Previous Year Paper

MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Apr 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Test (200 questions)

1

Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), sometimes seen in the news?

  1. Ind AS is a global accounting practice par with the International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS) 9 that lenders are mandated to adopt.
  2. According to RBI, all scheduled commercial banks, including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), are mandated to adopt it.
  3. RBI has set the deadline to implement the standard as 31st March, 2019.
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 only

The correct answer 1 only.

Key Points Accounting Standards:

  • Accounting standards, also known as Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), are a set of guidelines, rules, and principles that provide a framework for preparing and presenting financial statements.
  • These standards ensure that financial statements are prepared consistently and transparently, allowing for comparability across different entities and facilitating reliable financial reporting.
  • The purpose of accounting standards is to enhance the quality and reliability of financial information, making it more useful for investors, creditors, regulators, and other stakeholders.
  • They provide guidance on various aspects of financial reporting, including recognition, measurement, presentation, and disclosure of financial transactions and events.

Important Points Statement 1: Ind AS is a global accounting practice on par with the International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS) 9 that lenders are mandated to adopt.

  • This statement is correct.
  • Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) is a set of accounting principles that are converged with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
  • Ind AS aims to improve the quality and transparency of financial reporting in India and align it with global accounting practices.
  • Lenders, such as banks and financial institutions, are required to adopt Ind AS for their financial statements.

Statement 2: According to RBI, all scheduled commercial banks, including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), are mandated to adopt it.

  • This statement is incorrect.
  • While it is true that scheduled commercial banks are required to adopt Ind AS, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are currently not included in this requirement.
  • RRBs follow a separate set of accounting standards specified by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

Statement 3: RBI has set the deadline to implement the standard as 31st March, 2019.

  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) initially set a roadmap for the phased implementation of Ind AS for scheduled commercial banks.
  • However, the deadline for implementation has been revised multiple times.
  • As of now, the deadline for adoption of Ind AS by scheduled commercial banks is yet to be finalized by RBI.
  • As per initial plan, MCA was to implement Ind AS for banks, insurance companies and NBFCs from 1 April 2018 onwards but in April 2018, RBI deferred the implementation of Indian Accounting Standards by one year for banks.
  • On March 22, 2019, RBI again deferred the implementation of Ind AS by banks till further notice.
  • The reason cited is that certain legislative amendments to the Third Schedule to the Banking Regulation Act 1949 are under consideration of the government.

Hence, Only Statement 1 is correct.

2

Which of the following animal does the Nomadic herding community not rear?

  1. ((a))

    Yaks

  2. ((b))

    Llamas

  3. ((c))

    Deer

  4. ((d))

    Camel

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Deer

The correct answer is Deer.

Key Points

  • Nomadic herders do not rear deer.
  • Deer are not typically found in the same environments as other livestock that nomadic herders raise, such as yaks, llamas, and camels.
  • Deer are also not as well-suited for life in harsh environments, such as deserts and mountains.

Additional Information

Here are some of the reasons why nomadic herders do not rear deer:

  • Deer are not as hardy as other livestock, such as yaks, llamas, and camels. They are more susceptible to disease and parasites, and they are not as well-adapted to harsh climates.
  • Deer are not as efficient at converting food into meat or milk as other livestock. This means that it takes more land and resources to raise deer, which can be a challenge for nomadic herders who often have limited resources.

Important PointsDespite facing challenges mentioned above, some nomadic herders do raise deer in certain parts of the world. For example, the Sami people of northern Europe have a long tradition of reindeer herding. However, deer are not a common part of the livestock that nomadic herders raise.

3

The population's characteristics are depicted in the population pyramid's shape. What is displayed on the left side?

  1. ((a))

    Old people

  2. ((b))

    ​Male

  3. ((c))

    ​Woman

  4. ((d))

    Children

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

​Male

The correct answer Male.

Key Points

  • A population pyramid displays the male population on the left side and the female population on the right.
  • The number of persons in each age group is represented by the height of the bar, and the proportion of males and females in the population is shown by the width of the bar.

Additional Information

  • The age structure, fertility rate, and mortality rate of a population can be determined using a population pyramid.
  • Indicating a high birth rate and a low mortality rate, as is common of developing nations, is a population pyramid with a wide base and a narrow peak.
  • An ageing nation is characterized by low birthrates and high deathrates, which are indicated by a demographic pyramid with a narrow base and large apex.
  • Population pyramids can also be used to compare the age structures of different populations. For example, a population pyramid for a developed country will typically have a narrower base and a wider top than a population pyramid for a developing country. This is because developed countries have lower birth rates and higher death rates than developing countries.
4

Which Indian state has the highest share in the country's total exports?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Gujarat accounts for the largest share of India's exports.
  • Gujarat has emerged as the top-performing state in Niti Aayog's second edition of the Export Preparedness Index 2021.
  • Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil nadu are three coastal states contributed around 60% to the country's exports in the financial year 2020-21.
  • Gujarat led  export contribution in India with its total share accounting for 20.83% as of 2020-21.
  • Maharashtra, the second largest exporter in the country with a 20.06% share, has facilitated export growth by focusing on initiatives such as Ease of Doing business.
5

Who out of the following was a Rashtrakuta ruler?

  1. ((a))

    Dantidurga 

  2. ((b))

    Harshavardhana

  3. ((c))

    Kirtivarman

  4. ((d))

    Pulakesin I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dantidurga 

The correct answer is Dantidurga.

Key Points Dantidurga:

  • The Rashtrakuta Empire of Manyakheta was founded by Dantidurga (reigned 735-756 CE), also known as Dantivarman II.
  • Gulbarga was his capital in Karnataka.
  • He was succeeded by his uncle Krishna I, who extended the kingdom to all of Karnataka.
  • In 753 Dantidurga defeated the Chalukyas and took the titles Rajadhiraja and Parameshvara.
  • In the mid-eighth century, Rashtrakuta chief Dantidurga overthrew his Chalukyan overlord and performed a ritual called hiranya-garbha (literally, the golden womb).
  • It was believed that performing this ritual with the help of Brahmanas would result in the sacrificer being reborn as a Kshatriya, even if he was not a Kshatriya by birth.

Additional Information Govindaraja I:

  • Govinda-raja, also known as Guvaka I, was an Indian king of the Shakambhari Chahamana dynasty.
  • As a vassal of the Gurjara-Pratihara emperor Nagabhata II, he ruled parts of present-day Rajasthan in north-western India.
  • Govinda-raja, according to Prithviraja Vijaya, was the son and successor of Durlabharaja I.
  • Bijolia and Harsha inscriptions, however, name Durlabharaja's successor "Guvaka", which is a variation of the name "Govinda".

Karkaraja I:

  • He was a Rashtrakuta king and son of Govindaraja I.
  • Information about him was mentioned in copper plates named Kadaba plates of Prabhutavarṣa.
  • The Baroda copper-plate inscription of Karkaraja II (a ruler of a Rashtrakuta branch of Gujarat) mentions Krishnaraja as the patron of Kailasanatha, as well as a Shiva temple at Elapura (Ellora).
  • The king built a temple so wondrous that even the gods and the architect were amazed.

Varma:

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  • Mahendravarman I (610 - 630 AD) constructed monuments known as the Mahendra group.
  • group of mountain faces was characterized by pillared halls.
  • In this design, pillared halls or mandapas follow the prototype of Jain temples of the period.
  • Mandagapattu, Pallavaram, and Mamandur are examples of Mahendra monuments.
6

In which language was Meghduta written?

  1. ((a))

    Pali

  2. ((b))

    Hindi

  3. ((c))

    Sanskrit

  4. ((d))

    Prakrit

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sanskrit

The correct answer is Sanskrit.

Key Points

  • Meghaduta was written in Sanskrit. It is a lyrical poem composed by Kalidasa.
  • The poem tells the story of a Yaksha (nature spirit) who is banished from his kingdom for a year to a faraway land.
  • He begs a cloud to deliver a message of love to his wife, who is waiting for him back home.
  • The poem is full of beautiful descriptions of nature and is considered a masterpiece of Sanskrit literature.
  • Meghduta has been translated into many languages, including English, French, German, and Hindi.
7

Where is the Department of Currency Management situated?

  1. ((a))

    Hyderabad

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mumbai

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

  • The Department of Currency Management is headquartered at Mumbai.
  • Department of Currency Management has three regional offices as well situated at Hyderabad, Kolkata & Noida.
  • The DCM is responsible for the production, supply, and distribution of currency notes and coins in India.
  • It also undertakes research and development in the field of currency management.
  • The DCM is headed by a Chief General Manager.

Important Points

  • Shri Suman Ray is the current Chief General Manager of Department of Currency Management.
8

GDP + Net factor income from abroad =

  1. ((a))

    NDP

  2. ((b))

    Depreciation

  3. ((c))

    GNP

  4. ((d))

    NNP

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

GNP

Correct Answer is GNP

Key Points

  • Gross National Product is defined as total value of goods and services produced by the citizens of a country. As it specifically mentions about the citizens of a country, the income of foreigners are exempted from this.
  • Net Factor income is defined as the difference between the factor income earned by the normal residents of a country and income earned by the foreigners in the geographical territory of that particular country.
  • Gross Domestic Product + Net factor income from abroad = Gross National Product.
9

Who has received the prestigious Bailey K. Ashford Medal for 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. Subhash Babu

  2. ((b))

    Jayam Ravi

  3. ((c))

    Sivaji Ganesan

  4. ((d))

    T. K. Shanmugam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dr. Subhash Babu

The correct answer is Dr Subhash Babu.

Key Points 

  • Prominent Indian scientist Dr Subhash Babu has received the prestigious Bailey K. Ashford Medal for 2022 and the Fellow of the American Society of Tropical Medicine and Hygiene award for 2022.
  • He has been awarded for his outstanding research & contributions to tropical medicine.
  • In its 82-year history, the award has never been given to an Indian scientist or an Indian institution for work.

Additional Information 

  • Important Awards:
  • West Bengal government’s Lakshmir Bhandar scheme has bagged the 2022 SKOCH award in the women & child development category.
  • IIT-Madras has won the national intellectual property (IP) award for 2021 & 2022.
  • Real Madrid captain Karim Benzema won the men's Ballon d'Or 2022 award on 17th Oct 2022 in Paris, France.
  • While Barcelona's Alexia Putellas bagged the Women's Ballon d'Or 2022 award.
  • Indian-American entrepreneur and activist Swadesh Chatterjee has been presented with the highest award 'the Order of the Long Leaf Pine' by the U.S. State of North Carolina.
10

Who is the guardian of fundamental right enumerated in Indian constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Parliament

  2. ((b))

    President

  3. ((c))

    Supreme Court

  4. ((d))

    None of the given options

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Supreme Court

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

  • The body which acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights is the Supreme Court. The court protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens from being exploited.
  • The Supreme Court, as the Guardian of Fundamental Rights, can declare any law null and void if it violates fundamental rights.

Important Points

  • Article 32 of the Constitution (Right to Constitutional Remedies): It is a fundamental right, which states that individuals have the right to approach the Supreme Court (SC) seeking enforcement of other fundamental rights recognized by the Constitution.
  • Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.
  • The Supreme Court stands at the apex of the judicial system of the country.
  • Article 124 provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme court.
  • Established as the Supreme court of India on 28th January 1950.
  • Also known as the 'guardian of our Constitution.
  • Also known as 'court of record'.
  • The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Indian Supreme Court are appointed by the President
  • The power to increase or decrease the number of judges of the supreme court rests with the Parliament.
  • After the appointment of the new four justices on 18 September 2019, the strength of the Supreme court increases from 30 to 34.
  • The chief justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
  • The appointment of judges other than the chief justice, and the chief justice of India shall always be consulted.

Additional Information

  • The Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed only by the Parliament by the procedure established by Law.
  • A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity.
  • A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
  • After the motion passed by both the houses by a special majority, it will be sent to the President.
  • Finally, the President gives his order of removal o the judge concerned.
11

Who has been awarded the Para Sports Person of the Year 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Neeraj Chopra

  2. ((b))

    Saina Nehwal

  3. ((c))

    PV Sindhu

  4. ((d))

    Avani Lekhara

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Avani Lekhara

The correct answer is Avani Lekhara.

Key Points 

  • At the Turf 2022 and India Sports Awards of FICCI, Avani Lekhara, who won two medals at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics, was recognized as the Para Sports Person of the Year.
  • Apart from Lekhara, former Ranji cricketer Sarkar Talwar was honoured with the Lifetime Achievement of the Year award.
  • Shrey Kadyan was recognized as the Special Sportsperson of the Year.

Important Points 

  • For their remarkable work over the past decade, Odisha was recognized as the best state for promoting sports.
  • The All India Chess Federation won the National Sports Federation of the Year Award for hosting another successful edition of the Chess Olympiad this year.
12

Team World defeated Team Europe to win the Laver Cup 2022 for the first time. Laver Cup is related to which sport?

  1. ((a))

    Football

  2. ((b))

    Boxing

  3. ((c))

    Badminton

  4. ((d))

    Tennis

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tennis

The correct answer is London.

Key Points

  • The Australian tennis and US tournaments are played on hard courts, the French Open on clay courts, and the Wimbledon on grass courts.
  • The Laver Cup in Sept 2022 was Roger Federer's final ATP tournament.
  • Federer is the most successful player at Wimbledon, having won eight titles (2003-07, 2009, 2012, 2017).
  • He last clinched a Grand Slam title in 2018 (Australian Open).
13

As per the Union Budget 2020-21, what amount will be invested in infrastructure over the next 5 years? 

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 200 lakh crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 100 lakh crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 50 lakh crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 150 lakh crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 100 lakh crore

The correct answer is Rs. 100 lakh crore.

Key Points

  • The Union Budget 2020-21 has allocated approx. Rs 100 lakh crore for infrastructure development over the next five years.
  • This includes a capital outlay of Rs. 5.54 lakh crore in 2021-22, which is an increase of 34.5% over the Budget Estimate for FY 2020-21.
  • This investment will be made through the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), which was launched on 31st December 2019.
  • The NIP includes more than 6,500 projects across sectors, such as roads, railways, airports, ports, power, and telecommunications.
  • The investment in infrastructure is expected to boost economic growth and create jobs.
14

Which of the following state has become the first state in the country to pass the Lokayukta Bill? 

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

correct answer is Maharashtra  

Key Point

  • It was announced that the Lokayukta Bill will be presented in the Nagpur winter session. The Lokayukta Bill was passed in the winter session.
  • Maharashtra is the first state in the country to introduce a Lokayukta Act Bill.
  • The Lokayukta shall be a retired Chief Justice of the High Court or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • The Lokayukta Committee will have 5 members. Their appointments will be made by the Chief Minister, Deputy Chief Minister, Leader of the Opposition in both Houses, Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and Speaker of the Legislative Council
  • Incoming complaints will be investigated within 24 months
  • The inquiry cases will be decided by the Special Court within one year
  • If the court finds that the property has been obtained by a public servant through corruption, it can order its confiscation or deposit with the government and recover the costs of the case from the accused.

Additional Information

Lokayukta-

  • Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman in the states of India.
  • Once appointed, Lokayuktas cannot be dismissed or transferred by the government and can only be removed by passing an impeachment motion by the state legislature.
  • The Lokayukta, along with the Income Tax Department and the Anti-Corruption Bureau, mainly help prevent corruption among politicians and government officials.
15

Which ancient city was known for its dockyards and trading activities?

  1. ((a))

    Harappa

  2. ((b))

    Dholavira

  3. ((c))

    Mohenjo-daro

  4. ((d))

    Lothal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lothal

The correct answer is Lothal.

Key Points 

Lothal was an ancient city of the Indus Valley civilization.

  • It was famous for its dockyard which was located on the bank of the Sabarmati river and connected the city to the trade route.
  • It was discovered in 1954.

Additional Information 

  • The city of Dholavira was located on Khadir Beyt in the Rann of Kutch, where there was freshwater and fertile soil. Unlike some of the other Harappan cities, which were divided into two parts, Dholavira was divided into three parts, and each part was surrounded by massive stone walls, with entrances through gateways.
  • Chanhu-daro is an archaeological site belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization. The site is located 130 kilometers south of Mohenjo-Daro, in Sindh, Pakistan.
  • Mohenjo-Daro is an archaeological site in the province of Sindh, Pakistan. Built around 2500 BCE, it was one of the largest settlements of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation.
16

Consider the following statements:

  1. The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  2. It aimed to end eliminate child labour in hazardous industries by 2012.
  1. ((a))

    Both 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    1 only

  3. ((c))

    2 only

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither 1 nor 2

correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2

Key Points

  • National Child Labour Projects
  • The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • Under this scheme  Working children in the age group of 9- 14 years will have to be rehabilitated through NCLP schools established by the Project Society.
  • This is the major Central Sector Scheme for the rehabilitation of child labour.
  • The Scheme seeks to adopt a sequential approach with focus on rehabilitation of children working in hazardous occupations & processes in the first instance.
  • Under the Scheme, survey of child labour engaged in hazardous occupations & processes has been conducted.
  • The identified children are to be withdrawn from these occupations & processes and then put into special schools in order to enable them to be mainstreamed into formal schooling system.
  • Project Societies at the district level are fully funded for opening up of special schools/Rehabilitation Centres for the rehabilitation of child labour.
17

Who was the last ruler of Sangama dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Virupaksha II

  2. ((b))

    Sulava Narasimha

  3. ((c))

    None of the given options

  4. ((d))

    Virupaksha I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virupaksha II

The correct answer is Virupaksha II.

Key Points

  • Virupaksha Raya II was the last ruler of the Sangama dynasty, which ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1336 to 1485.
  • He ruled from 1465 to 1485. During his reign, the empire began to decline due to internal conflicts and external threats.
  • He was succeeded by his son, Praudha Raya, who was a weak ruler and was unable to stop the decline of the empire.
  • The Vijayanagara Empire eventually collapsed in 1565.

Additional Information

  • The Sangama dynasty was founded by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, two feudatories of the Hoysala Empire.
  • They rebelled against the Hoysalas in 1336 and founded the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • The empire reached its peak under Deva Raya I.
18

Which of the following country topped in the FIFA world rankings 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Brazil

  2. ((b))

    Nederland

  3. ((c))

    Russia

  4. ((d))

    Morocco

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brazil

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points 

  • Brazil's National Football team topped the latest edition of the FIFA Men's World Rankings, 2022.
  • Argentina has secured second in the latest FIFA rankings.
  • France has secured the third rank.
  • Belgium ranked fourth on the list.

Additional Information 

  • ​FIFA World Cup 2022 played from 21 November 2022 to 18 December 2022 in Qatar.
  • There is a total of 32 teams participated in World Cup.
  • The 2022 FIFA World Cup (international men’s football championship) is organized in Arab countries for the first time.
  • The first and opening match of the FIFA World Cup is played at Al Bayt Stadium.
  • The FIFA World Cup final match was held on 18 December 2022 at the Lusail Iconic Stadium.
19

With reference to the Civil Services in India, consider the following statements:

(i) In India, the Civil Services Examination was first administered in 1922.

(ii) First Civil Services Exam in India was conducted in Delhi.

Which of the above statements are/are true?

  1. ((a))

    Only (i)

  2. ((b))

    Only (ii)

  3. ((c))

    (i) and (ii) both

  4. ((d))

    Neither (i) nor (ii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (i)

The correct answer is only (i).

Key Points

  • From 1922 onwards the Indian Civil Service Examination began to be held in India also.
  • First in Allahabad and later in Delhi with the setting up of the Federal Public Service Commission.
  • The Examination in London continued to be conducted by the Civil Service Commission.

Additional Information

  • In 1854, the British East India Company established the Civil Services Examination to recruit Indian Civil Service (ICS) officers. The ICS was the highest-ranking civil service in British India, but the examination was conducted in London, In India it started 1922 onwards.
  • In 1947, when India gained independence, the ICS was renamed the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).
  • The Civil Services Examination is now conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), an independent body that is responsible for recruiting civil servants for the Government of India.
20

In which year was the Jaisalmer Fort built?

  1. ((a))

    1102 AD

  2. ((b))

    1156 AD

  3. ((c))

    1213 AD

  4. ((d))

    1079 AD

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1156 AD

The correct answer is 1156 AD.

Key Points

  • The Jaisalmer Fort is located in Rajasthan.
  • It is believed to be built in 1156 AD in the reign of Rawal Jaisal who also founded the city of Jaisalmer.
  • It is said that this fort has survived many attacks from the rulers like Ala-ud-din Khilji and Humayun.
  • Rajasthan Capital- Jaipur
21

Select the word with the correct spelling.

  1. ((a))

    vivicity

  2. ((b))

    alergic

  3. ((c))

    manteling

  4. ((d))

    clinched

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

clinched

The correct answer is "clinched".

Key Points

  • The word with the correct spelling is "clinched".
  • Let's us look at all the options:
  • "vivicity" - This word is incorrect. The correct spelling is "vivacity" which means lively or animated.
  • Example: Her vivacity and enthusiasm make her the life of the party.
  • "alergic" - This word is incorrect. The correct spelling is "allergic", which is an adjective used to describe a hypersensitivity reaction to a particular allergen.
  • Example: My friend is allergic to peanuts, so we always check food labels carefully.
  • "manteling" - This word is incorrect. It could be a misspelling of "mantling", which is the action of a bird of prey spreading its wings over its prey. It can also refer to a covering or a cloak. 
  • Example: After the eagle caught its prey, it began mantling to protect it. Example (mantel): The family photos are displayed on the mantel above the fireplace.
  • "clinched" - This is the correctly spelled word. "Clinched" is the past tense of "clinch", which can mean to secure a deal or goal definitively, or to settle something decisively. It can also refer to a specific type of close grappling in boxing and wrestling.
  • Example: With the last touchdown, they clinched the victory.
  • Hence option 4 is correct.
22

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Abridgement

  1. ((a))

    Curtailment

  2. ((b))

    Epitome

  3. ((c))

    Distress

  4. ((d))

    Restiveness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Curtailment

The correct answer is "Curtailment".​

Key Points

  • The word "abridgement" refers to a shortened or condensed version of something, particularly of a book, speech, or piece of writing.
  • Example: The teacher used an abridgement of "Romeo and Juliet" to make it easier for her fifth-grade students to understand.
  • Let's analyze each of the alternatives:
  • "Curtailment" refers to the action or fact of reducing or restricting something.
  • Example: The curtailment of spending is crucial during financial crisis.
  • "Epitome" represents a person or thing that is a perfect example of a particular quality or type. 
  • Example: The student's thesis is the epitome of scholarly research.
  • "Distress" refers to extreme anxiety, sorrow, or pain. 
  • Example: He was in distress after losing his job.
  • "Restiveness" refers to the state of being restless or uneasy. 
  • Example: The restiveness of the crowd grew as the concert's start was delayed.
  • In conclusion, the word "Curtailment" best expresses the meaning of "Abridgement" among the given alternatives.
  • Hence option 1 is correct.
23

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

The gardener did not water the plants.

  1. ((a))

    The plants had not been watered by the gardener.

  2. ((b))

    The plants were not water by the gardener.

  3. ((c))

    The plants are not watered by the gardener.

  4. ((d))

    The plants were not watered by the gardener.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The plants were not watered by the gardener.

The correct answer is "The plants were not watered by the gardener."

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the Active Voice. In the Active Voice, the subject of the sentence performs the action.
  • Here, "The gardener" is the subject and "did not water" is the action he performs.
  • In order to change this sentence into Passive Voice, we have to make the object of the active sentence (here, "the plants") the subject of the passive sentence.
  • In this passive version, the focus is now on the plants that did not receive water, rather than on the gardener who failed to water them.
  • The general structure for changing Active Voice to Passive Voice in this tense (simple past) is as follows:
  • Active: Subject + did not + verb (base form) + object
  • Passive: Object + was/were not + past participle of verb + by + subject
  • The past participle of "water" is "watered".
  • The correct passive form is "The plants were not watered by the gardener."
  • Hence option 4 is correct.
24

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Identify the segment which contains the grammatical error and select the appropriate option.

Digestive problems have been increasingly linked to the infections, but research is mixed on where common a symptom it is.

  1. ((a))

    on where common

  2. ((b))

    problems have been

  3. ((c))

    but research is mixed

  4. ((d))

    to the infections

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

on where common

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The error in the sentence is in the segment "on where common".
  • The sentence is intended to express that research has mixed results on how common a symptom digestive problems are in relation to infections.
  • The adjective "common" needs to directly modify the noun it describes, which is "symptom".
  • So, replace "where" with "how" and place "common" directly before "symptom". This makes sense because the question is about the degree of commonality (hence "how common"), not the location (which would be signified by "where").
  • In conclusion, the segment that contains the error is "on where common".
  • Therefore, option 1 is correct.

Correct sentence: "Digestive problems have been increasingly linked to the infections, but research is mixed on how common a symptom it is."

25

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last sentences are numbered 1 and 6, the rest are numbered P, Q, R, and S. Arrange these four sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph/sentence.

  1. Einstein said

P. although more than 900 books had been written

Q. his theory of relativity

R. who understood

S. that there were only twelve people

  1. attempting to explain it.
  1. ((a))

    SRQP

  2. ((b))

    RQPS

  3. ((c))

    SQPR

  4. ((d))

    RPQS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SRQP

The correct answer is "SRQP".

Key Points

  • The correct sequence to form a meaningful paragraph is as follows:
  • 1. Einstein said
  • S. that there were only twelve people
  • R. who understood
  • Q. his theory of relativity
  • P. although more than 900 books had been written
  • 6. attempting to explain it.
  • The logic behind this sequence is that the sentence starts with Einstein's statement (1), then specifies what he said (S and R), introduces his theory (Q), and finally refers to the many books written about it (P and 6).
  • So, the complete paragraph is: "Einstein said that there were only twelve people who understood his theory of relativity although more than 900 books had been written attempting to explain it."
  • Therefore option 1 is correct.
26

In the below question, a part of the sentence is bracketed. Below are given alternatives to the bracketed part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, choose 'No Improvement' option.

The conference of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change in Bangkok ran into predictable difficulties over (the issue of raise funds) to help poorer nations.

  1. ((a))

    The issued of raising funds

  2. ((b))

    The issue of rising funds

  3. ((c))

    The issue of raising funds

  4. ((d))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The issue of raising funds

The correct answer is "The issue of raising funds".

Key Points

  • The phrase in the original sentence "the issue of raise funds" is incorrect because the verb "raise" is in base form and does not fit grammatically in this context.
  • When we talk about the "issue of" doing something, we need to use the gerund (-ing form) of the verb, which acts as a noun in the sentence.
  • In this case, "raising" is the gerund form of "raise" and is the appropriate form to use here.
  • The phrase should be "the issue of raising funds", which refers to the problem or concern related to the action of collecting or generating money.
  • Therefore, option 3 is correct.

Correct sentence: "The conference of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change in Bangkok ran into predictable difficulties over the issue of raising funds to help poorer nations."

27

In the following question, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Some of the nation's oldest and most ______ hamburgers are sold in New York.

  1. ((a))

    Talk

  2. ((b))

    Storied

  3. ((c))

    Celebrate

  4. ((d))

    Story

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Storied

The correct answer is "storied".

Key Points

  • The context of the sentence tells that New York is home to some of the oldest hamburgers in the country.
  • ​So, the correct alternative to fill in the blank is "storied".
  • The word "storied" is used as an adjective meaning celebrated or well-known. In the context of the sentence, it refers to hamburgers that have a history or reputation, making them well-known or famous.
  • So, the complete sentence is: "Some of the nation's oldest and most storied hamburgers are sold in New York."
  • The other options do not fit contextually:
  • "Talk" is a verb or a noun, and doesn't make sense in this context.
  • "Celebrate" is a verb, and the sentence needs an adjective in this position.
  • "Story" is a noun and doesn't fit grammatically in this context.
  • Therefore, option 2 is correct.
28

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Dora located the building on the map.

  1. ((a))

    The building has been located by Dora on the map.

  2. ((b))

    The building had been located by Dora on the map.

  3. ((c))

    The building was located by Dora on the map.

  4. ((d))

    The building is located by Dora on the map.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The building was located by Dora on the map.

The correct answer is "The building was located by Dora on the map."

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the Active Voice.
  • In the Active Voice, the subject of the sentence performs the action. Here, "Dora" is the subject and "located" is the action she performs.
  • In this passive version, the focus is now on the building that was located, rather than on Dora who located it.
  • To change this sentence into Passive Voice, we have to make the object of the active sentence (here, "the building") the subject of the passive sentence.
  • The general structure for changing Active Voice to Passive Voice in this tense (simple past) is as follows:
  • Active: Subject + verb (past tense) + object
  • Passive: Object + was/were + past participle of verb + by + subject
  • The past participle of "locate" is "located".
  • Correct Passive voice: "The building was located on the map by Dora."
  • Therefore, option 3 is correct.
29

In the following question, there is a grammatical error in any one part of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has a grammatical error and select the appropriate option.

Russia's nuclear weapons are an integral part of it's escalation-management toolkit, and frequent referrals to its nuclear potential are standard practice.

  1. ((a))

    nuclear potential are standard practice.

  2. ((b))

    Russia's nuclear weapons are an integral

  3. ((c))

    part of it's escalation-management toolkit,

  4. ((d))

    and frequent referrals to its

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

part of it's escalation-management toolkit,

The correct answer is "part of it's escalation-management toolkit".

Key Points

  • The sentence has a grammatical error in the usage of "it's" in the phrase "part of it's escalation-management toolkit". The correct word to use here is "its".
  • "Its" is a possessive adjective used to show ownership or association.
  • In this sentence, we are talking about the "escalation-management toolkit" that belongs to Russia, so "its" is the correct form to use.
  • "It's" is a contraction of "it is" or "it has", neither of which would make sense in this context.
  • Therefore, option 3 is correct.

Correct sentence: "Russia's nuclear weapons are an integral part of its escalation-management toolkit, and frequent referrals to its nuclear potential are standard practice.

30

In the following question a sentence is given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.

Edwina Palmer said to Jack Sparrow, "Where are you going to play piano today?"

  1. ((a))

    Edwina Palmer asked Jack Sparrow where you are going to play piano that day.

  2. ((b))

    Edwina Palmer said to Jack Sparrow to where he was going to play piano today.

  3. ((c))

    Edwina Palmer said to Jack Sparrow that where I was going to play piano today.

  4. ((d))

    Edwina Palmer asked Jack Sparrow where he was going to play piano that day.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Edwina Palmer asked Jack Sparrow where he was going to play piano that day.

The correct answer is "Edwina Palmer asked Jack Sparrow where he was going to play piano that day."

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Direct Speech.
  • To convert this into Indirect Speech, we remove the quotation marks and make grammatical changes to connect the speaker's words to the rest of the sentence.
  • The reported question becomes a noun clause, and the question mark is dropped.
  • In Indirect Speech, the tenses generally shift back, pronouns can change, and words indicating place and time can change.
  • The verb 'said' changes to 'asked' because a question is being asked.
  • The formula for changing Direct Speech to Indirect Speech for a question is as follows:
  • Direct: S1 + said to S2 + "Wh-word + Auxiliary Verb + Subject + Verb + Object + ?"
  • Indirect: S1 + asked + S2 + Wh-word + Subject + Verb + Object (without a question mark).
  • In the transformed sentence, 'you' will change into 'he', and 'today' will change into 'that day'.
  • Simple Present (are) will change into Simple Past (was) to reflect the backshift in tense that occurs in indirect speech.
  • Hence, the correct Indirect speech is: "Edwina Palmer asked Jack Sparrow where he was going to play piano that day."
  • Therefore, option 4 is correct.
31

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last sentences are numbered 1 and 6, the rest are numbered P, Q, R, and S. Arrange these four sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph/sentence.

  1. The secret to

P. not in doing

Q. but in liking

R. happiness is

S. what one likes

  1. what one does.
  1. ((a))

    QPSR

  2. ((b))

    SPRQ

  3. ((c))

    PRQS

  4. ((d))

    RPSQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

RPSQ

The correct answer is "RPSQ".

Key Points

  • The correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence is "RPSQ".
  • The first sentence, "The secret to" would be followed by what the "secret" refers to, which is "happiness."
  • Therefore, sentence R, "happiness is", is the most likely second sentence.
  • From here, sentence Q, "not in doing", makes sense to follow. It suggests a contrasting statement about the previously mentioned happiness. It's common in English to present a contrast after a positive statement, often using "not" or "but".
  • After sentence Q, sentence S, "what one likes", is a sensible continuation. This fits because "not in doing" requires an object for the verb "doing" – what is it that we're not doing? The answer is, "what one likes".
  • Now, the next sentence P, "but in liking", is a contrast to the prior "not in doing what one likes". This is setting up the second part of the contrast — first we have what happiness isn't (doing what one likes), and now we're about to hear what happiness is.
  • Finally, the sentence 6, "what one does", completes the thought and the paragraph. It fits perfectly after "but in liking" – this is the thing that we should be liking, according to this statement on happiness.
  • Therefore the correct order is "RPSQ".
  • Hence option 4 is correct.

Correct sentence: *"The secret to happiness is not in doing what one likes, but in liking what one does."*​

32

In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.

S1. The time has come for us to consider seriously the question of a Bharat brand of English.

P: I am not suggesting here a mongrelization of the language.

Q: English must adopt the complexion of our life and assimilate its idiom.

R: Now the time is ripe for it to come to the dusty street, market place and under the banyan tree.

S: So far English has had a comparatively confined existence in our country, chiefly in the halls of learning, justice or administration.

S6. Bharat English will respect the rule of law and maintain the dignity of grammar, but still have a swadeshi stamp about it.

  1. ((a))

    RQSP

  2. ((b))

    QPRS

  3. ((c))

    SRPQ

  4. ((d))

    RSPQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

SRPQ

The correct answer is "SRPQ".

Key Points

  • To arrange these sentences into a coherent paragraph, we need to consider the flow of ideas.
  • Let's analyze the content:
  • S1: Introduces the topic of considering a Bharat brand of English.
  • P: States that this is not about mixing the language.
  • Q: States that English should adapt to Indian life and its idioms.
  • R: Claims that it's time for English to be used more broadly in everyday Indian life.
  • S: Describes how English has been limited to certain spheres in India.
  • S6: Defines the characteristics of Bharat English.
  • Here, sentence S seems like a logical follow-up to S1, as it elaborates on the current situation of English in India.
  • After acknowledging the existing situation, sentence R posits that it's time for a change, i.e., for English to enter everyday life.
  • Next, P clarifies that the adaptation of English to the Indian context doesn't mean mixing the language.
  • Q comes last in this sequence, elaborating on this change and explaining that English should adapt to the local context.
  • Therefore, the logical paragraph would be: S1. The time has come for us to consider seriously the question of a Bharat brand of English. S: So far English has had a comparatively confined existence in our country, chiefly in the halls of learning, justice or administration. R: Now the time is ripe for it to come to the dusty street, market place and under the banyan tree. P: I am not suggesting here a mongrelization of the language. Q: English must adopt the complexion of our life and assimilate its idiom. S6. Bharat English will respect the rule of law and maintain the dignity of grammar, but still have a swadeshi stamp about it.
  • So, the correct answer is option 3.
33

In the below question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

He picked up a bar of soap from the basin and flung it across the room.

  1. ((a))

    A bar of soap was being picked up by him from the basin, and flung across the room.

  2. ((b))

    A bar of soap had been picked up by him from the basin, and flung across the room.

  3. ((c))

    A bar of soap was picked up by him from the basin, and flung across the room.

  4. ((d))

    A bar of soap was picked up by him from the basin, and fling across the room.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A bar of soap was picked up by him from the basin, and flung across the room.

The correct answer is "A bar of soap was picked up by him from the basin, and flung across the room."

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Active voice. It is in Simple Past Tense. To transform this sentence into passive voice, we have to follow the given rules:
  • Rules for Transformation:
  • Identify the subject, verb, and object in the active voice sentence.
  • The subject of the active sentence becomes the object of the passive sentence.
  • The verb is changed to the past participle form.
  • A form of the verb "to be" is added to the past participle form of the verb.
  • The agent (the person or thing performing the action) is added to the sentence in a prepositional phrase beginning with "by."
  • The adverbial phrase is moved to the end of the sentence.
  • The general structure is:
  • Active voice: Subject + Verb + Object
  • Passive voice: Object + Auxiliary Verb (be) + Past Participle + (by Subject)
  • The subject is "He", the verbs are "picked up" and "flung", and the object is "a bar of soap".
  • The object "a bar of soap" now becomes the subject of the sentence, and the original subject "He" is introduced by "by" after the verb.
  • The verb "picked up" and "flung" are in the past simple tense in active voice, so in passive voice they become "was picked up" and "flung".
  • Therefore, the correct Passive voice is: "A bar of soap was picked up by him from the basin, and flung across the room."
  • Hence option 3 is correct.
34

In the following question a sentence is given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.

She said to me, "Please do not disturb in my studies."

  1. ((a))

    She suggested to me that I not disturbed her in her studies.

  2. ((b))

    She requested me not to disturb her in her studies.

  3. ((c))

    She asked me for not making her disturbed her in studies.

  4. ((d))

    She said to me that please do not disturb me in my studies.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

She requested me not to disturb her in her studies.

The correct answer is: "She requested me not to disturb her in her studies."

Key Points

  • The sentence given is in direct speech and it's a polite request. To convert it into indirect speech, we need to follow given rules:
  • Rules for Transformation:
  • The direct object of the direct speech becomes the object of the indirect speech.
  • The introductory clause can change from 'said to' to 'requested' to reflect the nature of the speech.
  • We don't typically use quotation marks in indirect speech.
  • Changes in pronouns to ensure the meaning remains the same. In this case, 'my' will change to 'her' because the speaker is 'she'.
  • We use 'not to' followed by the base form of the main verb in the reported speech when the direct speech contains a polite request.
  • Following these rules, the conversion of the sentence is: "She requested me not to disturb her in her studies."
  • So, the correct answer is option 2.
35

In the question below, a sentence is given with one blank in it. Choose the option that provides the correct word to be filled in the blank.

The predictions from pollution studies have ______ the government make the needed reforms, especially in its industrial sector.

  1. ((a))

    Stress

  2. ((b))

    Heed

  3. ((c))

    Assist

  4. ((d))

    Helped

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Helped

The correct answer is "helped".

Key Points

  • The context of the sentence suggests a scenario where scientific or environmental research has been conducted, specifically studies investigating pollution levels or effects.
  • Let us look at the meanings of all the words:
  • "Stress" means to put emphasis on something, or to make others understand the importance or urgency of something.
  • Example: The teacher continues to stress the importance of regular study habits to the students.
  • "Heed" means to pay attention to something, particularly advice or a warning.
  • Example: She failed to heed the traffic signs and ended up getting lost.
  • "Assist" means to help someone or to contribute to achieving something.
  • Example: The tutor will assist the students in their preparation for the final exams.
  • "Helped" is the past tense of the verb "help", which means to give assistance or make it easier for someone to do something.
  • Example: My friend helped me move into my new apartment.
  • In the sentence you provided, the correct word to fill in the blank is "helped" because the sentence indicates that the predictions from pollution studies have facilitated or assisted the government in making reforms.
  • So, option 4 is correct.

Complete sentence: "The predictions from pollution studies have helped the government make the needed reforms, especially in its industrial sector."

36

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

HOSTILITY

  1. ((a))

    goodwill

  2. ((b))

    enmity

  3. ((c))

    sympathy

  4. ((d))

    friendship

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

enmity

The correct answer is "enmity".

Key Points

  • "Hostility" refers to a state of ill will, antagonism, or unfriendliness. It often involves aggressive or harmful behaviors and attitudes.
  • Example: The hostility between the two rival gangs was palpable, leading to frequent confrontations in the neighborhood.
  • Let us look at the meanings of all the words:
  • "Goodwill" is a feeling of benevolence or good will towards another person.
  • Example: "The two countries have a long history of goodwill."
  • "Sympathy" is a feeling of pity or sorrow for someone who is experiencing misfortune.
  • Example: "The crowd expressed sympathy for the victims of the fire."
  • "Friendship" is a relationship of mutual affection between two people.
  • Example: "The two friends have been inseparable since childhood."
  • "Enmity" is a feeling of hatred or ill will towards another person.
  • Example: "The two countries have been enemies for centuries."
  • From the meanings of all the words, it is clear that the most appropriate synonym for the word "hostility" is "enmity".
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.
37

Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bracket in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it.

Great men never (put on airs), their humility brings them laurels.

  1. ((a))

    pretend wisdom

  2. ((b))

    show pride

  3. ((c))

    behave condescendingly 

  4. ((d))

    assume honours

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

show pride

The correct answer is "show pride".

Key Points

  • Put on airs: This idiom means to behave or speak in a way that makes one appear more important, wealthy, or cultured than one actually is. It often implies a degree of pretentiousness or insincerity.
  • Example: After receiving a small inheritance, John started to put on airs, pretending he had grown up in a wealthy family.
  • Let us look at the meanings of all the options:
  • Pretend Wisdom: This means to act as if one has great knowledge or wisdom, when in fact they may not. It's essentially feigning deep understanding or insight, often to impress others or manipulate a situation.
  • Show Pride: This refers to displaying a feeling of satisfaction derived from one's own achievements, the achievements of those with whom one is closely associated, or from qualities or possessions that are widely admired.
  • Behave Condescendingly: This means to act in a way that shows you believe you are more intelligent or better than other people. It often involves treating others as if they are less important or less intelligent.
  • Assume Honours: This means to take on or claim honors, titles, or accolades, often without truly deserving them. It can sometimes involve arrogance or pretentiousness.
  • Hence the appropriate meaning of the idiom **"**Put on airs" is "Show Pride".
  • Therefore, option 2 is correct.
38

Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bracket in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it.

If he phones again, I am going (to give him a piece of my mind).

  1. ((a))

    To reprimand him

  2. ((b))

    To support him

  3. ((c))

    To take revenge on him

  4. ((d))

    To be nice to him

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reprimand him

The correct answer is "To reprimand him".

Key Points

  • "To give him a piece of my mind" means to express one's unhappiness or dissatisfaction with someone, often in a sharp or angry manner.
  • Example: After the plumber failed to fix the leak three times in a row, Jane decided to give him a piece of her mind about his poor workmanship.
  • Hence, the most appropriate meaning of idiom "to give him a piece of my mind" is "to reprimand him".
  • Therefore, option 1 is correct.
39

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in a correct order.

P. But rule of law for all citizens? Equality for women? Justice for sexual violence? God, no. Why?

Q. Because, truth be told, we're large and bursting at the seams, but not much of a democracy, except for the ritualistic election we enact every five years.

R. We worship it, and dust off imperious, lofty quotes from it on a daily basis.

S. India is the world's largest democracy. Laws? Yes. Constitution? Hell yes!

  1. ((a))

    PSQR

  2. ((b))

    SQPR

  3. ((c))

    RSPQ

  4. ((d))

    SRPQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

SRPQ

The correct answer "SRPQ".

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentences is: "SRPQ"
  • Here are the reasons for the correct order:
  • Sentence S provides background information about India, stating that it is the world's largest democracy.
  • Sentence R provides more information about India's constitution, stating that it is a lofty document that is often quoted.
  • Sentence P provides a contrast to the previous two sentences, stating that India is not as democratic as it claims to be.
  • Sentence Q provides a conclusion for the paragraph, stating that India is not much of a democracy except for the ritualistic election it enacts every five years.
  • Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the rules of paragraph structure. For example, option 1 (PSQR) starts with a sentence that provides supporting evidence for the main idea, which is not the correct way to start a paragraph. Option 2 (SQPR) starts with a sentence that asks a rhetorical question, which is not the correct way to start a paragraph. Option 3 (RSPQ) starts with a sentence that summarizes the main idea, which is not the correct way to start a paragraph.
40

Select the antonym of the given word.

STALE

  1. ((a))

    Dry

  2. ((b))

    Fresh

  3. ((c))

    Flat

  4. ((d))

    Sour

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fresh

The correct answer is "Fresh".

Key Points

  • Stale: no longer fresh or new; no longer interesting or exciting.
  • Example: "The bread was stale and hard."
  • Let us look at all the options:
  • Dry: not wet or moist.
  • Example: "The desert is dry and hot."
  • Fresh: new or not yet used or consumed.
  • Example: "I bought a fresh loaf of bread."
  • Flat: not having or showing much spirit or enthusiasm.
  • Example: "The party was flat and boring."
  • Sour: having a sharp, unpleasant taste.
  • Example: "The milk was sour and had to be thrown away."
  • From the meanings of all the options, it is clear that the appropriate antonym of the word "stale" is "fresh."
  • Hence, option 2 is correct.
41

In the following question, sentence given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for the question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Although his army equalled the Texan army in numbers and ______ it in equipment, he dared not force a fight.

  1. ((a))

    overtake

  2. ((b))

    overbear

  3. ((c))

    overdid

  4. ((d))

    surpassed

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

surpassed

The correct answer is "surpassed".

Key Points

 

  • The context of the sentence appears to be a historical or hypothetical military situation. It implies a standoff or potential conflict between two armies.
  • The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "surpassed".
  • In this context, "surpassed" means to exceed or be greater than. It fits best because it indicates that his army had superior equipment compared to the Texan army.
  • Example: Her performance surpassed all expectations.
  • Here are the meanings and examples of other words:
  • Overtake: This word generally means to catch up with and pass while traveling in the same direction. However, it doesn't fit well in this context.
  • Example: The sports car was able to overtake the truck on the highway.
  • Overbear: This means to overwhelm with superior force or numbers, or to domineer over. It also doesn't fit well in this context.
  • Example: His strong personality tends to overbear in any social situation.
  • Overdid: This is the past tense of "overdo," which means to do, use, or carry to excess; exaggerate. It doesn't fit in this context.
  • Example: She overdid the decorations for the party, making the room look cluttered.
  • The correct alternative is option 4.

Complete sentence: Although his army equalled the Texan army in numbers and surpassed it in equipment, he dared not force a fight.

42

In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.

S1. While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty.

P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing.

Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear.

R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road.

S: If the road is not clear we should wait.

S6. We should never run while crossing a road.

  1. ((a))

    QRPS

  2. ((b))

    RQSP

  3. ((c))

    PQRS

  4. ((d))

    PSRQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QRPS

The correct answer is "QRPS".

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentences is: "QRPS"
  • Here are the reasons for the correct order:
  • Sentence Q introduces the main idea of the paragraph, which is the proper way to cross a busy road. The sentence states that we must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear. This is the most important thing to remember when crossing a busy road, as it ensures that we are not crossing when there is oncoming traffic.
  • Sentence R provides more information about the main idea by explaining what to do if there are no signal lights at the crossing. The sentence states that if there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road. This ensures that we are aware of any oncoming traffic before crossing the road.
  • Sentence P provides further support for the main idea by listing a specific way to cross the road safely. The sentence states that we should always cross the road at the zebra crossing. This is because zebra crossings are designed to make it easier for pedestrians to cross the road safely, as they have signals that give pedestrians the right of way.
  • Sentence S provides a conclusion for the paragraph by summarizing the main idea and providing a final thought on the topic. The sentence states that if the road is not clear we should wait. This is a reminder that it is always better to be safe than sorry, and that we should not cross the road if it is not safe to do so.
  • Therefore, option 1 is correct.

Rearranged paragraph: ​S1. While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty. Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear. R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road. P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing. S: If the road is not clear we should wait. S6. We should never run while crossing a road.

43

In the below question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

Rahul requested me to pass the salt.

  1. ((a))

    "Please passing the salt," Rahul said to me.

  2. ((b))

    "Please past the salt," Rahul said to me.

  3. ((c))

    "Please passed the salt," Rahul said to me.

  4. ((d))

    "Please pass the salt," Rahul said to me.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

"Please pass the salt," Rahul said to me.

The correct answer is: "Please pass the salt," Rahul said to me.

Key Points

  • The original sentence is in Direct speech.
  • To convert it into Indirect speech, we need to make following changes: 
  • Remove the quotation marks: In direct speech, the words that are spoken are enclosed in quotation marks. In indirect speech, the quotation marks are removed.
  • Change the verb tenses: In direct speech, the verb tenses are the same as the tenses that were used when the words were spoken. In indirect speech, the verb tenses are changed to the past tense.
  • The verb "requested" changes to "said" and the infinitive phrase "to pass" changes to the base form of the verb "pass." The order of words also changes, with the action (pass the salt) coming before the person to whom the request is made (me). The use of "please" signals politeness, similar to the connotation of "requested."
  • Change the pronouns: In direct speech, the pronouns are the same as the pronouns that were used when the words were spoken. In indirect speech, the pronouns are changed to the person who is reporting the speech.
  • Use the word "that" to introduce the reported speech.
  • Hence, the correct indirect speech for the original sentence is: "Please pass the salt," Rahul said to me.
  • Therefore, option 4 is correct.
  • The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the rules of direct and indirect speech.
  • Option 1 is incorrect because the verb tense is wrong. The verb "passing" should be "pass" in the past tense.
  • Option 2 is incorrect because the word "past" is a noun, not a verb. The correct verb is "pass."
  • Option 3 is incorrect because the verb tense is wrong. The verb "passed" should be "pass" in the past tense.
44

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last sentences are numbered 1 and 6, the rest are numbered P, Q, R, and S. Arrange these four sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph/sentence.

  1. India led the battle of freedom against imperialism

P. That technique brought us success.

Q. We therefore championed the cause of other countries.

R. We fought it with a special technique.

S. We are happy that they achieved freedom.

  1. But some countries are still slaves.
  1. ((a))

    RPQS

  2. ((b))

    SRPQ

  3. ((c))

    RSQP

  4. ((d))

    QSRP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RPQS

The correct answer is "RPQS".

Key Points

  • The correct sequence is "RPQS".
  • Sentence 1 starts the paragraph by stating India's role in the fight against imperialism.
  • Sentence R logically follows sentence 1, explaining how India fought imperialism.
  • Sentence P logically follows sentence R, detailing the success of the technique mentioned previously.
  • Sentence Q follows the success of India's battle against imperialism (as established in sentences R and P), it makes sense that India would then support other countries in their own battles.
  • Sentence S follows sentence Q, concluding India's supportive role in other countries' fights for freedom.
  • Sentence 6 is the final sentence which contrasts with the achievements mentioned in sentence S, implying that while many countries have gained freedom, there are still some that remain under imperialism.
  • Hence option 1 is correct.

Rearranged paragraph: 1. India led the battle of freedom against imperialism. R. We fought it with a special technique. P. That technique brought us success. Q. We therefore championed the cause of other countries. S. We are happy that they achieved freedom. 6. But some countries are still slaves.

45

In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.

S1. Much of our adult behavior and our attitudes are determined by our upbringing.

P: But the process does not stop here.

Q: In particular by the effects of that small part society which is our family.

R: As we grow we are constantly and increasingly affected by new forces such as the social pressure of our friends and the larger world of society.

S: The family and our early life have profound effect on our later life.

S6. Psychologists have studied these forces in depth.

  1. ((a))

    QSPR

  2. ((b))

    SRPQ

  3. ((c))

    QPSR

  4. ((d))

    PRSQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QSPR

The correct answer is "QSPR".

Key Points

  • The correct sequence for the sentences is indeed: QSPR.
  • The reasons behind this order is as follows:
  • S1: This sentence introduces the topic, suggesting that our upbringing influences our adult behavior and attitudes.
  • Q: This sentence further narrows the subject to focus on the family's role within the society that influences our upbringing.
  • S: This sentence underscores the influence of the family and early life experiences on our later life, aligning with the preceding sentence.
  • P: This sentence then makes a transition, suggesting that there's more to the process of shaping our adult behavior and attitudes than just our family and early life.
  • R: This sentence extends the scope of the discussion to include additional forces, such as peers and societal pressures, furthering the point made in sentence P.
  • S6: This concluding sentence brings the discussion to the field of psychology, asserting that these factors influencing our behavior and attitudes have been extensively studied by psychologists.
  • Therefore, option 1 is correct.

Rearranged paragraph: S1. Much of our adult behavior and our attitudes are determined by our upbringing. Q: In particular by the effects of that small part society which is our family. S: The family and our early life have profound effect on our later life. P: But the process does not stop here. R: As we grow we are constantly and increasingly affected by new forces such as the social pressure of our friends and the larger world of society. S6. Psychologists have studied these forces in depth.

46

What is the full form of IUPAC

  1. ((a))

    International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry

  2. ((b))

    International University of Poland And Combodia

  3. ((c))

    International Union of Postal and Application Corporation

  4. ((d))

    Indian Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry

The Correct Answer is Option 2 i.e International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

Key Points

  • IUPAC:

  • The International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) is the world authority on chemical nomenclature and terminology, including the naming of new elements in the periodic table; standardized methods for measurement; and atomic weights, and many other critically evaluated data.

  • Dr Lynn M. Soby is the Executive Director of IUPAC.

  • The headquarters of the IUPAC is located in Zurich, Switzerland.

47

In which of the following cases are sonic booms produced?

  1. ((a))

    When sound waves travel from lighter to denser medium

  2. ((b))

    When an object travels at a speed more than the speed of sound

  3. ((c))

    When an object enters the ionosphere

  4. ((d))

    When an object travels at the speed of light

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

When an object travels at a speed more than the speed of sound

The correct answer is When an object travels at a speed more than the speed of sound.

Key Points

  • A sonic boom is produced when an object travels through the air at a speed greater than the speed of sound.
  • The speed of sound is the speed at which sound waves propagate through a medium, such as air.
  • In dry air at 20 degrees Celsius, the speed of sound is approximately 343 meters per second or about 1,236 kilometers per hour.
  • When an object moves faster than the speed of sound, it creates a shock wave known as a sonic boom.
  • The shock wave is generated as the object pushes against the air molecules, compressing them and causing a sudden change in pressure.
  • This rapid change in pressure creates a distinctive loud noise or boom.
48

A constant interaction between the biotic and abiotic components of the biosphere makes it a ______ system.

  1. ((a))

    barren and unstable

  2. ((b))

    dynamic but stable

  3. ((c))

    barren but stable

  4. ((d))

    static but unstable

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

dynamic but stable

The correct answer is dynamic but stable.

Key Points

  • The constant interaction between the biotic (living organisms) and abiotic (non-living components) of the biosphere makes it a dynamic but stable system.
  • The biosphere encompasses all living organisms and their interactions with the physical environment, including the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere.
  • The biotic components of the biosphere, such as plants, animals, and microorganisms, interact with the abiotic components, such as air, water, soil, and minerals.
  • These interactions involve energy flow, nutrient cycling, and the exchange of gases, shaping the functioning and stability of the biosphere.
  • While the biosphere is dynamic, meaning it is constantly changing and evolving, it also exhibits stability through various feedback mechanisms and regulatory processes.
  • For example, nutrient cycling and energy flow maintain a balance within ecosystems, ensuring the overall stability of the biosphere.
49

______ is a multibranched polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in animals and fungi.

  1. ((a))

    Glycogen

  2. ((b))

    Chitin

  3. ((c))

    Pectin

  4. ((d))

    Cellulose

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Glycogen

The correct answer is Glycogen.

Key Points

  • Glycogen is a multibranched polysaccharide composed of glucose units and serves as a primary form of energy storage in animals and fungi.
  • The chemical formula of glycogen is (C6H10O5)n.
  • It is similar in structure to starch, another energy storage polysaccharide found in plants.
  • In animals, glycogen is primarily stored in the liver and muscles. It acts as a readily mobilizable energy reserve that can be broken down when energy demands are high.
  • During periods of fasting or exercise, glycogen is broken down into glucose through a process called glycogenolysis, providing a quick source of energy for the body.
  • Fungi also utilize glycogen as a storage polysaccharide, similarly to animals. It serves as an energy reserve to support fungal growth and metabolism when nutrients are limited.

Additional Information

  • Chitin: Chitin is a polysaccharide composed of N-acetylglucosamine units and is a structural component found in the exoskeleton of arthropods (such as insects and crustaceans) and the cell walls of fungi..
  • Pectin: Pectin is a complex polysaccharide found in plant cell walls. It plays a role in cell adhesion and helps to provide structure to plant tissues.
  • Cellulose: Cellulose is another polysaccharide found in plant cell walls. It is composed of glucose units and serves as a structural component, providing strength and rigidity to plant cells.
50

Alkali metals can

  1. ((a))

    Easily lose electrons

  2. ((b))

    Easily gain electrons

  3. ((c))

    Vaporize at room temperature

  4. ((d))

    Be highly unstable at room temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Easily lose electrons

The correct answer is Easily lose electrons.

Key Points

  • Alkali metals, such as lithium (Li), sodium (Na), potassium (K), and others, have one valence electron in their outermost energy level.
  • This makes them highly reactive and prone to easily losing this valence electron to form a positive ion.
  • Alkali metals have a strong tendency to donate their outermost electron and achieve a stable electron configuration similar to that of a noble gas.
  • By losing this electron, they form a cation with a positive charge.
  • This characteristic is due to their low ionization energy, which is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom.
  • Their reactivity and ability to readily lose electrons make alkali metals highly reactive with other elements, especially non-metals.
  • They react vigorously with water, oxygen, and halogens, for example.
51

Which drug is used as an Anti-Histamine?

  1. ((a))

    Ranitidine

  2. ((b))

    Azithromycin

  3. ((c))

    Promethazine

  4. ((d))

    Ibuprofen

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Promethazine

The correct answer is Promethazine.

Key Points

  • Promethazine is a drug that is commonly used as an antihistamine.
  • Antihistamines are medications that help to counteract the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the body during allergic reactions.
  • Promethazine blocks the action of histamine by binding to the histamine H1 receptors, preventing them from being activated.
  • By doing so, it helps to alleviate symptoms associated with allergies, such as itching, sneezing, runny nose, and watery eyes.

Additional Information

  • Ranitidine:  It is a medication used to reduce stomach acid production and is primarily used to treat conditions such as heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and stomach ulcers.
  • Azithromycin: Azithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections, such as respiratory tract infections, skin infections, and certain sexually transmitted diseases.
  • Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is primarily used to relieve pain, reduce inflammation, and lower fever.
52

Which of the following is not a nitrogenous fertilizer?

  1. ((a))

    Superphosphate

  2. ((b))

    Urea

  3. ((c))

    Ammonium nitrate

  4. ((d))

    Ammonium sulphate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Superphosphate

The correct answer is Superphosphate.

Key Points

  • Superphosphate is not a nitrogenous fertilizer. It is a phosphorus fertilizer.
  • Superphosphate is produced by treating phosphate rock with sulfuric acid to make it more soluble and available to plants.
  • It is primarily used to provide phosphorus, an essential nutrient for plant growth and development.

Additional Information

  • Urea
  • Urea is a nitrogenous fertilizer widely used in agriculture.
  • It is a solid nitrogen fertilizer that contains a high percentage of nitrogen in the form of urea.
  • Urea is water-soluble and provides a readily available source of nitrogen for plants.
  • Ammonium nitrate
  • Ammonium nitrate is another nitrogenous fertilizer commonly used in agriculture.
  • It is a crystalline substance that contains both ammonium and nitrate ions.
  • Ammonium nitrate provides a dual source of nitrogen, as both ammonium and nitrate ions can be taken up by plants.
  • Ammonium sulfate:
  • Ammonium sulfate is also a nitrogenous fertilizer.
  • It contains both ammonium and sulfate ions.
  • It is often used in areas with low pH or alkaline soils, as it can help to lower soil pH while providing nitrogen to plants.
53

Which of the below mentioned human organs can regrow after damage in adults? 

  1. ((a))

    Gall bladder

  2. ((b))

    Liver

  3. ((c))

    Kidney

  4. ((d))

    Lung

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Liver

The correct answer is Liver.

Key PointsLiver is the organ out of the four options, that can regrow after damage in adults.

OrganFunction
Liver- Produces Bile, which helps to break down fats, preparing them for further digestion and absorption. - Filters and removes compounds from the body, including hormones, such as estrogen and aldosterone, and compounds from outside the body, including alcohol and other drugs. - Changes harmful ammonia to urea - Makes certain proteins like albumin, for blood plasma. - Stores and releases glucose as needed
Kidney- The kidneys filter out toxins, excess salts, and urea. - Balances the Water level in the body - Regulates Blood Pressure - Maintain the level of Acids in the body.
Gall Bladder- Serves as a reservoir for bile while it’s not being used for digestion and releases it as and when needed.
Lungs- The most important function of the lungs is to take oxygen from the environment and transfer it to the bloodstream.
54

Which of the following foods has the highest percentage of proteins per unit mass?

  1. ((a))

    Fish

  2. ((b))

    Cow-milk

  3. ((c))

    Egg

  4. ((d))

    Meat

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Meat

The correct answer is Meat.

Key Points 

FoodAmount Per 100 grams
ProteinCaloriesFat
Meat26 g1433.5 g
Egg13 g15511 g
Cow milk3.4 g421 g
Fish22 g20612 g

Additional Information 

  • Protein:
  • Proteins are one of the building blocks of body tissue.
  • They are made up of Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogen.
  • Proteins help for the growth and repair of the body.
  • Proteins are the nutrient known as 'bodybuilders'.
  • Amino acid is the basic unit of proteins.
  • The Soyabean contains the highest percentage of protein.
  • The major source of protein is meat, milk, egg, fish, gram, etc.
  • Deficiency diseases: Marasmus, Kwashiorkor.
55

UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development is:

  1. ((a))

    2005 - 2014

  2. ((b))

    2010 - 2019

  3. ((c))

    2000 - 2009

  4. ((d))

    2020 - 2031

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2005 - 2014

The correct answer is 2005 - 2014.

Key Points

  • A global programme called the UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development (UN DESD) ran from 2005 to 2014.
  • From early childhood to lifelong learning, the UN DESD sought to integrate sustainable development into education and learning at all levels.
  • Additionally, it aimed to increase public understanding of sustainable development challenges among policymakers, educators, and the general public.

The UN DESD was a success in mobilizing global attention to the importance of education for sustainable development. It also led to a number of significant achievements, including:

  • New educational resources for teaching and learning about sustainable development
  • The creation of new collaborations and networks for sustainable development education
  • The introduction of new regulations and laws for sustainable development in the classroom
  • Increasing civic society involvement in education about sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • The UN DESD ended in 2014, but its legacy continues.
  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which were adopted by the United Nations in 2015, include a specific goal on education for sustainable development (SDG 4.7).
  • This goal calls for ensuring that all learners acquire the knowledge and skills needed to promote sustainable development.
56

Transformer is a device to convert-

  1. ((a))

    Mechanical energy into Electrical energy

  2. ((b))

    Low voltage A.C. into high voltage A.C.

  3. ((c))

    Low voltage D.C. into high voltage D.C.

  4. ((d))

    D.C. to A.C.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Low voltage A.C. into high voltage A.C.

Correct answer is Low voltage A.C. into high voltage A.C.

Key Points

  • A Transformer is used to convert low voltage (or high current) to high voltage (or low current) and high voltage to low voltage.
  • It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
  • The primary coil has Np turns and the other coil, called the secondary coil, has Ns turns.
  • Generally, the primary coil works the input coil and the secondary coil works as the output coil of the transformer.
  • When an AC voltage is applied to the primary coil, the resulting current produces an alternating magnetic flux that links the secondary coil and induces an emf in it. The value of this emf depends on the number of turns in the secondary.

  • In a transformer, the voltage in secondary is calculated by
<br>

Where, Np and Ns are the numbers of turns in the primary and secondary coils respectively, and Vp and Vs are the rms voltages across the primary and secondary respectively.

  • In a transformer, the load is connected to the secondary coil while the primary coil of a transformer is connected to an AC source.

Additional Information

  • Since the transformer converts the higher voltage to lower voltage and vice versa, So we can say that it can be used to obtain suitable voltage. Therefore option 3 is correct.
  • Also, the transformer works with on principle of electromagnetic induction, It can be used only to obtain suitable AC voltage, not DC voltage.
57

The temperature ranges in the moon is ______ °C.

  1. ((a))

    -120 - 200°C

  2. ((b))

    -880 - 100°C

  3. ((c))

    -190 - 110°C

  4. ((d))

    -1000 - 100°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

-190 - 110°C

The correct answer is -190 - 110°C.

Key Points

  • The moon's temperature swings wildly because it has no atmosphere to trap heat.
  • In sunlit areas, temperatures can soar as high as 250°F (121°C) during the lunar day.
  • But at night, with no atmosphere to hold onto the sun's energy, temperatures plummet to -208°F (-133°C).
  • In permanently shadowed areas near the poles, where sunlight never reaches, temperatures can dip even lower, reaching -410°F (-246°C).
  • The closest option to the above mentioned data is option 3. Hence, -190 - 110°C is the correct answer.

Important Points

  • This question has been asked in the MP Patwari 2023 official paper, and the correct answer considered by the conducting body is option 2, -880 - 100°C.
  • From the data provided by NASA's official website, option 3 is the closest. Hence, it has been marked as the correct answer.
58

In which of the following the arrangements of cells is more complex?

  1. ((a))

    Cnidarians

  2. ((b))

    Chordates

  3. ((c))

    Platyhelminthes

  4. ((d))

    Coelenterates

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chordates

The correct answer is Chordates.

Key Points

  • Chordates represent the phylum within the animal kingdom where the complexity of cell arrangement and overall organism organization reaches a higher level compared to the other options.
  • Chordates are characterized by having a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits, an endostyle, and a post-anal tail at some stage of their life.
  • This phylum includes a vast diversity of animals, from simple lancelets to complex vertebrates, including humans.
  • Chordates exhibit a high degree of tissue and organ differentiation, a well-developed nervous system, and advanced body structures.

Additional Information

  • Cnidarians: These are a more primordial group of animals, known for their simple body structure characterized by a sac-like body, a single opening serving as both mouth and anus, and specialized cells known as cnidocytes for capturing prey. Jellyfish, corals, and sea anemones are examples of cnidarians.
  • Platyhelminthes: Also known as flatworms, this phylum comprises animals with a more complex cell arrangement than cnidarians but less than chordates. They have a bilateral symmetry and a simple organ system, lacking a specialized circulatory and respiratory system.
  • Coelenterates: This is an alternative name for cnidarians, referring to the same group described above. The term highlights the characteristic coelenteron or gastrovascular cavity, a central digestive compartment.
59

Which of the following metals is the most ductile metal?

  1. ((a))

    Copper

  2. ((b))

    Gold

  3. ((c))

    Aluminium

  4. ((d))

    Tin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gold

The correct answer is Gold.

Key Points

Explanation:

Ductility

  • Ductility is the ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires.
  • Material ductility is a mechanical property.
  • Gold is the most ductile metal. A wire of about 2 km in length can be drawn from one gram of gold.
  • It is because of their malleability and ductility that metals can be given different shapes according to our needs.
  • In materials science, ductility is defined as the ability of a material to withstand plastic deformation under tensile stress.
  • The ability of a solid material to deform under tensile stress is referred to as ductility.
  • The greater the material thickness, the greater the reduction in toughness.
  • Metal ductility decreases as temperature rises because metals become weaker as temperature rises.
  • Gold and platinum are the two most ductile metals.
  • Platinum has a higher ductility than gold.
  • Gold has a resistance factor of five to flammability.

 Additional Information

Malleability

  • Malleability is a physical property of metal.
  • Malleability is the ability of a metal to be hammered, beaten, or rolled out into thin sheets without breaking.
  • When metal is rolled out or hammered, the atoms of metal are flexible enough to move upon each other and obtain the new shape that is being given to them at the molecular level.
  • The important thing to remember here is that when hammered, the bonds between metals do not break. This is known as malleability.
  • Iron, gold, silver, lead, aluminium, copper, and many other metals are malleable.
  • As a result, thin foils of gold, silver, and aluminium are commercially available.
60

Amount of O2 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is ______.

  1. ((a))

    50 ml

  2. ((b))

    5 ml

  3. ((c))

    20 ml

  4. ((d))

    2 ml

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20 ml

The correct answer is 20 ml.

Key Points

  • Oxygen is carried in the blood either in dissolved form or in association with haemoglobin.
  • To calculate the concentration of oxygen transported in the blood, one needs to understand the amount of oxygen carried by each gram of haemoglobin.
  • In a saturated condition, one gram of haemoglobin carries 1.34 ml of oxygen.
  • Normally 100 ml of blood has around 15 gm of haemoglobin in it.
  • Thus, the amount of oxygen carried in 100 ml of pure blood can be calculated as 15 * 1.34 ml = 20 ml

Additional Information

  • For every 100 ml of oxygenated blood, only 5 ml of oxygen is delivered to tissues.
  • Because our Tissues can utilise only 25% of O2 carried by the Arterial blood.
  • Therefore Only 5ml (25%) out of 20ml (100%) is being carried by the Arterial blood.
61

What is Bacilli?

  1. ((a))

    Antidote

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Viruses

  4. ((d))

    Disease

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bacteria

Correct answer is Bacteria 

Key Points

  • Bacteria exist in a variety of forms, mainly spherical, rod-shaped and spiral-shaped.
  • Rod-shaped Bacillus: bacilli
  • Spherical Coccus: cocci
  • Comma-shaped Vibrium: vibrio
  • Spiral Spirillum: spirilla
62

Which of the following statement is not true regarding electromagnets?

  1. ((a))

    They do not lose magnetism when electric current is switched off.

  2. ((b))

    They are used to separate magnetic material from junk.

  3. ((c))

    They attract pieces of iron

  4. ((d))

    They can be made very strong to lift heavy objects.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They do not lose magnetism when electric current is switched off.

The correct answer is They do not lose magnetism when electric current is switched off.

Key Points

  • Electromagnets are temporary magnets that only have a magnetic field when an electric current is flowing through them. When the current is turned off, the magnetic field disappears.
  • The other statements are all true. Electromagnets are used to separate magnetic material from junk, they attract pieces of iron, and they can be made very strong to lift heavy objects.

Additional Information

Making of Electromagnets: 

  • Electromagnets are made up of a coil of wire that is wrapped around a ferromagnetic core, such as iron or steel.
  • When an electric current is passed through the coil, it creates a magnetic field around the core. The strength of the magnetic field is proportional to the amount of current flowing through the coil.
63

Malaria is caused by the bite of which mosquito?

  1. ((a))

    Female mosquito

  2. ((b))

    Male mosquito

  3. ((c))

    Male Anopheles mosquito

  4. ((d))

    Female Anopheles mosquito

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Female Anopheles mosquito

Correct answer is Female Anopheles mosquito.

Key Points

  • Malaria is nothing but a mosquito borne blood disease.
  • It is caused by the parasite of plasmodium.
  • It is generally spreads through the Female Anopheles mosquitoes.
  • If the parasite enters into the humans, it starts multiplying in the liver cells.
  • Later they attack the Red Blood cells in the human body.
  • There are about 460 species of Female Anopheles mosquitoes.
  • Among them almost 100 species can transmit Malaria.

Additional Information

  • The Female culex mosquito also serves as vector to transmit diseases.
  • They generally cause the diseases like West Nile virus, Japanese encephalitis etc.
  • Male Anopheles mosquito generally does not bite.
  • So, they cannot transmit any diseases.
64

Which enzyme helps in the formation of alcohol

  1. ((a))

    Zymase

  2. ((b))

    Lipase

  3. ((c))

    Invertase

  4. ((d))

    Amylase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zymase

The correct answer is Zymase.

Key Points

  • The enzyme that helps in the formation of alcohol is zymase.
  • Zymase is a complex of enzymes that is found in yeast and other microorganisms. It is responsible for the fermentation of sugar into alcohol.
  • The fermentation process begins when yeast cells consume sugar and convert it into pyruvic acid.
  • Pyruvic acid is then converted into acetaldehyde by the enzyme zymase. Acetaldehyde is then converted into ethanol (alcohol) by another enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase.
  • The fermentation process is an anaerobic process, which means that it does not require oxygen. This is why alcohol can be produced in closed containers, such as bottles and barrels.

Additional InformationLipase: Lipase converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol. It is present in a wide range of bodily tissues, including the stomach, salivary glands, and pancreas. Lipase is crucial for digestion because it aids in dissolving fat molecules so that the body can absorb them.

Invertase: Invertase, also known as beta-fructofuranosidase, is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of sucrose (table sugar) into glucose and fructose. The resulting mixture of fructose and glucose is called inverted sugar syrup.

Amylase: An amylase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Amylase is present in the saliva of humans and some other mammals, where it begins the chemical process of digestion.

65

Which of the following is NOT a heterogeneous mixture?

  1. ((a))

    Seawater

  2. ((b))

    Sand in water

  3. ((c))

    Muddy water

  4. ((d))

    Blood

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seawater

Correct answer is Seawater 

Key Points

Homogenous Mixtures:

  • Those mixtures in which the substances are completely mixed together and are indistinguishable from one another are called homogeneous mixtures.
  • A homogeneous mixture is a mixture in which the composition is uniform throughout the mixture.
  • Many homogeneous mixtures are commonly referred to as solutions.
  • Some examples of homogeneous mixtures (or solutions) are Sugar solution, Salt solution, Copper sulfate solution, Seawater, Alcohol and water mixture, Petrol and oil mixture, Soda water, etc.

Heterogeneous mixture:

  • A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture with a non-uniform composition that contains components in different phases.
  • The composition varies from one region to another with at least two phases that remain separate from each other, with clearly identifiable properties.
  • Heterogeneous mixtures contain particles that retain their chemical properties when they are mixed and can be distinguished after they are mixed.
  • The components of heterogeneous mixtures can be separated by the filtration of chemical procedures.
  • The two types of heterogeneous mixtures are suspensions and colloids.
  • Sugar and sand form a heterogeneous mixture. If you look closely, you can identify tiny sugar crystals and particles of sand.
  • Sand is a solid substance. Tap water is a liquid substance.
  • Blood is a complex mixture of cells, proteins, and other components found in animals. Air is a gaseous mixture primarily composed of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other gases.

.

66

Who discovered Oxygen?

  1. ((a))

    Carl Scheele

  2. ((b))

    Williams

  3. ((c))

    Heisenberg

  4. ((d))

    Hooke

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Carl Scheele

The correct answer is Carl Scheele

Key Points

  • Carl Wilhelm Scheele was a Swedish-German pharmaceutical chemist.
  • He was the first person to discover oxygen and describe some of its most important properties.

Additional Information 

  • Scheele also discovered the following organic acids:
  • Tartaric acid
  • Oxalic acid
  • Uric, acid
  • Acetic acid
  • Citric acid
  • Hydrofluoric acid
  • Hydrocyanic, acid
  • and Arsenic acids.
67

What is the molecular formula for chalk ?

  1. ((a))

    Ca(SO4)2

  2. ((b))

    CaHCO3

  3. ((c))

    Ca(OH)2

  4. ((d))

    CaCO3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CaCO3

The correct answer is CaCO3.

Key Points

  • The molecular formula for chalk is CaCO3, which stands for calcium carbonate.
  • Calcium carbonate is a white, odorless, and tasteless powder that is commonly used as a writing tool.
  • It is also used in a variety of other applications, including making ceramics, paints, and fertilizers.
  • Chalk is made up of calcium, carbon, and oxygen atoms. The ratio of these atoms is 1:1:3.
  • This means that every molecule of calcium carbonate contains one atom of calcium, one atom of carbon, and three atoms of oxygen.

Additional Information 

  • Ca(SO4)2 - Ca(SO4)2 is the chemical formula for calcium sulfate. It is an inorganic compound that is commonly found in nature as the mineral gypsum.
  • Ca(OH)2 - The chemical formula Ca(OH)2 is for calcium hydroxide, also known as slaked lime or hydrated lime. It is a white, odorless, and tasteless powder that is produced when calcium oxide (quicklime) is mixed with water.
  • CaHCO3 - CaHCO3 is not a valid chemical formula. The correct chemical formula for calcium bicarbonate is Ca(HCO3)2. Calcium bicarbonate is an ionic compound that is made up of calcium ions, bicarbonate ions, and water molecules. It is used in medicine and food industry.
68

Which one of the following non-metals is a good conductor of electricity?

  1. ((a))

    Sulphur

  2. ((b))

    Graphite

  3. ((c))

    Phosphorus

  4. ((d))

    Coal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Graphite

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Graphite.

Key Points

  • Graphite is an allotrope of carbon and a non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity.
  • Allotropes are the various physical forms in which an element can exist.
  • Graphite is an allotrope of carbon along with Diamond and Buckminsterfullerene.
ComparisonDiamondGraphite
Form- A colorless, , lustre substance- A greyish-black substance
Valance electron- None- One
Conductance- Non-conductor of electricity- Good conductor of electricity
Use- Keratome: Diamond edged knife to use by eye surgeons to remove a cataract from the eye. - Used to making jewelry. - Very hard.- Very soft - Used for electrodes in dry cells - Brushes of electric motors. - Used as a lubricant.

Buckminsterfullerene:

  • Also called fullerene
  • Contain clusters of 60 carbon atoms joined together to form spherical molecules.
  • Its formula is C60.
  • It is a football-shaped molecule with 60 carbon atoms arranged as 20 hexagon and 12 pentagons that are interlocked.
  • It is a dark solid, which is neither very hard nor soft.
69

Where is the Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) situated in India?

  1. ((a))

    Mysore

  2. ((b))

    Kanpur

  3. ((c))

    Bhopal

  4. ((d))

    Lucknow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mysore

The correct answer is Mysore.

Key Points 

  • CSIR−Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) is situated in Mysore, Karnataka.
  • It is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, New Delhi which came into existence during 1950.
  • Food Technology being inter-disciplinary in nature the mandate or vision of the Institute is fulfilled through various R&D Departments and Support Departments along with its Resource Centres at Hyderabad, Lucknow, and Mumbai.
  • The institute has developed over 300 products, processes, and equipment types.
  • It holds several patents and has published findings in reputed journals.
  • The institute develops technologies to increase efficiency and reduce post-harvest losses, increase export, find new sources of food products, integrate human resources in food industries, reduce costs.

70

Nucleus contains ______ % of the mass of the atom

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    18.9

  3. ((c))

    99.98

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

99.98

Correct Answer is 99.98

Key Points

  • In an atom, the nucleus contains nucleons.
  • A nucleon can be either a proton or a neutron.
  • The total number of protons and neutrons (often referred to as nucleons) in an atomic nucleus is known as the mass number (A).
  • This is because most of the mass of an atom is of protons and neutrons. (99.98 %)
  • The electrons revolving have negligible mass as compared to the nucleus.
PROTONNEUTRONELECTRON
Positively charged particlesNeutral particles i.e. no charge is present on themNegatively charged particles.
Present in the nucleus of the atomPresent in the nucleus of the atompresent in the outer shell, orbiting around the nucleus of the atom.
Mass: 1.673 × 10-27 Kg1.6749275×10−27 Kg9.10938356 × 10-31 Kg
More massive than electronsMore massive than electronsQuite lighter particles
Represented as "p"Represented as "n"Represented as "e"

From the data, we can observe that the mass of electrons is small compared to that of proton and neutron up to 10 5.

71

______ is a shortcut key most often used to close a document in Windows.

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + W

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + R

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Esc

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Shift + Esc

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + W

The correct answer is  option 1) Ctrl + W.

Ctrl + W:

  • This shortcut key combination is commonly used to close a document or tab in various Windows applications.
  • For example, in web browsers like Google Chrome or Mozilla Firefox, pressing Ctrl + W will close the active tab.
  • Similarly, in text editors or word processors, it can be used to close the currently opened document.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + R: This shortcut key combination is typically used to refresh or reload the current page in web browsers.
  • Ctrl + Esc: Pressing Ctrl + Esc opens the Start menu in Windows. It is an alternative to pressing the Windows key on the keyboard.
  • Ctrl + Shift + Esc: This shortcut key combination is used to open the Task Manager directly in Windows. The Task Manager provides information about running processes and allows users to manage them.

Note: Remember that these shortcut keys can vary slightly depending on the specific software or version of Windows being used, but the ones mentioned above are the most commonly used defaults.

72

In M.S Word Thesaurus tool is used for?

  1. ((a))

    Spelling suggestion

  2. ((b))

    Translation

  3. ((c))

    Synonyms and Antonyms

  4. ((d))

    Grammar suggestion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Synonyms and Antonyms

  • In addition to the spell checking and grammar checking tools that Microsoft Word offers, there is also the Word thesaurus we can take advantage of to improve our documents
  • Using the thesaurus, you can find synonyms (different words with the same meaning) and antonyms (words with the opposite meaning)
  • In Microsoft Office Word you can look up a word quickly if you right-click anywhere in your document, and then click Synonym on the shortcut menu

Command to use Thesaurus tool ( shortcut key: shift + F7).

Important Points Other helpful commands used in MS word.

Ctrl+ NCreate a new document
Ctrl+ OOpen an existing document
Ctrl+ SSave a document
Ctrl+ Alt + SSplit a window or remove the split view
Ctrl+ WClose a document
73

What are the binary digits 0 and 1 represented in?

  1. ((a))

    Byte

  2. ((b))

    Bits

  3. ((c))

    Words

  4. ((d))

    Nibble

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bits

The Binary Number System:

  • A computer system uses bits (binary digits) to denote values. It uses the binary number system to store data.
  • Each digit (0 or 1) is a bit thus the binary number 10110110 is a binary number having 8 bits.
  • The binary number system with only two independent digits, 0 and 1, is a base-2 number system. All larger binary numbers are represented in terms of ‘0’ and ‘1’.
  • A binary number can easily be converted to a decimal by multiplying each digit by a power of 2.

NOTE:

  • The decimal number system has a base of 10 as it has 10 independent digits, i.e. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.
  • The hexadecimal number system uses 16 symbols (base 16) which includes numbers from 0 to 9 and letter A to F. A nibble is one digit of a hexadecimal value which represents 4 bits.
  • The octal number system use base 8. Octal numbers are written using digits 0 through 7.
74

What will be the output of the following JavaScript code?

document.writeln("< br/> navigator.appCodeName: " + navigator.appCodeName);

  1. ((a))

    Version

  2. ((b))

    Undefined

  3. ((c))

    Error

  4. ((d))

    Browser name

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Browser name

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The output of the given JavaScript code will be: "
    navigator.appCodeName: [browser's code name]"
  • The actual value displayed will depend on the browser being used.
  • The navigator.appCodeName property returns the code name of the browser.
  • For example, in Firefox, the code name is "Mozilla," while in Internet Explorer, it is "Microsoft Internet Explorer."
  • The specific browser code name will be appended after the colon in the output.

Therefore, the correct answer is Browser name.

75

Which of the following represents direct action of virus?

  1. ((a))

    Format the hard drive.

  2. ((b))

    It installs somewhere in the memory and makes arrangement for the virus to spread.

  3. ((c))

    It initially executes in the course of normal use of a computer system identifies executable files.

  4. ((d))

    It is capable of spreading by infecting files.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

It initially executes in the course of normal use of a computer system identifies executable files.

The correct option is (3)

It initially executes in the course of normal use of a computer system identifies executable files.

Key Points 

  • Direct Action Viruses are those that enter the device while an executable or.com file is running on a computer. It keeps itself concealed if it is put in the memory. It also goes by the name Non-Resident Virus.
  • It is also known as a parasitic virus, and it usually affects files with the.exe or.com extensions.
  • This virus' primary goal is to spread itself throughout folders and infect files. On a lighter note, they often don't erase files or slow down PC performance. Antivirus software can eliminate it without much difficulty.

Additional Information 

  • The Michelangelo virus is a well-known boot sector virus. As suggested by their name, file infectors attach themselves to executable files to "infect" files on a computer. To accomplish this, they can add new code to the file or modify existing code in certain places.
  • A macro virus is a type of computer virus that is built in the same macro language that is used to construct applications like Microsoft Word and Excel.
  • Some viruses are developed expressly to delete the data from a file or application. An overwriting virus starts overwriting files with its own code after it has infected a machine. These viruses have the ability to rewrite all of the files on an infected device or target particular programs or files.
76

Which symptom of the virus represents if you cannot connect to the USB drive you just plugged in, or you go to My Computer and only see one drive instead of your usual X number of drives?

  1. ((a))

    Slow performance

  2. ((b))

    Drives not accessible

  3. ((c))

    Crashing

  4. ((d))

    Hardware Troubles

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Drives not accessible

The correct option would be 2) Drives not accessible.

  • If you cannot connect to a USB drive you just plugged in, or you go to My Computer and see fewer drives than expected, it generally means those drives are not accessible. This could be a symptom of a virus or malware that is blocking access to those drives.
  • However, it's important to note that this symptom could also be due to other reasons unrelated to a virus, such as hardware issues (the drive might be physically damaged or improperly connected), software issues (the drive might not be properly formatted or the drivers might be outdated), or OS issues (an update or change in settings might affect drive accessibility).

So, while option 2) Drives not accessible is the best answer from your options, the issue should be further investigated to confirm the cause.

77

Which is the order of files and directories in Windows Explore?

  1. ((a))

    Alphabetically

  2. ((b))

    Sequentially

  3. ((c))

    hierarchically

  4. ((d))

    Serially

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

hierarchically

The correct answer is (3) Hierarchically.

  • When browsing files and directories in Windows Explorer (also known as File Explorer in newer versions of Windows), the default order in which they are displayed is hierarchical.
  • This means that files and directories are organized in a tree-like structure, where directories (folders) are displayed first, followed by the files and subdirectories within each directory.
  • The hierarchical order reflects the way files and directories are organized on the computer's storage system.
  • Each directory can contain files and additional subdirectories.
  • By navigating through the directories, you can explore the file system and access the files and folders stored on your computer.
  • Within each directory, files and subdirectories are typically listed in alphabetical order by default.
  • This alphabetical sorting helps you locate specific files or directories more easily.
  • However, you can also change the sorting order based on other criteria, such as file size, date modified, or file type, by clicking on the respective column headers in Windows Explorer.

To summarize, Windows Explorer displays files and directories hierarchically, with directories listed first and files and subdirectories listed within each directory. The default sorting order within each directory is typically alphabetical, but it can be customized as needed.

78

Which of the following use the laser technology to detect the movement of mouse?

  1. ((a))

    Optical

  2. ((b))

    Rubber ball

  3. ((c))

    Electrical

  4. ((d))

    Mechanical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Optical

The Correct Answer Option 1: Optical

Explanation: An optical mouse uses a light-emitting diode (LED) and photodiodes (not a laser) to detect movement relative to the underlying surface, typically functioning best on a non-glossy surface.

NOTE: However, it's important to note that there's another category of mouse often referred to as a "laser mouse."

  • This type of mouse uses a laser for illumination and is a subtype of the optical mouse.
  • Laser mice provide a higher level of sensitivity compared to regular optical mice and can work on glossy and even glass surfaces.
79

What is the role of "Smart Tag" in ms excel?

  1. ((a))

    An entry that Excel believes you may want to edit

  2. ((b))

    Makes our spreadsheet looks smart

  3. ((c))

    Information that help in calculating

  4. ((d))

    A data that Excel stores by itself

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An entry that Excel believes you may want to edit

The correct answer is (1) An entry that Excel believes you may want to edit.

  • Smart Tags in Microsoft Excel are a feature designed to help with certain types of data. When Excel recognizes that you've entered data that fits into one of its predefined categories, it will display a small icon (the Smart Tag) near the cell.
  • Clicking on the Smart Tag opens a menu with various options related to the data in the cell. For example, if you enter a stock ticker symbol, the Smart Tag might offer options to get the latest stock price, news about the company, or other financial information. Similarly, if you enter a name, the Smart Tag might offer options to add the person to your contacts, schedule a meeting, or other tasks related to managing contacts.

To clarify the other options:

  • Smart Tags do not make the spreadsheet look smart. They are a functional tool, not an aesthetic one.
  • While Smart Tags can sometimes provide information that helps in calculations (like stock prices), their primary role is to provide quick access to actions or information related to the data in a cell, not to aid in the calculation.
  • Excel does not store data by itself using Smart Tags. The user enters the data, and Excel uses Smart Tags to provide additional options related to that data.
80

Which was the first widely installed operating system for PCs in the 1980s? 

  1. ((a))

    Linux OS

  2. ((b))

    Windows OS

  3. ((c))

    MS-DOS

  4. ((d))

    UNIX

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MS-DOS

Option 3: MS-DOS

Explanation: MS-DOS (Microsoft Disk Operating System) was the first widely installed operating system for personal computers in the 1980s.

  • It was introduced by Microsoft for the IBM PC in 1981. MS-DOS was a command-line based operating system, meaning that users had to type in commands to perform tasks.
  • Windows OS, which was also developed by Microsoft, did not become widely used until later.
  • The first version, Windows 1.0, was released in 1985 as a graphical interface for MS-DOS, but it didn't gain significant popularity until versions 3.0 and 3.1 in the early 1990s.
  • UNIX was developed in the 1970s and has been widely used in many systems, especially servers and workstations, but it was not as prevalent on personal computers in the 1980s.
  • Linux OS was not released until 1991, making it a decade later than the introduction of MS-DOS.
81

Which symptom represents a self-replicating program?

  1. ((a))

    Mobile phone virus

  2. ((b))

    Worm

  3. ((c))

    Macro virus

  4. ((d))

    Anti-virus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Worm

The correct answer is Worms.

  • A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers.
  • Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it.
  • Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program.
  • Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
82

Which option offers a built in design through a dialog box?

  1. ((a))

    Blank Presentation

  2. ((b))

    Auto content wizard

  3. ((c))

    Standard tool bar

  4. ((d))

    Template

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Template

The correct answer is (4) Template.

  • A template in many software programs, including presentation software like Microsoft PowerPoint or Google Slides, is a pre-designed layout loaded through a dialog box. It provides a ready-made structure or set of styles that helps users create a presentation, document, or project quickly and efficiently.
  • Templates can offer a wide variety of pre-set designs, including different color schemes, text formats, and slide layouts. They can be particularly useful when you want to ensure a consistent look and feel across multiple slides or documents.

By contrast:

  • A Blank Presentation does not offer any pre-set design. It's essentially a clean slate that allows users to create a presentation from scratch.
  • The Auto Content Wizard was a feature in earlier versions of PowerPoint (like PowerPoint 2003) that guided users through the process of creating a new presentation, but it's not a feature in newer versions.
  • The Standard Toolbar, as the name suggests, is a toolbar in many applications that contains frequently used functions and commands. It does not offer a built-in design through a dialog box.
83

How many types of Intrusion Problems are there?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

In the field of cybersecurity, commonly, we can classify intrusion problems into four main types:

  • Network Intrusions: These occur when an unauthorized person gains access to a network. Network intrusions can lead to many problems, including data breaches, system failure, or other types of damage. The intruder may use various methods to access the network, such as exploiting vulnerabilities in the system or using stolen user credentials. Examples of network intrusions include Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks, Man in the Middle (MitM) attacks, and packet sniffing.
  • Host Intrusions: These happen when a specific computer system, or host, is compromised. This can be achieved by exploiting software vulnerabilities, taking advantage of weak passwords, or using malware. Once inside, the attacker might steal or alter data, disrupt services, or use the host to launch further attacks.
  • Application Intrusions: These take place when an attacker exploits a flaw in an application's code or design to gain unauthorized access. Once inside, they can manipulate the application, alter or steal data, or disrupt services. Application intrusions often involve the use of software bugs, input validation errors, and other types of vulnerabilities.
  • Physical Intrusions: These are relatively straightforward. They happen when someone gains physical access to hardware or a location that they shouldn't have access to. This could be as simple as someone walking into a server room and connecting a device to the network, or as sophisticated as intercepting and altering network cables.

So, the correct option would be (2) 4.

84

Who identifies the text-based commands?

  1. ((a))

    Device management

  2. ((b))

    CLI

  3. ((c))

    GUI

  4. ((d))

    Command prompt

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CLI

The correct answer is Command Line Interface

Key Points 

  • Command Line Interface(CLI) -  A command-line interface (CLI) is a text-based interface used to enter commands. It is used to run programs, manage computer files and interact with the computer.
  • Command-line interfaces are also called command-line user interfaces, console user interfaces and character user interfaces.In the early days of computing, before the mouse, it was the standard way of interacting with computers. While the graphical user interface (GUI) has largely replaced the command-line interface (CLI).

Additional Information 

  • There are many different types of command-line interfaces each command-line interface uses its own command syntax, but they all function in a similar way.
  • The two most popular command-line interfaces.
  1. DOS (for Windows)
  2. Shell (for Unix)
85

Name the software that allows the user to create any numeric based documents or numeric data-analysis tool that can be used to make budgets, financial statements etc.

  1. ((a))

    Word processing software

  2. ((b))

    Database software

  3. ((c))

    Spreadsheet software

  4. ((d))

    Graphics software

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Spreadsheet software

The correct answer is Spreadsheet software.

Key Points 

  • Spreadsheet software is a numeric-data analysis tool that allows us to create a kind of computerized ledger.
  • Spreadsheet software allows the user to create any numeric based documents or numeric data-analysis tool that can be used to make budgets, financial statements etc.
  • A spreadsheet is a software program you use to easily perform mathematical calculations on statistical data and totalling long columns of numbers or determining percentages and averages.
  • Microsoft Excel is the most commonly used spreadsheet software.
86

What is the full form of MAR, which to hold the address of the next location in the memory to be accessed? 

  1. ((a))

    Minimum Arithmetic Register

  2. ((b))

    Memory Address Register

  3. ((c))

    Memory Arithmetic Ruler

  4. ((d))

    Minimum Address Radar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Memory Address Register

The correct answer is Memory address register.

Key Points

  • In a computer, the Memory Address Register (MAR) is the CPU register that stores either the memory address from which data will be brought to the CPU registers or the address to which data will be sent and stored via the system bus.

Additional Information 

  • In computing, the instruction register (IR) is the part of a CPU's control unit that holds the instruction currently being executed or decoded.
  • In simple processors, each instruction to be executed is loaded into an instruction register, which it holds while it is decoded, prepared and eventually executed, which may have several steps.
  • The Output Registers (OR) hold the output after processing the input data.
  • A memory buffer register is a register in a computer's processor, or central processing unit, CPU, that transfers data to and from an immediate access store.
87

The cloud computing process consists of how many phases?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct Answer Option 3: 3

Explanation:

  • Planning or Cloud Readiness Assessment: This phase involves determining whether a business or system is ready to move to the cloud. It involves evaluating the existing infrastructure, applications, and data to see how they might be migrated. This phase often includes a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate whether moving to the cloud is financially advantageous.
  • Migration or Implementation: This phase involves the actual process of moving data, applications, and other business elements to the cloud. It requires careful planning to minimize downtime and data loss. The process can range from rehosting (simply moving an application from on-site servers to cloud servers without modifications) to refactoring (rethinking and reworking the application to take advantage of cloud-native features).
  • Management and Optimization: After the migration, the systems now in the cloud need to be managed. This includes ensuring that they are running smoothly, scaling resources up and down as necessary, and continually optimizing to reduce costs and improve performance.

NOTE:

Please note that this is a simplified model and the exact steps can vary widely depending on the specifics of the situation. Some models may break down the process into more granular phases or might include additional steps like security implementation, compliance checks, etc.

88

Which unit has the following examples: 1001, 1010, and 0010?

  1. ((a))

    Nibble

  2. ((b))

    Byte

  3. ((c))

    Bits

  4. ((d))

    Words

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nibble

The correct answer is Nibble.

In digital systems, information is stored and processed using binary digits, or bits. A bit can have a value of either 0 or 1. When multiple bits are grouped together, they form larger units of information.

Explanation of the examples given: 1001, 1010, and 0010.

Each digit in these examples represents a bit. Starting from the leftmost digit:

1001:

  • The first digit is 1, representing a bit with a value of 1.
  • The second digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • The third digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • The fourth digit is 1, representing a bit with a value of 1.
  • Therefore, the sequence "1001" consists of four bits: 1, 0, 0, and 1.

1010:

  • The first digit is 1, representing a bit with a value of 1.
  • The second digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • The third digit is 1, representing a bit with a value of 1.
  • The fourth digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • Thus, the sequence "1010" also consists of four bits: 1, 0, 1, and 0.

0010:

  • The first digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • The second digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • The third digit is 1, representing a bit with a value of 1.
  • The fourth digit is 0, representing a bit with a value of 0.
  • The sequence "0010" consists of four bits: 0, 0, 1, and 0.

Now, when we consider the grouping of these bits, we can see that each example consists of four bits. This grouping of four bits is known as a nibble.

Therefore, the unit that these examples represent is 1) Nibble. Each example is a nibble, which is a grouping of four bits.

Key Points 

  • A bit is the smallest unit of storage.
  • A bit stores just a 0 or 1.
  • Computers are designed to store data and execute instructions in bit multiples called bytes.
  • One nibble is equal to 4 bits.

Additional Information 

  • One byte is equal to 8 bits.
  • One kilobit is equal to 1000 bits.
  • One kilobyte is equal to 8000 bits.
  • One kibibit is equal to 1024 bits.
  • One kibibyte is equal to 8192 bits.
  • One Megabit is equal to 1000000 bits.
  • One Megabyte is equal to 8000000 bits.
89

Which of the following statements is wrong about macro in M.S Excel?

  1. ((a))

    A macro is a way to automate a task.

  2. ((b))

    It is a series of commands/actions.

  3. ((c))

    A macro is a program that uses Visual Basic Applications (VBA) code.

  4. ((d))

    Macro is quite complex, involving large amounts of data manipulation and calculations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Macro is quite complex, involving large amounts of data manipulation and calculations.

The correct statement is: Macro is quite complex, involving large amounts of data manipulation and calculations.

Explanation: A macro in MS Excel can range from simple to complex. It is not inherently complex, as the statement suggests. In fact, the main idea behind using a macro is to automate repetitive tasks, which can be very simple like formatting cells, copying and pasting data, or more complex like performing calculations on large data sets.

Additional Information

  • A macro is a way to automate a task: This is correct. A macro can be used to automate a variety of tasks in Excel, such as formatting data, inserting formulas, or producing custom reports.
  • It is a series of commands/actions: This is also correct. A macro is essentially a sequence of commands or actions that the user can record (or write manually in VBA code) and then replay at a later time.
  • A macro is a program that uses Visual Basic Applications (VBA) code: Correct. While you can record a macro simply by performing actions in Excel, you can also manually write or modify macros using VBA, which is a programming language that's built into Excel and other Microsoft Office applications.
  • Macro is quite complex, involving large amounts of data manipulation and calculations: This statement is wrong. A macro can be as simple or as complex as needed. It can perform simple tasks such as changing the formatting of a selection of cells, or more complex tasks such as processing and analyzing large amounts of data. However, the complexity of the task is not a defining characteristic of what a macro is.
90

From the options given below, which is not the key feature of Internal Memory?

  1. ((a))

    Fast access

  2. ((b))

    Limited storage capacity

  3. ((c))

    No storage

  4. ((d))

    Temporary storage

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

No storage

The option that is not a key feature of internal memory is: No storage

Explanation: Internal memory, also known as main memory or primary storage, is a fundamental component of a computer system that provides fast, temporary storage and retrieval of data.

Additional Information 

  • Fast access: Internal memory allows the processor to access data and instructions rapidly. This is crucial for the performance of the system because the speed of the processor is typically much higher than that of external storage devices.
  • Limited storage capacity: While internal memory is faster, it's also much more expensive than external storage. As a result, it's generally limited in capacity. This is why we rely on external storage devices (like hard drives or SSDs) for storing large amounts of data over the long term.
  • No storage: This option is incorrect. Internal memory does provide storage -- in fact, that's one of its primary functions. It's used for storing data and instructions that are being actively used or processed by the CPU.
  • Temporary storage: The data in internal memory (like RAM) is temporary. When the power is turned off, any data in this memory is lost. This is why it's crucial to save important data to a more permanent form of storage, like a hard drive.
91

A is B's father, B is C's daughter, E is D's only sibling. C is D's only daughter. How is B related to E's niece?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Mother

  3. ((c))

    Grand-daughter

  4. ((d))

    Niece

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Daughter

We use the following symbols,

From the given information,

As we can see that E's niece is C and B is daughter of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Daughter".

92

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    FCIE

  2. ((b))

    TQWG

  3. ((c))

    JGMQ

  4. ((d))

    WTZD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

FCIE

Position values of the letters, according to the English alphabet series.

The pattern followed here is.

FCIE → 2 vowel and 2 consonants

TQWG → 4 consonants

JGMQ → 4 consonants

WTZD → 4 consonants

only "FCIE" having both vowel and consonants.

Hence, "FCIE" is odd one out.

93

In the question, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

HD : SW : : ? : TZ

  1. ((a))

    SV

  2. ((b))

    GA

  3. ((c))

    CF

  4. ((d))

    PE

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

GA

Position values of the letters, according to the English alphabet series.

The pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "GA".

94

A cyclist goes 30 km to North and then turning to East he goes 40 km. Again he turns to his right and goes 20 km. After this he turns to his right and goes 40 km. How far is from his starting point?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10

Drawing the diagram as per the given information:

F1 Prashant 5.3.21 Pallavi D12

So, he is 10 km from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "10".

95

Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed on the line AB?

Question Figure:

Answer Figures:

  1. ((a))

    (D)

  2. ((b))

    (C)

  3. ((c))

    (B)

  4. ((d))

    (A)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A)

The mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is "(A)".

96

Select the option figure which contains figure X embedded in it as its part. (Rotation is not allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option(2)".

97

T is the daughter of P. P is the father of L. L is the only son of A. B is the daughter-in-law of A. W is the son of B. How is P related to B?

  1. ((a))

    Father-in-law

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Brother-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father-in-law

We use the following symbols,

From the given information,

As we can see from the family tree P is Father-in-law of B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Father-in-law".

98

If chair is called cupboard, cupboard is called rock, rock is called bed, bed is called stone and stone is called cushion. Then in which we can put clothes?

  1. ((a))

    Cupboard

  2. ((b))

    Chair

  3. ((c))

    Stone

  4. ((d))

    Rock

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rock

Actual nameCalled
ChairCupboard
CupboardRock
RockBed
BedStone
StoneCushion

We put the cloths in Cupboard.

Here, cupboard is called Rock.

Hence, the correct answer is "Rock".

99

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The unfolded paper shown below,

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

100

If 4 + 5 = 41 and 10 + 12 = 244, then 6 + 8 = ?

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    88

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    96

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

100

The pattern followed is,

For 4 + 5 = 41,

4 × 5 = 20

20 × 2 = 40

5 – 4 = 1, 12 = 1

40 + 1 = 41

And,

For 10 +12 = 244

10 × 12 = 120

120 × 2 = 240

12 – 10 = 2, 22 = 4

240 + 4 = 244

Similarly,

6 + 8 = ?

6 × 8 = 48

48 × 2 = 96

8 – 6 = 2, 22 = 4

96 + 4 = 100

6 + 8 = 100

Hence, “100” is the correct answer.

101

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Pensive

  2. ((b))

    Virtuous

  3. ((c))

    Sly

  4. ((d))

    Truthful

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pensive

Virtuous, truthful and sly are all positive characteristics or qualities.

Whereas "Pensive" typically conveys a negative connotation. 

Hence, "Pensive" is odd one out.

102

Which of the following option will come in place of '?' ?

10616
9336
8?09
  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

The logic followed here is,

Row wise →

Difference of first and second number  = Third number\sqrt {Third\ number}

First row:

10 - 6 = 4 ⇒ 16 \sqrt{16} 

Second row,

9 - 3 = 6  ⇒ 36 \sqrt{36} 

Third row,

8 - ? = 9 \sqrt{9}

8 - ? = 3

? = 8 - 3 = 5

Hence, the missing term is "5".

103

Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest.

  1. ((a))

    3864

  2. ((b))

    2936

  3. ((c))

    6394

  4. ((d))

    4638

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6394

The pattern followed here is:

First digit × Second digit = Third digit × Fourth digit

  1. 3864 → 3 × 8 = 24 and  6 × 4 = 24

(2) 2936 → 2 × 9 = 18 and 3 × 6 = 18

(3) 6394 → 6 × 3 = 18 and 9 × 4 = 36

(4) 4638 → 4 × 6 = 24 and 3 × 8 = 24

Hence, 6394 is odd one out.

104

In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the letters in the second term are a rearranged/transformed form of the letters in the first term in a particular pattern. In which two pairs, has the transformation been done in the same way?

A. JOLLY : LJOZM

B. CHARM : BGBQL

C. HONOR : GOMPQ

D. FANCY : EBMBX

E. PRIDE : RIPED

  1. ((a))

    B and D

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    D and E

  4. ((d))

    A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B and D

The pattern follows here is:

(A) JOLLY : LJOZM

(B) CHARM : BGBQL

Consonants are coded as +1

Vowels are coded as - 1

(C) HONOR : GOMPQ

(D) FANCY : EBMBX

Consonants are coded as +1

Vowels are coded as - 1

(E) PRIDE : RIPED

As shown in the diagram, B and D follow the same pattern.

Hence, "B and D" is the correct answer.

105

In certain code language, "DID" is coded as "494", "DEAR" is coded as "4518" and "BENT" is coded as "2540" then what is the code for "FOR"?

  1. ((a))

    567

  2. ((b))

    557

  3. ((c))

    658

  4. ((d))

    668

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

658

We use the following symbols,

From the given information,

 "DID" is coded as "494"

"DEAR" is coded as "4518"

 "BENT" is coded as "2540" 

Similarly,

"FOR" is coded as

Hence, the correct answer is "658".

106

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

107

Select the related element from the given alternatives.

CALF : COW :: FOAL : ?

  1. ((a))

    Goat

  2. ((b))

    Hare

  3. ((c))

    Horse

  4. ((d))

    Lion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Horse

The logic follows here:

CALF : COW → The calf is the youngest one of the cows. 

Similarly,

FOAL : HORSE → The foal is the youngest one of the horses.

Hence, the correct answer is "Horse".

108

Which figure in the supplied question will finish the question figure's pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure in the supplied question will finish the question figure's pattern is as follow,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

109

Pointing to a girl, Mihir said "She is the only daughter of my grandfather's only child. How is the girl related to Mihir?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Niece

  3. ((c))

    Sister

  4. ((d))

    Grandmother

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sister

The family chart is as follows:

Drawing the family tree as per the given information:

60bda39baa802b1679e80322 16342832593671

Thus we can say the pointing girl is the sister of Mihir.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sister".

110

In the following question select the related number pairs from the given alternatives.

234 : 357 : : ? : ?

  1. ((a))

    825 : 936

  2. ((b))

    472 : 594

  3. ((c))

    623 : 734

  4. ((d))

    636 : 759

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

636 : 759

The pattern followed here is,

234 : 357

Similarly,

636 : 759

Hence, the correct answer is "636 : 759".

111

By selling an article for Rs. 672 a profit of 12% is made. To lose 12% at what price he should sell?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 506

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 528

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 484

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 616

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 528

Given:

By selling an article for Rs. 672 a profit of 12% is made. 

Calculation:

Cost price = 672 × 100100+12\dfrac{100}{100+12}

⇒ 672 × 100112\dfrac{100}{112} = Rs. 600

For 12%loss

Selling price = 600 × 10012100\dfrac{100-12}{100}

⇒ 600 × 88100\dfrac{88}{100} = Rs. 528

∴ The article is sold at a loss of 12%, the selling price will be Rs.528.

112

X bought a product and sold it to Y for Rs. 2100. Y marked the price of the product 50% above the cost price and sold it at a discount of 12%. If the profit earned by X and Y was equal, for how much did X bought the product?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1378

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1428

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1538

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1648

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1428

Given:

X bought a product and sold it to Y for Rs. 2100. Y marked the price of the product 50% above the cost price and sold it at a discount of 12%.

Calculation:

According to the question,

The cost price of Y = Rs. 2100

Y marked the price of the product 50% above,

So, MRP = 2100 × 150100\dfrac{150}{100} = Rs. 3150

Product sold at 12% discount = 3150 × 88100\dfrac{88}{100} = Rs. 2772

Profit of Y = 2772 - 2100 = Rs. 672

Now, The profit earned by X and Y was equal.

Profit of X = Profit of Y = Rs. 672

The cost price of X = 2100 - 672 = Rs. 1428

∴ X bought the product for Rs.1428.

113

Three trucks carrying an average of 30 crates of apples per truck were sent to a market, with each crate containing an average of 40 apples. If all the apples were sold for Rs. 52000 at a price of Rs. 65 per kg, how many apples will have a weight of 4 kg?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

18

Calculation:

According to the question,

Three trucks carrying an average of 30 crates of apples per truck were sent to a market,

So, Total crates in three trucks = 3 × 30 = 90

Now, Each crate containing an average of 40 apples, 

Total number of apples = 40 × 90 = 3600

If all the apples were sold for Rs. 52000 at a price of Rs. 65 per kg

Then, The total weight of apples = 5200065\dfrac{52000}{65} = 800 kg

Number of apples in 4 kg = 3600800\dfrac{3600}{800} × 4 = 18

∴ 18 apples will have a weight of 4 kg.

114

'Heart' is related to 'cardiologist' in the same way as 'birds' is related to:

  1. ((a))

    Ornithologist

  2. ((b))

    Orthologist

  3. ((c))

    Veterinary

  4. ((d))

    Aviation specialist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ornithologist

The logic follows here:

'Heart' is related to 'cardiologist'

A person who studies or is an expert on heart diseases.

Similarly,

'birds' is related to 'Ornithologist'

A person who studies or is an expert on birds.

Hence, the correct answer is "Ornithologist".

115

Find the missing term.

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    U

  4. ((d))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "H".

116

In 1945, there were a certain number of freedom fighters in India. In 1946, the number of new freedom fighters who joined the movement was 30% of this while 10% of the existing freedom fighters quit the movement. In 1947, the number of new freedom fighters joining the movement was 20% of the number of freedom fighters at the end of 1946 and 30% of the existing freedom fighters at the end of 1946 quit the movement. What is the percentage increase in the total number of freedom fighters from 1945 to 1947?

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    4%

  3. ((c))

    12%

  4. ((d))

    8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8%

Given:

In 1946 new freedom fighters who joined = 30% 

In 1946  freedom fighters who quit joined = 10% 

In 1947 new freedom fighters who joined = 20% 

End of 1946 30% of the existing freedom fighters at the end of 1946 quit the movement

Calculation:

Assume the number of freedom fighters in 1945 is x.

In 1946, 30% of x joined the movement, while 10% of x quit the movement. So, the number of freedom fighters at the end of 1946 is:

⇒ x + 0.3x - 0.1x = 1.2x

In 1947, 20% of the freedom fighters at the end of 1946 joined, and 30% of the freedom fighters at the end of 1946 quit. So, the number of freedom fighters at the end of 1947 is:

⇒ 1.2x + 0.21.2x - 0.31.2x = 1.2x + 0.24x - 0.36x = 1.08x

The percentage increase in the total number of freedom fighters from 1945 to 1947 is then given by:

⇒  1.08xxx×100\dfrac{1.08x - x }{x } × 100 

⇒ 0.08  ×  100 = 8%

There is an 8% increase in the total number of freedom fighters from 1945 to 1947.

117

The Pie chart shows the result of a survey among 123060 people concerning the use of tobacco. Study the Pie-chart and answer the question

Percentage of people under survey, who do not have any smoking habit is:

  1. ((a))

    5.2%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    7.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5%

Calculation:

Required % = 18360\dfrac{18}{360} × 100 = 5%

∴ 5% people do not have the habit of smoking.

118

Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression 'M < N' definitely true?

K ≥ I > N ≥ G ? D ≥ M

  1. ((a))

    <

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

    ≤ 

  4. ((d))

    >

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

>

To make the expression 'M < N' definitely true, we need to choose the appropriate symbol to replace the question mark (?) in the given expression:

K ≥ I > N ≥ G ? D ≥ M

In order for 'M < N' to be true, the symbol that should replace the question mark should indicate a relationship where M is less than N. Among the options provided:

< (less than)

≥ (greater than or equal to)

≤ (less than or equal to)

(greater than)

We can eliminate options 2) (≥) and 3) (≤) because they do not represent a relationship where M is less than N.

Therefore, the correct answer is >.

119

The compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 25,500 at the end of three years is Rs. 8,440.50. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 7650

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 4650

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5650

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 6650

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 7650

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Amount to Principal for 3 years = (25500 + 8440.50) ÷ 25500 = 33940.5 ÷ 25500 = 1331 / 1000.

Equivalent ratio for 1 year = 3√(1331 / 1000) = 11 / 10.

Interest rate (R) = (11 − 10) ÷ 10 × 100% = 10%.

Simple Interest for 3 years = 30% of Principal = 30% of 25500 = 7650.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 7650.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 25,500

Time (T) = 3 years

Compound Interest (CI) = Rs. 8,440.50

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + R / 100)T

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Amount (A) = P + CI

⇒ A = 25500 + 8440.50 = 33940.50

⇒ 33940.50 = 25500 × (1 + R / 100)3

⇒ (1 + R / 100)3 = 33940.50 ÷ 25500

⇒ (1 + R / 100)3 = 339405 / 255000

⇒ (1 + R / 100)3 = 1331 / 1000 (dividing by 255)

⇒ (1 + R / 100)3 = (11 / 10)3

⇒ 1 + R / 100 = 11 / 10

⇒ R / 100 = 1 / 10

⇒ R = 10%

⇒ SI = (25500 × 10 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 255 × 30 = 7650

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 7650.

Additional Information

Effective Compound Interest Rate

For a 10% per annum rate, the effective CI for 2 years is 21%, and for 3 years, it is 33.1%.

Difference Between CI and SI (2 Years)

Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)2. It determines the extra interest earned through compounding over exactly two years.

Difference Between CI and SI (3 Years)

Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)2 × (3 + R ÷ 100). Essential formula for efficiently finding the three-year CI and SI differences without complete calculations.

120

If tan2x + cot2x = 23, then find secx.cosecx = ?

  1. ((a))

    -1

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5

Given:

tan2x + cot2x = 23

Calculation:

tan2x + cot2x = 23

⇒ cosec2x - 1 + sec2x - 1 = 23

⇒ cosec2x + sec2x = 25

⇒ sin2x+cos2xsin2x.cos2x\dfrac{\text{sin}^2x+\text{cos}^2x}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} = 25

⇒ 1sin2x.cos2x\dfrac{1}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} = 25

⇒ cosec2x.sec2x = 25

⇒ cosecx.secx = √25 = 5

∴ cosecx.secx = 5

Alternate Method

tan2x + cot2x = 23

⇒ sin2xcos2x\dfrac{\text{sin}^2x}{\text{cos}^2x} + cos2xsin2x\dfrac{\text{cos}^2x}{\text{sin}^2x} = 23

⇒ sin4x+cos4xsin2x.cos2x\dfrac{\text{sin}^4x + \text{cos}^4x}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} = 23

⇒ (sin2x+cos2x)22sin2x.cos2xsin2x.cos2x\dfrac{(\text{sin}^2x + \text{cos}^2x)^2-2\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} = 23

⇒ 12sin2x.cos2xsin2x.cos2x\dfrac{1-2\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} = 23

⇒ 1sin2x.cos2x\dfrac{1}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} - 2sin2x.cos2xsin2x.cos2x\dfrac{2\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x}{\text{sin}^2x.\text{cos}^2x} = 23

⇒ cosec2x.sec2x - 2 = 23

⇒ cosec2x.sec2x = 23 + 2 = 25

⇒ cosecx.secx = √25 = 5

∴ cosecx.secx = 5

121

Find the missing term.

  1. ((a))

    59

  2. ((b))

    57

  3. ((c))

    51

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

51

The pattern followed here is,

The number in place of ? is 51.

Hence, the correct answer is "51".

122

Eight persons - Heer, Rani, Nora, Anup, Doha, Mrig, Gaur and Shera are sitting around a square table such that four persons sits on the fours corner the table facing towards the center and the rest of the four persons sits on the middle of the sides facing away from the centre. Gaur neither sits at corner nor opposite to Shera. Nora sits third to the left of Rani. Only two persons sit between Mrig and Shera, who sits immediate left of Nora. Anup sits second to the left of Heer, who sits third left of Gaur.

Who among the following sits in front of Anup?

  1. ((a))

    Gaur

  2. ((b))

    Nora

  3. ((c))

    Shera

  4. ((d))

    Rani

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shera

Given:

Eight persons - Heer, Rani, Nora, Anup, Doha, Mrig, Gaur and Shera are sitting around a square table such that four persons sits on the fours corner the table facing towards the center and the rest of the four persons sits on the middle of the sides facing away from the centre.

  1. Gaur neither sits at corner nor opposite to Shera.

  2. Anup sits second to the left of Heer, who sits third left of Gaur.

  1. Nora sits third to the left of Rani.

  2. Only two persons sit between Mrig and Shera, who sits immediately left of Nora.

Only Doha is left so, the final sitting arrangement is:

Hence, "Shera" sits in front of Anup.

123

Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_ a a _ b a _ b b _ a b _ a a b

  1. ((a))

    bbbaa

  2. ((b))

    aaabb

  3. ((c))

    babab

  4. ((d))

    bbaab

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

bbaab

We have check all the options,

(1): b a a b / b a b b / b a a b / a a a b

(2): a a a a / b a a b / b b a b / b a a b

(3): b a a a / b a b b / b a a b / b a a b

(4): b a a b / b a a b / b a a b / b a a b 

Hence, the correct answer is "bbaab".

124

A tower has a height of 50 m. It has an angle of elevation from two points on the ground level on its opposite sides are 30 degree and 60 degree respectively. Calculate the distance between two points.

  1. ((a))

    110.97 m

  2. ((b))

    107.56 m

  3. ((c))

    115.47 m

  4. ((d))

    120.93 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

115.47 m

Shortcut Trick

When two points are on the opposite sides of a tower of height h, the distance between them is given by d = h × (cot θ1 + cot θ2).

Distance = 50 × (cot 30° + cot 60°)

Distance = 50 × (√3 + 1/√3) = 50 × (4/√3) = 200/√3

Distance ≈ 200 ÷ 1.732 ≈ 115.47 m.

∴ The correct answer is 115.47 m.

Alternate Method

Given: Height of the tower (h) = 50 m, Angle of elevation 1 (θ1) = 30°, Angle of elevation 2 (θ2) = 60°.

Formula Used: tan θ = Perpendicular / Base

In right ▵ADC:

⇒ tan 30° = CD / AD

⇒ 1/√3 = 50 / AD

⇒ AD = 50√3 m

In right ▵BDC:

⇒ tan 60° = CD / BD

⇒ √3 = 50 / BD

⇒ BD = 50/√3 m

Total Distance AB:

⇒ AB = AD + BD = 50√3 + 50/√3

⇒ AB = (50 × 3 + 50) / √3 = 200 / √3

⇒ AB = 200 / 1.73205 ≈ 115.47 m

∴ The correct answer is 115.47 m.

Additional Information

Points on the same side

If both points are on the same side of the tower, the distance between them is d = h × |cot θ1 − cot θ2|.

Angle of Depression

The angle of depression from the top of the tower to a point on the ground is numerically equal to the angle of elevation from that point to the top.

Trigonometric Ratios

Standard values: tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3. Note that √3 ≈ 1.732.

Complementary Angles

If the angles of elevation from two points at distances 'a' and 'b' from the base are complementary, then height h = √(a × b).

125

In question, a few statements have been given followed by some conclusions. Consider the statements to be true and answer which of the given conclusions are correct with respect to the statements.

Statements:

Some milk are curd.

Some curd are butter-milk.

All butter-milk are butter.

No butter is a ghee.

Conclusions:

I. No butter-milk is ghee.

II. Some butter are curd.

III. Some curd are not ghee.

  1. ((a))

    only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    all conclusions I, II and III follow

  3. ((c))

    either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    only conclusion II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

all conclusions I, II and III follow

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement will be:

Conclusions:

I. No butter-milk is ghee → True (All butter-milk is butter and no butter is ghee so no butter-milk is ghee)

II. Some butter are curd → True (All butter-milk is butter and some butter-milk is curd so some butter is also curd)

III. Some curd are not ghee → True (some cord is butter and no butter is ghee so some curd is not ghee)

Hence, the correct answer is "all conclusions I, II and III follow".

Additional Information 

fs

126

The interest charged on a certain sum is Rs. 720 for one year and Rs. 1497.60 for two years. Calculate the sum.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 10800

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 8100

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 9000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 7200

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 9000

Given:

The interest charged on a certain sum is Rs. 720 for one year and Rs. 1497.60 for two years.

Calculation:

Interest for 1 year=Rs.720

Interest for 2 years=Rs.1497.60

∴ Interest for 2nd year=1497.60−720=Rs.777.60

As the interest is not the same for two years, it is compound interest not simple interest.

Difference between C.I of two successive years = 777.60 - 720 = Rs. 57.60

Rate of interest = 57.60×100720×1\dfrac{57.60 ×100}{720 × 1} = 8%

Let the sum be Rs.100

Interest on it for 1st year = 8% of 100

⇒ 8100\dfrac{8}{100} × 100 = Rs. 8

If the interest for one year is Rs 8 then sum=Rs.100

If the interest for one year is 720 then sum = 1008\dfrac{100}{8} × 720 = Rs. 9000

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

127

Study the following table carefully to answer these question.

The table gives the number of students in different school and the percentage of students in it who like Volleyball and Basketball

SchoolNumber of studentsVolleyballBasketball
A12030%40%
B14030%25%
C16025%28%
D18025%25%
E24027%40%

By what percentage is the number of students who like Volleyball in School D is more than those who like Basketball in School B?

  1. ((a))

    12.50%

  2. ((b))

    66.66%

  3. ((c))

    28.57%

  4. ((d))

    33.33%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

28.57%

Calculation:

The number of students who like Volleyball in school D = 180 × 25100\dfrac{25}{100}

⇒ 45

The number of students who like Basketball in school B = 140 × 25100\dfrac{25}{100}

⇒ 35

According to the question,

Required % = 453535\dfrac{45-35}{35} × 100 

⇒ 28.57%

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

128

In the year 2003 the combined annual salary of my uncle and aunt was Rs. 1,50,000. The next year they got respective increment of 1/9th and 1/6th of their salaries in 2003. If my aunt's new annual salary was 70% of my uncle's new salary, then what was my aunt's new annual salary?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 70,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 80,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 50,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 60,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 70,000

Given:

Combined salary in 2003 = Rs. 150,000

Increment for uncle = 1/9

Increment for aunt = 1/6

Aunt's new salary = 70% of uncle's new salary

Formula used:

New salary = Old salary × (1 + Increment)

Calculation:

Let uncle's salary = U, and Aunt's = A

⇒ U + A = 150,000

Uncle's new salary = U × (10/9)

Aunt's new salary = A × (7/6)

Anew = 0.70 × Unew

⇒ A × (7/6) = 0.70 × U × (10/9)

⇒ A/U = (0.70 × 10/9)/(7/6) = 2/3

⇒ A = (2/3)U

Now, U + A = 150,000

⇒ U + (2/3)U = 150,000

⇒ (5/3)U = 150,000

⇒ U = (150,000 × 3)/5 = 90,000

A = (2/3)U = (2/3) × 90,000 = 60,000

Anew = A × (7/6) = 60,000 × (7/6) = 70,000

∴ Aunt's new salary = Rs. 70,000

129

Study the following graph carefully to answer the question:-

Number of male and female participating in a function from different cities A, B, C, and D

The number of female participating in the Function from city B is approximately what percent of the total number of people participating in the Function from that city?

  1. ((a))

    49%

  2. ((b))

    47%

  3. ((c))

    45%

  4. ((d))

    43%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49%

Given:

CityABCD
Male450550475500
Female475525550430
Total92510751025930

 

Calculation:

Total number of people attending the function from city B = 1075

Required % = 5251075\dfrac{525}{1075} × 100

⇒ 48.8% ≈ 49%

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

130

Using the letters of the word AGGLUTINATIVE, which among the following words can be made?

  1. ((a))

    NUGGET 

  2. ((b))

    GLUTTON

  3. ((c))

    GIANT

  4. ((d))

    Both a and c

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both a and c

Given word is AGGLUTINATIVE.

We have check all the options,

(1): NUGGET → Can be formed.

(2): GLUTTON → Can not be formed because "O" is not present in given word.

(3): GIANT → Can be formed.

Hence, Both a and c can be formed from the given word.

131

Who said, "Economics is the science of wealth"?

  1. ((a))

    Adam Smith

  2. ((b))

    Keynes

  3. ((c))

    Lionel Robin

  4. ((d))

    Alfred Marshall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adam Smith

The correct answer is Adam Smith.

Key Points

**Wealth definition of Economics by Adam Smith,*"*Economics is a science which enquires into the nature and causes of wealth of a nation."

  • Adam Smith, a Scottish economist and philosopher, is widely regarded as the father of modern economics.
  • In his influential work "The Wealth of Nations," published in 1776, Smith discussed the principles of economics and emphasized the role of self-interest and free markets in promoting economic growth and prosperity.
  • He referred to economics as the "science of wealth" to highlight its focus on the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services in a society.
  • Smith's ideas laid the foundation for classical economics and significantly shaped the field of economics as we know it today.

Additional Information

Keynes:

  • John Maynard Keynes was a renowned British economist who is best known for his ideas on macroeconomics and the role of government in managing economic downturns.
  • Keynesian economics, which emerged in the 1930s during the Great Depression, emphasized the importance of government intervention to stimulate aggregate demand and stabilize the economy.

Lionel Robbins:

  • Lionel Robbins was a prominent British economist and one of the leading figures of the Austrian School of economics.
  • He is known for his contributions to economic theory, particularly in the areas of scarcity, opportunity cost, and the allocation of resources.
  • Robbins' definition of economics focused on the study of human behaviour in relation to unlimited wants and scarce resources.

Alfred Marshall:

  • Alfred Marshall was a renowned British economist who made significant contributions to the field of economics, particularly in the area of microeconomics.
  • He is best known for his book "Principles of Economics," published in 1890, which established him as a leading figure in the neoclassical economics tradition.
  • Marshall's work emphasized the role of supply and demand in determining prices and market equilibrium.
132

Which of the following is not a function of marketing management?

  1. ((a))

    Assessing marketing opportunities

  2. ((b))

    Production of goods

  3. ((c))

    Providing effective marketing organisation

  4. ((d))

    Planning marketing activities

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Production of goods

Production of goods is not a function of marketing management. 

Key Points

Marketing Management: 

  • Marketing management refers to the process of planning, organizing, implementing, and controlling marketing activities to create and deliver value to customers and achieve the goals of an organization.
  • It involves identifying customer needs and wants, developing marketing strategies to satisfy those needs and wants, and managing the marketing mix, which includes product, price, promotion, and place (distribution).
  • Marketing management also involves conducting market research, analyzing market trends, and tracking marketing performance to ensure that marketing objectives are met.
  • Effective marketing management is critical to the success of any business, as it helps to attract and retain customers, increase sales and profitability, and build brand loyalty.

Important Points

Functions of Marketing Management:

  • Assessing marketing opportunities: Marketing management is responsible for identifying and assessing potential market opportunities, understanding consumer needs and preferences, and conducting market research to gather insights for developing effective marketing strategies.
  • Providing effective marketing organization: Marketing management plays a crucial role in establishing and managing an effective marketing organization. This involves designing the marketing structure, allocating resources, managing marketing teams, and ensuring coordination and collaboration within the marketing department.
  • Planning marketing activities: Marketing management is responsible for developing marketing plans and strategies to achieve the organization's marketing objectives. This includes identifying target markets, setting marketing goals, determining the marketing mix (product, price, promotion, and distribution), and creating action plans to implement and monitor marketing activities.

Additional Information Production of goods:

  • The production of goods is not a function of marketing management.
  • It falls under the domain of operations management or production management, which focuses on manufacturing and delivering products.
133

The need for efficiency must be balanced with:

  1. ((a))

    None of the given options

  2. ((b))

    Talents and skills of the people

  3. ((c))

    Facilities and obtainability

  4. ((d))

    Abilities and availability of the people

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Abilities and availability of the people

The correct answer is Abilities and availability of the people. 

Key Points

  • Efficiency in the workplace is undoubtedly important, but it must be balanced with the abilities and availability of the people involved.
  • While efficiency aims to maximize productivity and streamline processes, it should not disregard the limitations and capacities of individuals.
  • When considering efficiency, it is crucial to take into account the abilities and skills of the people involved in the work.
  • Each person has unique talents, strengths, and areas of expertise.
  • By leveraging and aligning these talents with the tasks at hand, organizations can optimize efficiency without overwhelming or underutilizing individuals.
  • Furthermore, availability plays a significant role in achieving efficiency. People have different capacities and schedules, and their availability may vary based on factors such as workload, personal commitments, and health.
  • It is essential to consider realistic timelines and workloads that align with individuals' availability to maintain a balanced approach to efficiency.
134

When did Government of India announced Demonetisation

  1. ((a))

    March 8, 2016

  2. ((b))

    December 8, 2016

  3. ((c))

    November 8, 2016

  4. ((d))

    April, 2016

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

November 8, 2016

The correct answer is November 8, 2016. 

Key PointsMeaning of Demonetization: 

  • Demonetization is the act of invalidating or withdrawing the legal tender status of a particular currency.
  • It involves the discontinuation of certain denominations of banknotes, rendering them no longer accepted as a medium of exchange.
  • Demonetization is usually implemented by a government or central bank as a measure to address issues such as black money, counterfeit currency, corruption, and the funding of illegal activities.
  • The process typically involves announcing a specific deadline for the affected currency to be exchanged or deposited in banks, after which it loses its value.
  • Demonetization can have significant effects on the economy and society, including disruptions in cash-based transactions, a shift towards digital payments, and efforts to identify unaccounted wealth.

Important Points

  • On November 8, 2016, the Government of India made a significant announcement of demonetization.
  • This move involved the sudden invalidation of ₹500 and ₹1,000 banknotes as legal tender, with the aim of addressing issues like black money, corruption, counterfeit currency, and illegal activities.
  • The decision sparked widespread reactions and had a profound impact on the economy and society.
  • Additionally, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched to encourage financial inclusion and provide avenues for individuals to deposit their old currency within a specified time frame.
135

What is the calculation for the liquidation value of per share?

  1. ((a))

    (Amount realised on liquidation of shares + Amount paid to all creditors and preference shares) × number of shares

  2. ((b))

    Amount realised on liquidation of shares ) / ( Amount paid to all creditors and preference shares × number of shares)

  3. ((c))

    (Amount realised on liquidation of shares - Amount paid to all creditors and preference shares) / number of shares

  4. ((d))

    (Amount realised on liquidation of shares + Amount paid to all creditors and preference shares) / number of shares

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(Amount realised on liquidation of shares - Amount paid to all creditors and preference shares) / number of shares

The correct answer is - (Amount realised on liquidation of shares - Amount paid to all creditors and preference shares) / number of shares

Key Points

  • Liquidation value per share
  • Represents the value of a single share when the company is liquidated.
  • Calculated by subtracting the total liabilities (creditors and preference shares) from the total assets realised during liquidation.
  • The result is divided by the number of outstanding equity shares.
  • Formula Explanation
  • Assets realised refers to the total cash or value obtained from selling off the company's assets during liquidation.
  • Total liabilities include payments made to creditors and preference shareholders who have priority during liquidation.
  • After liabilities are settled, the remaining value is distributed among the equity shareholders. Dividing this amount by the total number of shares gives the liquidation value per share.

Additional Information

  • Creditors and preference shareholders
  • During liquidation, creditors are paid first, followed by preference shareholders.
  • Equity shareholders receive the residual amount after all liabilities have been settled.
  • Impact on equity shareholders
  • If liabilities exceed assets realised, equity shareholders may receive no payout.
  • Liquidation value per share helps shareholders assess the value of their investment in case of company closure.
  • Application of liquidation value
  • Used for financial analysis to determine the worth of shares during insolvency or bankruptcy.
  • Helps investors evaluate risks associated with companies in financial distress.
136

Which of the following option does not have a correct combination of the term and its description as per marketing management?

  1. ((a))

    Face value - The stated value of an asset.

  2. ((b))

    Coupon Rate - The stated rate of interest on a bond.

  3. ((c))

    PE Ratio - Ratio of profit and earning

  4. ((d))

    Intrinsic value - Present value of an asset

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

PE Ratio - Ratio of profit and earning

The incorrect combination is PE Ratio - Ratio of profit and earning

Important Points

A. Face value - The stated value of an asset.

  • This option is correct because the face value refers to the nominal or stated value of an asset.
  • The face value is the value assigned to the asset at the time of purchase. It represents the initial denomination or value of the asset, but it does not necessarily reflect the current market or intrinsic value.

B. Coupon Rate - The stated rate of interest on a bond.

  • This option is correct.
  • The coupon rate represents the fixed rate of interest paid on a bond.
  • It is stated as a percentage of the bond's face value and determines the regular interest payments that bondholders will receive.

C. PE Ratio - Ratio of profit and earning.

  • This option is incorrect.
  • The correct definition of the PE ratio (Price-Earnings ratio) is the ratio of a company's stock price to its earnings per share (EPS).
  • It is used to assess the valuation of a company's stock relative to its earnings.
  • The PE ratio is calculated by dividing the market price per share by the EPS. The given description incorrectly combines "profit" and "earning" instead of "earnings per share."

D. Intrinsic value - Present value of an asset.

  • This option is correct.
  • The intrinsic value refers to the perceived or estimated underlying value of an asset, such as a stock or business, taking into account its fundamental characteristics, cash flows, growth prospects, and risk factors.
  • It is often calculated using various valuation models and methods to determine whether an asset is overvalued or undervalued in the market.
137

Procurement of funds & Utilisation of funds are the aspect of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Financial Management

  2. ((b))

    Human resource management

  3. ((c))

    Production and operation management

  4. ((d))

    Research & Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Financial Management

The correct answer is 1) Financial Management.

Key Points

Procurement of Funds:

  • The procurement of funds and utilization of funds are integral aspects of financial management.
  • Financial management involves the planning, organizing, directing, and controlling of financial activities within an organization.
  • It encompasses various functions such as financial planning, budgeting, investment decisions, and capital structure management.
  • Procurement of funds refers to the process of acquiring financial resources for the organization.
  • This includes activities such as raising capital through equity or debt financing, securing loans from financial institutions, issuing bonds, or attracting investments from shareholders or other sources.

Utilisation of Funds:

  • Utilization of funds, on the other hand, involves managing and allocating the acquired funds effectively and efficiently within the organization.
  • This includes making strategic decisions on investments, budgeting for operational expenses, funding capital projects, and optimizing the use of financial resources to achieve organizational objectives.

Hence, Financial management ensures that funds are acquired at the lowest cost possible and are utilized in the most productive manner to generate returns and maximize shareholder value.

Additional Information

Human resource management:

  • Human resource management (HRM) involves managing the organization's workforce to effectively utilize human resources and achieve organizational goals.
  • HRM encompasses various functions such as recruitment, selection, training and development, performance management, compensation, and employee relations.
  • It focuses on activities related to attracting, retaining, and developing the right talent for the organization.

Production and operation management:

  • Production and operation management is concerned with overseeing the production process and managing the operations within an organization.
  • It involves planning, organizing, and controlling the activities related to production, manufacturing, and service delivery.
  • This includes tasks such as capacity planning, inventory management, quality control, process optimization, and supply chain management.
  • The goal is to ensure efficient and effective production processes that meet customer demands and maximize productivity.

Research & Development:

  • Research and development (R&D) refers to activities undertaken to create new knowledge, products, or processes that drive innovation and growth within an organization.
  • R&D involves conducting research, experimentation, and analysis to develop new technologies, products, or improve existing ones.
  • It plays a crucial role in industries such as technology, pharmaceuticals, and engineering, where innovation is key to staying competitive and meeting customer needs.
138

What are the basic drives that create the urge to take up a certain type of career?

  1. ((a))

    Manager

  2. ((b))

    None of the given options

  3. ((c))

    Career goals

  4. ((d))

    Career anchor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Career anchor

The correct answer is Career anchor.

Key Points

  • Career anchors refer to the fundamental drives or motivations that influence an individual's career choices and preferences.
  • They represent the core values, skills, and interests that guide an individual's career decisions and provide a sense of fulfilment and satisfaction in their chosen field.
  • Career anchors are often developed over time through a combination of personal experiences, values, and abilities.
  • They help individuals identify the types of careers or work environments that align with their strengths and provide a sense of purpose.

Therefore, Career anchor best represents the basic drives that influence career choices and preferences.

139

Which of the following is an example of complementary goods.

  1. ((a))

    Different brands of toothpaste

  2. ((b))

    computers and computer software

  3. ((c))

    tea and coffee

  4. ((d))

    ink pen and ball pen

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

computers and computer software

The correct answer is computers and computer software.

Key Points

Complementary Goods:

  • Complementary goods are products that are typically used together or enhance the use of each other.
  • When the price or demand for one product increases, the demand for the complementary product also tends to increase.
  • In the case of computers and computer software, they are considered complementary goods.
  • Computers provide the hardware infrastructure, and computer software provides the necessary programs and applications that enable users to perform specific tasks or operations on the computer.
  • Without software, the computer hardware alone would not be as useful or functional.

Therefore, the demand for computer software is directly influenced by the demand for computers, and vice versa, making them complementary goods.

Additional Information

  • Different brands of toothpaste represent substitute goods, as they serve the same purpose (oral hygiene) and can be easily replaced with one another.
  • Tea and coffee can also be considered substitute goods, as they both serve as beverages and can be interchangeable depending on personal preference.
  • Ink pen and ball pen can be considered substitute goods as well, as they both serve the purpose of writing instruments and can be used interchangeably.
140

From the following Identify statement which is not concerned with financial management.

  1. ((a))

    Where to invest money

  2. ((b))

    Quality of human resource required

  3. ((c))

    Where to get the money from

  4. ((d))

    How much to distribute amongst shareholders to keep them satisfied

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Quality of human resource required

Quality of human resource required is not concerned with financial management. 

Key Points

Financial Management: Financial management is concerned with the efficient management of financial resources in an organization to achieve its goals and objectives.

Important Points

Investing Decision:

  • "Where to invest money" is a key question in financial management, as it relates to the allocation of financial resources to various investment opportunities.
  • The decision on where to invest money can have a significant impact on the financial performance of an organization.

Financing Decision:

  • "Where to get the money from" is a crucial aspect of financial management, as it is concerned with the sources of financing for an organization's operations and investments.
  • This can include internal sources such as retained earnings or external sources such as debt or equity financing.

Dividend Decision:

  • "How much to distribute amongst shareholders to keep them satisfied" is related to financial management, as it concerns the distribution of profits to shareholders in the form of dividends.
  • This decision needs to be carefully considered, as it can impact the financial health of the organization and its ability to invest in future growth opportunities.

Additional Information

  • "Quality of human resource required" is not related to financial management.
  • It is more related to the human resource management function, which is concerned with managing an organization's employees and ensuring that they are well-suited to their roles.
141

In which year, The trade Union Act was passed

  1. ((a))

    1926

  2. ((b))

    1955

  3. ((c))

    1956

  4. ((d))

    1948

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1926

The correct answer is 1926.

Key Points

Trade Union Act 1926:

  • The Trade Union Act was passed in the year 1926 in India.
  • The main objective of the Act was to provide legal recognition and protection to registered trade unions and their activities.
  • The Act defined a trade union as "any combination, whether temporary or permanent, formed primarily for the purpose of regulating the relations between workmen and employers or between workmen and workmen, or between employers and employers, or for imposing restrictive conditions on the conduct of any trade or business, and includes any federation of two or more trade unions".
  • The Act also laid down certain provisions related to the registration, rights, and liabilities of trade unions.
142

______ insist the job to be designed to meet the expectations of workers.

  1. ((a))

    employee and their abilities

  2. ((b))

    social and cultural expectations.

  3. ((c))

    Work practices

  4. ((d))

    Work flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

social and cultural expectations.

Correct answer is ​social and cultural expectations.

Key PointsJob Design: Job design involves organizing tasks, responsibilities, and duties into a particular job to achieve organizational goals while meeting employee needs and expectations.

Socio-cultural factors: 

  • Socio-cultural factors refer to the values, beliefs, customs, and expectations of individuals within a society or culture.
  • These factors can influence job design in various ways.
  • For instance, certain cultures may emphasize the importance of social status, which can affect the design of job titles, levels of authority, and pay scales.
  • Similarly, some societies may place greater emphasis on personal relationships and teamwork, which can influence the design of jobs that require high levels of collaboration.

Important Points

  • In this context, it can be said that social and cultural expectations are an important consideration in job design.
  • By designing jobs that align with employee expectations, organizations can improve job satisfaction, motivation, and performance.
  • This can be achieved by incorporating socio-cultural factors into job design considerations such as task variety, autonomy, skill variety, task significance, and feedback.
143

______ recruitment is very cheap.

  1. ((a))

    All of the given options

  2. ((b))

    Media advertisement

  3. ((c))

    Unsolicited applications

  4. ((d))

    Direct recruitment

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Direct recruitment

The correct answer is Direct Recruitment.

Key Points

Direct recruitment:

  • Direct recruitment is considered to be very cheap as it involves hiring candidates directly without any intermediaries or external sources.
  • It eliminates the need for expensive media advertisements, recruitment agencies, and other sources of recruitment that may incur significant costs.
  • Direct recruitment involves reaching out to potential candidates through referrals, internal promotions, job postings on company websites, and social media platforms.
  • It can be a cost-effective and efficient method of recruitment, especially for small businesses and startups with limited budgets.

Additional Information

  • Media advertisement: This type of recruitment involves advertising job vacancies through various forms of media such as newspapers, job portals, social media, etc. This method can be effective in reaching a large number of potential candidates, but it can also be expensive.
  • Unsolicited applications: This type of recruitment involves accepting applications from individuals who are not actively seeking a job but have expressed interest in working for the organization. This method can be cost-effective as there are no advertising costs, but it can also be time-consuming to sift through a large number of applications.
144

In the business world, senior roles are filled by:

  1. ((a))

    Management consultant

  2. ((b))

    Casual caller

  3. ((c))

    Media advertisement

  4. ((d))

    employment agencies

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Management consultant

The correct answer is Management consultant.

Key Points

Management consultants:

  • Management consultancy firms play a crucial role in helping organizations recruit technical, professional, and managerial personnel.
  • They specialize in filling middle and top-level executive positions by maintaining a comprehensive database of qualified individuals with various skills and qualifications.
  • These firms also assist clients by advertising job openings and sourcing the most suitable candidates for their specific needs.
  • Through their services, management consultancy firms aid in the recruitment of the right personnel for the right job.

Mistake Points The official Question paper provides the answer as option 3. But the correct option should be option 1. Hence, we have updated the answer.

145

A plant shaped and designed specifically for attaining the marketing objectives of a firm is known as?

  1. ((a))

    Human resource management strategy

  2. ((b))

    Labour strategy

  3. ((c))

    Marketing strategy

  4. ((d))

    Financial strategy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Marketing strategy

The correct answer is Marketing strategy.

Key Points 

  • A plant shaped and designed specifically for attaining the marketing objectives of a firm is known as a marketing strategy.
  • A marketing strategy is a comprehensive plan or approach developed by a firm to achieve its marketing goals and objectives.
  • It outlines the specific actions and tactics that will be employed to promote and sell products or services, target specific customer segments, and position the brand in the market.
  • A marketing strategy encompasses various elements such as product development, pricing, distribution channels, and promotional activities.
  • It takes into consideration market research, competitor analysis, customer insights, and the firm's overall business objectives.
  • The goal of a marketing strategy is to effectively communicate the value proposition of the firm's offerings to the target audience and achieve a competitive advantage in the market.

Important Points

  • Human resource management strategy refers to the strategic management of an organization's human resources to align them with the overall business objectives. It focuses on areas such as recruitment, training, performance management, and employee development.
  • Labour strategy generally refers to the strategies and approaches related to managing the workforce, including aspects such as labour relations, workforce planning, and compliance with labour laws and regulations.
  • Financial strategy pertains to the financial management and planning activities of a firm, including aspects such as budgeting, financial forecasting, capital structure, and investment decisions.
146

Transfer of journal entries into ledger account is known as

  1. ((a))

    journal entry

  2. ((b))

    journalising

  3. ((c))

    posting

  4. ((d))

    book of original entry

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

posting

The correct answer is posting.

Key Points Posting:

  • Transfer of journal entries into ledger accounts is known as posting.
  • After recording transactions in the journal, the next step in the accounting process is to transfer those entries into the respective ledger accounts.
  • Posting involves transferring the debits and credits from the journal entries to the corresponding accounts in the general ledger.

Important Points

  • The general ledger is a collection of individual accounts that represent various assets, liabilities, equity, revenues, and expenses.
  • Each account in the general ledger maintains a record of the specific transactions related to that account.
  • Posting ensures that the information recorded in the journal is accurately reflected in the respective ledger accounts.
  • During the posting process, the debits and credits from the journal entries are distributed to the appropriate accounts based on the account titles and the nature of the transaction.
  • The amounts are entered on the respective sides of the accounts, either as debits or credits, following the rules of double-entry bookkeeping.
  • By posting journal entries to the ledger accounts, a comprehensive record of each account's balance and transaction history is maintained.
  • This facilitates the preparation of financial statements and provides a complete overview of an organization's financial position and performance.

Additional Information 

  • Journal entry refers to the initial recording of a transaction in the journal, which includes debits and credits.
  • Journalizing is the process of making journal entries for the recorded transactions.
  • Book of original entry refers to the journal, where transactions are first recorded.
147

Which of the following is a fixed asset?

  1. ((a))

    Plant and machinery

  2. ((b))

    Repairing goods

  3. ((c))

    Raw material

  4. ((d))

    Stationery items

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plant and machinery

The correct answer is Plant and machinery.

Key Points

  • A fixed asset is a long-term tangible asset that is used in the production or operation of a business and is not expected to be converted into cash within one year.
  • Fixed assets are also referred to as property, plant, and equipment (PP&E).
  • Plant and machinery are examples of fixed assets.
  • They include assets such as buildings, land, vehicles, equipment, and machinery that are used in the production process or in providing services.
  • These assets are expected to have a useful life of more than one year and are not intended for immediate sale.

Additional Information

  • Repairing goods refers to an expense or cost associated with repairing or maintaining assets, rather than being a fixed asset itself.
  • Raw material represents the materials or resources that are used in the production process but are not considered fixed assets. Raw materials are generally consumed or transformed during the production process and do not have a long-term value.
  • Stationery items are consumables used in an office or business setting, such as pens, paper, and other office supplies. These items are typically considered as expenses and are not classified as fixed assets.
148

The type of strategies which offers to evaluate change over a long period of time are known as

  1. ((a))

    Survey

  2. ((b))

    case study

  3. ((c))

    Experimental strategy

  4. ((d))

    Longitudinal and cross sectional

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Longitudinal and cross sectional

The correct answer is Longitudinal and cross sectional

Key Points

Longitudinal and cross-sectional strategies are designed to study change and differences over time.

  • Longitudinal studies involve collecting data from the same individuals or groups at multiple time points. This allows researchers to examine changes within individuals or groups over an extended period and observe trends and patterns.
  • Cross-sectional studies, on the other hand, collect data from different individuals or groups at a single point in time. Although they do not track the same individuals over time, they can provide valuable information on differences and characteristics across different groups.

Both longitudinal and cross-sectional strategies offer insights into change and differences, but the key distinction is that longitudinal studies focus on tracking change within individuals or groups over time, while cross-sectional studies focus on comparing different groups at a specific point in time. 

Additional Information

  • Survey is a research method that involves collecting data from a sample of individuals through questionnaires or interviews. Surveys provide a snapshot of data at a specific point in time and are not specifically designed to evaluate change over a long period.
  • Case study is an in-depth analysis of a specific individual, group, or situation. While case studies can provide insights into processes and dynamics, they are not inherently focused on evaluating change over time.
  • Experimental strategy involves manipulating variables and observing the effects to determine causal relationships. While experimental studies can evaluate change over time, they are typically conducted over a relatively shorter period and are not specifically designed for long-term evaluations.
149

What is retirement after attaining a specific age?

  1. ((a))

    Forced retirement

  2. ((b))

    Premature retirement

  3. ((c))

    Compulsory retirement

  4. ((d))

    Demotion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Compulsory retirement

The correct answer is Compulsory retirement.

Key Points

Compulsory retirement:

  • Compulsory retirement refers to retirement that is mandated or required after attaining a specific age set by an organization or governing body.
  • It is a predetermined age at which an individual is legally or contractually obligated to retire from their employment or position.
  • Compulsory retirement policies are commonly seen in various sectors and organizations, including government agencies, corporate companies, and public institutions.
  • The specific retirement age can vary depending on the country, industry, and organization.
  • It is often based on factors such as labour laws, pension regulations, health considerations, and workforce planning.

Additional Information

  • Forced retirement implies retirement that is imposed on an individual against their will, regardless of their age. This can occur due to various reasons, such as organizational restructuring, termination, or involuntary separation.
  • Premature retirement refers to retiring at an earlier age than the usual retirement age. It can be a personal choice or result from circumstances such as health issues, career changes, or financial considerations.
  • Demotion refers to the reduction in job rank or position within an organization, typically due to performance issues or restructuring. Demotion is not directly related to retirement based on age.
150

The district Industries center was launched on

  1. ((a))

    1 April 1971

  2. ((b))

    1 May 1978

  3. ((c))

    2 March 1972

  4. ((d))

    1 October 1976

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 May 1978

Key Points

District Industries Center (DIC):

  • The District Industries Center (DIC) was launched on 1 May 1978 in India.
  • The DIC was established as a part of the industrial policy measures to promote industrialization at the district level and support the growth of small-scale industries.
  • The DIC serves as a single-window agency to facilitate the development of small-scale industries in each district.
  • It provides a range of services and support to entrepreneurs and small business owners, including assistance in obtaining licenses and registrations, access to credit and finance, skill development training, marketing support, and guidance on various aspects of business establishment and management.
  • By establishing DICs, the government aimed to decentralize industrial development and promote entrepreneurship at the grassroots level.
  • The centers play a pivotal role in identifying and nurturing local talent, encouraging self-employment, and creating employment opportunities within the district.
  • They act as a bridge between the government, financial institutions, industry associations, and individual entrepreneurs.
  • The launch of DICs in 1978 was a significant step towards promoting industrial growth, fostering regional development, and supporting the growth of small-scale industries in India.
151

Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 7. If their HCF is 26, then the sum of these two numbers will be:

  1. ((a))

    333

  2. ((b))

    364

  3. ((c))

    286

  4. ((d))

    312

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

286

Given:

Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 7. If their HCF is 26.

Calculation:

Let the ratio of two numbers be 4x and 7x.

HCF of the 4x and 7x is x Because x is the Highest common factor

x = 26, then

The sum of the two numbers = 4x + 7x

⇒ 11x = 11 × 26 = 286

∴ The sum of these two numbers will be 286.

152

Two persons A and B started from two different places towards each other. If the ratio of their speeds be 5 : 7, then what is the ratio of distance covered by A and B respectively till the point of meeting?

  1. ((a))

    1 : 2

  2. ((b))

    3 : 4

  3. ((c))

    5 : 7

  4. ((d))

    5 : 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 : 7

Given:

Ratio of speed be 5 : 7.

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/time

Calculation:

Since the time of meeting will be same for both.

Due to which speed is directly proportional to time.

Ratio of speed = 5 : 7

So, ratio of distance = 5 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 7.

153

Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these metals be mixed so that the mixture may be 15 times as heavy as water?

  1. ((a))

    4 : 2

  2. ((b))

    3 : 2

  3. ((c))

    2 : 3

  4. ((d))

    2 : 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3 : 2

Given:

Gold is 19 times as heavy as water.

Copper is 9 times as heavy as water.

Calculation:

Now by applying allegation method,

⇒ 9          19

         15

   4            6

So, copper : gold = 2 : 3

Since the order is gold and copper

∴ Copper : Gold = 3 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

154

What sum will yield an interest of Rs. 306 in six years at 5% p.a. simple interest?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 765

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1020

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1210

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 840

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1020

Given:

Simple interest = Rs. 306

Time, t = 6 years and rate, R = 5%

Formula used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation:

 SI = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 306 = (P × 5 × 6)/100

⇒ P = (306 × 100)/(5 × 6) = Rs. 1020

∴ P = Rs. 1020

155

The area of an isosceles right triangle, whose perimeter is p, is:

  1. ((a))

    p26+42\frac{p^2}{6+4\sqrt2}

  2. ((b))

    p212+82\frac{p^2}{12+8\sqrt2}

  3. ((c))

    p22(2+2)\frac{p^2}{2(2+\sqrt2)}

  4. ((d))

    p22+2\frac{p^2}{2+\sqrt2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

p212+82\frac{p^2}{12+8\sqrt2}

Given:

Perimeter of an isosceles right triangle = p

Formula used:

Perimeter of an isosceles right triangle = a + a + a√2

Area of an isosceles right triangle = (a2)/2

Calculation:

Let each of the equal sides of the triangle be 'a'.

⇒ Perimeter = a + a + a√2 = p

⇒ 2a + a√2 = p

⇒ a(2 + √2) = p

⇒ a = p/(2 + √2)

Area = (a2)/2

⇒ Area = [(p/(2 + √2))2]/2

⇒ Area = [{p2/(4 + 4√2 + 2)}/2}

⇒ Area = p2/[2 × (6 + 4√2)]

⇒ Area = p2/[12 + 8√2]

∴ The area of the isosceles right triangle is p2/[12 + 8√2].

156

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

15% of 490 - 8.5% of 600 = ?

  1. ((a))

    23.5

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    22.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22.5

Given:

15% of 490 - 8.5% of 600 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

15% of 490 - 8.5% of 600 = ?

Let the unknown number be x.

15% of 490 - 8.5% of 600 = x

⇒ x = 15100\dfrac{15}{100} × 490 - 8.5100\dfrac{8.5}{100} × 600

⇒ x = 73.5 - 51 = 22.5

∴ 15% of 490 - 8.5% of 600 = 22.5.

157

A Shopkeeper purchased an article for Rs. 1,234. Approximately what will be the percentage profit if he sold it for Rs. 1,456?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

Given:

Cost price = Rs. 1234

Selling price = Rs. 1456

Formula used:

Profit % = ProfitCP\dfrac{\text{Profit}}{\text{CP}} × 100

Profit = SP - CP

Calculation:

Profit = SP - CP

⇒ 1456 - 1234 = 222

Profit % = ProfitCP\dfrac{\text{Profit}}{\text{CP}} × 100 

⇒ 2221234\dfrac{222}{1234} × 100 = 17.99 ≈ 18%

∴ The profit % is 18%.

158

A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs. 180 by making a profit of 20%. If the shopkeeper offered a discount of Rs. 30 on the marked price then what is the marked up percentage?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    40%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40%

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) = 180, Profit = 20% ⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 180 ÷ 1.2 = 150.

Discount = 30 ⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 180 + 30 = 210.

Markup = MPCP = 210 − 150 = 60.

Markup % = (60 ÷ 150) × 100 = 40%.

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Alternate Method

Given: SP = Rs. 180, Profit % = 20%, Discount = Rs. 30.

Formulas: CP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 + Profit %] | MP = SP + Discount | Markup % = [(MPCP) ÷ CP] × 100.

CP = (180 × 100) ÷ 120 = 150.

MP = 180 + 30 = 210.

Markup Amount = 210 − 150 = 60.

Markup % = (60 ÷ 150) × 100 = 40%.

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Markup

Marked Price is the price printed on the label. Markup is the extra amount added to the Cost Price to reach the Marked Price.

Discount Calculation

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MPDiscount.

159

The compound interest on a certain sum in 212\frac{1}{2} years at 10% p.a., interest compounded yearly, is Rs. 1,623. The sum is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 7,200

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 6,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 6,000

Given:

Compound Interest, C.I. = Rs. 1623

Rate of Interest, R = 10 percent

Time = 212;Years2\frac{1}{2}{\rm{;Years}}

Formula Used:

When interest is compounded annually but the time is in fraction (suppose time = nab{\rm{n}}\frac{{\rm{a}}}{{\rm{b}}} years), then,

A=P(1+R100)n(100+(ab)×R100;){\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{\rm{R}}}{{100}}} \right)^{\rm{n}}}\left( {\frac{{100 + \left( {\frac{{\rm{a}}}{{\rm{b}}}} \right) × {\rm{R}}}}{{100}}{\rm{;}}} \right)

Calculation:

Let the Principal be P.

So, the Amount, 

A=P(1+R100)n(100+(ab)×R100;){\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{\rm{R}}}{{100}}} \right)^{\rm{n}}}\left( {\frac{{100 + \left( {\frac{{\rm{a}}}{{\rm{b}}}} \right) × {\rm{R}}}}{{100}}{\rm{;}}} \right)

A=P(1+10100)2(100+(12)×10100;) \Rightarrow {\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{10}}{{100}}} \right)^2}\left( {\frac{{100 + \left( {\frac{1}{2}} \right) × 10}}{{100}}{\rm{;}}} \right)

⇒ A = P × (11/10)2 × (21/20)

⇒ A = P × (121/100) × (21/20)

Now, Compound Interest = Amount – Principal

⇒ 1623 = P × (121/100) × (21/20) – P

⇒ 1623 = P × {(2541/2000) – 1}

⇒ 1623 = P × (2541 – 2000)/2000

⇒ 1623 = P × 541/2000

⇒ P = 1623 × 2000/541

⇒ P = 6,000

∴ The Principal is Rs. 6,000.

160

Solve:

(4488 ÷ 11.01 - 7.98) ÷ 15.99

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    2.6

  3. ((c))

    26

  4. ((d))

    2.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

Given:

(4488 ÷ 11.01 - 7.98) ÷ 15.99

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

(4488 ÷ 11.01 - 7.98) ÷ 15.99

Let, 11.01 ≈ 11, 7.98 ≈ 8, and 15.99 ≈ 16

⇒ (4488 ÷ 11 - 8) ÷ 16

⇒ (4488 × 1/11 - 8) ÷ 16

⇒ (408 - 8) ÷ 16

⇒ 400 ÷ 16 = 400 × 1/16 = 25

∴ (4488 ÷ 11.01 - 7.98) ÷ 15.99 = 25

161

Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 90° more than its exterior angle, then find its number of sides.

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

Given:

Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 90° more than its exterior angle.

Formula used:

Interior angle + Exterior angle = 180° 

No of side = 360°/Exterior angle

Calculation:

According to question,

Interior = 90° + exterior  ------(1)

Interior + exterior = 180°  ------(2)

On solving equation (1) and (2) : 

We get,

Exterior angle = 45° 

No of side = 360°/45° 

⇒ 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

162

A and B each invested Rs. 10,000 for 2 years at same rate of interest of 10% p.a., but B's investment is compounded annually and A's investment is charged on simple interest. What amount did B receive more than A?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 100

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 50

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 121

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 100

Given:

Initial investment (Principal, P) of both A and B = Rs. 10,000

Time period (t) = 2 years

Rate of interest (r) = 10% p.a.

Formula used:

Simple interest (SI) = P * r * t / 100

Compound interest (CI) = P (1 + r/100)^t - P

Calculation:

Calculate the total amount received by A using the formula for simple interest:

Amount received by A = Principal + Simple interest

= P + P * r * t / 100

= Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 10,000 * 10 * 2 / 100

= Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 2,000

= Rs. 12,000

Calculate the total amount received by B using the formula for compound interest:

Amount received by B = Principal + Compound interest

= P + P * (1 + r/100)^t - P

= Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 10,000 * (1 + 10/100)^2 - Rs. 10,000

= Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 10,000 * (1.1)^2 - Rs. 10,000

= Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 10,000 * 1.21 - Rs. 10,000

= Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 2,100

= Rs. 12,100

Finally, calculate the difference between the amounts received by B and A:

Difference = Amount received by B - Amount received by A

= Rs. 12,100 - Rs. 12,000

= Rs. 100

So, B received Rs. 100 more than A.

163

The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 18 per kg and Type 2 rice is Rs. 24 per kg. If both Type 1 and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 3 : 5, then the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 19.50

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 18.50

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 21.75

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 19

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 21.75

Given:

Cost of Type 1 rice = Rs. 18 per kg

Cost of Type 2 rice = Rs. 24 per kg

Type 1 and Type 2 rice are mixed in a ratio 3 : 5

Formula used:

Cost = **(**amount of Type 1 × cost of Type 1 + amount of Type 2 × cost of Type 2)/total amount of the mixture.

Calculation:

Total weight = 3 + 5 = 8

Average cost = (18 × 3 + 24 × 5)/(3 + 5)

(54 + 120)/8

174 / 8

Rs. 21.75/kg

So, the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is Rs. 21.75.

164

In a class, the number of boys and girls are 18 and 14 respectively. The average height of the class is (a + 5) while average height of boys is (a + 12). What is the average height of the girls?

  1. ((a))

    a - 4

  2. ((b))

    a + 15

  3. ((c))

    a - 8

  4. ((d))

    a + 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a - 4

Given:

Number of boys = 18

Number of girls = 14

Average height of the class = a + 5

Average height of the boys = a + 12

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations) / (Number of observations)

Calculation:

First, calculate the total height of all students and the total height of the boys.

Total height of all students = Average height of class * Total number of students

= (a + 5) * (18 + 14) = (a + 5) * 32

Total height of boys = Average height of boys * Number of boys

= (a + 12) * 18

Now, calculate the total height of the girls, which is the total height of all students minus the total height of the boys:

Total height of girls = Total height of all students - Total height of boys

= (a + 5) * 32 - (a + 12) * 18

Finally, calculate the average height of the girls:

Average height of girls = Total height of girls / Number of girls

= [(a + 5) * 32 - (a + 12) * 18] / 14

Simplify the equation to find:

Average height of girls = [32a + 160 - 18a - 216] / 14

= [14a - 56] / 14

= a - 4

Therefore, the average height of the girls is (a - 4).

165

Rana, Sona and Tina participate in a running competition. Each of them takes below 30 seconds to complete the race. Rana who is the winner takes between 5 to 10 seconds to complete the race. The product of the timing of all three (in seconds) is multiple of 77 and 161. Find the time taken by Tina, who finished last.

  1. ((a))

    21 seconds

  2. ((b))

    27 seconds

  3. ((c))

    24 seconds

  4. ((d))

    23 seconds

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

23 seconds

Given:

Each of the three participants Rana, Sona, and Tina completes the race in less than 30 seconds.

Rana, the winner, takes between 5 to 10 seconds to complete the race.

The product of the timing of all three (in seconds) is a multiple of both 77 and 161.

Tina finishes last.

Formula used:

Product of three numbers = product of their factors.

Calculation:

Rana takes between 5 to 10 seconds to complete the race.

So, let Rana's time = 7 seconds.

Sona takes below 30 seconds to complete the race.

So, let Sona's time = 23 seconds.

The product of the timing of all three (in seconds) is multiple of 77 and 161.

So, (7) × (23) ×  Tina's time must be divisible by 77 and 161.

The only factor of 77 and 161 that is less than 30 is 23.

So, the time taken by Tina, who finished last, is 23 seconds.

166

The average age of seven men, ten women and two boys is 35 years. The average age of all the seven men is 39 years. The average age of all the ten women is 36 years. Find the average age of two boys (in years).

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16

Given:

Average age of seven men = 39 years

Average age of ten women = 36 years

Average age of all (seven men, ten women, two boys) = 35 years

Number of people: seven men + ten women + two boys = 19

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations) / (Number of observations)

Calculation:

First, calculate the total age of all seven men, all ten women, and everyone together.

Total age of seven men = Average age of men * Number of men

= 39 * 7 = 273 years

Total age of ten women = Average age of women * Number of women

= 36 * 10 = 360 years

Total age of everyone (seven men, ten women, two boys) = Average age of all * Total number of people

= 35 * 19 = 665 years

Now, calculate the total age of the two boys, which is the total age of everyone minus the total ages of the men and women:

Total age of two boys = Total age of everyone - Total age of men - Total age of women

= 665 - 273 - 360 = 32 years

Finally, calculate the average age of the two boys:

Average age of two boys = Total age of two boys / Number of boys

= 32 / 2

= 16 years

Therefore, the average age of the two boys is 16 years.

167

The side of a square is 20 cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if side of the square is doubled?

  1. ((a))

    2 times

  2. ((b))

    5 times

  3. ((c))

    6 times

  4. ((d))

    3 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 times

Given:

The side of a square is 20 cm.

Formula used:

Perimeter of the square = 4a

Calculation:

Side, a = 20 cm

Perimeter of the square = 4a = 4 × 20 = 80 cm

According to the question,

New side = 2 × 20 = 40 cm

New perimeter of the square = 4a = 4 × 40 = 160 cm

So, New perimeter of the square = 2 × old perimeter of the square 

∴ The side of the square is doubled then the new perimeter will be 2 times.

168

A bullet fired from a rifle travels at an average speed of 2520 km/hr. It hits the target after 0.2 seconds. How far (in m) is the target from the rifle?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    140

  4. ((d))

    70

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

140

Given:

A bullet fired from a rifle travels at an average speed of 2520 km/hr. It hits the target after 0.2 seconds.

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

1 km/hr = 5/18 m/Sec

Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ 2520 × 518\dfrac{5}{18} × 0.2

⇒ 140 m

∴ The target is at a distance of 140 meters from the rifle.

169

One side other than the hypotenuse of a right-angled isosceles triangle is 4 cm. The length of the perpendicular on the hypotenuse from the opposite vertex is:

  1. ((a))

    8 cm

  2. ((b))

    424 \sqrt2  cm

  3. ((c))

    4 cm

  4. ((d))

    222 \sqrt2  cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

222 \sqrt2  cm

Given:

One side (let's denote as 'a') of the right-angled isosceles triangle = 4 cm

In an isosceles right triangle, both sides forming the right angle are equal.

Calculation:

Since the triangle is isosceles and right-angled,

The hypotenuse (h) = a√2 

⇒ h = 4 × √2 = 4√2 cm

The length of the perpendicular from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse = h/2

⇒ Perpendicular length = h/2 = 4√2/2 = 2√2 cm

∴ The length of the perpendicular from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse is 2√2.

170

A man can row 14 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 6 km/h, it takes 7.5 hours more in upstream than in the downstream for the same distance. The distance is?

  1. ((a))

    100 km

  2. ((b))

    150 km

  3. ((c))

    80 km

  4. ((d))

    120 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 km

Given:

The man's speed in still water is 14 km/h.

The speed of the current is 6 km/h.

The time taken upstream is 7.5 hours more than the time taken downstream for the same distance.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Calculation:

Let the distance be denoted as D.

In still water (downstream):

The effective speed of the man is the sum of his speed in still water and the speed of the current.

Speed downstream = 14 km/h + 6 km/h = 20 km/h

Time taken downstream = Distance / Speed downstream

= D / 20

Upstream:

The effective speed of the man is the difference between his speed in still water and the speed of the current.

Speed upstream = 14 km/h - 6 km/h = 8 km/h

Time taken upstream = Distance / Speed upstream = D / 8

It is given that the time taken upstream is 7.5 hours more than the time taken downstream for the same distance. So we can set up the equation:

(D / 8) = (D / 20) + 7.5

Multiply both sides of the equation by the common denominator of 8 and 20, which is 40:

5D = 2D + 300

Subtract 2D from both sides:

3D = 300

Divide both sides by 3:

D = 100

Therefore, the distance is 100 km.

171

Acid and water in 2 vessels A and B are in the ratio 2 : 5 and 5 : 8 respectively. In what ratio should the liquids in both the vessels be mixed to obtain a mixture of acid and water in the ratio 4 : 9 ?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 7

  2. ((b))

    2 : 3

  3. ((c))

    7 : 4

  4. ((d))

    7 : 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7 : 2

Given:

Acid and water in vessel A are in the ratio 2:5.

Acid and water in vessel B are in the ratio 5:8.

The mixture obtained from vessels A and B should have an acid to water ratio of 4:9.

Formula Used:

The rule of allegation. This rule states that if two ingredients with different values are mixed, then the ratio of their quantities is equal to the inverse ratio of their differences from the mean value.

Calculation:

Let's calculate the concentration of acid in each vessel and in the desired mixture:

Concentration of acid in vessel A = 2/(2+5) = 2/7.

Concentration of acid in vessel B = 5/(5+8) = 5/13.

Concentration of acid in the mixture = 4/(4+9) = 4/13.

Using the allegation method,

the difference between the concentration of acid in each vessel and the desired concentration is calculated:

|2/7 - 4/13| = |2/91|.

|5/13 - 4/13| = |1/13|.

So, the ratio in which the liquids in vessels A and B should be mixed is |1/13| : |2/91|, which simplifies to 7 : 2..

Therefore, the liquids in vessels A and B should be mixed in the ratio 7:2 to obtain a mixture of acid and water in the ratio 4:9.

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 2.

172

In ΔABC, AD is a median and P is a point on AD such that AP : PD = 3 : 4. Then ar (ΔBPD): ar (ΔABC) is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    4 : 7

  2. ((b))

    2 : 5

  3. ((c))

    1 : 3

  4. ((d))

    2 : 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2 : 7

Given:

In triangle ABC, AD is a median and P is a point on AD such that AP : PD = 3 : 4.

Concept Used:

The area ratio of two triangles with a common base is equal to the ratio of their heights.

The median divides a triangle into two triangles of equal areas.

Calculation:

We know that AD is a median, so it divides triangle ABC into two triangles of equal area.

So, let's denote area of triangle BDA as A2 and area of triangle ABC as A. Then, A2 = A/2.

Point P divides AD into AP and PD in the ratio 3:4.

The area of two triangles with the same base is proportional to their heights.

Hence, the area of triangle BPD (denoted as A1) is 4/7 of the area of triangle BDA.

So, A1 = (4/7) * A2.

Now, we need to find A1/A.

Substituting the values of A1 and A2, we get A1/A = (4/7) * (1/2) = 2/7.

So, the ratio of the area of triangle BPD to the area of triangle ABC is 2/7.

∴ The correct answer is 2/7.

173

Simplify:

11+a(nm)+11+a(mn)\frac{1}{1+a^{(n-m)}}+\frac{1}{1+a^{(m-n)}}

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    am+n

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1

Given:

11+a(nm)+11+a(mn)\frac{1}{1+a^{(n-m)}}+\frac{1}{1+a^{(m-n)}}

Concept used:

a(m - n) = am/an 

Calculation:

11+a(nm)+11+a(mn)\dfrac{1}{1+a^{(n-m)}}+\dfrac{1}{1+a^{(m-n)}}

⇒ 11+anam+11+aman\dfrac{1}{1+\frac{a^n}{a^m}}+\dfrac{1}{1+\frac{a^m}{a^n}}

⇒ amam+an+anam+an\dfrac{a^m}{a^m+a^n}+\dfrac{a^n}{a^m+a^n}

⇒ am+anam+an\dfrac{a^m + a^n}{a^m+a^n} = 1

∴ 11+a(nm)+11+a(mn)\dfrac{1}{1+a^{(n-m)}}+\dfrac{1}{1+a^{(m-n)}} = 1

174

If a- b3 = 56 and a - b = 2 then what is the value of (a+ b2)?

  1. ((a))

    -20

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    -10

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20

Given:

 a³ - b³ = 56

a - b = 2

Formula Used:

Difference of cubes: a³ - b³ = (a - b)(a² + b² + ab)

Squares of the sum of two numbers: (a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab

Calculation:

We know that a³ - b³ = (a - b)(a² + b² + ab).

Since a³ - b³ is given as 56 and a - b is given as 2,

we can write 56 = 2(a² + b² + ab).

Dividing both sides by 2, we get: a² + b² + ab = 28.

We also know that (a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab.

Given that a - b = 2, we can write: 2² = a² + b² - 2ab.

Simplifying, we get: 4 = a² + b² - 2ab.

Now we have two equations: a² + b² + ab = 28 and a² + b² - 2ab = 4.

Subtracting the second equation from the first,

we get: ab + 2ab = 28 - 4, which simplifies to: 3ab = 24.

This gives us: ab = 8.

Substituting ab = 8 in the equation a² + b² + ab = 28,

we get: a² + b² + 8 = 28.

Rearranging, we find that a² + b² = 28 - 8 = 20.

So, the value of a² + b² is 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20.

175

If (x - a)(x - b) = 1, a - b + 4 = 0 find (x - a)3 - 1(xa)3\frac{1}{(x - a)^3} = ?

  1. ((a))

    76

  2. ((b))

    52

  3. ((c))

    140

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

76

Given:

(x - a)(x - b) = 1

And a - b + 4 = 0

Calculation:

a - b + 4 = 0

⇒ b = a + 4 →(1)

(x - a)(x - b) = 1

⇒ (x - a)(x - a - 4) = 1

⇒ (x - a)2 - 4(x - a) + 4 - 4 = 1

⇒ {(x -  a) - 2}2 = 1 + 4 = 5

⇒ {(x -  a) - 2} = √5

⇒ (x -  a) = √5 + 2

Now, (x - a)3 - 1(xa)3\frac{1}{(x - a)^3} = (√5 + 2)3 - 1/(√5 + 2)3 

⇒ (√5 + 2)3 - {1/(√5 + 2) × (√5 - 2)/(√5 - 2)}3 

⇒ (√5 + 2)- {(√5 - 2)/(5 - 4)}3

⇒ (√5 + 2)3 - (√5 - 2)3

⇒ 5√5 + 8 + 30 + 12√5 - (5√5 - 8 - 30 + 12√5)

⇒ 5√5 + 8 + 30 + 12√5 - 5√5 + 8 + 30 - 12√5

⇒ 8 + 30 + 8 + 30 = 76

∴ (x - a)3 - 1(xa)3\frac{1}{(x - a)^3} = 76

176

निम्नलिखित में से शब्द के शुद्ध रूप (वर्तनी) का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    दुनद्दभी

  2. ((b))

    दून्दर्भी

  3. ((c))

    दुन्दुभी

  4. ((d))

    दून्दुभी

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

दुन्दुभी

शुद्ध रुप (वर्तनी) है - 'दुन्दुभी'

  • दुन्दुभी- एक तरह का नगाड़ा, विष्णु, बड़ा ढोल।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प वर्तनी की दृष्टि से गलत है।

Key Points

  • किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
  • वर्तनी का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।
  • यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध से शुद्ध शब्द:-

  • अशुद्ध - शुद्ध
  • परिशिष्ठ - परिशिष्ट
  • न्यौछावर - न्योछावर
  • दुरुपयोग - दुरुपयोग
  • तुष्टिकरण - तुष्टीकरण
  • ज्योत्सना - ज्योत्स्ना
  • ग्रहकार्य - गृहकार्य
177

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    रचईता

  2. ((b))

    क्रिशी

  3. ((c))

    परीक्षित

  4. ((d))

    अतेव

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

परीक्षित

शुद्ध रुप (वर्तनी) है - 'परीक्षित'

  • परीक्षित- जिसकी परीक्षा ली गई हो।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प वर्तनी की दृष्टि से गलत है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प 

  • रचईता - रचयिता
  • क्रिशी - कृषि
  • अतेव - अतएव

​परिभाषा -

  • किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
  • वर्तनी का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।
  • यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध से शुद्ध शब्द:-

  • अशुद्ध - शुद्ध
  • परिशिष्ठ - परिशिष्ट
  • न्यौछावर - न्योछावर
  • दुरूपयोग - दुरुपयोग
  • तुष्टिकरण - तुष्टीकरण
  • ज्योत्सना - ज्योत्स्ना
  • ग्रहकार्य - गृहकार्य
178

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में पांच कथन दिए गए है। इन्हें इस तरह क्रमबद्ध कीजिए कि उनसे एक अर्थपूर्ण परिच्छेद बन जाए, फिर उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए।

A. उसी प्रकार काव्य - अलंकारों से काव्य की शोभा बढ़ती है।

B. अलंकार शब्द 'अलम् धातु से बना है

C. जिसका अर्थ है 'आभूषण' ।

D. जिस प्रकार सुवर्ण आदि के आभूषणों से

E. शरीर की शोभा बढ़ती है

  1. ((a))

    CDBAE

  2. ((b))

    BCDEA

  3. ((c))

    ABDCE

  4. ((d))

    EDABC

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BCDEA

चारों अंशों को उचित क्रम BCDEA होगा।

पाँचों अंशों को उचित क्रम इस प्रकार है - 

  • अलंकार शब्द 'अलम् धातु से बना है
  • जिसका अर्थ है 'आभूषण' ।
  • जिस प्रकार सुवर्ण आदि के आभूषणों से
  • शरीर की शोभा बढ़ती है
  • उसी प्रकार काव्य - अलंकारों से काव्य की शोभा बढ़ती है।

अन्य विकल्पों के क्रम अनुचित है।

179

निम्न में से कौन-सा मध्य स्वर है?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

    त्र

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

'' मध्य स्वर है।

Key Points 

  • जिह्वा के आधार पर स्वर का वर्गीकरण तीन भागों में किया गया है – ‘अग्र स्वर’, ‘मध्य स्वर’ तथा ‘पश्च स्वर’।
  • ‘अ’ को मध्य स्वर कहा जाता है क्योंकि इसका उच्चारण जिह्वा के मध्य स्पर्श से होता है।
  • अतः सही विकल्प अ है।

Additional Information 

जिह्वा के आधार पर स्वर का वर्गीकरणस्वर
अग्र स्वरइ ,ई , ए , ऐ
मध्य स्वर
पश्च स्वरउ, ऊ, ओ, औ, ऑ, आ
180

निम्नलिखित में से एकवचन शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    घोड़े

  2. ((b))

    मनुष्य

  3. ((c))

    चश्मे

  4. ((d))

    कपड़े

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

मनुष्य

'मनुष्य’ शब्द एकवचन में प्रयुक्त किया जाता है। 

Key Points 

  • 'मनुष्य' शब्द एकवचन में प्रयुक्त होता है।
  • 'मनुष्य' में '' प्रत्यय लगाकर 'मनुष्यों' बहुवचन बनाया गया है।

अन्य विकल्प:

बहुवचनएकवचन
घोड़ेघोड़ा
चश्मेचश्मा
कपड़ेकपड़ा

Additional Information 

वचन- संज्ञा के जिस रूप से किसी व्यक्ति और वस्तु के एक या एक से अधिक होने का बोध होता है उसे वचन कहते हैं। जैसे-व्यक्ति-व्यक्तियों, वस्तु-वस्तुएं आदि। वचन दो प्रकार के होते है- 1. एकवचन और 2. बहुवचन।
एकवचनजिस शब्द से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति, पदार्थ आदि के एक होने का बोध हो उसे एकवचन कहते है।कमरा, घड़ी, कुत्ता आदि।
बहुवचनजिस शब्द से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति, पदार्थ आदि के एक से अधिक होने का बोध हो उसे बहुवचन कहते है।कमरे, घड़ियाँ, कुत्ते आदि।
181

निम्नलिखित में से "इत्यादि" किस संधि का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    यण स्वर संधि

  2. ((b))

    वृद्धि स्वर संधि

  3. ((c))

    दीर्घ स्वर संधि

  4. ((d))

    गुण स्वर संधि

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

यण स्वर संधि

दिए गए विकल्पों में से इत्यादि का संधि यण स्वर संधि है।

Key Points 

  • इति + आदि = इत्यादि (इ + आ = या)
  • इत्यादि में यण संधि है।
  • जब इ,ई के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ” य” बन जाता है।
  • जब उ,ऊ के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो” व॒” बन जाता है।
  • जब ऋ के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो” र ” बन जाता है।

Important Points 

  • दो वर्णों के मेल से होने वाले विकार को संधि कहते हैं।
  • दो शब्दों के मेल से बने शब्द को पुनः अलग अलग करने को संधि विच्छेद कहते हैं।

संधि के तीन प्रकार होते हैं- 

संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
स्वर संधिजब स्वर के साथ स्वर का मेल होता है तब जो परिवर्तन होता है वह स्वर संधि कहलाता है।- विद्या+आलय -विद्यालय
व्यंजन संधिव्यंजन वर्ण के साथ स्वर वर्ण या व्यंजन वर्ण अथवा स्वर वर्ण के साथ व्यंजन वर्ण के मेल से जो विकार उत्पन हो, उसे ‘व्यंजन संधि’ कहते हैं।- दिक+अंबर-दिगंबर - अभी+सेक- अभिषेक
विसर्ग संधिजब  विसर्ग के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन आ जाए तब जो परिवर्तन होता है ,वह विसर्ग संधि कहलाता है।- मन: + अनुकूल = मनोनुकूल - नि: + पाप =निष्पाप

Additional Information स्वर संधि के पांच प्रकार होते हैं- 

संधिपरिभाषाउदहारण
दीर्घ संधिदो समान स्वर मिलकर दीर्घ हो जाते हैं। जब अ,आ के साथ अ,आ हो तो “आ”बनता है
जब इ,ई के साथ इ,ई हो तो “ई” बनता है
जब उ,ऊ के साथ उ,ऊ हो तो “ऊ”बनता है
- पुस्तक +आलय- पुस्तकालय - विद्या+अर्थी-विद्यार्थी
गुण संधियदि ‘अ’ या ‘आ’ के बाद इ/ई  आए तो ‘ए’ ; ऊ/ऊ आए तो ‘ओ’ और ‘ऋ’ आए तो ‘अर’ हो  जाता है- नर+इंद्र-नरेंद्र - ज्ञान+उपदेश-ज्ञानोपदेश
वृद्धि संधियदि ‘अ’ या ‘आ’ के बाद ए/ऐ रहे तो ‘ऐ’ और ओ/औ  रहे तो ‘औ’ बन जाता है।- मत+एकता-मतैकता - सदा+एव- सदैव
यण संधियदि इ/ई, उ/ऊ और ऋ के बाद भिन्न स्वर आए तो इ/ई का ‘य’ उ/ऊ का ‘व’ और ऋ का ‘र’ हो जाता है।- इती+ आदि- इत्यादि - अनु+अय- अनवय
अयादि संधियदि ए, ऐ, ओं और औ के बाद भिन्न स्वर आये तो ‘ए’ का अय ‘ऐ’ का आय, ‘ओ’ का अव और ‘औ’ का आव हो जाता है।- ने+अन- नयन - नौ+ इक- नाविक
182

'यदि शिक्षक आते, तो बच्चे पढ़ते' वाक्य में प्रयुक्त काल ______ है I

  1. ((a))

    हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल

  2. ((b))

    सामान्य भूतकाल

  3. ((c))

    अपूर्ण भूतकाल

  4. ((d))

    आसन्न भूतकाल

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल

'यदि शिक्षक आते, तो बच्चे पढ़ते' वाक्य में 'हेतु हेतु मद भूतकाल​' है।

Key Points

हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल ;- 'हेतु' का अर्थ है कारण। जहाँ भूतकाल में किसी कार्य के न हो सकने का वर्णन कारण के साथ दो वाक्यों में दिया गया हो, वहाँ हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल होता है।

इससे यह पता चलता है कि क्रिया भूतकाल में होनेवाली थी, पर किसी कारण से न हो सकी।

उदाहरण - 

  • यदि जल्दी स्टेशन आये होते, तो ट्रेन पकड पाते।
  • यदि वर्षा होती, तो फसल अच्छी होती।
  • यदि बताया होता, तो मैं जलेबी लाता।

Additional Information 

भूतकाल- जो समय बीत चुका है।

  • जैसे- मैंने खाना खा लिया था।

वाक्य में बीते हुए समय में क्रिया के होने का बोध हों रहा हैं।

भूतकाल के भेद-

सामान्य भूतकाल- काम के सामान्य रूप से बीते समय में पूरा होने का बोध हो, उसे सामान्य भूतकाल कहते हैं।

  • जैसे- मोहन आया।

आसन भूतकाल- क्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि क्रिया अभी कुछ समय पहले ही पूर्ण हुई है, उसे आसन्न भूतकाल कहते हैं।

  • जैसे- मैने हलवा खाया हैं।

पूर्ण भूतकाल- क्रिया के जिस रूप से यह ज्ञात हो कि कार्य पहले ही पूरा हो चुका है, उसे पूर्ण भूतकाल कहते हैं।

  • जैसे- उसने मोहन को मारा था।

अपूर्ण भूतकाल- जिस क्रिया से यह ज्ञात हो कि भूतकाल में कार्य सम्पन्न नहीं हुआ था - अभी चल रहा था, उसे अपूर्ण भूत कहते हैं।

  • जैसे- सुरेश गाना गा रहा था।

संदिग्ध भूतकाल- इसमें यह सन्देह बना रहता है कि भूतकाल में कार्य पूरा हुआ या नही।

  • जैसे- तू आया होगा।

हेतुहेतुमद् भूत- इससे यह पता चलता है कि क्रिया भूतकाल में होनेवाली थी, पर किसी कारण न हो सकी।

  • जैसे- यदि तुमने परिश्रम किया होता, तो पास हो जाते।
183

निम्नलिखित में से मुहावरा "पापड़ बेलना" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. ((a))

    अच्छे सम्बन्ध होना

  2. ((b))

    बात को अपने तक छिपा न सकने वाला

  3. ((c))

    विषम परिस्थितियों से गुजरना

  4. ((d))

    पक्ष मजबूत बनाना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

विषम परिस्थितियों से गुजरना

उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में से विकल्प "विषम परिस्थितियों से गुजरना" सही है तथा अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं।

Key Points

  • पापड़ बेलना
  • अर्थ :- विषम परिस्थितियों से गुजरना।
  • ‌‌‌वाक्य प्रयोग
  • मोहन को अपने परिवार से अलग होने के बाद बहुत पापड़ बेलना पड़ा।
  • यदि अधिकारियों से कुछ काम करवाना होगा तो बहुत सारे पापड़े बेलने होते हैं।
  • ‌‌‌बहुत पापड़ बेला लेकिन पुलिस ने रेप की एफआईआर तक दर्ज नहीं की ।

Additional Information

प्रमुख मुहावरे

  • काँटा निकलना :- बढ़ा दूर होना।
  • चींटी के पर निकलना या जमना :- विनाश के लक्षण प्रकट होना।
  • छक्के छूटना :- बुरी तरह पराजित होना।
  • जल भुनकर पागल हो जाना :- क्रोध से पागल होना।
  • जहर उगलना :- अपमानजनक बातें कहना।
  • जीती मक्खी निगलना :- जानबूझकर अशोभन या अभद्र कार्य करना।
  • तोते की तरह आँखें फेरना :- बेमुरव्वत होना।
  • तीन तेरह होना :- तितर बितर होना।
  • बट्टा लगाना :- कलंक लगाना।
  • बाँछे खिलना :- अत्यधिक प्रसन्न होना।
  • सवा सोलह आने सही :- पूरी तरह सही होना।
  • हाथ मलना :- पछताना।
  • हवा का रुख देखना :- समय की गति पहचान कर काम करना।
184

निम्न में से उपर्युक्त विकल्प का चयन कर रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए-

श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक ______ है I

  1. ((a))

    भाव

  2. ((b))

    अनुभाव

  3. ((c))

    संभाव

  4. ((d))

    संप्रभाव

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

भाव

रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिये- श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव हैI

Key Points

  • रिक्त स्थान वाले प्रश्न- रिक्त स्थान भरें प्रश्न में रिक्त स्थान के साथ एक वाक्यांश, वाक्य या अनुच्छेद होता है जहां एक छात्र शब्द प्रदान करता है।
  • जैसे- संगीत द्वारा व्यक्ति का                    प्रभावित होता है। (आचरण)
  • (1. आचरण  2. शरीर  3. अधिकार  4. कर्तव्य)

Additional Information अन्य रिक्त स्थान प्रश्न के उदाहरण-

  • भारत में निर्धनता-निर्मलता                    कार्य गति से नहीं हो सका। (प्रशंसनीय)
  • (1. प्रशंसनीय 2. स्तुल्य 3. संस्तुल्य 4. अनुशंसनीय )
  • गांधीजी का रामराज्य का स्वप्न आज तक                 नहीं हुआ। (साकार)
  • (1. साकार 2. स्वीकार 3. आकार 4. निराकार)
  • अंतरराष्ट्रीय कवि सम्मेलन का                        स्वयं में बड़ा काम है। (आयोजन)
  • (1. प्रयोजन 2. आरक्षण 3. आयोजन 4. संगठन )
  • वायुयान के उतार-चढ़ाव से यात्री घबरा गए पर चालक ने उन्हें                किया। (आश्वस्त)
  • (1. निरस्त 2. विश्वस्त 3. आश्वस्त 4. संतुष्ट )
185

निम्नलिखित में से शब्द-युग्म "अनु - अणु" के सही अर्थ भेद का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    अंबुज - कमल

  2. ((b))

    पीछे - कण

  3. ((c))

    अश्व - घोड़ा

  4. ((d))

    अज - बकरा

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

पीछे - कण

दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'अनु - अणु' शब्द-युग्म का सही अर्थ "पीछे - कण" है।

Key Points

  • अनु का अर्थ - पीछे
  • अणु का अर्थ - कण

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द- अर्थ
अंबुज - कमल
अश्व - घोड़ा
अज - बकरा

Additional Information

  • हिंदी व्याकरण में अनेक प्रकार के ऐसे शब्द होते हैं जिन का उच्चारण एक समान होता है।
  • परंतु उनके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं, तो इसे युग्म शब्द कहते हैं।

उदाहरण -

शब्द- अर्थशब्द - अर्थ
अन्न-अनाजअन्य - दूसरा
कपि - बंदरकपी - घिरनी
गण - समूहगण्य - गिनने योग्य
जिला - मंडलजीला - चमक
चाष - नीलकंठचास - खेत की जुताई
186

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द दीर्घ संधि का सही उदाहरण नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    हिमालय

  2. ((b))

    सूक्ति

  3. ((c))

    सदैव

  4. ((d))

    वधूत्सव

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सदैव

सही उत्तर है - ‘सदैव’।

  • ‘सदा + एव’ की संधि से ‘सदैव’ शब्द बनेगा।
  • ‘सदैव’ शब्द में वृद्धि संधि है।

Key Points

  • सदैव= सदा + एव (आ+ए = ऐ)।
  • जब संधि करते समय जब अ, आ के साथ ए, ऐ हो तो 'ऐ' बनता है और जब अ, आ के साथ ओ, औ हो तो 'औ' बनता है, उसे वृद्धि संधि कहते हैं।

जैसे :

  • महा + ऐश्वर्य : महैश्वर्य
  • परम + औषध : परमौषध

Additional Information सन्धि :

  • दो या अधिक वर्णों के पास-पास आने के परिणामस्वरूप जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है उसे सन्धि कहते हैं।

मुख्य रूप से संधि के तीन प्रकार होते है:-

  • स्वर संधि
  • व्यंजन संधि
  • विसर्ग संधि
187

निम्नलिखित में से 'नियत' का अर्थ निश्चित है तो 'नीयत' का अर्थ ______ है I

  1. ((a))

    इच्छा

  2. ((b))

    नदी

  3. ((c))

    तूफान

  4. ((d))

    इच्छा, नदी एवं तूफान

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

इच्छा

दिए गए विकल्पों में से नीयत का सही अर्थ "इच्छा" है।

Key Points 

  • नियत का अर्थ -  निश्चित
  • नीयत का अर्थ - इच्छा

Additional Information

 

  • हिंदी व्याकरण में अनेक प्रकार के ऐसे शब्द होते हैं जिन का उच्चारण एक समान होता है।
  • परंतु उनके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं, तो इसे युग्म शब्द कहते हैं।

उदाहरण - 

शब्द- अर्थशब्द - अर्थ
अन्न-अनाजअन्य - दूसरा
कपि - बंदरकपी - घिरनी
गण - समूहगण्य - गिनने योग्य
जिला - मंडलजीला - चमक
चाष - नीलकंठचास - खेत की जुताई
188

निम्नलिखित में से मिश्र वाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    शायद आज वर्षा हो I

  2. ((b))

    ज्ञानी विनम्र स्वभाव के होते हैं।

  3. ((c))

    निरक्षर व्यक्ति पशु के समान है।

  4. ((d))

    जब सुबह हुई तब पक्षी चहक उठे।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

जब सुबह हुई तब पक्षी चहक उठे।

मिश्र वाक्य है - 'जब सुबह हुई तब पक्षी चहक उठे।

  • (यहाँ पर 'जब सुबह हुई’ यह उपवाक्य प्रधान है एवं ‘पक्षी चहक उठे’ यह आश्रित उपवाक्य योजक शब्द 'तब' से जुड़ा है।)
  • जिस वाक्य में एक प्रधान उपवाक्य तथा एक या एक से अधिक आश्रित उपवाक्य हों उसे मिश्रित वाक्य कहते हैं।
  • यह सभी आपस में कि, जो, की, इतना, उतना, इधर, उधर, कब, कितना, जब ,तब, जैसा, वैसा, वह, आदि, शब्दों से जुड़े होते हैं।

जैसे-

  • अमित ने वह घर खरीदा जो उसके चाचा का था।

Mistake Points 

  • साधारण वाक्य- शायद आज वर्षा हो I
  • साधारण वाक्य- ज्ञानी विनम्र स्वभाव के होते हैं।
  • साधारण वाक्य- निरक्षर व्यक्ति पशु के समान है।

Key Points संरचना के आधार पर वाक्य के तीन भेद होते हैं।

  1. साधारण वाक्य
  2. संयुक्त वाक्य
  3. मिश्रित वाक्य

Additional Information 

साधारण वाक्य:- - जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय हो उसे साधारण वाक्य कहते हैं। जैसे- - उसने अपने भाई का खाना खाया। संयुक्त वाक्य- - वह वाक्य जो दो या दो से अधिक स्वतंत्र साधारण वाक्यों या प्रधान उपवाक्यों के मेल से बना हो उसे संयुक्त वाक्य कहते हैं। - संयुक्त वाक्य में प्रयुक्त सभी वाक्य संयोजक शब्दों (और, एवं, तथा, या, अथवा, इसलिए, अतः, फिर भी, तो, नहीं तो, किन्तु, परन्तु, लेकिन, पर) से जुड़े हुए रहते हैं, - लेकिन यह कोई आवश्यक शर्त नहीं है, क्योंकि बिना संयोजक शब्दों के भी संयुक्त वाक्य हो सकता है। जैसे- - वह सुबह गया और शाम को लौट आया।
189

निम्नलिखित में से सरल वाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    यद्यपि वह धनी है तथापि घमंडी है।

  2. ((b))

    सुबह हुई इसलिए पक्षी चहक उठे।

  3. ((c))

    जो धैर्यवान होते हैं, वे सदा सुखी रहते हैं।

  4. ((d))

    पाँच बजे राजीव मेरे पास पहुँचा।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

पाँच बजे राजीव मेरे पास पहुँचा।

सरल वाक्य है - पाँच बजे राजीव मेरे पास पहुँचा।

  • (यहाँ एक ही उद्देश्य अर्थात कर्ता है जो कि 'राजीव' है एवं एक ही विधेय है जो की ‘मेरे पास पहुँचा’ है।)

सरल वाक्य:-

  • ऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं।

उदाहरण-

  • मीना नाचती है।
  • अमित खाना खाता है।

Key Points

  • यद्यपि वह धनी है तथापि घमंठी है। (मिश्र वाक्य)
  • सुबह हुई इसलिए पक्षी चहक उठे। (मिश्र वाक्य)
  • जो धैर्यवान होते हैं, वे सदा सुखी रहते हैं। (मिश्र वाक्य)

Additional Information

सयुंक्त वाक्य:- - ऐसा वाक्य जिसमे दो या दो से अधिक उपवाक्य हो एवं सभी उपवाक्य प्रधान हों, ऐसे वाक्य को सयुंक्त वाक्य कहते हैं। - पहचान के लिए- और, एवं, तथा, या, अथवा, इसलिए, अतः, फिर भी, तो, नहीं तो, किन्तु, परन्तु, लेकिन, पर आदि का प्रयोग करके जोड़ा जाता है। उदाहरण- - प्रिय बोलो पर असत्य नहीं। - मैं आया और वह गया। - मैंने बहुत परिश्रम किया फिर भी सफल नहीं हो सका। मिश्र वाक्य:- - ऐसे वाक्य जिनमें सरल वाक्य के साथ-साथ कोई दूसरा उपवाक्य भी हो, वे वाक्य मिश्र वाक्य कहलाते हैं। - पहचान के लिए- कि’; ‘जो’; ‘क्योंकि’; ‘जितना’; ‘उतना’; ‘जैसा’; ‘वैसा’; ‘जब’; ‘तब’; ‘जहाँ’; ‘वहाँ’; ‘जिधर’; ‘उधर’; ‘अगर/यदि’; ‘तो’; ‘यद्यपि’; ‘तथापि’; आदि का प्रयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण- - यदि परिश्रम करोगे तो उत्तीर्ण हो जाओगे। - मैं जानता हूँ कि तुम्हारे अक्षर अच्छे नहीं बनते। - यह वही भारत देश है जिसे पहले सोने की चिड़िया कहा जाता था।
190

नीचे दिए गए वाक्य में प्रयुक्त चिह्न निम्न में से कौन-सा है?

रामायण हमारे देश में अत्यंत लोकप्रिय है।

  1. ((a))

    अल्पविराम चिह्न

  2. ((b))

    अर्द्धविराम चिह्न

  3. ((c))

    तारक चिह्न

  4. ((d))

    लाघव चिह्न

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

तारक चिह्न

तारक चिह्न (∗)

Key Points

  • तारक चिह्न को * द्वारा दिखाते है इसीलिए विकल्प 3 सही होगा ।
  • इसे टीकासूचक चिह्न भी कहते है
  • ये चिह्न मुख्यतः पाद टिप्पणी के लिए लगाए जाते है।
  • ये चिन्ह फुट नोट अथवा पाद टिप्पणी देने के लिए लगाए जाते हैं। इन चिन्हों से संबंधित स्पष्टिकरण पृष्ठ के सबसे नीचे 'लिखा जाता है।

Additional Information

  • विराम चिन्ह के प्रकार:-
  • पूर्ण विराम चिह्न – (।)
  • अल्प विराम चिह्न – (,)
  • अर्द्ध विराम चिह्न – (;)
  • प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न – (?)
  • विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न – (!)
  • उद्धरण चिह्न – (” “)
  • योजक चिह्न – (-)
  • विवरण चिह्न – (:—)
  • हंस चिह्न– (^)
  • लाघव चिह्न – (°)
  • तुल्यतासूचक चिह्न – (=)
191

निम्नलिखित में से 'मैं खाना खा चुका था' - इस वाक्य में भूतकाल का भेद कौन-सा भेद हैं?

  1. ((a))

    हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल

  2. ((b))

    पूर्ण भूतकाल

  3. ((c))

    संदिग्ध भूतकाल

  4. ((d))

    सामान्य भूतकाल

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

पूर्ण भूतकाल

'मैं खाना खा चुका था|' वाक्य उदाहरण है - पूर्ण भूतकाल

  • क्रिया के जिस रूप से यह ज्ञात हो कि कार्य पहले ही पूरा हो चुका है, उसे पूर्ण भूतकाल कहते हैं।
  • पूर्ण भूतकाल में क्रिया के साथ ‘था, थी, थे, चुका था, चुकी थी, चुके थे आदि लगता है।

उदाहरण-

  • बारिश रुक गई थी।
  • सीमा खाना खा चुकी थी।​

Confusion Points

 

  • प्रश्न में चुका था कि जगह चूका हूँ का प्रयोग हुआ है ।
  • लेक���न भाव में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं है क्योंकि वाक्य से यही पता चल रहा है की निकट भूत में ही कार्य पूर्ण हो चुका है।

Key Points

सामान्य भूतकाल:- - क्रिया के जिस रूप से काम के सामान्य रूप से बीते समय में पूरा होने का बोध हो, उसे सामान्य भूतकाल कहते हैं। - जिन वाक्यों के अंत में आ, ई, ए, था, थी, थे आते हैं वे सामान्य भूतकाल होता है। उदाहरण- - वह कल यहाँ आया था। - रामू ने चित्र बनाया। संदिग्ध भूतकाल:- - भूतकाल की क्रिया के जिस रूप से उसके भूतकाल में पूरा होने में संदेह हो, उसे संदिग्ध भूतकाल कहते हैं। - जिन वाक्यों के अंत में गा, गे, गी आदि आते हैं वे संदिग्ध भूतकाल होते हैं। उदाहरण- - डॉक्टर ने दवाई दे दी होगी। - संगीता गाना गा चुकी होगी। आसन्न भूतकाल:- - क्रिया के जिस रूप से हमें यह पता चले की क्रिया अभी कुछ समय पहले ही पूर्ण हुई है उसे आसन्न भूतकाल कहते हैं - आसन्न भूतकाल की क्रिया में हूँ, हैं, है, हो लगता है। उदाहरण- - मैने केला खाया हैं। - मैं अभी ऑफिस से आया हूँ।
192

निम्नलिखित में से "स्वकीया" का विलोम शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    शोक

  2. ((b))

    विषाद

  3. ((c))

    सुराज

  4. ((d))

    परकीया

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

परकीया

सही उत्तर है - ‘परकीया’।

  • स्वकीया का विलोम परकीया होगा।
  • परकीया का अर्थ : अपने पति के सिवाय दूसरे पुरुष से भी प्रेम करने वाली स्त्री।
  • स्वकीया का अर्थ : वह विवाहिता स्त्री जो केवल अपने पति से प्रेम करती हो।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प:

  • शोक का का अर्थ : किसी आत्मीय की मृत्यु के कारण होने वाला दुख, मातम, पीड़ा, रंज।
  • विषाद का अर्थ है : दुःख, अवसाद, उदासी।
  • सुराज का अर्थ है : . स्वराज्य, अच्छा या सुखद राज्य।

Additional Information

  • किसी शब्द का विलोम शब्द उस शब्द के अर्थ से उल्टा या विपरीत अर्थ वाला होता है।
  • विलोम शब्द के उदाहरण:-
  • आय – व्यय
  • ऐसा – वैसा
  • कनीय – वरीय
  • गमन – आगमन
193

नीचे दी गई पंक्तियों में कौन-सा रस है?

"ह्वै हैं सिला सब चंद्रमुखी परसे पद - मंजुल - कंज तिहारे।

कीन्हीं भली रघुनायकजू करुना करि कानन को पगु धारे ॥"

  1. ((a))

    रौद्र रस

  2. ((b))

    शांत रस

  3. ((c))

    हास्य रस

  4. ((d))

    करुण रस

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

हास्य रस

दी गई पंक्तियों में "हास्य रस" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

पूर्ण पद कुछ इस प्रकार है - 

बिंध्य के बासी उदासी तपोब्रत धारी महा बिनु नारि दुखारे ।

गौतमतीय तरी, तुलसी, सो कथा सुनि भे मुनिबंद सुखारे ॥

ह्वै हैं सिला सब चंद्रमुखी परसे पद मंजुल कंज तिहारे ।

कीन्हीं भली रघुनायकजू करुना करि कानन को पगु धारे ॥

Key Points 

रसपरिभाषाउदाहरण
हास्य रसकिसी पदार्थ या व्यक्ति की असाधारण आकृति, वेशभूषा, चेष्टा आदि को देखकर हृदय में जो विनोद का भाव जाग्रत होता है, उसे हास कहा जाता है। यही हास जब विभाव, अनुभाव तथा संचारी भावों से पुष्ट हो जाता है तो उसे ‘हास्य रस’ कहते है।“नाना वाहन नाना वेषा। विंहसे सिव समाज निज देखा॥
कोउ मुखहीन, बिपुल मुख काहू बिन पद कर कोड बहु पदबाहू॥’

Additional Information

रस- रस एक प्रकार का आनन्‍द है, काव्‍य पढ़ने या नाटक देखने से जो विशेष प्रकार का आनन्‍द प्राप्‍त होता है। उसे रस कहा जाता है। हिन्‍दी में 'स्‍थायी भाव' के आधार पर काव्‍य में नौ रस बताये गए हैं, जो इस प्रकार हैं:-
क्रम संख्‍यारसस्‍थायी भाव
1.श्रृंगार रसरति
2.हास्‍य रसहास
3.करूण रसशोक
4.रौद्र रसक्रोध
5.वीर रसउत्‍साह
6.भयानक रसभय
7.वीभत्‍स रसजुगुप्‍सा
8.अद्भुत रसविस्‍मय
9.शांत रसनिर्वेद

इसके अलावा दो रस और माने जाते हैं। वे हैं- 

10.वात्सल्य रसवात्‍सल्‍य
11.भक्ति रसवैराग्‍य
194

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी रचना, रचनाकार "भास्कराचार्य" की नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    लीलावती

  2. ((b))

    जंगल के फूल

  3. ((c))

    करण कुतूहल

  4. ((d))

    सिद्धांत शिरोमणि

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

जंगल के फूल

रचना "भास्कराचार्य" की नहीं है - जंगल के फूल

Key Points

  • जंगल के फूल एक उपन्यास है।
  • लेखक - राजेन्द्र अवस्थी

Additional Information

रचनाकाररचना
भास्कराचार्यलीलावती, करण कुतूहल, सिद्धांत शिरोमणि
195

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "का वर्षा जब कृषि सुखाने" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. ((a))

    बहुत कठिन परिश्रम का थोड़ा लाभ

  2. ((b))

    दुष्ट अपनी दुष्टता नहीं छोड़ता

  3. ((c))

    अवसर चूक जाने के बाद सारे साधन बेकार

  4. ((d))

    हुक्म कुछ और करना कुछ और

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अवसर चूक जाने के बाद सारे साधन बेकार

  • लोकोक्ति-  'का वर्षा जब कृषि सुखाने'
  • अर्थ - अवसर चूक जाने के बाद सारे साधन बेकार

Key Points 

  • लोकोक्ति- जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है तो लोकोक्ति कहलाता है।
  • इसी को कहावत कहते है।

उदाहरण-

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
अपना रख पराया चखनिजी वस्तु की रक्षा एवं अन्य वस्तु का उपभोग।अपना रख पराया चख अब तो संजय की प्रकृति हो गई है।
ऐरा-गैरा नत्थू खैरामामूली आदमी।कोई 'ऐरा-गैरा नत्थू खैरा' महेश के ऑंफिस के अन्दर नहीं जा सकता।
करे कोई, भरे कोईअपराध कोई करे, दण्ड किसी और को मिले।चोरी रामू ने की और पकड़ा गया राजू। इसी को कहते हैं- 'करे कोई, भरे कोई'।
घर का भेदी लंका ढाएआपस की फूट से हानि होती है।तस्करी के सोने पर तीनों दोस्तों में झगड़ा हो गया। एक ने पुलिस को खबर दे दी और पुलिस सारे सोने समेत तीनों को पकड़ कर ले गई। सच है, घर का भेदी लंका ढाए।
196

निम्नलिखित में से शब्द-युग्म "अपकार - अपमान" के सही अर्थ भेद का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    अविलम्ब - तुरन्त

  2. ((b))

    अविरोध - मेल

  3. ((c))

    अभिहत - पुकारा गया

  4. ((d))

    बुराई - तिरस्कार

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

बुराई - तिरस्कार

"अपकार - अपमान" के सही अर्थ भेद - बुराई - तिरस्कार

Key Points

  • अपकार का अर्थ - बुराई
  • अपमान का अर्थ - तिरस्कार

Additional Information

  • हिंदी व्याकरण में अनेक प्रकार के ऐसे शब्द होते हैं जिन का उच्चारण एक समान होता है।
  • परंतु उनके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं, तो इसे युग्म शब्द कहते हैं।

उदाहरण -

शब्द- अर्थशब्द - अर्थ
अन्न-अनाजअन्य - दूसरा
कपि - बंदरकपी - घिरनी
गण - समूहगण्य - गिनने योग्य
जिला - मंडलजीला - चमक
चाष - नीलकंठचास - खेत की जुताई
197

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    बृटिश

  2. ((b))

    जाग्रती

  3. ((c))

    निमार्ण

  4. ((d))

    पुनर्स्थापना

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

पुनर्स्थापना

शुद्ध रुप (वर्तनी) है - 'पुनर्स्थापना'

  • पुनर्स्थापना- जो पहले अपने स्थान से हटाया गया हो उसे फिर से उसी स्थान पर रखना या स्थापित करना।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प वर्तनी की दृष्टि से गलत है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प 

  • बृटिश- ब्रिटिश
  • जाग्रती- जागृति
  • निमार्ण- निर्माण

​परिभाषा -

  • किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
  • वर्तनी का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।
  • यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध से शुद्ध शब्द:-

  • अशुद्ध - शुद्ध
  • परिशिष्ठ - परिशिष्ट
  • न्यौछावर - न्योछावर
  • दुरउपयोग - दुरुपयोग
  • तुष्टिकरण - तुष्टीकरण
  • ज्योत्सना - ज्योत्स्ना
  • ग्रहकार्य - गृहकार्य
198

निम्नलिखित में से तत्सम शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    छुरा

  2. ((b))

    आशिष

  3. ((c))

    सलाई

  4. ((d))

    हँसी

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

आशिष

उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में आशिष तत्सम शब्द है। 

  • ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के लिए जाते हैं, उन्हें ही तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं।
  • ​आशिष शब्द में विकृत आने से आशीष शब्द बना है।
  • आशिष शब्द तत्सम है वहीं असीस शब्द तद्भव है। ​

Key Points अन्य विकल्प - 

तत्समतद्भव
क्षुरिकाछुरा
शलाकासलाई
हास्यहँसी

Important Points कुछ अन्य महत्त्वपूर्ण तत्सम व तद्भव शब्दों के उदाहरण -

तत्समतद्भव
उच्छवासउसास
कृपाकिरपा
घृतघी
श्वसुरससुर
पक्कपका
नवनौ
कुक्षीकोख
यज्ञोपवीतजनेऊ
वाष्पभाप
पृष्ठपीठ

Additional Information 

  • ऐसे शब्द जो समय के साथ संस्कृत से विकृत हो कर हिंदी में प्रयोग किये जाते हैं उन्हें ही तद्भव शब्द कहते हैं।
  • तद्भव का अर्थ है तद् + भव अर्थात ‘ऐसा हो गया’। 
  • जैसे - आग, घोड़ा, कबूतर, लोहा।
  • ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के लिए जाते हैं, उन्हें ही तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं।
  • तत्सम का अर्थ है तत् + सम अर्थात ‘ऐसा था’। 
  • जैसे - वायु, धोनु, हरि, पत्र, राजा, अग्नि, सूर्य आदि।
199

विशेषण एवं विशेष्य के संबंध में विशेष्य शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    अर्थ

  2. ((b))

    अपराधी

  3. ((c))

    अज्ञानी

  4. ((d))

    अपमानित

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अर्थ

दिए गए विकल्पों के अनुसार अर्थ विशेष्य शब्द है l 

Key Points 

  • विशेषण शब्द जिस संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की विशेषता बताते है, उन्हें विशेष्य के नाम से जाना जाता हैl
  • जैसे- गहरा - विशेषण है ,सागर -विशेष्य कहलायेगा l

Additional Information 

विशेषणपरिभाषा
गुणवाचक विशेषणवे शब्द जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के गुण, धर्म, स्वाभाव आदि का बोध कराये। जैसे - बलशाली, पुराना, नया, तीक्ष्ण, कमजोर, मोटा, दुर्बल, पठारी आदि।
संख्यावाचक विशेषणऐसे शब्द जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की संख्या का बोध कराते हैं। जैसे - दो, तीनों, चार गुना, प्रत्येक आदि।
परिमाणवाचक विशेषणऐसे शब्द जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की मात्रा का बोध कराते हैं। जैसे - चार किलो, एक मीटर, दो लीटर, थोड़ा, बहुत आदि।
सार्वनामिक विशेषणवे सर्वनाम शब्द जो संज्ञा से पहले आयें और विशेषण की तरह उस संज्ञा शब्द की विशेषता बताएँ। जैसे - यह लड़की वही है जिसने मेरा पेन लिया था।

 

Important Points 

विशेषणजो शब्द संज्ञा या सर्वनाम शब्दों की विशेषता बताते हैं। जैसे – गोरा, काला, बूढ़ा, दो किलो, चार किलो, मीठा आदि।
विशेष्यजिसकी विशेषता बताई जाती है उसे विशेष्य कहते हैं। जैसे - खीरा (विशेष्य) कड़वा (विशेषण) है।
प्रविशेषणजिन शब्दों से विशेषण की विशेषता का पता चलता है। जैसे - यह आम बहुत मीठा है।
उद्देश्य विशेषणविशेष्य से पहले जो विशेषण लगते हैं। जैसे - सुंदर लड़की।
विधेय विशेषणजो विशेष्य संज्ञा और सर्वनाम आदि के बाद प्रयुक्त होते हैं। जैसे - ये फल मीठे हैं।
200

निम्नलिखित शब्द - समूहों में से कौन-सा विकल्प विदेशज शब्दों का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    पैसा, हलचल, बुलबुल

  2. ((b))

    ऑफिस, क्लर्क, गार्ड

  3. ((c))

    ठुमरी, पेट, लात

  4. ((d))

    कपास, लथपथ, चिड़िया

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ऑफिस, क्लर्क, गार्ड

सही उत्तर है - ‘ऑफिस, क्लर्क, गार्ड’।

  • ‘ऑफिस’ - अंग्रेजी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • ‘क्लर्क’ - अंग्रेजी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • गार्ड - अंग्रेजी भाषा का शब्द है।

Key Points 

  • ऐसे विदेशी शब्द जो विदेश से आए हैं लेकिन हिंदी भाषा में प्रयोग किए जाते हैं, वह विदेशज शब्द कहलाते हैं।

जैसे :- कॉलेज, डॉक्टर, किस्मत, किनारा, स्टेशन इत्यादि।​

Additional Information 

  • देशज शब्द :- वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति के मूल का पता न हो परन्तु वे प्रचलन में हों। ऐसे शब्द देशज शब्द कहलाते हैं।

जैसे- लोटा, कटोरा, डोंगा, डिबिया, खिचड़ी, खिड़की, पगड़ी, अंटा, चसक, चिड़िया, जूता, ठेठ इत्यादि।

  • तत्सम शब्द :- ऐसे शब्द जिन्हें बिना किसी परिवर्तन के संस्कृत से हिन्दी में शामिल कर लिया गए हों।

जैसे - आम्र, उष्ट्र, ऐश्वर्य, षष्ठी आदि।

  • संकर शब्द :- वे शब्द जो दो भाषाओं के शब्दों को मिलाकर बना लिए गए हो उन्हें संकर शब्द कहते है।

जो दो भिन्न-भिन्न भाषाओं के मेल से बने होते है।

जैसे- रेल + गाड़ी = रेलगाड़ी, इसमें रेल शब्द अंग्रेजी है जबकि गाड़ी शब्द हिन्दी है।

  • तद्भव शब्द :- ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से हिंदी में आने पर उनका रूप बदल गया।

जैसे - आग, खीर, छत आदि।

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