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया

सही विकल्प है - अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया।

  • खटखटाना, थपथपाना और भनभनाना शब्दों में अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया का प्रयोग किया गया है।
  • जो धातुएँ किसी ध्वनि के अनुकरण पर बनाई जाती है, उसे अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया कहते है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प -

पूर्वकालिक क्रियामुख्य क्रिया से पहले होने वाली क्रिया को पूर्वकालिक क्रिया कहते हैं। जैसे - पंकज पढ़कर सो गया।
द्विकर्मक क्रियाजिस क्रिया के उपयोग से दो कामों के पूरे होने का पता चलता है उसे द्विकर्मक क्रिया कहते हैं। जैसे :-शिक्षक ने बच्चो को पुस्तक दी।
संयुक्त क्रियाजिन वाक्यों की एक से अधिक क्रियाएँ मिलकर एक ही कार्य पूर्ण करती हैं, उन्हें संयुक्त क्रिया कहते हैं। जैसे- माता जी बाजार से आ गई।
198

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा लोकोक्ति का प्रचलित/सही रूप है?

  1. ((a))

    अंधा बाँटे केवड़ी फिर-फिर दुर्जनों को दे

  2. ((b))

    अंधा बाँटे रेवड़ी फिर-फिरी सपनों को दे

  3. ((c))

    अंधा बाँटे सेवड़ी फिर-फिर निर्जनों को दे

  4. ((d))

    अंधा बाँटे रेवड़ी फिर-फिर अपनों को दे

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

अंधा बाँटे रेवड़ी फिर-फिर अपनों को दे

"अंधा बाँटे रेवड़ी फिर-फिर अपनों को दे" लोकोक्ति का प्रचलित/सही रूप है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
अंधा बाँटे रेवड़ी फिर-फिर अपनों को देअपनों का फायदा करनामंत्री बनने के बाद रवि ने अपने ही लोगों को नौकरियों पर रखना शुरू कर दिया यह तो वही कहावत हो गई ';अंधा बांटे रेवड़ी फिर फिर अपने को दे।'

Important Points  कुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण लोकोक्ति- 

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आठ कनौजिये नौ चूल्हे।अलगाव की स्थिति।पूँजीवादी व्यवस्था में समाज इतना स्वार्थी हो गया है कि आठ कनौजिये नौ चूल्हे वाली स्थिति दिखाई देती है।
उद्योगिन्न पुरुषसिंहनुपैति लक्ष्मी।उद्योगी को ही धन मिलता है।सच कहा है किसी ने उद्योगिन्न पुरुषसिंहनुपैति लक्ष्मी अर्थात कर्मयोगी को ही सफलता मिलती है।
ऊधो का लेना न माधो का देना।केवल अपने काम से काम रखना।प्रोफेसर साहब तो बस अध्ययन और अध्यापन में लगे रहते हैं। गुटबन्दी से उन्हें कोई लेना-देना नहीं- ऊधो का लेना न माधो का देना।
एकै साधे सब सधे, सब साधे सब जाय।किसी कार्य को संपन्न कराने के लिए किसी एक समर्थ व्यक्ति का सहारा लेना अच्छा है बजाए अनेक लोगों के पीछे भागने के।अगर प्रमोशन चाहिए तो मंत्रीजी को पकड़ लो, इन अधिकारियों के पीछे भागने से कोई लाभ नहीं। किसी ने ठीक कहा है एकै साधे सब सधे, सब साधे सब जाय'।

Additional Information 

परिभाषाउदाहरण
लोकोक्ति'लोकोक्ति' शब्द 'लोक + उक्ति' शब्दों से मिलकर बना है जिसका अर्थ है- लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति या कथन'। संस्कृत में 'लोकोक्ति' अलंकार का एक भेद भी है तथा सामान्य अर्थ में लोकोक्ति को 'कहावत' कहा जाता है।अंधा सिपाही कानी घोड़ी, विधि ने खूब मिलाई जोड़ी: जहां दो व्यक्ति हों और दोनों ही एक समान मूर्ख, दुष्ट या अवगुणी हों वहां ऐसा कहते हैं।
199

"पी तुम्हारी मुख बास तरंग

आज बौरे भौरे सहकार।

बौर-भौंर के प्रसंग में मस्त होना

आम के प्रसंग में-मंजरी निकलना"

उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अलंकार है?

  1. ((a))

    यमक अलंकार

  2. ((b))

    रूपक अलंकार

  3. ((c))

    विरोधाभास अलंकार

  4. ((d))

    श्लेष अलंकार

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

श्लेष अलंकार

"पी तुम्हारी मुख बास तरंग

आज बौरे भौरे सहकार।

बौर-भौंर के प्रसंग में मस्त होना

आम के प्रसंग में-मंजरी निकलना"

में अलंकार है - 'श्लेष'

  • (यहाँ 'भौरे' शब्द से दो अर्थ निकल रहे हैं। पहला अर्थ 'भौरे' के लिए मस्त होना प्रतीत हुआ है।
  • दूसरा अर्थ आम के प्रसंग में प्रतीत हुआ है यहां आम के मंजरी निकलना बताया गया है।)

Key Pointsश्लेष:-

  • श्लेष का अर्थ होता है चिपका हुआ या मिला हुआ।
  • जब एक ही शब्द से हमें विभिन्न अर्थ मिलते हों तो उस समय श्लेष अलंकार होता है।

उदाहरण -

  • रावण सर सरोज बनचारी। चलि रघुवीर सिलीमुख।
  • (यहाँ पर सिलीमुख शब्द के दो अर्थ निकल रहे हैं। इस शब्द का पहला अर्थ बाण से एवं दूसरा अर्थ भ्रमर से है।)

Important Points 

विरोधाभास अलंकार:- - जब किसी वस्तु का वर्णन करने पर विरोध नहीं होने पर भी विरोध का आभास होता है, वहाँ पर 'विरोधाभास अलंकार' होता है। उदाहरण - - ज्यों-ज्यों बूडै़ स्याम रंग त्यों-त्यों उज्जवल होय।। रूपक:- - जब एक वस्तु पर दूसरी वस्तु का आरोप किया जाये अर्थात् जब एक वस्तु को दूसरी वस्तु का रूप दिया जाये तो रूपक अलंकार कहलाता है। उदाहरण - - पायो जी मैंने राम रतन धन पायो। - (यहाँ पर राम रतन को ही धन बता दिया गया है।) यमक:- - जब एक ही शब्द ज्यादा बार प्रयोग हो पर हर बार अर्थ अलग-अलग आये वहाँ पर यमक अलंकार होता है। उदाहरण - - काली घटा का घमंड घटा। - (यहाँ ‘घटा’ शब्द का दो बार प्रयोग हुआ है। - पहली बार ‘घटा’ शब्द का प्रयोग बादलों के काले रंग की ओर संकेत कर रहा है। - दूसरी बार ‘घटा’ शब्द बादलों के कम होने का वर्णन कर रहा है।)
200

निम्नलिखित में से तात्कालिक वर्तमानकाल का सही उदाहरण कौन-सा है?

  1. ((a))

    शान गीत गा रहा है।

  2. ((b))

    वह कार्यालय गया।

  3. ((c))

    हिमालय में वर्षा होती होगी/हो रही होगी।

  4. ((d))

    यह बस स्कूल जाती है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

शान गीत गा रहा है।

सही उत्तर ‘शान गीत गा रहा है।’ है। 

Key Points 

  • शान गीत गा रहा है।’- इस वाक्य में अपूर्णता की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो रही है,
  • इसलिए यहाँ ‘तात्कालिक वर्तमानकाल’ उचित उत्तर है।
तात्कालिक वर्तमानकालइसके अंतर्गत यह ज्ञात होता है कि क्रिया हो रही है। इसकी पूर्णता का ज्ञान नहीं होता। इसे अपूर्ण वर्तमान भी कहते हैं।वह घर जा रहा है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प- 

वह कार्यालय गया।सामान्य भूतकाल
हिमालय में वर्षा होती होगी/हो रही होगी।संदिग्ध वर्तमान काल
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