Official Paper

MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 21 Mar, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Test (200 questions)

1

In which of the following year did the INVEST Portal become operational?

  1. ((a))

    2010

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2012

  4. ((d))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2018

The Correct answer is 2018

Key Points

  • MPIDC (MP Industrial Development Corporation Limited) is the Single Window Secretariat for Investment Promotion and Facilitation in the state.
  • MPIDC has launched an Integrated New Venture Establishment Portal (INVEST), which is the Single Window Portal for the state.
  • INVEST is acting as a one-stop solution for any investor wanting to establish & operate a business in the state.
  • INVEST portal will provide investors with a hassle-free experience with no physical touch point at the department level. It will act as a one-stop solution for any investor willing to set up a business in the State.
  • Now investors would not be required to visit different state department portals, rather they can avail of various services/approvals required for setting up their business through INVEST Portal.

Features of INVEST

  • Real time tracking
  • Single Interface for all approvals
  • Investment Wizard
  • Trade & Investment Facilitation
2

The rupee was ________ relative to other currencies in 1991 as a quick fix to the balance of payment crisis.

  1. ((a))

    Devalued

  2. ((b))

    Revalued

  3. ((c))

    Invested

  4. ((d))

    Appreciated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Devalued

The correct answer is Devalued

Key Points Economic Reform of 1991

  • India experienced a severe financial crisis in 1991. A critical Balance of Payments issue started the crisis. The crisis was used as a wonderful chance to overhaul the economy of the nation, its structure, and to implement significant reforms in economic policy.
  • Stabilization measures and structural changes were implemented by the administration. The former was intended to reduce rigidities in the various Indian economic sectors, whereas the latter was intended to address vulnerabilities that had surfaced on the fiscal and BoP fronts.
  • P V Narasimha Rao was India's Prime Minister at the time the New Economic Policy (NEP) was unveiled, and Dr. Manmohan Singh was the Finance Minister.

Important Points

Monetary Measurements

In 1991, the rupee's value devalued. The currency rate was the subject of the new government's first significant move.

  • Devaluation of the rupee: On July 1, 1991, the government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) began a two-step devaluation of the rupee. The first devaluation was around 9% versus major currencies, and the second was about 11% two days later.
  • Over 47 tonnes of gold were sent by the Reserve Bank of India to the Bank of England. It served as collateral for India's request for loans from Japan and England for foreign exchange.
  • In order to obtain foreign money, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) simultaneously sold about 20 tonnes of gold to a Swiss bank. Nevertheless, there was a catch—the gold had to be bought back after six months.
  • The government used a variety of financial techniques to reduce the imports. This reduced some of the burden from currency fluctuations.

Hence, it can be concluded that the correct answer is option 1.

3

Which of the following layers of atmosphere is home to auroras?

  1. ((a))

    The Stratosphere

  2. ((b))

    The Ionosphere

  3. ((c))

    The Exosphere

  4. ((d))

    The Mesosphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Ionosphere

The correct answer is The Ionosphere

The atmosphere around the earth:

  • The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying densities and temperatures.
  • The column of the atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending upon the temperature condition.
  • They are troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere.

Key Points 

The Ionosphere

  • It is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause.
  • It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is also known as the ionosphere.
  • Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
  • This layer helps in the transmission of radio waves.
  • The temperature here starts increasing with height.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

The troposphere

  • It is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere.
  • Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
  • The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
  • This layer contains dust particles and water vapor.
  • All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer.
  • The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 m of height.
  • This is the most important layer for all biological activity.

The stratosphere

  • It is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km.
  • One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer.
  • This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation and shields life on the earth from an intense, harmful form of energy.

The mesosphere

  • It lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km.
  • In this layer, once again, the temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at a height of 80 km.
  • The upper limit of the mesosphere is known as menopause.

The exosphere

  • It is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.
  • This is the highest layer but very little is known about it.
  • Whatever contents are there, these are extremely rarefied in this layer, and it gradually merges with outer space.

4

Which ancient Mahajanapada had its capital at Taxila?

  1. ((a))

    Anga

  2. ((b))

    Kasi

  3. ((c))

    Magadha

  4. ((d))

    Gandhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gandhar

| Mahajanapadas | Capital | | --- | --- | | Kosala | Shravasti | | Kuru | Indraprastha/Hastinapur | | Vajji | Vaishali | | Gandhara | Taxila |MahajanapadasCapitalKosalaShravastiKuruIndraprastha/HastinapurVajjiVaishaliGandharaTaxila
MahajanapadasCapital
KosalaShravasti
KuruIndraprastha/Hastinapur
VajjiVaishali
GandharaTaxila
5

How many Maharatna companies are there in India?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

13

The correct answer is 13

Key Points

  • As of 2023, 13 Maharatna Companies in India.
  • In 2009, Government established the Maharatna status, which rises the company,s investment ceiling from 1,000 crores to 5,000 crores.
  • The Maharatna firms would now be free to decide on investments up to 15 percent of their net worth in a project.​
  • A new addition in 2023 is Oil India Limited.

Additional Information

  • List of Maharatna Companies
  • | Founding Year | Company Name | | --- | --- | | 1964 | Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) | | 1952 | Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) | | 1975 | Coal India Limited (CIL) | | 1984 | Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) | | 1974 | Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) | | 1959 | Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) | | 1975 | National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) | | 1956 | Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) | | 1989 | Power Grid Corporation of India | | 1954 | Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) | | 1986 | Power Finance Corporation | | 1959 | Oil India Limited |
6

Which of the following is not a fixed capital?

  1. ((a))

    Computer

  2. ((b))

    Turbine

  3. ((c))

    Money

  4. ((d))

    Building

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Money

Correct answer is Money 

Key Points

  • Fixed capital includes the assets and capital investments – such as property, plant, and equipment – that are needed to conduct business, even at a minimal stage.
  • Money is not included in fixed capital.
7

How many Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are there in Maharashtra?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3

The correct answer is 3

Key Points

  • A particularly vulnerable tribal group or PVTG  in the context of India, is a sub-classification of a Scheduled Tribe or section of a Scheduled Tribe, that is considered more vulnerable than a regular Scheduled Tribe.
  • The PVTG list was created by the Indian Government with the purpose of better improving the living standards of endangered tribal groups based on priority.PVTGs reside in 18 States and one union territory.
  • There are 3 Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are there in Maharashtra
  • Katharina /kathod
  • Kolam
  • Maria Gond
8

Which of the following is known as the “Satpura Ki Rani”? 

  1. ((a))

    Pachmarhi

  2. ((b))

    Mandu

  3. ((c))

    Sidhi

  4. ((d))

    Orchha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pachmarhi

The correct answer is Pachmari

Pachmarhi is widely known as Satpura ki Rani (“Queen of Satpura”), situated at a height of 1100 m in a valley of the Satpura Range in Hoshangabad district.

Key Points 

  • Pachmarhi is a hill station in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh state.
  • The name Pachmarhi is believed to be derived from the Hindi words Panch ("five") and Marhi ("caves").
  • These caves were built by five Pandava brothers of the Mahabharatha era during their thirteen years of exile.
  • The caves are situated on a hilltop and provide an excellent vantage point.
  • Before the British, the Pachmarhi region came under the kingdom of the Gond king Bhawut Singh, although it was not a populated village or town at that time.
  • Captain James Forsyth of the British Army along with Subhedar Major Nathoo Ramji Powar who was later made the Kotwal of Pachmarhi, spotted the plateau in the Pachmarhi region in 1857, while leading his troops on the way to Jhansi.

Additional Information 

  • The Satpura Range is a range of hills in central India.
  • The range rises in the eastern Gujarat state running east through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh to the east till Chhattisgarh.
  • The range parallels the Vindhya Range to the north, and these two east-west ranges divide Indian Subcontinent into the Indo-Gangetic plain of northern India and the Deccan Plateau of the south.
  • The Narmada River originates from the north-eastern end of Satpura in Amarkantak.
  • The Satpura Range is a horst mountain and is flanked by Narmada Graben in the north and much smaller but parallel Tapi Graben in the south.
9

Where is the Upper Lake Boat Club located in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Indore

  2. ((b))

    Raisen

  3. ((c))

    Sagar

  4. ((d))

    Bhopal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bhopal

The correct answer is Bhopal.

Key Points 

  • Bhojtal, formerly known as Upper Lake is situated in the western part of Bhopal, the capital city of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is said to have been made by King Bhoj or Pramara Dynasty in the 11th century, it is also believed that he established the city of Bhopal.
  • It is constructed on Kolans river.
  • It is created by a dam named Bhadbhada dam constructed in 1965 at the southeast corner of the lake.
  • The lake was known as Upper Lake or Bada Talab till March 2011, later it was renamed Bhojtal in the honor of King Bhoj who constructed it.

Additional Information 

StateLakes
OdishaChilka Lake, Pata Lake ,Kanjia Dam, Bindu Sarovar
RajasthanLake Pichola , Jaisamand Lake, Mansagar Lake, Sambhar Lake, Pushkar Lake, Fatehsagart Lake
Uttar Pradesh
Ramgarhtaal and Chiluataal, Moti  Jheel, Kimath Lake, Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake
10

Bori Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Thabua

  2. ((b))

    Mandsaur

  3. ((c))

    Hoshangabad

  4. ((d))

    Shivpuri

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hoshangabad

The correct answer is Hoshangabad.

Key Points 

  • Bori Wildlife Sanctuary includes India's oldest forest preserve, the Bori Reserve Forest, established in 1865 along the Tawa River.
  • The sanctuary covers an area of 518 km2 (200 sq mi), located in the northern foothills of the Satpura Range.
  • It is bounded by the Satpura National Park to the north and east, and by the Tawa River to the west.
  • The sanctuary, together with Satpura National Park and the Pachmarhi Sanctuary, forms the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Additional Information 

  • Bamboo flora is rich in the Bori Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • The Bori Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in Hoshangabad District of Madhya Pradesh state in central India.
  • The sanctuary is mostly covered in mixed deciduous and bamboo forests, part of the Eastern Highlands moist deciduous forests ecoregion.
  • It is an important transition zone between the forests of western and eastern India.
  • Dominant trees include teak (Tectona grandis), dhaora (Anogeissus latifolia), tendu (Diospyros melanoxylon), among others.
11

Who among the following was the last Viceroy of British India?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Dufferin

  2. ((b))

    Lord Curzon

  3. ((c))

    Lord Lansdowne

  4. ((d))

    Louis Mountbatten 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Louis Mountbatten 

The Correct Answer is "Lord Mountbatten".

Key Points 

  • Lord Mountbatten was the last viceroy of India.
  • Lord Mountbatten arrived in India in March 1947 and became viceroy of India.
  • He was the last viceroy of British India.
  • The 3 June 1947 plan was also known as the Mountbatten plan, which includes the Principle of the partition of British India.
  • After the partition of India and Pakistan on 15 august 1947, he was appointed as the 1st governor-general of independent India.

 Important Points

  • Lord Dufferin
  • Dufferin became Viceroy of India after Lord Ripon in 1884 AD.
  • The Bengal revenue law of 1885 was made, under which the farmers were guaranteed the security of the land during the tenure of Lord Dufferin.
  • The first session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay in 1885.
  • It is the most important event in Lord Dufferin's tenure.
  • Lord Curzon 
  • Lord Curzon, India’s Viceroy between 1899 and 1905, was one of the most controversial and consequential holders of that post.
  • The partition of the undivided Bengal Presidency in 1905 was one of Curzon’s most criticised moves, which triggered widespread opposition not only in Bengal but across India, and gave impetus to the freedom movement.
  • He introduced the Indian Universities Act in 1904.
  • This act allowed the Government to appoint a majority of the fellows mates in a university.
  • Calcutta Municipal Amendment Act of 1899 throws light on the interplay of bureaucratic and legislative procedures with informal political processes both of the Administration and the "Opposition".
  • The act was intended to prevent the vernacular press from expressing criticism of British policies it excluded English-language publications.
  • Lord Lansdowne
  • During the term of Lord Lansdowne (1888-1893), Indian Council Act was passed in 1892.
  • The significance of the Indian Council Act is to enlarge the Membership of central legislative councils.
  • It transformed the viceroy’s Executive Council into a miniature cabinet on the portfolio system.
12

Who out of the following poets of Madhya Pradesh had written the lyrics of the song “Chalo Dildar Chalo”?

  1. ((a))

    Sameer Anjaan

  2. ((b))

    Malik MD. Jayasi

  3. ((c))

    Kaif Bhopali

  4. ((d))

    Shailendra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kaif Bhopali

The correct answer is Kaif Bhopali

Key Points

  • Kaif Bhopali was an Indian Urdu poet and lyricist. He was a poet in the Urdu mushaira circles and is known as the writer of songs like Chalo Dildar Chalo, sung by Mohd. Rafi in Kamal Amrohi's 1972 classic, Pakeezah.
  • Kaif Bhoopali wrote lyrics for many Bollywood films like Pakeezah (1972), where he wrote songs like Teer-E-Nazar and Chalo dildar chalo chand ke paar chalo.

Additional Information Sameer Anjaan

  • Shitala Pandey, better known as Sameer Anjaan or Sameer, is an Indian lyricist, known for writing songs predominantly for Bollywood films.
  • He is a Guinness World Record holder for writing the most songs.
  • His father is the famed Hindi lyricist, Lalji "Anjaan" Pandey. He has won three Filmfare Awards.

Shailendra

  • Shailendra was a popular Indian Hindi-Urdu Poet, lyricist and film producer.
  • Noted for his association with the filmmaker Raj Kapoor, singer Mukesh, and the composers Shankar–Jaikishan, he wrote lyrics for several successful Hindi film songs in the 1950s and the 1960s.
13

Which of the following countries don’t have a written constituion ?

  1. ((a))

    Denmark

  2. ((b))

    America

  3. ((c))

    India

  4. ((d))

    Britain

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Britain

The correct answer is Britain.

Key Points 

  • Britain has an unwritten or uncodified constitution, meaning they do not have a single written document that defines all the laws, rules and regulations.
  • Israel, Canada, Saudi Arabia, and New Zealand are other countries that do not have a written constitution.

Additional Information 

  • An unwritten constitution refers to a constitution that has not been codified in a structured manner.
  • The unwritten constitution evolves over a long period with new laws and guidelines being added over time.
  • In a country with an unwritten constitution, the parliament is supreme.
  • The judiciary has limited powers.
  • Magna Carta can be considered the earliest form of an unwritten constitution.
14

In which of the following months is the Gangaur Festival held in Sheopur of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Agrahayana

  2. ((b))

    Asadha

  3. ((c))

    Phalguna & Asadha

  4. ((d))

    Chaitra

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chaitra

The correct answer is Chaitra.

Key Points

  • The Gangaur festival is celebrated in Chaitra month.
  • Gana is a synonym of Lord Shiva and Gaur stands for Gauri or Parvati who symbolizes Saubhagya.
  • Gangaur is colorful and one of the most important festivals of the people of Rajasthan and is observed throughout the state with great fervor and devotion by womenfolk who worship Gauri, the wife of Lord Shiva.
  • It is the celebration of spring, harvest, and marital fidelity.
15

In which of the following places is the Tansen Music Festival celebrated every year in Madhya Pradesh? 

  1. ((a))

    Gwalior

  2. ((b))

    Jabalpur

  3. ((c))

    Indore

  4. ((d))

    Bhopal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gwalior

The correct answer is Gwalior.

Key Points

  • The Tansen Award was founded in 1980.
  • Tansen Award conferred to the exponents of Hindustani music.
  • The award is organized every year by the Madhya Pradesh culture department in memory of; Tansen.
  • The award is presented during the Tansen Samaroh at Gwalior.
  • Satish Vyas, a famous Santoor Player honored with the Tansen Samman in 2020.

Additional Information

  • Tansen was an Indian musician and poet.
  • The famous singer Tansen was from Gwalior.
  • He was an important figure in the North Indian tradition of Hindustani classical music.
  • He was a court musician during the reign of Mughal emperor Akbar.
  • He is considered as one of the Navaratnas (nine jewels) of Akbar's court.
16

Who constructed the Jama Masjid in the upper portion of the fort of Asir in 1588 AD?

  1. ((a))

    Prince Parviz

  2. ((b))

    Raja Ali Khan

  3. ((c))

    Bahadur Khan

  4. ((d))

    Prince Daniyal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Raja Ali Khan

correct answer is Raja Ali Khan

Additional Information

  • The Jama Masjid in Sehore in the state of Madhya Pradesh was constructed by Muhgisuddin Shah.
  • The Jama Masjid was built in 732 hijri and renovated by Begum Sikandar Jahan in 1281.
  • It is said to possess a picturesque Bawadi (water-tank).
  • It is located on the Bhopal-Indore highway, 40 km away from the state capital, Bhopal.
  • Sehore is also famous for Swayambhu Shree Chintaman Ganesh temple and high-quality Sharbati wheat.
RulerReignBuilt
Allauddin Khilji1296-1316Alai Darwaza, Siri Fort, Hauz Khas, Zamat Khana Masjid in Delhi
Akbar1556-1605Buland Darwaza, Humayun's tomb, Jodhabai Palace, and Akbar's tomb.
Bhopal Nawab1707-1949There were many Nawabs of Bhopal.
17

Which is the largest continent of the world?

  1. ((a))

    Asia

  2. ((b))

    Europe

  3. ((c))

    North America

  4. ((d))

    Africa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Asia

The correct answer is Asia.

Key Points 

  • Asia is the largest continent in the world both in terms of size and population.
  • It has a geographical area of approximately 44,391,162 square km.
  • After Asia, the second largest continent is Africa followed by North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe, and Australia.

18

Which of the following element is used in the process of galvanization?

  1. ((a))

    Zinc

  2. ((b))

    Tin

  3. ((c))

    Copper

  4. ((d))

    Sodium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zinc

The correct answer is Zinc.

Key Points

  • Galvanization is the process of applying a zinc layer on Iron and Steel to prevent corrosion.
  • Galvanization is done by two methods-
  • Dipping metal in hot molted Zinc
  • By process of Electroplating
  • Mechanism-
  • The Zinc layer protects the Iron surface from interacting with the atmosphere thus preventing corrosion of the surface.

Important Points 

Examples of corrosion are-

  • Silver tarnishing/blackening
  • Brownish layer on Iron surface
  • Green coloured layer on copper or brass surface
  • Dull aluminium surface

Additional Information 

  • Some other methods to prevent corrosion are as below-
  • Metal Type
  • Protective Coating
  • Environmental Measures
  • Sacrificial Coatings
  • Corrosion Inhibitors
  • Design Modification
19

How many ordinance factories are there in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6

The correct answer is 6

Key Points

  • 41 Ordnance Factories were set up in the country prior to 2014 to manufacture Arms, Ammunition, Artillery Guns, Tanks, Combat Vehicles, Troop Comfort items, Bi-Modular Charge Systems (BMCS), Small Arms, and other equipment required by the Armed Forces, Central Para Military Forces, State Police Organisations and Civil Indenters.
  • The factory-wise details in Madhya Pradesh are given below.
  • Ordnance Factory Itarsi (OFI) in 1979 for Various types of Propellants and Chemicals
  • Ordnance Factory Katni (OFKAT) in 1942 for Non-Ferrous Rolled and extruded Sections, Cups for Small Arms Ammunitions, Diecast components, Heavy CaliberCartg. Cases
  • Gun Carriage Factory (GCF) in 1904 for Light Field Gun, T-72 Tank Gun Recoil System, Carriages for Artillery Guns, Anti-Aircraft Gun, Various Types of Mortars, 12 Bore Pump Action Gun & various Ammunition Packages
  • Ordnance Factory Khamaria (OFK) in 1943 for Small Arms Ammunition, Anti-Aircraft Ammunition, Anti-Tank Ammunition, Ammunition. For Air Force and Navy
  • Vehicle Factory Jabalpur (VFJ) in 1969 for Army Transport & Logistic Vehicles and Variants, Mine Protected Vehicles
  • Grey Iron Foundry (GIF) in 1972 for Automobile Casting of Grey and malleable Iron for Vehicles & other applications.
20

With which country did India conduct VINBAX 2022 Bilateral Army Exercise?

  1. ((a))

    Sri Lanka

  2. ((b))

    Venezuela

  3. ((c))

    Vietnam

  4. ((d))

    South Africa

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vietnam

The correct answer is Vietnam

Key Points

  • The 3rd Vietnam-India Bilateral Army Exercise “Ex VINBAX 2022” began on 1 Aug 2022 at Chandimandir.
  • It will continue till 20 Aug 2022.
  • The exercise is a sequel to a previously conducted bilateral exercise in Vietnam in 2019.
  • The theme of Ex VINBAX - 2022 is the employment and deployment of an Engineer Company and a Medical Team as part of the United Nations Contingent for Peace Keeping Operations.

Additional Information Important Military Exercises of India and other countries ​

Exercise NameCountries
SampritiIndia & Bangladesh
Mitra ShaktiIndia & Sri Lanka
MaitreeIndia & Thailand
Vajra PraharIndia & US
Yudh AbhyasIndia & US
Nomadic ElephantIndia & Mongolia
Garuda ShaktiIndia & Indonesia
Shakti ExerciseIndia & France
Dharma GuardianIndia & Japan
Surya KiranIndia & Nepal
Hand-in-HandIndia & China
SIMBEXIndia & Singapore
Shakti ExerciseIndia & France
CORPATIndia & Thailand
21

In the following question, some parts of the sentence have been bracketed. You need to identify which of the given option can both grammatically and contextually replace the bracketed part. In case the bracketed part is correct, mark option (d) as your answer.

They (call of) the meetup because of incessant rain.

  1. ((a))

    called out

  2. ((b))

    No correction required

  3. ((c))

    called off

  4. ((d))

    called down

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

called off

The correct answer is "called off".

Key Points

  • The phrase "called off" is often used to signify the cancellation or postponement of an event or action, often due to an unexpected circumstance or problem. It is the correct phrase to use in this sentence as it suggests that the meetup was cancelled because of the incessant rain.
  • For example, "The game was called off due to the poor weather conditions."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Called out" is often used to describe the act of drawing attention to someone's behavior or actions, often in a critical manner. It does not fit into the context of this sentence. An example of usage would be, "She called out his rudeness in front of everyone at the party."
  • Option 4: "Called down" is often used to signify that someone is being reprimanded or scolded. It does not fit into the context of this sentence. An example of usage would be, "He was called down by his teacher for not doing his homework."
  • Therefore, the only suitable phrase that both fits the grammatical structure of the sentence and aligns with the context provided is "called off".
22

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

The most useful training during my job was given to me by my team leader.

  1. ((a))

    My team leader has been giving me the most useful training during my job.

  2. ((b))

    My team leader gives me the most useful training during my job. 

  3. ((c))

    My team leader is giving me the most useful training during my job. 

  4. ((d))

    My team leader gave me the most useful training during my job. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

My team leader gave me the most useful training during my job. 

The correct answer is "My team leader gave me the most useful training during my job."

Key Points

  • The original sentence is in the passive voice, "The most useful training during my job was given to me by my team leader."
  • To turn it into the active voice, the subject should be doing the action.
  • Here, "my team leader" is the one who did the action of giving the training.
  • Since the action is already completed, we should use the simple past tense "gave".
  • The sentence then becomes "My team leader gave me the most useful training during my job."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "My team leader has been giving me the most useful training during my job." This option suggests that the action of giving training is an ongoing process that started in the past and continues up until now, which is not the case.
  • Option 2: "My team leader gives me the most useful training during my job." This sentence is in the present simple tense, which suggests that the action is a routine or a general truth, which does not fit the context of the original sentence.
  • Option 3: "My team leader is giving me the most useful training during my job." This option is in the present continuous tense, which implies that the action is happening right now, which is not the case in the original sentence.
  • So, after analyzing all options, we can conclude that Option 4 is the correct answer.
23

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

A state of being pleasantly lost in one's dreams

  1. ((a))

    Hallucination

  2. ((b))

    Fantasy

  3. ((c))

    Reverie

  4. ((d))

    Illusion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reverie

The correct answer is "Reverie".

Key Points

  • Reverie means a state of being pleasantly lost in one's thoughts; a daydream. This exactly matches the provided definition.
  • For example, "On sunny afternoons, he often sat on the park bench, lost in a peaceful reverie."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Hallucination refers to an experience involving the apparent perception of something not present, typically as a result of a mental disorder or of taking drugs. This does not fit the given definition as it implies a distortion of reality rather than a pleasant daydream.
  • Option 2: Fantasy usually refers to the faculty or activity of imagining impossible or improbable things, and while this may involve daydreaming, it does not necessarily imply being pleasantly lost in one's thoughts.
  • Option 4: Illusion refers to a deceptive appearance or impression, or a false idea or belief, which does not fit the given definition.
  • Therefore, after evaluating all options, reverie (Option 3) is the correct answer.
24

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Shreya came and delivered the prizes.

  1. ((a))

    Shreya was come and had delivered the prizes.

  2. ((b))

    Shreya came and had delivered the prizes.

  3. ((c))

    Shreya had come and the prizes were delivered.

  4. ((d))

    Shreya came and the prizes were delivered.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Shreya came and the prizes were delivered.

The correct answer is "Shreya came and the prizes were delivered."

Key Points

  • The original sentence is in the active voice: "Shreya came and delivered the prizes."
  • To transform it into the passive voice, we shift the focus from the subject (Shreya) to the object (the prizes).
  • The original verb, "delivered," becomes "were delivered" in the passive voice.
  • The sentence then becomes "Shreya came and the prizes were delivered."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Shreya was come and had delivered the prizes." This sentence is grammatically incorrect as "Shreya was come" is not a valid construction.
  • Option 2: "Shreya came and had delivered the prizes." This option remains in the active voice and misuses the past perfect "had delivered," suggesting that the prizes were delivered before Shreya came, which is not what the original sentence implies.
  • Option 3: "Shreya had come and the prizes were delivered." This option changes the tense from the simple past ("Shreya came") to the past perfect ("Shreya had come"), which is not accurate to the original sentence's tense.
  • After analyzing all options, we can conclude that Option 4 is the correct answer.
25

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which makes the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

There was a heavy frost last night and the ground is still ______________.

  1. ((a))

    jumpy

  2. ((b))

    hard

  3. ((c))

    narrow

  4. ((d))

    round

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

hard

The correct answer is "hard".

Key Points

  • In the context of the sentence, a heavy frost would cause the ground to freeze, making it hard or firm.
  • The sentence then reads, "There was a heavy frost last night and the ground is still hard."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Jumpy" is not an appropriate adjective to describe the condition of the ground following a frost.
  • Option 3: "Narrow" also does not make sense in this context, as it describes the width of something and not a condition caused by frost.
  • Option 4: "Round" is not a suitable adjective either, as it describes a shape and not a state that can be caused by a frost.
  • Therefore, after evaluating all options, "hard" (Option 2) is the most appropriate answer.
26

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which makes the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

He’s quite short, _______________ his sister is tall.

  1. ((a))

    wherever

  2. ((b))

    whether

  3. ((c))

    so that

  4. ((d))

    whereas

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

whereas

The correct answer is "whereas".

Key Points

  • In this context, the sentence is making a comparison between the heights of two people.
  • The conjunction "whereas" is used to show a contrast between two things, in this case, the man's short height and his sister's tall stature.
  • Correct Sentence: "He’s quite short, whereas his sister is tall."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Wherever" is a conjunction used to mean "in or to every place or situation".
  • Option 2: "Whether" is a conjunction used to introduce alternatives.
  • Option 3: "So that" is a conjunction used to indicate purpose or to show cause and effect.
27

Select the meaning of the given idiom.

To cross one’s mind

  1. ((a))

    To memorize

  2. ((b))

    To be thought of by one

  3. ((c))

    Be caught in a dispute

  4. ((d))

    To disagree

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To be thought of by one

The correct answer is "To be thought of by one".

Key Points

  • The idiom "to cross one's mind" means to come into one's thoughts as a fleeting and random idea or memory.
  • It is typically used to refer to thoughts that suddenly or randomly occur to someone without much consideration or planning.
  • Example: "It never even crossed my mind that he might be lying."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 2.
28

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Naveen was told many times to stop talking in class.

  1. ((a))

    I told Naveen to stop talking many times in class. 

  2. ((b))

    Naveen had told the teacher not to stop talking in class.

  3. ((c))

    The teacher was telling Naveen not to stop talking in class.

  4. ((d))

    The teacher told Naveen many times to stop talking in class. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The teacher told Naveen many times to stop talking in class. 

The correct answer is 'The teacher told Naveen many times to stop talking in class. '.

Key Points

The sentence given is in passive voice. To change it to active voice, we need to:

  • Identify the subject, verb and object of the passive sentence.
  • Make the object of the passive sentence the subject of the active sentence.
  • Use the base form of the verb or the appropriate tense without the verb be to form the active verb.
  • Remove by and the subject of the passive sentence after the active verb, unless the subject is unknown or unimportant.
  • In this question, the passive sentence is:
  • Naveen was told many times to stop talking in class.
  • The subject is Naveen, the verb is was told, and the object is many times to stop talking in class.
  • To change it to active voice, we need to:
  • Make the object (many times to stop talking in class) the subject of the active sentence.
  • Use the past tense of tell (told) to form the active verb.
  • Remove by and the subject (Naveen) after the active verb.
  • The active sentence is:
  • The teacher told Naveen many times to stop talking in class.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 4) The teacher told Naveen many times to stop talking in class.
29

In the following question, four words are given, out of which only one word is correctly spelled. Find the correctly spelled word.

  1. ((a))

    performence

  2. ((b))

    educated

  3. ((c))

    representive

  4. ((d))

    asassin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

educated

The correct answer is 'educated'.

Key Points

  • Educated is a word in standard English, meaning “having had a high standard of learning” or “showing good judgment or understanding”.
  • The correct answer is 2) educated.
  • Performence is not a word in standard English.
  • The correct spelling is performance, meaning “the act of doing something, especially in a skilful way” or “the quality of how well or badly someone does something”.
  • Representive is not a word in standard English.
  • The correct spelling is representative, meaning “someone who speaks or does something officially for another person or group of people” or “typical of, or the same as, others in a larger group of people or things”.
  • Asassin is not a word in standard English.
  • The correct spelling is assassin, meaning “a person who murders an important person for political or religious reasons” or “a member of a secret organization that killed its enemies, especially in the 11th–13th centuries”.
  • Therefore, the only word that is correctly spelt is educated.
30

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

(A) The sun was directly above Rihashini's head, a big ball of fierce orange in the sky.

(B) Rihashini longed for a chilled glass of lemonade to soothe her parched throat.

(C) She hopped from one foot to the other, unable to bear the heat penetrating through her soles, hitting her little heart with hatred and vengeance. 

(D) It was burning hot.

  1. ((a))

    ABCD

  2. ((b))

    DACB

  3. ((c))

    CBDA

  4. ((d))

    BDAC

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

DACB

The correct answer is 'DACB'.

Key Points

  • For the first question, the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is option 2) DACB.
  • This order effectively sets the scene (D: "It was burning hot"), identifies a specific detail about the scene (A: "The sun was directly above Rihashini's head..."), demonstrates the character's reaction to the situation (C: "She hopped from one foot to the other..."), and then indicates her desire as a result of this situation (B: "Rihashini longed for a chilled glass of lemonade...").
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
  • Complete Passage: It was burning hot. The sun was directly above Rihashini's head, a big ball of fierce orange in the sky. She hopped from one foot to the other, unable to bear the heat penetrating through her soles, hitting her little heart with hatred and vengeance. Rihashini longed for a chilled glass of lemonade to soothe her parched throat.
31

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which can make the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

He's welcome to come along, ________ he behaves himself.

  1. ((a))

    despite of

  2. ((b))

    still

  3. ((c))

    yet

  4. ((d))

    provided that

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

provided that

The correct answer is "provided that".

Key Points

  • "Provided that" is a conjunction used to express a condition; something will only be done if something else happens or is done.
  • The complete sentence is, "He's welcome to come along, provided that he behaves himself."
  • It means that the person is welcome to join if (and only if) he behaves himself.

Hence, the correct answer will be Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Despite of" is incorrect because it is not a standard English conjunction.
  • The correct form is "despite", used to show contrast.
  • For instance, "Despite the weather, we decided to go for a walk."
  • However, "despite" doesn't fit here because the context requires expressing a condition, not a contrast.
  • Option 2: "Still" is a conjunction that is used to show something continues to be true or to happen, often despite being surprising or unexpected.
  • For instance, "I was tired but I still went to the party." It doesn't fit in this context because the sentence isn't showing an ongoing truth or a surprising or unexpected situation.
  • Option 3: "Yet" is a conjunction used in negative statements to talk about something that has not happened up to the present time, although it probably will happen.
  • For instance, "I haven’t met her yet." It is also used to introduce a contrasting idea.
  • For instance, "It's a small car, yet it's surprisingly spacious."
  • In this case, "yet" isn't correct because it doesn't fit the context of setting a condition.

For the given sentence, only "provided that" correctly provides the necessary conditional meaning, making Option 4 the correct choice.

32

Find the most appropriate option for the given blank space which can make the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

She's the most _________ person in the organization.

  1. ((a))

    temper

  2. ((b))

    schedule

  3. ((c))

    temperament

  4. ((d))

    powerful

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

powerful

The correct answer is "powerful".

Key Points

  • The word "powerful" is an adjective, meaning having a lot of power, influence, or effect.
  • In the context of an organization, it often means that a person has a lot of influence or decision-making authority.
  • So, the sentence would read: "She's the most powerful person in the organization."
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Temper" is a noun that refers to a person's state of mind regarding being angry or calm. As it's a noun, it's not appropriate in this context where an adjective is required.
  • Option 2: "Schedule" is also a noun. It usually refers to an arranged time or a plan for when things will happen. It doesn't fit in this sentence because it doesn't describe a person's attributes or characteristics.
  • Option 3: "Temperament" is a noun referring to a person's or an animal's nature, especially as it permanently affects their behavior. Like "temper" and "schedule", it is also inappropriate in this context because an adjective is required.
  • In this sentence, only "powerful" correctly describes a characteristic of the person and is an adjective, making Option 4 the correct choice.
33

Select the antonym of the given word.

Imprison

  1. ((a))

    Compensate

  2. ((b))

    Enslave

  3. ((c))

    Release

  4. ((d))

    Occupy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Release

The correct answer is "Release".

Key Points Let's look at the meanings of the given and the marked words:

  • Imprison - It means to confine someone or to put them in prison.
  • For Example - The judge decided to imprison the defendant for five years due to his repeated crimes."
  • Release **-**To set free, to allow or enable escape from confinement.
  • For Example - The bird was released into the wild after its wing healed.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information Let's look at the meanings of the other given options:

  • Compensate: To provide (someone) with a just payment for loss or injury. It means to make up for an undesired event or action by providing equivalent value.
  • Enslave: To make someone a slave, to reduce someone to a state of bondage or captivity. It refers to the condition where an individual's free will, choices or rights are taken away.
  • Occupy: To take up space or time, to reside or have one's place of business in (a particular place).
34

In the following question, a sentence is given in either direct or indirect speech. Select the option that correctly converts the sentence in direct speech to indirect speech or vice versa.

'Finish the job by midnight,' the teacher told me.

  1. ((a))

    The teacher told me to finish the job by midnight.

  2. ((b))

    The teacher told me to finished the job by midnight.

  3. ((c))

    The teacher told me finish the job by midnight.

  4. ((d))

    The teacher told me to finishing the job by midnight. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The teacher told me to finish the job by midnight.

The correct answer is "The teacher told me to finish the job by midnight."

Key Points

  • The direct speech "told" is retained in the indirect speech as "told".
  • The instruction given in direct speech ("Finish the job by midnight") is a command or request.
  • When we change it into reported speech, we use the infinitive form ("to finish").
  • The rest of the sentence remains unchanged.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

35

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

One who possesses outstanding technical ability in a particular art or field

  1. ((a))

    stoic

  2. ((b))

    virtuoso

  3. ((c))

    amateur

  4. ((d))

    termagant

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

virtuoso

The correct answer is "Virtuoso".

Key Points 

  • "Virtuoso" is a person highly skilled in music or another artistic pursuit, and it can also extend to anyone who is highly skilled in any field.
  • This term perfectly matches the given definition of one who possesses outstanding technical ability in a specific domain.
  • For Example - John is a virtuoso in cooking; his dishes taste like they're from a five-star restaurant.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

36

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Put the cart before the horse

  1. ((a))

    To lie about a situation

  2. ((b))

    To do impractical things

  3. ((c))

    To do things out of the proper order 

  4. ((d))

    To delay the occurrence of something

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To do things out of the proper order 

The correct answer is "To do things out of the proper order".

Key Points

  • "To do things out of the proper order" is the correct choice.
  • The phrase comes from the image of a cart being put before a horse, which is obviously the wrong order to get things moving.
  • It is used to indicate that things are not being done in their logical sequence.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

37

In the below question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The man asked me interestedly as to what made me think that he wasn't the man I wanted.

  1. ((a))

    "What make you think he isn't the man you wanted?" asked the man interestedly.

  2. ((b))

    "What makes you think he isn't the man you want?" asked the man interestedly.

  3. ((c))

    "What is making you think he wasn't the man you wanted?" asked the man interestedly.

  4. ((d))

    "What made you thinking he wasn't the man you wanted?" asked the man interestedly.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

"What makes you think he isn't the man you want?" asked the man interestedly.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The sentence is a question in indirect speech, and when converted to direct speech, it must follow proper question formation.
  • The indirect speech phrase "what made me think" requires a present tense verb when transforming to direct speech.
  • "Makes" is the correct present tense form, aligning with the subject "you."
  • The structure "What makes you think" reflects a direct question that matches the indirect speech's meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is: "What makes you think he isn't the man you want?" asked the man interestedly.

Key Points

  • Option 1 uses "make" instead of "makes," which is grammatically incorrect for the third-person subject "you."
  • Option 3's use of "is making" introduces an incorrect continuous tense.
  • Option 4's use of "thinking" is also incorrect in the context.
38

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech and select your answer.

Manmohan said to us, “What did he steal from your house last night?”

  1. ((a))

    Manmohan asked us what he have stolen from your house the previous night.

  2. ((b))

    Manmohan asked us what they stole from our house the previous night.

  3. ((c))

    Manmohan asked us what he had stolen from our house the previous night.

  4. ((d))

    Manmohan inquired of us what had he stolen from our house last night.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Manmohan asked us what he had stolen from our house the previous night.

The correct answer is: Manmohan asked us what he had stolen from our house the previous night.

Key Points

  • In indirect speech, the past perfect tense is used to report questions in the past tense.
  • "did steal" (past simple) in Direct Speech is changed to "had stolen" (past perfect) in Indirect Speech.
  • The reporting verb "said to" changes to "asked" in indirect speech.
  • The question word (here, "what") remains unchanged.
  • The pronoun "your" changes to "our" to match the perspective of the speaker.
  • The phrase "last night" changes to "the previous night" in indirect speech.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: Manmohan asked us what he had stolen from our house the previous night.

39

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has ________ to global ecological crises such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

  1. ((a))

    lead

  2. ((b))

    leads

  3. ((c))

    led

  4. ((d))

    leading

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

led

The correct answer is "Led".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "led".
  • In this sentence, we need the past tense of the verb 'lead' because the sentence is talking about something that has already happened.
  • 'Lead' is an irregular verb whose simple past tense and past participle is 'led'.
  • We need the past participle 'led' in this case because we're dealing with a present perfect tense construction ('has led').

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

40

Identify the segment that contains the error.

  1. ((a))

    In support of the LGBTQ community

  2. ((b))

    The US embassy in South Korea made

  3. ((c))

    some waves last year when it displayed a rainbow banner.

  4. ((d))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The US embassy in South Korea made

The errorneous part is: The US embassy in South Korea made.

Key Points

  • In the second part of the given sentence, the phrase "made some waves" should be replaced with "created some waves" to maintain correct usage.
  • The phrase "made some waves" is informal and not the most appropriate choice for formal writing.
  • The correct sentence should be: "The US embassy in South Korea created some waves last year when it displayed a rainbow banner."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: The US embassy in South Korea created some waves last year when it displayed a rainbow banner.

41

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracket segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No substitution required.

The national park (have the potential in) power the entire continental U.S. with clean energy

  1. ((a))

    have the potential to

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    has potential of

  4. ((d))

    has the potential to

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

has the potential to

The correct answer is "has the potential to".

Key Points

  • In this case, we use 'has' instead of 'have' because 'have' is used with plural subjects, while 'has' is used with singular subjects.
  • Furthermore, the correct preposition to convey potentiality or capability is 'to' rather than 'in' or 'of'.
  • Therefore 'has the potential to' is the correct grammatical structure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Correct Sentence: The national park has the potential to power the entire continental U.S. with clean energy.

42

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

Hold the fort

  1. ((a))

    to stop talking about something

  2. ((b))

    to finish something before time

  3. ((c))

    to avoid being found guilty of a crime

  4. ((d))

    to maintain or guard something temporarily

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

to maintain or guard something temporarily

The correct answer is "to maintain or guard something temporarily".

Key Points

  • Hold the fort - This idiomatic phrase indicates the situation where someone is left with the responsibility to manage, maintain, or guard a position (generally a position of leadership or responsibility) until the person normally in charge is able to return.
  • For example - My boss is taking a two-week vacation. She asked me to hold the fort until she gets back.
  • In a military context, it meant to watch and protect a fort when the main forces were out somewhere else.

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

43

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Throughout his speech the crowd was all ears.

  1. ((a))

    very attentive

  2. ((b))

    talking loudly

  3. ((c))

    covering their ears

  4. ((d))

    making a lot of noise

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

very attentive

The correct answer is "Very attentive".

Key Points

  • The phrase 'all ears' is an idiomatic expression.
  • It means to be eagerly and completely paying attention to what someone else is saying
  • For example - When the teacher started telling the ancient stories, the children were all ears.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

44

Direction: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The bottom surface of the sea ice is a thick slurry of floating ice crystals, and my descent _______ them in motion.

  1. ((a))

    has setting

  2. ((b))

    had set

  3. ((c))

    has set

  4. ((d))

    have set

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

has set

The correct answer is "Has set".

Key Points

  • The most appropriate phrase to fill in the blank is "has set".
  • In this sentence, we are describing an action that happened in the past but is still relevant in the present.
  • The action is the descent, which has an effect on the state of the ice crystals on the bottom surface of the sea ice.
  • So, you should use the present perfect tense, which is formed by using "has" or "have" followed by the past participle form of the verb.
  • In this case, the past participle of the verb "set" is "set."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: The bottom surface of the sea ice is a thick slurry of floating ice crystals, and my descent has set them in motion.

45

Four words are given in which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Interpreted

  2. ((b))

    Convinient

  3. ((c))

    Characterstic

  4. ((d))

    Afection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Interpreted

The correct answer is: Interpreted.

Key Points

  • The word "Interpreted" means to explain or make sense of something, often to understand its meaning or significance. (व्याख्या करना)
  • Example: The teacher interpreted the complex theory in a simple way that everyone understood.
  • "Interpreted" refers to explaining or translating something from one form or language into another. (व्याख्या करना)
  • Example: He interpreted the results of the experiment to the team clearly and efficiently.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: Interpreted.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Convinient (सुविधाजनक): Refers to something that is easy to use or practical, but the correct spelling is Convenient.
  • Example: The online shopping platform provides a convenient way to purchase items from home.
  • Characterstic (विशेषता): Refers to a distinguishing trait or quality, but the correct spelling is Characteristic.
  • Example: The characteristic feature of this breed is its long, fluffy fur.
  • Afection (स्नेह): Refers to fondness or love, but the correct spelling is Affection.
  • Example: She showed great affection towards her pet dog by caring for it every day.
46

Gene is made up of -

  1. ((a))

    Fats

  2. ((b))

    Nucleotides

  3. ((c))

    Proteins

  4. ((d))

    Carbohydrates

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nucleotides

The correct answer is Nucleotides

Key Points

  • A gene is consider as the basic physical and functional unit of heredity.
  • Genes are made up of Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
  • Some genes act as instructions to make molecules called proteins.
  • Many genes do not code for proteins.
  • In humans, genes range in size from a few hundred DNA bases to more than 2 million bases.
47

An elevator weighing 500kg is to be lifted up at a constant velocity of 0.25 m/s. What would be the minimum horsepower of the motor to be used? g = 9.8 m/s2 and there is no frictional loss.

  1. ((a))

    1.0 hp

  2. ((b))

    1.64 hp

  3. ((c))

    1.92 hp

  4. ((d))

    2.0 hp

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1.64 hp

The correct answer is 1.64 HP.

Key Points

  • The weight of the elevator is 500 kg, and it is being lifted at a constant velocity of 0.25 m/s.
  • The force required to lift the elevator is equal to its weight, calculated as F = m * g, where m is mass and g is gravitational acceleration (9.8 m/s²).
  • Power (P) can be calculated using the formula P = F * v, where F is force and v is velocity.
  • After calculating the power in watts, it is converted to horsepower (1 HP = 746 watts).
  • The minimum horsepower required for the motor to lift the elevator at the given velocity is approximately 1.64 HP.

Additional Information

  • Horsepower (HP)
  • It is a unit of measurement of power, equivalent to 746 watts.
  • Commonly used to describe the power output of engines and motors.
  • 1 horsepower is also approximately equal to 550 foot-pounds per second.
  • Force (F)
  • Force is any interaction that, when unopposed, will change the motion of an object.
  • It is measured in Newtons (N) in the International System of Units (SI).
  • The formula to calculate force is F = m * g.
  • Power (P)
  • Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred over time.
  • It is measured in watts (W) in the International System of Units (SI).
  • The formula to calculate power is P = F * v, where F is force and v is velocity.
  • Gravitational acceleration (g)
  • It is the acceleration due to Earth's gravity, approximately equal to 9.8 m/s².
  • Used in calculations involving weight and force exerted by gravity.
48

In which of the following circumstances does the behavior of real gases resemble that of an ideal gas?

  1. ((a))

    High pressure & low temperature

  2. ((b))

    High Pressure & high temperature

  3. ((c))

    Low pressure & low temperature

  4. ((d))

    Low pressure & high temperature 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Low pressure & high temperature 

The correct answer is Low pressure & high temperature 

 Key Points

  • Real gases are those gases that have some attractive and repulsive force as well as some specific volume. 
  • An ideal gas is those gases that do not have some attractive and repulsive force as well as no specific volume.

Ideal gas equation:

PV = nRT

Where P is pressure, V is volume, n is no. of moles, R is gas constant and T is temperature

  • Real gases behave like an ideal gas at Low Pressure and High Temperature.

EXPLANATION:

  • While deriving the ideal gas equation there are two assumptions that ideal gas follow:
  1. The size of the molecules is nearly negligible.
  2. An ideal gas is a gas that does not have some attractive and repulsive force.
  • From the above assumptions, some real gases like hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, etc behave like ideal gases at  Low Pressure and High Temperature.
49

At the critical temperature, surface tension becomes ______.

  1. ((a))

    negative

  2. ((b))

    doubles

  3. ((c))

    zero

  4. ((d))

    Positive

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

zero

The correct answer is zero.

Key Points

  • Surface tension is the property by virtue of which liquid tries to minimise its free surface area.
  • In spherical shape the surface area is minimum and for this reason, the raindrops are spherical.
  • Two factors can affect the surface tension of a liquid. The factors are;
  • Temperature: If temperature increases then the surface tension of a liquid decreases. At the critical temperature the surface tension becomes zero.
  • Soluble Impurities: In the case of less soluble impurities, the surface tension decreases. But, for highly soluble impurities in the liquid the surface tension increases.
  • Examples:
  • When kerosene oil is sprinkled on the water the surface decreases and for this reason, the mosquito larvas die due to sinking in the water.
  • Warm soup is tasty because for high temperature the surface tension becomes low and spread equally over the tongue.
  • The surface tension of antiseptics is low that the reason they reach in the small cracks of the wound and cleans the germs.
  • The surface tension of soap solution is less than the pure water and for this reason, the soap solution cleans clothes better than pure water.
50

The organic material of the solid waste will decompose

  1. ((a))

    By oxidation

  2. ((b))

    By the action of microorganisms

  3. ((c))

    By the soil particles

  4. ((d))

    By the flow of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

By the action of microorganisms

The correct answer is By the action of microorganisms

  • Organic solid waste includes kitchen waste (spoiled food, fruits, vegetables) ash, soil, dung, parts of plants, etc.
  • This waste is mainly of organic type and is called 'wet solid waste' or 'wet garbage'.

Key Points

Decomposition of organic matter in soil:

  • Organic matter (or organic material) is a matter that has come from a recently living organism.
  • It is capable of decay, or is the product of decay, or is composed of organic compounds.
  • Soil is composed of minerals and organic matter, as well as living organisms.
  • The organic matter in soil comes from plants and animals.
  • In a forest, for example, leaf litter and woody material fall to the forest floor.
  • This is one kind of organic material.
  • When it decays to the point it is no longer recognizable it is called soil organic matter.
  • Organic material breaks down to organic matter by soil microorganisms present in the soil.
  • When the organic matter has broken down into stable humic substances that resist further decomposition it is called humus.
  • Organic matter in the waste can be broken down into carbon dioxide, water, methane, or simple organic molecules by micro-organisms and other living things.
  • The breakdown of solid waste can either be by natural processes or human-induced processes.
  • The process by which organic matter is formed is by composting, aerobic digestion, anaerobic digestion, or other similar processes.

​Thus, the organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose by the action of microorganisms.

51

Teak is the dominant species of which of the following forests?

  1. ((a))

    Tropical Deciduous Forests

  2. ((b))

    Tropical Evergreen Forests

  3. ((c))

    Temperate Evergreen Forests

  4. ((d))

    Mangrove Forests

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tropical Deciduous Forests

The correct answer is Tropical Deciduous Forests. 

Additional Information

  • Tropical deciduous forests are distributed in states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Odisha and on the eastern slopes of Western Ghats.
  • Characteristics of tropical deciduous forests;
  • They are also called Monsoon Forests.
  • Rainfall is in the range of 100-200 cms.
  • The trees shed their leaves during the spring season.
  • Teak is the most dominant species of this forest while Bamboos, Sal, Shisham, sandalwood, Kusum, Arjun, and mulberry are other commercially important species.
  • Teak:
  • Teak is one of the most important timber trees of India and Southeast Asia.
  • The most important teak forests in India are in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh.
52

How much energy is provided by protein in human body?

  1. ((a))

    7 Kcal

  2. ((b))

    4 Kcal

  3. ((c))

    6 Kcal

  4. ((d))

    2 Kcal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4 Kcal

The correct answer is 4 Kcal.

Key Points 

Calorie:

  • It is a unit of energy.
  • Specific definition is a calorie is the amount of energy, or heat, it takes to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.
  • One calorie is equal to 4.184 joules.
  • We associate calories with food, but they apply to anything containing energy.
  • For example a gallon of gasoline contains about 31,000,000 calories.
  • Carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram, protein provides 4 calories per gram, and fat provides 9 calories per gram.

Protein:

  • It is a chain of amino acids joined by peptide bonds in a specific sequence.
  • Protein is an essential nutrient. There is no life without protein. Protein is contained in every part of your body, the skin, muscles, hair, blood, body organs, eyes, even fingernails and bone. Next to water, protein is the most plentiful substance in your body.

Structures of protein:

  • Proteins catalyze metabolic reactions, power cellular motion and forms structural integrity to hair, bones, tendons and teeth.
  • Human proteins therefore reflects the sophistication and diversity of their biologic roles.
  • Therefore, maturation of a newly synthesized polypeptide into a biologically functional protein
  • Requires folding into a specific three-dimensional arrangement, or conformation.
53

Who among the following was not the one who rediscovered Mendel laws?

  1. ((a))

    Correns

  2. ((b))

    T. Weissman

  3. ((c))

    Tschermak

  4. ((d))

    De Vries

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

T. Weissman

Correct answer is T. Weissman 

Key Points

Gregor Mendel gave the Laws of Inheritance based on his plant hybridization experiments on Pisum sativum (garden pea):

  • Law of Dominance -
  • It states that characters are controlled by discrete units called factors (alleles) which occur in pairs.
  • It also states that in a dissimilar pair of alleles, one of the alleles is expressed (dominant) over the other (recessive).
  • Law of Segregation - 
  • It states that alleles do not show any blending and both parental characters are recovered in the F2 generation.
  • It also states that during gamete formation, alleles of a pair separate in such a way that one gamete receives only one of the two alleles of a pair.
  • It is also known as the Law of purity of gametes.
  • It can be proved with a monohybrid cross.
  • Law of Independent Assortment -
  • It states that when 2 pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair is independent of the other pair.
  • It can be proved with a dihybrid cross.

Therefore, the law that Mendel did not propose was law of blending inheritance.

Additional Information 

  • In a monohybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio is 3:1.

  • In a dihybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.

Schematic representation of mendelian dihybrid cross - Brainly.in

54

This endangered animal is the source of the world’s finest, lightest, warmest and the most expensive wool – the shahtoosh.

  1. ((a))

    Chiru

  2. ((b))

    Cheetal

  3. ((c))

    Kashmiri goat

  4. ((d))

    Nilgai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chiru

The correct answer is Chiru

Key Points

  • Shahtoosh also known as Shatoush is a wool obtained from the fur of the chiru (Pantholops hodgsonii), also called Tibetan antelope).
  • Shawls made from the wool of the chiru are called shahtoosh.
  • Shahtoosh is the finest animal wool, followed by vicuña wool.
  • Chiru lives in the harshest environments of the world, where the altitude is 5000 meters.
  • They have a special type of down fur, which is light as well as warm, protecting them from the cold temperature of the environment.
  • They are migratory animals and are commonly found in Tibet and Mongolia.
  • The quality of Shahtoosh is determined by the major presence of Toosh down in the fabric.
  • Chiru is an endangered animal.
  • Traditional Kashmir Shawls are made of this wool.
55

At constant pressure, a perfect gas at 300 K is heated until its volume doubles. Finally, the temperature is - 

  1. ((a))

    37 °C

  2. ((b))

    327 °C

  3. ((c))

    54 °C

  4. ((d))

    900 °C

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

327 °C

Correct answer is 327 °C

Key Points

Gases that obey the gas laws (Charles law, Boyles law and Universal Gas Law) are called ideal gases.

Boyle’s, Charle's, and Gay Lussac's Laws describe the basic behaviour of fluids with respect to volume, pressure, and temperature.

Gay Lussac’s LawIt states that at constant volume, the pressure of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with temperature. P ∝ T
Boyle's LawFor a fixed mass of gas at a constant temperature, the volume is inversely proportional to the pressure. PV = constant (If the temperature remains constant, the product of pressure and volume of a given mass of a gas is constant.)
Charle's LawFor a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature.V∝T or, V/T=Const

Calculation:

Given:

V2 = 2 V1 , T1 = 27° C = 300 K and P = Const.

from Charle's Law

⇒ V1/T1=V2/T2

⇒ T2 = 2 × 300 = 600 K

⇒ T2 = 600 - 273 = 327° C

56

Which of the following is not responsible for breaking-up of rock-surfaces?

  1. ((a))

    Virus

  2. ((b))

    Big trees

  3. ((c))

    Moss

  4. ((d))

    Lichens

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virus

The correct answer is Virus

Key Points

  • The term Virus in Latin means Poison.
  • Viruses are small submicroscopic pathogenic agents that infect all the different life forms, from animals and plants to microbes and archaea.
  • TMV was the first discovered virus.
  • The study of Virus is called Virology.

Explanation:

  • Viruses are non-cellular, microscopic infectious vehicles that can only replicate inside a host cell. A virus cannot replicate outside a living cell. It requires a host body to complete its replication, without the host it is considered Non-living. It lives in the host body as an obligate, intracellular parasite.
  • They enter the host cells and capture all their metabolic activity.

Additional Information

  • The breakdown or dissolution of rocks and minerals on the Earth's surface is referred to as weathering.
  • Carriers of weathering include water, ice, acids, salts, plants, animals, and variations in temperature.
  • Rocks break down by a process called weathering.
  • The effects of weathering and erosion cannot be resisted by any rock on Earth due to its softness.
  • Breaking-up of rock surfaces can be done by Big trees, Moss, Lichens
57

What is called for the pollution that can be traced directly to industrial activity?

  1. ((a))

    Water pollution

  2. ((b))

    Soil pollution

  3. ((c))

    Air pollution

  4. ((d))

    Industrial pollution

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Industrial pollution

The correct answer is Industrial pollution

Key Points

  • Common industrial pollutants responsible for causing water pollution are sulfur, asbestos, noxious solvents, polychlorinated biphenyls, lead, mercury, nitrates, phosphates, acids, alkali, dyes, pesticides, benzene, chlorobenzene, carbon tetrachloride, toluene and volatile organic chemicals such as sulfur are harmful to marine life.
  • Some industrial wastes are common waste, as well as domestic sewage.
  • Such waste can be easily treated in municipal facilities.
  • But some wastes, such as heavy metals like copper, chromium, cadmium, volatile organic compounds, and oils and fats need special treatment.
  • Industries can install separate pre-treatment of such hazardous waste.
58

Whenever a gas satisfies the van der Waals equation (p+av2)(Vb)=RT\left(p+\frac{a}{v^2}\right)(V-b)=R T , its internal energy is dependent on its ___________-

  1. ((a))

    Density

  2. ((b))

    Temperature

  3. ((c))

    Temperature and specific volume

  4. ((d))

    Volume

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Temperature and specific volume

Correct answer is Temperature and specific volume

Key Points

Real gases:

  • The ideal gas law is only an approximation to the actual behaviour of the gases.
  • At high densities, that is at high pressure and low temperature, the behaviour of the actual or real gases deviate from that predicted by the ideal gas law.
  • In general, at sufficiently low pressure or at low densities all gases behave like ideal gases.
  • The ideal gases follow the characteristic gas equation and real gases follow the Van der Waals equation of state.

The ideal gas equation neglects the intermolecular forces and the volume occupied by the gas molecules. Vanderwall's gas equation takes into account these effects. Therefore real gasses follow Van der Waal's gas equation (p+av2)(Vb)=RT\left(p+\frac{a}{v^2}\right)(V-b)=R T

  • The constants a and b have positive values and are characteristic of the individual gas. The van der Waals equation of state approaches the ideal gas equation when values of these constants approach zero.
  • The constant a provides a correction for the intermolecular forces (force of cohesion)
  • Constant b is a correction for finite molecular size and its value is the volume of one mole of the atoms or molecules.
59

Chlorine is used in municipal water treatment plant to

  1. ((a))

    Kill the harmful microorganisms

  2. ((b))

    Prevent evaporation

  3. ((c))

    Prevent sedimentation

  4. ((d))

    Change the taste of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kill the harmful microorganisms

Correct answer is Kill the harmful microorganisms 

Key Points

  • Chlorine is commonly used in municipal water treatment plants as a disinfectant to kill harmful microorganisms present in the water.
  • It effectively destroys bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that can cause waterborne diseases.
  • When chlorine is added to water, it reacts with organic compounds and disrupts the cellular structures of microorganisms, thereby killing them or rendering them harmless. This process is known as chlorination.
  • By using chlorine in water treatment, the risk of waterborne diseases, such as cholera, typhoid, and dysentery, is significantly reduced.
  • It helps to ensure that the water supplied to households is safe for consumption.
60

Agents that pollute water, soil and air are known as

  1. ((a))

    Pollutants

  2. ((b))

    Garbage

  3. ((c))

    Effluent

  4. ((d))

    Waste

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pollutants

The correct answer is  Pollutants

Key Points

Primary pollutants

  • Pollutants which are emitted directly from identifiable sources, emitted from  natural hazardous events like dust storms, volcanoes, etc or from human activities like burning of wood, coal, and oil in homes or industries or automobiles, etc.
  • The following five primary pollutants contribute to about 90% of the global air pollution:
  • The important primary air pollutants are:
  • Oxides of sulphur, particularly the sulphur dioxide (SO2);
  • Oxides of carbon like carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2), particularly the carbon monoxide (CO);
  • Oxides of nitrogen, like NO, NO2, NO3 (expressed as NOx);
  • Volatile organic compounds, mostly hydrocarbons; and
  • Suspended particulate matter (SPM).

Secondary pollutants.

  • The primary pollutants often react with one another or with water vapour, aided and abetted by the sunlight, to form entirely a new set of pollutants, called the secondary pollutants.
  • These are the chemical substances, which are produced from the chemical reactions of natural or anthropogenic pollutants or due to their oxidation, etc., caused by the energy of the sun.
  • The important secondary pollutants are:
  • Sulphuric acid (H2SO4);
  • Ozone (O3);
  • Formaldehyde; and
  • Peroxy-acyl-nitrate (PAN) etc

Additional Information

  • Primary Pollutants: Co, CO2, SOX, NOX, Aerosols, Bacteria, Pollens, Suspended particulates, Fly ash, Mist, Dew, Mist, Soot, Volcanoes, etc.
  • Secondary Pollutants: Chlorofluorocarbon, Ozone, Smog, Acid rain (H2SO4, HNO3, H2CO3), PAN (Peroxyacetyl Nitrate), PBN (Peroxybutyl Nitrate), PPN (Peroxypropyl Nitrate)
61

Granite and quartzite areas have a upstanding look because

  1. ((a))

    These rocks are not easily eroded

  2. ((b))

    They are not easily worn down

  3. ((c))

    These rocks are resistant to all kinds of erosion

  4. ((d))

    None of the given options

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

These rocks are resistant to all kinds of erosion

Correct answer is These rocks are resistant to all kinds of erosion.

Key Points

Granite

  1. The main composition of granite is feldspar, quartz, mica, and amphibole minerals.
  2. Granite is hard, coarse-grained rocks of crystalline structure.
  3. It is a type of igneous rock (plutonic rocks).
  4. It is costly and mainly used for heavy engineering work.

Additional Information

Type of workRecommended stone typeReasons
Ornamental worksMarble, close-grained sandstoneThese are light in weight, soft and easy to work, and have pleasing colour and appearance.
Heavy engineering workGraniteIt is heavy, strong, durable and capable of resisting large thrust.
ArchesFine-grained sandstoneStrong and durable.
Railway ballastCoarse-grained sandstone, QuartziteThese are hard and compact.
Electrical switchboardSlate, marblePoor conductor of electricity.
62

Small organisms present in the soil convert biomass to

  1. ((a))

    Manure

  2. ((b))

    Pesticide

  3. ((c))

    Insecticide

  4. ((d))

    Fertilizers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manure

Correct answer is Manure

Key Points

  • Manures are plant and animal wastes that are used as sources of plant nutrients.
  • They release nutrients after their decomposition.
  • It is an organic matter which helps to increase the fertility of the soil and retain the water-holding capacity of the soil.
  • It is prepared by the decomposition of biodegradable waste into the simpler compound which is known as humus.
  • Prepared from animal refuse and rotten vegetables

Additional Information

  • Insecticide
  • Insecticides (bug killers), herbicides (weed killers), and fungicides (fungus killers) are all pesticides.
  • Internationally, pesticides are regulated through two treaties-
  • Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs treaty) addresses toxins that persist, move around the world on wind and water, and bioaccumulate (DDT, for example) and
  • Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent (PIC treaty) gives countries the right to refuse the import of highly hazardous toxins.
  • Pesticide
  • Pesticides are chemical compounds used to combat pests such as insects, rodents (like rats), fungi, and parasitic plants (weeds).
  • The pesticide consisting of the word 'pest' (a destructive insect or another animal that attacks crops, food, livestock, etc) thus meaning, any substance or a mixture of substances whose aim is to destroy or control the impact of any pest.
  • Fertilizers
  • Fertilisers are chemical substances that are rich in a particular nutrient.
  • Fertilisers are very rich in plant nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus & potassium.
  • Some examples of fertilisers are— urea, ammonium sulphate, superphosphate, potash, NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium).
  • They are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves, branches and flowers), giving rise to healthy plants.
  • The use of fertilisers leads to a better yield of crops such as wheat, paddy and maize. But excessive use of fertilisers also makes the soil less fertile.
  • Fertilisers have also become a source of water pollution.
63

Which of the following governments mission is related to sanitation and hygiene?

  1. ((a))

    Ujjwala yojana 

  2. ((b))

    Janani suraksha yojana

  3. ((c))

    Swachh bharat mission

  4. ((d))

    Smart cities mission

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swachh bharat mission

The correct answer is Swachh Bharat Mission.

Key Points

  • Swachh Bharat Mission -
  • “Swachh Bharat Mission” was launched to accelerate the efforts for universal sanitation coverage and to emphasize cleanliness.
  • The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Modi on October 2, 2014.
  • The objective of this mission is to achieve the goal of Swachh Bharat by October 02, 2019, paying tribute to the 150th anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.​

Additional Information

  • National Rural Drinking Water Program -
  • It is run by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
  • This scheme was launched by the 'Department of Drinking Water Supply', 'Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India on 1st April 2009.
  • The main objective of this scheme is to ensure drinking water security for all the rural citizens of India.
  • Prime Minister Ujjwala Yojana -
  • This scheme has been started by Prime Minister Modi Ji.
  • This scheme was started on 1st May 2016 from the Ballia district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is administered by the 'Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas'.
  • This scheme was started for a healthy and safe environment and more protection for women.​
  • Prime Minister's Suraksha Bima Yojana -
  • This scheme was launched by 'Prime Minister Narendra Modi' on 8 May 2015.
  • Through this scheme, there is an important effort to help the future of the weaker sections and their families.
  • In this, the policyholder will have to deposit an amount of Rs. 12 only in a year.​
64

Which of the following is/are conservative force/s?

  1. Force of gravity
  2. Coulomb force
  3. Force of spring

Choose the correct code

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1, 2 and 3

Correct answer is 1, 2 and 3

Additional Information

Concept:

  • Conservative force: A force is conservative if the work done by the force in displacing an object from one point to another point is independent of the path followed by the object and depends only on the endpoints.
  • Electrostatic forcesgravitational forceselastic forces, spring forces, magnetic forces, etc and are examples of a conservative force.
  • Non-conservative forces: A force is said to be non-conservative if work done by or against the force in moving a body from one position to another, depends on the path followed between these two positions.
  • Example:  Frictional forceViscous forceAirdrag, etc.

Explanation:

  • If a body of mass m lifted to height h from the ground level by a different path, then the work done in each case will be the same. Therefore, in conservative force work done by the force in displacing an object from one point to another point is independent of path followed by the object and depends only on the endpoints.

  • If a body is moved from position A to another position B on a rough table, work done against frictional force shall depend on the length of the path between A and B and not only on the position A and B. Therefore, in non-conservative force work done by or against the force in moving a body from one position to anotherdepends on the path followed between these two positions.
65

How are the cells connected in a battery?

  1. ((a))

    Except one

  2. ((b))

    One after the other

  3. ((c))

    Only first and last

  4. ((d))

    Any two

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

One after the other

Correct answer is One after the other i.e. series

Key Points

Series connection:

  • Increases output voltage.
  • Capacity remains the same (measured in ampere-hours).

Parallel connection:

  • Increases capacity (Ampere-hour)
  • The output voltage remains the same.

66

Which of the following fungi is responsible for ringworm which is one of the most common infectious disease in humans?

  1. ((a))

    Ascaris

  2. ((b))

    Entamoeba histolytica

  3. ((c))

    Tricophyton

  4. ((d))

    Wuchereria

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tricophyton

The correct answer is Tricophyton 

​Ringworm: A common fungal skin infection that often looks like a circular rash.

  • Approximately 40 different species of fungi can cause ringworm; the scientific names for the types of fungi that cause ringworm are Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton.

Key Points 

  • Trichophyton is a genus of fungi, which includes the parasitic varieties that cause tinea, including athlete's foot, ringworm, jock itch, and similar infections of the nail, beard, skin and scalp. Trichophyton fungi are molds characterized by the development of both smooth-walled macro- and microconidia.

Hence we can conclude that Tricophyton is responsible for ringworm.

Additional Information 

  • Candida infections of the mouth, throat, and esophagus: Caused by the yeast Candida, also called “thrush.
  • The fungal disease, called Fusarium Wilt, is popularly known as the Panama Disease’ and afflicts banana plants.
  • Aspergillus (mold fungus) is responsible for causing Aspergillosis. It affects the respiratory tract and causes illness by its spore.
67

Mg2+ ion is _________ than Al3+

  1. ((a))

    Weaker Lewis acid 

  2. ((b))

    Weaker Lewis base

  3. ((c))

    Stronger Lewis acid

  4. ((d))

    Stronger Lewis base

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Weaker Lewis acid 

Correct answer is Weaker Lewis acid 

Key Points

Concept:

When we will go from left to right in the period of a periodic table then the size of the atom decreases due to

  • The number of proton increases by one unit
  • The number of electrons enters in the same orbital
  • So the size ( or radius ) order of Na, Mg, and Al is, Na> Mg>Al

 For cations Na+ , Mg2+ , Al3+

  • For isoelectronic ions, the Radius of cation ∝ e/z, where e is the number of electrons and z is the number of protons.
  • For Na+ , e = 10 and z=11
  • For Mg2+ , e=10 and z=12
  • For Al3+ , e=10 and z=13
  • rNa+ : rMg2+ : rAl3+ = (10/11) : (10/12) : (10/13)
  • From Na+, Mg2+ to Al3+ the number of electrons are same and the number of protons increases by one unit.
68

Mountaineers carry oxygen cylinder with them because

  1. ((a))

    There is no oxygen on high mountains

  2. ((b))

    There is deficiency of oxygen on mountains at high altitude

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen is used for cooking

  4. ((d))

    Oxygen keeps them warm at low temperature 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

There is deficiency of oxygen on mountains at high altitude

correct answer is There is deficiency of oxygen on mountains at high altitude

Key Points

  • The air is substantially thinner at high altitudes than it is at sea level.
  • As a result, each breath results in less oxygen being inhaled.
  • Headaches, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, sluggish thinking, and the inability to continue physical exertion for extended periods of time are all signs of hypoxia, also referred to as mountain sickness.
  • The body makes more red blood cells during the days to weeks of acclimatisation in order to make up for the lower oxygen saturation in blood at high altitudes.
  • The increase in red blood cells reaches a plateau and then stops, signalling complete adaptation to high altitude.
  • Brain cells can be harmed directly by an oxygen deficit. The walls of blood capillaries also start to leak at high altitudes, and the fluid that leaks from them can produce severe swelling that pushes the brain against the inflexible skull.

​ 

Additional Information

Explanation:

  • Mountaineers have trouble breathing at higher altitudes because the oxygen content drops. They carry oxygen cylinders for this reason.
  • Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes, which results in less dense air, mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them.
  • The amount of oxygen available for breathing is consequently very low.
69

What is the formula of pressure?

  1. ((a))

    Area/Force

  2. ((b))

    Force × Area

  3. ((c))

    Force/Mass

  4. ((d))

    Force/Area

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Force/Area

Correct answer is Force/Area

Key Points

CONCEPT:

  • Pressure: The force per unit area is called pressure. It is denoted by P.
  • The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa).
  • The basic formula for pressure is given by:

 

EXPLANATION:

The pressure is defined as force per unit area i.e.P=FA�=���=��

As force = mass × acceleration

acceleration = velocity × time-1 = [L T-1] [T]-1 = [L T-2]

∴ The dimensional formula of force = [M] × [L T-2]

⇒ Force = M1 L1 T-2

​⇒ The dimensional formula of area = M0 L2 T0

  • Hence the dimensional formula of pressure is

 

Important Points

  • Some Basic Dimensional formula:
Sl. No.QuantityCommon SymbolSI UnitDimension
1Velocityv, ums-1LT-1
2Accelerationams-2LT-2
3ForceFNewton (N)M L T-2
4MomentumpKg-ms-1M L T-1
5Gravitational constantGN-m2Kg-2L3 M-1 T-2
6Gravitational potentialPJ-kg-1M0 L2 T-2
7Bulk ModulusBNm2M L-1 T-2
8EnergyE, U, Kjoule (J)M L2 T-2
9HeatQjoule (J)M L2 T-2
10PressurePNm-2 (Pa)M L-1 T-2
70

Industrial and hospital waste is considers hazardous as they may contain _________ materials.

  1. ((a))

    Plastics

  2. ((b))

    Solid

  3. ((c))

    Metals

  4. ((d))

    Toxic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Toxic

Correct answer is Toxic

Key Points

  • Certain waste types are considered as hazardous and cannot be disposed of without special handling which will prevent contamination.
  • Biomedical waste found in health care facilities and similar institutions such as hospitals etc. is considered hazardous.i.e they are Toxic
  • So, there is a special waste disposal system for such waste products.

Additional Information

Hazardous waste: Hazardous waste is waste that has substantial or potential threats to public health or the environment.

Characteristics: Hazardous wastes are the materials that are known or tested to exhibit one or more of the following hazardous traits:

  • Ignitability
  • Corrosivity
  • Reactivity
  • Toxicity
71

What purpose does associative mapping serve?

  1. ((a))

    Data is moved between the main memory and the cache memory using mapping routines

  2. ((b))

    Data is moved between the main memory and the other all memory using mapping routines

  3. ((c))

    Data is moved between the main memory and the device memory using mapping routines

  4. ((d))

    Data is moved between the hard disk and the cache memory using mapping routines

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data is moved between the main memory and the cache memory using mapping routines

The correct answer is 1) Data is moved between the main memory and the cache memory using mapping routines

Key Points

  • Associative mapping is a technique used in cache memory to determine where a block of data from the main memory should be placed in the cache.
  • It allows the cache to store data from any part of the main memory, rather than restricting it to a specific location.
  • This mapping method provides greater flexibility and speed in accessing data compared to other mapping techniques, such as direct mapping.
  • Associative mapping helps to reduce the time it takes to search for data in the cache, thereby improving the overall performance of the system.

Additional Information

  • Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory located close to the CPU that stores frequently accessed data and instructions.
  • There are different types of cache mapping techniques, including direct mapping, associative mapping, and set-associative mapping.
  • Direct mapping assigns each block of main memory to a specific cache line, which can lead to conflicts and reduced performance.
  • Set-associative mapping is a compromise between direct and associative mapping, where the cache is divided into sets, and each block of main memory can be placed in any line within a specific set.
  • The efficiency of the cache memory system is crucial for the performance of modern computer systems.
72

Microsoft PowerPoint is a powerful slide show _______.

  1. ((a))

    Gaming program 

  2. ((b))

    Presentation program

  3. ((c))

    Server

  4. ((d))

    Web portal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Presentation program

The correct answer is: option 2

Key PointsMicrosoft PowerPoint is a software application developed by Microsoft that is used to create slide show presentations.

Important Points

 Why is Microsoft PowerPoint a Presentation Program?

  • Slide-Based Structure: PowerPoint allows users to create slides that can include text, images, graphs, charts, audio, and videos to present information in a structured manner.
  • Design and Formatting: Users can choose from a variety of templates, themes, and design tools to enhance the visual appeal of their presentations.
  • Animation and Transition Effects: PowerPoint provides animations and slide transition effects to make presentations more engaging.
  • Slide Show Mode: The "Slide Show" feature enables users to display their presentation in a sequential manner, making it easy to present information to an audience.
  • Collaboration and Sharing: PowerPoint supports cloud-based collaboration, allowing multiple users to work on a presentation simultaneously via Microsoft OneDrive or SharePoint.
73

MS Outlook is a______.

  1. ((a))

    E-mail client

  2. ((b))

    Word processor

  3. ((c))

    Spread sheet

  4. ((d))

    Presentation format 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E-mail client

The correct answer is 1) E-mail client

Key Points

  • MS Outlook is primarily used as an e-mail client.
  • It is a part of the Microsoft Office suite and includes functions such as calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, journal, and web browsing.
  • MS Outlook can be used as a stand-alone application, or it can work with Microsoft Exchange Server and Microsoft SharePoint Server for multiple users in an organization, such as shared mailboxes and calendars, Exchange public folders, SharePoint lists, and meeting schedules.
  • It also provides access to e-mail, calendars, contacts, and tasks from a single interface.
  • MS Outlook supports a wide range of e-mail protocols, including POP3, IMAP, and Exchange ActiveSync.

Additional Information

  • MS Outlook was first released in 1997 and has since become one of the most widely used e-mail clients in the world.
  • It is available for both Windows and macOS operating systems, and there are also mobile versions for iOS and Android.
  • MS Outlook can be integrated with other Microsoft services such as OneDrive, Skype, and Teams, enhancing its functionality and collaboration features.
  • Users can customize their e-mail rules, alerts, and views to manage their inbox more efficiently.
  • Security features in MS Outlook include spam filtering, phishing protection, and e-mail encryption to safeguard user data.
74

A typical CD-ROM can store up to _______ data.

  1. ((a))

    680 Bytes

  2. ((b))

    680 GB

  3. ((c))

    680 MB 

  4. ((d))

    680 KB

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

680 MB 

The correct answer is 680 MB

Key Points

  • A typical CD-ROM can store up to 680 MB of data.
  • CD-ROM stands for Compact Disc Read-Only Memory, which is a type of optical disc used to store data for access by computers.
  • It is commonly used for distributing software, games, and multimedia content.
  • The storage capacity of a CD-ROM makes it suitable for storing relatively large amounts of data compared to older storage media like floppy disks.
  • CD-ROMs are read using a laser, which allows for high data density and durability.

Additional Information

  • The CD-ROM was introduced in the early 1980s and became a widely used format for data storage and distribution.
  • Unlike writable CDs (CD-R), data on a CD-ROM cannot be modified or deleted once it has been written.
  • The standard diameter of a CD-ROM is 120 mm (4.7 inches), and it can store up to 700 MB of data, although 680 MB is a more common usable capacity.
  • CD-ROMs use a file system called ISO 9660, which is compatible with various operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux.
  • Advancements in optical disc technology have led to the development of other formats like DVD and Blu-ray, which offer higher storage capacities.
75

Which of the following is the organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses to internet service providers (ISPs)?

  1. ((a))

    ISO

  2. ((b))

    NIC

  3. ((c))

    IANA

  4. ((d))

    IATA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

IANA

The correct answer is IANA

Key Points

  • IANA stands for the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority.
  • IANA is a department of ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers), a nonprofit private American corporation.
  • It is responsible for overseeing global IP address allocation, autonomous system number allocation, root zone management in the Domain Name System (DNS), and other Internet Protocol-related symbols and Internet numbers.
  • The allocation of IP addresses to internet service providers (ISPs) is a crucial function for maintaining the global internet infrastructure.
  • IANA ensures that IP addresses are allocated in a fair and efficient manner to avoid conflicts and duplication.

Additional Information

  • The ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is an international standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards organizations.
  • The NIC (National Informatics Centre) provides network backbone and e-Governance support to the Indian government.
  • The IATA (International Air Transport Association) is a trade association of the world’s airlines, aiming to support aviation with global standards for airline safety, security, efficiency, and sustainability.
  • IP addresses are unique identifiers assigned to each device connected to the internet, allowing them to communicate with each other.
  • IANA works closely with regional internet registries (RIRs) to distribute IP addresses efficiently.
76

______ feature is used to convert ink drawings to shapes.

  1. ((a))

    Handwritten to Shape 

  2. ((b))

    Ink to Shape

  3. ((c))

    Ink Drawing to Shape

  4. ((d))

    Immersive

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ink to Shape

The correct answer is Ink to Shape

Key Points

  • The Ink to Shape feature is utilized to convert ink drawings into shapes.
  • This feature is particularly useful in applications like Microsoft OneNote or other digital note-taking tools where users can draw freehand.
  • Once activated, the Ink to Shape tool recognizes hand-drawn shapes such as circles, squares, and triangles, and converts them into perfect geometric shapes.
  • It enhances the neatness and readability of notes, making it easier to create organized diagrams and illustrations.

Additional Information

  • The Ink to Shape feature can be found in the Draw tab of many digital note-taking applications.
  • Users can toggle this feature on or off depending on their needs.
  • It supports a variety of shapes and is designed to improve the user experience by providing a cleaner look to hand-drawn diagrams.
  • Alongside Ink to Shape, many applications also offer other tools like Ink to Text, which converts handwritten notes into typed text.
77

CPU’s internal storage is provided by which of the following components?

  1. ((a))

    Internal Chips

  2. ((b))

    Program Counters

  3. ((c))

    Controllers

  4. ((d))

    Registers

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Registers

The correct answer is Registers.

Key Points

  • Registers are small, high-speed storage locations within the CPU that hold data and instructions temporarily during processing.
  • They provide the fastest way for the CPU to access data, significantly speeding up the processing time compared to accessing data from main memory.
  • Registers are used to store intermediate results, instructions, and data that are frequently accessed or processed by the CPU.
  • Examples of registers include the Accumulator, Program Counter, Instruction Register, and General-Purpose Registers.

Additional Information

  • Internal Chips refer to the various integrated circuits within the CPU but are not specifically for storage.
  • Program Counters are special types of registers that hold the address of the next instruction to be executed.
  • Controllers are components that manage the operation of various parts of the computer but do not serve as storage.
  • Registers are crucial for CPU performance, enabling quick read and write operations that support efficient execution of instructions.
78

MySQL supports a lot number of ________ standard data types in various categories.

  1. ((a))

    SQL

  2. ((b))

    NQL

  3. ((c))

    MQL

  4. ((d))

    PQL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SQL

The correct answer is SQL

Key Points

  • MySQL supports a large number of SQL standard data types in various categories.
  • These data types include numeric, date and time, string (character and byte), spatial, and JSON data types.
  • SQL (Structured Query Language) is the standard language for relational database management systems.
  • Using SQL, you can perform tasks such as query, update, and manage data in a database.

Additional Information

  • MySQL is an open-source relational database management system.
  • It is commonly used in web applications and is a central component of the LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP/Perl/Python) stack.
  • MySQL is developed, distributed, and supported by Oracle Corporation.
  • It is known for its reliability, performance, and ease of use.
  • MySQL supports various storage engines, including InnoDB and MyISAM.
  • It also provides support for ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) transactions.
  • MySQL can be used for a variety of applications, but it is most commonly found in web-based applications.
79

The main objective of the________ protocol is to provide a private channel between communicating applications that guarantees the privacy of data and the partners' authentication and integrity.

  1. ((a))

    PSL

  2. ((b))

    SSL

  3. ((c))

    ESP

  4. ((d))

    TSL

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

SSL

The correct answer is SSL

Key Points

  • SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a server and a client—typically a web server (website) and a browser, or a mail server and a mail client (e.g., Outlook).
  • SSL allows sensitive information such as credit card numbers, social security numbers, and login credentials to be transmitted securely.
  • Normally, data sent between browsers and web servers is sent in plain text—leaving you vulnerable to eavesdropping. If an attacker is able to intercept all data being sent between a browser and a web server, they can see and use that information.
  • More specifically, SSL is a security protocol. Protocols describe how algorithms should be used. In this case, the SSL protocol determines variables of the encryption for both the link and the data being transmitted.

Additional Information

  • SSL was succeeded by TLS (Transport Layer Security), which is based on SSL. However, the terms SSL and TLS are often used interchangeably, even though they are slightly different protocols.
  • The primary difference between SSL and TLS is the process of setting up a secure connection. TLS is more secure and efficient than SSL.
  • When a website is secured by an SSL/TLS certificate, it ensures that all data passed between the web server and browsers remain private and integral.
  • SSL/TLS certificates can also provide authentication, confirming that the website being accessed is indeed the one it claims to be.
80

Bitcoin is created by______.

  1. ((a))

    Vitalik Buterin

  2. ((b))

    Satoshi Nakamoto

  3. ((c))

    Saifedean Ammous

  4. ((d))

    None of the given options

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Satoshi Nakamoto

The correct answer is Satoshi Nakamoto.

Key Points

  • Satoshi Nakamoto is the pseudonymous person or group of people who created Bitcoin.
  • Bitcoin was introduced in a 2008 white paper titled "Bitcoin: A Peer-to-Peer Electronic Cash System".
  • The identity of Satoshi Nakamoto remains unknown, and there have been numerous speculations and claims regarding their identity.
  • Bitcoin is the first decentralized cryptocurrency, and its creation marked the beginning of the cryptocurrency revolution.
  • It operates on a peer-to-peer network without the need for a central authority, making it a revolutionary form of digital currency.

Additional Information

  • Vitalik Buterin is the co-founder of Ethereum, another popular cryptocurrency platform.
  • Saifedean Ammous is an economist and author known for his book "The Bitcoin Standard".
  • Bitcoin's creation has led to the development of thousands of other cryptocurrencies, collectively known as altcoins.
  • Bitcoin's underlying technology, blockchain, has found applications in various industries beyond cryptocurrency.
81

A keyboard is a kind of________ device.

  1. ((a))

    Word Processing

  2. ((b))

    Output

  3. ((c))

    Input

  4. ((d))

    Black

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Input

The correct answer is Input

Key Points

  • A keyboard is primarily an input device used to enter data into a computer or other digital devices.
  • It allows users to type text, numbers, and execute commands by pressing keys.
  • Keyboards can connect to computers via wired or wireless connections.
  • There are different types of keyboards available, such as mechanical, membrane, and virtual keyboards.
  • Keyboards often include special function keys, numeric keypads, and shortcut keys to enhance user efficiency.

Additional Information

  • The concept of the keyboard dates back to the invention of the typewriter in the 19th century.
  • Modern keyboards are often based on the QWERTY layout, which was designed to reduce typing speed to prevent typewriter jams.
  • Ergonomic keyboards are designed to minimize strain and discomfort during extended typing sessions.
  • Some advanced keyboards feature backlighting, programmable keys, and integrated touchpads.
  • In addition to computers, keyboards are also used in other devices like smartphones, tablets, and gaming consoles.
82

Which of the following is the key clustering system concept?

  1. ((a))

    Word processing, Internet access

  2. ((b))

    Real-time scheduling

  3. ((c))

    Automate transition between jobs

  4. ((d))

    Task scheduling, node failure management

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Task scheduling, node failure management

The correct answer is Task scheduling, node failure management

Key Points

  • Task scheduling, node failure management is a critical concept in clustering systems.
  • Clustering systems are designed to distribute workloads across multiple nodes to ensure high availability and reliability.
  • Effective task scheduling ensures that tasks are efficiently distributed among nodes, optimizing resource usage and performance.
  • Node failure management involves mechanisms to detect and handle node failures, ensuring that the system can recover and continue operations without significant downtime.
  • These features are essential for maintaining the robustness and efficiency of a clustering system, especially in environments requiring high availability and fault tolerance.

Additional Information

  • Word processing, Internet access are not related to clustering systems but are general computing tasks.
  • Real-time scheduling is relevant to real-time systems but is not specific to clustering.
  • Automate transition between jobs is a feature of job scheduling systems but does not encompass all key aspects of clustering systems.
  • Clustering systems are widely used in data centers, cloud computing, and high-performance computing environments.
  • They provide scalability, load balancing, and fault tolerance, making them essential for modern IT infrastructure.
83

Which of the subsequent menu types also goes by the name "drop-down menu"?

  1. ((a))

    Ladder

  2. ((b))

    Pop up

  3. ((c))

    Pull down

  4. ((d))

    Cascading

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pull down

The correct answer is Pull down

Key Points

  • A Pull down menu is also referred to as a drop-down menu.
  • It is a graphical control element, similar to a list box, that allows the user to choose one value from a list.
  • When a pull-down menu is inactive, it displays a single value. When activated, it displays a list of values, from which the user may select one.
  • Pull-down menus are commonly used in many software applications and websites to provide a compact way to select an option from a predefined list of choices.
  • Other terms like ladder, pop up, and cascading refer to different types of menus and are not synonymous with drop-down menus.

Additional Information

  • Pop-up menus appear upon user interaction, such as right-clicking a mouse button, and can display a list of options relevant to the context.
  • Cascading menus are secondary menus that appear adjacent to the primary menu item, often indicated by a right-pointing arrow.
  • Ladder menus are less common and typically refer to hierarchical menus that expand vertically down the screen.
  • Using appropriate menu types improves the user experience by making navigation and selection more intuitive.
84

Which of the following is/are the primary components of the first generation of computers?

  1. ((a))

    Integrated circuits

  2. ((b))

    Vacuum tubes and valves

  3. ((c))

    Transistors

  4. ((d))

    External Circuits

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vacuum tubes and valves

The correct answer is Vacuum tubes and valves

Key Points

  • Vacuum tubes and valves were the primary components used in the first generation of computers.
  • The first generation of computers spanned from the 1940s to the 1950s.
  • These computers were very large, consumed a lot of power, and generated a significant amount of heat.
  • Examples of first-generation computers include the ENIAC, UNIVAC, and IBM 701.
  • The use of vacuum tubes made these computers faster than their mechanical predecessors but still relatively slow compared to later generations.

Additional Information

  • Vacuum tubes were eventually replaced by transistors in the second generation of computers, which were more efficient and reliable.
  • The development of integrated circuits marked the beginning of the third generation of computers, leading to further miniaturization and performance improvements.
  • Modern computers use microprocessors, which integrate millions of transistors into a single chip.
  • The evolution of computer technology has significantly increased computational power while reducing the size and cost of computers.
85

What do you mean when you refer to addressing modes?

  1. ((a))

    Used to calculate the effective memory address of any operand 

  2. ((b))

    Used to calculate data of any operand

  3. ((c))

    Used to calculate the place of address of any operand

  4. ((d))

    Used to calculate the address of any operand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Used to calculate the effective memory address of any operand 

The correct answer is Used to calculate the effective memory address of any operand

Key Points

  • Addressing modes are used to calculate the effective memory address of any operand.
  • They play a crucial role in computer architecture by determining how the operand of an instruction is chosen.
  • Understanding addressing modes is essential for tasks like assembly language programming and system design.
  • They help in optimizing the utilization of CPU registers and improving execution efficiency.

Additional Information

  • Common addressing modes include immediate, direct, indirect, indexed, and register addressing modes.
  • Each addressing mode provides a different method of specifying the operand's address, thus offering flexibility in programming.
  • For instance, immediate addressing uses a constant value directly within the instruction, while indirect addressing uses a pointer to the address where the actual operand is located.
  • Understanding these modes helps in efficiently writing and debugging low-level code.
86

A network device that connects two or more network segments is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Routing

  2. ((b))

    Router

  3. ((c))

    Topology

  4. ((d))

    Main network

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Router

The correct answer is Router.

Key Points

  • Router is a network device that connects two or more network segments.
  • Routers are critical in directing data traffic between different networks, ensuring that data packets reach their intended destinations.
  • They operate at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model, using IP addresses to determine the best path for data transmission.
  • Routers can also provide additional functionalities such as network security, load balancing, and data traffic management.

Additional Information

  • Unlike switches or hubs, which connect devices within the same network, routers connect different networks together.
  • Modern routers often include integrated features such as wireless access points, network firewall, and DHCP server capabilities.
  • Routers use routing tables and protocols like RIP, OSPF, and BGP to determine the optimal path for data packets.
  • In a home or small office environment, a single router can connect multiple devices to the internet, providing network address translation (NAT) to manage IP addresses.
87

What is the maximum limit of column in MS Excel 2010?

  1. ((a))

    16384

  2. ((b))

    16843

  3. ((c))

    16348

  4. ((d))

    16438

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16384

The correct answer is 16384

Key Points

  • The maximum limit of columns in MS Excel 2010 is 16384.
  • Excel 2010 supports up to 1,048,576 rows and 16,384 columns per worksheet.
  • The columns are labeled from A to Z, AA to ZZ, and so on up to XFD, which is the 16,384th column.
  • These limits were introduced in Excel 2007 and have been retained in subsequent versions, including Excel 2010.

Additional Information

  • Excel 2003 and earlier versions had a limit of 256 columns and 65,536 rows per worksheet.
  • With the introduction of Excel 2007, Microsoft significantly increased the limits to accommodate larger datasets and more complex analyses.
  • These enhancements have made Excel a more powerful tool for data analysis and management.
  • Excel 2010 also introduced new features such as sparklines, slicers, and an improved conditional formatting interface.
88

With respect to the computer, what is the full form Wi-Fi?

  1. ((a))

    Wireless Focus

  2. ((b))

    Wired Focus

  3. ((c))

    Wired Fidelity

  4. ((d))

    Wireless Fidelity

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Wireless Fidelity

The correct answer is Wireless Fidelity

Key Points

  • Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity.
  • Wi-Fi is a technology that allows electronic devices to connect to a wireless LAN (WLAN) network, primarily using the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz radio bands.
  • It is commonly used for internet access, allowing devices like computers, smartphones, and tablets to connect to the internet without the need for wired connections.
  • Wi-Fi technology is based on the IEEE 802.11 family of standards.
  • Wi-Fi is widely used in homes, businesses, and public spaces to provide wireless internet access.

Additional Information

  • Wi-Fi networks can be secured using various encryption methods such as WEP, WPA, and WPA2 to protect data and restrict access to authorized users.
  • The term "Wi-Fi" was coined by the Wi-Fi Alliance, a non-profit organization that promotes Wi-Fi technology and certifies Wi-Fi products for conformity to certain standards of interoperability.
  • Wi-Fi has become a crucial part of modern communication infrastructure, enabling wireless connectivity in a wide range of environments.
  • Public Wi-Fi hotspots are available in many places, including cafes, airports, and libraries, providing convenient internet access on the go.
89

Which is the incorrect preventive measures against the malware?

  1. ((a))

    Using antivirus, anti-malware, and other related software

  2. ((b))

    Configure your browser security settings

  3. ((c))

    Remove all the programs that you don’t recognise from your system

  4. ((d))

    Check unsolicited emails by clicking

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Check unsolicited emails by clicking

The correct answer is Check unsolicited emails by clicking

Key Points

  • Check unsolicited emails by clicking is an incorrect preventive measure against malware.
  • Clicking on unsolicited emails can expose your system to malware, phishing attacks, and other security threats.
  • Instead, you should delete unsolicited emails without opening them and ensure that your email client has robust spam filtering settings.
  • Other preventive measures such as using antivirus, anti-malware software, configuring your browser security settings, and removing unrecognized programs are effective in protecting your system from malware.

Additional Information

  • Antivirus and anti-malware software can detect, quarantine, and remove malicious software from your system.
  • Configuring your browser security settings can help block malicious websites and downloads.
  • Regularly updating your operating system and software ensures that you have the latest security patches to protect against vulnerabilities.
  • Practicing safe browsing habits and being cautious about the sources of downloads and emails can significantly reduce the risk of malware infections.
90

Which Operating System enables a user to simply and reliably access resources that are present in other computer systems? 

  1. ((a))

    Real time systems

  2. ((b))

    Multiprocessing systems

  3. ((c))

    Distributed systems

  4. ((d))

    Desktop systems

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Distributed systems

The correct answer is Distributed systems

Key Points

  • Distributed systems enable a user to access resources that are present in other computer systems in a simple and reliable manner.
  • These systems spread the workload across multiple computers, which can be geographically dispersed, to achieve greater efficiency and reliability.
  • Distributed systems provide scalability, fault tolerance, and resource sharing, making them ideal for applications that require extensive computational power and data management.
  • Examples of distributed systems include cloud computing platforms, distributed databases, and networked file systems.

Additional Information

  • Real-time systems are designed to handle tasks that require immediate processing, ensuring timely responses.
  • Multiprocessing systems use multiple processors to perform multiple tasks simultaneously, enhancing performance and efficiency.
  • Desktop systems are standalone personal computers designed for individual use.
  • Distributed systems typically involve network communication between different machines, and they often rely on middleware to manage communication and resource sharing.
  • They are crucial in modern computing environments, supporting applications such as e-commerce, social media, and scientific research.
91

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

13 ∶ 196 ∶∶ 9 ∶ ?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    131

  3. ((c))

    111

  4. ((d))

    121

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

The logic followed here is:

13 ∶ 196

(13 + 1)2 = 196

(14)2 = 196

196 = 196 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

9 ∶ ?

(9 + 1)2 = ?

(10)2 = ?

100 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

92

In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash was shifted by two places towards the left, he became 7th from the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?

  1. ((a))

    7th

  2. ((b))

    8th

  3. ((c))

    9th

  4. ((d))

    10th

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8th

Given: In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash was shifted by two places towards the left, he became 7 from the left end.

The earlier position of Prakash from the right end of the row = 16 - (7 + 2) + 1

= 16 - 9 + 1

= 8th

Hence, ‘Option 2’ is the correct answer.

93

Which of the boxes comes next in the sequence?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

  1. The circle element is alternately shaded.

  2. In every fourth box the number of square elements are increasing subsequently. 

Thus, final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

94

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives. 

  1. ((a))

    Words

  2. ((b))

    Writer

  3. ((c))

    Paragraph

  4. ((d))

    Pages

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Writer

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) Words ⇒ Components of written content.

Option 2) Writer ⇒ Person who creates the content.

Option 3) Paragraph ⇒ Components of written content.

Option 4) Pages ⇒ Components of written content.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer

95

Find the next term of the given series

H4W, 118V, K48T, N100Q, R180M, ?

  1. ((a))

    T206K

  2. ((b))

    S198I

  3. ((c))

    W294H

  4. ((d))

    P1485S

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

W294H

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

96

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

GYBN : FHXZACMO :: GLOW : ?

  1. ((a))

    FKHMNPVX

  2. ((b))

    FHKMNPVX

  3. ((c))

    FHKNMPVX

  4. ((d))

    FHKPNMVX

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

FHKMNPVX

The logic followed here is:

GYBN : FHXZACMO

Similarly,

GLOW : ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

97

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    56 - 42

  2. ((b))

    35 - 28

  3. ((c))

    14 - 20

  4. ((d))

    49 - 35

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

14 - 20

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 56 - 42 → Both 56 and 42 are multiples of 7.

Option 2) 35 - 28 → Both 56 and 42 are multiples of 7.

Option 3) 14 - 20 → Only 14 is a multiple of 7 but not 20.

Option 4) 49 - 35 → Both 56 and 42 are multiples of 7.

Thus, out of all the options '14 - 20' is the off one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

98

In a queue, A is 18th from the front while B is 16th from the back. If C is 24th from the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there is the queue?

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    47

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

45

Given: A is 18th from the front while B is 16th from the back. If C is 24th from the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B.

Total number of people in the queue = (Number of people before C + C's position + Number people after C) 

Total number of people in the queue = (23 + 1 + 21) → 45

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

99

If ACTION is coded as 141592031 and CAMPER is coded as 185161313, then how will SOLUTE be coded in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    52021131519

  2. ((b))

    52221121519

  3. ((c))

    52021121520

  4. ((d))

    52021121519

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

52021121519

The logic followed here is:

ACTION is coded as 141592031

And,

CAMPER is coded as 185161313

Similarly,

SOLUTE is coded as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

100

A man started from point X and moves towards east. After walking for a distance of 20 m, he took a right turn, and walks for 20 m then he took a left turn, and walk for 15 m after that he took a right turn and walked 15 m more. In which direction is the man facing now?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    East

  3. ((c))

    South

  4. ((d))

    West

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

South

Given: 

A man started from point X and moves towards east.

After walking for a distance of 20 m, he took a right turn,

and walks for 20 m then he took a left turn,

and walk for 15 m after that he took a right turn

and walked 15 m more.

​​

Thus, the man is facing in the south direction.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

101

M, N, R and T run in a race. M finished the race immediately after N but no one finished the race after ‘M’. ‘R’ finished the race before ‘N’ but could not finish before ‘T’. Who is the second winner?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

R

Given: M, N, R and T run in a race. 

1) ‘R’ finished the race before ‘N’ but could not finish before ‘T’.

T > R > N

2) M finished the race immediately after N but no one finished the race after ‘M’. 

T > R > N > M

Thus, according to the final arrangement, R is the second winner.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

102

Select the option in which the letters share the same relationship as that shared by the same pair of letters:

KrmJ : jMRk :: hTbL : ?

  1. ((a))

    hTBl

  2. ((b))

    lBHt

  3. ((c))

    lBtH

  4. ((d))

    LBTh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

lBtH

The logic followed here is:

KrmJ : jMRk

Similarly,

hTbL : ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

103

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Friend : Enemy :: ? : Hatred

  1. ((a))

    Empathy

  2. ((b))

    Love

  3. ((c))

    Mercy

  4. ((d))

    Anger

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Love

The logic followed here is:

Opposite of enemy is friend.

Similarly,

Opposite of hatred is love.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer

104

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

105

A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

13 18 8 23 3 ?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    28

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

28

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

106

What comes in place of question mark?

  1. ((a))

    140

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    77

  4. ((d))

    70

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

80

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

107

Choose the choice that is related to the third term in the same way that the second term is related to the first term.

MAN : NCM :: BAN : ?

  1. ((a))

    YCM

  2. ((b))

    MCY

  3. ((c))

    CMY

  4. ((d))

    YBM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YCM

The logic followed here is:

MAN : NCM

Similarly,

BAN : ?

​​

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

108

From the given responses, find the missing letter in the series.

WVU, RQP, MLK, ?

  1. ((a))

    ADC

  2. ((b))

    SVD

  3. ((c))

    AVF

  4. ((d))

    HGF

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

HGF

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

109

Find the next term in the following series.

15 65 125 130 60 ?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

110

If wood is called pearl, pearl is called silver, silver is called gold, gold is called diamond, diamond is called iron and iron is called steel. Which one of the costliest jewel?

  1. ((a))

    Iron

  2. ((b))

    Diamond

  3. ((c))

    Pearl

  4. ((d))

    Silver

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iron

Given:

Given itemIs called
WoodPearl
PearlSilver
SilverGold
GoldDiamond
DiamondIron
IronSteel

So, the costliest jewel is 'Diamond' which is called 'Iron'.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

111

Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the question based on it.

The following bar graph shows the political turnover in the period of four years during the time of different American presidents.

During which year in their presidenship, the presidents have made the maximum turnovers?

  1. ((a))

    3rd year

  2. ((b))

    4th year

  3. ((c))

    2nd year

  4. ((d))

    1st year

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3rd year

Calculation: 

President Total Turnover in Year 1 :

⇒ 17 + 7 + 11 + 6 + 9  = 50

Presidents Total Turnover in Year 2 :

⇒ 40 + 18 + 27 + 27 + 15  = 127

President Total Turnover in Year 3 :

⇒ 13 + 32 +20 + 25 + 43 = 133

President Total Turnover in Year 4 :

⇒ 8 + 9 + 16 + 15 +4 = 52

∴ The presidents have made the maximum turnovers in the year 3 i.e.133

112

Arrange the given words in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

  1. Select
  2. Seldom
  3. Send
  4. Selfish
  5. Seller
  1. ((a))

    1, 2, 4, 5, 3

  2. ((b))

    2, 1, 5, 4, 3

  3. ((c))

    2, 1, 4, 5, 3

  4. ((d))

    2, 5, 4, 1, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2, 1, 4, 5, 3

The correct order of words as they would appear in an English dictionary:

  1. Seldom
  2. Select
  3. Selfish
  4. Seller
  5. Send

The correct order is '2, 1, 4, 5, 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

113

Deepak rolled three dice together. What is the probability of getting 5 on at least one dice?

  1. ((a))

    78216\frac{78}{216}

  2. ((b))

    14\frac{1}{4}

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    91216\frac{91}{216}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

91216\frac{91}{216}

Given:

Three dice are rolled together.

Calculations:

Total possible outcomes when three dice are rolled = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216

Let's find the probability of not getting a 5 on any of the dice.

Probability of not getting a 5 on one die = 5/6 (since there are 5 outcomes other than 5)

Probability of not getting a 5 on any of the three dice = (5/6) × (5/6) × (5/6) = 125/216

Probability of getting at least one 5 = 1 - Probability of not getting any 5

Probability = 1 - 125/216

Probability = (216 - 125) / 216

Probability = 91/216

The probability of getting 5 on at least one dice is 91/216.

114

Ramesh exits from his house facing north. He walks 10 m straight, takes a left turn & walks 5m, then takes a right turn & walks 10m and finally takes another right turn and walks 50m. Meanwhile Rakesh also leaves his house, walks 5m straight, takes a left turn & walks 20m, then takes a another left turn and walks 50m to meet Ramesh facing each other.

What is the distance of Rakesh's house from Ramesh's house and in which direction?

  1. ((a))

    95 m, east

  2. ((b))

    95m, west

  3. ((c))

    90m, east

  4. ((d))

    100 m, east

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

90m, east

Given:

Ramesh exits from his house facing north.

He walks 10 m straight, takes a left turn & walks 5m,

then takes a right turn & walks 10m and

finally takes another right turn and walks 50m.

Meanwhile Rakesh also leaves his house, walks 5m straight,

takes a left turn & walks 20m, then takes a another left turn

and walks 50m to meet Ramesh facing each other.

Thus, Rakesh's house is (100 m - 5 m - 5m) 90m far from Ramesh's house in the east direction.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

115

From the given option, which answer figure can be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The folding the paper cutting along the lines to make a cubical box is shown below:

⇒ As the alternate positions become opposite to each other, the remaining two faces become opposite to each other.

So, opposite pairs are:

 

 

So, each option one by one:

Option 1)

⇒ Cannot be made because 

 is adjacent to  

.

Option 2) 

⇒ Cannot be made because 

 is adjacent to  

.

Option 3) 

⇒ Can be made because all are the opposite sides.

Option 4) 

⇒ Cannot be made because 

  is adjacent to 

.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

116

If we add 18 to a two-digit number, its digits get reversed. If the number is a multiple of 5, find the sum of the digits of the number.

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

Given:

Digit is a multiple of 5.

If we add 18 to a two-digit number, its digits get reversed.

Calculation:

The two-digit numbers that are multiples of 5 can be written as 10x+5, where 'x' is a digit from 1 to 9.

The condition that adding 18 to this number gets the digits reversed can be expressed in the form of the equation below:

⇒ 10x + 5 + 18 = 10× 5 + x.

⇒ 10x + 23 = 50 + x.

⇒  9x = 50 - 23 = 27,  so x = 3.

So, the original number was 10× 3 + 5 = 35.

The sum of the digits of the number 35 is 3 + 5 = 8.

117

Find the 3-digit largest number which when divided by 12, 15, 25, 30 leaves no remainder?

  1. ((a))

    775

  2. ((b))

    975

  3. ((c))

    800

  4. ((d))

    900

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

900

Calculation:

The numbers are 12, 15, 25, 30.

Now take the highest power of all encountered primes to get the LCM:

LCM = 2× 2 × 3 × 5× 5 = 300

So, our smallest common multiple is 300. However, we're looking for the largest 3-digit number divisible by these, so we need to find how many times 300 fits into 999 (since 999 is the largest 3-digit number).

⇒ 999 / 300 = 3.33

So the largest 3-digit number divisible by 12, 15, 25, and 30 is

⇒ 3 × 300 = 900. 

The correct answer is option 4 i.e.900

118

Find the value of 722 ÷ 720 ÷ 718 ÷ ...... ÷ 72.

  1. ((a))

    1/788

  2. ((b))

    None of the given option

  3. ((c))

    1/722

  4. ((d))

    1/758

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1/788

Given:

Expression: 722 ÷ 720 ÷ 718 ÷ ...... ÷ 72

Formula used:

am ÷ an = am-n

Calculations:

The given expression can be written as:

722 ÷ 720 ÷ 718 ÷ ...... ÷ 72. = 7(22 - 20 - 18 -....-2)

⇒ 722 - (20 + 18 + 16 + 14 + 12 + 10 + 8 + 6 + 4 + 2)

⇒ 7(22- 110) = 7-88 = 1/788

119

In how many ways is it possible to choose a white square and a black square on a chess board so that the squares must not lie in the same row or column ?

  1. ((a))

    744 ways

  2. ((b))

    764 ways

  3. ((c))

    742 ways

  4. ((d))

    768 ways

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

768 ways

Given:

Chessboard has 8 rows and 8 columns.

Total squares = 8 x 8 = 64

White squares = 64 / 2 = 32

Black squares = 64 / 2 = 32

Formula used:

Number of ways = (Ways to choose a white square) x (Ways to choose a black square, excluding same row and column)

Calculations:

Ways to choose a white square = 32

For each white square, there are 4 black squares in the same row and 4 in the same column.

Black squares to exclude = 4 + 4 = 8

Ways to choose a black square (excluding same row and column) = 32 - 8 = 24

Total ways = 32 x 24 = 768

Number of ways to choose a white and black square (not in same row or column) = 768

120

The angle of depression from 100-meter-high tower at a point is 30°. The distance between tower and point is?

  1. ((a))

    100√3

  2. ((b))

    200√3

  3. ((c))

    2003\frac{200}{\sqrt3}

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100√3

Given:

The angle of depression  = 30°

Height of Tower = 100 meters.

Calculation:

⇒ 100x=tan30=13\frac{{100}}{x} = tan30^\circ = \frac{1}{{\sqrt 3 }}

⇒ x=1003x = 100\sqrt 3

The distance between tower is 1003100\sqrt 3

121

A box contains 3 white and 5 yellow erasers. If two erasers are taken at random then what is the probability that both are of the different color?

  1. ((a))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    1431\frac{14}{31}

  3. ((c))

    1528\frac{15}{28}

  4. ((d))

    414\frac{4}{14}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1528\frac{15}{28}

Calculation:

There are a total of 3 white + 5 yellow = 8 erasers in the box.

The total number of ways to draw two erasers out of 8 is given by the combination formula:

C(n, k) = n! / (k!(n-k)!)

where n is the total number of items and k is the number of items we want to choose.

The total number of ways to draw two erasers out of 8 is:

C(8, 2) = 8! / (2! * 6!) = (8 * 7) / (2 * 1) = 28

Now, let's find the number of favorable outcomes, which is the number of ways to draw one white and one yellow eraser. We can calculate this by multiplying the number of ways to draw one white eraser (3 ways) by the number of ways to draw one yellow eraser (5 ways):

3 ways (to choose a white eraser) * 5 ways (to choose a yellow eraser) = 15 ways

So there are 15 ways to draw two erasers of different colors.

Now we can calculate the probability of drawing two erasers of different colors:

P(different colors) = (number of favorable outcomes) / (total number of possible outcomes)

= 15 / 28

The probability of drawing two erasers of different colors is 15/28 or approximately 0.536.

122

Select the odd one from the following options.

  1. ((a))

    23 × 12 - 25 × 11

  2. ((b))

    29 × 0.5 ÷ 14.5

  3. ((c))

    0.4 × 5 - 0.5 × 2

  4. ((d))

    12 × 31 - 370

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12 × 31 - 370

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 23 × 12 - 25 × 11 

23 × 12 - 25 × 11 

→ 276 - 275 

→ 1

Option 2) 29 × 0.5 ÷ 14.5 

→ 29 × 0.5 ÷ 14.5  

→ 29 × 0.03

→ 1

Option 3) 0.4 × 5 - 0.5 × 2 

→ 0.4 × 5 - 0.5 × 2 

2 - 1  

→ 1

Option 4) 12 × 31 - 370 

→ 12 × 31 - 370 

→ 372 - 370 

→ 2

Thus, out of all the options '12 × 31 - 370' is the off one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

123

If each letter of the following words is written in English alphabetical order and all new formed words are arranged in dictionary order, then which of the following word will come first in dictionary order?

ORNAMENT  ORACLE  OBESITY  ORBITAL  TOWEL

  1. ((a))

    BEIOSTY

  2. ((b))

    ELOTW

  3. ((c))

    ABILORT

  4. ((d))

    AEMNNORT

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ABILORT

According to the question, each letter of the words is written in English alphabetical order:

Given wordEach letter arranged in English alphabetical orderWord after arrangement
ORNAMENTAEMNNORT
ORACLEACELOR
OBESITYBEIOSTY
ORBITALABILORT
TOWELELOTW

The correct order of all the words new formed as they would appear in an English dictionary:

ABILORT

ACELOR

AEMNNORT

BEIOSTY

ELOTW

Thus, 'ABILORT' will come first in dictionary order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

124

A bag contains 5 white, 8 red, and 3 blue caps. If three caps are drawn at random from the bag, what is the probability that all of them are blue?

  1. ((a))

    1390\frac{1}{390}

  2. ((b))

    1280 \frac{1}{280}

  3. ((c))

    1470\frac{1}{470}

  4. ((d))

    1560 \frac{1}{560}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1560 \frac{1}{560}

Calculation:

There are a total of 5 white + 8 red + 3 blue = 16 caps in the bag.

The number of ways to draw three caps out of 16 is given by the combination formula:

C(n, k) = n! / (k!(n-k)!)

where n is the total number of items and k is the number of items we want to choose.

The total number of ways to draw three caps out of 16 is:

C(16, 3) = 16! / (3! * 13!)

= (16 * 15 * 14) / (3 * 2 * 1)

= 560

Now, let's find the number of favorable outcomes, which is the number of ways to draw three blue caps out of the three available. This can be calculated using the same combination formula:

C(3, 3) = 3! / (3! * 0!) = 1

So there's only 1 way to draw all three blue caps.

Now we can calculate the probability of drawing three blue caps:

P(three blue caps) = (number of favorable outcomes) / (total number of possible outcomes)

= 1 / 560

The probability of drawing three blue caps is 1/560.

125

Arrange the given names in the order in which they would occur in a telephone directory and choose the one which appears in the first.

  1. ((a))

    Mohammad

  2. ((b))

    Muhammed

  3. ((c))

    Muhammad

  4. ((d))

    Mohammed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mohammad

The correct order of words as they would appear in an English dictionary:

Mohammad

Mohammed

Muhammad

Muhammed

Thus, 'Mohammad' is the one which appears in the first in a telephone directory.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

126

In the given bar graph, what is the ratio of students of A and B in the combine strength from 2016 to 2018?

  1. ((a))

    23 ∶ 21

  2. ((b))

    17 ∶ 16

  3. ((c))

    21 ∶ 23

  4. ((d))

    19 ∶ 20

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

17 ∶ 16

Calculation:

Combine strength of A = 500 + 450 + 750 = 1700

Combine strength of B = 600 + 350 + 650 = 1600

Ratio of strength of A and B = 1700 : 1600

⇒ 17 : 16

∴ The correct answer is 17 : 16.

127

In question, a few statements have been given followed by some conclusions. Consider the statements to be true and answer which of the given conclusions are correct with respect to the statements.

Statements:

Some questions are answers.

Some answers are explanations.

All explanations are lengthy.

No lengthy is a summary.

Conclusions:

I. No explanation is summary.

II. Some lengthy are answers.

III. Some answers are not summary

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusion I and II are true

  3. ((c))

    All conclusions follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

All conclusions follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No explanation is summary → Follow (As all explanations are lengthy and no lengthy is a summary. As whole explanations comes in lengthy which cannot be summary, therefore it is true.)

II. Some lengthy are answers → Follow (As some answers are explanations and all explanations are lengthy. As whole explanations comes in lengthy and has some part common with answers, therefore it is true.)

III. Some answers are not summary → Follow (As some answers are explanations, all explanations are lengthy and no lengthy is a summary. As some part of answers is common with explanations which whole comes in lengthy which cannot be summary, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, All conclusions follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

128

In a class, the number of boys was decreased by 25% but the number of girls was increased by 40%. If the number of boys is 45\frac{4}{5} of the number of girls, then in the class, by what percent the number of students was increased?

  1. ((a))

    1123% 11 \frac{2}{3} \%

  2. ((b))

    1119%11 \frac{1}{9} \%

  3. ((c))

    1059%10 \frac{5}{9} \%

  4. ((d))

    919%9 \frac{1}{9} \%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1119%11 \frac{1}{9} \%

Given:

Percentage decrease in boys = 25%

Percentage increase in girls = 40%

Boys = 45\frac{4}{5} of girls

Formula used:

Total students increase % = New total - Old totalOld total×100\frac{\text{New total - Old total}}{\text{Old total}} \times 100

Calculation:

Assume number of boys = 40

⇒ Number of girls = 54×40=50\frac{5}{4} \times 40 = 50

Old total = 40 + 50 = 90

New boys = 40 × 0.75 = 30

New girls = 50 × 1.4 = 70

New total = 30 + 70 = 100

⇒ Increase = 100 - 90 = 10

⇒ Percentage increase = 1090×100=1119\frac{10}{90} \times 100 = 11\frac{1}{9} %

∴ The number of students increased by 1119%11 \frac{1}{9} \%.

129

Find the mirror image of the figure given below when a mirror is placed to the right of the figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Here. option figure 4 shows the mirror image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

130

In the given question two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

Statements:

All youth are brave.

Some youth are girls.

Conclusions

I. All girls are brave.

II. Some girls are brave.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusion I and II follow.

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only conclusion II follows.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All girls are brave → Does not follow (As all youth are brave and some youth are girls. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some girls are brave → Follow (As all youth are brave and some youth are girls. As some part of brave is common with youth which whole comes in brave, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

131

In which method, almost all potential users of the product are contacted and are asked about their future plan of purchasing the product in question?

  1. ((a))

    Expert-opinion method

  2. ((b))

    Complete Enumeration method

  3. ((c))

    Direct Interview method

  4. ((d))

    Survey method 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Complete Enumeration method

The correct answer is - Complete Enumeration method

Key Points

  • Complete Enumeration method
  • This method involves contacting almost all potential users of the product.
  • The users are asked about their future plans to purchase the product.
  • It is a comprehensive approach aiming at full coverage of the target population.

Additional Information

  • Expert-opinion method
  • Relies on the judgment and opinions of industry experts.
  • Useful for forecasting trends where statistical data may be limited.
  • Direct Interview method
  • Involves face-to-face interaction with respondents.
  • Enables collection of detailed responses but can be time-consuming and costly.
  • Survey method
  • Involves gathering data from a sample of the population.
  • Can be conducted through questionnaires, online forms, or telephonic interviews.
  • Useful for obtaining quantitative data and is more cost-effective compared to complete enumeration.
132

Which of the following refers to the self-regulating business model that helps a company be socially accountable? 

  1. ((a))

    Sustainability

  2. ((b))

    Corporate Social Responsibility

  3. ((c))

    Profit maximisation

  4. ((d))

    Value analysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Corporate Social Responsibility

The correct answer is - Corporate Social Responsibility

Key Points

  • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
  • CSR is a self-regulating business model that helps a company be socially accountable to itself, its stakeholders, and the public.
  • By practicing CSR, companies can be conscious of the kind of impact they are having on all aspects of society, including economic, social, and environmental.
  • CSR activities include reducing carbon footprints, improving labor policies, and participating in fair trade.
  • Implementing CSR initiatives can enhance a company's brand and reputation, leading to a positive business impact.

Additional Information

  • Sustainability
  • Refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • Focuses on maintaining balance between economic growth, environmental care, and social well-being.
  • Profit Maximisation
  • Involves strategies aimed at increasing a company's earnings or profit to the highest possible level.
  • Often focuses on short-term financial gains rather than long-term sustainable practices.
  • Value Analysis
  • Is a systematic approach to improving the value of a product or service by examining its function and cost.
  • Helps in optimizing resources and reducing unnecessary costs without compromising on quality.
133

Accounting Standards Board (ASB) was set up in the year

  1. ((a))

    1995

  2. ((b))

    1981

  3. ((c))

    1999

  4. ((d))

    1977

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1977

The correct answer is - 1977

Key Points

  • Accounting Standards Board (ASB)
  • The Accounting Standards Board (ASB) was established in 1977 to create and improve standards of financial accounting and reporting.
  • Its primary objective is to ensure that financial statements are transparent and comparable across different organizations.
  • Importance of 1977
  • The year 1977 marks the formation of the ASB, which set the groundwork for the development of consistent accounting standards.
  • This initiative aimed to improve the quality and reliability of financial information, which is crucial for stakeholders such as investors, regulators, and the public.

Additional Information

  • Role of ASB
  • The Accounting Standards Board is responsible for developing accounting standards that govern the preparation of financial statements.
  • These standards help ensure that financial statements provide a true and fair view of an organization's financial performance and position.
  • International Influence
  • The ASB's standards are designed to align with international accounting standards to facilitate global comparability and consistency.
  • This alignment helps in attracting foreign investments by ensuring that financial statements are understandable and reliable to international investors.
134

Which of the following is essential at all levels of management for decision-making and planning and is a two-way process?

  1. ((a))

    Leadership

  2. ((b))

    Communication

  3. ((c))

    Motivation

  4. ((d))

    Directing

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Communication

The correct answer is - Communication

Key Points

  • Communication
  • Communication is essential at all levels of management for effective decision-making and planning.
  • It is a two-way process, involving both the transmission of information and feedback.
  • Effective communication ensures that all team members are aligned with the organization’s goals and objectives.
  • It helps in the exchange of ideas, suggestions, and feedback which is crucial for problem-solving and innovation.
  • Communication fosters a better understanding among employees, leading to improved coordination and collaboration.

Additional Information

  • Leadership
  • Leadership involves guiding and directing the efforts of employees towards achieving the organization’s goals.
  • Effective leaders use communication to inspire and motivate their teams.
  • Motivation
  • Motivation is the process of encouraging employees to act towards achieving specific objectives.
  • It is significantly influenced by effective communication from leaders and managers.
  • Directing
  • Directing involves guiding and supervising the performance of employees to ensure that organizational goals are met.
  • It relies heavily on clear communication to convey instructions and expectations.
135

‘If people are secure and good at their jobs, they are happier and more productive’. Which principle given by Henry Foyal states it?

  1. ((a))

    Remuneration

  2. ((b))

    Esprit de corps

  3. ((c))

    Stability of tenure of personnel

  4. ((d))

    Scalar Chain

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stability of tenure of personnel

The correct answer is - Stability of tenure of personnel

Key Points

  • Stability of tenure of personnel
  • This principle emphasizes that employees need time to learn their jobs and become proficient.
  • Job security enhances employee performance by reducing anxiety and distractions.
  • Stable employment relationships build trust and loyalty between employees and management.
  • Higher job stability leads to better employee morale and productivity.

Additional Information

  • Remuneration
  • Fair compensation is essential to motivate employees.
  • It includes both financial and non-financial benefits.
  • Esprit de corps
  • Fostering teamwork and unity among employees improves efficiency.
  • Encourages harmony and cohesion within the workforce.
  • Scalar Chain
  • Represents the line of authority within an organization.
  • Ensures clear communication channels and structured hierarchy.
136

Which principle of Fayol represents the foundation of a sound organisation in which union is strength and pride, loyalty etc are responsible for good performance?

  1. ((a))

    Unity of command

  2. ((b))

    Remuneration

  3. ((c))

    Responsibility

  4. ((d))

    Esprit of cooperation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Esprit of cooperation

The correct answer is - Esprit of cooperation

Key Points

  • Esprit of cooperation
  • This principle emphasizes the importance of team spirit and unity within the organization.
  • It fosters a sense of belonging and loyalty among employees, which contributes to a positive work environment.
  • Employees are more likely to perform well when they feel they are part of a cohesive and supportive team.
  • It helps in building a strong organizational culture where collaboration and mutual respect are prioritized.

Additional Information

  • Unity of command
  • This principle states that each employee should receive orders from only one superior to avoid confusion and conflict.
  • It ensures clear and effective communication within the organization.
  • Remuneration
  • This principle focuses on fair compensation for employees' work to motivate them and ensure job satisfaction.
  • Adequate and equitable remuneration helps in attracting and retaining talent.
  • Responsibility
  • This principle highlights the importance of assigning and accepting responsibility for tasks and decisions.
  • Clear accountability helps in achieving organizational goals efficiently.
137

All of the following are essentially the tasks performed by Marketing managers EXCEPT one. Identify it.

  1. Developing marketing strategies
  2. Capturing marketing insights
  3. Maintaining quality of production
  4. Building strong brands
  5. Creating and delivering value
  6. Communicating value
  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct answer is - Maintaining quality of production

Key Points

  • Maintaining quality of production
  • This task is primarily associated with production and operations management, not marketing management.
  • Marketing managers focus on areas such as strategy, brand building, and value delivery rather than the operational aspects of production.
  • Ensuring production quality involves activities related to manufacturing processes, quality control, and adherence to standards, which fall under the domain of production managers or quality assurance teams.

Additional Information

  • Marketing Managers' Key Responsibilities
  • Developing marketing strategies
  • Involves analyzing market trends, identifying target audiences, and planning promotional activities to achieve business objectives.
  • Capturing marketing insights
  • Includes gathering data on consumer behavior, preferences, and market conditions to inform decision-making.
  • Building strong brands
  • Focuses on creating a positive brand image and reputation through consistent messaging and quality customer experiences.
  • Creating and delivering value
  • Ensures that the products or services offered meet customer needs and provide satisfaction, thereby creating perceived value.
  • Communicating value
  • Involves effectively conveying the benefits and differentiators of a product or service to the target audience through various communication channels.
138

Which of the following suggests that an action is morally right if in a given situation all decision makers freely decide to pursue their own self interests?

  1. ((a))

    Utilitarianism

  2. ((b))

    Virtue

  3. ((c))

    Hedonism

  4. ((d))

    Egoism

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Egoism

The correct answer is - Egoism

Key Points

  • Egoism
  • Egoism is the ethical theory that actions are morally right if they maximize one's own self-interest.
  • In situations where all decision makers freely decide to pursue their own self-interests, the action is considered morally right according to egoism.
  • This theory emphasizes individual benefit and prioritizes personal gain over collective welfare.

Additional Information

  • Utilitarianism
  • Utilitarianism is an ethical theory that posits that the best action is the one that maximizes overall happiness or utility for the greatest number of people.
  • This theory focuses on collective well-being rather than individual self-interest.
  • Virtue Ethics
  • Virtue ethics emphasizes the role of one's character and virtues in evaluating the moral correctness of actions.
  • It is less concerned with rules or consequences and more focused on developing good character traits.
  • Hedonism
  • Hedonism is the belief that pleasure or happiness is the highest good and proper aim of human life.
  • It focuses on maximizing personal pleasure but does not necessarily involve self-interest in the same way as egoism.
139

Which principles states that not to take any action that harms the least among us: the poor, the uneducated, the unemployed? 

  1. ((a))

    Utilitarian benefit

  2. ((b))

    Individual rights

  3. ((c))

    Distributive justice

  4. ((d))

    Personal virtue

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Personal virtue

The correct answer is - Personal Virtue

Key Points

  • Personal Virtue Principle
  • This principle states that individuals should act in a way that is honest, transparent, and does not harm others, particularly the most vulnerable in society.
  • It emphasizes moral character and the pursuit of actions that align with ethical values and integrity.
  • Applies to ethical decision-making by considering the well-being of the poor, uneducated, and unemployed.

Additional Information

  • Comparison with Other Ethical Principles
  • Utilitarian Benefit: Focuses on maximizing overall happiness and benefit for the greatest number of people, rather than prioritizing the least advantaged.
  • Individual Rights: Emphasizes protecting personal freedoms and entitlements rather than prioritizing collective moral actions.
  • Distributive Justice: Concerns the fair allocation of resources but does not explicitly focus on avoiding harm through personal virtue.
  • Real-World Application
  • Used in leadership and corporate ethics to guide moral decision-making.
  • Encourages business and political leaders to act with honesty and integrity to prevent harm to vulnerable groups.
  • Related to ethical frameworks such as virtue ethics, which emphasize good character and moral integrity.
140

the difference between the sample estimate and the actual value of a characteristic of the population is known as

  1. ((a))

    Sample

  2. ((b))

    Population

  3. ((c))

    Sampling error

  4. ((d))

    Standard deviation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sampling error

The correct answer is - Sampling error

Key Points

  • Sampling error
  • The difference between the sample estimate and the actual value of a characteristic of the population.
  • Occurs because a sample is only a subset of the entire population, and it may not perfectly represent the population.
  • Can be minimized by increasing the sample size, but it can never be completely eliminated.

Additional Information

  • Population
  • The entire group of individuals or instances about whom we hope to learn.
  • Understanding the population helps in making generalizations from the sample data.
  • Sample
  • A subset of the population selected for measurement, observation, or questioning.
  • Used to make inferences about the population.
  • Standard Deviation
  • A measure of the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values.
  • Indicates how much the individual data points differ from the mean of the dataset.
141

Which of the following refers to the classification of existing inventory based on consumption of the items? 

  1. ((a))

    Value analysis

  2. ((b))

    FSN analysis

  3. ((c))

    GOLF analysis

  4. ((d))

    SOS analysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Value analysis

The correct answer is - Value analysis

Key Points

  • Value Analysis
  • It is a systematic approach to examining the functions of inventory items to identify opportunities for cost reduction.
  • It helps classify inventory based on the consumption pattern of items, ensuring efficient resource utilization.
  • The process focuses on eliminating unnecessary costs while maintaining functionality and quality.
  • It is widely used in inventory control and material management to optimize stock levels.

Additional Information

  • FSN Analysis
  • FSN stands for Fast-moving, Slow-moving, and Non-moving items.
  • This method categorizes inventory based on the frequency of consumption.
  • It helps in warehouse management by identifying items that need frequent replenishment.
  • GOLF Analysis
  • GOLF stands for Government, Ordinary, Local, and Foreign sources.
  • It is used to classify inventory based on the source of procurement.
  • Helpful in determining supply chain strategies and vendor management.
  • SOS Analysis
  • SOS stands for Seasonal and Off-Seasonal items.
  • It helps businesses manage stock availability based on seasonal demand variations.
  • Useful for industries like fashion, agriculture, and consumer goods.
142

Which is the backbone of any form of business enterprise, a judicious allocator of resources etc?

  1. ((a))

    Authority

  2. ((b))

    Growth

  3. ((c))

    Making profits

  4. ((d))

    Quality

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Making profits

The correct answer is - Making profits

Key Points

  • Making profits
  • Profits are essential for the sustainability and growth of any business enterprise.
  • They serve as a key indicator of the business's financial health and performance.
  • Profits allow for reinvestment into the business, enabling expansion and innovation.
  • They act as a motivator for business owners and employees, driving productivity and efficiency.
  • Profits provide the necessary capital for managing operational costs and unexpected expenses.

Additional Information

  • Authority
  • While authority is important for decision-making and leadership, it is not the primary driver of business success.
  • Effective use of authority can enhance organizational efficiency and employee morale.
  • Growth
  • Growth is a key objective for most businesses, but it is often a result of consistent profit-making.
  • Without profits, sustaining growth becomes challenging.
  • Quality
  • Quality is crucial for customer satisfaction and brand reputation.
  • High-quality products and services can lead to higher profits through increased sales and customer loyalty.
143

Managerial functions that deal with the Recruitment and selection

  1. ((a))

    Financial Management

  2. ((b))

    Cost Accounting

  3. ((c))

    Human Resource Management

  4. ((d))

    Management Accounting

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Human Resource Management

The correct answer is - Human Resource Management

Key Points

  • Human Resource Management
  • This function specifically deals with recruitment and selection of employees.
  • It involves processes like job analysis, interviewing, screening, and hiring candidates.
  • HRM is aimed at ensuring that the organization has the right staff to meet its strategic goals.
  • It also includes other functions such as training and development, performance appraisal, and employee relations.

Additional Information

  • Financial Management
  • Involves managing the financial resources of the organization.
  • Key functions include budgeting, financial planning, and investment decisions.
  • Cost Accounting
  • Focuses on tracking, recording, and analyzing costs associated with the production of goods and services.
  • It helps in cost control and management.
  • Management Accounting
  • Provides financial information to managers for decision-making.
  • Includes activities like budgeting, forecasting, and performance evaluation.
144

Which of the following concept of marketing relates to “customer’s satisfaction become the focal point of all decision making in the organization”.

  1. ((a))

    The selling Concept

  2. ((b))

    The Marketing Concept

  3. ((c))

    Production Concept

  4. ((d))

    The Product Concept

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Marketing Concept

The correct answer is - The Marketing Concept

Key Points

  • The Marketing Concept
  • The Marketing Concept focuses on identifying and meeting the needs and wants of customers.
  • It emphasizes that customer satisfaction is the key to achieving organizational goals.
  • All decision-making processes within the organization are centered around understanding and fulfilling customer needs.
  • This concept contrasts with other marketing approaches that prioritize production, product quality, or sales.

Additional Information

  • The Selling Concept
  • Focuses on creating sales transactions rather than building long-term customer relationships.
  • Emphasizes aggressive sales techniques to achieve short-term sales goals.
  • Production Concept
  • Based on the belief that customers prefer products that are widely available and affordable.
  • Focuses on improving production and distribution efficiency.
  • The Product Concept
  • Assumes that customers favor products that offer the most quality, performance, and innovative features.
  • Focuses on continuous product improvements.
145

Which of the following means a guarantee which extends to a series of transactions? 

  1. ((a))

    Continuing guarantee

  2. ((b))

    Prospective guarantee

  3. ((c))

    Absolute guarantee

  4. ((d))

    Specific guarantee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Continuing guarantee

The correct answer is - Continuing guarantee

Key Points

  • Continuing guarantee
  • A continuing guarantee is a type of guarantee that extends to a series of transactions.
  • It remains in force until it is revoked by the guarantor or discharged by other means.
  • This type of guarantee is often used in business transactions where multiple transactions occur over a period.

Additional Information

  • Prospective guarantee
  • A prospective guarantee applies to future transactions that have not yet occurred.
  • It becomes effective only when the specified future transactions take place.
  • Absolute guarantee
  • An absolute guarantee is an unconditional commitment by the guarantor to fulfill the obligation if the principal debtor fails to do so.
  • It does not depend on any conditions or events.
  • Specific guarantee
  • A specific guarantee is limited to a single transaction or obligation.
  • Once the obligation is fulfilled or the transaction is completed, the guarantee is discharged.
146

What is mobile marketing?

  1. ((a))

    Mobile phone companies promoting their products.

  2. ((b))

    Sending message through mobiles for advertising.

  3. ((c))

    Advertising by mobile vehicles.

  4. ((d))

    Marketing thought autos, taxies and buses.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sending message through mobiles for advertising.

The correct answer is - Sending message through mobiles for advertising.

Key Points

  • Mobile marketing
  • Involves sending messages through mobile devices to reach customers for advertising purposes.
  • These messages can be in the form of SMS (Short Message Service), MMS (Multimedia Messaging Service), or push notifications.
  • A key method for companies to engage with their audience in a direct and immediate manner.
  • Facilitates personalized marketing campaigns that can be tailored to the preferences and behaviors of individual users.

Additional Information

  • Types of Mobile Marketing
  • App-based marketing: Involves advertising within mobile apps, leveraging the app's user base to target potential customers.
  • In-game mobile marketing: Ads appear within mobile games, taking advantage of the gaming audience's high engagement levels.
  • QR codes: Users scan QR codes to receive information or special offers, merging offline and online marketing efforts.
  • Location-based marketing: Uses GPS technology to send location-specific ads to users, enhancing relevance and engagement.
  • Benefits of Mobile Marketing
  • High reach: With the widespread use of smartphones, mobile marketing can reach a vast audience.
  • Cost-effective: Often more affordable than traditional advertising methods, making it accessible to businesses of all sizes.
  • Immediate delivery: Messages are delivered instantly, allowing for timely and relevant communication.
  • Interactive: Engages users through interactive content, leading to higher engagement rates.
147

Which of the following is not an advantage of digital payments 

  1. ((a))

    Pay or send money from anywhere

  2. ((b))

    Heavy taxes impose

  3. ((c))

    Environment Friendly

  4. ((d))

    Easy and convenient

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Heavy taxes impose

The correct answer is - Heavy taxes impose

Key Points

  • Heavy taxes impose
  • Digital payments are generally not associated with heavy taxes being imposed on users.
  • In fact, digital transactions can sometimes be tax-exempt or have lower transaction fees compared to traditional banking methods.
  • Therefore, the statement that "Heavy taxes impose" is not an advantage of digital payments and is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Digital Payments
  • Pay or send money from anywhere
  • Digital payments allow users to make transactions from any location using a smartphone or computer.
  • This provides convenience and saves time as users do not need to visit a physical bank.
  • Environment Friendly
  • By reducing the need for paper receipts and physical cash, digital payments contribute to a more sustainable environment.
  • Less paper usage means fewer trees are cut down, making digital payments an eco-friendly option.
  • Easy and convenient
  • Digital payment methods are often more straightforward and quicker compared to traditional payment methods.
  • They provide users with a wide range of options including credit/debit cards, mobile wallets, and online banking.
148

What can be observed in a sellers’ market?

  1. ((a))

    Sellers offer products only to those who come to them.

  2. ((b))

    More buyers exist for fewer goods and services.

  3. ((c))

    Sellers start competing on price and quality with each other.

  4. ((d))

    There are more sellers than buyers selling their products in the market.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

More buyers exist for fewer goods and services.

The correct answer is - More buyers exist for fewer goods and services.

Key Points

  • More buyers exist for fewer goods and services.
  • In a sellers' market, there is higher demand compared to supply.
  • This means there are more buyers than the available goods and services.
  • As a result, sellers have the advantage and can often charge higher prices.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of a Sellers' Market
  • Prices are generally higher due to increased competition among buyers.
  • Sellers have more control over terms and conditions of sales.
  • It is often seen in housing markets, technology gadgets, and other high-demand sectors.
  • Comparison with Buyers' Market
  • In a buyers' market, there is more supply than demand, giving buyers the advantage.
  • Prices tend to be lower as sellers compete for buyers.
  • Understanding the market type is crucial for making informed business and investment decisions.
149

Which of the following refers to developing a sense of belonging to the enterprise? 

  1. ((a))

    Maintenance

  2. ((b))

    Compensation

  3. ((c))

    Motivation

  4. ((d))

    Integration

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Integration

The correct answer is - Integration

Key Points

  • Integration
  • Integration refers to the process of ensuring that employees feel a sense of belonging within the organization.
  • This process involves aligning individual goals and values with those of the organization.
  • It fosters a sense of community and collaboration among employees, leading to increased job satisfaction and commitment.
  • Effective integration helps in reducing turnover and enhancing organizational loyalty.

Additional Information

  • Maintenance
  • Refers to the activities aimed at preserving the physical and mental well-being of employees.
  • Includes health and safety programs, regular maintenance of workplace facilities, and ensuring a safe working environment.
  • Compensation
  • Refers to the financial and non-financial rewards given to employees in exchange for their work.
  • Includes salaries, bonuses, benefits, and other forms of remuneration.
  • Motivation
  • Refers to the processes used to encourage employees to perform their best.
  • Includes incentive programs, recognition, and creating a positive work environment.
150

Which article of the Constitution of India has given the power to the Parliament to make laws on taxes on income other than agricultural income 

  1. ((a))

    Article 112

  2. ((b))

    Article 246

  3. ((c))

    Article 230

  4. ((d))

    Article 118

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 246

The correct answer is - Article 246

Key Points

  • Article 246
  • This article of the Indian Constitution delineates the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
  • It specifies the subjects on which Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate, categorized into three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • According to the Union List, Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the List, which includes taxes on income other than agricultural income.
  • This power ensures that uniformity is maintained in the taxation policy across the country.

Additional Information

  • Union List
  • The Union List consists of subjects on which only the Central Government can legislate. Examples include defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and banking.
  • This list ensures a strong central authority for matters requiring uniformity across the country.
  • State List
  • The State List contains subjects on which only the State Governments can legislate. Examples include police, public health, and agriculture.
  • This list allows states to govern and manage issues that are of local or regional importance.
  • Concurrent List
  • The Concurrent List includes subjects on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate. Examples include education, marriage, and bankruptcy.
  • In case of any conflict between Central and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails.
151

[(611)3499]y29=an×an1×a\left[\sqrt[99]{\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}}\right]^{\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{9}}=\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{n}} \times \mathrm{a}^{-\mathrm{n}-1} \times \mathrm{a}, then find the value of y.

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given:

[(611)3499]y29=an×an1×a\left[\sqrt[99]{\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}}\right]^{\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{9}}=\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{n}} \times \mathrm{a}^{-\mathrm{n}-1} \times \mathrm{a}

Formula used:

(am)n = amn

am × an = am+n

a-m = 1/am

Calculations:

Simplify the equation:

[(611)34×99]y29\left[\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{3}{4 \times 99}}\right]^{\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{9}} = an × a-n-1 × a

(611)34×99×y29\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{3}{4 \times 99} \times \frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{9}} = an × a-n × a-1 × a

(611)y24×99×3\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{4 \times 99 \times 3}} = an-n-1+1 

(611)y21188\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{1188}} = a0 = 1

(611)y21188=(611)0\left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^{\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{1188}} = \left(\frac{6}{11}\right)^0

Equating the exponents:

y21188=0\frac{\sqrt{y-2}}{1188} = 0

y2=0\sqrt{y-2} = 0

Squaring both sides:

y - 2 = 0

y = 2

The value of y is 2.

152

Prerna starts from Place A at 5 am at constant speed of 50 km/h. She halts at Place B for half an hour and then drives at 30 km/h. If she reaches Place C at 8 : 30 am, which is 100 km away from Place A, how far is Place A from Place B ?

  1. ((a))

    5 km

  2. ((b))

    10 km

  3. ((c))

    18 km

  4. ((d))

    25 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

25 km

Calculation:

The distance from Place A to Place B,= 50 km/h.

The distance from Place B to Place C, = 30 km/h.

Since she travelled for 3 hours, let's denote the time travelled at 50 km/h as "t1" and the time travelled at 30 km/h as "t2". From this, we gather that

⇒  t1 + t2 = 3 hours.

Letting the distance from Place A to Place B be denoted as "d1" and the distance from Place B to Place C be "d2",

⇒  d1 + d2 = 100 km. 

⇒  d1 = 50t1 and d2 = 30t2.

Substituting these into the equation for the total distance gives us:

⇒  50t1 + 30t2 = 100.

If you substitute t2 with (3 - t1), which is obtained from the equation t1 + t2 = 3, into the second equation and solve for t1:

⇒  50t1 + 30(3 - t1) = 100 50t1 + 90 - 30t1

⇒  100 20t1 = 10 t1 = 0.5 hour

Then you substitute t1 = 0.5 into the equation t1 + t2 = 3 to find out t2:

⇒  0.5 + t2 = 3 t2 = 2.5 hours

We can calculate the distances now that we have the time she traveled at each speed.

⇒  d1 = 50km/h ×  0.5h

= 25 km d2 = 30km/h ×  2.5h = 75 km

So, Place A is 25 km away from Place B.

153

A shopkeeper sells two pipes at Rs.15 each. He gains 22% on one and loses 22% on the other. Calculate the whole transaction.

  1. ((a))

    1.75

  2. ((b))

    1.30

  3. ((c))

    1.52 

  4. ((d))

    1.64

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1.52 

Given:

A shopkeeper sells two pipes at Rs.15 each.

He gains 22% on one and loses 22% on the other.

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the first pipe be x and the cost price of the second pipe be y. We are given the following information:

  1. The selling price of both pipes is Rs. 15 each.
  2. The shopkeeper gains 22% on the first pipe and loses 22% on the second pipe.

We can write the equations for the selling prices of the two pipes:

  1. Selling price of the first pipe: x + 0.22x = 15
  2. Selling price of the second pipe: y - 0.22y = 15

Now, we can solve both equations for x and y:

  1. (1 + 0.22)x = 15/1.22x = 15 x = 15 / 1.22 ≈ 12.2951 (approximately)
  2. (1 - 0.22)y = 15/0.78y = 15 y = 15 / 0.78 ≈ 19.2308 (approximately)

Now we have the cost prices of both pipes:

Cost price of the first pipe (x) ≈ Rs. 12.2951

Cost price of the second pipe (y) ≈ Rs. 19.2308

Let's calculate the overall gain or loss in the transaction:

Total cost price = x + y ≈ 12.2951 + 19.2308 = 31.5259

Total selling price = 2 × 15 = 30

There is a net loss in the transaction since the total selling price is less than the total cost price:

Net loss = Total cost price - Total selling price ≈ 31.5259 - 30 = 1.5259

Therefore, in the whole transaction, the shopkeeper faces a net loss of approximately Rs. 1.53.

154

A man bought a horse and carriage for Rs. 45,000. He sold the horse at a gain of 8 % and the carriage at a loss of 4%. He gained 1% on his whole transaction. Calculate the cost price of the horse.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 18,250

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 18,750

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 18,500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 18,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 18,750

Given:

A man bought a horse and carriage for Rs. 45,000. 

Sold the horse at a gain of 8 % and the carriage at a loss of 4%.

Gained 1% on his whole transaction.

Calculation:

The selling price of the horse is H + 0.08H = 1.08H.

The selling price of the carriage is C - 0.04C = 0.96C.

The overall selling price is 1.01 times the cost price of the horse and carriage combined:

⇒ 1.01(H + C) = 1.08H + 0.96C

Now, we can plug in the value for H + C from the first equation:

⇒1.01(45,000) = 1.08H + 0.96C

Next, we can substitute C from the first equation:

⇒ 1.01(45,000) = 1.08H + 0.96(45,000 - H)

Now, we can solve for H:

⇒1.01(45,000) = 1.08H + 0.96(45,000) - 0.96H 0.05(45,000) = 0.12H

⇒ 2,250 = 0.12H

Divide both sides by 0.12:

H = 2,250 / 0.12

H = 18,750

So, the cost price of the horse is Rs. 18,750.

155

Solve:

441 ÷ 21 – 2 × 7 + (3 × 6 – 24 ÷ 2 + 4 of 5)

  1. ((a))

    -33

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    41

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

33

Calculation:

⇒ 3 × 6 = 18

⇒ 24 ÷ 2 = 12

⇒ 4 of 5 = 4 × 5 = 20

⇒ (18 - 12 + 20)

⇒ 18 - 12 + 20 = 6 + 20 = 26

⇒ 441 ÷ 21 – 2 × 7 + 26

⇒ 441 ÷ 21 = 21 2 × 7 = 14

⇒ 21 - 14 + 26

⇒ 21 - 14 + 26 = 7 + 26 = 33

The result of the expression is 33.

156

Solve:

{7900 ÷ 100 + 41 × 4 – 20 × 6 + [20 + 30 × 2 - 4 of 15 + (15 – 2 × 25 ÷ 5)]}

  1. ((a))

    148

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    162

  4. ((d))

    172

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

148

Calculation:

{7900 ÷ 100 + 41 × 4 – 20 × 6 + [20 + 30 × 2 - 4 of 15 + (15 – 2 × 25 ÷ 5)]}

⇒ 15 - 2 × 25 ÷ 5 = 15 - 2 × 5 = 15 - 10 = 5

{7900 ÷ 100 + 41 × 4 – 20 × 6 + [20 + 30 × 2 - 4 of 15 + 5]}

⇒ 20 + 30 × 2 = 20 + 60 = 80

{7900 ÷ 100 + 41 × 4 – 20 × 6 + [80 - 4 of 15 + 5]}

⇒ 4 of 15 = 4 × 15 = 60

{7900 ÷ 100 + 41 × 4 – 20 × 6 + [80 - 60 + 5]}

⇒ 80 - 60 + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25

{7900 ÷ 100 + 41 × 4 – 20 × 6 + 25}

⇒ 7900 ÷ 100 = 79 41 × 4 = 164 20 × 6 = 120

{79 + 164 – 120 + 25}

⇒ 79 + 164 - 120 + 25 = 243 - 120 + 25 = 123 + 25 = 148

The result of the expression is 148.

157

The radius of an iron cone is 10 cm and height is 3 cm. The cone is melted and drawn into a long wire of uniform circular cross section. If the length of the wire is 25 cm, then the radius of wire is?

  1. ((a))

    3 cm

  2. ((b))

    4.2 cm

  3. ((c))

    2 cm

  4. ((d))

    4 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2 cm

Given:

Radius of iron cone = 10 cm , height = 3 cn

Length of wire = 25 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cone  =  1/3× π × r× h  

Area of Wire = 2πrh

Calculation:

So we can equate these two formulas to solve for the radius of the wire (R):

⇒ 1/3 ×  π ×  (10)2 × 3 = π ×  R2 ×25 

⇒ 100  = R2 × 25  ⇒ R2 = 10025\dfrac{100}{25}

⇒ R = 105\dfrac{10}{5}  = 2 cm 

So, the radius of the wire will be  2 cm

158

A train of length 200 m, travelling at 80 km/h, overtook a motorcyclist travelling in the same direction at a speed of 20 km/h at 11 : 00 am. At 1 : 00 pm, it overtook another cyclist travelling in the same direction at a speed of 10 km/h. At what time will the motorcyclist overtake the cyclist?

  1. ((a))

    3 : 00 am

  2. ((b))

    10 : 00 pm

  3. ((c))

    11 : 00 pm

  4. ((d))

    1 : 00 am

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 : 00 am

Given:

Train length = 200 m

Train speed = 80 km/h

Motorcyclist speed = 20 km/h

Cyclist speed = 10 km/h

Train overtakes motorcyclist at 11:00 am

Train overtakes cyclist at 1:00 pm

Formula used:

Relative speed = Speed of faster object - Speed of slower object

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

First, calculate the distance covered by the train and motorcyclist from 11:00 am to 1:00 pm:

Time difference = 2 hours

Train speed = 80 km/h

⇒ Distance covered by train = 80 km/h × 2 hours = 160 km

Distance covered by motorcyclist in 2 hours = 20 km/h × 2 hours = 40 km

Distance between motorcyclist and cyclist = Distance covered by train - Distance covered by motorcyclist

⇒ 160 km - 40 km = 120 km

Relative speed between motorcyclist and cyclist = 20 km/h - 10 km/h = 10 km/h

⇒ Time taken for motorcyclist to overtake cyclist = 120 km / 10 km/h = 12 hours

Motorcyclist overtakes cyclist 12 hours after 1:00 pm.

⇒ Time = 1:00 pm + 12 hours = 1 : 00 am

The correct answer is option (4).

159

What is the value of 1/(3 × 4 × 5) + 1/(4 × 5 × 6) + 1/(5 × 6 × 7) +⋯+ 1/(18 × 19 × 20)?

  1. ((a))

    19/570

  2. ((b))

    23/570

  3. ((c))

    21/570

  4. ((d))

    29/570

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

23/570

Given:

Expression: 1/(3 × 4 × 5) + 1/(4 × 5 × 6) + 1/(5 × 6 × 7) + ... + 1/(18 × 19 × 20)

Formula used:

1/[n(n+1)(n+2)] = (1/2) * [1/[n(n+1)] - 1/[(n+1)(n+2)]]

Calculations:

Using the formula, we can rewrite each term of 1/(3 × 4 × 5) + 1/(4 × 5 × 6) + 1/(5 × 6 × 7) +⋯+ 1/(18 × 19 × 20) in,

⇒1/(3 × 4 × 5) = (1/2) × [1/(3 × 4) - 1/(4 × 5)]

⇒ 1/(4 × 5 × 6) = (1/2) × [1/(4 × 5) - 1/(5 × 6)]

⇒ 1/(5 × 6 × 7) = (1/2) × [1/(5 × 6) - 1/(6 × 7)]

Similarly,

⇒ 1/(18 × 19 × 20) = (1/2) × [1/(18 × 19) - 1/(19 × 20)]

Summing all the terms:

⇒ (1/2) × {[1/(3 × 4) - 1/(4 × 5)] + [1/(4 × 5) - 1/(5 × 6)] + [1/(5 × 6) - 1/(6 × 7)] + ... + [1/(18 × 19) - 1/(19 × 20)]}

Most of the terms cancel out,

⇒ (1/2) × [1/(3 × 4) - 1/(19 × 20)] = (1/2) × [1/12 - 1/380]

⇒ (1/2) × [(95 - 3)/1140]

⇒ (1/2) × [92/1140] = 92/2280 = 23/570

The value of the expression is 23/570.

160

The cost of fencing a square plot at the rate of Rs. 10 per meter is Rs. 9240. What will be the cost of flooring the plot at Rs. 20 per square meter?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 67914

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 20000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 18480

  4. ((d))

    None of the given options 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of the given options 

Given:

The cost of fencing a square plot at the rate of Rs. 10 per meter is Rs. 9240.

The cost of flooring the plot at = Rs. 20 per square meter

Calculation:

Perimeter of square = 9240/10 = 924 m

Side (a) = 924/4 = 231

Area of square = a2 = 2312 = 53,361 m2

Cost of flooring the plot = 53,361 × 20 

⇒ Rs. 10,67,220

Hence, the correct answer is None of the given options.

161

While covering a distance of 24 km, a man noticed that after walking for 1 hour and 40 minutes, the distance covered by him was 57\frac{5 }{7 } of the remaining distance. What was his speed in metres per second?

  1. ((a))

    79\frac{7 }{9}

  2. ((b))

    34\frac{3}{4 }

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    53\frac{5 }{3 }

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

53\frac{5 }{3 }

Given:

Distance = 24 km

Time for walked = 1 hour 40 min = 5/3 hour

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Speed in m/sec = Speed in km/h × (5/18)

Calculation:

Let speed be x km/hr

⇒ Distance = x × 5/3 = 5x/3

So, Remaining distance = (24 - 5x/3)

According to the question,

Distance covered = 5/7 of the distance left

⇒ 5x/3 = 5/7(24 - 5x/3)

⇒ 7x = 72 - 5x

⇒ 12x = 72

⇒ x = 6 km/hr

So, speed is 6 km/hr

Now,

Speed in m/sec = 6 × (5/18)

⇒ 5/3

∴ His speed in metres per second was 53\frac{5 }{3 }

162

The average marks of a group of students is 48. The marks of three of these students 45, 67 and 42 are subtracted, and a new student with a marks of 94 is added to the list in their place. If there were 8 students in the initial group, then find the percentage increase in the average marks as compared to the initial average. 

  1. ((a))

    33.33 

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    12.5

  4. ((d))

    21.7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12.5

Given :

Average marks = 48

Removed marks = 45, 67, 42

Added marks = 94

No of student (Initially) = 8

Formula used :

Average marks = Sum of total marks / number of students

% change = total change/ initial value × 100

Calculation :

48 = Sum of total marks / 8

⇒ Sum of total marks = 384

After subtracting and adding marks

⇒ Sum of total marks (S)

⇒ S = 384 - (45 + 67 + 42) + 94

⇒ S = 384 - 154 + 94 

⇒ S = 324

Now, No of student in group = 8 - 3 + 1 = 6

So, New Average = 324 / 6 = 54

⇒ % change = (54 - 48)/48 × 100

⇒ % change = 12.5 %

∴ The correct answer is 12.5 %.

163

If N1 = 3 + 33 + 333 + .... + 333333 and N2 = 4 + 44 + 444 + .... + 4444444, then what is the sum of digits of 'N1 + N2'?

  1. ((a))

    33

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

31

Given:

N1 = 3 + 33 + 333 + .... + 333333 and

N2 = 4 + 44 + 444 + .... + 4444444

Calculations:

N1 = 3 + 33 + 333 + 3333 + 33333 + 333333

⇒ N1 = 3 × (1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + 11111 + 111111)

Sum of series: 1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + 11111 + 111111 = 123456

⇒ N1 = 3 × 123456 = 370368

N2 = 4 + 44 + 444 + 4444 + 44444 + 444444 + 4444444

⇒ N2 = 4 × (1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + 11111 + 111111 + 1111111)

Sum of series: 1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + 11111 + 111111 + 1111111 = 1234567

⇒ N2 = 4 × 1234567 = 4938268

N1 + N2 = 370368 + 4938268

⇒ N1 + N2 = 5308636

Sum of digits of 5308636 ⇒ 5 + 3 + 0 + 8 + 6 + 3 + 6 = 31

The correct answer is option 2.

164

Find the largest number of five digits that, when divided by 5, 8, 9, or 12, leaves a remainder of 2.

  1. ((a))

    99990

  2. ((b))

    99968

  3. ((c))

    99772

  4. ((d))

    99999

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

99772

Given:

We need to find the largest five-digit number that, when divided by 5, 8, 9, or 12, leaves a remainder of 2.

Formula used:

Let the number be N.

N = k × LCM(5, 8, 9, 12) + 2

Where k is an integer.

Calculation:

First, find the LCM of 5, 8, 9, and 12:

LCM(5, 8, 9, 12) = 360

Now, N should be in the form:

N = 360k + 2

We need the largest five-digit number:

99999 = 360k + 2

⇒ 99999 - 2 = 360k

⇒ 99997 = 360k

⇒ k = 99997 ÷ 360

⇒ k = 277.76944 (approximately)

Take the integer part of k:

k = 277

Now, substitute k back into the equation:

N = 360 × 277 + 2

⇒ N = 99720 + 2 = 99772

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

165

(819 + 3) is divided by 7, the remainder is :

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

Given:

Expression: (819 + 3) divided by 7

Calculations:

As shown in the image:

(819 + 3) / 7

= (7 + 1)19 + 3 / 7

= (7+1)19 / 7 + 3/7

Since (7+1)19 will have terms that are multiples of 7 (due to the binomial expansion) plus 119 = 1, we can write:

(7k + 1) / 7 + 3/7 (where k is some integer)

= 7k/7 + 1/7 + 3/7

= k + 1/7 + 3/7

= k + 4/7

This means that when (819 + 3) is divided by 7, the quotient will be k and the remainder will be 4.

The remainder when (819 + 3) is divided by 7 is 4.

166

Rahul purchased 30 oranges, 20 apples and 10 bananas. The price of each banana is thrice the price of each orange. The price of each apple is twice the price of each banana. What percent of the total cost of the purchase is the total cost of the bananas?

  1. ((a))

    33.33%

  2. ((b))

    16.67%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16.67%

Given:

Rahul purchased 30 oranges, 20 apples and 10 bananas. 

The price of each banana is thrice the price of each orange.

The price of each apple is twice the price of each banana. 

Calculation:

Let the price of one orange = x

The price of one banana will be  = 3x

The price of one apple is 2 ×  3x = 6x.

The total cost of all fruits:

The total cost for the oranges is 30x

The total cost for the bananas is 10 × 3x = 30x

The total cost for the apples is 20 × 6x = 120x 

The total cost of all fruits  = 30x (oranges) + 30x (bananas) + 120x (apples)  = 180x.

The percentage cost for bananas is

⇒ (30x / 180x) × 100%.

⇒ 16.67%

The correct answer is option 2 i.e.16.67%

167

A cylindrical iron rod of length 80 cm and area of cross-section 7546 cm2 is melted down and cast into 220 cubes of equal size. Find the length of each side of the cube.

  1. ((a))

    13 cm

  2. ((b))

    12 cm

  3. ((c))

    15 cm

  4. ((d))

    14 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

14 cm

Given:

Lenght of iron rod = 80 cm , area of cross-section =  7546 cm2

Number of cubes = 220

Concept Used:

Volume (one cube) = Voume (total volume) / n (number of cubes) v

Calculation:

= 603680 cm3 / 220  = 2744 cm3.

We know that the volume of a cube is given by the formula: v = a^3; where a is the length of a side of the cube. Solving for a yields:

a = ∛volume a = ∛2744 a = 14 cm.

Therefore, the length of each side of the cube is 14 cm.

168

Ram Bahadur divides his property between his wife and two sons in such a way that his wife gets half of the total amount that the sons get. His younger son gets a third of the total amount received by his wife and the elder son. If his wife gets Rs. 1,00,000 of property more than the youngest son, find the half of the total value of the property of Ram Bahadur

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 9 lakhs

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 6 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 8 lakhs

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 12 lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 6 lakhs

Given:

Wife gets half of the total amount that the sons get.

Younger son gets a third of the total amount received by his wife and the elder son.

Wife gets Rs. 1,00,000 more than the youngest son.

Calculations:

Let 'x' be the total value of the property.

Let 'W' be the amount the wife gets.

Let 'E' be the amount the elder son gets.

Let 'Y' be the amount the younger son gets.

From the given information:

W = (E + Y) / 2

Y = (W + E) / 3

W = Y + 100000

Substitute W = Y + 100000 into the first equation:

Y + 100000 = (E + Y) / 2

2Y + 200000 = E + Y

Y + 200000 = E

Substitute this value of E into the equation Y = (W + E) / 3:

Y = (W + Y + 200000) / 3

3Y = W + Y + 200000

2Y = W + 200000

Substitute W = Y + 100000 again:

2Y = Y + 100000 + 200000

Y = 300000

Now find W:

W = Y + 100000 = 300000 + 100000 = 400000

Find E:

E = Y + 200000 = 300000 + 200000 = 500000

Total property value (x) = W + E + Y = 400000 + 500000 + 300000 = 1200000

Half of the total value of the property = x / 2 = 1200000 / 2 = 600000

Half of the total value of the property of Ram Bahadur is Rs. 6,00,000.

169

The average age of both A and B is 15 years. If C replaces A then the average age of B and C will be 19 years. The average age of both C and A is 25 years. Find the ages (in years) of A, B and C respectively.

  1. ((a))

    21, 9, 29

  2. ((b))

    22, 25, 18

  3. ((c))

    08, 12, 31

  4. ((d))

    21, 08, 30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21, 9, 29

Given:

(A + B)'s average = 15 years

(B + C)'s average = 19 years

(A + C)'s average = 25 years

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observations/Total number of observations

Calculation:

(A + B)'s age = 15 × 2 = 30 years

(B + C)'s age = 19 × 2 = 38 years

(A + C)'s age = 25 × 2 = 50 years

Adding all three equations we get,

2 (A + B + C) = 118 years

⇒ A + B + C = 59 years

∴A's age - 59 - 38 = 21 years.

B's age = 59 - 50 = 9 years 

C's age  = 59 - 30 = 29 years 

The Ages A, B and C are 21 ,9, and 29 years respectively.

170

Worker A takes 6 hours to do a job. Worker B takes 8 hours to do the same job. How long should it take both A and B working together to complete the same job?

  1. ((a))

    825 8 \frac{2}{5} hours

  2. ((b))

    4474 \frac{4}{7} hours

  3. ((c))

    3373 \frac{3}{7} hours

  4. ((d))

    4494 \frac{4}{9} hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3373 \frac{3}{7} hours

Given:

Worker A completes the job in 6 hours. Worker B completes the same job in 8 hours.

Calculation:

First, we need to determine the work rates of A and B.

The work rate is the reciprocal of the time it takes to complete the job.

So, Worker A's rate is 1/6 jobs per hour, and Worker B's rate is 1/8 jobs per hour.

Next, we add the rates together to get the combined work rate.

The combined work rate is

1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24 jobs per hour.

To find out how long they would take to complete the job together, we find the reciprocal of the combined work rate.

So, the time taken is 1 / (7/24) = 24/7 hours.

So, it should take both Worker A and Worker B about 24/7

= approximately 3.43 hours, working together, to complete the job.

∴ The correct answer is 3373 \frac{3}{7} hours.

171

Find out the wrong number in the series.

445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4

  1. ((a))

    221

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    109

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

46

Calculation:

We can observe that the differences between consecutive numbers are roughly halving each time. This suggests that the series might be based on halving and then subtracting or adding a small value. Let's see if we can find a pattern:

445 / 2 = 222.5 → 221 (-1.5)

221 / 2 = 110.5 → 109 (-1.5)

109 / 2 = 54.5 → 46 (-8.5) (not consistent with the pattern)

46 / 2 = 23 → 25 (+2) 25 / 2 = 12.5 → 11 (-1.5)

11 / 2 = 5.5 → 4 (-1.5)

The correct series should follow the pattern of halving and then subtracting 1.5:

445, 221, 109, 54, 25, 11, 4

So the wrong number in the given series is 46.

172

In one school, there are seven boys for every five girls. How many girls attend the school if there are 3600 students? 

  1. ((a))

    1000

  2. ((b))

    1500

  3. ((c))

    500

  4. ((d))

    700

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1500

Given:

The ratio of boys to girls in the school is 7:5, and the total number of students is 3600.

Formula Used:

The ratio formula where the number of girls = (Ratio of Girls / Total Ratio) * Total Number of Students.

Calculation:

First, we find the total ratio, which is the sum of the ratio parts for boys and girls:

The total ratio = Ratio of boys + Ratio of girls

= 7 + 5 = 12.

Next, we use the ratio formula to calculate the number of girls in the school:

Number of girls = (Ratio of girls / Total ratio) * Total students

= (5 / 12) * 3600 = 1500.

So, there are 1500 girls in the school.

∴ The correct answer is 1500.

173

The distance between two places P and Q is 900 km. An express train starts from P at 8 a.m. with a speed of 90 km/hr. The train stops for 1 hour 30 minutes on the way. Find in what time it will reach Q?

  1. ((a))

    7 : 30 pm

  2. ((b))

    7 : 30 am

  3. ((c))

    6 : 30 pm

  4. ((d))

    8 pm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 : 30 pm

Given:

 Distance between places P and Q (d) = 900 km.

Speed of the express train (s) = 90 km/hr.

Train's stoppage time = 1 hour 30 minutes = 1.5 hours.

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Total time = Travel time + Stoppage time

Calculation:

First, we calculate the travel time from P to Q without considering the stoppage.

Using the formula, Time = Distance / Speed, we substitute the given values:

Time = 900 km / 90 km/hr

= 10 hours

The train also stops for 1.5 hours on the way.

So, the total time the train will take to reach Q is the sum of the travel time and the stoppage time:

Total time = Travel time + Stoppage time Total time

= 10 hours + 1.5 hours = 11.5 hours

Hence, the train will take a total of 11.5 hours to reach from P to Q, including the stoppage time.

If the train starts its journey at 8 a.m., we add the total time taken to the start time to get the time it reaches Q:

Arrival time = Start time + Total time Arrival time

= 8 a.m. + 11.5 hours = 7:30 p.m.

So, the train will reach Q at 7:30 p.m.

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 30 pm.

174

In the given question a number series is given. In the series only one number is wrong. Identify the wrong number?

6, 14, 30, 64, 126, 254

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    64

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    126

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

64

Calculation:

We can see that the differences are roughly doubling each time. So, let's see if we can find a pattern that fits:

6 + (2^3) = 6 + 8 = 14

14 + (2^4) = 14 + 16 = 30

30 + (2^5) = 30 + 32 = 62 (not 64)

62 + (2^6) = 62 + 64 = 126

126 + (2^7) = 126 + 128 = 254

The correct series should be: 6, 14, 30, 62, 126, 254

So the wrong number in the given series is 64.

175

What part of fraction 513\frac{5}{13} should be added to it to get sum 911\frac{9}{11}?

  1. ((a))

    725\frac{7}{25}

  2. ((b))

    6255\frac{62}{55}

  3. ((c))

    5564\frac{55}{64}

  4. ((d))

    2413\frac{24}{13}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6255\frac{62}{55}

Calculation:

Let fraction be added is X 

According to the question,

⇒ 513+x=911\dfrac{5}{13} + x = \dfrac{9}{11}

⇒ x  = 911513\dfrac{9}{11} - \dfrac{5}{13}  =

176

निम्नलिखित में से कौन - सा लोकोक्ति का प्रचलित/सही रूप है?

  1. ((a))

    जड़ काटते नहाना और पानी पीते सोना

  2. ((b))

    जड़ काटते खाना और पानी पीते रहना

  3. ((c))

    जड़ काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना

  4. ((d))

    जड़ काटते जाना और हल चलाते रहना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

जड़ काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना

व‍िकल्‍प (3) "जड़ काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना" लोकोक्ति का प्रचलित/सही रूप है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
जड़ काटते जाना और पानी देते रहनाऊपर से प्रेम दिखाना, अप्रत्यक्ष में हानि पहुँचाते रहनाप्रशान्त जब मुझसे मिलता है हँसकर प्रेम से बात करता है लेकिन पीछे भाई साहब से मेरी बुराई करता है। जब मुझे पता चला तो मैंने उससे कहा कि तुम जड़ काटते हो ऊपर से पानी देते हो।

Important Points  कुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण लोकोक्ति- 

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आठ कनौजिये नौ चूल्हे।अलगाव की स्थिति।पूँजीवादी व्यवस्था में समाज इतना स्वार्थी हो गया है कि आठ कनौजिये नौ चूल्हे वाली स्थिति दिखाई देती है।
उद्योगिन्न पुरुषसिंहनुपैति लक्ष्मी।उद्योगी को ही धन मिलता है।सच कहा है किसी ने उद्योगिन्न पुरुषसिंहनुपैति लक्ष्मी अर्थात कर्मयोगी को ही सफलता मिलती है।
ऊधो का लेना न माधो का देना।केवल अपने काम से काम रखना।प्रोफेसर साहब तो बस अध्ययन और अध्यापन में लगे रहते हैं। गुटबन्दी से उन्हें कोई लेना-देना नहीं- ऊधो का लेना न माधो का देना।
एकै साधे सब सधे, सब साधे सब जाय।किसी कार्य को संपन्न कराने के लिए किसी एक समर्थ व्यक्ति का सहारा लेना अच्छा है बजाए अनेक लोगों के पीछे भागने के।अगर प्रमोशन चाहिए तो मंत्रीजी को पकड़ लो, इन अधिकारियों के पीछे भागने से कोई लाभ नहीं। किसी ने ठीक कहा है एकै साधे सब सधे, सब साधे सब जाय'।

Additional Information 

परिभाषाउदाहरण
लोकोक्ति'लोकोक्ति' शब्द 'लोक + उक्ति' शब्दों से मिलकर बना है जिसका अर्थ है- लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति या कथन'। संस्कृत में 'लोकोक्ति' अलंकार का एक भेद भी है तथा सामान्य अर्थ में लोकोक्ति को 'कहावत' कहा जाता है।अंधा सिपाही कानी घोड़ी, विधि ने खूब मिलाई जोड़ी: जहां दो व्यक्ति हों और दोनों ही एक समान मूर्ख, दुष्ट या अवगुणी हों वहां ऐसा कहते हैं।
177

"केकी-रव की नूपुर-ध्वनि सुन, जगती जगती की मूक प्यास।" उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अलंकार है?

  1. ((a))

    श्लेष अलंकार

  2. ((b))

    अनुप्रास अलंकार

  3. ((c))

    यमक अलंकार

  4. ((d))

    विरोधाभास अलंकार

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

यमक अलंकार

दी गई पंक्तियों में "यमक अलंकार" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • "केकी-रव की नूपुर-ध्वनि सुन, जगती जगती की मूक प्यास।"
  • पंक्ति का भावार्थ- इन पंक्तियों में वर्षारूपी सुन्दरी के रमणीय सौन्दर्य का आलंकारिक वर्णन किया गया है।
  • न‍िम��‍न पंक्तियों में यमक अलंकार है।
अलंकारपरिभाषाउदारहण
यमकजब एक शब्द का प्रयोग दो बार होता है और दोनों बार उसके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं तब यमक अलंकार होता है।कनक कनक ते सौगुनी मादकता अधिकाय। वा खाये बौराय जग या पाये बौराय।।

Additional Informationअन्‍य विकल्‍प-

अलंकारपरिभाषाउदाहरण
अनुप्रासअनुप्रास शब्‍द दो शब्‍दों से मिलकर बना है। अनु + प्रास यहॉं पर अनु का अर्थ है- बार-बार और प्रास का अर्थ- वर्ण है। जब किसी वर्ण की बार-बार आवृत्ति हो तब जो चमत्‍कार उत्‍पन्न होता है, उसे अनुप्रास अलंकार कहते हैं।चारु चन्‍द्र की चंचल किरणें खेल रही है जल थल में।
श्‍लेषश्लेष का अर्थ होता है चिपका हुआ या मिला हुआ। जब किसी शब्द का प्रयोग एक बार ही किया जाता है पर उसके एक से अधिक अर्थ निकलते हैं, तब श्लेष अलंकार होता है।रहिमन पानी राखिये,बिन पानी सब सून।
पानी गये न ऊबरै, मोती मानुष चून।।
विरोधाभासजहाँ वास्तविक विरोध न होकर केवल विरोध का आभास हो, वहाँ विरोधाभास अलंकार होता है।या अनुरागी चित्त की, गति समुझै नहि कोय।
ज्यौं ज्यौं बूङै स्याम रंग, त्यौं त्यौं उजलो होय।।
178

निम्नलिखित में से विभक्तियाँ "हे एवं अजी" निम्न में से किस कारक की है?

  1. ((a))

    सम्बोधन कारक

  2. ((b))

    अधिकरण कारक

  3. ((c))

    अपादान कारक

  4. ((d))

    सम्प्रदान कारक

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सम्बोधन कारक

"हे एवं अजी" व‍िभक्तियॉं सम्‍बोधान कारक की है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

कारकपरिभाषाउदहारण
सम्‍बोधान  कारकजिस संज्ञापद से किसी को पुकारने, सावधान करने अथवा संबोधित करने का बोध हो, 'संबोधन' कारक कहते हैं।हे राम ! यह क्या हो गया।

Important Points

कारकपरिभाषाउदाहरण
अधिकरण कारकशब्द के जिस रूप से क्रिया के आधार का बोध होता है, उसे 'अधिकरण कारक' कहते है।कमल सभी फूलों में सुन्दरतम है।
अपादान कारकसंज्ञा के जिस रूप से एक वस्तु का दूसरी से अलग होना पाया जाए वह अपादान कारक कहलाता है। इसका हिन्दी परसर्ग 'से' है।बलराम पेड़ से गिरा।
सम्प्रदान कारकसम्प्रदान का अर्थ ‘देना’ होता है। जब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।आरती ने भारती को पुस्तक दी।

Additional Information 

परसर्ग - ये वे अक्षर हैं जो किसी शब्द के बाद आते हैं और कोई विशेषता लाते हैं। जैसे - का, की, रे, ने, द्वारा, से आदि।
कारक - संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों के साथ उसके सम्बन्ध का बोध होता है, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
विभक्तिकारकचिन्ह/ परसर्ग
प्रथमकर्ता कारकने
द्वितीयकर्म कारकको
तृतीयकरण कारकसे, के द्वारा
चतुर्थीसम्प्रदान कारकको, के लिए (देने का भाव)
पंचमीअपादान कारकसे, (अलग होने के लिए)
षष्ठीसंबंध कारकका, की, के, रा, री, रे
सप्तमीअधिकरण कारकमें, पर
अष्टमीसंबोधनहे ! ओ ! अरे !
179

दिए गए वाक्य के लिए निम्न में से एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

"जो विश्व का हित चाहता है"

  1. ((a))

    बहुश्रुत

  2. ((b))

    विश्वहितैषी

  3. ((c))

    भग्‍नहृदय

  4. ((d))

    प्रणभ्य

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

विश्वहितैषी

"जो विश्व का हित चाहता है।" वाक्‍यांश के ल‍िए सही एक शब्‍द "विश्वहितैषी" है। 

Key Points

  • विश्वहितैषी- जो विश्व का हित चाहता है।
  • अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।
शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
बहुश्रुतअनेक विषय का ज्ञान सुनने एवं उनका स्मरण रखनेवाला
भग्‍नहृदयजिसका हृदय दुख के कारण टूट गया हो

Important Points

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
दुर्गमजहॉं पहुँचना कठिन हो।
अगमजहॉं पहुँचा न जा सके।
दुष्‍करजिसे करना बहुत कठिन हो।

Additional Information 

परिभाषा- कम से कम शब्‍दों में अधिकाधिक भावों एवं विचारों की अभिव्‍यक्ति का प्रयास करना ही अनेक शब्‍दों के लिए एक शब्‍द है। जैसे- जिसके हृदय में ममता न हो- निर्मम
180

दिए गए वाक्य के लिए निम्न में से एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

"जो प्रणाम करने योग्य हो"

  1. ((a))

    प्रष्टव्य

  2. ((b))

    भग्नहृदय

  3. ((c))

    बहुश्रुत

  4. ((d))

    प्रणम्य

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

प्रणम्य

"जो प्रणाम करने योग्य हो" प्रणम्‍य कहलाता है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • प्रणम्‍य- जो प्रणाम करने योग्य हो।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
प्रष्टव्यपूछने योग्य
भग्नहृदयजिसका हृदय दुख के कारण टूट गया हो
बहुश्रुतअनेक विषय का ज्ञान सुनने एवं उनका स्मरण रखनेवाला

Important Points 

शब्‍दवाक्‍यांश
दुर्गमजहॉं पहुँचना कठिन हो।
अगमजहॉं पहुँचा न जा सके।
दुष्‍करजिसे करना बहुत कठिन हो।

Additional Information 

परिभाषा- कम से कम शब्‍दों में अधिकाधिक भावों एवं विचारों की अभिव्‍यक्ति का प्रयास करना ही अनेक शब्‍दों के लिए एक शब्‍द है। जैसे- जिसके हृदय में ममता न हो- निर्मम
181

सुन्दरता, जवानी उन्नति मित्रता एवं अवनति निम्न में से किस संज्ञा के उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    भाववाचक संज्ञा

  2. ((b))

    व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा

  3. ((c))

    जातिवाचक संज्ञा

  4. ((d))

    गुणवाचक संज्ञा

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

भाववाचक संज्ञा

सुन्दरता, जवानी उन्नति मित्रता एवं अवनति आदि शब्‍दों में भाववाचक संज्ञा है। 

Key Points

संज्ञापरिभाषाउदाहरण
भाववाचक संज्ञाजिस संज्ञा शब्द से पदार्थों की अवस्था, गुण-दोष, भाव या दशा, धर्म आदि का बोध हो उसे भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।बुढ़ापा, मिठास, बचपन, मोटापा, चढ़ाई, थकावट इत्यादि।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

प्रकारपरिभाषाउदाहरण
व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञाजिन शब्दों से किसी विशेष व्यक्ति, स्थान अथवा वस्तु के नाम का बोध हो, उसे व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।जयपुर, दिल्ली, भारत, रामायण, अमेरिका आदि।
जातिवाचक संज्ञाजिस शब्द से एक जाति के सभी प्राणियों अथवा वस्तुओं का बोध हो उसे जातिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।बच्चा ,जानवर, नदी, अध्यापक, बाजार, पहाड़, खिड़की आदि
गुणवाचक व‍िशेषणकिसी वाक्य में संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम के गुण, दोष, रंग, रूप, आकार, स्वभाव, समय, स्थान या दशा आदि का बोध करवाने वाले शब्दों को गुणवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।मोटा, लम्बा, काला, हरा, बुरा आदि।

Important Points 

विशेषण- संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की विशेषता बताने वाले शब्‍द को विशेषण कहते हैं। जैसे- छोटा, काला, दयालु आदि।

विशेषण के मूलत: चार भेद होते हैं- 

विशेषणपरिभाषाउदाहरण
गुणवाचकजिस विशेषण से किसी संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का गुण-दोष, रूप-रंग, आकार-प्रकार, सम्‍बन्‍ध, दशा आदि का पता चले उसे गुणवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।कमला बहुत ही सुन्‍दर लड़की है।
संख्‍यावाचकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम की संख्‍या का बोध कराने वाले विशेषण को संख्‍यावाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।यहँ तीन बालक और चार बालिकाऍं मौजूद हैं।
परिमाणवाचकजिस विशेषण से संज्ञा के परिमाण का बोध हो, उसे परिमाणवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।मुझे दो सेर चावल दे दो।
सार्वनामिकजो सर्वनाम शब्‍द विशेषण के रूप में प्रयुक्‍त होते हैं, उनको सार्वनामिक विशेषण कहा जाता है।यह आदमी विश्‍वासी है।

Additional Information 

संज्ञा- किसी व्‍यक्ति, वस्‍तु, स्‍थान, जाति या भाव के नाम को संज्ञा कहते हैं। जैसे- कमला, पटना, अंगूर, चमेली, हिमालय, गंगा आदि।

संज्ञा के पॉंच भेद होते हैं- 

  • व्‍यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा
  • जातिवाचक संज्ञा
  • द्रव्‍यवाचक संज्ञा
  • समूहवाचक संज्ञा
  • भाववाचक संज्ञा
182

वाक्य "गरमियों में लोगों से खूब नहाया जाता है।" से संबंधित वाच्य कौन-सा है?

  1. ((a))

    क्रियावाच्य

  2. ((b))

    कर्मवाच्य

  3. ((c))

    भाववाच्य

  4. ((d))

    कर्तृवाच्य

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

भाववाच्य

"गरमियों में लोगों से खूब नहाया जाता है।" यह वाक्‍य भाववाच्‍य का है। 

Key Points

  • "गरमियों में लोगों से खूब नहाया जाता है।"
  • यह वाक्‍य भाववाच्‍य का है।
  • अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Additional Information

वाच्‍य- ��्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पात चलता है कि उसमें कर्ता, कर्म या भाव में किसकी प्रधानता है, तो उसे वाच्‍य कहते हैं।

हिन्‍दी में वाच्‍य के तीन प्रकार है- 

परिभाषाउदाहरण
कर्तृवाच्‍य-  क्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि वाक्‍य में कर्ता की प्रधानता है, तो उसे कर्तृवाच्‍य कहा जाता है।राधा पुस्‍तक पढ़ती है।
कर्मवाच्‍य- क्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि वाक्‍य में कर्म की प्रधानता है, तो उसे कर्मवाच्‍य कहा जाता है।रवि द्वारा कार चलाई जाती है।
भाववाच्‍य- क्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि वाक्‍य में कर्ता या कर्म के बजाय भाव की प्रधानता है, तो उसे भाववाच्‍य कहा जाता है।मेरे द्वारा दौड़ा जा रहा है।
183

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "अपनी चिलम भरने को मेरा झोंपड़ा जलाते हो" का क्या अर्थ है ?

  1. ((a))

    सदा वर्तमान की ही चिन्ता करनी चाहिए

  2. ((b))

    खिसियाहट में क्रोधवश लोग अटपटा कार्य करते हैं

  3. ((c))

    अपने घर की बात दूसरों से कहने पर बदनामी होती है

  4. ((d))

    अपने अल्प लाभ के लिए दूसरे की भारी हानि करते हो

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

अपने अल्प लाभ के लिए दूसरे की भारी हानि करते हो

लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ- "अपने अल्प लाभ के लिए दूसरे की भारी हानि करते हो" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
अपनी चिलम भरने को मेरा झोंपड़ा जलाते होअपने अल्प लाभ के लिए दूसरे की भारी हानि करते होआज ऐसा समय आ गया है अधिकांश व्यक्ति अपनी चिलम भरने के लिए दूसरे का झोंपड़ा जलाने में गुरेज नहीं करते।

Important Points कुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण मुहावरे- 

मुहावरेअर्थ
अपना उल्लू सीधा करनास्वार्थ सिद्ध करना
आकाश से बातें करनाकाफी ऊँचा होना
उंगली पर नचानावश में करना
जख्म पर नमक छिड़कनादुःखी या परेशान को और परेशान करना
दिल बाग-बाग होनाअत्यधिक हर्ष होना

Additional Information 

मुहावराउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'अभ्‍यास' है। मुहावरा शब्‍द अरबी भाषा का शब्‍द है। हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्‍यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है। जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्‍यक्‍त करते हैं।अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाना-अर्थ- सबसे पृथक् काम करना।
वाक्य प्रयोग-वह अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाता है
184

"तोपर वारौं उर बसी, सुन राधिके सुजान।

तू मोहन के उर बसी वे उरबसी समान।"

उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अलंकार है?

  1. ((a))

    विरोधाभास अलंकार

  2. ((b))

    श्लेष अलंकार

  3. ((c))

    अनुप्रास अलंकार

  4. ((d))

    यमक अलंकार

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

यमक अलंकार

उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों में "यमक अलंकार" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • "तोपर वारौं उर बसी, सुन राधिके सुजान।

         तू मोहन के उर बसी वे उरबसी समान।"

  • उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों में "यमक अलंकार" है।
  • प्रस्तुत पद में यमक अलंकार है। प्रस्तुत पंक्ति में उरबसी शब्द में यमक अलंकार है क्योंकि उरबसी के दो अर्थ निकल रहे है- हृदय में बसनेवाली और उर्वशी नाम की एक अप्सरा। जब किसी काव्य पंक्ति में एक ही शब्द के दो अर्थ हो तो वहाँ यमक अलंकार है।
अलंकारपरिभाषाउदारहण
यमकजब एक शब्द का प्रयोग दो बार होता है और दोनों बार उसके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं तब यमक अलंकार होता है।कनक कनक ते सौगुनी मादकता अधिकाय। वा खाये बौराय जग या पाये बौराय।।

Additional Informationअन्‍य विकल्‍प-

अलंकारपरिभाषाउदाहरण
अनुप्रासअनुप्रास शब्‍द दो शब्‍दों से मिलकर बना है। अनु + प्रास यहॉं पर अनु का अर्थ है- बार-बार और प्रास का अर्थ- वर्ण है। जब किसी वर्ण की बार-बार आवृत्ति हो तब जो चमत्‍कार उत्‍पन्न होता है, उसे अनुप्रास अलंकार कहते हैं।चारु चन्‍द्र की चंचल किरणें खेल रही है जल थल में।
श्‍लेषश्लेष का अर्थ होता है चिपका हुआ या मिला हुआ। जब किसी शब्द का प्रयोग एक बार ही किया जाता है पर उसके एक से अधिक अर्थ निकलते हैं, तब श्लेष अलंकार होता है।रहिमन पानी राखिये,बिन पानी सब सून।
पानी गये न ऊबरै, मोती मानुष चून।।
विरोधाभासजहाँ वास्तविक विरोध न होकर केवल विरोध का आभास हो, वहाँ विरोधाभास अलंकार होता है।या अनुरागी चित्त की, गति समुझै नहि कोय।
ज्यौं ज्यौं बूङै स्याम रंग, त्यौं त्यौं उजलो होय।।
185

निम्नलिखित में से "अस्थिर" का विलोम शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    अपचय

  2. ((b))

    स्वल्प

  3. ((c))

    स्थिर

  4. ((d))

    अनैसर्गिक

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

स्थिर

"अस्थिर" का उचित विलोम शब्‍द स्थिर है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • अस्थिर का अर्थ- जो स्थिर न हो, डाँवाँ डोल, चंचल
  • स्थिर का अर्थ- स्थायी
  • अस्थिर का व‍िलोम शब्‍द स्थिर है।
शब्‍दव‍िलोम
अपचयउपचय
स्वल्पयथेष्ट
अनैसर्गिकनैसर्गिक

Important Points कुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
जड़चेतन
वक्‍ताश्रोता
उन्‍मूलनरोपण
आघातप्रतिघात
अनिवार्यऐच्छिक
आवृत्तअनावृत्त
विज्ञअज्ञ
आलोकतिमिर
कृत्रिमप्राकृतिक

Additional Information 

विलोम शब्‍द- एक-दूसरे के विप��ीत या उल्‍टा अर्थ देने वाले शब्‍द विलोम शब्‍द कहलाते हैं।उदाहरण-अच्‍छा- बुरा लाभ- हानि
186

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य सम्बन्ध कारक का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    आपने अच्छा किया।

  2. ((b))

    यह विजय की साइकिल है।

  3. ((c))

    पेंसिल मेज पर है।

  4. ((d))

    राधा तूलिका से चित्र बनाती है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

यह विजय की साइकिल है।

"यह विजय की साइकिल है।" सम्‍बन्‍ध कारक का सही उदाहरण है। 

Key Points 

  • सम्‍बन्‍ध कारक वाक्‍य- "यह विजय की साइकिल है।"
कारकपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सम्‍बन्‍ध कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है। सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।यह विजय की साइकिल है।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

वाक्‍यकारकपरिभाषा
पेंसिल मेज पर है।अधिकरण   कारकशब्द के जिस रूप से क्रिया के आधार का बोध होता है, उसे 'अधिकरण कारक' कहते है। इसके विभक्ति-चिह्न 'में' तथा 'पर' है।
राधा तूलिका से चित्र बनाती है।करण कारकसंज्ञा आदि शब्दों के जिस रूप से क्रिया के करने के साधन का बोध हो अर्थात् जिसकी सहायता से कार्य संपन्न हो वह करण कारक कहलाता है। इसके हिन्दी परसर्ग 'से' के 'द्वारा' है।
आपने अच्छा किया।कर्ता  कारककारक का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया (कार्य) के करने वाले का बोध होता है, वह 'कर्ता कारक' कहलाता है।

Additional Information 

परसर्ग - ये वे अक्षर हैं जो किसी शब्द के बाद आते हैं और कोई विशेषता लाते हैं। जैसे - का, की, रे, ने, द्वारा, से आदि।
कारक - संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों के साथ उसके सम्बन्ध का बोध होता है, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
विभक्तिकारकचिन्ह/ परसर्ग
प्रथमकर्ता कारकने
द्वितीयकर्म कारकको
तृतीयकरण कारकसे, के द्वारा
चतुर्थीसम्प्रदान कारकको, के लिए (देने का भाव)
पंचमीअपादान कारकसे, (अलग होने के लिए)
षष्ठीसंबंध कारकका, की, के, रा, री, रे
सप्तमीअधिकरण कारकमें, पर
अष्टमीसंबोधनहे ! ओ ! अरे !
187

निम्नलिखित में से असंगत/बेमेल शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    पीड़ा

  2. ((b))

    खेद

  3. ((c))

    यातना

  4. ((d))

    हर्ष

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

हर्ष

असंगत/बेमेल शब्‍द "हर्ष" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • हर्ष के पर्यायवाची- प्रमोद, आनंद, उल्लास, ख़ुशी, प्रसन्नता आदि।
  • दुःख के पर्यायवाची- पीड़ा, कष्ट, व्यथा, वेदना, संताप, संकट, क्लेश, खेद, यातना आदि।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:- 

  • अतिथि- मेहमान, अभ्यागत, आगन्तुक, पाहूना।
  • इंदु- चाँद, चंद्रमा, चंदा, शशि, राकेश, मयंक, महताब।
  • उत्कृष्ट- उत्तम, उन्नत, श्रेष्ठ, अच्छा, बढ़िया, उम्दा।
  • ओझल- अदृश्य, अंतर्धान, तिरोहित, लुप्त, गायब, विलुप्त।
  • कुबेर- कित्ररेश, यक्षराज, धनद, धनाधिप, राजराज।
  • खादिम- नौकर, चाकर, भृत्य, अनुचर।
  • गहन- अभेद्य, दुर्गम, घना, निविड़, सघन, गंभीर, गहरा।

Additional Information 

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा दूध- अमृत, क्षीर, गोरस
188

रस एवं स्थायी भाव के संबंध में कौन सा युग्म सही है?

  1. ((a))

    वीर-शोक

  2. ((b))

    भयानक-भय

  3. ((c))

    शांत-विस्मय

  4. ((d))

    करुण- क्रोध

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

भयानक-भय

रस एवं स्‍थायी भाव के संबंध में "भयानक-भय" युग्‍म सही है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

रसपरिभाषाउदारहण
भयानक रसजब किसी भयानक व्यक्ति या वस्तु को देखने, उससे सम्बंधित वर्णन सुनने या किसी दुखद घटना का स्मरण करने से मन में व्याकुलता और भय उत्पन्न होता है, उसे भयानक रस कहते हैं।अखिल यौवन के रंग उभार, हड्डियों के हिलाते कंकाल,
काचो के चिकने काले, व्याल, केंचुली, कांस सिबाल।।

Additional Information

रस- रस एक प्रकार का आनन्‍द है, काव्‍य पढ़ने या नाटक देखने से जो विशेष प्रकार का आनन्‍द प्राप्‍त होता है। उसे रस कहा जाता है। हिन्‍दी में 'स्‍थायी भाव' के आधार पर काव्‍य में नौ रस बताये गए हैं, जो इस प्रकार हैं:-
क्रम संख्‍यारसस्‍थायी भाव
1.श्रृंगार रसरति
2.हास्‍य रसहास
3.करूण रसशोक
4.रौद्र रसक्रोध
5.वीर रसउत्‍साह
6.भयानक रसभय
7.वीभत्‍स रसजुगुप्‍सा
8.अद्भुत रसविस्‍मय
9.शांत रसनिर्वेद

इसके अलावा दो रस और माने जाते हैं। वे हैं- 

10.वात्सल्य रसवात्‍सल्‍य
11.भक्ति रसवैराग्‍य
189

जो व्यक्ति वस्तु या परिस्थितियाँ स्थायी भावों को उद्दीपन या जागृत करती हैं, उन्हें ________ कहते हैं।

  1. ((a))

    अनुभाव

  2. ((b))

    विभाव

  3. ((c))

    संचारी भाव

  4. ((d))

    स्थायी भाव

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

विभाव

र‍िक्‍त स्‍थान की पूर्ति के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्‍त शब्‍द "व‍िभाव" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • जो व्यक्ति वस्तु या परिस्थितियाँ स्थायी भावों को उद्दीपन या जागृत करती हैं, उन्हें व‍िभाव कहते हैं।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

प्रकारपरिभाषा
अनुभावअनुभाव दो शब्दों 'अनु' और भाव के मेल से बना है। 'अनु' अर्थात् पीछे या बाद में अर्थात् आश्रय के मन में पनपे भाव और उसकी वाह्य चेष्टाएँ अनुभाव कहलाती हैं।
संचारी भाववहभाव जो स्थायी भाव की ओर चलते है, जिससे स्थायी भाव रस का रूप धारण कर लेवे। इसे यो भी कह सकते हैं जो भाव रस के उप कारक होकर पानी के बुलबुलों और तरंगों की भांति उठते और विलिन होते है। उन्हें व्यभिचारी या संचारी भाव कहते है।
स्थायी भावरस रूप में परिणत होने वाले तथा मनुष्य के हृदय में स्थायी रूप से रहने वाले भावों को स्थायी भाव कहते हैं । स्थायी भावों की संख्या 9 मानी गयी है । (1) रति ( दाम्पत्य प्रेम ), (2) उत्साह, (3) शोक, (4) क्रोध, (5) हास,  6) भय, (7) जुगुप्सा, (8) विस्मय, तथा (9) निर्वेद।

Additional Information

रस- रस एक प्रकार का आनन्‍द है, काव्‍य पढ़ने या नाटक देखने से जो विशेष प्रकार का आनन्‍द प्राप्‍त होता है। उसे रस कहा जाता है। हिन्‍दी में 'स्‍थायी भाव' के आधार पर काव्‍य में नौ रस बताये गए हैं, ��ो इस प्रकार हैं:-
क्रम संख्‍यारसस्‍थायी भाव
1.श्रृंगार रसरति
2.हास्‍य रसहास
3.करूण रसशोक
4.रौद्र रसक्रोध
5.वीर रसउत्‍साह
6.भयानक रसभय
7.वीभत्‍स रसजुगुप्‍सा
8.अद्भुत रसविस्‍मय
9.शांत रसनिर्वेद

इसके अलावा दो रस और माने जाते हैं। वे हैं- 

10.वात्सल्य रसवात्‍सल्‍य
11.भक्ति रसवैराग्‍य
190

निम्नलिखित शब्द समूहों में से कौन सा विकल्प योगरूढ़ शब्दों का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    आग, दिन, जल

  2. ((b))

    धन, रात, गौशाला

  3. ((c))

    गिरधारी, घश्याम, पंकज

  4. ((d))

    पाठशाला, विज्ञान, राजपुत्र

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

गिरधारी, घश्याम, पंकज

गिरधारी, घश्याम, पंकज आदि शब्‍द योगरूढ़ शब्‍दों का सही समूह है। 

Key Points

  • गिरधारी, घश्याम, पंकज आदि शब्‍द योगरूढ़ शब्‍द हैं।
  • योगरूढ़ - जो शब्द अन्य शब्दों के योग से बनते हो, परन्तु एक विशेष अर्थ के लिए प्रसिद्ध होते है, उन्हें योगरूढ़ शब्द कहते है।
  • जैसे-  चक्रपाणी = चक्र + पाणी ( चक्र को हाथ में धारण करने वाला अर्थात विष्णु )
  • दशानन = दश +आनन (दस मुखों वाला अर्थात रावण)

Important Points 

  • गिरधारी= भगवान कृष्ण
  • घश्याम= बादल की तरह काला
  • पंकज= कीचड़ मे उत्पन्न होनेवाला

Additional Information रचना के आधार पर शब्द के निम्नलिखित तीन भेद होते हैं-

रूढ़ शब्द -  रूढ़ शब्द-ऐसे शब्द जो किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करते हैं लेकिन अगर उनके टुकड़े कर दिए जाएँ तो निरर्थक हो जाते हैं। ऐसे शब्दों को रूढ़ शब्द कहते हैं, जैसे- जल, कल, जप आदि।
यौगिक शब्द- ऐसे शब्द जो किन्हीं दो सार्थक शब्दों के मेल से बनते हों वे शब्द यौगिक शब्द कहलाते हैं। इन शब्दों के खंड भी सार्थक होते हैं। जैसे- स्वदेश - स्व + देश
देवालय - देव + आलय
योगरूढ़ शब्द - जो शब्द अन्य शब्दों के योग से बनते हो, परन्तु एक विशेष अर्थ के लिए प्रसिद्ध होते है, उन्हें योगरूढ़ शब्द कहते है। जैसे - लम्बोदर =लम्ब +उदर बड़े पेट वाला )=गणेश जी
पंकज - कीचड़ में उत्पन्न होने वाला अर्थात कमल आदि।
191

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य, भाववाच्य का उदाहरण नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    वे ये दृश्य नहीं देख सके।

  2. ((b))

    भाई से घर में नहीं बैठा जाता।

  3. ((c))

    उससे तख्त पर सोया जाता है।

  4. ((d))

    आज रात हमसे यहीं ठहरा जाएगा।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

वे ये दृश्य नहीं देख सके।

"वे ये दृश्य नहीं देख सके।" यह वाक्‍य भाववाच्‍य का नहीं है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • वे ये दृश्य नहीं देख सके। यह कर्मवाच्य का उदाहरण है।
वाच्‍यपरिभाषाउदहारण
कर्मवाच्‍यक्रिया के उस रूपान्तर को कर्मवाच्य कहते हैं, जिससे वाक्य में कर्म की प्रधानता का बोध हो।वे ये दृश्य नहीं देख सके।

Additional Information वाच्य : जिससे वाक्य के अंतर्गत क्रिया के द्वारा परिवर्तन से कर्ता, कर्म या भाव की प्रधानता का बोध हो उसे वाच्य कहते हैं।

ये तीन प्रकार के होते हैं- 1. कर्तृवाच्य, 2. कर्मवाच्य और 3. भाववाच्य।

वाच्यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
कर्मवाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप से वाक्य में कर्म की प्रधानता का बोध हो उसे कर्मवाच्य कहते हैं।बीमार आदमी से खाना नहीं खाया जाता।
भाववाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप से क्रिया या भाव की प्रधानता का बोध हो उसे भाववाच्य कहते हैं।दिन में कैसे सोया जाएगा।
कर्तृवाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप से वाक्य में कर्ता की प्रधानता का बोध हो उसे कर्तृवाच्य कहते हैं।आप खाना खाएं।
192

निम्नलिखित तत्सम - तद्भव में से कौन-सा विकल्प अशुद्ध है?

  1. ((a))

    वारिद् - बादल

  2. ((b))

    लवंग - लोहा

  3. ((c))

    भागिनेय -  भांजा

  4. ((d))

    श्रावण - सावन

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

लवंग - लोहा

"लवंग - लोहा" तत्सम-तद्भव अशुद्ध है। अन्‍य विकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • लवंग तत्‍सम शब्‍द है। और लवंग का तद्भव शब्‍द लौंग है।
  • लोहा तद्भव शब्‍द है। और इसका तत्‍सम शब्‍द लौह है।
  • अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍पों में द‍िए गए तत्‍सम-तद्भव शब्‍दों के युग्‍म सही हैं।

Important Points कुछ अन्‍य महत्‍वपूर्ण  तत्‍सम-तद्भव शब्‍द-  

तत्‍समतद्भव
एकलअकेला
अक्षोटअखरोट
अमृतअमिय
अक्षोभअछोह
कर्पूरकपूर
गृद्धगिद्ध
क्षुद्रछोटा
ज्‍येष्‍ठजेठ

Additional Information 

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्समऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से ज्यों के त्यों लिए गए, तत्सम होते हैं।कूप, उष्ट्र, पंचम आदि
तद्भवसंस्कृत से हिंदी में आने पर जिन शब्दों का रूप बदल गया हो, तद्भव कहलाते हैं।आग, काम, पाँच आदि
193

प्राचीन भाषा के पद्यों में अर्द्धाली के पश्चात _________ का प्रयोग होता है।

  1. ((a))

    पूर्णविराम चिन्ह एवं योजक विराम चिन्ह

  2. ((b))

    न तो पूर्णविराम चिन्ह और न ही योजक विराम चिन्ह

  3. ((c))

    योजक विराम चिन्ह

  4. ((d))

    पूर्णविराम चिन्ह

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

पूर्णविराम चिन्ह

सही उत्तर "पूर्णविराम चिन्‍ह" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • प्राचीन भाषा के पद्यों में अर्द्धाली के पश्चात पूर्णविराम चिन्‍ह का प्रयोग होता है।
चिह्नपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पूर्ण व‍िराम (।)संस्कृत, हिन्दी और अन्य भारतीय भाषाओं में वाक्य के अन्त में (प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों को छोड़कर) जो विराम चिह्न उपयोग में लाया जाता है उसे पूर्ण विराम कहते हैं। हिन्दी में इसे 'खड़ी पाई' भी कहते हैं। देवनागरी लिपि में इसके लिए (।) चिह्न का प्रयोग होता है।मुझे बाहर जाना है। 

Additional Information

चिन्‍हपरिभाषा
अल्पविराम (,)अल्प का अर्थ थोड़ा होता है और विराम का अर्थ रुकना होता है अर्थात अल्प विराम का अर्थ थोड़ी देर रुकना होता है।
योजक (-)जब एक ही शब्‍द दोहराया जाता है अथवा समस्‍त शब्‍द के दोनों शब्‍द पृथक्-पृथक् दिखाने होते हैं तब योजक चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
अल्पविराम (,)अल्प का अर्थ थोड़ा होता है और विराम का अर्थ रुकना होता है अर्थात अल्प विराम का अर्थ थोड़ी देर रुकना होता है।
194

निम्नलिखित में से "सरस्वती" का पर्यायवाची शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    वृत्तान्त

  2. ((b))

    वारिधि

  3. ((c))

    लंघन

  4. ((d))

    वीणापाणि

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

वीणापाणि

"सरस्वती" का उचित पर्यायवाची शब्‍द वीणापाणि है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • सरस्वती के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची- ब्राह्मी, भारती, गो, गिरा, सुष्टु, वागीश, महाश्वेता, भाषा, वाचा आद‍ि।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दपर्यायवाची
वृत्तान्तआख्यान, वार्ता, रूदाद, हाल-चाल, बातचीत, कथा, समाचार
वारिधिनीरनिधि, अर्णव, जलधाम, अकूपाद, समुद्र, सागर, पयोधि, उदधि
लंघनफाका, उपवास, अनशन, निराहार, व्रत

Important Pointsकुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दपर्यायवाची
अतिथिमेहमान, अभ्यागत, आगन्तुक, पाहुना
अलंकारआभूषण, भूषण, विभूषण, गहना, जेवर
अश्वहय, तुरंग, वाजि, घोडा, घोटक
अरण्यजंगल, वन, कानन, अटवी, कान्तार
अंतरिक्षखगोल, नभमंडल, गगनमंडल, आकाशमंडल
अंबुजकमल, पंकज, नीरज, वारिज, जलज

Additional Information 

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा दूध- अमृत, क्षीर, गोरस
195

निम्नलिखित में से असंगत/बेमेल शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    दुर्गम

  2. ((b))

    कठिन

  3. ((c))

    विकट

  4. ((d))

    कोदण्ड

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

कोदण्ड

"कोदण्‍ड" असंगत/बेमेल शब्‍द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • कोदण्‍ड के पर्यायवाची- धनुष, चाप्, शरासन, कमान, पिनाक, सारंग आदि।
  • दुर्गम के पर्यायवाची- कठिन, व‍िकट, दुर्जेय, दुर्बोध, अगम्य, दुर्गमनीय आदि।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:- 

  • अतिथि- मेहमान, अभ्यागत, आगन्तुक, पाहूना।
  • इंदु- चाँद, चंद्रमा, चंदा, शशि, राकेश, मयंक, महताब।
  • उत्कृष्ट- उत्तम, उन्नत, श्रेष्ठ, अच्छा, बढ़िया, उम्दा।
  • ओझल- अदृश्य, अंतर्धान, तिरोहित, लुप्त, गायब, विलुप्त।
  • कुबेर- कित्ररेश, यक्षराज, धनद, धनाधिप, राजराज।
  • खादिम- नौकर, चाकर, भृत्य, अनुचर।
  • गहन- अभेद्य, दुर्गम, घना, निविड़, सघन, गंभीर, गहरा।

Additional Information 

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा दूध- अमृत, क्षीर, गोरस
196

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द "समाचार" का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    वृत्तान्त

  2. ((b))

    संदेश

  3. ((c))

    किरीट

  4. ((d))

    वार्ता

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

किरीट

"समाचार" का पर्यायवाची शब्‍द किरीट नहीं है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • समाचार शब्‍द के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची- खबर, समाचार, हालचाल, वृतांत, संदेश, सूचना, जानकारी, संदेशा, वार्ता आदि।
  • किरीट शब्‍द के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची- ताज, मुकुट, शिरोभूषण आदि।

Important Pointsकुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दपर्यायवाची
अतिथिमेहमान, अभ्यागत, आगन्तुक, पाहुना
अलंकारआभूषण, भूषण, विभूषण, गहना, जेवर
अश्वहय, तुरंग, वाजि, घोडा, घोटक
अरण्यजंगल, वन, कानन, अटवी, कान्तार
अंतरिक्षखगोल, नभमंडल, गगनमंडल, आकाशमंडल
अंबुजकमल, पंकज, नीरज, वारिज, जलज

Additional Information 

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा दूध- अमृत, क्षीर, गोरस
197

निम्नलिखित में से समूहवाचक संज्ञा शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    हिरण

  2. ((b))

    कक्षा

  3. ((c))

    कुशाग्रता

  4. ((d))

    महात्मा बुद्ध

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

कक्षा

"कक्षा" शब्‍द समूहवाचक संज्ञा है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • कक्षा शब्‍द में समूहवाचक संज्ञा है।
  • उदाहरण- कक्षा में 30 बच्‍चें हैं।
संज्ञापरिभाषाउदाहरण
समूहवाचकजिन संज्ञा शब्दों से किसी भी व्यक्ति या वस्तु के समूह का बोध होता है, उन शब्दों को समूहवाचक या समुदायवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।भीड़, मेला, सभा, कक्षा, परिवार, पुस्तकालय आदि।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दसंज्ञा
हिरणजातिवाचक संज्ञा
कुशाग्रताभाववाचक संज्ञा
महात्मा बुद्धव्‍यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा

Additional Information

संज्ञा:- - व्‍यक्ति, भाव, जाति, स्‍थान, वस्‍तु आदि के नाम को संज्ञा कहा जाता है। उदाहरण के लिए:- - भारत (देश), मुरादाबाद (शहर), फोन (वस्‍तु), मनुष्‍य (जाति), हंसना (भाव), पर्वत (स्‍थान) आदि। संज्ञा के भेद:- संज्ञा के 5 भेद होते हैं:- - व्‍यक्तिवाचक संंज्ञा - जातिवाचक संज्ञा - समूहवाचक संज्ञा - द्रव्‍यवाचक संज्ञा - भाववाचक संज्ञा
198

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "चौबे गए छब्बे बनने, दूबे बनकर आए" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. ((a))

    सफ़ाई सबको पसन्द होती है

  2. ((b))

    स्वार्थी व्यक्ति पक्षपात करता है।

  3. ((c))

    लाभ के बदले हानि

  4. ((d))

    दिखावटी रोना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

लाभ के बदले हानि

"लाभ के बदले हानि" दी गई लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
चौबे गए छब्बे बनने, दूबे बनकर आएलाभ के बदले हानिजब कोई व्यक्ति लाभ की आशा से कोई कार्य करता है और उसमें हानि हो जाती है, तब यह कहावत चरितार्थ होती है।

Important Points कुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण मुहावरे- 

मुहावराअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
कान भरनाचुगली करनाउसने उनके कान भर दिए।
तंग करनापरेशान करनाबच्चों ने टीचर को तंग कर लिया।
कमर कसनातैयार होनापरीक्षा पास है, कमर कस लो।

Additional Information 

मुहावराउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'अभ्‍यास' है। मुहावरा शब्‍द अरबी भाषा का शब्‍द है। हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्‍यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है। जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्‍यक्‍त करते हैं।अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाना-अर्थ- सबसे पृथक् काम करना।
वाक्य प्रयोग-वह अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाता है।
199

निम्नलिखित में से एकवचन बहुवचन के सही शब्द-युग्म का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    मानव - मानवी

  2. ((b))

    नेता - नेतागिरी

  3. ((c))

    गुरु - गुरुओ

  4. ((d))

    भक्त - भक्तजन

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

भक्त - भक्तजन

"भक्त - भक्तजन" एकवचन और बहुवचन का सही शब्‍द-युग्‍म है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • भक्‍त एकवचन शब्‍द है और भक्‍तजन बहुवचन शब्‍द है।
  • भक्‍त का अर्थ- उपासक, सेवक।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

एकवचनबहुवचन
मानवमानव
नेतानेता
गुरुगुरुजन

Additional Information

वचन - संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, विशेषण और क्रिया के जिस रूप से संख्या का बोध हो उसे वचन कहते हैं।
वचन के दो प्रकार हैं - 1. एकवचन, 2. बहुवचन
वचनपरिभाषाउदाहरण
एकवचनशब्द के जिस रूप से किसी व्यक्ति, वस्तु आदि के एक होने का बोध हो, उसे एकवचन कहते हैंस्त्री, घोड़ा, नदी, रुपया इत्यादि।
बहुवचनशब्द के जिस रूप से एक से अधिक व्यक्तियों या वस्तुओं आदि का बोध हो, उसे बहुवचन कहते हैं।स्त्रियाँ, घोड़े, नदियाँ, रुपये इत्यादि।
200

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द द्विगु समास का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    नवरात्र

  2. ((b))

    प्राणप्रिय

  3. ((c))

    अपना - पराया

  4. ((d))

    चंद्रमौलि

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

नवरात्र

नवरात्र शब्‍द में द्व‍िगु समास है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • नवरात्र शब्‍द में द्व‍िगु समास है।
  • नवरात्र का समास-व‍िग्रह- नव रातों का समाहार।
समासपिरभाषाउदाहरण
द्व‍िगु समासयदि किसी सामासिक पद में प्रथम पद संख्यावाचक शब्द हो एवं द्वितीय पद संज्ञा शब्द हो तथा समस्त पद समूह का बोध करवाए तो उसे द्विगु समास कहते हैं।नवरात्र - नव रातों का समाहार।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दसमास-विग्रहसमास
प्राणप्रियप्रिय है जो प्राणों कोकर्मधारय समास
अपना - परायाअपना अथवा परायाद्वंद्व समास
चंद्रमौलिचंद्र है मौलि पर जिसके- शिवबहुव्रीहि समास

Additional Information 

समास- समास का अर्थ होता है- 'संक्षेप या संक्षेपीकरण' परिभाषा- समास शब्‍द अस् धातु में सम् उपसर्ग लगाकर बनाया गया है, जिसका अर्थ है- "संक्षेप" दो या दो से अधिक शब्‍दों से मिलकर बने हुए नए सार्थक शब्‍द को समास कहा जाता है। जैसे- राजा का पुत्र- राजपुत्र।

समास के मुख्‍यत: 4 भेद है। 

समासपरिभाषाउदाहरण
अव्‍ययीभावजहाँ प्रथम पद या पूर्व पद प्रधान हो तथा समस्त पद क्रिया विशेषण अव्यय हो उसे अव्ययीभाव समास कहते हैं।यथासमय- समय के अनुसार।
तत्‍पुरुषजिसमें उत्तरपद प्रधान होता है, अर्थात प्रथम पद गौण होता है एवं उत्तर पद की प्रधानता होती है व समास करते वक़्त बीच की विभक्ति का लोप हो जाता है।- देशभक्ति- देश के लिए भक्ति।
बहुव्रीहियदि किसी सामासिक पद में प्रयुक्त प्रथम एवं द्वितीय दोनों पद अपना मूल अर्थ खोकर अन्य अर्थ प्रकट करने लगे तो उसे बहुव्रीहि समास कहते हैं।दशानन- दश हैं आनन जिसके अर्थात् रावण।
कर्मधारयजिसका पहला पद विशेषण और दूसरा पद विशेष्य अथवा एक पद उपमान तथा दूसरा पद उपमेय हो तो, वह 'कर्मधारय समास' कहलाता है।नीलकंठ- नीले रंग का कंठ।

Hint तत्‍पुरुष समास के दो उपभेद हैं। 

  • कर्मधारय समास
  • द्विगु समास

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