MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 09 Apr, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Correct answer is Queen Victoria

Key PointsAs per the Government of India Act 1858, The Queen was to become the legal owner of the Company's lands in India, and the Company was to relinquish all authority and control over those areas. The Queen was to be the head of state in India. It was Queen Victoria under who's supremacy the nation went after the Government of India Act, 1858.

• Government of India Act of 1858:
• East India Company's rule came to an end and the Indian Administration came under the direct control of the Crown.
• In England, the Court of Directors and Board of Control were abolished.
• In their place came the Secretary of State for India and the India council was established.
• The Secretary of State would be a member of the British cabinet.
• Lord Stanley was made the 1st Secretary of State for India.
• India Council consisting of 15 members would assist him.
• The Governor-General of India was also made the Viceroy of India.
• The 1st Viceroy of India was Lord Canning.

correct answer is Portuguese

Key Points

• Vasco-da-Gama
• Vasco-da-Gama a Portuguese explorer discovered the sea route to India in 1498.
• His initial voyage to India was by way of the Cape of Good Hope.
• He was the first to link Europe and Asia by an ocean route, connecting the Atlantic and the Indian oceans.
• Da Gama's discovery of the sea route to India opened the way for an age of global imperialism.
• It enabled the Portuguese to establish a long-lasting colonial empire along the way from Africa to Asia.

Additional Information Other travelers: 

• Christopher Columbus
• ​Christopher Columbus was an Italian explorer and navigator.
• He completed four Spanish-based voyages across the Atlantic Ocean sponsored by the Catholic Monarchs of Spain.
• He opened the way for the widespread European exploration and colonization of the Americas.
• His expeditions were the first known European contact with the Caribbean, Central America, and South America.
• Ibn Battuta
• Ibn Battuta ​was a Berber Maghrebi scholar and explorer.
• He traveled extensively in the lands of Afro-Eurasia.
• He visited most of southern Eurasia, including Central Asia, Southeast Asia, South Asia, China, and the Iberian Peninsula.
• Hsuan Tsang
• Hsuan Tsang was a 7th-century Chinese Buddhist monk, scholar, traveler, and translator.
• He is known for the epoch-making contributions to Chinese Buddhism.

The correct answer is 13th Century

Key Points

• Sun Temple of Konark
• It is built in the 13th century by Narasimhadeva I.
• It is dedicated to the Hindu Sun God Surya.
• It is a part of the UNESCO world heritage site.
• It is a classic illustration of Kalinga architecture.
• Narasimhadev I
• He was a powerful monarch of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• He was the first king from Kalinga who took the offensive against the Islamic expansion.
• He built the Konark temple to commemorate his victories over the Muslims.

Additional Information 

• The shore temple of Mahabalipuram was built by Narasimhavarman II.
• He was also known as Rajasimha.

The correct answer is Shiwaliks.

Key Points

• The Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas: 
• It is situated between the Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan Himalayas in the east.
• Known for its fast-flowing rivers such as Tista, it is a region of high mountain peaks like Kanchenjunga and deep valleys.
• The Lepcha tribes occupy the higher reaches of this region, while the Nepalis, Bengalis, and tribals from Central India populate the southern reaches.
• This region provides the perfect condition like moderate slope, thick soil cover with high organic content, well-distributed rainfall throughout the year, and mild winters for the tea plantation.
• In this region, 'Duar formation' occurs instead of Shivalik formation, which has also been used for the development of tea gardens.

The correct answer is Prasanth Kumar.

Key Points 

• Prasanth Kumar has been elected as the president of the Advertising Agencies Association of India (AAAI) at its annual general body meeting in November 2022.
• He is the CEO of the South Asia of GroupM Media (India) Pvt Ltd.
• He has an experience of over 25 years in the Industry.
• He has served as AAAI’s vice president from 2020-22.
• Rana Barua was elected vice president of the association.
• ​AAAI is the official, national organization of advertising agencies, formed in 1945, to promote their interests.

correct answer is (i) Padam Shri, (ii) Social work

Key Points

• Mr Bapat was known for his social work in tribal areas in Chhattisgarh.
• He dedicated his life to the treatment and service of leprosy patients at Bhartiya Kushta Nivarak Sangh in Janjgir-Champa district.
• He was awarded Padma Shri, the fourth highest civilian award, by President Ram Nath Kovind in 2018 for his service to society

Additional Information

• The Bharat Ratna: India's highest civilian honour, was established in 1954. This prize is open to everyone without regard to race, profession, position, gender, or religion. It is given in appreciation for very good work or performance in any area of human endeavour.
• The Padma Awards: In 1954, the Padma Awards were established. With the exception of brief hiatuses in the years 1978 to 1979 and 1993 to 1997, these prizes have been presented on Republic Day each year. In decreasing order of precedence, the award is presented in three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• "Exceptional and distinguished service" describes the Padma Vibhushan award. The Padma Vibhushan is India's second-highest civilian honour.
• "Distinguished service of a high order" qualifies for the Padma Bhushan award. The third (3rd) highest civilian honour in India is the Padma Bhushan.
• "Distinguished service" is the reason for the Padma Shri award. The fourth (4th) highest civilian honour in India is the Padma Shri.
  

• The correct answer is Sukumar Sen.

Key Points 

• The first Chief Election Commissioner of India: Sukumar Sen.
• The first Chief Information Commissioner of India: Wajahat Habibullah.
• The first Attorney General of India: Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad.
• The first Lokpal of India: Pinaki Chandra Ghose.
• The first Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India after independence: Narhari Rao.​

Additional Information 

• The current Chief Election Commissioner of India is Rajeev Kumar (25^th).
• He is appointed by the President of India for the term length of 6 years or 65 years whichever is earlier.
• There is one Chief Election Commissioner and 2 Election Commissioners (presently Anup Chandra Pandey and Arun Goel.

Correct answer is Aditya Mittal.

Key Points

• Sixteen-year-old Aditya Mittal has become India's 77th chess Grandmaster during an ongoing tournament in Spain.
• The Mumbai player, who had secured three GM norms, crossed 2,500 ELO points mark during the sixth round of the ongoing Ellobregat Open tournament in Spain. He drew the game against Spain's No.1 Francisco Vallejo Pons to achieve the feat.

Additional Information

• Tania Sachdev
• Tania Sachdev (born 20 August 1986)  is an Indian chess player, who holds the FIDE titles of International Master (IM) and Woman Grandmaster (WGM)
• She is a two-time Indian women's chess champion in 2006 and 2007,[one-time Asian women's chess champion in 2007and three-time and current Commonwealth Women's Chess Champion in 2016 ,2018 and 2019. She is also a chess pre senter and commentator.
• Pentala Harikrishna
• Pentala Harikrishna (born 10 May 1986) is an Indian chess grandmaster.
• He became the youngest grandmaster from India after attaining the title in 2001, a record now held by Gukesh D.
• He was Commonwealth Champion in 2001, World Junior Champion in 2004, and Asian Individual Champion in 2011. He is currently third highest rated player in India.
• R.Praggnanandhaa
• Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa[a] (born 10 August 2005) is an Indian chess grandmaster.
• A chess prodigy, he earned the international master title at the age of 10, the youngest at the time to do so, and the Grandmaster title at age 12, the second-youngest at the time to do so.
• On 22 February 2022, at the age of 16, he became the youngest player till then to defeat then-world champion Magnus Carlsen, when he beat Carlsen in a rapid game at the Airthings Masters Rapid Chess Tournament.

The correct answer is Twelfth (12th).

Key Points

• Twelfth (12th) Five Year Plan (FYP) was the last official Five Year Plan of India.
• The period of the plan was from 2012-2017.
• The first priority of the Twelfth Plan was to bring the economy back to rapid growth while ensuring that the growth is both inclusive and sustainable.
• The broad vision and aspirations which the Twelfth Plan seeks to fulfill were reflected in the subtitle: ‘Faster, Sustainable, and More Inclusive Growth’.
• The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which formulated India's Five-Year Plans, among other functions. It was dissolved in 2014 and succeeded by NITI Aayog.

Important Points 

• About FYPs:
• After independence, India launched its First FYP in 1951, under the socialist influence of first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The process began with setting up of Planning Commission in March 1950.

The correct answer is 1930.

Key Points 

• Kerala kalamandalam is the premiere public institution in India.
• It was established in 1930.
• Kerala Kalamandalam is providing training in Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Kutiyattam, Panchavadyam, Thullal, Mridangam, Karnatic music.
• Kerala Kalamandalam was originally set up by the famous Malayalam poet Vallathol Narayana Menon.
• Vallathol Narayana Menon was the first chairman of the Kerala Kalamandalam.

Additional Information 

• Tirur is a city in the Malappuram district of Kerala
• Tirur is the first digital literate municipal corporation in Kerala.
• Kalady is a town located in the Eranakulam district of Kerala.
• Kalady is the birthplace of the great Hindu saint Sri Sankaracharya.
• Palakkad is the hottest district in Kerala.

The correct answer is Mumbai

Key Points

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was constituted as a non-statutory body on April 12, 1988, through a resolution of the Government of India.
• SEBI was established as a statutory body in the year 1992 and the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992 came into force on January 30, 1992
• The Preamble of the SEBI describes the basic functions of the SEBI as "... to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto"
• SEBI has to be responsive to the needs of three groups, which constitute the market
• Issuer of securities
• Investors
• Market Intermediaries

Important Points

• If any person indulges in fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities, he shall be liable to a penalty of 25 crore rupees or three times the amount of profits made out of such practices, whichever is higher
• Presently(July 2022) the Executive Director of SEBI is Mr. Pramod Rao

Additional Information

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Oct 2, 1952. 

Key Points

• According to Carl Tylor, "community development is a method by which people in villages are involved in helping to improve their own economic and social conditions and thereby they became effective working groups in the programme of their national development".
• The community development programme was started in India, just after independence (1952).
• It was a multi-project programme with the aim of the overall development of rural people.
• This programme consisted of agriculture, animal husbandry, irrigation, cooperation, public wealth, education, social education, communication, village industries etc.
• There are officials for each activity at the district level to plan execute and evaluate the programme up to the village level.

Correct answer is Adobe.

Key Points

• All India Council for Technical Education 
• The All-India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) has signed a partnership agreement with Adobe to accelerate digital creativity skills across India.
• Under the agreement, Adobe will offer courses and expertise for up-skilling educators. It will also integrate digital creativity into the curriculum, to prepare students with creative and digital literacy skills.
• The partnership aims to empower over 75,000 educators across 10,000 higher education institutions by 2024

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

Key Points 

• In Saudi Arabia, King Salman bin Abdulaziz named his son and heir Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman as the Prime Minister of the kingdom.
• According to a royal decree, King Salman also promoted his second son Prince Khalid from deputy Defense Minister to Defense Minister.
• Mohammed bin Salman was previously Defense Minister in Saudi Arabia's government.

Additional Information

• Iran

• About Iran​

• | Flag of Iran | | | --- | --- | | Official name | Jomhūrī-ye Eslāmī-ye Īrān (Islamic Republic of Iran) | | Head of State and Government | President: Ebrahim Raisi | | Capital | Tehran | | Official Language | Farsi (Persian) | | Official Religion | Islam | | Total Area | 1,628,771 sq. km |

• Iraq 

• Baghdad is the capital of Iraq.

• Indonesia: (As on July 2022)
• Capital and largest city: Jakarta
• Official language: Indonesian
• President: Joko Widodo
• Vice President: Ma'ruf Amin
• Currency: Indonesian rupiah

According to Section 88 of the Income Tax Act, the committee that proposed the abolition of tax rebates is the Kelkar Committee.

Key Points

Kelkar Committee:

• The Kelkar Committee, officially known as the Task Force on Direct Taxes, was established in 2002 and chaired by Vijay Kelkar, an Indian economist and former finance secretary.
• The committee was formed with the objective of recommending reforms and simplifications in the Indian tax system, including direct taxes.
• One of the major recommendations put forth by the Kelkar Committee was the abolition of tax rebates.
• The committee argued that tax rebates and exemptions complicated the tax system and led to distortions in tax compliance.
• They suggested that a simpler and more transparent tax structure without extensive exemptions and rebates would improve tax administration and reduce the burden of compliance for taxpayers.

 Additional InformationChelliah Committee:

• The Chelliah Committee, officially known as the Tax Reforms Committee, was formed in 1991 and chaired by Raja Chelliah, an eminent economist.
• The committee was tasked with suggesting comprehensive tax reforms in India to enhance revenue collection and promote economic growth.
• While the Chelliah Committee made several recommendations, it did not specifically propose the abolition of tax rebates.

Shome Committee:

• The Parthasarathi Shome Committee, officially known as the Expert Committee on General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR), was established in 2012 and headed by Parthasarathi Shome, an economist and tax expert.
• The committee was formed to provide recommendations on the implementation of GAAR in the Indian tax system.
• GAAR aims to prevent tax avoidance through the use of abusive tax arrangements.
• While the Shome Committee made significant recommendations on GAAR, it did not specifically propose the abolition of tax rebates.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra was the first state to introduce the institution of Lokayukta through The Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act in 1971.
• This was followed by similar acts that were enacted by the states of Odisha, Rajasthan, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the union territory of Delhi.
• The powers of Lokayukta in each state are different and efforts are being made to make them uniform.

Additional Information 

• The Lokayukta is the Indian Parliamentary Ombudsman, executed into power, through and for, each of the State Governments of India.
• It is brought into effect in a state, after passing the Lokayukta Act in the respective state Legislature and a person of reputable background is nominated to the post.
• The post is created to quickly address grievances against the working integrity and efficiency of the government or its administration (public servants).

The correct answer is Shiva

Key Points Raja Raja I

• Historically, Brihadishvara Temple is also known as Rajarajeswaram and Thanjai Periya Kovil.
• Raja Raja Cholan, built the Tanjore Brihadeeshwara Temple, which Kunjara Mallan Raja Rama Perunthachan designed.
• The Brihadeeswarar Temple was constructed by powerful ruler Raja Raja Cholan as a tribute to Lord Shiva.
• Wall murals from the Chola and Nayak eras adorn the walls of the shrine.

correct answer is It discharges its water in the Bay of Bengal

Key Points

• Chambal River is also called Dharmavati and Charmavati.
• It is known for creating ravines.
• Origin - Janapao Hills, near Mhow, MP.
• Falls into Yamuna river near Etawah, UP.
• Total Length - 965 km.
• Major Tributary - Kshipra, Kalisindh, Parvati, Bansa, Newaj, Kwari, Sindh, etc.
• Cities on its bank - Dhar, Sheopur, Mhow, Morena, and Ratlam.
• Area Covered - Indore, Dhar, Ujjain, Ratlam, Mandsaur, Sheopur, Morena, and Bhind districts of Madhya Pradesh.
• Waterfalls
• Patalpani (8 m) in Indore
• Jharidhar (7 m) in Indore
• Chuliya (18 m) in Rajasthan
• Projects 
• Gandhi Sagar Project (Mandsaur)
• Jawahar Sagar (Kota)
• Rana Pratap Sagar (Chittaur)

​

correct answer is Mumbai

Key Points

• The Mumbai team captained by Ajinkya Rahane defeated Himachal Pradesh at the Eden Gardens in Kolkata to win their maiden title.
• The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is a domestic T-20 cricket championship in India, organised by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) among the teams from the Ranji Trophy.

Additional Information

• The Syed Mushtaq Ali trophy is an Indian domestic cricket championship.
• The championship is named after Syed Mushtaq Ali, the famous Indian cricketer.
• It is organized by BCCI (Board of Control for Cricket in India) and played by the Ranji Trophy teams.
• The 2009-10 season of the championship was its first edition

The correct answer is Mongoose

Key Points

• Operation 'Clean Art' is an Indian operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
• Operation Clean Art was the first pan India operation to crack down on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
• It was conceived by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB).
• It was a planned raid, not to apprehend criminals, but to check on organised factories that were making paintbrushes with mongoose hair.
• Raids were carried out not only in Uttar Pradesh, but also at Jaipur in Rajasthan, Mumbai, and Pune in Maharashtra, and in Kerala, on the same day.
• The entire operation across the country yielded 54,352 brushes and 113 kg of raw hair.

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Additional Information

• Elephant
• Project Elephant was launched in 1992 by the Government of India, Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) to provide financial and technical support of wildlife management efforts by states for their free-ranging populations of wild Asian Elephants.
• The objective of the project was to carry out performance evaluation of Centrally Sponsored Scheme ‘Project Elephant’ for the period of 2007-08 to 2011-12 in the four Wildlife Divisions of Meghalaya viz. Khasi Hills Wildlife Division, Jaintia Hills Wildlife Division, East & West Garo Hills Wildlife Division, and Balpakram National Park Division.
• Tiger
• Project Tiger was launched on 1st April 1973.
• Project Tiger was launched from Jim Corbett National Park, which is located in Uttarakhand
• It was launched by the Union Government of India under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Nodal Implementing Agency: National Tiger Conservation Authority.
• There are around 442 tigers present in Uttarakhand (Jim Corbet National Park) According to the latest census released by All India Tiger Estimation 2018 and this result is declared by PM Narendra Modi on International Tiger Day (29 July).
• Peacock
• In 1963, Peacock was declared as the national bird of India because of its rich religious and legendary involvement.

Information about Peacock

• Scientific name: Pavo cristatus
• Family: Phasianidae
• Order: Galliformes
• Class: Aves
• Kingdom: Animalia

The correct answer is 'unselfish interest in the welfare of others'.

Key Points

• The word "altruism" refers to the selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others.
• It is the opposite of selfishness and involves a genuine desire to help and benefit others without expecting anything in return.
• Unselfish interest in the welfare of others (दूसरों के कल्याण में निःस्वार्थ रुचि​): This choice directly aligns with the definition of altruism. It represents the act of genuinely caring about the well-being of others without seeking personal gain or recognition. This option perfectly captures the essence of altruism and is the most accurate choice among the given options.
• Considering the meanings of the words and their relevance to the concept of altruism, option 4, "unselfish interest in the welfare of others," best expresses the right meaning of the word "altruism."

Additional Information

• Devotion: Devotion refers to a strong commitment or loyalty towards someone or something. While devotion can involve selflessness, it is not necessarily specific to the concern for the welfare of others. (किसी काम में बहुत-सा समय और शक्ति लगाने की क्रिया; समर्पण भाव)
• Therefore, it is not the best choice to represent the meaning of "altruism."
• Self-denial: Self-denial refers to the act of sacrificing one's own desires, interests, or needs. (नैतिक या धार्मिक कारणों से या पैसों के अभाव में स्वयं को अपनी पसंदीदा चीज़ से वंचित रखना; आत्मत्याग; स्वार्थत्याग)
• It often involves restraining oneself from indulging in certain pleasures or pursuing personal goals. Self-denial can be associated with altruism, as it involves putting aside one's own desires for the benefit of others. Thus, it is a relevant choice and can be considered as a possible answer.
• Dedication: Dedication refers to the commitment, effort, and focus that someone puts into a particular task or goal. (अभीष्‍ट के प्रति समर्पण)
• While dedication can involve selflessness and a strong commitment, it does not necessarily capture the essence of altruism, which is primarily concerned with the welfare of others rather than personal achievements. Hence, it may not be the most suitable option.

The correct answer is 'Testimony'.

Key Points 

Let's examine each option in detail to determine the correct choice:

• **Evidence (**सबूत): Evidence refers to information, facts, or proof that is presented to support or refute a claim or argument. While evidence can be part of a formal written or spoken statement in a court of law, it does not encompass the entire concept. Evidence is more general and can exist outside of a courtroom setting as well. Therefore, option 1 is not the best substitution for the given phrase.
• **Hibernation (**सीतनिद्रा) : Hibernation refers to a state of inactivity or dormancy that certain animals enter during the winter season. It is unrelated to the given phrase and does not represent a formal written or spoken statement in a court of law. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Testimony ( गवाही): Testimony is the act of giving a formal statement or evidence under oath in a court of law. It involves providing a firsthand account or expert opinion related to a case. Testimony directly aligns with the given phrase and accurately represents a formal written or spoken statement in a legal context. Therefore, option 3 is the correct substitution for the given words/sentence.
• **Statement (**कथन): While "statement" is included in the original phrase, it alone does not capture the formal and legal context emphasized in the question. A statement can be more general and informal, whereas the given phrase specifically refers to a formal written or spoken statement in a court of law. Thus, option 4 is not the most appropriate choice.

Considering the definitions and the context of the question, option 3, "Testimony," is the word that can be substituted for the given phrase, as it accurately represents a formal written or spoken statement given in a court of law.

The correct answer is "Distract".

Key Points

• "Captivate" is a verb that means to attract and hold the interest or attention of someone. It's often used to describe situations where something is so interesting or engaging that it absorbs all of your attention.
• For example: "The enchanting landscape captivated the tourists."
• The antonym, or opposite, of captivate would be a word that means to draw attention away or fail to hold attention.
• "Distract" is a verb that means to divert the attention of. It's used to describe situations where something interrupts or prevents concentration on something else.
• For example: "The loud noise outside distracted me from my studies."
• Hence, the correct answer will be Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Bewitch" is a verb that means to enchant and delight, often in a way that makes rational thought or resistance difficult. This is similar to "captivate" rather than opposite to it.
• An example of "bewitch" used in a sentence would be: "Her radiant smile bewitched the audience."
• Option 2: "Obscure" as an adjective means not discovered or known about; uncertain. As a verb, it means to keep from being seen; to conceal. Neither definition provides a direct contrast to "captivate".
• An example of "obscure" used in a sentence would be: "His answers were obscured by his deliberate evasion of the questions."
• Option 4: "Imprison" is a verb that means to put or keep in prison; to confine. While it does entail a lack of freedom, it does not specifically relate to attention or interest, which is the key concept in "captivate".
• An example of "imprison" used in a sentence would be: "The dictator was known to imprison those who opposed him."

The correct answer is Option 1) QSPR.

Key Points

Logical sequence: 

• S1: The mail is first collected from different letter boxes.
• Q: It is then sorted out at the sorting office.
• S: The sorted mail is sent to the zonal post office.
• P: From there it is sent to the head post office.
• R: The mail is again sorted out at the head office by the concerned beat postman.
• S6: Finally it is delivered to us.

Here, R must come just before final delivery, and among the given options, only QSPR maintains a coherent and acceptable flow of the postal process.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1) QSPR.

The correct alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase "pay through his nose" in the given sentence is: Pay an extremely high price.

Key Points

• The phrase "pay through his nose" is an idiom that means paying a significantly high or excessive price for something.
• It implies that the person had to pay an exorbitant amount, often more than what is considered fair or reasonable.
• In the context of the sentence, it suggests that the neighbor had to pay a substantial amount of money for the brand new car.
• Option 2, "Pay an extremely high price," accurately captures the meaning of "pay through his nose" by emphasizing the concept of paying an excessive or inflated price.
• Therefore, it is the most suitable alternative among the given options.

The original sentence given is in Active Voice: He expressed an infinite deal of surprise at finding me in so good a condition.

Key Points

• To convert it to Passive Voice, we need to make the object of the active sentence (an infinite deal of surprise) the subject of the passive sentence, and the subject (He) becomes the object preceded by "by." The verb form also needs to be changed to the passive form.
• Among the given options, the alternative that best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice is:
• An infinite deal of surprise was expressed by him, at finding me in so good a condition.
• In the passive form, the subject "He" has been changed to "An infinite deal of surprise" as the subject of the sentence.
• The verb "expressed" is in the passive form, and "by him" is added to indicate the doer of the action.
• The phrase "at finding me in so good a condition" remains unchanged.
• Therefore, option 2, "An infinite deal of surprise was expressed by him, at finding me in so good a condition," accurately represents the given sentence in Passive Voice.

The alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase "blind to" in the given sentence is: indifferent to.

Key Points

• To be "indifferent to" something means to show a lack of interest, concern, or care towards it.
• In the context of the sentence, it suggests that mothers are indifferent or unconcerned about their children's faults.
• They may not pay much attention to or be bothered by their children's shortcomings or mistakes.

The correct arrangement is 4) RQPS.

Key Points

• The man
• R. who was called Alfred Nobel
• Q. was singularly inconspicuous
• P. and no one passing him in the street
• S. would have given him
• Sentence R: "The man who was called Alfred Nobel" introduces us to the central character of the paragraph, emphasizing his identity as Alfred Nobel.
• Sentence Q: "was singularly inconspicuous" provides an important characteristic of the man, highlighting the fact that he was not noticeable or remarkable in any way.
• Sentence P: "and no one passing him in the street" adds to the previous sentence by emphasizing that even people passing him on the street did not pay much attention to him.
• Sentence S: "would have given him" suggests that despite his unremarkable appearance, if people had known who he was, they would have treated him differently or shown him more attention or respect.
• By arranging the sentences in the order RQPS, the paragraph creates a cohesive flow. It starts by introducing Alfred Nobel, then describes his inconspicuous nature, followed by the observation that people passing him on the street did not pay him much attention. Finally, it suggests that people would have treated him differently if they had known his true identity.

The correct idiom that can fit in the blank to make the sentence grammatically and meaningfully correct is: cut him some slack.

Key Points 

• The revised sentence would be:
• "I know he is not up to the mark right now but let's cut him some slack as he's new to this environment and needs time to adjust."
• The idiom "cut someone some slack" means to be lenient or understanding toward someone, especially when they are new or inexperienced in a particular situation.
• In this context, it suggests that the speaker is asking others to be patient and give the person some leeway or understanding due to their newness in the environment.

The correct alternative that best expresses the given sentence in Passive Voice is: The project will have been completed by him by then.

Key Points

• In the process of converting an active voice sentence to passive voice, the object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• The given sentence in in the future perfect tense.
• Example of Active to Passive conversion of future perfect tense:
• Active:​ Meena will not have changed the bedsheet.
• Passive: The bed sheet will not have been changed by Meena.
• In this case, "the project" is the object in the active sentence and becomes the subject in the correct passive sentence.
• The form of the verb also changes when converting an active voice sentence to passive voice.
• The verb tense of the original sentence is future perfect tense ("will have completed").
• In the passive voice, this changes to 'will have been completed', which accurately maintains the tense while expressing the action's passive nature.
• The subject of the original active sentence, "He," becomes the agent in the passive voice sentence, expressed with the preposition "by" as "by him".
• Therefore, the correct sentence in the passive voice is "The project will have been completed by him by then."

The correct option to fill in the blank is: Particularly.

Key Points

• The sentence states that the accuracy rates of facial recognition algorithms are low, specifically in the case of minorities, women, and children.
• The word "particularly" is used to emphasize this specific group of individuals and highlights that they experience a notable decrease in accuracy compared to others.
• Therefore, the correct word to fill in the blank is "particularly," indicating that accuracy rates are notably low in the mentioned demographic groups.

The correct answer is option 1) "Was it known by you that he is absent?"

Key Points

• To understand why this is the correct answer, let's analyze the original sentence: "Did you know that he is absent today?"
• The original sentence is in the active voice, where the subject "you" performs the action of knowing. We are asked to transform this sentence into the passive voice, where the subject receives the action rather than performing it.
• In the passive voice, the sentence structure is usually: Object + auxiliary verb + past participle + by + subject.
• Let's apply this structure to the options:
• "Was it known by you that he is absent?"
• This option correctly transforms the sentence into the passive voice. The subject "it" receives the action of being known, and "by you" indicates who knows it. The original sentence's meaning is retained.
• "Were it known by you that he is absent?"
• This option is similar to the correct answer, but it uses "were" instead of "was." However, in this context, "was" is more appropriate because the original sentence is in the past tense.
• "Had you known that he is absent?"
• This option maintains the active voice. It is not a correct transformation into the passive voice.
• "Was it being known by you that he is absent?"
• This option is in the passive voice, but it uses the continuous tense ("being known"). The original sentence does not indicate an ongoing action, so this option is not the best choice.

Therefore, option 1) "Was it known by you that he is absent?" is the most suitable transformation of the original sentence into the passive voice.

The correct order seems to be RPSQ.

Key Points

• It may seem odd 
• R. to have to insist that
• P. one should only read
• S. because one liked it
• Q. but people read for such a variety of reasons.
• This makes the paragraph: "It may seem odd to have to insist that one should only read because one liked it, but people read for such a variety of reasons."
• So, the answer is option 1) RPSQ.

The correct order to form a coherent paragraph is: 3) PSQR.

Key Points

The correct order for these sentences to form a coherent paragraph is:

• P. Over the past few years, India's declining savings rate has been a puzzle for macroeconomists.
• S. Some have blamed slow rise in household incomes for this while others have suggested that younger Indians saving less than what their parents did may be to blame.
• Q. However, fresh data from a survey shows that among urban India's working population, the young employees tend to save a higher share of their incomes than their older counterparts.
• R. Also, the savings patterns of post-millennials and millennials are similar, the data show.
• This order forms a coherent paragraph as it first introduces the problem (P), then presents some hypotheses about the problem (S), next it introduces new data that contradicts one of the hypotheses (Q), and finally, it provides additional information about the new data (R).
• The paragraph would be:
• Over the past few years, India’s declining savings rate has been a puzzle for macroeconomists. Some have blamed slow rise in household incomes for this while others have suggested that younger Indians saving less than what their parents did may be to blame. However, fresh data from a survey shows that among urban India’s working population, the young employees tend to save a higher share of their incomes than their older counterparts. Also, the savings patterns of post-millennials and millennials are similar, the data show.

The correct answer is option 1) "The tabla will be played by Saroj."

Key Points

• To explain in detail, let's analyze the original sentence: "Saroj will play the tabla."
• The original sentence is in the active voice, where the subject "Saroj" performs the action of playing.
• We are asked to transform this sentence into the passive voice, where the subject receives the action rather than performing it.
• In the passive voice, the sentence structure is usually: Object + auxiliary verb + past participle + by + subject.
• Let's apply this structure to the options:
• "The tabla will be played by Saroj."
• This option correctly transforms the sentence into the passive voice.
• The subject "tabla" receives the action of being played, and "by Saroj" indicates who plays it.
• The original sentence's meaning is retained.
• Therefore, option 1) "The tabla will be played by Saroj" is the most suitable transformation of the original sentence into the passive voice.

Lets see why other options are incorrect:-

• "The tabla had been played by Saroj."
• This option uses the past perfect tense ("had been played"), indicating an action completed before a certain point in the past. However, the original sentence is in the future tense ("will play"), so this option does not convey the same meaning.
• "The tabla has been played by Saroj."
• This option uses the present perfect tense ("has been played"), indicating an action completed in the past with relevance to the present. Again, the original sentence is in the future tense, so this option does not express the same meaning.
• "The tabla will have been played with Saroj."
• This option introduces the phrase "with Saroj," which changes the meaning. The original sentence does not mention playing with Saroj but rather Saroj playing the tabla.

The correct option is 3) No error.

Key Points

• Let's break down the sentence part by part:
• "Mindfully pausing to": This segment is grammatically correct.
• "Mindfully" is an adverb that describes the way in which the action (pausing) is being done. It connects properly with the verb 'pausing' which signifies an action. The preposition 'to' is correctly used to connect this part with the following actions.
• "take a few slow deep": Here, 'Take' is the verb indicating the action to be done after pausing. The phrase 'a few slow deep' modifies 'breaths', which is in the next part of the sentence. The adjectives 'slow' and 'deep' properly describe the kind of breaths one should take.
• "breaths has been shown to enhance overall health": This part carries the main message or conclusion of the sentence. 'Breaths' is the object of the verb 'take' from the previous segment and 'has been shown to enhance overall health' is a correct use of the present perfect passive voice. This part of the sentence implies that there's research or evidence that supports this claim.

 

Hence the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is: The words were repeated by the parrot quickly.

Key Points

• This is a question about changing the voice of a sentence from active to passive.
• The general rule is to use the past participle form of the verb and add a suitable form of the verb ‘to be’ according to the tense and number of the sentence.
• The subject and object of the sentence are also switched.
• In this case, the sentence is in the simple past tense and singular number. Therefore, the correct form of ‘to be’ is ‘was’.
• The past participle form of ‘repeat’ is ‘repeated’.
• The subject ‘the parrot’ becomes the object ‘by the parrot’ and the object ‘the words’ becomes the subject.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4) The words were repeated by the parrot quickly.

The correct answer is option 4) Have been impounded too.

Key Points

• The bracketed part of the sentence contains a verb phrase that should agree with the subject and the tense of the sentence.
• The subject is ‘the passports of some wilful defaulters’, which is plural and the tense is present perfect.
• Therefore, the correct verb phrase should have ‘have’ as the auxiliary verb and ‘impounded’ as the past participle form of the main verb.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4) Have been impounded too.

The correct answer is 'cdbe'.

Key Points

• The first statement is  a- 'Pythagoras lived long ago, and almost nothing is known about him, though his teachings and his name have become immortal.'.
• Sentence 'c' follows naturally after sentence 'a', as it introduces the individuals who followed Pythagoras's philosophy, thus it provides the basic information about these individuals, who are the focus of the following details.
• Sentence 'd' ought to come after 'c' because it offers further information on the activities of the Pythagoreans, stating their religious and scientific pursuit and establishing a context for their lifestyle and beliefs.
• Sentence 'b' should follow 'd' since it describes the structure and formation of their group and how they are linked, which gains importance only after explaining the common beliefs and interests of the group.
• Sentence 'e' should come last, as it emphasizes specific values taught to the Pythagoreans, like controlling passions and enduring suffering, thus providing a conclusion to the details about this group's philosophy and lifestyle.

Hence the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is 4) Prattle.

Key Points

Let's break down the sentence and explain the context:

• The sentence is as follows:
• "Mr. Jenkinson interrupted their harmless _________, by observing that now my daughter was no more, I should seriously think of the rest of my family."
• From the context provided, we can understand that there was some activity or conversation happening that Mr. Jenkinson interrupted. We need to choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank that best fits the context.
• Beguile: This word means to deceive or charm someone, often in a cunning way. However, it doesn't fit the context of the sentence, as "beguile" suggests a more intentional and deceptive activity, whereas the sentence describes the interrupted activity as "harmless."
• Fussing: This word refers to being excessively worried or agitated about something. While it is possible that the interrupted activity involved fussing, it does not necessarily convey the harmless nature described in the sentence.
• Trouble: This word means to cause difficulty or inconvenience. It is a possibility that the interrupted activity could involve some trouble, but again, it does not capture the idea of being harmless.
• Prattle: This word refers to meaningless or idle chatter, often done in a playful or casual manner. "Prattle" is the most suitable word in this context, as it aligns with the description of the interrupted activity being harmless. It suggests that the conversation or talk was light-hearted and without much significance.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4) Prattle.

The correct answer is option 1) "We had used the front room as another office, not as a living room."

Key Points

• To explain in detail, let's analyze the original sentence: "The front room had been used as another office by us, not as a living room."
• The original sentence is in the passive voice, indicating that the front room was being used as another office by "us" (the subject). We are asked to transform this sentence into the active voice, where the subject performs the action.
• Let's examine the options:
• "We had used the front room as another office, not as a living room."
• This option correctly transforms the sentence into the active voice. The subject "we" performs the action of using the front room as another office. The original sentence's meaning is retained.
  
• "We have used the front room as another office, not as a living room."
• This option is also in the active voice, but it uses the present perfect tense ("have used") instead of the past perfect tense ("had used"). Since the original sentence uses the past perfect tense, option 2 does not convey the same meaning.
  
• "We used the front room as another office, not as a living room."
• This option is also in the active voice, but it uses the simple past tense ("used") instead of the past perfect tense ("had used"). The use of the simple past tense does not accurately represent the action occurring before a certain point in the past, as implied in the original sentence.
  
• "We were using the front room as another office, not as a living room."
• This option is in the past continuous tense ("were using"), indicating an ongoing action in the past. It does not convey the same meaning as the original sentence, which describes a completed action in the past.
• Therefore, option 1) "We had used the front room as another office, not as a living room" is the most suitable transformation of the original sentence into the active voice.

The correct answer is  'scarce'. 

Key Points

• The sentence describes a difficult situation where the people faced many problems and challenges.
• Therefore, the word should have a negative connotation and fit grammatically and logically with the word ‘food’.
• Out of the four options, only one word meets these criteria: scarce.
• Scare means insufficient or in short supply. It makes sense to say that food was scarce in a difficult situation. It also matches the negative tone and meaning of the sentence.
• The other options are not suitable for various reasons:
• Farce means a ridiculous or absurd situation or event. It does not fit grammatically or logically with the word ‘food’.
• Crass means lacking sensitivity or intelligence. It does not fit grammatically or logically with the word ‘food’.
• Embrace means to accept or support something willingly or enthusiastically. It does not fit grammatically or logically with the word ‘food’. It also has a positive connotation, which does not match the tone and meaning of the sentence.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3) scarce.

The correct answer is 'Shall we'.

Key Points

• The blank should be filled with a phrase that forms a tag question. A tag question is a short question added to the end of a statement to invite agreement or confirmation.
• The general rule is to use the opposite polarity of the statement in the tag question. For example, if the statement is positive, the tag question should be negative, and vice versa. The tag question should also match the subject and tense of the statement.
• In this case, the statement is positive and in the present tense. The subject is ‘we’, which is implied by ‘let’s’. Therefore, the tag question should be negative and in the present tense. The correct phrase to use is ‘shall we’.
• Shall is a modal verb that can be used to express suggestion or invitation. It is also commonly used in tag questions after ‘let’s’.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2) shall we.

Additional Information

The other options are not suitable for various reasons:

• Will us is grammatically incorrect. Will is a modal verb that can be used to express future tense or willingness, but it should be followed by a subject pronoun (we, you, they) or a noun, not an object pronoun (us, you, them).
• Might we is grammatically correct, but it does not form a tag question. Might is a modal verb that can be used to express possibility or permission, but it has the same polarity as the statement (positive). A tag question should have the opposite polarity (negative).
• Shall us is grammatically incorrect. Shall is a modal verb that can be used to express suggestion or invitation, but it should be followed by a subject pronoun (we, you, they) or a noun, not an object pronoun (us, you, them).

The correct order seems to be PQRS.

Key Points Other than Rome, Philadelphia has a maximum number of murals.

• P. Jane Golden started a program pairing troubled youths with artists to paint a mural.
• Q. Young people got involved in creating magnificent pieces of art.
• R. The benefit could immediately be discovered.
• S. The young people became more responsible.

As a result, the mural program became a model for other US cities seeking to help troubled youth.

• This makes the paragraph: "Other than Rome, Philadelphia has a maximum number of murals. Jane Golden started a program pairing troubled youths with artists to paint a mural. Young people got involved in creating magnificent pieces of art. The benefit could immediately be discovered. The young people became more responsible. As a result, the mural program became a model for other US cities seeking to help troubled youth."

So, the answer is option 2) PQRS.

The correct answer is "One way to opening".

Key Points

• The error lies in the phrase "One way to opening".
• In English grammar, when we say "one way to" do something, we follow it with the base form of the verb, which is also known as the infinitive form without the word "to".
• In the sentence "One way to opening the container is by using a lever," the word "opening" is a gerund, or a verb that is being used as a noun. However, in this context, we need to use the base form of the verb "open" to express the idea of one method or approach to accomplishing the task of opening the container.
• So, the corrected sentence is: "One way to open the container is by using a lever."

the correct answer is 80 dB

Key Points

Concept-

• Any unwanted sound that causes annoyance, burning and pain in the human ear is called noise.
• Noise is measured in dB units which indicates the loudness of the sound.
• Noise level refers to the decibel level of noise produced by any equipment or machine.

Important Points 

• The strength of the noise is called the decibel unit (dB), we can measure the level of noise with a sound level meter.
• A logarithmic scale is used to describe sound levels meaningfully in digits that are better manageable, using 10 as the base, rather than a linear one.
• This scale is called the decibel scale. A whisper is about 30 dB, regular talk is about 60 dB, and it's about 95 dB to run a motorcycle engine.
• Noise in excess of 70 dB can damage hearing over a long period of time.
• Loud sounds above 120 dB will cause immediate damage to the ears. So, sound exceeding 80 dB is harmful to the human ear.

The complication of excessive noise-

• Excessive noise pollution affects millions of people every day. The most common health problem it causes is noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL). Exposure to loud noises can also lead to high blood pressure, heart disease, sleep disturbances and stress. These health problems can affect all age groups, especially children.
• Hearing loss in adults includes:
• excessive noise
• inheritance
• head injury
• infection
• disease
• certain prescription drugs
• circulatory problems such as high blood pressure

Additional Information 

• The acceptable noise level in India has been determined by the CPCB for different areas. The allowable maximum in industrial areas is 75 dB during the day and 70 dB at night. In commercial areas, it is 65 dB and 55 dB, while in residential neighbourhoods it is 55 dB and 45 dB during the day and night respectively. Also, there is a category called 'silent zone' which comes within 100 meters of the premises of schools, colleges, hospitals, and courts. In this region, the allowable noise limit is 5.
• The three basic categories of hearing loss are sensorineural hearing loss, conductive hearing loss, and mixed hearing loss.​

The correct answer is 2002.

• India signed the Kyoto Protocol on 26 August 2002.
• The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in December 1997 and entered into force in February 2005.

Key Points 

• Kyoto Protocol:
• It is an international agreement that aims to manage and reduce carbon dioxide emissions and greenhouse gases.
• Kyoto Protocol is an agreement under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, adopted in December 1997.
• It is a legally binding treaty to reduce greenhouse emissions.
• Annex 1 countries: Includes developed countries and economies in transition.
• Annex 2 countries: Includes developed countries that provide financial and technical support to the economies in transition and developing countries to assist them in reducing their greenhouse gas emissions.
• The Clean Development Mechanism allows emission-reduction projects in developing countries to earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2.
• These CERs can be traded, sold, and used by industrialized countries to meet their emission reduction targets under the Kyoto Protocol.

The correct answer is Tapeworms

Key Points

• Tapeworm belongs to the class Platyhelminthes of Kingdom-Animalia.
• The organisms of phylum Platyhelminthes have their body unsegmented.
• In tapeworms, the new segments (called proglottids**) originate from the neck i.e. anterior part of the body.** Hence, tapeworms exhibit pseudo-metamerism.
• They also live in human intestines.

• Unsegmented body- The body is not divided into segments.Ex-planaria(phylum-Platyhelminthes).
• Metamerically segmented-Body is divided into equal segments.Ex-earthworm(phylum-Annelida),centipede(phylum-Arthropoda)

Additional Information

• Caterpillars:
• One of the most prevalent categories of invertebrates is the insect.
• Their bodies are hard on the outside and comprised of three parts: the head, thorax, and abdomen.
• Most insects have six legs and wings.
• Insects include ants, flies, caterpillars, beetles etc.
• Silkworms
• The life cycle of a silkworm is Egg­ > Caterpillar ­> Pupa­ > Adult.
• The egg is the first and primary stage of the life cycle of Silkworm.
• The egg is laid by a  female moth and the egg is the size of small dots.
• More than 350 eggs are laid by a female moth at a time.
• The eggs hatch in the springtime due to the warmth in the air.
• This procedure takes place once a year.
• Moths
• They are in the order Lepidoptera, which also includes butterflies.
• The wings are covered in scales, which give them their distinctive appearance.
• They use this proboscis to suck nectar from flowers.
• They use their antennae to detect pheromones released by female moths.
• They help to spread pollen from flower to flower.

The correct answer is Hydrometer.

Key Points 

• Hydrometer:
• It is an instrument used to determine the specific gravity of a liquid.
• Its operation is based on the Archimedes principle that a solid body displaces its weight within a liquid in which it floats.
• It is made up of a thin glass or plastic tube sealed at both ends with a graduated or printed scale calibrated to specific gravity.
• It can be divided into two general classes: liquids heavier than water and liquids lighter than water.

​

Additional Information 

• Hygrometer
• It is an instrument used in meteorological science to measure the humidity or amount of water vapour in the air.
• It is a specially designed apparatus that calculates relative humidity in an open or enclosed area.
• Viscometer
• In capillary tube viscometer, the pressure needed to force the fluid to flow at a specified rate through a narrow tube is measured.
• This type of viscometer is based on laminar flow through a circular pipe.
• It has a circular tube attached horizontally to a vessel filled with a liquid whose viscosity has to be measured. Suitable head (hf ) is provided to the liquid so that it can flow freely through the capillary tube of certain length (L) into a collection tank as
• ​Udometer
• It is an instrument for measuring the amount of rainfall or snowfall.
• It consists of a cylinder covered by a funnel-like lid.

correct answer is Flowers are present 

Key Points

• The divisions of Bryophyta-Mosses, Liverworts, Hornworts.
• Bryophyta is the division of green plants and it does not have true vascular tissue.
• Bryophyta has “rhizoids” instead of roots.
• Mosses- It produces spores for reproduction instead of seeds.
• Liverworts- Reproduce by means of spores released from capsules.
• Hornworts- Its elongated and is the gametophyte plant.
• Lycopsida comes under Pteridophyta. They are vascular plants.

Correct answer is Taking antibiotics 

Key PointsAmoebiasis:

• It is a parasitic protozoan disease that affects the gut mucosa and liver, resulting in dysentery, colitis, and liver abscess.
• The causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica, is a potent pathogen that is spread via ingestion of contaminated food and water.
• Globally, amoebiasis is highly prevalent and is the second leading cause of death to parasitic disease.

Signs and symptoms:

• Mild diarrhea with alternating constipation
• Mucus with stool
• Blood with stool
• Pain
• Weight loss
• Dyspnea

Causes of amoebiasis:

• Through food or water contaminated with stools
• From person to person
• Through fertilizer made of human waste.

The correct answer is Parasitism.

Key Points

• Ascaris are intestinal parasites that live in the human intestines, feeding off the host and causing harm.
• In parasitic interactions, the parasite benefits at the expense of the host, often causing disease or discomfort.
• Parasitism is a non-mutual relationship where one organism (the parasite) benefits while the other (the host) is harmed.
• Common examples of parasites include roundworms, tapeworms, and lice.
• Ascaris infections can lead to malnutrition, intestinal blockages, and other health issues in humans.

Additional Information

• Commensalism: This is a type of interaction where one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed. Examples include barnacles on whales.
• Mutualism: This interaction benefits both organisms involved. An example is bees pollinating flowers while collecting nectar.Amensalism: This is an interaction where one organism is inhibited or destroyed while the other remains unaffected. An example is the release of antibiotics by certain fungi.
• Predation: This involves a predator hunting and consuming its prey. An example is a lion hunting a zebra.
• Host-Parasite Dynamics: The relationship between parasites and their hosts can have significant impacts on the health, behavior, and population dynamics of the host species.

The correct answer is 2) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Gravitational Force: It is a force that attracts any two objects with mass. It is the weakest but has an infinite range.
• Electromagnetic Force: This force acts between charged particles and is responsible for electricity, magnetism, and light. It has an infinite range and is much stronger than gravitational force.
• Strong Nuclear Force: This force binds protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom. It is the strongest force but has a very short range, approximately 10^-15 meters.
• Weak Nuclear Force: This force is responsible for radioactive decay and neutrino interactions. It has a very short range, approximately 10^-18 meters, and is stronger than gravitational force but weaker than both electromagnetic and strong nuclear forces.

Additional Information

• Gravitational Force: It is central to the understanding of the universe, governing the motion of planets, stars, galaxies, and even light.
• Electromagnetic Force: This force is described by the theory of electromagnetism, encapsulated in Maxwell's equations, and is integral to the understanding of electric circuits, radio waves, and light.
• Strong Nuclear Force: It is described by Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD) and is essential in maintaining the stability of atomic nuclei against the repulsive electromagnetic force between protons.
• Weak Nuclear Force: It plays a crucial role in nuclear fusion processes such as those that power the sun, as well as in the standard model of particle physics.
• Unified Field Theory: Scientists have been working towards a Unified Field Theory to combine all fundamental forces into a single theoretical framework, with theories like string theory being major contenders.

The correct answer is Niobium 

Key Points

• Niobium is a chemical element identified by the chemical symbol Nb.
• It is greyish white, having atomic number 41, and belongs to the transition metal category in the periodic table.
• In the periodic table, it resides among the 5th group d-block elements.
• It has high heat resistivity hence showing high melting and boiling points.
• It is ductile and alternatively introduced in the place of nickel for jewellery making as it is hypoallergenic by nature.

Additional Information 

Physical Properties of Niobium

Chemical Properties of Niobium

• Niobium has identical chemical properties as its neighbour congener Tantalum.
• It can react with air oxygen and form oxides, creating a layer on niobium itself when exposed to air. Under this situation, the greyish-white colour of niobium slightly changes.
• It reacts with halogen and sometimes forms octahedral halides.
• It is water soluble and can form niobium hydroxide.

Correct Answer is Evaporation and Condensation

Key PointsEvaporation and condensation are responsible for causing rain. These are the phases of the hydrological cycle in which the water first heats and evaporates and later condenses and falls because of a decreased temperature.

Correct Answer is Low work function

Key Points

• Photoelectric effect: When the light of a suitable wavelength is incident on the metal surface, electrons are ejected from the metal instantly. This phenomenon is called the photoelectric effect.
• Stopping potential (V): The minimum potential required to stop the electron emitted from metal so that its kinetic energy becomes zero is called stopping potential.
• Work function: It is the minimum amount of energy required so that metal emits an electron. It is represented by ϕ.

Albert Einstein equation for photoelectric emission:

​h ν = ϕ + e V

Where, h = planks constant, ν = incident frequency, ϕ = work function, e = charge on an electron and V = stopping potential.

EXPLANATION: 

• From the above discussion, In the photoelectric effect ejection of electrons from the surface of metal takes place when Light of suitable wavelength falls on it. So option 2 is correct.

Correct Answer is Scandium

Key Points

Atomic number of calcium is 20

Sulphur (S) 16 < Chlorine (Cl) 17 < Argon (Ar) 18 < Scandium (Sc) 21

Hence scandium has the atomic number greater than 20

Additional InformationThe atomic number of calcium is 20. The atomic number of some commonly used elements is given in the table below.

Correct Answer is Water Vapor

Key Points

• CO₂ is the main greenhouse gas globally.
• Methane is the main greenhouse gas for tropical regions.
• Water vapor is the most important natural greenhouse gas for the tropical region.

Important Points 

• GREENHOUSE EFFECT:
• The rays coming from the sun get reflected after striking the earth's surface. Certain gases do not allow the reflected (infrared) rays to escape the earth's atmosphere and thus the heat gets trapped. This phenomenon is known as the greenhouse effect and the gases involved are termed greenhouses gases.
• The heat trapped increases the temperature of the earth and this phenomenon is known as global warming.
• Causes of Greenhouse Effect:
• Burning of Fossil Fuels
• Deforestation
• Farming
• Industrial Waste and Landfills
• Effects of Greenhouse Effect:
• Global Warming
• Depletion of Ozone Layer
• Smog and Air Pollution
• Acidification of Water Bodies
• The prominent greenhouse gases are - Water Vapour, Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide, Ozone, Chlorofluorocarbons, and Hydrofluorocarbons.
• The table given below shows the contribution of various greenhouse gases:

• WATER VAPOUR (H₂O):
• As evident from the above table, it is the most abundant greenhouse gas present in the atmosphere.
• Warmer air has the capacity of holding more water vapor, which traps more heat. Due to this, a positive feedback loop gets created.
• CARBON DIOXIDE (CO₂):
• Events like volcanic eruptions, forest fires, burning of fossil fuels lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere.
• METHANE (CH₄):
• Though its concentration in the atmosphere is very low, its contribution is approximately 9% in greenhouse gases.
• It has more heating capacity as compared to water vapor and carbon dioxide.

Confusion Points

In this context, “potent” means: How strongly a gas contributes to the greenhouse effect — i.e., its ability to trap heat in the atmosphere.

So, when we say “the most potent greenhouse gas,” we mean the one that traps the most heat or has the greatest warming effect, whether due to:

• its quantity in the atmosphere
• or its heat-trapping ability per molecule (called Global Warming Potential, or GWP)

The correct answer is Metabolic wastes from a cell.

Key Points

• Nutrients in excess and the by-products of metabolic reactions are harmful for the body and therefore should be removed.
• The removal of these substances by the body is called excretion.
• The excretory system comprises of ureters, kidneys, urinary bladder, and urethra.
• The excretory system in a human body is responsible for the removal of unnecessary and excess materials from the body fluids to prevent the body from any damage and to help maintain the internal chemical homeostasis.
• The human excretory system includes certain organs that eliminate the wastes such as salts, carbon dioxide, urea, uric acid and water produced by the body.
• Homeostasis is the process by which waste is eliminated in the excretory system.
• 

The correct answer is Hydrogen gas

Key Points

• Hydrogen fuel is a type of fuel that is made from hydrogen gas.
• It is a clean and renewable energy source that has the potential to replace fossil fuels such as gasoline, diesel, and natural gas.
• Hydrogen and oxygen are needed to generate energy, the mixture also produces water as a by-product.
• One of the biggest benefits of these fuel cells is that they produce electricity with very little pollution.
• Hydrogen Fuel Production
• By Electrolysis process
• By Steam Methane Reforming
• Uses of Hydrogen Fuel
• It is the best replacement for traditional fuels.
• It can be utilized to power nearly all types of vehicles or electrical equipment, including generators, electric motors, cars, boats, and airplanes.

Correct Answer is White

Key Points

• When Magnesium (Mg) ribbon is burnt in air, Magnesium Oxide (MgO) is formed.
• A bright white light is produced when the ribbon is burnt and powdery ash i.e. MgO is formed.
• The reaction is a highly exothermic reaction, i.e. a lot of heat is produced.
• The oxygen in the air reacts with Mg to form MgO.
• 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO + energy; is the balanced equation for this reaction.

The correct answer is Caffeine.

• Caffeine is defined as a drug because it stimulates the central nervous system, causing increased alertness.
• Caffeine gives most people a temporary energy boost and elevates mood.

Caffeine is in tea, coffee, chocolate, many soft drinks, and pain relievers, and other over-the-counter medications.

Additional Information  

• Caffeine acts as a central nervous system stimulant.
• When it reaches your brain, the most noticeable effect is alertness.
• You'll feel more awake and less tired, so it's a common ingredient in medications to treat or manage drowsiness, headaches, and migraines.
• Caffeine is an alkaloid occurring naturally in some 60 plant species, of which cocoa beans, kola nuts, tea leaves, and coffee beans are the most well-known.
• Other natural sources of caffeine include yerba maté, guarana berries, guayusa, and the yaupon holly.
• Caffeine is a stimulant drug, which means it speeds up the messages traveling between the brain and the body.
• It's found in the seeds, nuts, and leaves of a number of different plants, including Coffea Arabica (used for coffee) and Thea Sinensis (used for tea).

Correct Answer is Transmit or absorb light of different colours 

Key PointsOptical filters are devices that selectively transmit light of different wavelengths, usually implemented as plane glass or plastic devices in the optical path which are either dyed in the bulk or have interference coatings.

The correct answer is Great Indian Bustard

Key Points

• 'Great Indian Bustard' is found in the Desert National Park.
• The scientific name of the Great Indian Bustard is Ardeotis nigriceps.
• It is critically endangered by hunting and the loss of its habitat.
• It is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 of India.
• The death of the Great Indian Bustard resulted in the implementation of bird diverters
• It is the state bird of Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• White-bellied heron
• The white-bellied heron (Ardea insignis), also known as the imperial heron or great white-bellied heron, is a species of large heron known from the foothills of the eastern Himalayas in India and Bhutan to northeastern Bangladesh and Myanmar.
• It is mostly solitary and occurs in undisturbed riversides or wetlands.
• Forest Owl
• The forest owl (Athene blewit) is endemic to the forests of central India. It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List since 2018, as the population is estimated at less than 1,000 mature individuals.
• It is threatened foremost by deforestation.
• Indian vulture
• The Indian vulture (Gyps indicus) is an Old World vulture native to India, Pakistan and Nepal.
• It has been listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List since 2002, as the population severely declined.
• Indian vultures died of kidney failure caused by diclofenac poisoning.
• It breeds mainly on hilly crags in central and peninsular India.

The correct answer is 7500

• The total length of the coastline of the mainland including Andaman and Nicobar and the Lakshwadeep islands is 7,516.6 km.

Key Points 

• The total coastline of India measures about 7,517 km, which is distributed among nine coastal states and four Union Territories; and almost entire coast of India falls within tropics.
• The nine coastal states are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal.
• The Four coastal Union Territories are Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
• The coasts of India include the West Coast, East Coast, and Coast of Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Important Points 

• Gujarat is strategically located with the largest share in India’s coastline, followed by Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Over 22.6% of the total coasts of India are of islands (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep, and Diu islands).

The correct answer is Proteins

Key Points

• Nitrogen occurs in all organisms, primarily in amino acids, nucleic acids, and in the energy transfer molecule adenosine triphosphate.
• Proteins are large biological molecules or macromolecules consisting of one or more long chains of amino acids and carboxylic acid.
• Vitamin B is a water-soluble vitamin, they contain nitrogen in their ring in all eight different forms i.e., B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9, B12.
• Nitrogen is not present in fats.

Important Points 

• Nutrients are the substances found in food that drive biological activity and are essential for the human body.
• They are categorized as:
• Proteins
• Fats
• Carbohydrates (sugars, dietary fiber)
• Vitamins
• Minerals
• They perform the following vital functions:
• Building all parts of the body such as muscle, bone, teeth, and blood.
• Producing energy (power and heat).
• Keeping the body in good working order.

Correct Answer is Flux

Key Points

Explanation:

• The main function of limestone in the extraction of iron from haematite is as a flux.
• Limestone is used as a flux to remove the impurities and dirt from haematite.
• Limestone decomposes in a hot furnace and forms calcium oxide (CaO).
• Iron is extracted from its ore, haematite, in a blast furnace.
• The ore is put into the furnace along with limestone and coke
• This reacts with the sandy impurities (silicon dioxide) to form a slag (CaSiO3)
• Blast-furnace slag is a useful by-product used widely in the construction industry.

​ 

Additional Information

• Wrought iron is the purest form of iron available commercially available and is prepared from cast iron by heating cast iron in a furnace lined with Haematite (Fe2O3).
• The Haematite reacts with Carbon in the cast iron to give pure iron and carbon monoxide gas which escapes.

Correct Answer is Dr M. S. Swaminathan

Key Points

Green Revolution in India:

• The term green revolution was first used by William Gaud and Norman Borlaug is the Father of the Green Revolution.
• After Independence, Indian policy-makers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
• In the year 1965, the government of India launched the Green Revolution with the help of a geneticist, now known as the father of the Green revolution (India) M.S. Swaminathan.
• The movement of the green revolution was a great success and changed the country’s status from a food-deficient economy to one of the world’s leading agricultural nations.
• It started in 1967 and lasted till 1978.
• India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in the 'Green Revolution', especially in the production of wheat and rice.
• Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, officially recorded the impressive strides of the Green Revolution in agriculture by releasing a special stamp entitled 'Wheat Revolution' in July 1968.
• The success of wheat was later replicated in rice.
• Thus, to signify the achievements of the Green Revolution, a stamp was released by the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi entitled as ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968.

Additional Information

Yellow Revolution:

• The Yellow Revolution is concerned with Oilseeds production.
• This revolution means the cultivation of mustard as a part of crop rotation.
• The Father of the Yellow Revolution is Sam Pit Roda.
• It was also called People Power Revolution.
• It was first launched in 1986-87 in India.
• To popularize the four major oilseeds- groundnut, mustard, soyabean, and sunflower.

The Correct Answer is: 36-37°C

Key Points

• The average body temperature is 98.6 F (37 C).
• But normal body temperature can range between 97 F (36.1 C) and 99 F (37.2 C) or more.​

Additional Information 

• Some studies have shown that the "normal" body temperature can have a wide range,

          from 97°F (36.1°C) to 99°F (37.2°C). A temperature over 100.4°F (38°C) most often means you have a fever caused by an infection or illness.

The correct answer is All living cells arise from pre-existing cells

Key Points 

• Cells are the smallest units of life and hence are often referred to as the building blocks of life.
• The study of cells is called cell biology, cellular biology, or cytology.
• Cells consist of cytoplasm enclosed within a membrane, which contains many biomolecules such as proteins and nucleic acids.
• The classical cell theory was proposed by Theodor Schwann in 1839.
• There are three parts to this theory:
• The first part states that all organisms are made of cells.
• The second part states that cells are the basic units of life. These parts were based on a conclusion made by Schwann and Matthias Schleiden in 1838.
• The third part, which asserts that cells come from preexisting cells that have multiplied, was described by Rudolf Virchow in 1858.

Additional Information 

                                    Diagram of a cell

 

The correct answer is option 4.

Explanation:

Steganography can reduce the likelihood of data leakage by hiding data within other data, making it difficult for unauthorized individuals to detect and access the sensitive information.

 Additional Information

• Cryptography can also be used to protect data by encrypting it so that it can only be accessed by authorized individuals with the correct decryption key.
• Authentication can help prevent data leakage by verifying the identity of users accessing sensitive information, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access.
• Chorography is not relevant to data security and is therefore not a valid option for reducing the likelihood of data leakage.

The correct answer is Optical character reader.

Key Points

• An Optical Character Reader device can read data that has been typed or handwritten on a source document.
• It is a combination of a scanner and special software which converts the printed or handwritten data to ASCII.
• It is used to convert the paper record into the electric filling and scanned challan into a spreadsheet.

  

Additional Information

• Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
• Magnetic Ink Character Recognition machines are capable of reading magnetic ink characters on Magnetic Ink Character Reader (MICR) documents.
• Magnetic Ink Character Recognition is a character-recognition technology adopted mainly by the banking industry to facilitate the processing of cheques.
• The ability to process checks and deduct payment amounts using a routing number is one of the advantages of the magnetic ink character recognition line.

• Optical Mark Recognition (OMR):
• Optical Mark Reader (OMR), sometimes called a mark-sense reader, detects the presence of Pencil mark or Predetermined grids.
• OMR devices work with a dedicated scanner device that throws a beam of light on the form of paper.
• It is used to check the objective test mark-sheet, lottery ticket, and official form, etc.

• Image scanner
• Image scanner also called a scanner scans images, handwriting, printed text or objects and converts them into a digital image.
• It is like a photocopy machine.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• A packet on any data link is called a frame.
• A frame is a unit of data that is transmitted over a network.
• It consists of a header and a payload (data).
• The header contains control information, such as source and destination addresses, error detection, and sequencing information.

 Additional Information

• Group: A group is not a term used to describe a packet on a data link.
• Path: A path refers to the route that a packet takes through a network, not the packet itself.
• Block: A block is a group of data that is transmitted as a unit, but it is not a commonly used term to describe a packet on a data link.

The correct answer is option 2. 

Key Points

• High-level languages are programming languages that are closer to natural language and are easier to read and write than low-level languages.
• C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are all examples of high-level languages.
• High-level languages are used for application programming and are generally easier to learn and use than low-level languages.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Computer) is incorrect because the question is asking about programming languages, not computers.
• Option 3 (System programming) is incorrect because while high-level languages can be used for system programming, they are primarily used for application programming.
• Option 4 (Low-level languages) is incorrect because C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are all high-level languages, not low-level languages.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• MS-DOS operating system uses CLI (Command Line Interface) for interacting with end users.
• CLI is a text•based interface where users enter commands to perform tasks.
• MS-DOS commands are entered in the CLI prompt and executed by pressing Enter.
• CLI allows users to perform tasks quickly and efficiently through keyboard shortcuts and command syntax.

 Additional Information

• MPU (Microprocessor Unit): It is a component of a computer system, not an interface for interacting with users.
• MLI (Machine Language Interpreter): It is a program that translates machine language into human-readable code, but it is not a user interface.
• CPU (Central Processing Unit): It is the main processing component of a computer system, not an interface for interacting with users.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• RAM is considered the main memory.
• RAM stands for Random Access Memory, and it is the primary memory of a computer.
• It is a volatile memory, meaning it loses its content when the power is turned off.
• It is used to temporarily store data and instructions that the CPU needs to access quickly.

Additional Information

• ROM (Read-Only Memory) is a non-volatile memory that stores firmware and is not used as the main memory.
• Cache memory is a small, fast memory used to store frequently accessed data and instructions.
• Memory cards are external storage devices used to store data and are not considered as main memory.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The IT Act 2000 provides guidelines to the user on processing, storage, and transmission of sensitive information.
• 1. Processing of sensitive information involves the collection, use, disclosure, retention, and disposal of personal information.
• 2. Storage of sensitive information involves the protection of personal information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, and destruction.
• 3. Transmission of sensitive information involves the secure transfer of personal information from one location to another.

Option 1 is the correct answer as it includes all three aspects of the IT Act guidelines. 

Additional Information

• Option 2 includes only storage and transmission, missing out on processing.
• Option 3 includes only processing and transmission, missing out on storage.
• Option 4 includes only processing and storage, missing out on transmission.

The correct answer is option 1.

 Key Points

• Unwanted or unlawful email messages are referred to as spam.
• Spam emails are usually sent in bulk to a large number of recipients, without their permission.
• Spam emails can contain various types of content, such as advertisements, scams, malware, or phishing attempts.
• Spam emails can be harmful to the recipient's privacy, security, and productivity.

 Additional Information

• Anti-virus:  
• It is a software designed to protect a computer or network from malware and other threats.
• Anti-virus software can detect and remove viruses, spyware, adware, and other malicious software.
• However, Anti-virus software cannot prevent or stop spam emails from reaching the recipient's inbox.
• Smishing:
• Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses SMS text messages instead of email.
• Smishing messages usually contain a link or phone number that the recipient is encouraged to click or call, which can lead to fraud or malware infection.
• Smishing can be prevented by being cautious of unexpected or suspicious text messages, and by not clicking on links or calling numbers from unknown sources.
• Rootkit:
• A rootkit is a type of malware that is designed to hide its presence and activities from the user and the anti-virus software.
• Rootkits can be used to gain unauthorized access to a computer or network, steal data, or perform other malicious activities.
• However, rootkits are not directly related to spam emails, and can be detected and removed by specialized anti-malware tools.

The correct answer is option 4.

 Key Points

• Registers are high-speed storage areas within the CPU that have the least storage capacity.
• Registers are used to store data that the CPU needs to access frequently and quickly, such as data being used in arithmetic operations.
• Registers are located within the CPU, making them faster to access than other types of memory.
• Registers are typically small in size, ranging from 8 to 64 bits.

Additional Information

• Storage units: Are not a specific type of memory within the CPU and could refer to various types of storage devices outside of the CPU.
• Logical units: It is not a common term used to describe memory within the CPU.
• Processors: Are not a type of memory but rather the component that executes instructions and performs calculations.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Klez had the capability to exploit buggy Microsoft email clients and spread itself to everyone.
• Klez was a worm that spread through email attachments and network shares.

 Additional Information

• Mydoom: It was a worm that spread through email and peer-to-peer file sharing. Mydoom did not exploit buggy Microsoft email clients like Klez did.
• Sasser: It was a worm that exploited a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Sasser did not exploit buggy Microsoft email clients like Klez did.
• Melissa: It was a macro virus that spread through email attachments. Melissa did not exploit buggy Microsoft email clients like Klez did.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The logic unit of ALU is responsible for performing logical operations such as AND, OR, NOT, and XOR.
• It receives input from the memory unit and sends the output to the register.
• The arithmetic unit of ALU is responsible for performing arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.
• The comparing unit of ALU is responsible for comparing two values and determining if they are equal, greater than, or less than each other.

Additional Information

• Comparing unit: The comparing unit is responsible for comparing two values and determining if they are equal, greater than, or less than each other.
• Arithmetic unit: The arithmetic unit is responsible for performing arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.
• Number unit: The number unit is not a component of ALU and is an incorrect option.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The keyword used for "Debugging" in Java is "Assert".
• It checks whether a particular condition is true or false and if it is false, it throws an error.
• Assert is used to check the correctness of a program during development and testing.
• It helps in identifying the errors in the code and fixing them before the code is released.
• Assert statements are usually removed from the code during production as they can impact performance and are not required for normal functioning of the code.

 Additional Information

• Abstract: It is a keyword used to declare a class or method as abstract, meaning it cannot be instantiated and must be extended or implemented by a subclass.
• Insert: It is not a keyword in Java.
• Boolean: It is a keyword used to declare a Boolean variable or method. It has two possible values - true and false.

The correct answer is option 4.

 Key Points

• The instruction register contains the current instruction most recently fetched.
• It is a special register that holds the instruction that the processor is currently executing.
• The program counter holds the memory address of the next instruction to be executed.
• The compiler is a software tool that translates source code into machine code.
• The data register holds data that is being used by the processor.

Additional Information

• Program counter: The program counter holds the memory address of the next instruction to be executed.
• Compiler: The compiler is a software tool that translates source code into machine code.
• Data register: The data register holds data that is being used by the processor.

The correct answer is option 3.

Explanation:

Information in a local language on a website: This is not a symptom of a virus and is unrelated to the presence of a virus in the computer.

Additional Information

• Automatic log-out of the user may happen: This can be a symptom of a virus as it may cause the system to behave abnormally and log out the user without any apparent reason.
• Self-execution of programs may take place: This can also be a symptom of a virus as it can cause programs to execute without the user's knowledge or consent.
• Suddenly the system stops working smoothly: This can be a symptom of a virus as it may cause the system to slow down or stop working altogether.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• USB port uses thin wires to connect to devices.
• These thin wires are used to transmit data and power between the device and the computer.
• USB ports are designed to be hot-swappable, meaning that devices can be connected and disconnected without having to restart the computer.
• Multiple devices can be connected to a single USB port through the use of a hub.

 Additional Information

• Device: It is too broad and does not provide specific information about the connection method of USB ports.
• Circuit: It is not directly related to the physical connection between USB ports and devices.
• Disk: It is not related to the connection method of USB ports and devices. Disks may be connected to USB ports, but they are not the primary type of device that USB ports are designed to connect to.

The correct answer is OR

Key Points

• The OR gate performs the addition operation in digital logic.
• In an OR gate, the output is true (1) if at least one of the inputs is true (1).
• The OR gate is a fundamental building block in digital circuits, often used in various computational and logical operations.
• It is commonly represented by the symbol "+" in Boolean algebra.

Additional Information

• In digital electronics, logic gates are the building blocks of digital circuits.
• There are several types of logic gates including AND, OR, NOT, NAND, NOR, XOR, and XNOR.
• Each type of gate performs a specific logical function and has a unique symbol and truth table.
• Logic gates are used in various applications such as arithmetic operations, data processing, and control systems.

The correct answer is option 1.

 Key Points

• COD in e-commerce stands for Cash on Delivery, which is a payment method where the customer pays for their order in cash at the time of delivery.
• This payment option is particularly popular in countries where online shopping is still gaining traction, or where customers may not have access to credit or debit cards.
• Cash on Delivery can be beneficial for customers who may be hesitant to pay for their order upfront, or who want to ensure they receive their purchase before paying for it.
• However, COD can also come with some drawbacks, such as the risk of fraud or non-payment, as well as additional costs for the retailer, such as shipping and handling fees.

 Additional Information

• Cash on Demand: Is not a commonly used term in e-commerce and does not refer to a specific payment method.
• Cart on Delivery and Cart on Demand: Are also not commonly used in e-commerce and do not refer to payment methods.

The correct answer is option 1.

 Key Points

• The Network layer is the third layer of the OSI model and provides logical addressing and routing services to move data from one network to another.
• The Network layer protocol is responsible for breaking down data into smaller packets and transmitting them across the network.
• The addressing scheme used in the Network layer is hierarchical in nature, which means that the network address and the host address are separate.
• The router is a device that operates at the Network layer and is responsible for forwarding packets between different networks based on the destination address.

 Additional Information

• Option 2 states that only (ii) is not correct regarding the Network layer. This is incorrect because the addressing scheme is indeed hierarchical in nature.
• Option 3 states that both (ii) and (iii) are not correct regarding the Network layer. This is also incorrect because the addressing scheme is hierarchical and routers do operate at this layer.
• Option 4 states that only (i) is not correct regarding the Network layer. This is also incorrect because the Network layer does provide the means of transferring variable-length data sequences.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The correct shortcut key to start the slideshow in PowerPoint is F5.
• Pressing F5 will start the slideshow from the beginning.

 Additional Information

• Press F1: It opens the PowerPoint help feature.
• Press Shift + F1: It opens the task pane for PowerPoint help and How-to content.
• Press Shift + F5: It starts the slideshow from the current slide, not the beginning.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• The symptom of the virus that represents gibberish messages, messages you haven't seen before, and undesired ad messages is an unusual error message.
• This type of message may appear on your screen unexpectedly and may contain strange characters or language.
• It is a common sign of a virus or malware infection, as these programs often try to display messages or ads to the user.
• Other symptoms of a virus may include slow performance, hardware trouble, or anti-virus messages.

 Additional Information

• Anti-virus: While anti-virus messages can be a symptom of a virus, they are not necessarily the type of message described in the question.
• Hardware Trouble: It may cause error messages, but it is unlikely to produce gibberish or ad messages.
• Slow Performance: It can be a symptom of a virus, but it is not specifically related to the type of message described in the question.

The logic followed here is:

14: 53

(1 + 4) × 10 + (4 - 1) = 53

5 × 10 + 3 = 53

50 + 3 = 53

53 = 53 (LHS = RHS) 

Similarly,

26 : ?

(2 + 6) × 10 + (6 - 2) = ?

8 × 10 + 4 = ?

80 + 4 = ?

84 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method14: 53

(1 + 4)  = 5 (Tens place digit of 2nd number)

(4 - 1)  = 3 (Ones place digit of 2nd number)

Similarly,

26 : ?

(2 + 6)  = 8 (Tens place digit of 2nd number)

(6 - 2)  = 4 (Ones place digit of 2nd number)

Thus, '84' is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

Here, as marked there are a total of 15 triangles.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: A Hippo said to an Elephant that, ‘The animal who is watching the movie is my wife’s father-in-law’s wife’s only son’s son'. 

Thus, Hippo's wife is animal's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Eye : Ophthalmologist → An Ophthalmologist is a specialist in medical and surgical eye problems.

Similarly,

Music : ? → A composer is one who creates music.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

1) Total triangles = [Number of parts × (1 + Number of parts)] ÷ 2

= [4 × (1 + 4)] ÷ 2

= [4 × 5] ÷ 2

= 20 ÷ 2

= 10

1) Total triangles = [Number of parts × (1 + Number of parts)] ÷ 2

= [2 × (1 + 2)] ÷ 2

= [2 × 3] ÷ 2

= 6 ÷ 2

= 3

As there are 1 same types of triangles, therefore total number of triangles will be (3 × 2) = 6 

Thus, there are a total of (10 + 6) 16 triangles.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

6 : 10

(6 × 2) - (6 ÷ 3) = 10

12 - 2 = 10

10 = 10 (LHS = RHS) 

Similarly,

9 : ?

(9 × 2) - (9 ÷ 3) = ?

18 - 3 = ?

15 = ? 

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given:

A is 40 m south-west of B. C is 40 m south-east of B.

Thus, C is to the east of A.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Food : cook → A cook is a person who prepares and cooks food.

Similarly,

Movie : ? → A director is a person who creates movie.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) UXA

Option 2) DGJ

Option 3) LOR

Option 4) RTV

Thus, out of all the options, 'RTV' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Mug, Pitcher, and Cup are generally used for drinking or serving beverages.

Whereas,

The container is used to store things and doesn't specifically relate to beverages.

Hence, The correct answer is " Container ".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Here. option figure 1 shows the mirror image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

Thus, there are a total of 6 triangles.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which is most suitable as the last part of the given figure is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 completes the given figures.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: (15 - 10) ÷ (130 + 10) × 50 = ?

(15 - 10) ÷ (130 + 10) × 50 = ? ⇒ (15 × 10) + (130 ÷ 10) - 50 = ?

⇒ (15 × 10) + (130 ÷ 10) - 50 = ?

⇒ (15 × 10) + 13 - 50 = ?

⇒ 150 + 13 - 50 = ?

⇒ 163 - 50 = ?

⇒ 113 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

From the given information,

Thus, Barber is the who cuts hair is called 'Postman'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is shown below :

There is no relation between nurses, doctors and pharmacists.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given:

R is to the West of P. T is to the East of S. P is to the north of S.

Thus, T is to the southeast of R.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: In a queue, Sheetal is standing 14th from left and Pooja is standing 18th from left. Kriti is standing 18th from right. If Kriti is 8th to the right of Pinky, who in turn is 7th to the right of Sheetal.

Thus, Pooja is standing 29th from right.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'CERTAIN ' is written as 'XVIGZRM'

Similarly,

'CLIMATE' is written as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given:

The cost of production is (2/5) of the marked price

Concept used :

Marked price (100 - discount rate/100) = selling price

Profit = selling price - cost price

Calculations :

Let the selling price be 100x

Cost of production = $\dfrac{2 }{5}$ of 100x = 40x

⇒ Selling price = 100x × (100-10)/100) = 90x

⇒ Profit = 90x - 40x = 50 x

⇒ Profit % = (50x)/40x) × 100 = 125 %

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

The logic followed here is:

We are arranging animals in the order of their size from smallest to largest.

a) Ant → Ants are tiny insects and are the smallest among the given options.

c) Rat → Rats are small domesticated mammals, larger than ants but smaller than dogs.

e) Dog → Dogs domesticated animals, larger than rats but smaller than tigers.

d) Tiger → Tigers are large wild cats, larger than dogs but smaller than whales.

b) Whale → Whales are the largest animals among the given options.

So, the order would be: 'acedb'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

The population of town A is 125% more than that of town B.

After 2 years the population of A and B = 1 : 1

Calculation:

We're told that the initial population of Town A is 125% more than that of Town B.

Let's population of Town B is P.

So, initially, the population of Town A is 1.25P + P = 2.25P.

Population of town A Decrease by x% per year for 2 years = 2.25P ×  (1-x/100) ^2,

Population of town B Increase by x% per year for 2 years:=  P ×  (1+x/100) ²

So we can set up an equation where Town A's final population equals Town B's:

⇒ 2.25P ×  (1-x/100) ²

⇒ P ×  (1+x/100)²

We can simplify this equation by dividing both sides by P:

⇒ 2.25 ×  (1 - x/100) ²

⇒  (1 + x/100) ^2.

Square roots on both sides:

⇒  $\sqrt{2.25}$ ×  (1 - x/100) = 1 + x/100

⇒  1.5 * (1 - x/100) = 1 + x/100.

⇒  1.5 - 1.5x/100 = 1 + x/100.

⇒  0.5 = 1.5x/100 + x/100,

⇒  0.5 = 2.5x/100.

⇒  x = 0.5 ×  100 / 2.5,

⇒  x = 20.

So, x, the annual change in population, is 20%.

Calculation:

Students have secured 20 or less than 20 marks :

⇒ 2 +  7

⇒ 9 Students.

Given:

Downstream: 86 km in 6 hours

Upstream: 48 km in 5 hours

Formula used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Speed in still water = (Downstream speed + Upstream speed) / 2

Calculation:

Downstream speed = 86 km / 6 hours = 43/3 km/hr

Upstream speed = 48 km / 5 hours = 48/5 km/hr

Speed in still water = (43/3 + 48/5) / 2

Speed in still water = ((43 × 5) / 15 + (48 × 3) / 15) / 2

Speed in still water = (215/15 + 144/15) / 2

Speed in still water = (359/15) / 2

Speed in still water = 359 / (15 × 2) 

Speed in still water = 359 / 30 km/hr ≈ 11.97 km/hr

∴ Rakhi can swim at approximately 11.97 km/hr in still water.

Given Word: SOVEREIGN

Option 1) RAIN → Cannot be formed, as 'A' is not in the given word.

Option 2) RINSE → Can be formed

Option 3) NOSE → Can be formed

Option 4) IRON  → Can be formed

Hence "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 15 : 3375 → 15³ = 3375

Option 2) 17 : 4913 → 173 = 4913

Option 3) 16 : 1280 → 163 = 4096 ≠ 1280

Option 4) 12 : 1728 → 123 = 1728

Thus, out of all '16 : 1280' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given:

Scenario 1: Markup = 80%, Discount = 7K/40%, Profit = 17%

Scenario 2: Markup = K/2%, Discount = K/12%

Formula used:

MP = CP + Markup

SP = MP - Discount

Profit = SP - CP

Profit percentage = (Profit / CP) * 100

Calculation:

Scenario 1: 

Let CP = 100, MP = 180

Discount = (7K/4000) × 180 = 63K/200

SP = 180 - 63K/200 = 117

63K/200 = 63

K = 200

Scenario 2: 

Markup = 200/2% = 100%

Discount = 200/12% = 50/3%

Scenario 2: 

CP = 100, MP = 200

Discount = (50/300) × 200 = 100/3

SP = 200 - 100/3 = 500/3

Profit = 500/3 - 100 = 200/3

Profit percentage = (200/3 / 100) × 100 = 200/3 ≈ 66.67%

∴ The profit percentage would have been 66.67%.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given:

Distance between two trains  = 800 m

Speed₁ = 108 kmph  , Speed₂  = 90 km/hr.

Cross each other in = 24 seconds

Concept Used:

Distance = Speed × time 

Time taken by trains to cross each other = Total distance covered/Their relative speed

Calculation:

Let the length of the longer train be ‘x’ m

⇒ Length of shorter train = (x – 40) m

∵ The two trains are moving towards each other, i.e., in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds

⇒ Relative speed of trains = 108 + 90 = 198 km/hr. = 198 × 5/18 = 55 m/sec.

Now,

Total distance covered by the trains to cross each other = Distance between them + Sum of their lengths = 800 + x + x – 40 = (2x + 760) m

∵ Time taken by trains to cross each other = Total distance covered/Their relative speed

⇒ 24 = (2x + 760)/55

⇒ 2x = 1320 – 760 = 560

⇒ x = 560/2 = 280 m

∴ Length of longer train = 280 m

Given:

Total Pens Sold = 63 

Gain =25% , Loss = 10% overall Profit = 15%

Calculation:

Let

The number of pens sold at 25% profit as = x.

The number of pens sold at a loss of 10% =  63 - x 

Given that he gained 15% on the whole process, it means that the weighted average of the profit and loss percentages equals a 15% gain.

So, we can set up the following equation:

⇒ $\dfrac{(25x - 10(63 - x))}{63 }$ = 15 

Solving this for x, which represents the number of pens sold at 25% profit:

⇒ 25x - 630 + 10x = 15 ×  63 

Combine like terms:

⇒ 35x - 630 = 945 

Isolate x by adding 630 to both sides of the equation and then dividing by 35:

⇒ x = $\dfrac{(945 + 630)}{35 }$

⇒ x =$\dfrac{1575}{35 }$

⇒ x = 45

Therefore, Raman sold 45 pens at a 25% profit.

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is shown below :

Sun is a star.

Moon is a natural satellite.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given : 

$\rm\sqrt{(1+36/64)}=(2+a/4)$

Calculation:

$\rm\sqrt{(1+36/64)}=(2+a/4)$

⇒ $\rm\sqrt{(64+36)/64}=(2+a/4)$

⇒ $\rm\sqrt{(100/64)}=(2+a/4)$

⇒ $\dfrac{10}{8} =(2+a/4)$

⇒ $\dfrac{5}{4} - 2$ = a/4

⇒ $\dfrac{5 - 8 }{4}$ = a/4

⇒ $\dfrac{ - 3}{4} \times 4$ = a

⇒ a = - 3

∴ The value of "a" is - 3.

Calculation:

Disbursement of loans of all banks together in  2012.

⇒ 45 + 18 + 22 + 28 + 27 = 140 crores

Disbursement of loans of all banks together in  2013.

⇒ 30 + 41 + 17 + 32 + 34 = 154 crores

Percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all banks together from 2012 to 2013

⇒ $\dfrac{154 - 140 }{140} \times 100$ ⇒ $\dfrac{14 }{140} \times 100$

⇒ 10%

Given:

CP of T.V. =Rs. 28000. , MP = 16% ,Discounts= 5%.

Calculation:

MP of the TV = $28000 \times \dfrac{116 }{100}$ =  Rs 32,480

Discount in price after getting 8% discount 

⇒ $32,480 \times \dfrac{5 }{100}$= Rs 1624 

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Rs 1624