The correct answer is 4, 1, 3, 2

Key Points

• Battle of Buxar
• The battle of Buxar was fought on 22nd October 1764. This battle was crucial for the Britishers since it provided them full control of Bengal and Bihar.
• It was fought between Hector Munro and the combined forces of Mir Qasim which included Shuja-ud-daula, Shah Alam II, etc.
• In this battle, the combined force of Mir Qasim was defeated.
• The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765 between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II (Mughal emperor).
• Shah Alam II was forced to pay a fine of five million rupees
• Treaty of Bassein
• The Treaty of Bassein was a pact signed on 31 December 1802 between the British East India Company and Baji Rao II, the Maratha Peshwa of Pune in India after the Battle of Poona.
• The Treaty of Seringapatam ended the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
• Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British East India Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Empire, and Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore.
• First Anglo-Sikh War
• The first Anglo-Sikh war was fought between the British forces and the Sikh Empire in 1845-46 in Punjab.
• Major Broad was placed in Amritsar as the East India Company’s agent in 1843.
• The British were closely watching the developments in the Punjab political front and had territorial ambitions there as in other parts of the subcontinent.
• Foundation of Indian National Congress
• The Indian National Congress was formed in 1885 by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant.
• Other founding members include Dadabhai Naoroji and Dinshaw Wacha.
• The first session was held in Bombay under the presidency of Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee in 1885.
• The first session was attended by 72 delegates from across the country.

Hence the correct Sequence is 4, 1, 3, 2

The correct answer is Sustainable Agriculture Through Holistic Integration 

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh will be the first state in the country to implement the "Sathi Project"
• SATHI stands for the Sustainable Agriculture Through Holistic Integration Project.
• This project will prove to be effective in fulfilling the government's goal of doubling the income of farmers, as well as in fulfilling the dream of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi and Chief Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan of self-reliant India and self-reliant Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information 

• The 5 components of the "Sathi" scheme will be:
• Sathi Farmer Group,
• Sathi Processing Centre,
• Sathi Udyog,
• Sathi Market
• Common Facility Centre

The correct answer is 

Key Points

• Income tax is a Direct tax.
• It is the tax that is levied on the annual income or the profits which are directly paid to the government.
• Direct taxes are progressive, because it is possible to help more people who do not earn as much, and at the same time, mobilize resources from those who earn well.
• A progressive tax imposes a higher rate on the rich than on the poor. It's based on the taxpayer's income or wealth. It's done to help lower-income families pay for basics like shelter, food, and transportation.
• Examples of progressive tax include investment income taxes, tax on interest earned, rental earnings, estate tax, and tax credits.

The correct answer is A - (iv), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (ii)

Key Points

• Partition of Bengal
• The Partition of Bengal was announced on 19 July 1905 by the then Viceroy Lord Curzon.
• And was implemented on 16 October 1905
• However, in 1911 it was withdrawn by Lord Hardinge.
• The stated reason was to ease the administration.
• But the actual reason was to weaken the growing nationalism in Bengal and break the unity.
• Right of the separate electorate to Muslim
• The Separate electorate for Muslims in India was demanded for the first time in 1909.
• The Indian Council act of 1909 introduced a system of communal representation by accepting the separate electorate for Muslims.
• Lord Minto was known as the Father of Communal Electorate.
• Indian Council Act of 1909 is also known as Morley- Minto Reform.
• Mohammad Iqbal spoke about the re-organization of Muslim majority area
• Mohammad Iqbal spoke about the re-organization of Muslim majority area
• Muhammad Iqbal was elected president of the Muslim League in 1930 at the Allahabad session.
• In his presidential address on 30 December 1930, Iqbal outlined a vision of an independent state for Muslim-majority provinces in northwestern India.
• First-time provincial elections
• Indian Councils Act, 1892: Introduced the system of indirect elections to legislative councils, though members were “nominated” officially.
• Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms): Expanded the size of councils, allowed direct elections for the first time, and introduced separate electorates for Muslims.

 Confusion Points

• The first Partition of Bengal took place in 1905 but since it is not given in the question, we will choose the nearest option, i.e. 1906.

The correct answer is Hoshangabad

Key Points

• Hoshangabad city was built by Hoshangshah in 1435 AD.
• He was the first ruler of the Malwa region.
• Azamgarh hills located in Hoshangabad district consist of petroglyphs (rock paintings).
• Many famous persons like Raj Chandra Bose (Mathematician), Pandit Makhanlal Chaturvedi (Poet), and Harishankar Parsai (writer) are from the Hoshangabad district.

Additional Information 

• Alap Khan son of Dilawar Khan wears the throne of Malwa in 1405 AD with the title Hoshangshah.
• In 1310 AD Allauddin won the Malwa region and made Dilawar Khan Subedar of Malwa region.
• In 1526 Babar won the first battle of Panipat against Ibrahim Lodhi and established Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is Pulses

Key Points

• Pulses, also known as legumes, are the edible seeds of leguminous plants cultivated for food.
• Leguminous crops are those which belong to the pea family (Leguminosae).
• The majority of plants in this family have root nodules that are home to rhizobium bacteria, which fix nitrogen from the air.
• This fixed nitrogen can raise the amount of nitrogen in the soil when plant leftovers break down.
• To increase soil fertility, legumes are frequently grown as a relay crop or in close proximity to maize, millet, and rice.
• In areas with a well-established dairy sector, fodder legumes are suitable alternatives.

Additional Information

• Millet is a collective term referring to a number of small-seeded annual grasses that are cultivated as grain crops, primarily on marginal lands in dry areas in temperate, subtropical, and tropical regions.
• Some of the common millets available in India are Ragi (Finger millet), Jowar (Sorghum), Sama (Little millet), Bajra (Pearl millet), and Variga (Proso millet).
• 160th session of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Council, held in Rome in December 2018, approved India’s proposal to observe an International Year of Millets in 2023.

The correct answer is Shahjahan

Key Points

• The Shahi Qila was a majestic palace situated at Burhanpur in Madhya Pradesh.
• It is located to the east of the Tapti river.
• It was built by the Farooqui rulers in 1362 A.D.
• Mughal emperor Shah Jahan resided in the Shahi Qila when he was the governor of Burhanpur.
• The hamam or the royal bath is one of the main attractions of this palace.
• The hamam or the royal bath was built for Shah Jahan’s wife, Begum Mumtaz Mahal.
• Begum Mumtaz Mahal died in Burhanpur while giving birth to her fourteenth child.
• Taj Mahal was originally supposed to have been built at Burhanpur.

The correct answer is Alirajpur.

Important Points 

• According to the Census 2011, Alirajpur district has the lowest literacy rate in Madhya Pradesh.
• Alirajpur is considered the poorest city of India with more than 70% population lives below the poverty line.
• It was the least literate district in India based on the 2011 Census.
• According to the Census 2011, the female literacy rate in Alirajpur is 31.0% and the male literacy rate is 43.6%.
• According to the Census 2011, the total literacy rate in Madhya Pradesh is 69.32%.
• Jabalpur has the highest literacy rate in Madhya Pradesh.

 

Additional Information

• Agar Malwa
• Agar Malwa District is a district in the state of Madhya Pradesh in India. It was carved out of Shajapur district. Its administrative headquarters are situated in the town of Agar
• Jhabua
• Jhabua is a town and a municipality in Jhabua district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. It is the administrative headquarters of Jhabua District.
• Khandwa
• Khandwa is a city and a nagar nigam in the Nimar region of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is the administrative headquarters of the Khandwa district, formerly known as East Nimar District.

The correct answer is Maihar

Key Points

• Maa Sharda Devi temple (around of 502 A.D.), situated at the top of Trikut hill
• The Temple is Located Maihar district of Madhya Pradesh
• There are 1,063 steps to reach the top of the hill. Along with stairs, there is a ropeway for the convenience of the pilgrims' developed government authorities.
• The temple is situated on the Trikut mountain at a height of 600 ft from ground level.
• The temple is managed by Maa Sharda Prabhand Samiti.
• The committee, headed by the district collector, has done significant work to enable better facilities to pilgrims and devotees visiting the temple from all over the country.

The correct answer is Daniil Medvedev

Key Points

• Spain's Rafael Nadal defeated Russia's Daniil Medvedev 2-6, 6-7 (5), 6-4, 6-4, 7-5 in the Australian Open Men's Singles final and clinched a record 21st Grand Slam title, on 30 Jan 2022.
• The match was held at Rod Laver Arena in Melbourne.
• With this victory, Rafael has become the first man to win 21 Grand Slam titles.
• He overtook Roger Federer and Novak Djokovic by winning this title.

Additional Information

• Alexander Zverev
• He plays professional tennis for Germany.
• The Association of Tennis Professionals has ranked him No. 3 in the world and has maintained his position in the top 10 since July 2017.
• Alexander Zverev won the Tennis 2017 Italian Open Men's Singles. (Hence statement A is correct)
• He won in the ATP finals of 2018 making a record as the youngest winner championship of the decade.
• To date, he has won 15 ATP titles (13 in singles and 2 in doubles).
• He finished his first Grand Slam final in the 2020 US Open as runner-up.
• His fans have named him ‘Sascha’ as
• Jannik Sinner
• In Tennis, Hubert Hurkacz of Poland won the biggest title of his career beating Jannik Sinner of Italy in the Miami Open final on 4 April 2021.
• Ranked 37th, he beat two top-10 opponents in the same tournament for the first time, and he is projected to climb to a career-high 16th in next week's rankings.
• Hurkacz also became Poland’s first Masters 1000 champion.

The correct answer is Mandsaur

Key Points

• The town of Mandsaur in Madhya Pradesh is situated on the banks of Shivna.
• Shivna River is a small tributary of Chambal.
• It is believed to be the hometown of Mandodari, wife of Ravana.
• Mandsaur in MP is known for the production of opium also.

Additional Information

• Morena
• Morena is the largest honey producer in the country.
• Shiv temple and Lekhoraj Caves are situated here.
• This district is known for Seasme, Gun, and Tractor production.
• The Lekhoraj and Shiva Temples are famous in this district.
• Burhanpur
• Burhanpur was founded in 1399 by Naṣīr Khan, the first independent prince of the Fārūqī dynasty of Khandesh, and it was annexed by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1601.
• Satna
• Satna District is a district of Madhya Pradesh state in central India.
• The City of Satna is the district headquarters.
• It is part of the history of the region known as Baghelkhand.
• It is a part of the Rewa Division.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Similipal National Park is a national park and a tiger reserve in the Mayurbhanj district in the Indian state of Odisha covering 2,750 km2 (1,060 sq mi).
• It is part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, which includes three protected areas — Similipal Tiger Reserve, Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary with 191.06 km2 (73.77 sq mi), and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary with 272.75 km2 (105.31 sq mi).
• Simlipal National Park derives its name from the abundance of red silk cotton trees growing in the area.​

Additional Information

• Chief Minister of Odisha - Naveen Patnaik.
• Governor of Odisha - Ganeshi Lal.
• Sex Ratio of Odisha - 979.
• Dances of Odisha - Chhau, Medha, Karma, Danda, etc.
• National Parks of Odisha -  
• Ushakothi Wild Life Sanctuary,
• Bhitarkanika National Park
• Tikarpada Wildlife Sanctuary
• Chilika Wildlife Sanctuary
• Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary
• Kotagarh Wildlife Sanctuary
• Hadagarh Wildlife Sanctuary
• Karlapat Wildlife Sanctuary
• Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary
• Ushakothi (Badrama) Wildlife Sanctuary

The correct answer is A special constituent assembly formed by the state 

Key Points

• The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was adopted on 17 November 1956 and came into effect on 26 January 1957.
• It was rendered infructuous on 5 August 2019 by an order signed by the president of India and ceased to be applicable on that date.
• The Constitution of India granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian states, and it was the only state in India to have a separate constitution.

Important Points 

• Under the Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which deals with “Temporary, Transitional and Special provisions”, Article 370 is a temporary provision granting special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir.
• Article 370 specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communications the Indian Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all other laws.
• The power that makes laws related to preventive detention in Jammu and Kashmir belong to the Legislature of J&K and not the Indian Parliament as per Article 370.
• Following the Abrogation of Article 370 from J&K, the Indian Government has passed the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Bill, 2019 which contains the provisions to reconstitute the state into two separate Union territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

The correct answer is Inter-State Committee

Key Points

• The Inter-State-Council was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution of India vide Presidential Order dated 28.5.1990.
• Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body with duties to investigate and discuss the subjects of common interest between the Union and State(s).
• The inter-state council is Chaired by the Prime Minister.
• The present composition of the Council is as follows: 
• Prime Minister(Chairman)
• Chief Ministers of all States
• Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly and
• Governors of States under President’s Rule(Governor’s Rule in the case of J&K)
• Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
• Four Ministers of Cabinet rank as Permanent invitees Members.

Note:- Other Ministers and Ministers of State having independent charge in the Union Government may be invited as permanent invitees if so nominated by the Chairman of the Council, or as and when any item relating to a subject under their charge is to be discussed.

Additional Information

• ​The Union Government constituted a Commission in 1983 under the Chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria to review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States.
• ​One of the important recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission was for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a mandate well defined in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is districts of Monghyr and Bhagalpur in Bihar;

Key Points

• The Literal meaning of Mahajanapadas is great kingdoms.
• They Flourished in the north/northwestern parts of India before the rise of Buddhism.
• Aryans have migrated into India a long time back and there was regular friction between them and the non-Aryan tribes concerning, cattle, fodder, land, etc.

Important Points

• These tribes of Aryan were called Janas by many Vedic texts.
• Later on, there was a merger of the Vedic Janas into Janapadas.
• Many Janapadas by 600 BCE further developed into Bigger Political bodies.
• These Kingdome came to be Known as Mahajanapadas in the Buddhist Traditions.
• Sixteen great Kingdoms as they are referred to by Buddhist and other text.
• The sixteen Mahajanapadas includes;
• Kasi, Kosala, Anga, Magadh, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja
• List of the Mahajanapads and their capitals located in Bihar:-

The correct answer is 2017

Key Points

• MPIDC (MP Industrial Development Corporation Limited) is the Single Window Secretariat for Investment Promotion and Facilitation in the state.
• MPIDC has launched an Integrated New Venture Establishment Portal (INVEST), which is the Single Window Portal for the state.
• INVEST is acting as a one-stop solution for any investor wanting to establish & operate a business in the state.
• INVEST portal will provide investors with a hassle-free experience with no physical touch point at the department level. It will act as a one-stop solution for any investor willing to set up a business in the State.
• Now investors would not be required to visit different state department portals, rather they can avail of various services/approvals required for setting up their business through INVEST Portal.
• Features of INVEST
• Real time tracking
• Single Interface for all approvals
• Investment Wizard
• Trade & Investment Facilitation

The correct answer is Padma Prabhu Swami

Key Points

• Shri Laxmani Teerth located in Madhya Pradesh is a Jain pilgrimage centre.
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Padmaprabha, the sixth Jain Tirthankara.
• The temple of Shri Laxmani Teerth houses the idol of Lord Padmaprabha.
• The temple has been magnificently decorated with intricate artistic designs. The creative temple work boast about the skills of the craftsmen.
• The idol of the Lord is almost 25 cm in height and is black in colour. It is seated in a padmasana posture
• According to history Shri Laxmani Teerth dates back to the ancient period. It is believed that this kshetra is almost 2000 years old. Earlier in the 16th century it was a rich and prosperous city.
• The Temple of Shri Laxmani Teerth organises many annual gatherings and functions. A fair is held on Kartika and Chaitra Punam.

The correct answer is Pachmarhi

Key Points

• Pachmarhi is a hill station in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh.
• Pachmarhi is situated at an altitude of 1067 meters.
• This scenic town is a part of the UNESCO Biosphere Reserve and is one of the most visited hill stations in Madhya Pradesh.
• This is widely known as Satpura ki Rani or "Queen of Satpura".
• Dhupgarh, the highest point (1,352 m) in Madhya Pradesh, and the Satpura range are located here.
• The name Pachmarhi is believed to be derived from the Hindi words Panch (five) and Marhi (caves).
• It is believed that these caves were built by five Pandava brothers of the Mahabharath era during their 14 years of exile.
• Before the British, the Pachmarhi region came under the kingdom of the Gond king Bhawut Singh, although it was not a populated village or town at that time.
• Captain James Forsyth of the British Army along with Subhedar Major Nathoo Ramji Powar who was later made the Kotwal (Incharge of the armory of Pachmarhi), spotted the plateau in the Pachmarhi region in 1857.

The correct answer is Satpura

Key Points 

• Satpura National Park is spread over 1427 sq km area and was formed in 1981 after joining Satpura, Pachmarhi, and Bori sanctuaries and the altitude ranges from 300 to 1,352 meters.
• Satpura National Park is located in the Hoshangabad District of Madhya Pradesh in India.
• Its name is derived from the Satpura range.
• It has the Dhoopgarh peak as high as 1,350 meters (4,430 ft) and almost the level of the plains of Churna.

Additional Information

Highest peaks of Mountain Ranges:

• Himalaya - Mt Everest
• Western ghats - Anamudi
• Eastern ghats - Jindhagada Peak
• Nilgiri hills - Doddabetta Peak
• Aravali Range - Guru Shikhar
• Vindhyanchal Range - Goodwill Peak

The correct answer is Jabalpur

Key Points

• Literacy Rate in Madhya Pradesh (Census 2011)
• The literacy rate in the state is 69.32%, which is lower than the national average (74.04%) by 4.72%.
• It was increased by 5.58% from the previous year (63.74%).
• Madhya Pradesh stands 28th among all states and UT's in terms of literacy rate.
• The Highest Literate District is Jabalpur (81.1%).
• The Lowest Literate District is Alirajpur (36.1%)
• The Highest Literate District

• The Lowest Literate District

Important Points

• Male Literacy Rate in Madhya Pradesh (Census 2011)
• Madhya Pradesh ranks 27th among all states in terms of male literacy.
• The male literacy rate in the state is 78.7%, which is 3.44% less than the national average (82.14%).
• The highest male literate district is Jabalpur and Indore (87.3%).
• The lowest male literate district is Alirajpur (42%).
• Female Literacy Rate in Madhya Pradesh (Census 2011)
• Madhya Pradesh ranks 28th among all states in terms of male literacy.
• The female literacy rate in the state is 59.2%, which is 6.26% less than the national average (65.46%).
• The highest female literate district is Bhopal (74.9%).
• The lowest female literate district is Alirajpur (30.3%).

The correct answer is "The lady told her companion that she was done talking to her friends."

Key Points

• The reporting verb should be in the past tense. In this case, it remains "said."
• Pronoun Changes: "I" changes to "she," and "your" remains the same as it is in reported speech.
• Verb Tense Changes: "am" changes to "was" (past tense), and "done talking" remains the same as it is in reported speech.
• Conjunction "that" will be used in place of inverted commas.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Plentiful.

Key Points

• The word "Abundant" means existing or available in large quantities; plentiful. (प्रचुर मात्रा में)
• Example: There was abundant evidence to support the theory.
• "Plentiful" refers to a large quantity or number; enough to meet the needs. (प्रचुर)
• Example: Fruits are plentiful in the summer season.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Abundant' is 'Plentiful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Plentiful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Audacious (धृष्ट): Showing a willingness to take surprisingly bold risks.
• Example: The audacious move surprised everyone in the room.
• Impressive (प्रभावशाली): Evoking admiration through size, quality, or skill.
• Example: The view from the top of the mountain was truly impressive.
• Cautious (सावधान): Careful to avoid potential problems or dangers.
• Example: She was very cautious when crossing the busy street.

The correct answer is "Wherever".

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "wherever".
• "Wherever" is a conjunction used to introduce a clause that indicates that something can happen no matter where the condition is met.
• In this case, it's used to say that the group can go to any place they like.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Correct Sentence: She said that we can go wherever you like.

The correct answer is "RQP".

Key Points

• Sentence R sets the scene and introduces the two main elements in the paragraph: the Giant Oak and the slender Reeds near the brook.
• Sentence Q provides an event that involves the Giant Oak. It describes how the Oak reacts when the wind blows – it stands upright with its arms uplifted. This elaborates on the behavior and posture of the Oak in response to the wind.
• Sentence P contrasts the behavior of the Reeds with that of the Oak. While the Oak stands tall and proud, the Reeds bow low in the wind and sing a sad song. This sentence completes the description of how both the Oak and the Reeds react to the wind.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct Paragraph: A Giant Oak stood near a brook in which grew some slender Reeds. When the wind blew, the great Oak stood proudly upright with its hundred arms uplifted. But the Reeds bowed low in the wind and sang a sad and mournful song.

The correct answer is "Calumny".

Key Points Let's understand the meanings of the given and the marked words:

• Calumny: Calumny refers to making false and malicious statements about someone with the intention to damage their reputation.
• For Example - He was a victim of calumny when baseless rumors tarnished his professional image.
• Slander: Slander is similar to calumny. It involves making false spoken statements about someone with the intention of damaging their reputation.
• For Example - She engaged in slander by spreading malicious gossip about her colleague's personal life.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information Let's understand the meanings of the other given options"

• Geniality: It refers to a warm and friendly disposition or manner. Someone who is genial is pleasant, affable, and easy to get along with.
• Treachery: It refers to betrayal or deceitful behavior, especially towards someone who trusted you.
• Bolster: It can refer to a long, narrow pillow or cushion, often used for supporting the head or back while sleeping. In a figurative sense, it can mean to support, strengthen, or reinforce something, such as an argument, belief, or position.

​

The correct answer is "She said that she would be going home the next day."

Key Points

• Change the pronoun ("I") to match the subject of the reporting sentence: "...that she..."
• Change the future tense ("will be going") to the corresponding past tense: "...would be going..."
• Keep the time expression ("tomorrow") as a reference point, but adjust it according to the reporting context: "...the next day."
• Conjunction "that" will be used in place of inverted commas.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Be very angry".

Key Points

• The idiom "To blow one’s top" is an expression used to describe someone becoming extremely angry or losing their temper.
• The phrase "blow one’s top" is figurative and uses imagery of something bursting or exploding, similar to how a person's anger might seem to "explode" outward.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Opiton 3".

The correct answer is "Anthropology".

Key Points

• Anthropology is the scientific study of human beings, their societies, cultures, and the development of these aspects over time.
• It involves examining various aspects of human life, including social structures, languages, beliefs, customs, and more.

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information Let's understand the meanings of the other given options:

• Calligraphy: Calligraphy is the art of beautiful handwriting, which is not related to the study of human societies and cultures.
• Physiotherapy: Physiotherapy is a field of healthcare that involves physical rehabilitation and treatment, unrelated to the study of societies and cultures.
• Choreography: Choreography refers to the art of designing dance sequences and movements, which is also unrelated to the study of human societies and cultures.

The correct answer is "To be very busy with something".

Key Points

• The idiom "Up to your eyes in" is used to convey the idea that someone is deeply involved or very busy with a particular task, activity, or situation.
• It implies a high level of engagement or immersion in something to the point that it might be overwhelming or challenging to manage.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "Properties".

Key Points

• In this context, "properties" refers to the distinctive characteristics, effects, and qualities of psychedelic drugs that lead to mind-bending experiences.
• The sentence indicates that we are acquainted with the unique and often profound effects these drugs can have on the mind.
• Grammatically, "properties" is a noun that fits seamlessly into the sentence structure.
• It acts as the object of the preposition "of" and provides a clear and relevant description of the subject matter – the mind-bending effects – that the sentence is discussing.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Complete Sentence: We're all familiar with the mind-bending properties of psychedelic drugs.

The correct answer is "Joke with someone".

Key Points

• The idiom "pull someone's leg" means to tease or joke with someone in a light-hearted and playful manner.
• When you're pulling someone's leg, you're not being serious; instead, you're trying to make them believe something that isn't true for the sake of humor.
• This idiom is often used in a friendly context to playfully trick someone while not intending to deceive or upset them.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Grateful".

Key Points 

• "Grateful" is the correct spelling of the word.
• Grateful - It means feeling or showing appreciation for something received or done.
• When you are grateful, you are thankful for the kindness, help, or opportunities that you have received.
• For Example: "I am truly grateful for all the support you've given me during my difficult times."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "Energetic".

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "Energetic".
• The word "energetic" accurately conveys the idea that the speaker found the aerobics routine to be too intense or vigorous for their liking.
• In this context, "energetic" suggests that the workout was physically demanding and required a higher level of effort than the speaker was comfortable with.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Complete Sentence: I tried aerobics but it was too energetic for me. So I stopped it.

The correct answer is "Their".

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "their".
• In the context of the sentence, the word "their" is used to indicate the possession of the conservation efforts by the people.
• The possessive pronoun "their" indicates that the conservation efforts belong to the people who are being educated about the importance of conservation.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: The aquarium has the role of showing people threatened species and helping them understand the importance of their conservation.

The correct answer is "For five years".

Key Points

• The correct preposition to use with the expression "five years" is "for."
• This conveys the intended meaning of the sentence, indicating that Sangeeta has been winning the trophy for a duration of five years.
• The other options ("from five years," "around five years") are not grammatically appropriate in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Correct Sentence: Sangeeta has been winning the trophy consistently for five years.

The correct answer is "Scientists have discovered traces of minerals on the surface of Mars."

Key Points

• The subject in the original sentence ("Traces of minerals") becomes the subject in the passive voice sentence.
• The active verb "have been discovered" is converted into a passive verb, maintaining the tense and voice**: "have discovered"** becomes "have been discovered."
• Since the original sentence does not mention the agent, there's no need to introduce an agent with "by" in the passive voice.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "Such a beautiful picture can’t be drawn by Shivani in the art competition."

Key Points

• The subject in the original sentence ("Such a beautiful picture") becomes the subject in the passive voice sentence.
• The active verb "cannot draw" is converted into a passive verb, maintaining the tense and voice: "cannot be drawn."
• Since the original sentence mentions "by Shivani," the agent is introduced with "by" in the passive voice, which is correctly done in Option 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Gracious".

Key Points

• In this sentence, the word "gracious" is the most appropriate option for the blank space.
• The word "enough" suggests that the adjective used in the blank should convey the idea that "he" did something that was more than expected or beyond what is typically done.
• Among the provided options**, "gracious"** fits this context the best.

The correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: He was gracious enough to thank her for all the hard work she did.

The correct answer is "But they can be".

Key Points

• In this sentence, the segment "but it can be" is not grammatically correct because it lacks agreement with the subject "encounters," which is plural.
• The pronoun "it" is singular, so it should be replaced with a plural pronoun.
• The option "but they can be" corrects this issue.
• It provides the correct subject-verb agreement by using the plural pronoun "they" to refer to "encounters."

The correct answer is "Option 1".

Correct Sentence: Encounters with the big fish are rare, but they can be deadly.

The correct answer is "Stoic".

Key Points

• A "stoic" is a person who follows the philosophy of Stoicism, which emphasizes self-control, rationality, and indifference to external circumstances, including pleasure and pain.
• For Example - Despite facing numerous challenges, Sarah remained a stoic, maintaining her composure and indifference to life's ups and downs.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "To understand the real or hidden meaning".

Key Points

• When someone says "read between the lines," it means they are suggesting that you should look beyond the obvious or literal interpretation of a message or situation to grasp the deeper or hidden meaning.
• For Example - When Jatin received a vague and short email from her boss, she knew she had to read between the lines to understand his true intentions and concerns.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "The teacher will reward Monalisa for her generous work in college."

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the active voice, with "Monalisa" as the subject performing the action of being rewarded by "the teacher."
• In the passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject, and the agent (the one performing the action) comes after the verb "will be rewarded."
• Therefore, in the passive voice, "Monalisa" becomes the subject of the sentence, and "the teacher" is the agent performing the action.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Sanjana asked her friend what she was looking for in her room."

Key Points

• In this sentence, "said" is appropriately changed to "asked" to reflect the reporting of a question.
• In the indirect speech**, "you" becomes "her"** to match the perspective of Sanjana, the reporting speaker.
• In the original sentence, "are looking" is in the present continuous tense.
• In the indirect speech, it changes to "was looking," which is the past continuous tense, to reflect the shift from direct to indirect narration.
• "What are you looking for in my room?" becomes "what she was looking for in her room," with "what" serving as the introductory word for the reported speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is: "is expected to inundate"

Key Points

• The original sentence uses the present continuous tense "is heading," indicating an action in progress.
• To maintain tense agreement and coherence in the sentence, we should use a verb form that also expresses an action in progress.
• "Is expected to inundate" is in the same tense as "is heading," making it consistent.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct Sentence: Cyclone Nisarga is heading towards Maharashtra coast and is expected to inundate low-lying areas.

The correct answer is "Of".

Key Points

• The most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank is "of".
• The sentence is describing the condition of the person's face, specifically noting that it lacked warmth or humor.
• To convey this meaning correctly, we use the preposition "of" in this context.
• "Devoid of" is a common phrase used to indicate the absence or lack of something.
• In this case, it's used to show that the person's face did not have any warmth or humor.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: His face was devoid of any warmth or humour.

The correct answer is By the formation of gametes

Key Points

• Asexual reproduction is a mode of reproduction in which new offspring are produced by a single parent without the involvement of gametes or fertilization.
• Offspring produced by such reproduction are genetically identical copies of the parents.
• Asexual reproduction is of the following types:
• Binary fission
• Budding
• Fragmentation
• Gemma-cup formation
• Spore formation
• Vegetative propagation
• Gemmule formation

​Explanation:

• Gemmules are small internal buds that are formed in Sponges. These are modes of asexual reproduction in sponges
• The gemmules are capable of producing the entire organism.
• The gemmules are thick-walled and they help the sponges to withstand unfavorable conditions, on the onset of favorable conditions the gemmules germinate to form the offspring

                Gemmules in sponges

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Anatomy is the branch of biology concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts, specifically organ systems.
• Systematics is the scientific study of the diversity of organisms and their relationships, encompassing taxonomy and phylogenetics.
• The identification and study of organ systems fall under the domain of Anatomy.
• The diversity of organisms and their relationships is the focus of Systematics.
• Both fields are integral to understanding the biological organization and evolutionary relationships of life forms.

Additional Information

• Taxonomy: The science of classifying organisms to construct internationally shared classification systems with each organism placed into more and more inclusive groupings.
• Phylogenetics: The study of the evolutionary history and relationships among individuals or groups of organisms.
• Histology: The study of the microscopic structure of tissues.
• Embryology: The branch of biology that studies the prenatal development of gametes, fertilization, and development of embryos and fetuses.
• Morphology: The branch of biology dealing with the form and structure of organisms and their specific structural features.

The correct answer is Minerals.

Key Points

• A mineral is a naturally occurring inorganic substance which has a definite chemical composition, and which commonly, but not always, is crystalline.
• Most minerals are solid, but some ‘minerals’ such as native mercury are normally liquid in their natural state, and others, such as natural gas, are gaseous.
• Gases and liquids are termed fluids; that is, they flow, unlike solids, under the action of gravity at atmospheric temperature (t)and pressure (p).
• Most pure substances can exist in all three states depending upon the combination of temperature and pressure acting on the mineral.

 Additional Information

Proteins

• Proteins are large, complex molecules that are essential for the structure, function, and regulation of the body’s tissues and organs.
• Proteins are made up of hundreds of smaller units called amino acids that are attached to one another by peptide bonds, forming a long chain.

Fats

• Fats are substances that our body stores for future use.
• Fat and its derivates are combinedly known as a lipid.
• Animals store a maximum amount of food in the form of lipid.
• Fat is a type of nutrient just like protein and carbohydrates.
• Fats come mainly from vegetables, nuts, seeds, and fish, etc.

Vitamins

• Vitamins are organic compounds that are present in minute amounts in natural foodstuffs.
• Most vitamins come from food because the body either does not produce them or produces very little.
• Vitamins are of two types.
• Fat-soluble vitamins- Vitamins A, D, E, K
• Water-soluble vitamins- Vitamin C and all the B vitamins.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points 

• The property of an element that exists in more than one physical form is called allotropy and the forms are termed allotropes
• Carbon shows allotropy due to catenation, which is the linking of atoms of the same element with one another to form long chains.
• There are various allotropes of carbon that exist in nature including diamond, graphene, fullerenes, C60, C70, amorphous carbon, Q carbon, lonsdaleite, and carbon nanotubes.

Additional Information 

• Diamond
• ​Diamond has a tetrahedral structure.
• Each carbon atom is connected to four other carbon atoms by a covalent bond to form a giant crystal lattice.
• Because of its tetrahedral structure, diamond is one of the hardest known materials.
• It has a high refractive index, light is reflected internally and hence it sparkles.
• ​​Graphene:
• ​It is a single-layer compound extracted from graphite.
• In its hexagonal lattice, each carbon is bonded with three others, leaving a spare electron.
• Because of its spare electrons graphene is an excellent conductor of electricity and heat
• It’s the thinnest, lightest, strongest, and most stretchy material that has ever been created
• Coal
• It has four different types when it is chemically processed.
• The chemical process is known as carbonization.
• The purest form of coal depends upon its carbon content.
• We know that coal is a mixture of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen compounds.

The correct answer is Due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere

Key Points 

• Ozone depletion has been most severe over Antarctica because it provides unique temperature and chemical conditions for effective ozone destruction by halogen gases.
• The Montreal Protocol is a global treaty that aims at protecting the depleting ozone layer by monitoring the production of substances like CFCs, halons, etc. responsible for the depletion.
• The treaty was first signed by 46 countries on 16th September 1987.

The correct answer is Ernst Haeckel.

Key Points 

• Ernst Haeckel
• Ernst Haeckel was a German zoologist and evolutionist.
• He was a strong proponent of Darwinism and who proposed new notions of the evolutionary descent of human beings.
• He also invented many words commonly used by biologists today, such as phylum, phylogeny, and ecology.

Additional Information 

Ecosystem: 

All organisms such as plants, animals, microorganisms and human beings, and their physical surroundings interact with each other and maintain a balance in nature. All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents of the environment form an ecosystem.

Ecology is the science treating the reciprocal relations of organisms and the external world. 

• The functional unit of the ecological system involves complex actions occurring between its biotic and biotic components.
• The term ecology system was first used by Ernst Haeckel​.
• Dr. Ramdev Mishra is known as the father of ecology in India. He founded the International Society for Tropical Ecology in the year 1956.

The correct answer is A - 2, B - 3, C - 1,D - 4

Key Points Celluloid 

• Celluloids are a class of materials produced by mixing nitrocellulose and camphor, often with added dyes and other agents.
• Once much more common for its use as photographic film before the advent of safer methods, celluloid's common contemporary uses are for manufacturing table tennis balls, musical instruments, combs, office equipment, fountain pen bodies, and guitar picks.
• It was discovered by John Wesley Hyatt

Optical Fibre

• Narinder Singh Kapany was a Sikh-American physicist best known for his work on fibre optics.
• He is credited with inventing fibre optics, and is considered the 'Father of Fiber Optics'

 Oxygen

• Oxygen is a chemical element with the symbol O and atomic number 8.
• It is a member of the chalcogen group in the periodic table, a highly reactive nonmetal, and an oxidizing agent that readily forms oxides with most elements as well as with other compounds.
• Oxygen is Earth's most abundant element, and after hydrogen and helium, it is the third-most abundant element in the universe.
• Joseph Priestley is credited with discovering oxygen

​ Hydrogen Bomb 

• Edward Teller invented Hydrogen Bomb.
• A thermonuclear weapon, fusion weapon, or hydrogen bomb (H bomb) is a second-generation nuclear weapon design.
• Its greater sophistication affords it vastly greater destructive power than first-generation atomic bombs, a more compact size, a lower mass, or a combination of these benefits.

The correct answer is T-cells

Key Points 

Explanation: 

• AIDS is caused by HIV (human immune deficiency virus), first reported in the U.S.A. in 1981.
• HIV belongs to the group of viruses called retrovirus, these are named so because they(have RNA genome) have reverse transcriptase enzyme which carries on the process RNA →DNA
• After the entry of the virus into the body of the person, the virus enters into macrophages, where the RNA genome of the virus replicates and forms viral DNA with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
• The macrophages continue to produce virus particles.
• The virus enters helper T lymphocytes in the blood, where they continue to replicate and produce viral progenies.
• As the number of T-cells decreases, immunity also decreases.
• The person cannot produce an immune response even against common bacteria like Mycobacterium, parasites like Toxoplasma, viruses, and fungi.

Additional Information 

• Transmission of HIV occurs in the following ways:

1. By sexual contact with an infected person.
2. By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
3. By sharing infected needles.
4. From the infected mother to her child through the placenta.

The correct answer is Waste Water treatment plant.

Key Points

• The wastewater treatment plant is a combination of various  physical, chemical & biological processes to remove pollutants from the water.
• There are two types of wastewater, used for treatment, which are-

1. Sewage water - It is all wastewater used in domestic dwellings (e.g. originating from toilets, showers or sinks).
2. Industrial wastewater - It originates from production, industrial and commercial activities, and has a different chemical composition to sewage water.

• Basically, there are three stages in the process of wastewater treatment, which are-
• Primary Treatment
• Secondary Treatment
• Deep Inspection

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Key Points 

• Hydrogen fuel is a type of fuel that is made from hydrogen gas.
• It is a clean and renewable energy source that has the potential to replace fossil fuels such as gasoline, diesel, and natural gas.
• Hydrogen and oxygen are needed to generate energy, the mixture also produces water as a by-product.
• One of the biggest benefits of these fuel cells is that they produce electricity with very little pollution.
• Hydrogen Fuel Production
• By Electrolysis process
• By Steam Methane Reforming
• Uses of Hydrogen Fuel
• It is the best replacement for traditional fuels.
• It can be utilized to power nearly all types of vehicles or electrical equipment, including generators, electric motors, cars, boats, and airplanes.

The correct answer is Ampere-hour

Key Points

• Electric current is the rate of flow electric charge or free Electrons in a definite direction through any section of wire.
• Its SI unit is ampere(A).
• The direction of the conventional current corresponds to the direction of positive charge which is from higher potential(positive) to lower potential(negative).

I = Q / t

I is current, Q is charge, t is time

Explanation:

Q = I t

So Charge is the product of current and time.

Unit of current is Ampere, and unit of time is an hour. 

So, unit of electric charge is Ampere-hour.

The correct answer is The fossil fuels like coal and petroleum contain very large amounts of nitrogen and sulphur.

Key Points 

• Fossil fuels are combustible fuels with a high and rapid combustion rate.
• Coal, crude oil, and natural gas are all considered fossil fuels because they were formed from the fossilized, buried remains of plants and animals that lived millions of years ago.
• Because of their origins, fossil fuels have a high carbon content.

Additional Information 

• Fossil fuels include coal, petroleum, natural gas, oil shales, bitumens, tar sands, and heavy oils.
• All contain carbon and were formed as a result of geologic processes acting on the remains of organic matter produced by photosynthesis.

Important Points 

• 3 countries use more fossil fuels than the rest of the world combined: China, the United States, and India.
• Together, these countries consume 54 percent of the world's fossil fuels by weight, according to the Global Material Flow Database developed by the UN Environment Programme.

Hence, fossil fuels like coal and petroleum contain very large amounts of nitrogen and sulphur. is an incorrect statement

The correct answer is Treatment of sewage waste before disposal.

Key Points

• Pollution occurs when a substance present in the environment prevents the functioning of natural processes and produces harmful environmental and health effects.
• In the natural world, many substances accumulating in the environment are processed through the intricate network of biogeochemical cycles.
• Water pollution occurs when harmful substances, chemicals or microorganisms contaminate a stream, river, lake, ocean, aquifer, or other body of water, degrading water quality and rendering it toxic to humans or the environment

​

Important Points 

​Sources: 

• industrial effluents
• agricultural runoffs
• surface runoffs
• the municipality (urban) and domestic wastes
• substances produced from energy production
• mining
• oil spill

Treatment 

• Water pollution, to a larger extent, can be controlled by a variety of methods.
• Rather than releasing sewage waste into water bodies, it is better to treat them before discharge.
• Practising this can reduce the initial toxicity and the remaining substances can be degraded and rendered harmless by the water body itself.
• If the secondary treatment of water has been carried out, then this can be reused in sanitary systems and agricultural fields.

The correct answer is All of the given options

Key Points

Municipal Solid Waste:

• It may be defined as the organic and inorganic waste materials produced by various activities of the society, normally discarded as useless or unwanted.
• This garbage is generated mainly from residential and commercial complexes.
• It includes waste from households, hazardous solid waste from industrial and commercial establishments, waste from institutions, market waste, yard waste, and street sweeping.
• Municipal solid waste includes commercial and domestic wastes generated in municipal or notified areas in either solid or semi-solid form excluding industrial hazardous wastes but including treated bio-medical wastes.
• Municipal solid waste (MSW), commonly known as trash or garbage in the United States and rubbish in Britain, is a waste type consisting of everyday items that are discarded by the public.

The correct answer is Tungsten.

 Key Points 

• Tungsten (74W) has an atomic number of 74.
• Tungsten is used in filaments of incandescent light bulbs.
• Tungsten is used to make counterfeit gold bars because of its density which is similar to that of gold.
• Tungsten carbide is used in drill bits and mining tools.

Additional Information 

• Iron (26Fe) has an atomic number of 26.
• The red colour in the blood is from the iron in haemoglobin, which helps to carry oxygen from the lungs to cells
• Iron used to make electricity pylons, bicycle chains and rifle barrels.
• Silver is extracted by the Patio process from its ore.
• Nitric acid (HNO3) is used in the purification of gold and silver.
• Uses of Silver in other compounds:
• Silver chloride is used in photochromatic glass.
• Silver iodide is used in artificial rain.
• Silver nitrate (AgNO3) is used to prepare the ink used during voting

The correct answer is Upthrust force

Key Points

• When a solid body is either wholly or partially immersed in a fluid, the hydrostatic lift due to the net vertical component of the hydrostatic pressure forces experienced by the body is called the buoyant force.
• It is also called Upthrust force
• The buoyant force on a submerged or floating body is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the body and acts vertically upward through the centroid of a displaced volume known as the centre of buoyancy.
• The buoyant force is the resultant hydrostatic force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it.

The correct answer is Hydrogen

Key Points

• The number of standardized hydrogen ions helps in knowing the acidity of a compound.
• The more the number of Hydrogen ions, the more will be the acidity of a solution.
• If a solution has a pH of 7 then it is considered to be a neutral solution, pH less than 7 is considered to be acidic and a pH more than 7 then solution is considered as basic.
• All the acids contain Hydrogen which dissolves in water to produce hydrogen ions.

Additional Information 

• Acid is any substance that in water solution tastes sour, changes the color of certain indicators, reacts with some metals to liberate hydrogen, reacts with bases to form salts, and promotes certain chemical reactions.

Hence, the element which is present in all acids is Hydrogen.

The correct answer is Kinetic energy increases 

Key Points

• Kinetic energy: The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called Kinetic energy.
• Temperature is directly proportional to kinetic energy.
• If the temperature increases, then the kinetic energy of the particles also increases.
• Kinetic energy is usually measured in units of Joules(J)
• Kelvin(K) is the SI unit of temperature.

EXPLANATION:

• The energy of a molecule in the solid is due to its randomness.
• If there is a change in the temperature of the solid, the randomness of the molecules will change.
• Once we increase the temperature, the randomness will increase, and hence the kinetic energy of the molecules increases. So option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Dibru-Saikhowa

Key Points

• Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is a national park in Assam, India.
• It was designated a Biosphere Reserve in July 1997.
• The park is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the north and the Dibru river in the south.
• It mainly consists of moist mixed semi-evergreen forests, moist mixed deciduous forests, canebrakes and grasslands.
• It is the largest salix swamp forest in northeastern India, with a tropical monsoon climate with a hot and wet summer and cool and usually dry winter.

Additional InformationNanda Devi

• Nanda Devi Mountain is the second-highest peak in India and the 23rd highest in the world.
• Kanchenjunga is the third highest in the world and the highest peak in the country.
• Mount K2 located in Jammu and Kashmir and also known as Godwin-Austen.
• Mount K2 also known as Godwin-Austen is taller than

Sundarbans

• Sundarbans are found on the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta on the coast of West Bengal and Bangladesh.
• It is a vast tract of forest and saltwater swamp.
• The area of the forest is approximately 3,860 square miles including land and water.
• The forest was named so because the area has abundant Sundari trees.
• The forest is subjected to erosion and sediments deposition along the coast.

Nilgiri

• Nilgiri hills are a part of the Western Ghats down in the south and Doda Beta is the highest peak here.
• The hills are located at the tri-junction of the states Karnataka, Kerela and Tamil Nadu.
• These mountains are named after the Neelakurunji flowers (purplish-blue flowers) found in Shola forests of Nilgiri hills.
• The vegetation ranges from the Evergreen forests to the Shola Grasslands and thorny bushes.
• It is the habitat of the endangered species, the Nilgiri Tahr.

The correct answer is Help to restore tooth enamel

Key Points

• Dental floss is a cord of thin filaments used in interdental cleaning to remove food and dental plaque from between teeth or places a toothbrush has difficulty reaching or is unable to reach.
• Its regular use as part of oral cleaning is designed to maintain oral health.
• Benefits of flossing
• Fresh breath- Flossing after any meal will remove every bit of food stuck in your mouth that can cause bad breath.
• Portable- Unlike toothbrush, you can keep floss anywhere like in your pocket or wallet.
• Reduce dental bills- Flossing has been shown to reduce the cost of dental bills by whopping 40%.
• Reduce diseases- Flossing helps you prevent dementia, stroke, heart disease and diabetes.
• Stimulate your gums- Flossing can help you stimulate your gums and boost circulation, which leads to healthy teeth and gums.
• Flexible- Floss can go anywhere where your toothbrush cannot like down between your teeth and beneath your gumline.

The correct answer is Chalk.

Key Points

• Chalk
• CaCO3 is the correct chemical formula for Calcium Carbonate.
• It consists of one calcium ion (Ca2+) bonded to one carbonate ion (CO32-).
• Calcium carbonate is a naturally occurring compound and is the main component of minerals such as limestone, marble, and chalk.
• It is widely used in industries such as construction, manufacturing, agriculture, and as a dietary supplement.

Additional InformationTalcum powder

• Talc is the softest mineral. Talc is a silicate and contains magnesium and a bit of water along with silica and oxygen. Talc is a clay mineral composed by hydrated magnesium silicate.
• Talc is a colourless like light to dark Green, Brown, white and grey

Sugar

• Sucrose is a carbonic compound which is commonly known as table sugar is carbohydrate.
• Glucose is a simple sugar
• Galactose is a monosaccharide sugar.
• Fructose is a fruit sugar.

Salt

• NaCl is a common salt which is formed by the reaction of HCl and NaOH.
• Both HCL and NaOH are strong acid and base.
• When a strong acid and a strong base react together the resultant is salt and water.

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

• Cinnabar (HgS) is a mercury ore.
• It is first converted to mercuric oxide when heated in the air (HgO).
• After that, the mercuric oxide is reduced to mercury.
• This can be explained by the following extraction process of mercury:
• Concentration of ore 
• This includes grinding the ore and separating out the unwanted dirt.
• Roasting of ore 
• It is required because the ore is sulphide. Roasting involves heating sulphide ore in the presence of oxygen to produce metal oxide and sulphur dioxide.
• HgS + O2 → HgO + SO2.
• Further heating 
• Because Mercury is a low-reactive metal, we can heat its oxide to separate it.
• 2HgO+ heat → 2Hg + O2
• Mercury now contains chemical impurities that can be separated using the electrolyte refining process, allowing Mercury to be separated from its ore cinnabar.

Thus, Mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury by heating is true regarding the extraction process of mercury.

The correct answer is Incineration

Key Points

Incineration:

• This method involves burning of solid wastes in a furnace until the wastes are turned into ashes
• In this process, the combustible portion of the waste is combined with oxygen forming carbon dioxide and water, which are released into the atmosphere
• Incinerators are made in such a way that they do not give off extreme amounts of heat when burning solid wastes
• Suitable temperature and operating conditions are required to achieve for incineration
• It reduces the volume of waste up to 20 or 30% of the original volume
• This method of solid waste management can be done by individuals, municipalities and even institutions
• It is the most common method for disposing of hazardous waste

The correct answer is Automobile exhaust and chemical from industries

Key Points

• Air pollution is the presence of substances in the atmosphere that are harmful to the health of humans and other living beings or cause damage to the climate or to materials.
• An air pollutant is a substance that contributes to air pollution due to its physical, chemical or biological properties.
• There are many different types of air pollutants, such as gases, particulates, and biological molecules.

Explanation:

• Automobiles and Industries emit a large number of pollutants because they run on fossil fuels.
• Dust Particles are also considered air pollutant under the particulate matter.
• Solid waste is not a source of air pollution as long as it does not emit any harmful gases.
• Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, and Particulate Matter are the major air pollutants.
• Carbon dioxide is not considered in air quality monitoring measures of various countries.
• Air pollution causes respiratory diseases and skin allergies.
• Sulphur and nitrogen dioxides also lead to acid rain.

The correct answer is Meters.

Key Points

• SI Unit: It is an abbreviation of the French name Le Systeme International d’Unites.
• There are 7 fundamental units and two supplementary units.

• This provides a coherent system of measurement units based on seven base units, the second, meter, kilogram, ampere, kelvin, mole, and candela units.
• It is based on the meter–kilogram–second unit system (MKS) instead of any version of the CGS.

The correct answer is T-switched network..

Key Points

• T-switched network refers to a telecommunications network where human operators manually route signals. This is in contrast to automated or electronically switched networks.
• In a T-switched network, operators physically connect calls by plugging and unplugging phone lines on a switchboard, which was a common practice before the advent of automated switching systems.
• Such networks were prevalent in the early days of telephony, where each call required a manual intervention to establish a connection.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Ring network - This is incorrect because a ring network is a type of network topology where each node is connected to two other nodes, forming a ring. It does not involve manual signal routing by humans.
• Option 3: Fiber Optic Network - This is incorrect as fiber optic networks use light signals transmitted through optical fibers and do not involve manual routing by humans.
• Option 4: Bus Network - This is incorrect because a bus network is a network topology in which all nodes are connected to a single central cable, called the bus. It also does not involve manual signal routing by humans.

The correct answer is Drum printers.

Key Points

• Drum printers are a type of impact printer that print one line of text at a time.
• They use a rotating drum with pre-formed characters to print each line. The drum rotates at high speed, and hammers strike the paper against the drum to transfer the ink from a ribbon onto the paper.
• This method allows drum printers to print very quickly and efficiently, making them suitable for high-volume printing tasks.
• However, they are relatively noisy and have largely been replaced by more modern printing technologies in many applications.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Laser printers - This is incorrect. Laser printers are non-impact printers that use a laser beam to produce an image on a drum, which is then transferred to paper. They print one page at a time, not one line at a time.
• Option 2: Inkjet printers - This is incorrect. Inkjet printers are also non-impact printers that spray tiny droplets of ink onto paper to create an image. They print one page at a time, not one line at a time.
• Option 4: Chain printers - This is incorrect. Although chain printers also print one line at a time and are similar to drum printers, the correct term as per the context of the question is drum printers.

The correct answer is Run on register-stored data..

Key Points

• Micro-operations are the basic operations that are executed on data stored in registers within a CPU. These operations are fundamental steps in the execution of instructions by the processor.
• Micro-operations typically include actions such as arithmetic operations, logical operations, data transfer between registers, and more.
• These operations are crucial for the functioning of a CPU as they break down complex instructions into simpler, more manageable tasks that can be executed quickly and efficiently.
• In simpler terms, micro-operations act on the data that is temporarily held in the CPU registers during the execution of an instruction.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Run on stored data - This is incorrect because it does not specify the type of stored data. Micro-operations specifically act on data stored in registers, not just any stored data.
• Option 2: Run on assemble data - This is incorrect because it is vague and does not accurately describe the target of micro-operations.
• Option 3: Run on data - This is a broad statement and does not specify that the data is stored in registers, which is essential to the definition of micro-operations.

The correct answer is CMOS.

Key Points

• CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) is a technology for constructing integrated circuits. It is also a term used to refer to the chip that stores the BIOS settings in a computer.
• The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is firmware used to perform hardware initialization during the booting process and to provide runtime services for operating systems and programs.
• While the BIOS itself is stored in ROM (Read-Only Memory), the settings and configurations that the BIOS uses are stored in the CMOS chip, which requires power to maintain the information.
• In summary, the CMOS chip stores the BIOS settings, making it crucial for the proper booting and configuration of the computer system.

Additional Information

• Option 2: CPU - This is incorrect because the CPU (Central Processing Unit) is the main processing unit of the computer and does not store the BIOS.
• Option 3: HDD - This is incorrect because the HDD (Hard Disk Drive) is used for data storage and does not store the BIOS.
• Option 4: RAM - This is incorrect because RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory used for temporary storage of data and does not store the BIOS.

The correct answer is 1 PB = 1024 TB.

Key Points

• 1 Petabyte (PB) is equivalent to 1024 Terabytes (TB). This is because memory units in computer science typically follow binary multiples where 1 PB = 1024 TB.
• Other options are incorrect because they either represent an incorrect relationship or a miscalculation of the units.
• For instance, Option 1: 1 PB = 1024 ZB is incorrect because 1 Zettabyte (ZB) is much larger than 1 Petabyte (PB). 1 ZB = 1024 EB, and each EB (Exabyte) is itself 1024 PB.
• Option 2: 1 PB = 1024 EB is also incorrect because 1 Exabyte (EB) is 1024 Petabytes (PB), not the other way around.
• Option 3: 1 PB = 1014 TB is incorrect because the correct value is 1024 TB, not 1014 TB.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 1 PB = 1024 ZB - This is incorrect because 1 Zettabyte (ZB) is much larger than 1 Petabyte (PB).
• Option 2: 1 PB = 1024 EB - This is incorrect because 1 Exabyte (EB) is 1024 Petabytes (PB), not the other way around.
• Option 3: 1 PB = 1014 TB - This is incorrect because the correct value is 1024 TB, not 1014 TB.

The correct answer is 22.

Key Points

• Initially, p is set to 10.
• The pre-increment operation ++p increments p by 1 first, making it 11, and then assigns this value to m. So, m = 11.
• The post-decrement operation p-- assigns the current value of p (which is 11) to n first, and then decrements p by 1, making it 10. So, n = 11.
• Finally, we calculate the sum m + n which is 11 + 11 = 22.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 20 - This is incorrect because it does not account for the proper increment and decrement operations.
• Option 3: 21 - This is incorrect as it misinterprets the pre-increment or post-decrement operations.
• Option 4: 19 - This is incorrect as it misinterprets the operations entirely.

The correct answer is Cell..

Key Points

• Cell: The intersection of a column and a row in a worksheet is referred to as a cell. Each cell has a unique address that combines the column letter and row number, such as A1, B2, etc.
• A cell is the basic unit of storage in a worksheet, where data such as text, numbers, and formulas can be entered and manipulated.
• Understanding the concept of a cell is fundamental to working with spreadsheets, as it allows users to organize and analyze data effectively.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Page Break - This is incorrect because a page break is used to specify where a new page will begin in a printed document.
• Option 3: Range - This is incorrect because a range refers to a selection of two or more cells in a worksheet.
• Option 4: Box - This is incorrect because the term 'box' is not used to describe the intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet.

The correct answer is RAM.

Key Points

• RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of computer memory that can be accessed randomly. It is the primary memory used to store the operating system, application programs, and data that are currently being used.
• When a computer is started, the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) performs the power-on self-test (POST) to check the hardware components and loads the bootloader from the storage device.
• The bootloader then loads the operating system into the RAM from the storage device. This allows the CPU to access and execute the operating system efficiently.
• Thus, the operating system is loaded into the RAM during the booting process, which allows the computer to operate and manage hardware and software resources.

Additional Information

• Option 2: System - This is incorrect because "System" is a vague term and does not specifically refer to RAM, where the OS is actually loaded.
• Option 3: Software - This is incorrect because while the operating system is a type of software, this option does not specify the memory location where the OS is loaded.
• Option 4: ROM - This is incorrect because ROM (Read-Only Memory) is used to store firmware and is not the memory where the operating system is loaded during booting.

The correct answer is Identity theft..

Key Points

• Identity theft refers to the deliberate use of someone else's identity, usually for financial gain or to defame the person.
• This could involve obtaining credit, benefits, or other services in the name of another person.
• Identity theft can also be used to commit crimes or create a false reputation for the victim.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Digital footprint - This is incorrect. A digital footprint refers to the trail of data you leave behind while using the internet.
• Option 2: Phishing - This is incorrect. Phishing is a method used by fraudsters to obtain sensitive information by pretending to be a trustworthy entity.
• Option 4: Data theft - This is incorrect. Data theft refers to the illegal copying or taking of personal or corporate data.

The correct answer is Abiquo..

Key Points

• Abiquo is an open-source cloud management platform that allows users to manage and control their cloud infrastructure.
• It provides a unified platform to manage different cloud environments, including public, private, and hybrid clouds.
• Abiquo offers features such as resource optimization, policy-driven governance, and self-service portals, making it a comprehensive solution for cloud management.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Avactis - This is incorrect as Avactis is an e-commerce platform, not a cloud management tool.
• Option 2: Alfresco - This is incorrect as Alfresco is a content management system, not specifically designed for cloud management.
• Option 4: Acutate - This is incorrect as there is no well-known open-source tool named Acutate for cloud management.

The correct answer is Packet Switching..

Key Points

• Packet Switching is used to reduce transmission delay by allowing packets to take the least congested routes.
• It maximizes network channel capacity utilization by balancing the load across different paths.
• It improves communication resilience by rerouting packets through alternative paths in case of a failure.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Circuit Switching - This is incorrect because it has higher transmission delays, lower channel utilization, and lower resilience.
• Option 3: Linear Switching - This is not a recognized term in networking, making it an invalid option.
• Option 4: Switching Between Messages - This is less efficient as it requires the entire message to be received before forwarding, leading to higher delays.

The correct answer is Portable Document Format (PDF).

Key Points

• Portable Document Format (PDF) is a file format developed by Adobe that allows documents to be presented in a manner independent of application software, hardware, and operating systems.
• The PDF format is widely used for documents such as user manuals, eBooks, application forms, and scanned documents, among others.
• PDF files can include text, images, links, interactive buttons, forms, audio, video, and business logic, making them extremely versatile.
• This format ensures that the layout and content of the document remain consistent regardless of where it is opened.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) - This is incorrect because HTML is used for creating web pages and web applications, and it is dependent on web browsers for rendering.
• Option 2: ZIP - This is incorrect because ZIP is a file compression format used to compress and archive files, not for document presentation.
• Option 3: Database - This is incorrect because a database is a structured collection of data, not a document format.

The correct answer is Multiprocessing OS.

Key Points

• Multiprocessing OS is an operating system that supports running multiple processes simultaneously.
• This type of OS can handle multiple tasks at the same time by utilizing multiple CPUs or cores, which makes it highly efficient for multitasking.
• It allows for parallel processing, where different processes can be executed concurrently, improving the overall performance and speed of the system.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Time sharing Operating System - This is incorrect because while a time-sharing OS allows multiple users to share system resources, it is primarily designed to provide a small time slice to each user rather than handling multiple tasks simultaneously with high efficiency.
• Option 2: Multiuser OS - This is incorrect as a multiuser OS allows multiple users to access the computer system concurrently but does not necessarily provide the best support for running multiple tasks at the same time.
• Option 3: Single Task OS - This is incorrect because a single task OS is designed to handle one task at a time, making it unsuitable for multitasking requirements.

The correct answer is It is the scanned image of one's signature.

Key Points

• Digital Signature is a mathematical scheme used for verifying the authenticity and integrity of digital messages or documents.
• It is based on public key cryptography, providing a mechanism for authentication, non-repudiation, and data integrity.
• Unlike a scanned image of a handwritten signature, a digital signature is generated using the signer's private key and can be verified with the corresponding public key.
• It cannot be easily duplicated or forged, as it involves complex cryptographic algorithms.

Additional Information

• Option 1: It cannot be duplicated - This is correct because digital signatures use cryptographic techniques that make duplication extremely difficult.
• Option 2: It is a mechanism for encryption - This is partially correct because while digital signatures involve encryption techniques, their primary purpose is for authentication and not just encryption.
• Option 4: It is a mechanism for authentication - This is correct as digital signatures ensure the authenticity of the signer.

the correct answer is : Option 1

Key Points ALTER TABLE is the correct SQL command used to modify an existing table.

ADD is used to specify that you want to add a new column.

ColumnName is the name of the new column you want to add.

Additional Information Why not the other options?

Option 2) INSERT TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName

INSERT is used to add rows of data, not columns. This syntax is incorrect.

Option 3) INSERT TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName

Same as Option 2, INSERT is not used for adding columns.

Option 4) ALTER TABLE ADD COLUMN ColumnName

This is missing the TableName, which is required to specify which table to modify.

That's why option 1 is the right answer.

The correct answer is Margin that is added to binding side of page when printing..

Key Points

• Gutter Margin is used in documents to add extra space to the binding side of the page. This ensures that the text or images are not obscured by the binding process.
• This feature is particularly useful for documents that will be bound, such as books, reports, or manuals, as it preserves the readability and integrity of the content near the binding edge.
• In simpler terms, the gutter margin compensates for the space taken up by binding, thus preventing the content from being hidden or difficult to read.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Margin that is added to the left margin when printing - This is incorrect because the gutter margin is specifically for the binding side, not just the left margin.
• Option 3: Margin that is added to the right margin when printing - This is incorrect because the gutter margin is not related to the right margin but to the binding side.
• Option 4: Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing - This is also incorrect since the gutter margin is intended for the binding side, not the outer edge of the page.

The correct answer is Charles Babbage.

Key Points

• Charles Babbage is known as the "father of the computer".
• In the 1830s, Babbage designed the first automatic mechanical computer, called the Analytical Engine.
• The Analytical Engine was the first concept of a general-purpose computer, featuring an arithmetic logic unit, control flow in the form of conditional branching and loops, and memory.
• Babbage's design included all the essential ideas of a modern computer.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Augusta Adaming - This is incorrect. Augusta Ada King, Countess of Lovelace, was an English mathematician and writer, chiefly known for her work on Charles Babbage's early mechanical general-purpose computer, the Analytical Engine.
• Option 3: Alan Turing - Although Turing made significant contributions to the field of computer science and is considered one of the fathers of theoretical computer science and artificial intelligence, he did not invent the first computer.
• Option 4: Seymour Cray - This is incorrect. Seymour Cray was an American electrical engineer and supercomputer architect who designed a series of computers that were the fastest in the world for decades, but he did not invent the first computer.

The correct answer is Cloud Computing.

Key Points

• Cloud Computing allows users to access and use shared resources (such as servers, storage, databases, networking, software, etc.) over the internet.
• It provides on-demand services, meaning users can access these resources whenever they need them, without the need to purchase or maintain physical hardware.
• This model is highly scalable, flexible, and cost-effective, as users only pay for what they use.

Additional Information

• Option 1: LAN - Local Area Network, a network that connects computers within a limited area such as a residence or office building. It is not an internet-based solution.
• Option 2: None of the given options - This is incorrect since Cloud Computing is the correct answer.
• Option 3: Networking - This refers to the practice of connecting computers and other devices to share resources but does not specifically mean an internet-based solution.

The correct answer is Spiders and indexers.

Key Points

• Spiders (Web Crawlers): These are automated scripts or programs that browse the web systematically, reading the content of web pages and following links to discover new or updated content.
• Indexers: These applications process the data collected by web crawlers, categorize it, and store it in a structured database known as the index. This allows search engines to quickly retrieve relevant pages in response to user queries.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Web crawlers and CSS - This is incorrect because CSS is related to the presentation of web content, not the operation of search engines.
• Option 3: Data retrieval - This is a generic term and does not specify the applications used by search engines.
• Option 4: Web server and web crawler - This is also incorrect because web servers host web content and respond to requests from clients, while web crawlers assist in indexing and retrieving web content.

The correct answer is Assembly languages..

Key Points

• Low-level languages are programming languages that provide little or no abstraction from a computer's instruction set architecture. This means they are closer to the hardware and are more difficult to understand compared to high-level languages.
• Assembly languages are a type of low-level programming language. They provide a thin layer of abstraction over machine code, which is the set of binary instructions directly executed by a computer's CPU.
• Unlike high-level languages, which are designed to be easy for humans to read and write, low-level languages such as assembly are designed to be easy for the computer to execute and require detailed knowledge of a computer's architecture.

Additional Information

• Option 1: C; C++ - These are high-level languages, although they have features that allow for low-level manipulation.
• Option 2: BASIC; COBOL; Fortran - These are high-level languages designed for ease of use and abstraction from the hardware.
• Option 3: Prolog - This is a high-level programming language associated with artificial intelligence and computational linguistics.

The logic followed here is:

So, the next term in the series is 0.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given words:

Pageant: A public entertainment, parade, or a competition, often

involving elaborate performances or historical representations.

View: The ability to see something, a scene, or an opinion.

Display: An arrangement of things for people to look at; also refers to showing

something.

Spectacle: A visually striking performance, event, or scene.

"View", "Display" and "Spectacle" are all related to sight or vision, meaning they describe something that is seen or observe, and "Pageant," however, refers to a structured event, competition, or parade.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, XKKK is not follows the logic here.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Here condition to be checked:

A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its column and next by its row,

for example, 'U' can be represented by 57,

'F’ can be represented by 20

Now check all option:

Option 1) 24, 30, 40, 10 → RTAP

Option 2) 55, 67, 69, 95 → RXMF

Option 3) 55, 76, 96, 59 → REAP

Option 4) 42, 30, 04, 01 → QTXC

Thus, Option 3) is the correct code for REAP.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, OPG is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

In each matrix

1st row →  (1st number)² = 2nd number.

2nd row → (1st number)3 = 2nd number.

For,

 

1st row → 7² 

49 = 2nd number,

2nd row → 8³ 

512 = 2nd number.

Similarly,

 

1st row → 92 

81 = 2nd number,

2nd row → 63 

216 

Thus, 216 will come in missing place.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

A house on one side is 11th from the left and 14th from the right.

Formula

Total Houses = Left Position + Right Position − 1

<br>

= 11 + 14 − 1 

= 24

So, the total number of houses on this side of the road is 24.

Now, for other side house.

A house on the other side is 12th from the left and 19th from the right.

<br>

= 12 + 19 − 1

= 30

So, the total number of houses on the other side of the road is 30.

Thus, Total number of house builds both sides of the road is 

= 24 + 30

= 54

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Six books marked P, Q, R, S, T, and U are kept one next to the other.

 

So, T and U are green-covered books of old medical illustrations.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

Each figure has 3 color Square, 1 color circle and 2 diamond shape symbol.

Option 1)

Figure has 3 square, 2 circle, and 2 diamond shape symbol. Not follow the pattern.

Option 2)

Figure has 3 square, 1 circle, and 1 diamond shape symbol. Not follow the pattern.

Option 3)

Figure has 3  Square, 1 circle and 2 diamond shape symbol. Follow the pattern.

Option 4)

figure has 3 square, 1 circle and 1 diamond shape symbol. Not follow the pattern.

Thus, Only figure 3 follow the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Sum of the place value of alphabet) × 2.

For, TIME = 94

= (20 + 9 + 13 + 5) × 2

= 47 × 2

= 94

For, HOUR = 124

= (8 + 15 + 21 + 18) × 2

= 62 × 2

= 124

Similarly,

For,  SECOND 

= (19 + 5 + 3 + 15 + 14 + 4) × 2

= 60 × 2

= 120.

So, the value of SECOND is 120.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'AKCD' is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

All given numbers are prime number except only one 407.

Option 1) 449 → 1, 449 are factors( Prime number).

Option 2) 433 → 1, 433 are factors( Prime number).

Option 3) 463 → 1, 463 are factors( Prime number).

Option 4) 407 → 1, 11, 37, 407 are factors.( Not Prime number).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sound made by animals.

Here,

Goose : cackle  → Cackle is the sound made by a Goose.

Similarly,

Birds : Chirp → Chirp is the sound made by Birds.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

B ODMAS RULE:

Decoding the information, 

Given:

18 A 12 C 6 D 2 B 5 = ? 

After replacing symbol:

18 + 12 ÷ 6 × 2 - 5

Apply bodmas rule:

→18 + 12 ÷ 6 × 2 - 5

→18 + 2 × 2 - 5

→18 + 4 - 5

→ 22 - 5 = 17

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number)² + 1st number = 2nd number.

For 7 ∶ 56,

→ (7)² + 7

→ 49 + 7

→ 56 ( equal to 2nd number)

Similarly, 

9 ∶ ?

→ (9)2 + 9

→ 81 + 9

→ 90

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Here condition to be checked:

A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column.

R can be represented by 65, 76

S can be represented by 11, 22,

Now check all option:

Option 1) 01, 57, 75, 85, 88 → ROUOE

Option 2) 23, 56, 97, 78, 66 → RTUTE

Option 3) 34, 68, 86, 67, 99 → ROUTE

Option 4) 40, 58, 69, 95, 55 → RUUTE

Thus, Option 3) is the correct code for ROUTE.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

here URYO not follow the same logic as .

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Sumit rank is 17th from the last. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit.

The total number of students in the class is 39.

To find Sumit Rank from the Last to Rank from the Start

The formula to find a rank from the last to a rank from the start is:

Rank from the Start = Total Students − Rank from the Last + 1

Sumit Rank from the Start = 39 − 17 + 1

= 23

So, Sumit rank from the start is 23rd.

To find Ravi’s Rank from the Start

Since Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit, we subtract 7 from Sumit's rank:

Ravi’s rank from the Start = Sumit’s Rank from the Start − 7

= 23 − 7 = 16

Thus, Ravi rank from start is 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Virendra’s house is 30 m to the left of the Shani Dev Temple, which is 40 m to

the north of the Church. 

Virendra takes the road which is parallel to the temple-Church road and walks

for 50 m before turning to his right.

He further walks for 20 m and reaches the Gym.

Now the distance between Virendra’s house to church, we apply pythagoras theorem formula.

Distance between Virendra’s house and Shani Dev Temple is 30m.

Distance between Shani Dev Temple and Church is 40m. 

Distance between Virendra’s house and church = √ (30² + 40² )

= √(900 + 1600)

= √(2500)

= 50m.

Now for distance between Shani Dev Temple to Gym, we apply pythagoras theorem formula. 

Distance between Shani Dev Temple and Gym = √(502 + 502)

= √(2500 + 2500)

= √(5000)

= 70.7m.

Now, difference between between Virendra’s house to Church and Shani Dev Temple to Gym is

= 70.71 - 50.

= 20.7m

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

BD = 7.5 cm

And, BC = 9 cm

Calculation:

⇒ DC = BC - BD

⇒ 9 - 7.5 = 1.5 cm

⇒ AB/AC = BD/DC (Interior-Angle-Bisector Theorem)

⇒ AB/AC = 7.5/1.5

⇒ AB : AC = 5 : 1

∴ The correct answer is 5: 1.

Given:

The ratio of time of A, B, and C = 3: 4: 6

Calculation:

As we know, efficiency is inversely proportional to time

The ratio of the efficiency of A, B, and C = 1/3: 1/4: 1/6 = 4 : 3: 2

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 4 ∶ 3 ∶ 2

Given words:

Doyen – A senior or respected member of a group, an expert in a particular

field.

Veteran – A person with long experience in a particular field, often used for

retired soldiers but also for experts in various domains.

Tyro – A beginner or novice, someone new to a skill or profession.

Virtuoso – A person highly skilled in an artistic pursuit, particularly in music or

the arts, indicating expertise.

Doyen, Veteran, and Virtuoso all suggest experience, expertise, or mastery in a field.

Hence, the correct answer is "Tyro".

Given:

The volume of a cube = 274.625 cm3

Concept used:

Volume of cube = side3 

Calculation:

According to the question,

Side³ = 274.625

⇒ Side = 6.5

∴ The side of the cube is 6.5 cm

Given:

MIRR ( ) ANGE

The correct option must form meaningful words when inserted between the given fragments.

Option 1: OR

⇒ MIRR + OR = MIRROR

⇒ OR + ANGE = ORANGE

Both words are meaningful. 

Option 2: ICK

⇒ MIRR + ICK = MIRRICK (Not a valid word)

⇒ ICK + ANGE = ICKANGE (Not a valid word) 

Option 3: AGE

⇒ MIRR + AGE = MIRRAGE (Not a correct spelling for "MIRAGE")

⇒ AGE + ANGE = AGEANGE (No meaning) 

Option 4: ORED

⇒ MIRR + ORED = MIRRORED (Correct word)

⇒ ORED + ANGE = OREDANGE (Not a valid word) 

∴ The correct answer is option (1) OR.

Given two position of cube:

Start with common number M1 moving clockwise.

Opposite pairs:

M2 ⇔ M3

**# ⇔ ***

Thus, '#' will come opposite to face containing ‘*’,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

White balls = 2 , Pink balls = 3 , Black balls = 2 

Calculation:

The total number of balls in the bag is 2 white + 3 pink + 2 black = 7 balls.

Number of ways to select 2 balls out of 5 = C(5, 2) = 5! / [(5-2)! ×  2!] = 10.

The total number of ways to select 2 balls out of 7 = C(7, 2) = 7! / [(7-2)! × 2!] = 21.

The probability of drawing 2 balls without drawing a black one is given by the ratio probability  = 10/21.

Calculation:

Total number of branches in SBI: 

⇒ 86 + 108 + 92 + 78 + 80 + 70

⇒ 514 

Average number of branches in SBI: 

⇒ $\dfrac{ 514}{6}$ = 85.66

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 85.66

Given: The two hands of a clock be in the same straight line in opposite

directions i.e., the angle between the two hands will be 180º.

Between  7 and 8 o’clock , the hands of clock been in straight line (not

together) means they are at 180°.

Formula: [${11 \over2}$M - 30 H]

M = Minutes and H = Hour

Here, M = ?, H = 7

According to the question,

the angle should be: (11/2 M - 30 H) = 180º.

|11/2 × x - 210| = 180

11/2 × x  = 210 - 180

 11/2 × x = 30

x = 60/11

 x = $5\frac{5}{11}$ minutes

Between  7 and 8 o’clock , the hands of clock been in straight line (not

together) at $5\frac{5}{11}$ min past 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Investment of S, T and U = Rs.4200, Rs.6300 and Rs.8400 respectively

Time of S = 3 Months

Time of T = 6 months

Time of U = 12 months

Total Profit = Rs.6000

Concept used:

Profit = Investment × Time

Calculation:

Ratio of profit

⇒ Ratio of S’s capital × time : Ratio of T’s capital × time : Ratio of U’s capital × time

⇒ 4200 × 3 : 6300 × 6 : 8400 × 12

⇒ 1 : 3: 8

∴ U’s share = 8/(1 + 3 + 8) × 6000 = 8/12 × 6000 = 4000

The correct answer is option 2 i.e.4000.

The correct dictionary order is:

2. Happen
3. Happy
4. Hard
5. Harm
6. Hate

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Calculation:

Total Distance = x km

Speeds S1, S2, and S3 are 20 km/h, 30 km/h, and 50 km/h respectively.

Time taken are T1, T2, and T3 respectively.

According to the question;

Time = Distance/Speed

T1 = (x/3)/S1 = x/60 hr

T2 = (x/4)/S2 = x/120 hr

Remaining Distance = x - (x/3) - (x/4) = 5x/12

So, T3 = (5x/12)/S3 = x/120 hr

Total time = T1 + T2 + T3

= (x/60) + (x/120) + (5x/600)

⇒ x/60 + x/120 + x/120

= 4x/120

= x/30 hr

Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time

= x/(x/30)

= 30 km/hr

Hence, 30 km/h is the correct answer.

Calculation:

The blood group of AB = 57.6⁰

Percentage of donors who have blood group AB :

⇒ $\dfrac{ 57.6^{0} }{360} \times 100$ 

⇒ 16%

The correct answer is option 16%

The least possible venn diagram for given statement:

Conclusions:

I. Some hacks are locks → True (As, given some locks are hacks so, some hacks are locks definitely holds true).

II. Some charts are hacks → True (As, all hacks are charts, so some charts are hacks definitely holds true)

Thus,  both Conclusions I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 946 will complete the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Calculation:

When two dice are thrown, there are a total of 6×6 = 36 different outcomes.

Let's calculate the outcomes where the sum of points is less than 9:

For sun = 2, there's 1 possible outcome: (1,1).

For sum = 3, there are 2 possible outcomes: (1,2), (2,1).

For sum = 4, there are 3 possible outcomes: (1,3), (2,2), (3,1).

For sum = 5, there are 4 possible outcomes: (1,4), (2,3), (3,2), (4,1).

For sum = 6, there are 5 possible outcomes: (1,5), (2,4), (3,3), (4,2), (5,1).

For some = 7, there are 6 possible outcomes: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1).

For sum = 8, there are 5 possible outcomes: (2,6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3), (6,2).

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Favourable outcomes.1+2+3+4+5+6+5 = 26

The probability that the sum is less than 9  is

⇒  26/36  = 13/18.