MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 17 Mar, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is the Chausath Jogini Temple

Key Points

• Chausath Yogini temple is located in Morena, Madhya Pradesh.
• The Chaunsath Yogini Temple belonged to the King Devapala.
• It is also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple.
• According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (1055 – 1075).
• The Chausath Yogini temple is built on a high plinth and shows pillared cloisters which run around the wall facing an open courtyard.
• The small cells that form 64 subsidiary shrines have a shallow pillared mandapa in front.
• It is believed that this temple inspired the design of the Parliament.
• A Chausath Yogini temple is also located in Jabalpur.
• It was built by the Kalachuris in the 11th century.
• The temple has a mandapa in front and has the idols of Shiva and Parvati on Nandi in the sanctum.

Additional Information

• Sidheshwar Temple
• Siddeshwar temple or Siddnath temple is located in the town of Nemawar which is an ancient temple of Lord Shiva.
• The Siddeshwar temple was built by the Parmar dynasty and is an example of Bhumija architecture style.
• The Parmar dynasty was an Indian dynasty that ruled Malwa and surrounding areas in west-central India between the 9th and 14th centuries.
• The capital of the dynasty was in Dhar.
• Nemawar is a holy place for both Hindus and Digamber sects of Jains.
• Kakanmath Temple
• Kakanmaṭh is an 11th century Shiva temple located in Morena district in Madhya Pradesh.
• It was built by Kachchhapaghata ruler Kirttiraja.
• It was built between 1015 to 1035 A.D.
• It was built during the reign of the Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty.
• The temple was built in the Khajuraho style.
• Many of the carvings are similar to those that can be seen at Khajuraho
• An inscription found at the Sas Bahu temple in Gwalior records a Shiva temple being built at Simhapaniya(Sihoniya).
• The name Kakanmath was derived from Kanak (gold) and matha (shrine).
• The temple has been classified as a Monument of National Importance by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Mahakaleshwar Temple
• The temple is situated on the side of the river Kshipra.
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the twelve Jyotirlingams.
• The idol of Lord Shiva is known to be 'Dakshina Mukhi', which means that it is facing the south.
• It is one of the shrines of the Vaippu Sthalams sung by Tamil Saivite Nayanar Appar.
• The shrine is revered as one of the 18 Maha Shakti Peetham.
• The temple complex was destroyed by Sultan Shams-ud-din Iltutmish during his raid of Ujjain in 1234.

The correct answer is Option 1

Key PointsVindhya and Satpura ranges

• The Aravali and Vindhya are mountain ranges of the Peninsular Plateau.
• While the Aravali rises in the North near Delhi and extends till Gujarat through Haryana and Rajasthan, the Vindhya rises from Gujarat and extends till Uttar Pradesh.
• It is mainly composed of quartz, sand and Granite. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is Extending from Gujarat in the west to about 1086 km.
• This Range crosses Madhya Pradesh and meets the Ganges river valley of Varanasi.

Additional Information

 

Satpura Range:

• The Satpura Range is a hill range in central India.
• The range begins in eastern Gujarat and runs east through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh before ending in Chhattisgarh.
• The range runs parallel to the Vindhya Range to the north, and these two east-west mountains divide the Indian Subcontinent into the Indo-Gangetic plain in the north and the Deccan Plateau in the south.
• The Satpuras have been folded and upheaved in places. They are referred to as 'horst' or structural uplift.
• The Narmada River rises in Amarkantak at the northeastern end of Satpura and flows in the valley between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges, draining the northern slope of the Satpura range and flowing west towards the Arabian Sea.

Vindhya Range:

• In west-central India, the Vindhya Range is a complicated, discontinuous network of mountain ridges, hill ranges, highlands, and plateau escarpments.
• In geological terms, the Vindhyas do not comprise a single mountain range.
• The Vindhyas' actual size is unknown, and traditionally, the title referred to a variety of separate hill ranges in central India, notably the Satpura Range.
• The Vindhya range is often referred to as "Vindhyachal"; the suffix achala or achal alludes to a mountain.

Correct answer is Maheshwar 

Key Points

• Ahilya Bai Holkar was the hereditary noble queen of the Maratha Empire, in early-modern India.
• She established Maheshwar as the seat of the Holkar Dynasty.
• Chanderi saree, a traditional saree made in Chanderi in Madhya Pradesh is known for its gold and silver brocade.
• Terracotta is s type of earthenware or clay-based unglassed or glassed ceramic.
• Tussar Textile is made from silk that is produced from silkworms that breed on wild forest trees, not mulberry trees.

Additional Information

• Maheshwari saree is one of the most popular sarees produced in Madhya Pradesh.
• The Maheshwari saree originated back in the 18th century during the reign of Queen Ahilyabai Holkar.
• Maheshwari saree is most famous in Maheshwar, a city in the Khargone district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It was first found and produced in Maheshwar city.
• Maheshwari sarees were supposed to be a special gift for the royal relatives and guests who visited the palace.
• Maheshwari saree is one of the best sellers in both national and international markets.
• It was originally worn by the ladies of royal status and it was made of pure silk.

The correct answer is Education.

Key Points 

• The Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme - DHRUV has been started by Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India to identify and encourage talented children to enrich their skills and knowledge.
• In centres of excellence across the country, gifted children will be mentored and nurtured by renowned experts in different areas, so that they can reach their full potential.
• The first batch of DHRUV programme was implemented during October 2019.
• The programme is named after a pole star called DHRUV TARA.
• The main objective of the program is to allow students to realize their complete potential and contribute to the society.

The correct answer is ​Ramesh Chandra Agarwal.

Key Points 

• The Dainik Bhaskar Group was founded by Ramesh Chandra Agarwal in 1956.
• It is India’s largest newspaper group with 66 editions published in 4 languages across 12 states.
• It is headquartered in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
• Dainik Bhaskar (Hindi daily), Divya Bhaskar (Gujarati daily), Dainik Divya Marathi (Marathi daily), Saurashtra Samachar, DB Post (English daily), and DB Star are the papers published by the group.
• Dainik Bhaskar is the most widely read newspaper in India.
• It was started in Bhopal in 1958.
• It has five editions in Madhya Pradesh.

Correct answer is General O Daier.

Key Points

• ​The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, occurred on April 13, 1919.
• It involved the gruesome execution of hundreds of innocent people by the Gurkha British Indian army under the orders of then Anglo-Indian Brigadier R.E.H. Dyer.
• These people were peacefully opposing the Rowlatt Act of 1919.
• The Jallianwala Bagh tragedy was one of the factors that prompted Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Non Cooperation Movement, his 1st huge and sustained nonviolent protest (satyagraha) campaign (1920-22).
• Rabindranath Tagore, a Bengali poet and Nobel laureate, renounced his knighthood in 1915.
• Under the movement, India ordered an investigation into the incident the Hunter Commission, which censured Dyer for his actions and ordered him to resign from the military in 1920.

Additional Information 

• The Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently paid respect to those who died in the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh tragedy.
• He argued that the generations to come will continue to be inspired by their unmatched bravery and selflessness.
• The incident occurred 104 years ago on April 13, 1919
• The Gujarat government previously commemorated the 100th anniversary of the Pal-Dadhvav massacres by referring to them as a massacre greater than the Jallianwala Bagh.

The correct answer is R. Hari Kumar

Key Points 

• The current CNS is Admiral R. Hari Kumar.
• The 25th Navy Chief, he took over from Karambir Singh, who retired on 30 November 2021 after four decades of service in the navy.
• General Manoj Pande is the current Chief of Army Staff.
• The current Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari.

The correct answer is Cyclical unemployment.

Key Points 

• Cyclical unemployment is a shortage of employment brought on by fluctuations in the business cycle of an economy.
• High unemployment rates are primarily a result of cyclical unemployment.
• It results from a contraction in the business cycle.
• It is a normal cycle of economic growth's ups and downs that happens over time.
• Temporary cyclical unemployment is based on how long an economic downturn brought on by a recession lasts.
• You should anticipate frequent changes in the economy if you work in business or finance.
• These cycles may have a big impact on spending, which could harm your business or sector.
• You may make sure that a company enterprise experiences fewer negative effects by foreseeing these changes.
• Business cycles could last just a few days or several years.

Additional Information 

• The length of a trade cycle is determined by how long it takes to complete each of its five stages.
• The recession stage of the economy starts when the boom phase ends and economic activity declines.
• It continues until the GDP reaches the point where the expansion stage begins.
• During a recession, demand may drop almost immediately, but producers might not change their output until the market supply is abundant.
• Frictional:
• ​Transitions in voluntary employment within an economy might lead to frictional unemployment.
• A brief period of unemployment is produced as employees decide to switch jobs and as new workers join the workforce for the first time.
• The frictional unemployment rate is computed by dividing the workers actively looking for jobs by the total labor force.
• Those who have recently left their occupations, those who are reentering the workforce, and newcomers are the three groups of people who are actively looking for work.
• Structural:
• When the abilities that people in the economy can supply do not match the skills that companies are looking for in employees, structural unemployment results (also known as the skills gap).
• Technological advancements that render many workers' job abilities obsolete frequently cause structural unemployment.
• One of the three types of unemployment identified by economists—the other two being frictional unemployment and cyclical unemployment—is structural unemployment.
• Technological:
• ​The loss of work as a result of technical development is known as technological unemployment.
• This important category is structural unemployment.
• The role of people in technological transformation is often reduced as "mechanical-muscle" devices or more effective "mechanical-mind" processes (automation) replace labor-intensive ones.

The correct answer is Boxing

Key Points

• Ruchir Shriwas of Madhya Pradesh is associated Boxing

The correct answer is option 1, i.e Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Lepakshi paintings are the mural paintings which is located in the Anantapur district of Andhra Pradesh.
• It was executed on Veerabhadra temple walls at Lepakshi in 16th Century.
• It was made during the Vijaynagara period, they follow a religious theme, based on Ramayana, Mahabharata and incarnations of Vishnu.

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

• Pickleball
• Pickleball, fast-paced sport that has many similarities to tennis, badminton, and table tennis (Ping-Pong).
• It is played on a level court with short-handled paddles and a perforated hollow plastic ball that is volleyed over a low net.
• Matches feature two opposing players (singles) or two pairs of players (doubles), and the sport can be played either outdoors or indoors.
• Pickleball was invented in the United States in 1965, and in the early 21st century it experienced rapid growth.
• It is now played worldwide by people of all ages and skill levels.

The correct answer is  A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

Key Points Brahmo Samaj

• It was founded in Calcutta in 1828 by Ram Mohan Roy as Brahmo Sabha.
• The Brahmo Samaj was a monotheistic sect of Hinduism
• The samaj was dedicated to the "worship and adoration of the Eternal, the Unsearchable, the Immutable Being, who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe".
• The Samaj was open to all without distinction of color, creed, caste, nation, or religion.

Prathna Samaj

• ‘Prarthana Samaj’ was established on 31 March 1867 in Bombay by Atmaram Panduranga.
• This Samaj was greatly influenced by the Brahmo Samaj and the Arya Samaj.
• The main aim of the society - promulgation of theistic worship and social reform.
• Opposition to the caste system, the introduction of widow remarriage, the encouragement of female education, and the abolition of child marriage were their goals.

Arya Samaj

• The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati at Bombay in 1875.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1824-83) was a scholar, a patriot, a social reformer, and a revivalist. 
• He believed the Vedas were the source of true knowledge. His motto was “Back to the Vedas”.
• He started the Suddhi movement to bring back those Hindus who had converted to other religions to its fold.
• He wrote the book Satyartha Prakash which contains his ideas.

Young Bengal Movement

• The Young Bengal Movement was started by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, who had come to Calcutta in 1826 and was appointed to the Hindu College as a teacher of English literature and History.
• The Young Bengal was a group of Bengali free thinkers emerging from Hindu College, Calcutta.
• They were inspired and excited by the spirit of free thought and revolt against the existing social and religious structure of Hindu society.

Thus , the correct Match is A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

The correct answer is North Arabian Sea

Key Points 

• In a rare feat, five women officers of the Indian Navy carried out the first independent maritime reconnaissance and surveillance mission in the North Arabian Sea onboard a Dornier aircraft, in August 2022.
• The aircraft was captained by Mission Commander, Lt Commander Aanchal Sharma.
• The INAS 314 is a frontline naval air squadron based at Porbandar, Gujarat.

Additional Information 

• The Indian Navy’s Kilo-class submarine, INS Sindhudhvaj was decommissioned from service on 16 July 2022 after 35 years in service.
• National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) on 17 June 2022 signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indian Navy for ‘Cooperation on Numerical Model-Based Applications in Meteorology and Oceanology’.
• The Indian Navy is the naval branch of the Indian Armed Forces.
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Navy.
• The Chief of Naval Staff, a four-star admiral, commands the navy.
• The Indian Navy:
• Motto(s): शं नो वरुणः (Sanskrit); 'May the Lord of Water be auspicious unto us'
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Founded: 26 January 1950
• Commander-in-Chief: President Droupadi Murmu
• The Chief of the Naval Staff: Admiral R. Hari Kumar

The correct answer is 1931.

Key Points 

• The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in 1931.
• The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin on March 5, 1931.
• The features of the Gandhi-Irwin pact:
• Congress would participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
• Congress would discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• The Government would withdraw all ordinances issued to curb Congress.
• The Government would withdraw all prosecutions relating to offenses other than violent ones.
• The Government would release all persons undergoing sentences of imprisonment for their activities in the civil disobedience movement.

Additional Information 

• Civil Disobedience Movement
• The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Gandhi on 12th March 1930 with his famous Dandi March.
• Together with 78 chosen followers, Gandhi walked nearly 375 km from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a village on the Gujarat sea coast.
• On the morning of 6th April 1930, Gandhiji broke the salt law by making salt. Thousands of people followed suit.
• This movement resulted in Gandhi-Irwin Pact on 5 March 1931.
• Indians were allowed to make salt for domestic use.
• Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference in London as an ‘equal’.

Correct answer is Saint

Key Points 

• Burhanpur was founded in 1399 by Naṣīr Khan, the first independent prince of the Fārūqī dynasty of Khandesh, and it was annexed by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1601.
• The city, with its wall and massive gates, served as the Deccan headquarters of the Mughals until Aurangzeb moved the capital to Aurangabad in 1636.
• Burhanpur was for many years the scene of conflicts between the Marathas and Mughals and was seized in 1803 by Major General Arthur Wellesley, later 1st duke of Wellington.
• It was restored to the Sindhias in 1805 and ceded to the British in 1861.
• Burhanpur developed an extensive trade in muslin, gold and silver brocade, and lace, which declined during the 18th century, though such industries still continue on a small scale.

Additional Information

• Burhanpur city is situated on the banks of Tapti river in Madhya Pradesh. 
• The city is surrounded by ramparts equipped with many huge gates.
• This city was reputed as the capital for some time during the period of Mughals.
• The city is dotted with important tombs, mosques and historical monuments from medieval history.

The Correct Answer is Hard Ground Barasingha

Key Point

• The State animal of Madhya Pradesh in the “Hard Ground Barasingha” or Swamp deer.
• The swamp deer differs from all the Indian deer species in that the antlers carry more than three tines.
• Because of this distinctive character, it is designated Barasingha, meaning “twelve-tined.

 

Important Points 

State Symbol of Madhya Pradesh

• The State bird of Madhya Pradesh is “Dhudraj” the Asian Paradise Flycatcher.
• The State tree of Madhya Pradesh is the “India Banyan” (Ficus benghlensis).
• The State fish of Madhya Pradesh is “Mahasheer”.

 

Additional Information 

• Sambar Deer is the State Animal of Odisha.
• The Gaur is the State Animal of Goa.

The correct answer is Gwalior.Gharana 

Key Points

• The Gwalior Gharana evolved during the time of the Mughal Empire (1526CE – 1857 CE).
• Among the early masters (ustad) were Naththan Khan, Naththan Pir Bakhsh and his grandsons Haddu, Hassu and Natthu Khan.
• The head musician in the imperial court was Bade Mohammad Khan, who was famous for his taan bazi style.
• Ustad Bade Inayat Hussain Khan (1837–1923) was a classical Indian vocalist who belonged to the famous Gwalior Gharana. He was the son of Haddu Khan who was the maternal grandson of Nathan Pir Bakhsh, the founder of Gwalior Gharana. He was the first person to introduce Bol Bant in Khayal Gayki.

Additional Information 

• Both Dhrupad and Khyal singing evolved in Gwalior and there are many overlaps. In the khyal style there is one form, Mundi Dhrupad, that incorporates all the features of dhrupad singing but without the Mukhda. Common ragas include Alhaiya Bilawal, Yaman, Bhairav, Sarang, Shree, Hameer, Gaud Malhar, and Miya Ki Malhar.
• Three main gharanas of thumri — Benaras, Lucknow and Patiala. Begum Akhtar is one of the most popular singers of thumri style.
• Famous Hindustani Gharanas in Music 
• ​Kirana Gharana. This is the most profuse Gharana in Indian traditional music.
• Gwalior Gharana. This is one of the most seasoned Gharanas of Indian traditional music and has decent and simple singing tune, style, and beat.
• Patiala Gharana
• Sham Chaurasia Gharana

The correct answer is Governors of the states

Key Points 

• The national development Council (NDC) and Planning Commission (PC) has been abolished now.
• NDC used to advise PC on planning and included all CMs and union ministers etc.
• To activate the means and efforts states for implementation of the planning.
• To develop the general policies in all the important areas.
• To confirm the balanced development in all the areas of the country.
• ​Hence the correct option is 2.

​​​

Additional Information 

• National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission
• Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution – NITI AAYYOG on January 1, 2015, with emphasis on the ‘Bottom –Up’ approach to envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.
• Objectives
• To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
• To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
• To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy.
• To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of not benefitting adequately from economic progress.
• To provide advice and encourage partnerships between key stakeholders and national and international like-minded Think Tanks, as well as educational and policy research institutions.
• To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners.
• To offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and inter-departmental issues in order to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda.
• To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource Centre, be a repository of research on good governance and best practices in sustainable and equitable development as well as help their dissemination to stake-holders.

correct answer is 9

Key Points

• WATER TRIBUNALS
• The Parliament has enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956 to deal with the disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers and river valley.
• When any request under the said Act is received from any State Government in respect of any water dispute on the inter-State rivers and the Central Government is of the opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, the Central Government constitutes a Water Disputes Tribunal for the adjudication of the water dispute.
• Till now  9 water disputes Tribunals have been constituted to adjudicate inter-State River water disputes out of which 5 Tribunals have adjudicated the water disputes and subsequently these Tribunals have been dissolved.

Correct answer is Ashok Mehta Article 243D

Key Points

Article 243-D of the Constitution gives provisions for the due representation of women and SC/STs. According to Article 243D, one-third of the seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat, such provisions are not applicable for OBCs. 

Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for the SCs and STs in every Panchayat are reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes, or as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes. Also, not less than one-third of the total number of offices of the chairpersons in Panchayats at each level are reserved for women.

Additional Information The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 established a reservation for women in local Panchayats in rural areas. According to Article 243D in Part IX of the constitution, women are only allowed to occupy up to one-third (17%)of the seats available, including the seats set aside for women who belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Backshifting of Tense: The reporting verb said is in the past tense, so the future auxiliary “shall” correctly changes to “would” in indirect speech.
• Change in Verb Form: The present tense verb “seems” is correctly converted to “seemed” due to backshifting rules.
• Pronoun Consistency: The pronoun “I” is correctly changed to “he” to match the reporting subject.
• Exam Preference: Competitive exams like SSC, UPSC, and other state exams prefer clear, concise, and standard reported speech. Option 3 follows the most accepted structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: “He said that he would be glad to look it over, but it seemed long.”

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Uses should instead of would, which is incorrect for reporting a simple future intention in indirect speech.
• Option 2: Fails to backshift the tense of “seems”, making it grammatically inconsistent.
• Option 4: Though grammatically acceptable, the extra “that” is unnecessary. Exams prefer a more concise construction.

"The correct answer is 'A change in one's opinion or feelings on a matter.'

 Key Points

• The phrase 'a change of heart' is an idiomatic expression that refers to a change in one's feelings or views about something (किसी चीज़ के बारे में किसी की भावनाओं या विचारों में बदलाव).
• This can relate to an individual's feelings towards another person or their viewpoint on a certain matter.
• For instance, if someone has decided to do something and later decides not to, we can say they've had 'a change of heart'.
• Examples:
• "Initially, I did not want to go to the party, but later I had a change of heart."
• "He had a change of heart about adopting a pet after his visit to the animal shelter."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

"The correct answer is 'plentious.'

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is 'plentiful,' not 'plentious.'
• 'Plentiful' means existing in or yielding great quantities; abundant. For instance, "The harvest was plentiful this year."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

"The correct answer is 'hesitant.'

 Key Points

• 'Emphatic' refers to expressing something forcibly and clearly. The antonym should refer to something uncertain or lacking force.
• 'Hesitant' is an appropriate antonym as it signifies being unsure or slow in acting or speaking due to uncertainty.
• For example, "While Jack was emphatic about his decision, Jill was hesitant."

 Additional Information

• The other words - 'thumping', 'powerful', and 'insistent' - all convey a sense of force or intensity, which aligns them more closely with the term 'emphatic.'

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

"The correct answer is 'Exhibition.'

 Key Points

• 'Exhibition' is spelled correctly. It refers to a public display of works of art or items of interest, held in an art gallery or museum or at a trade fair.
• The other options are misspelled:
• 'Appratus' should be 'Apparatus'
• 'Nuisence' should be 'Nuisance'
• 'Parellal' should be 'Parallel'

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

"The correct answer is 'so.'

 Key Points

• The blank in the sentence requires a conjunction that implies causality or reason.
• The conjunction 'so' is used to express the result of something. Here, it shows that the result of 'my knee started hurting' was that 'I stopped running.'
• For example, "I was tired, so I went to bed."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

"The correct answer is 'Safeguard.'

 Key Points

• 'Jeopardize' means to put something or someone into a situation in which there is a risk of harm, loss, danger, or failure. Its antonym should therefore indicate the act of protecting or securing something or someone from harm or loss.
• 'Safeguard' is the term that fits this description. It means to protect or shield from harm, damage, loss, or destruction.
• For example, "While his actions jeopardize the team's unity, her actions safeguard it."

 Additional Information

• 'Spur' means to encourage or stimulate into action.
• 'Conclusive' means serving to prove a case or resolve a matter; decisive or convincing.
• 'Adulterate' means to make something poorer in quality by adding another substance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

"The correct answer is 'Tiresome.'

 Key Points

• 'Monotonous' means dull, tedious, and repetitious; lacking in variety and interest. Its synonym should therefore carry a similar meaning.
• 'Tiresome' refers to something that causes one to feel bored or annoyed.
• For example, "A monotonous job can quickly become tiresome."

 Additional Information

• 'Swift' means moving or capable of moving at high speed.
• 'Gaudy' means extravagantly bright or showy.
• 'Hefty' means large, heavy, and powerful.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

"The correct answer is 'both travel and nutrition.'

 Key Points

• The question requires us to improve the phrase 'both travelling and nutrition.'
• 'Travelling' is the act of moving from one place to another, but in the context of offsetting the loss of wages due to TB, it makes more sense to talk about the costs associated with travel, rather than the act of travelling itself.
• Therefore, 'both travel and nutrition' is the correct choice because it is referring to the costs associated with these two areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

"The correct answer is 'Highbrow.'

 Key Points

• The phrase 'a person of intellectual or erudite tastes' refers to someone who is highly cultured or has a superior taste in the arts, literature, etc.
• 'Highbrow' is a term that is used to describe such individuals.
• For instance, "She is a highbrow who appreciates fine art and classical music."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

"The correct answer is 'alone.'

 Key Points

• The sentence 'He likes being _________ in the house' requires an adverb or adjective that describes a state or condition.
• 'Alone' fits perfectly in the blank as it signifies the state of being by oneself without others around.
• For example, "After a long day at work, he likes being alone in the house to relax."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

"The correct answer is 'hallucinations.'

 Key Points

• The question asks us to choose the correctly spelled word among the given options.
• The correct spelling of the word is 'hallucinations.'
• It refers to the perception of objects with no reality usually arising from disorder of the nervous system or in response to drugs.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is "Being destroy".

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the passive voice with 'being' must be followed by a past participle.
• The past participle form of the verb 'destroy' is 'destroyed'.
• The concept of using 'being + past participle' is typically used to create passive voice for present continuous, past continuous, and future continuous sentences.
• In this corrected sentence, 'being destroyed' correctly follows the grammar rule for forming the passive voice in the present continuous tense.

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Correct Sentence: A study finds that seabirds are being destroyed by predators, fishing, and climate change.

The correct answer is "They said that they had reached the train station."

Key Points

• As per these rules, the 'reached' which is in simple past tense in direct speech should become 'had reached' in the reported speech as it should be transformed into past perfect.
• The pronoun "we" in direct speech becomes "they" in the indirect speech to match the subject "they".
• In this sentence, the reporting verb "said" remain unchanged.
• Conjunction "that" will be used in place of inverted commas.

​Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "Friends and traveling abroad were spoken about by them."

Key Points

• In passive voice, we move the object in the active sentence ("friends and traveling abroad") to the position of the subject.
• The given sentence uses the past simple form of the verb "speak" which is "spoke".
• In the passive voice, it changes to the verb "to be" in the same tense as the active verb ("were") + past participle of the main verb. Therefore, "spoke" becomes "were spoken".
• The original sentence includes the preposition "about" which indicates the topic of conversation.
• When we change the sentence to passive voice, "about" comes before "by them".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The phrase "Contrary to" is an idiomatic expression that is used to introduce a contrast or contradiction to a widely held belief or expectation. It is followed by the notion that contradicts the popular belief. For example:

• Contrary to popular belief, cats can be quite social animals.
• Contrary to what most people think, the stock market is not always predictable.

So, in the sentence "Contrary _________ popular belief, the animals do not often attack humans," the correct preposition is "to" because it fits the idiomatic expression and introduces the contrast between the popular belief and the reality of animals not attacking humans often.

The correct answer is "Strong".

Key Points

• The correct word to fill in the blank in this context is "strong".
• The word "strong" is an adjective that can be used to describe the intensity or degree of something, in this case, the term "influence".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: My grandmother had a strong influence on my early childhood.

The correct answer is "Up the hope".

Key Points

• We generally say "give up hope," not "give up the hope."
• The usage of "the" in this context is not necessary because "hope" is used in a general or abstract sense here, rather than referring to a specific case of hope.
• In this sentence, "give up hope" idiomatically means to stop believing that a positive outcome will occur.
• Used correctly in this way, the phrase does not need to include "the".

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Correct Sentence: You must never give up hope.

The correct answer is "ACBD".

Key Points

• Sentence A opens the story, setting the scene in the past with Kahi's initial experience of picking up trash on the beach. It's a broad opening, setting up the context and allowing for the narrative to delve into specifics later.
• Sentence C lists examples of the "occasional piece of plastic trash" mentioned in the first sentence (line A). Consequently, it serves as an expansion of sentence A.
• In sentence B, the transitional phrase "But one day" infers the passage of time and indicates a significant change or event in Kahi's experiences — his 'surprising' discovery of a toothbrush. It signifies a turning point in the narrative.
• In sentence D, the word "now" establishes a contrast between the present situation and the past (the time referred to in sentence A, and subsequently C and B), thereby creating a sense of progression and showing the change over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Delightful".

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "Delightful".
• We'll need an adjective in that blank to appropriately complete the sentence.
• 'Delightful' is the only word in the given options which is an adjective.
• The word 'delightful' is used to describe something that is very pleasant, appealing, or enjoyable, which can be a suitable description for pleasant or likeable neighbours.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Complete Sentence: Our new neighbours are delightful.

The correct answer is "Alfred was accused of king's murder by the investigating officer."

Key Points

• In passive voice, we move the object in the active sentence ("Alfred") to the position of the subject.
• The given sentence uses the past simple form of the verb "accuse," which is "accused."
• In the passive voice, it changes to the verb "to be" in the same tense as the active verb ("was") + the past participle of the main verb.
• Therefore, "accused" becomes "was accused."
• The subject of the active sentence, "the investigating officer", becomes the "agent" in the passive sentence, introduced by "by."
• Hence, "the investigating officer" becomes "by the investigating officer".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "The master told his servant that if he did not work efficiently, he would dismiss him."

Key Points

• The direct speech "said to" changes to "told" in indirect speech.
• In indirect speech, the quoted portion is usually introduced by "that".
• The pronoun 'you' in direct speech will be replaced by 'he' in the indirect speech according to the context.
• The present tense 'do not work' changes to past tense 'did not work' and future 'will dismiss' changes to 'would dismiss' in the indirect speech.
• This is because when the reporting verb is in past tense, the verbs in the reported speech also change to match this tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "DABC".

 Key Points

• Part D: This statement effectively opens the sentence and allows for additional information to be added on.
• Part A: This provides context to the earlier statement explaining the possible reason why the cuteness of squirrels might be overlooked.
• Part B functions as a connector, showing how the commonality of squirrels is perceived by many people.
• Lastly, Part C is used to conclude the sentence and defines how squirrels could fade into the background because of their commonality, despite being cute.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Correct Sentence: Squirrels are cute but so commonplace to many of us that they become background.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Delinate.

Key Points

• The word "Delinate" is incorrectly spelled. It should be "Delineate", which means to describe or portray something precisely. (स्पष्ट वर्णन करना)
• Example: The artist was able to delineate the landscape with remarkable accuracy.
• "Desecration" refers to the act of treating something (often sacred) with violent disrespect. (अपवित्रीकरण)
• Example: The desecration of the ancient temple caused a public outcry.
• "Delirious" means in an acutely disturbed state of mind resulting from illness or intoxication, characterized by restlessness and incoherence. (उन्माद)
• Example: He was delirious with fever and didn't recognize anyone around him.
• "Detrimental" means tending to cause harm. (हानिकारक)
• Example: The new policy could be detrimental to the company's growth.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Delinate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Desecration (अपवित्रीकरण): The action of desecrating something.
• Example: The graffiti on the monument was seen as an act of desecration.
• Delirious (उन्माद): In an acutely disturbed state of mind.
• Example: After the accident, he was delirious for several hours.
• Detrimental (हानिकारक): Tending to cause harm.
• Example: Smoking is detrimental to health.

The correct answer is "Daisy suggested that we go and have some tea."

Key Points

• The direct speech suggests a proposal, so the reporting verb remains as "suggested" in the indirect speech.
• In indirect speech, usually, the quoted portion is introduced by "that".
• The imperative mood 'Let's go' changes to the subjunctive mood 'we go' and 'have some tea' remains as 'have some tea'.
• This change occurs to maintain the suggestion mood in the reporting speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Correct answer is  Sharing drug needles

Key Points

• Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks the liver and can cause both acute and chronic diseases.
• The incubation period of the hepatitis B virus ranges from 30 to 180 days.
• The virus may be detected within 30 to 60 days after infection and can persist and develop into chronic hepatitis B, especially when transmitted in infancy or childhood.
• Symptoms: Abdominal pain, Dark urine, Fever, Joint pain, Loss of appetite, Nausea and vomiting, Weakness and fatigue, Yellowing of the skin and the s of the eyes, also called jaundice
• Hepatitis B can be prevented by vaccines that are safe, available, and effective.

Explanation:

• Route of Transmission:
• Perinatal Transmission: The virus is most commonly transmitted from mother to child during birth and delivery.
• Parenteral Route:  Contact with blood or other body fluids.
• Hepatitis B is also spread by needlestick injury, tattooing, piercing, and exposure to infected blood and body fluids, such as saliva and menstrual, vaginal, and seminal fluids
• Sexual Transmission: During intercourse with an infected partner.

Additional Information 

• Vaccination: Hepatitis B infection can be prevented by getting a vaccine and HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin) soon after coming into contact with the virus.
• Persons who have recently been exposed to HBV should get HBIG and vaccine as soon as possible and preferably within 24 hours, but not more than 2 weeks after the exposure.
• 
• In addition to vaccination, there are other simple ways to help stop the spread of hepatitis B:
• Wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water after any potential exposure to blood
• Use condoms with sexual partners
• Avoid direct contact with blood and bodily fluids
• Clean up blood spills with a fresh diluted bleach solution (mix 1 part bleach with 9 parts water)
• Cover all cuts carefully
• Avoid sharing sharp items such as razors, nail clippers, toothbrushes, and earrings or body rings
• Discard sanitary napkins and tampons into plastic bags
• Avoid illegal street drugs (injecting, inhaling, snorting, or popping pills)
• Make sure new, sterile needles are used for ear or body piercing, tattoos, and acupuncture.

The correct answer is Oranges

Key Points

• The fruits containing citric acid are termed citrus fruits. eg: lemon, orange, grapefruit, etc.
• These are sour in taste and are a good source of Vitamin C, thus help in preventing the disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C, i.e., Scurvy.
• Grapes contain a lesser amount of citric acid than lime.
• Banana is a rich source of fiber, potassium, and Vitamin B6.
• Mango is a food source of fiber and Vitamin A and C.

Additional Information

Few naturally occurring acids are -

The correct answer is DNA and proteins.

Key Points

• DNA and proteins of living organisms preferentially absorb UV rays, and their high energy breaks the chemical bonds within these molecules.
• UV rays have high energy, which causes chemical bonds in DNA and protein molecules to break.
• UV rays are absorbed by the human eye and in high doses, it causes inflammation of the cornea. This is called a snow-blindness cataract.
• The cornea may be permanently damaged as a result of this exposure.
• It causes skin aging, skin cell damage, and skin cancers in humans.
• UV rays damage the DNA and proteins of living organisms causing mutation.

Additional Information

• UV radiation of wavelengths shorter than UV-B is almost completely absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, given that the ozone layer is intact.
• But, UV - B damages DNA and mutation may occur.
• It causes aging of the skin, damage to skin cells, and various types of skin cancers.
• In the human eye, the cornea absorbs UV - B radiation, and a high dose of UV - B causes inflammation of the cornea, called snow blindness, cataract, etc.
• Such exposure may permanently damage the cornea.

The correct answer is Ruminant

Key Points

• Methanogenesis
• Methanogenesis or Biomethanation is a process by which organic material is microbiologically converted under anaerobic conditions to biogas.
• Methanogens are microorganisms that produce methane as a by-product of their metabolism.
• Most methanogens are found in the gut of ruminants of cattle as well as humans.
• Biomethanation has a strong potential for the production of energy from organic residues, excreta of cattle, and wastes.
• It will help to reduce the use of fossil fuels and thus reduce CO2 emissions.

Additional Information

• Saprotroph
• Saprotrophs are organisms that feed on dead and decaying organic mass.
• They release hydrolyzing enzymes to digest the nutrients and then absorb the simple digested nutrients like monosaccharides, amino acids, glycerol, etc.
• Examples: Water molds, and E.coli.
• Detrivore
• It refers to the class of organisms that feeds on detritus or organic waste.
• For the uninitiated, detritus is organic matter composed of dead trees, plants, and animals.
• It may also derive nutrition using coprophagy—a nutrition strategy in which detritivores consume the feces of living organisms.
• In a food chain, detritivores occupy the topmost slot.
• Carnivore
• Carnivores are animals that feed on other animals or their tissues. Frogs, snakes, dogs, cats, lions, and tigers are all carnivores.

The correct answer is Kalium

Key Points

• Potassium is a chemical element with the atomic number 19 and the symbol K  and its original name is kalium.
• Potassium is a silvery-white metal that can be cut with a knife with little effort. They have low melting points and low densities.
• In seconds, potassium metal reacts with atmospheric oxygen to form flaky white potassium peroxide.
• It was first isolated from potash, or plant ashes, from which it gets its name.
• The electronic configuration of potassium is [Ar] 4s1.
• In the periodic table, potassium is an alkali metal, which all have a single valence electron in the outer electron shell that is easily removed to form an ion with a positive charge - a cation - that combines with anions to form salts.
• In nature, Potassium occurs only in ionic salts.
• Potassium ions are required for all living cells to function properly.

Additional Information 

Symbols derived from Latin names of elements

The correct answer is Atomic number

Key Points

• Isotopes
• The nuclei have been classified based on the number of protons (atomic number) or the total number of nucleons (mass number) as follows :
• The atoms of an element having the same atomic number but a different mass number are called isotopes. All isotopes have the same chemical properties.

Additional Information

• Atomic weight
• The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is known as its Mass Number and is denoted by A.
• Protons and neutrons are situated in the nucleus of an atom and contribute most to the mass of the elements as the mass of electrons is negligible.
• The atomic number of an atom is the same as the number of protons.
• Neutron
• Sir James Chadwick was an English physicist who won the 1935 Nobel Prize in Physics for his discovery of the neutron in 1932.
• Neutrons and protons are found in the nucleus of an atom
• Proton
• A proton was discovered by Goldstein.
• A proton was named by Rutherford.
• A proton is obtained from an anode rays experiment.
• It is positively charged.
• It is present in the nucleus.

The correct answer is Sewage

Key Points

• Sewer
• A sewer is an underground pipe that carries human waste to a place where it can be treated. There are three types of sewer according to their working:
• Sanitary sewers:  Sanitary sewers carry wastewater from homes and businesses
• Storm sewers: Storm sewers carry rainwater and melting snow
• Combined sewers: carry both wastewater and storm runoff water to wastewater plants

Additional Information

• Different Types of sewer:
• House Sewer:
• A house sewer is a term given to the connection of the horizontal house drainage system to the public sewer.
• Lateral sewer:
• A lateral sewer is an underground pipe that connects a residence or business to the main sewer line.
• Branch Sewer:
• Branch sewers are an integral part of the municipal sewerage system that connects lateral sewer pipes from homes and offices along a street and empties them into the main sewers.
• Outfall Sewer:
• The length of the main or trunk sewer between the connection of the lowest branch and final point of disposal is known as an outfall sewer and it thus conducts the sewage either to the treatment plant or to the point of final discharge.

The correct answer is Platyhelminthes

Key Points

• Phylum Platyhelminthes belongs to the kingdom Animalia.
• The organisms are also known as flatworms.
• These are acoelomates and they include many free-living and parasitic life forms.
• They do not have a digestive tract.
• The space between the body wall and organs is filled with connective tissue parenchyma which helps in transporting the food material.

Additional Information

• Platyhelminthes have the following important characteristics:
• They are triploblastic, acoelomate, and bilaterally symmetrical.
• They may be free-living or parasites.
• The body has a soft covering with or without cilia.
• Their body is dorsoventrally flattened without any segments and appears like a leaf.
• They are devoid of the anus and circulatory system but have a mouth.
• They respire by simple diffusion through the body surface.
• They have an organ level of organization.
• They are hermaphrodites, i.e., both male and female organs are present in the same body.
• They reproduce sexually by fusion of gametes and asexually by regeneration by fission and regeneration.
• The life cycle is complicated with one or more larval stages.
• They possess the quality of regeneration.
• The flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation.

The correct answer is 1981.

Key Points

• Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:
• The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted on May 16, 1981, and amended in 1987 to provide for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution in India.
• It was passed under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, in accordance with the decisions of the Stockholm Conference.
• Aim: To provide means for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution and preserve the quality of air.
• It demarcated high pollution areas as air pollution control areas and no industrial plant shall be operated in these areas without prior consent of the State Pollution Control Board.
• The Central and State Water Boards have been entrusted with the task of controlling and preventing air pollution.

Additional Information 

• Initially, noise pollution was not included in the act.
• Later, by an amendment, noise pollution was considered a form of environmental pollution and thus included.

The correct answer is Albert Einstein

Key Points

• Albert Einstein published the first part of his theory, Special Relativity in the German physics journal Annalen der Physik in 1905 and completed his theory of general relativity only after another decade of difficult work..
• In his four papers, published in November 1915, Einstein laid the foundation of the theory.
• He used general relativity to explain the precession of the perihelion of Mercury.
• General relativity predicted that light would bend in a gravitational field.

Additional Information

• Charles Darwin
• Origin of Species by Natural Selection:  was written by Charles Darwin.
• It was originally published in 1859.
• Darwin, through his theory, argued, that organisms gradually evolve through a process he called “natural selection.”
• Marie Curie
• The term radioactivity was actually coined by Marie Curie.
• Marie Curie became the first woman to be awarded the Nobel prize and the first person to obtain two Nobel prizes when she won the prize for the discovery of Polonium and Radium in 1911.
• Issac Newton
• The three laws of motion were proposed by Sir Isaac Newton.
• Newton was born on January 4, 1643, in Woolsthorpe, Lincolnshire, England.
• Newton's three laws of motion are Law of Inertia, Law of Mass and Acceleration, and the Third Law of Motion.

The correct answer is Peanut

Key Points

• Geocarpic means the production or ripening of fruit beneath the surface of the ground like the peanuts.
• Peanut is also named Hypogea, which means under the earth.
• After pollination, the flower stalk elongates, and then it bends until the ovary touches the ground.
• Geocarpy is generally seen in tropical or semi-desert areas.
• Some geocarpic species are found in the families Convolvulaceae, Moraceae, Cucurbitaceae, Araceae, Begoniaceae, Brassicaceae (Cruciferae), Fabaceae (Leguminosae), and Rubiaceae.

The correct answer is Seconds

Key Points

• The second, symbol s, is the SI unit of time.
• It is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the caesium frequency ΔνCs, the unperturbed ground-state hyperfine transition frequency of the caesium-133 atom, to be 9 192 631 770 when expressed in the unit Hz, which is equal to s–1.
• The SI system: The international systems of units or the SI system is the form of metric system used in the modern era.
• It is based on 7 base units: meter, kilogram, second, ampere, mole, kelvin, and candela

Additional Information

7 Basic SI units with their quantities: 

The correct answer is Mesophyll tissue

Key Points

• Mesophyll cells are found in the plant leaves.
• Within the leaves, the mesophyll cells have a large number of chloroplasts that are responsible for CO2 fixation.
• Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and carries out photosynthesis, is made up of parenchyma.

Additional Information 

• A tissue is a group of cells having a common origin and usually performing a common function in a plant body.
• On the basis the structure and location of the tissues in plants, the tissue system can be of three types- ​
• Epidermal tissue system
• It forms the outermost covering of the plant body.
• It mainly consists of the epidermal cells, stomata, and epidermal appendages like the trichomes and hairs.
• The epidermis is usually single layered parenchymatous cells.
• Epidermis is also covered by a thick waxy layer known as the cuticle.
• Ground or fundamental tissue system
• Ground tissue constitutes all the tissue in a plant except the dermal tissue  and the vascular tissue.
• Ground tissue cells include parenchyma,  collenchyma , and schlerenchyma .
• The ground tissue system is mainly consists of hypodermis, cortical cells, endodermis, pericycle, conjunctive tissue and pith.
• In leaves the ground tissue is called mesophyll.
• Vascular tissue system
• The xylem and phloem are The primary components of vascular tissue.
• They together form the vascular bundle.

Concept:- 

• Environmental cleaning and disinfection play a crucial role in eliminating, reducing, controlling, and isolating reservoirs of organisms in the hospital setting.
• Effective cleaning practices help prevent the spread of infections and ensure a safe environment for patients, healthcare workers, and visitors.​
• Cleaning hallways at least once a day is the bare minimum and might be sufficient in low-traffic areas or smaller healthcare facilities. However, in larger or busier hospitals, this frequency may not be adequate to ensure proper hygiene and could lead to increased infection risk.

Key Points

Categorization of Hospital Areas for Cleaning

1. General Areas

• These areas have only general traffic and do not involve patient admissions or medical procedures. Street clothes and footwear are worn in these spaces, and they require routine cleaning. Examples include:
• Corridors and hallways
• Waiting areas and registration counters
• Parking spaces and hospital entrances

2. Patient Care Areas

• These are critical zones where patients are admitted, and medical care and procedures are performed. Proper disinfection is essential to prevent cross-contamination and hospital-acquired infections (HAIs). Examples include:
• Wards and Intensive Care Units (ICUs)
• Operation Theatres (OTs)
• Diagnostic laboratories

Types of Hospital Surfaces and Cleaning Frequency

1. High-Touch Surfaces

These are surfaces that come into frequent contact with hands and pose a higher risk of microbial transmission. They require frequent and thorough cleaning to prevent infection spread. Examples include:

• Doorknobs and handles
• Elevator buttons and telephones
• Light switches and bedrails
• Computer keyboards and medical equipment (e.g., monitors, haemodialysis machines)
• Wall areas around toilets and curtain edges in patient areas

2. Low-Touch Surfaces

These are surfaces with minimal hand contact and a lower risk of infection transmission. Although they require less frequent cleaning, they should be cleaned promptly when visibly soiled. Examples include:

• Floors and walls
• Ceilings and mirrors
• Window sills and other rarely touched surfaces

The correct answer is −2

Key Points

• The oxidation number of Oxygen in most compounds is -2.
• The oxidation number denotes the oxidation state of an element in a compound.
• When Oxygen is bonded to Fluorine in compounds like Oxygen difluoride(OF2) and dioxygen diflouride(O2F2), the oxygen is assigned an oxidation number of +2 and +1 respectively. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
• In peroxide, an Oxygen atom is assigned an oxidation number of -1 and in Superoxide, each oxygen atom is assigned an oxidation number of -1/2.

The correct answer  is Transpiration

Key Points

• Transpiration is the biological process by which water is lost in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plants.
• Transpiration assists in pulling water up from roots to leaves and this is known as the transpiration pull.
• As the water evaporates from the leaves, it creates an upward pull of water in the xylem vessels.
• This causes the roots to absorb water from the surroundings through suction and pass the water to other parts of the plant.
• This upward movement of water and minerals from the root to the aerial parts of the plant is known as the Ascent of Sap.
• This ascent of sap was explained using the Cohesion tension theory.
• The theory states that transpiration pull or tension, cohesion property of water, and hydration of the cell walls (i.e., adhesion) are collectively responsible for the ascent of sap.
• Water movement through the xylem is caused by the pressure difference between one end of the system and the other.
• Advantages of transpiration - 
• The loss of water vapour through evaporation from the plant cools the plant down when the weather is very hot.
• Water from the stem and roots moves upwards or is 'pulled' into the leaves through suction.
• Creates the transpiration pull which helps in the absorption of water and minerals and also helps in their transportation.
• Supplies the water for photosynthesis.
• Helps in maintaining the shape and structure of the plants by keeping the cells rigid.

Additional Information 

• Factors affecting transpiration -
• Temperature
• The higher the temperature, the more is the evaporation of water.
• This leads to an increase in transpiration.
• Humidity
• High humidity decreases the rate of transpiration.
• Air movement
• When the air movement around the leaves is faster, it leads to an increase in the evaporation rate.
• Ultimately leading to an increase in the rate of evaporation.
• Light intensity
• Light stimulates the opening of stomata which results in water vapour diffusing faster.
• This results in an increase in the rate of transpiration.

The correct answer is Blue

Key Points

• Blue color has the shortest wavelength.
• Blue light has the shortest wavelength.
• White light is a combination of all colors in the color spectrum. It has all the colors of the rainbow.
• The order of colors in light, arranged from shortest wavelength to longest, is called the visible spectrum of light.

Important Points

• The image below shows light's visible spectrum, which runs from violet to red. You might recognize the spectrum as the order of colors in a rainbow.

The correct answer is Symbiosis

Key Points

• Symbiosis is the interaction between two different organisms living in a close physical association. Members of the different population (species) often interact with each other, in various ways in their environment.
• Their interactions are based on three factors:-
• Nature of food and mode of obtaining it.
• Kind of space needed as a shelter.
• Habits such as aggregation, breeding etc.
• These interactions may be positive, Negative or Neutral.
• Positive interaction: Both the species are benefited. For example- Mutualism, Protocooperation.
• Negative interaction: One species is harmed. For example- Ammensalism, Parasitism, predation.
• Neutral interaction: Neither species benefits nor suffers. For example- Lactobacillus and Streptococcus.

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Explanation:

• The term symbiosis means "living together'' (G. syn = together, bios = life).
• Symbiosis includes all interactions in which two species actually live together without regard to benefit or harm to the participants (de Bary, 1879).
• It thus includes commensalism, protocooperation, mutualism, ammensalism and parasitism.
• Hence, symbiosis may be defined as a short or life - long intimate association of two different species as a means of obtaining food by one or both the partners but may also provide protection to one member from enemies, thus in general both the species gets benefited. The species participating in symbiosis are termed as symbionts.

The correct answer is Aerosols 

Key Points

• A colloid is a mixture in which one substance of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles is suspended throughout another substance.
• Dispersed phase: The phase that is scattered or present as colloidal particles is known as the dispersed phase.
• Dispersion medium: The medium in which the colloidal particles are dispersed is called dispersion medium.
• Aerosol: It contains small particles of liquid or solid dispersed in a gas.
• In aerosol, the dispersion medium is gas while the dispersed phase can be both solid and liquid.
• Aerosol is a kind of colloid in which Solid/Liquid is dispersed in gas.
• Example of aerosols is smoke, fog and mist

 Additional Information

FEW IMPORTANT TYPES OF COLLOIDAL SOLUTION.

The correct answer is O

Key Points

• Atomic radius - 
• The shortest distance between the atom's nuclei and the outermost shell of the atom is called the 'Atomic Radius'.
• The exact value of the atomic radius of an atom cannot be known.
• Because the atom is not found in a free state nor can the exact position of the electron be known.​
• In general, the atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group.
• The atomic radius of these elements is as follows:

The correct answer is Angstrom

Key Points

• Angstrom (Å) is a SI unit of wavelength of light.
• 1 Angstrom (Å) = 10−10 metre, or 0.1 nanometer.
• It is named after the Swedish physicist Anders Jonas Ångström.
• This unit is also used for chemical bond length and the size of microscopic structures
• The wavelength can be defined as the distance between two successive crests or troughs of a wave.

Important Points 

• X-ray wavelength values typically range from 1 to 10 Å.
• The number of waves that pass through a given point in one second is called the frequency.
• Unit is cycles per second called Hertz.
• Red has the longest wavelength and violet has the shortest wavelength.

The correct answer is Cutting very hard substances.

Key Points

• Silicon carbide is used for cutting hard substances.
• Silicon carbide (SiC) is a chemical compound containing both silicon and carbon.
• It is a crystalline solid.
• It is prepared by combining silica (sand, SiO2) and carbon (coke, C) at high temperatures in graphite-resistive electric furnaces.
• It is due to the  highly abrasive nature of Silicon carbide that it is used for cutting hard substances like diamonds, ceramics, etc.

Additional Information

• Silicon (Si) is a solid metalloid i.e. it possess properties of both metals and non-metals.
• It is present in group 14 of modern periodic table and has the atomic number 14.
• It belongs to the carbon family and is tetravalent i.e. it has four valancies.
• Silicon is used for making alloys with other metals e.g. iron-silicon, aluminium-silicon etc.
• Silicon is a semiconductor and is widely used in electronic devices like television, smartphones etc.

The correct answer is Hypermetropia

Key Points

• Hypermetropia:
• Hypermetropia is a vision defect also known as a long-sightedness defect.
• A person suffering from this is able to see distant objects clearly but unable to see nearby objects clearly.
• This happens because the light enters the eye and forms the image behind the retina, instead of on the retina.
• It generally occurs in elder age group people.
• It is corrected with the convex lens spectacles.

Additional Information

• Myopia:
• It is also known as a nearsightedness defect, In this person is unable to see the distant object clearly but can see the nearby objects clearly.
• This happens because the light falling on the eye forms the image in front of the retina instead of the retina.
• It is generally found in younger age groups.
• It is corrected with the concave lens spectacles.
• Presbyopia:
• A person suffering from this defect is unable to see nearby objects clearly.
• It is corrected with the bifocal lens.
• Bifocal lenses consist of both concave and convex lenses so as to correct the sightedness and will be able to see nearby as well distant objects clearly.

The correct answer is Filtration

Key Points

• Filtration:
• Filtration is the process in which solid particles in a liquid or gaseous fluid are removed by the use of a filter medium that permits the fluid to pass through but retains the solid particles.
• Either the clarified fluid or the solid particles removed from the fluid may be the desired product.
• In some processes used in the production of chemicals, both the fluid filtrate and the solid filter cake are recovered. Other media, such as electricity, light, and sound, also can be filtered.

Additional Information

• Rainwater harvesting:
• Rainwater harvesting (RWH) is the collection and storage of rain, rather than allowing it to run off.
• Rainwater is collected from a roof-like surface and redirected to a tank, cistern, deep pit (well, shaft, or borehole), aquifer, or reservoir with percolation so that it seeps down and restores the groundwater.
• Dew and fog can also be collected with nets or other tools.
• Rainwater harvesting differs from stormwater harvesting as the runoff is typically collected from roofs and other surfaces for storage and subsequent reuse.
• Sublimation:
• Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.
• Evaporation:
• Evaporation is a type of vaporization that occurs on the surface of a liquid as it changes into the gas phase.
• A high concentration of the evaporating substance in the surrounding gas significantly slows down evaporation, such as when humidity affects the rate of evaporation of water.

The correct answer is 1774, Joseph Priestley

Key Points

• Oxygen
• It is the chemical element with the symbol O and atomic number 8.
• It is a member of the chalcogen group in the periodic table, a highly reactive nonmetal, and an oxidizing agent that readily forms oxides with most elements as well as with other compounds.
• When Joseph Priestley discovered oxygen in 1774, he answered age-old questions of why and how things burn.

Additional Information

• Symbol: O
• Atomic mass: 15.999 u
• Atomic number: 8
• Electron configuration: [He] 2s²2p⁴
• Electronegativity: 3.44
• Discoverers: Joseph Priestley, Antoine Lavoisier, Carl Wilhelm Scheele

The correct answer is sub directories

Key Points

• Sub directories are the directories located under the root directory in a file system.
• They help in organizing files and other directories in a hierarchical structure, making it easier to manage and navigate the file system.
• Each subdirectory can contain files and additional subdirectories, creating a tree-like structure.
• The root directory is the top-most directory in a file system, and all other directories are its subdirectories.

Additional Information

• File systems are used to control how data is stored and retrieved on a storage device.
• Common file systems include NTFS, FAT32, ext4, and HFS+.
• File systems provide a way to separate the data into pieces and give each piece a name, making it easy to locate and access the data.
• Directories (or folders) are a key component of file systems, allowing users to create a structured and organized method of storing data.
• Proper organization of directories can significantly enhance system performance and user efficiency.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• CAD stands for Computer Aided Design.
• CAD is a software technology used by architects, engineers, and designers to create 2D and 3D models of products and structures.
• CAD software helps to improve accuracy, reduce errors, and increase productivity in the design process.
• CAD is used in a variety of industries including automotive, aerospace, and construction.

 Additional Information

• Computer add dialog: There is no such term as "computer add dialog" in the field of computer-aided design.
• Computer Aided Data: - This option is incorrect as "data" is a broad term and does not specifically refer to the process of design.
• Computer Aided Diagram: This option is incorrect as "diagram" is a specific type of visual representation and does not encompass the entire design process.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• Modern computers process binary numbers, which consist of only two digits (0 and 1).
• All other types of numbers, such as decimal, hexadecimal, and strings, are converted to binary before being processed by the computer.
• Binary numbers are used by computers because they can be easily represented by the on/off switches of transistors, which are the building blocks of modern processors.
• Binary numbers are also used because they are easy to manipulate using logical operations, such as AND, OR, and NOT.

 Additional Information

• Decimal numbers: Are commonly used by humans, but they require more storage space and processing power to handle than binary numbers.
• Digits and strings: Are processed by computers, but they are first converted to binary before being processed.
• Hexadecimal numbers: Aare also converted to binary before being processed, as they are not a native format for computers.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• A software interrupt is a type of interrupt generated by a program or software running on the microprocessor system.
• It is used to request a service from the operating system or to perform a specific task.

 Additional Information

• Media interrupt: It is not a type of interrupt in a microprocessor system. It is not related to the functioning of the microprocessor.
• Physical interrupt: It is not a type of interrupt in a microprocessor system. It refers to a physical event that interrupts the normal functioning of the system, such as a power outage or a hardware failure.
• Device interrupt: It is a type of interrupt in a microprocessor system. It is generated by a peripheral device to request attention or to provide data to the microprocessor.

The correct answer is option 1.

 Key Points

• The correct term in computer lingo for a mistake in hardware/software is "glitch".
• A glitch can be caused by various factors such as coding errors, hardware malfunctions, and power outages.

 Additional Information

• Slug: It is not a term related to computer lingo. It refers to a slow-moving, slimy creature.
• Squid: It is also not a term related to computer lingo. It refers to a sea creature with tentacles.
• Leech: It is not a term related to computer lingo. It refers to a blood-sucking worm-like creature.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• Main Memory is an essential part of a desktop computer.
• Main Memory, also known as RAM, is used to store data and programs that are currently in use by the computer.

 Additional Information

• Working Memory: It is another term for Main Memory or RAM.
• Real Memory: It refers to physical memory installed in a computer, including both RAM and ROM.
• Virtual Memory: It is a type of memory that allows a computer to use hard disk space as if it were RAM when the actual RAM is full.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Windows 95, Windows 98, and Windows NT are all operating systems developed by Microsoft.
• An operating system is a software that manages computer hardware and software resources and provides common services for computer programs.

 Additional Information

• Processors: Processors are the hardware component that executes instructions in a computer.
• Modem: A modem is a hardware component that allows a computer to connect to the internet or other networks.
• Domain Name: A domain name is a part of a network address that identifies it as belonging to a particular domain.

The correct answer is option 4.

 Key Points

• A firewall is a security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
• A network firewall is a type of firewall that is placed between two or more networks and monitors the network traffic between them.
• Network firewalls can be hardware-based or software-based, and they can be configured to allow or block traffic based on various criteria such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, and applications.
• Network firewalls are essential for securing enterprise networks from external threats such as hackers, viruses, and malware.

 Additional Information

• Double Firewall: This is a configuration in which two firewalls are placed between two or more networks to provide an extra layer of security. It is also known as a DMZ (demilitarized zone) or screened subnet.
• Host-based Firewall: This is a type of firewall that is installed on a single host or endpoint device to protect it from external threats. It is typically used in conjunction with network firewalls to provide a layered defense.
• Security Firewall: This is not a standard term in the firewall industry and may refer to any type of firewall that provides security features.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• RAM (Random Access Memory) is the primary storage device used in computers.
• RAM is volatile memory, which means it loses all data when the power is turned off.
• It stores data temporarily for quick access by the CPU (Central Processing Unit).

 Additional Information

• CDs: CDs are optical storage devices used for storing data permanently. They are not used as primary storage devices.
• DVDs: DVDs are also optical storage devices used for storing data permanently. They are not used as primary storage devices.
• Pen drives: Pen drives are secondary storage devices used for storing data permanently. They are not used as primary storage devices.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• GIS stands for Geographical Information Systems.
• It is a system designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage, and present spatial or geographic data.
• GIS is widely used in various fields such as urban planning, environmental management, transportation, and public health.
• GIS technology allows users to visualize, question, analyze, and interpret data to understand relationships, patterns, and trends.

 Additional Information

• Geographical International Studies: This option is incorrect as GIS stands for Geographical Information Systems, not Geographical International Studies.
• Global Institute for Soils: This option is incorrect as GIS does not stand for Global Institute for Soils. GIS is a technology used for spatial data analysis and management, not specifically for soils.
• Global Information Statistics: This option is incorrect as GIS does not stand for Global Information Statistics. GIS is a technology used for spatial data analysis and management, not specifically for statistics.

The correct answer is option 4.

 Key Points

• Control lines in RAM hold data that is being transferred to or from memory, acting as a buffer between the CPU and RAM.
• These lines help regulate the flow of data, ensuring that the CPU and RAM are not overwhelmed with too much information at once.

 Additional Information

• Connects RAM and Difficult Disks: It is incorrect as control lines are not responsible for connecting RAM and hard disks.
• Connect CPU and RAM: It is also incorrect as this is the role of the address and data lines, not the control lines.
• Erase data that is being transferred to or from memory: It is incorrect as the control lines do not erase data, but rather hold it temporarily.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• The OSI model is a conceptual model that characterizes and standardizes the communication functions of a telecommunication or computing system.
• The OSI model has seven layers, with layer one being the Physical layer.
• The Physical layer is responsible for transmitting raw data bits over a communication channel.
• This layer defines the physical characteristics of the network, such as the medium used for transmission, the connectors, and the electrical and signaling specifications.

 Additional Information

• Link layer: It is layer two of the OSI model responsible for providing reliable transmission of data frames between two nodes connected by a physical layer.
• Router layer: It is not a layer in the OSI model, but routers operate at the Network layer (layer three) and provide internetwork communication services.
• Broadcast layer: It is not a layer in the OSI model and is not a commonly used term in networking.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• Device Management performs the function of buffering and spooling in a computer system.
• Buffering refers to temporarily holding data in a buffer or cache to improve system performance and reduce delays.
• Spooling, on the other hand, involves storing data temporarily in a queue or spooling area until it can be processed by a device.

 Additional Information

• File Management: It involves organizing and managing files and directories on a computer system.
• Processor Management: It involves managing the CPU and allocating resources to different processes.
• Memory Management: It involves managing and allocating memory resources to different processes and applications.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• Eclipse IDE allows for editing, building, debugging, and compiling the program.
• Some of the features of an Eclipse IDE include code highlighting, code completion, and code refactoring.
• An Eclipse IDE also allows for the use of plugins to extend its functionality and support different programming languages.
• Overall, an Eclipse IDE is a powerful tool for developers that provides a comprehensive environment for building and debugging software applications.

​ 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because an Eclipse IDE does more than just editing and compiling the program.
• Option 2 is incorrect because an Eclipse IDE is not just a compiler, it is a complete integrated development environment.
• Option 4 is incorrect because an Eclipse IDE does more than just editing and compiling the program.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• When a machine is turned on, the startup routines that execute are collectively known as the boot process.
• The BOOT up is refers to the process of loading the operating system into memory and preparing it for use.

 Additional Information

• I/O operation: It refers to input/output operations that occur during the boot process, such as detecting connected devices and initializing their drivers.
• POST (Power-On Self-Test): It is a diagnostic process that occurs during the boot process to check the hardware components of the machine and ensure they are functioning properly.
• Operating outline: It is not a commonly used term in reference to the boot process. It is possible that it refers to the process of loading the system's configuration and settings, but this is typically included in the overall boot process.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• The fundamental idea behind how a mouse functions is based on electro-mechanical principles.
• When a user moves the mouse, a ball or optical sensor inside the mouse moves as well, which then sends signals to the computer to move the cursor on the screen.
• The signals are sent through a wire or wireless connection, depending on the type of mouse being used.
• Electro-mechanical mice have been largely replaced by optical or laser mice, which use light sensors instead of a ball to track movement.

Additional Information

• Electro-magnetic: These principles are used in devices like speakers and headphones, but not in the functioning of a computer mouse.
• Electro-operational: The term "electro-operational" does not have a clear meaning in the context of a computer mouse.
• Electro-optical: Optical mice do use light sensors to track movement, but this is only one part of the overall electro-mechanical process that enables a mouse to function.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• Storage capacity refers to the amount of data that can be stored in a storage unit.

 Additional Information

• Storage data: It is not a commonly used term and may be confusing.
• Storage quantity: It is not a commonly used term in the context of storage units.
• Storage power: It refers to the power or energy required to operate a storage unit and is not related to the amount of data it can hold.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• MySQL is a relational database management system that provides various functions to manage databases efficiently.
• It allows us to create art: This is not a function of MySQL as it is a database management system and is not related to creating art.

 Additional Information

• It allows us to implement database operations on tables, rows, columns, and indexes: This is a correct function of MySQL as it allows users to perform various operations on the database.
• It provides the Referential Integrity between rows or columns of various tables: This is a correct function of MySQL as it ensures that the data in the database is consistent and accurate.
• It allows us to updates the table indexes automatically: This is a correct function of MySQL as it automatically updates the indexes when changes are made to the database.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• Office Vista is not a valid version of MS Office.
• Office XP, Office 2007, and Office 2003 are all valid versions of MS Office.

 Additional Information

• Office XP (also known as Office 2002): It was released in 2001 and is no longer supported by Microsoft.
• Office 2007: It was released in 2007 and introduced the ribbon interface.
• Office 2003: It was released in 2003 and is no longer supported by Microsoft.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Transforming data is a computer function as it involves manipulating and changing raw data into a more useful format.
• Transforming data is a fundamental function of computers, which allows for tasks such as data analysis and visualization.
• Transportation, construction, and fabrication are not computer functions as they are physical processes that do not involve the use of a computer.

 Additional Information

• Transportation: It is the movement of goods or people from one place to another and is not a computer function.
• Construction: It involves the building of structures or objects and does not involve the use of a computer.
• Fabrication: It is the process of creating or manufacturing goods and does not necessarily involve the use of a computer, although it may be used in some aspects of the process.

The logic followed here is:

Alternate Method

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given equation: 10 + 10 ÷ 10 − 10 × 10 = 10

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) ÷ and +

Given: 10 + 10 ÷ 10 − 10 × 10 = 10

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 10 ÷ 10 + 10 − 10 × 10

⇒ 1 + 10 − 100 = −89 

⇒−89 ≠ 10

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) + and ×

Given: 10 + 10 ÷ 10 − 10 × 10 = 10

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 10 × 10 ÷ 10 − 10 + 10

⇒ 10 × 1 - 10 + 10

⇒ 10 - 10 + 10

⇒ 20 - 10

⇒ 10 = 10

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) + and ÷

Given: 10 + 10 ÷ 10 − 10 × 10 = 10

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 10 ÷ 10 + 10 − 10 × 10

⇒−89 ≠ 10

⇒ LHS ≠  RHS

Option 4) + and -

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 10 − 10 ÷ 10 + 10 × 10

⇒  10 − 1 + 100 = 109 

⇒ 109 ≠ 10

⇒ LHS ≠  RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Given: 6 ? 45 ? 9 ? 8 ? 3 ? 25

According to the question,

Let's check options one by one:

Option 1) ÷, ×, +, − and =

⇒ 6 ÷ 45 × 9 + 8 - 3 = 25

⇒ 1.2 + 8 - 3 = 25

⇒ 9.2 - 3 = 6.2 ≠ 25

Option 2) −, +, ×, ÷ and =

⇒ 6 - 45 + 9 × 8 ÷ 3 = 25

⇒  6 - 45 + 24 = 25

⇒ 30 - 45 = - 15 ≠ 25

Option 3) +, ÷, ×, − and =

⇒ 6 + 45 ÷ 9 × 8 − 3 = 25

⇒ 6 + 40 - 3 = 25

⇒ 46 - 3 = 43 ≠ 25

Option 4) ×, ÷, −, + and =

⇒  6 × 45 ÷ 9 - 8 + 3 = 25

⇒ 30 - 8 + 3 = 25

⇒ 33 - 8 = 25

LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

All options except ‘Walrus’ are fur-bearing animals.

Additional Information

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Walrus".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Number of letters of word

Except Education all other words has 5 letters, whereas Education has 9 letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

(22.99 + 17.01) ÷ 1.998 × 3.997 - 41.998 + 644.199 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

(22.99 + 17.01) ÷ 1.998 × 3.997 - 41.998 + 644.199 = ?

Let the unknown number be x.

22.99 ≈ 23, 17.01 ≈  17, 1.998 ≈ 2, 3.997 ≈ 4, 41.998 ≈ 42, and  644.199 ≈ 644

⇒ (23 + 17) ÷ 2 × 4 - 42 + 644 = x

⇒ 40 ÷ 2 × 4 - 42 + 644 = x

⇒ 40 × 1/2 × 4 - 42 + 644 = x 

⇒ 80 - 42 + 644 = x

⇒ 724 - 42 = x

∴ x = 682

The logic followed here is:

Position of Kapil from the right = 8th

Position of Nikunj from the left = 12th

After interchanging, Position of Nikunj from the left = 21st

So, Total number of boys = Position of Kapil from the right + Position of Nikunj from the left after interchange - 1

⇒  8 + 21 - 1 = 29 - 1 = 28.

Now, Position of Kapil from the left = Position of Nikunj from the left before interchange = 12th

Thus, Position of Kapil from the right = Total number of boys - Position of Kapil from the left + 1

⇒  28 - 12 + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: - 2 in the alternate letter's place value.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

→  Sumit's rank from the last = 17th

→ Total number of students in the class = 39

So, Sumit's rank from the start = Total number of students - Sumit's

rank from the last + 1

⇒ 39 - 17 + 1 = 23

→  Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit.

So, Ravi's rank from the start = Sumit's rank from the start - 7

⇒  23 - 7 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the positional value of letter × 3 = code.

For, FRY = 147

⇒ (6 + 18 + 25 )× 3 = 147

⇒ 49 × 3 = 147.

For, ROAR = 156

⇒ (18 + 15 + 1 + 18) × 3 = 156

⇒ 52 × 3 = 156.

Similarly, 

 BITE = ?

⇒ (2 + 9 + 20 + 5) × 3 = ?

⇒ 36 ×3 = 108.

Thus, BITE = 108.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 20 - 5 ÷ 12 × 3 + 4 = ?

Given: 20 - 5 ÷ 12 × 3 + 4 = ?

Decoding the given information:

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 20 ÷ 5 + 12 - 3 × 4

= 20 ÷ 5 + 12 - 3 × 4

= 4 + 12 - 12

= 4 + 12 - 12

= 16 - 12

= 4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

→ Position of Anmol from upwards = 11th

→ Position of Anmol from downwards = 15th

So, Total number of students who passed = Position of Anmol from

upwards + Position of Anmol from downwards - 1

⇒ 11 + 15 - 1 = 26 - 1 = 25.

→ Total number of students in the class = 45

→ Number of students who failed = Total number of students in the

class - Total number of students who passed

⇒ 45 - 25 = 20.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The mirror image will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 60 + 72 − 24 ÷ 18 × 35 = ?

Decoding the signs:

 

According to the questions: 60 + 72 − 24 ÷ 18 × 35 = ?

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 60 - 72 ÷ 24 × 18 + 35 = ?

⇒ 60 - 3 × 18 + 35 = ?

⇒ 60 - 54 + 35 = ?

⇒ 60 - 19 = ?

⇒ 41

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Among five cars,

1. P's speed is less than N's speed as well as C's speed.

N/C, > P

R's speed is less than C's speed but more than P's.

N/C, > R, > P

F's speed is more than C's. N's speed is neither highest nor second highest.

F, > C, > N/R, > P.

Thus, the Either (N) or (R) car's speed is second lowest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The number of triangle in the given figure are:

Thus, the number of triangle are 24.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the digits of 1st number × 3 =  second number.

Let's check options one by one.

Option 1) 79 ∶ 48

⇒ (7 + 9) × 3 = 48

⇒ 16 × 3 = 48

Option 2) 48 ∶ 36

⇒ (4 + 8) × 3 = 48

⇒ 12 × 3 = 36

Option 3) 59 ∶ 17

⇒ (5 + 9) × 3 = 48

⇒ 14 + 3 = 17

Here, pattern doesn't follow.

Option 4) 87 ∶ 45

⇒ (8 + 7) × 3 = 48

⇒ 15 × 3 = 45

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Number³ + Number) : (Number + 1)³ + Number + 1

Now,

For, 10 : 30

⇒ 2³ + 2 : 3³ + 3

⇒ 8 + 2 : 27 + 3

⇒ 10 : 30

Similarly, 68 : ?

⇒ 4³ + 4 : 5³ + 5

⇒ 64 + 4 : 125 + 5

⇒ 68 : 130

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Calculation:

The number of professors interested in playing Hockey is 8% 

 The professors interested in playing Football, Hockey and Badminton together is 17% + 8% + 18% = 43%

∴ Required percentage = $\dfrac{8}{43} \times 100$ = 18.60%

⇒ 18.60% $\simeq$ 18 %

Statements:

Some P are Q.

No Q is R.

Some R are not T.

The least Possible venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

I. Some P are not R - Follow(because, some P are Q, and No Q is R, it implies that Common part of Q which is P can never be R).

II. All T can be R - Follow(because, some R are not T, it implies that some R can be T and all T are R is a possibility).

Thus, both Conclusions I and II follow

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Two coins and one dice are thrown together

Concept Used:

So, the probability (P) of rolling an odd number is the number of desired outcomes (d) divided by the number of total possible outcomes (t).

P = d/t

Calculation:

A regular, fair six-sided die has six possible outcomes: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.

Three of those outcomes are odd numbers: 1, 3, and 5.

In this case, the probability of rolling an odd number is:

P = 3/6 =  1/2 

So, there's 1/2  chance of rolling an odd number on a fair six-sided die, regardless of the outcome of the two tossed coins.

Statements:

All roses are fruits.

All fruits are trees.

The least possible Venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

I. All trees are roses - Doesn't Follow(because, All roses are fruits, and All fruits are trees, it implies that all roses are tree, so it can be possible only)

II. Some fruits are roses - **Follow(**because, All roses are fruits, it implies that some fruits are roses as well).

Thus, Only Conclusion II follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Principal amount = Rs. 25000.

Simple Interest =  Rs. 12500, Time = 5 years.

Concept Used:

Simple Interest = $\dfrac{Principal × Rate × Time}{100}$

Rate of Interest = $\dfrac{Simple Interest }{Principal } × 100$

Calculation:

Simple Interest of 1 year = $\dfrac{12500}{5 }$ = Rs.2500.

Rate of Interest = $\dfrac{2500}{25000 } × 100$  = 10% 

Compound Interest for 5 years =  25000 × (1 + 0.1/1) ^(1*5) 

= 25000 * (1.1) ⁵ A

= 40722.48

So, the compound interest accrued would be A - P = 40722.48 - 25000 = Rs. 15722.48.

The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either of the statements alone

The number of triangles in the given figure are:

Thus, The number of triangles in the given figure are "31".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Word:

IMPRACTICABLE

1. PEACE→ Cannot be formed

2. PARTICLE →  Can be formed

3. PRACTICAL→ Can be formed

4. CAPABLE → Can be formed

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Six people are sitting in a linear row from left to right facing north.

L sits second to left of N, who is sitting to right of P. At most one person sits to right of P.

K sits towards left of M, who sits towards right of O.  O sits to left of P and doesn't sits at any of extreme ends.

Thus, L sits the second to right of O.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Total seats = 6

Three married couples, spouses must sit next to each other.

Formula Used:

Total arrangements = Arrangements of couples × Arrangements of individuals within couples

Calculations:

Step 1: Treat each couple as one unit. There are 3 couples, so there are 3 units to arrange.

Total arrangements of 3 units = 3! = 6

Step 2: Within each couple, there are 2 possible arrangements (husband and wife can switch places).

Total arrangements within couples = 2 × 2 × 2 = 2³ = 8

Step 3: Multiply the arrangements:

⇒ Total arrangements = 3! × 2³

⇒ Total arrangements = 6 × 8

⇒ Total arrangements = 48

∴ The total number of possible arrangements is 48.

Given: P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre.

T is second to the right of R who is third to the right of P.

S is second to the left of P and fourth to the right of Q.

Z is third to the right of V who is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Final arrangement,

Thus, the Z is second to the right of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Fear of specific things or situations.

Here,

Bacteriophobia : Bacteria → Bacteriophobia is the fear of bacteria.

Similarly,

Lygophobia : Darkness → Lygophobia is the fear of darkness.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Calculation:

Total wheat consumption from 2004 to 2006 :

⇒ 400 + 425 = 825

Total rice consumption from 2004 to 2006 :

⇒ 350 + 550 = 900

∴ Required Percentage = $\dfrac{825}{900} \times 100$ = 825/9 = 91.66 ≈ 92%

Concept Used;

Highest percentage of marks = Total marks obtained in 3 subjects / 285 × 100

Calculation:

Total marks in all 3 subjects = 95 × 3 = 285.

Percentage of marks obtained by Rajeev :

⇒ $\dfrac{78+42+72}{285 } \times 100$ = $\dfrac{192}{285 } \times 100$ = 67.36%

Percentage of marks obtained by Narendra :

⇒ $\dfrac{44+68+80}{285 } \times 100$  = $\dfrac{192}{285 } \times 100$= 67.36%

Percentage of marks obtained by Amit :

⇒ $\dfrac{90+88+74}{285 } \times 100$ = $\dfrac{252}{285 } \times 100$ = 88.72%

Percentage of marks obtained by Veena :

⇒ $\dfrac{68+55+78}{285 } \times 100$ = $\dfrac{201}{285 } \times 100$ = 70.52%

Percentage of marks obtained by Ramesh:

⇒ $\dfrac{92+64+52}{285 } \times 100$ = $\dfrac{208}{285 } \times 100$ = 72.92%

∴ The highest Score is obtained by Amit.

Calculation:

The number of males in colony E = 41 

Number of females in the same colony E = 39 

∴ Required Percentage = $\dfrac{41 - 39}{39} \times 100$  = 5.12%

Given:

Total number of employees in a company is 220.

The number of females in the company is 20% more than that of males.

The average salary of males is 20% more than the salary of females.

Calculation:

Let the number of males in the company be 5x.

Number of females in the company = 5x × (6/5) = 6x

Total number of employees = 220

According to the question

5x + 6x = 220

⇒ x = 20

Number of male employees in the company = 5x = 5 × 20 = 100

Number of females employees in the company = 6x = 6 × 20 = 120

Average salary of all employees = 36,000

⇒ Sum of salary of all employees = 36,000 × 220

Let the average salary of females be 5a.

Average salary of males = 5a × 6/5 = 6a

Sum of salary of males employees = 6a × 100 = 600a

Sum of salary of females employees = 5a × 120 = 600a

According to the question

600a + 600a = 36,000 × 220

⇒ a = 6600

∴ 6a = 6600 × 6 = 39,600

∴ The correct answer is 39,600.