MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 03 Apr 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer of above Question is option 3.

Key Points Statement I) Human geography tries to explain how all aspects of human life relate to the area in which they take place.

This statement is appropriate. Human geography focuses on the spatial aspects of human populations, cultures, economies, and interactions with the environment.

Statement II) It establishes close ties with other sister social science fields in order to comprehend and clarify the human components of the earth's surface.

This statement is appropriate. Human geography is an interdisciplinary field that draws upon various social sciences, including anthropology, economics, political science, and sociology, to better understand the relationships between humans and their environments.

Statement  III) As a result, human geography does not presume to be extremely inter-disciplinary.

This statement is not appropriate. Contrary to this statement, human geography is indeed highly interdisciplinary, as it connects with various social science fields to study and understand the complexities of human-environment interactions.

∴ So the correct answer is Statement I and II both are correct.

The correct answer of above Question is option 2. 

Key PointsThe Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.

Initially five religious communities, viz., Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians (Parsis) were notified as minority communities by the Union Government. Further vide notification dated 27th January 2014, Jains were also notified as another minority community.

Union Government constituted National Commission for Minorities, New Delhi and State Government constituted State Minorities Commissions in their respective State Capitals. These organisations are set-up to safeguard and protect the interests of minorities as provided in the Constitution of India and laws enacted by the Parliament and the State Legislatures.

As per Section 3(2) of the NCM Act 1992, the Commission consists of:

-a Chairperson

-a Vice- Chairperson

-Five Members

Total of 7 persons to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst

persons of eminence, ability and integrity.

Each Member holds office for a period of three years from the date of assumption of

office.

The correct answer of above Question is Option 2.

Key Points

To encourage innovation across many industries, the Indian government has been encouraging technological inclusion.

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has introduced a blockchain-based online marketplace for coffee as a further measure to improve the effectiveness of the system.

For the creation of a marketplace application based on blockchain, the Coffee Board of India will collaborate with the Bengaluru-based digital commodities management platform Eka Software Solutions (Eka Plus).

The correct answer of above Question is option 4.

Key Points

• India's first gold medalist at the U-23 World Wrestling Championships is Aman Sehrawat.
• In the men's 57kg final, Aman Sehrawat defeated Turkey's Ahmet Duman to win gold. India won six medals in the 2022 competition.
• India placed sixth overall in the U-23 World Wrestling Championships 2022 with six medals—one gold, one silver, and four bronze.

Additional Information U23 World Wrestling Championships 2022: India’s medal winners

1 Sajan Bhanwala Bronze 77kg

2 Vikas Bronze  72kg

3 Nitesh Bronze 97kg

4 Ankush Silver Women's 50kg

5 Mansi Ahlawat Bronze Women's 59kg

6 Aman Sehrawat Gold Men's 57kg

The correct answer of above Question is option 1.

Key Points

• Statement (i) The Public Service Commission established for the first time in India had a chairman and 4 members.
• This statement is true. The Public Service Commission was established in 1926, following the recommendations of the Lee Commission. It was set up with a Chairman and four members.
• Statement (ii) Ross Braker was the first chairman of the Public Service Commission in India.
• This statement is true. Sir Ross Barker was the first chairman of the Federal Public Service Commission (FPSC) in India.

So the correct answer is Neither (i) nor (ii)

The correct answer of above Question is option 4. PV Sindhu

Key Points

The only player in the top 25 on Forbes' annual list of the highest-paid female athletes in the world is Indian badminton champion PV Sindhu.

The silver medalist at the 2016 Summer Olympics in Tokyo, Sindhu, is listed in position twelve.

Top of the list is Japanese tennis player Naomi Osaka. After winning a gold medal in singles and a silver medal in doubles at the Commonwealth Games earlier this year in Birmingham, the 27-year-old made 7 million US dollars from her earnings.

The correct answer is Stringed instruments.

Key Points

• Kamaicha/Kamayacha is a stringed instrument made of steel, parchment, gut, metal, shisham, and horsehair.

• A Ravan hatthha is an ancient bowed, stringed instrument.
• It is a bowed instrument with a round wooden fingerboard, penetrated through a halved coconut shell, and covered with skin.

Key Points 

Cyclical unemployment:

• Cyclical unemployment is the type of unemployment that occurs due to fluctuations in the business cycle or trade cycle of an economy.
• It is also known as demand-deficient unemployment.
• When the economy is in a recessionary phase, companies reduce production, and the demand for labour decreases, leading to cyclical unemployment.
• When the economy recovers, companies increase production, and the demand for labour increases, leading to a decrease in cyclical unemployment.

The correct answer is "unemployment during recessionary phase of a trade cycle."

Additional Information

Disguised unemployment:

• Disguised unemployment refers to a situation in which more people are employed in a job than required.
• In such cases, removing some workers from the job would not affect the overall production.
• It often occurs in the agriculture sector, where a large number of workers are employed on a small piece of land, and removing some workers will not affect the total output.

Voluntary unemployment occurs when individuals choose not to work despite being able and willing to do so. It can occur due to various reasons, such as personal choices, lack of motivation, or inability to find suitable work.

Seasonal unemployment occurs when individuals are unemployed during a particular season. It is commonly found in industries that are dependent on seasonal demand, such as tourism, agriculture, and construction.

The correct answer of above Question is option 1.

Key Points

The World Bank is an international organization dedicated to providing financing, advice, and research to developing nations to aid their economic advancement. The International Bank of Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a development bank administered by the World Bank.

The IBRD offers financial products and policy advice to countries aiming to reduce poverty and promote sustainable development.

The International Bank of Reconstruction and Development is a cooperative owned by 189 member countries.

Additional Information

The World Trade Organisation was established on 1 January 1995. Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland. It has 164 members representing 98 per cent of world trade. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).Out of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).

G20: The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union. It works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.

The correct answer of above Question is Option 4. Dynamism

Key Points

• Ellen Churchill Semple defined human geography as the “study of changing relationship between the unresting man and the unstable earth”. Elseworth Huntington defined human geography as the “study of the nature and distribution of the relationships between geographical environment and human activities and qualities.”
• The crucial phrase in Ellen Churchill Semple's concept of human geography is "man as the dynamic agent in the interaction." Semple, an American geographer, emphasized the role of humans in shaping their environment and the reciprocal relationship between people and their surroundings.

The correct answer is McLaughlin - Levrone & Mondo Duplantis.

Key Points

• World champion American hurdler Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone and Swedish pole vaulter Mondo Duplantis won the World Athlete of the Year awards.
• McLaughlin-Levrone broke the world women’s 400m hurdles record twice while Duplantis set three new world highs this year.
• World Athletics also named Adriana Vilago of Serbia and American Erriyon Knighton their Rising Star of the Year winners. In 2022, Vilagoš recorded 15 top-three finishes in 16 javelin competitions.
• She won silver at the multi-sport European Championships in Munich, and gold medals at the Mediterrean Games and World U20 Championships.

The correct answer is 15 October.

Key Points 

• October 15 is celebrated as the International Day of Rural women across the world.
• Aim: to promote gender quality & highlight the important role played by women in rural areas.
• Established in: 2007 by the UN.
• As per a UN report, approximately 40% of the total agricultural labour force in developing countries comprises women.
• 2022 Theme: “Rural Women Cultivating Good Food for All”.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points 

• The Meghalaya Government in partnership with startup TechEagle has unveiled Asia's first drone delivery hub & network.
• It is aimed at providing universal access to healthcare for netizens.
• It will be delivering vital supplies like drugs, diagnostic samples, vaccines, blood, and blood components.
• The first official drone flight took off from Jengjal Sub Divisional Hospital.

Important Points 

• TechEagle’s Vertiplane X3 Drone delivered different healthcare products on its first flight which was five times faster in comparison to ground transportation.
• Meghalaya Drone Delivery Network (MDDN) and hub in Phase 1 is a combination of one central hub and 25 spokes (supply chain nodes) in a radius of 50 kilometers.
• TechEagle’s drones are capable of vertical takeoff and landing from small areas which enable both forward and reverse logistics of healthcare products in the network.

The correct answer is Arundhati Roy.

Key Points 

• Arundhati Roy is the author of the book 'The God of Small Things'.
• Roy's debut novel, it is a story about the childhood experiences of fraternal twins whose lives are destroyed by the "Love Laws" prevalent in 1960s Kerala, India.
• The novel explores how small, seemingly insignificant things shape people's behavior and their lives.
• The novel also explores the lingering effects of casteism in India.
• It won the Booker Prize in 1997.

Additional Information 

• Karan Thapar
• He was associated with CNN-IBN and hosted 'The Devil's Advocate' and 'The Last Word'. In December 2013, Karan Thapar received the International Press Institute-India Award for excellence in the field of journalism.
• Jhumpa Lahiri 
• The full name of author Jhumpa Lahiri is Jhumpa Nilanjana Sudeshna Lahiri. Jhumpa Lahiri was born in 1967 in London.
• Her first novel was the 'Namesake' published in 2003.   
  

She won Pulitzer Prize for her debut short story collection ‘Interpreter of Maldives’ in 1999.

• Arvind Adiga
• The novel, White Tiger, won the Man Booker Prize in the year 2008.
• It was the debut novel of Arvind Adiga.
• Other notable writings of Arvind Adiga are the Last Man in Tower, Between the Assassinations and Selection Day.

The correct answer is Kathakali.

Key Points

• Kathakali​ 
• The literal meaning of the word Kathakali is Story-Play.
• Kathakali is based on the epics of Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• It is a classical dance related to Kerala.
• In this dance, there are nine facial expressions called Navarasas.

Additional Information

• Kathak:
• ​The term Kathak is derived from Katha which means Story.
• The Kathaks were originally a caste of storytellers in the temple of north India, who embellished their performances with gestures and songs.
• Kathak began evolving into a distinct mode of dance in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries with the spread of the bhakti movement.
• The legends of Radha Krishna were enacted in folk plays called Rasa Lila, which combined folk dance with the basic gestures of the Kathak storytellers.
• Manipuri 
• The Manipuri Dance, also referred to as the Manipuri Raas Leela (Meitei: Jagoi Raas, Raas Jagoi), is one of the eight major Indian classical dance forms, originating from the state of Manipur.
• Lai Haraoba is the earliest form of dance in Manipur, and it forms the basis of all such dances.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

• Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire in 322 BCE when he conquered the kingdom of Magadha and the northwestern Macedonian satrapies.
• Maurya Empire was founded in 322 BCE by Chandragupta Maurya, who had overthrown the Nanda Dynasty and rapidly expanded his power westward across central and western India in order to take advantage of the disruptions of local powers in the wake of the withdrawal by Alexander the Great‘s armies.
• According to legend, the teacher Chanakya convinced his disciple, Chandragupta Maurya, to conquer the kingdom of Magadha (the Nanda Empire) when he was insulted by its king Dhana Nanda.
• Chandragupta Maurya expanded the Maurya Empire north and west as he conquered the Macedonian Satrapies and won the Seleucid-Mauryan war.

Additional Information

• According to several legends, Chanakya traveled to Magadha, a kingdom that was large and militarily powerful and feared by its neighbors but was insulted by its king Dhana Nanda, of the Nanda Dynasty.
• Chanakya swore revenge and vowed to destroy the Nanda Empire.
• Maurya devised a strategy to invade Pataliputra, the capital of the Nanda Empire.
• A battle was announced and the Magadhan army was drawn from the city to a distant battlefield in order to engage Maurya’s forces.

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

• India became a Republic on Jan. 26, 1950
• On this day the Constitution of India came into effect, replacing the Government of India Act (1935), which made India a Republic.

Additional Information 

• The main source of the Indian Constitution is the Government of India Act 1935.
• The Constitution of 1950 was a by-product of the legacy started by the Government of India Act 1935.
• The government of India Act of 1935 abolished the system of provincial dyarchy and established dyarchy at the center.
• It also established a Federation of India consisting of the provinces of British India and most of the princely states.
• Indian Constitution came into existence on 26th November 1949.
• The Constituent Assembly of 299 members drafted the constitution considering features of constitutions of the other countries as well as from the Government of India Act 1935.

The correct answer is Milkha Singh.

Key Points

• Milkha Singh, known as the Flying Sikh, was born on October 17, 1935, in Lyallpur [now Faisalabad], Pakistan), Indian track-and-field athlete who became the first Indian male to reach the final of an Olympic athletics event when he placed fourth in the 400-meter race at the 1960 Olympic Games in Rome.
• Milkha Singh is known as "The Flying Sikh". This nickname he acquired from General Ayub Khan of Pakistan after defeating Abdul Khaliq in Pakistan in 1960.
• Milkha Singh is the first person from India to win a Gold medal in Individual athletics at Commonwealth Games. He also won two gold medals in the Asian Games in 1958 and 1962.
• He has represented India in the three Summer Olympics such as the one in 1956 at Melbourne respectively in 1960 at Rome and in 1964 at Tokyo.
• The Indian government has honored him by awarding the fourth-highest civilian award Padma Shri for his achievements in sports.

The correct answer is Sangeeta sampradaya Pradarshini.

Key Points

• The Sangeeta Sampradaya Pradarsini, written by Subbarama Dikshithar in the year 1904, serves as an authority for information regarding the music, musicians, and composers of the previous centuries.
• Many of the musicians and composers of the South were closely acquainted with the Hindustani system of music also and wherever permissible, adopted Hindustani ragas for their compositions.
• The ragas Yaman Kalyan, Hamir Kalyan, Malkaunsa, Brindavani Sarang, Jaijaivanti, etc. were adopted in their compositions by the Musical Trinity.
• Raga Kaphi, Kanada, Khamaj, Paraj, Purvi, Bhairav, etc.

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

• Abhinaya can be divided into four, according to the Natya Shastra.
• Expression of the limbs.
• Angika Abhinaya denotes the movements of angas like head, hands, waist, and face. Pratyangas like shoulders, shoulders arms, thighs, knees, and elbows, and upangas like eyes, eyelids, cheeks, nose, lips, and teeth. ​
• Expression of speech.
• Speech is used in drama and also in music when the singer expresses emotion through his or her singing. In the Kuchipudi and Melattur styles of Indian classical dance, the dancers often mouth the words of the songs.​
• Costume and scene.
• Another means of representation of the play is indeed the costumes and physical decorations of the actors and the theatre. In dramas and dance dramas, costume and making are distinguished by the sex, race, sect or class, or social position of the characters, giving the production of the presentation some semblance of reality​
• True expression
• Sāttvika Abhinaya is the mental message, emotion or image communicated with the audience through the performer's own inner emotions. ​

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in an active voice form, hence we need to convert it into a passive voice form.
• We need to follow these instructions while changing the voice of a sentence.
• The subject (we) and object (two copies) of the sentence and exchange their places.
• The objective form of "we" is "us". So, "us" will be the object in Passive form.
• The given sentence is in Simple future tense.
• The structure of passive form for future indefinite sentence is:  Object (subjective form) + will/shall + be + V3 + by + subject (objective form).
• So, 'will buy' changes into 'will be bought'.
• Following this structure, we get option 2 as the correct answer.

Correct Passive Voice: **Two copies of this magazine will be bought by us.**​

The correct answer is "was trampled".

Key Points

• The segment in the sentence that contains the grammatical error is "was trampled".
• As per the rule of subject-verb agreement, singular subject requires singular verb and plural subject requires plural verb.
• The subject of the given sentence "hundred people" is plural, so it requires a plural verb form "were" instead of the singular verb form "was".
• Therefore, the answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: "More than a hundred people were trampled in the stampede today."

The correct answer is "by the sweat of his brow".

Key Points

• The sentence emphasizes the effort, perseverance, and possibly the agricultural knowledge the father employed to make the land productive and turn it into a flourishing farm.
• Let us look at the meanings of all the options:
• "By the sweat of his brow": To achieve something through hard work or physical labor.
• Example: John built his entire business empire by the sweat of his brow, working 16-hour days for years.
• "Saved by the bell": Rescued from an unpleasant or difficult situation just in time.
• Example: The teacher was about to ask me a question I didn't know the answer to, but the bell rang, and I was saved by the bell.
• "By the back door": To achieve something in a secretive or indirect manner, often by avoiding the usual methods or rules.
• Example: She got into the exclusive club by the back door, thanks to her influential friend.
• "By the gross": In large quantities, usually in reference to purchasing or selling items.
• Example: We saved money on our wedding by purchasing decorations by the gross.
• From the meanings of all the idioms, it is clear that that idiom that fits the blank is "by the sweat of his brow".
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is "ECADB".

Key Points

• The sentence 'E' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information The highway to Bibipur. This sentence sets the scene by describing the location and the presence of paddy fields along the highway to Bibipur.
• Sentence C provides a description of the current state of some rice stalks in the paddy fields, indicating that they are not yet ready for harvest.
• In contrast to the previous sentence, sentence A describes the other rice stalks that have reached the stage of being ready for harvest.
• Sentence D explains that the harvesting process in Patiala is not yet happening, as evidenced by the fires mentioned, likely referring to the practice of burning fields to clear them for the next crop.
• Finally, sentence B contrasts the situation in Patiala with that of Amritsar, where the fields have already been harvested due to the earlier receding of monsoon winds. This comparison highlights the different stages of crop development and harvesting in these two locations.
• Therefore, option 2 is correct.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: (E)The highway to Bibipur, a hamlet about 50 km from Patiala town, cuts through acres of paddy. (C) Some of the rice stalks are still a couple of feet high and green. (A) But others have taken on the distinctive yellow of straw that is ready to be harvested. (D) About 200 km northwest of Patiala, in Amritsar — from where the monsoon winds recede earlier - the fields have already been harvested and readied for the winter crop. (B) In Patiala, this step is still some time away, as the fires attest.

The correct answer is "Jejune".

Key Points

• "Juvenile" refers to something related to young people, particularly those who are not yet adults, or to the early stages of development in animals or plants.
• Example: Juvenile literature often focuses on themes and experiences that are relatable to children and young adults.
• Let us look at the meanings of the given options:
• Jejune: Lacking interest, significance, or substance; immature or superficial.
• Example: The movie's jejune plot failed to hold the audience's attention.
• Progeny: A descendant or the offspring of a person, animal, or plant; the outcome or result of a particular situation or action.
• Example: The famous artist's progeny followed in her footsteps, becoming successful painters themselves.
• Offspring: The child or children of a person, animal, or plant; the product or result of something.
• Example: The lioness fiercely protected her offspring from any threats in the savannah.
• Justice: The quality of being just, impartial, or fair; the administration of the law or authority in maintaining this.
• Example: The judge sought to ensure justice was served in every case he presided over.
• From the above meanings of the words, it is clear that "jejune" is the word most similar to "juvenile" as it also implies immaturity.
• Therefore, option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is "SRQP".

Key Points

• After smoke is mentioned in S1, it is logical to mention the consequences of the fire, which is the flames breaking out (S).
• Once the flames are visible, it makes sense that everyone becomes aware of the fire (R).
• The passage should then describe how the fire intensifies (Q) due to the rising gale.
• After realizing the danger and observing the intensifying fire, passengers are instructed to prepare to leave the ship (P).
• Finally, S6 concludes the passage with a description of how people reacted to the situation.
• Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Complete paragraph after rearrangement: S1. Smoke oozed up between the planks. (S). Flames broke out here and there. (R). Every one now knew there was a fire on board. (Q). The rising gale fanned the smoldering fire. (P). Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship. S6. Most people bore the shock bravely.

The correct answer is "Regimens".

Key Points

• The context of the sentence tells us that people with different dietary restrictions and food sensitivities are now much better accepted in the US.
• Let us look at the meanings of all the options:
• Prefer: To like (one thing or person) better than another or others; tend to choose.
• Example: I prefer coffee to tea.
• Regiments: A military unit consisting of a variable number of combat battalions or squadrons.
• Example: The army sent several regiments to protect the border.
• Regimens: A prescribed course of medical treatment, way of life, or diet for the promotion or restoration of health.
• Example: The doctor suggested a strict exercise regimen to improve her overall health.
• Habitual: Done or doing constantly or as a habit.
• Example: He was fired from his job due to his habitual tardiness.
• According to the context of the sentence, the most appropriate word that fits the blank is "Regimens".
• Therefore, option 3 is correct.

Complete sentence: The US has become far more accommodating to people with all kinds of food sensitivities and diet regimens.

• "Prefer" translates to "पसंद करना"
• "Regiments" translates to "रेजिमेंट" which refers to military units.
• "Regimens" translates to "दिनचर्या" which refers to a regulated plan or a set of rules often related to diet, exercise, or medical treatment.
• "Habitual" translates to "आदती" which means something done constantly or as a habit.

The correct answer is "Generate".

Key Points

• The context of the sentence tells us that India continues to produce more electronic waste than China, the United States, Japan, and Germany combined.
• Let's look at the meanings of all the given options:
• Recycling refers to the process of converting waste materials into new products to prevent the waste of potentially useful materials, reduce the consumption of fresh raw materials, and minimize energy usage and pollution. Although it's an important aspect of waste management, it doesn't fit the context of the sentence.
• Example: Many cities around the world have implemented recycling programs to reduce landfill waste.
• Efficient means performing or functioning in the best possible manner with the least waste of time and effort. This is an adjective and doesn't fit in the sentence structure as we need a verb to complete the sentence.
• Example: The company's new software is more efficient than the previous version, saving both time and resources.
• Generate means to produce or create something, usually as a result of a process, reaction, or operation. In this context, it implies that India is producing the highest amount of e-waste, which is the intended meaning.
• Example: The power plant generates electricity for the surrounding communities.
• Produced: Although this word has a similar meaning to "generate," it doesn't fit grammatically in the sentence structure. The sentence needs a present tense verb, and "produced" is in the past tense.
• Example: The factory produced thousands of cars last year.
• Hence the correct word to be filled in the blank is "generate".

Complete sentence: "India continues to generate the highest amount of e-waste, more than China, the U.S., Japan, and Germany."

The correct answer is "thoroughly".

Key Points

• The context of the sentence tells us that the guys were worn out, but not too worn out when they examined the small hut.
• Let's look at the meanings of all the given options:
• Thoroughly means in a comprehensive, exhaustive, or detailed manner. ( विस्तृत और संपूर्ण तरीके से) In this context, it implies that the boys were tired but still had enough energy to examine the little hut in a detailed manner. ()
• Example: The detective thoroughly searched the crime scene for evidence.
• Ingeniously means in a clever, original, or inventive manner. (बहुत बुद्धिमान और कुशल) This word doesn't fit the context of the sentence, as it suggests a creative or clever approach rather than a detailed examination.
• Example: The inventor ingeniously designed a new type of eco-friendly vehicle.
• Deeply means in a profound or intense manner. (तीव्र ढंग से) While it can sometimes be used to indicate thoroughness, in this context, it doesn't fit as well as "thoroughly," which more clearly conveys the idea of a detailed examination.
• Example: She was deeply moved by the touching story.
• Intense means having or showing strong feelings, thoughts, or sensations. (प्रबल भावनाएँ, विचार या संवेदनाएँ होना या प्रदर्शित होना) This adjective does not fit the sentence structure, as we need an adverb to describe the manner in which the boys examined the hut.
• Example: The athlete's intense focus helped him achieve victory.
• Hence, the correct word to be filled in the blank is "thoroughly".

Complete sentence: The boys were tired, but not too tired to examine the little hut thoroughly.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The error lies in part "he had tasted such food" of the sentence. This part has an error in the sentence structure.
• The given sentence is an inverted sentence because it begins with a negative adverb.
• So, the auxiliary verb "had" should be placed before the subject "he" to maintain proper sentence structure in an inverted construction.
• Hence, "he had tasted such food" should be replaced with "had he tasted such food".
• Therefore, option 1 is correct.

Correct sentence: Never before in his life, Terrence declared, had he tasted such food as this.

The correct answer is "at a rapid pace".

Key Points

• The idiom "by leaps and bounds" is used to describe rapid progress or advancement. It signifies making significant strides or achieving substantial growth in a short period of time. It implies that the progress is happening quickly and in large increments, rather than gradually or steadily.
• Example: The startup company's revenue is increasing by leaps and bounds.
• Let us look at the meanings of all the options:
• "At a desired pace" suggests that the Indian industry is progressing according to the pace that is desired or expected. However, it does not capture the idea of rapid progress or advancement that is conveyed by the idiom/phrase "by leaps and bounds." Therefore, this option does not best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
• "At a rapid pace" conveys the idea of the Indian industry progressing quickly and making significant advancements. "By leaps and bounds" means making rapid progress or advancing quickly, and this option aligns with that meaning. It is the best choice that expresses the intended meaning of the idiom/phrase in the sentence.
• "Leisurely" suggests that the Indian industry is progressing at a relaxed or unhurried pace. It is the opposite of the idiom/phrase "by leaps and bounds," which conveys the idea of fast and significant progress. Therefore, this option does not accurately express the intended meaning of the idiom/phrase.
• "Intermittently" indicates that the progress of the Indian industry is happening in a sporadic or irregular manner, with breaks or pauses in between. This meaning does not align with the idiom/phrase "by leaps and bounds," which conveys consistent and rapid progress. Hence, this option does not best express the intended meaning of the idiom/phrase.
• Therefore, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is "PRQS".

Key Points

• The most logical sequence for the given sentences is: "PRQS".
• S1: You live either in a village or a town of India.
• P: Many villages and towns form a tehsil or a taluka.
• R: Many tehsils of talukas form a district and many districts form a State.
• Q: There are also some areas in our country called Union Territories.
• S: These, together with all the states of our country make India.
• S6: India is our motherland.
• In this sequence: S1 introduces the topic by stating that individuals live in either a village or a town in India. (P) provides additional information by explaining that many villages and towns form a tehsil or taluka. (R) expands on the previous sentence by stating that many tehsils or talukas form a district, and many districts form a State. (Q) introduces the concept of Union Territories, which are separate areas in the country. (S) connects all the information by highlighting that these various units, including the states and Union Territories, together make India. S6 concludes the passage by emphasizing that India is our motherland.
• Therefore, option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is "Solid".

Key Points

• Hollow means having a space or cavity inside; empty or void; without substance.
• Example: The old tree trunk had a hollow center where birds nested.
• Let us look at meanings of all the words:
• Narrow refers to something that has a small width or is not wide. 
• Example: The narrow path through the forest could only fit one person at a time.
• Shallow describes something that has a small depth or is not deep.
• Example: The pond was shallow enough for children to wade in comfortably.
• Solid represents something that is not empty, has substance, or is not hollow.
• Example: The foundation of the building was constructed with solid concrete.
• Vacant means empty, unoccupied, or not filled.
• Example: The sign in front of the house read 'For Rent' indicating that the property was vacant.​
• From the meanings of all the words, it is clear that the correct antonym of "Hollow" is "Solid".
• Hence, option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is "I could see nothing at this hour of the detail of the mass."

Key Points

• The given sentence is in passive voice and the contains a modal verb; i.e. 'could'.
• Modals are special verbs that are different from normal verbs. They are never used alone and are always followed by a principal verb. They provide additional information about the principal verb. They are used to express certainty, possibility, willingness, obligation, necessity, and ability.
• The structure in active and passive voice for such sentences is mentioned below:
• Passive structure: Sub (receiver of the action) + modal verb + be  + V3 + by + object (performer of the action).
• Active structure: Sub (performer of the action) + modal verb + V1 + object (receiver of the action)
• ​To change the given sentence into active voice,
• ​Start the sentence with the performer of the action 'I'.
• If there are no performer mentioned in the sentence we can assume as per our convenience or as the context hints.
• After that 'could + see (V1)' will be placed.
• On following the above steps, we get the required active form of the sentence:
• I could see nothing at this hour of the detail of the mass.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3).

Additional Information

• When the subject of a sentence performs the verb’s action, we say that the sentence is in the active voice.
• When the subject is acted on by the verb (in other words; receives the action of the verb), the sentence is in passive voice.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points 

• When changing the sentence from direct speech to indirect speech, we need to make several adjustments, including changes in pronouns, verb tenses, and reporting verbs.
• Let's us look at the process step by step:
• Identify the reporting verb: In this case, the reporting verb is "exclaimed."
• Convert the reporting verb to past tense: Since the original sentence is in the past tense, we keep the reporting verb in the past tense as well. Therefore, "exclaimed" remains unchanged.
• Change the pronouns: The pronouns in the reported speech need to be adjusted according to the perspective of the reporting speaker. In this case, the pronoun "she" will remain unchanged because the speaker reporting the statement is referring to the same person. However, the pronouns in the reported statement need to be changed. "I" becomes "she," and "we" becomes "they."
• Adjust verb tense: Since the original sentence is in Simple present tense, we need to change it to the Simple past tense in the reported speech. Therefore, "am" becomes "was."
• Remove quotation marks and exclamation mark: In Indirect speech, we do not use quotation marks or exclamation marks to enclose the reported statement.
• Putting it all together, the sentence in indirect speech becomes: "She exclaimed that she was afraid they were rather late."
• Therefore, option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• To transform the given sentence from direct to indirect speech, we need to apply specific rules of transformation.
• The given sentence is a polite request in the form of a question.
• Here are the rules of transformation applied to the given sentence, along with the reasons behind each rule:
• Reporting verb: Change the reporting verb "said" to "requested" because the original sentence is a polite request, not a simple statement. Using "requested" conveys the context of the original statement more accurately.
• Pronoun change: Replace the second person pronoun "you" with the third person pronoun "her" to match the perspective of the speaker (Karen). This adjustment maintains the consistency of the narrative perspective.
• Question to statement: Convert the question in direct speech to a statement in indirect speech. Remove the question mark and restructure the sentence accordingly. This change is necessary because indirect speech typically uses statement structures rather than question formats.
• Infinitive verb form: Use the infinitive form of the main verb (take off) after "to" in the request. This form is commonly used in indirect speech when reporting requests.
• Applying these rules, the transformed sentence in indirect speech is: "Karen requested Annalise to take off her slippers before entering the temple."
• Therefore option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is "QPSR".

Key Points

• The most logical sequence for the passage is: S1 - Q - P - S - R - S6.
• To find the most logical sequence of the sentences, we need to identify the flow of ideas and the connections between the sentences.
• S1. When Weiner was travelling in India, he visited a factory where he saw small frail children sitting on damp ground.
• This sentence sets the scene for the passage. It describes Weiner's observation in the factory.
• Q: So he asked“, "What are they doing there?"
• After Weiner observed the children, it makes sense that he would ask about their activities in the factory.
• P: And the answer he got was that they were weaving carpets there.
• This sentence provides the answer to Weiner's question in the previous sentence, connecting the two.
• S: Weiner was shocked at the plight of the child workers.
• Upon learning about the children's work, Weiner's reaction of shock is a logical follow-up.
• R: And then he decided to study the problems of child labourers in India.
• After being shocked by the children's plight, Weiner's decision to study child labor issues in India is a natural progression of the narrative.
• S6. Recently he has published this book and it is winning him acclaim all over the world.
• This sentence concludes the passage by mentioning the outcome of Weiner's research.
• Hence, option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• To change the given sentence from direct to indirect speech, we need to apply the rules of transformation while maintaining the original meaning of the sentence.
• Here are the rules of transformation and the reasons behind each rule applied to the given sentence:
• Reporting verb: Keep the reporting verb "said" as it is since the original sentence is a simple statement. The reporting verb helps connect the reporting clause with the reported clause.
• Add conjunction: Introduce the conjunction "that" after the reporting verb to connect the reporting clause with the reported clause. This is necessary to create a cohesive sentence in indirect speech.
• Pronoun change: Replace the first person pronoun "I" with the third person pronoun "he" to match the perspective of the speaker (the servant). This adjustment is important for maintaining the consistency of the narrative perspective.
• Tense change: In this case, there is no need to change the tense because the reported event is still valid at the time of reporting. The original verb "met" in Simple Past and "was coming" in Past Continuous can remain unchanged.
• Applying these rules, the transformed sentence in indirect speech is: "The servant said that he met Ramesh when he was coming from the market."
• Therefore, option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is "CDBEA".

Key Points

• To rearrange the jumbled sentences into a meaningful paragraph, we need to identify the flow of ideas and connections between the sentences.
• Here's the logical sequence of the sentences and the reasons for the rearrangement:
• C. In sport, greatness is seldom achieved alone.
• This sentence serves as the introduction to the main idea of the paragraph, which is that greatness in sports is not achieved in isolation.
• D. For greatness’s ultimate stamp of approval lies in the overcoming of the thrilling challenges provided by a worthy opponent.
• This sentence follows sentence C by elaborating on the idea that greatness is validated by facing challenges from strong opponents.
• B. For greatness cannot exist in a vacuum, so to say.
• This sentence further emphasizes the idea introduced in sentences C and D, stating that greatness cannot be achieved without competition or challenges from others.
• E. It is accomplished when the owner of the tag stands up to gladiatorial challenges from men and women who themselves are seeking the surname Great.
• This sentence provides more detail on how greatness is achieved, describing the competitive nature of sports and the determination of athletes seeking greatness.
• A. One man’s claim to lasting reputation depends on the other.
• This concluding sentence ties everything together by summarizing the main idea of the paragraph: the achievement of greatness and lasting reputation in sports depends on the challenges and competition provided by other athletes.
• The rearranged paragraph creates a logical flow of ideas, discussing the concept of greatness in sports and how it's closely tied to overcoming challenges posed by worthy opponents.
• Hence, option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is option 4. 

Key Points

• To transform the given sentence from active to passive voice, we need to apply the rules of transformation while maintaining the original meaning of the sentence.
• Here are the rules of transformation for changing the sentence into passive voice and the reasons behind each rule:
• Subject and Object: Switch the positions of the subject and the object in the sentence. The subject "she" becomes the agent, and the object "some things" becomes the new subject. This is done to emphasize the action's receiver (some things) rather than the doer (she).
• Auxiliary Verb: Introduce the appropriate form of the auxiliary verb "to be" in the sentence. In this case, the original verb "exaggerated" is in the Simple Past tense, so the corresponding form of "to be" is "were". The auxiliary verb is necessary to form the passive voice structure.
• Past Participle: Change the main verb into its past participle form. The past participle of "exaggerate" is "exaggerated." The past participle form is used in passive voice structures to show that the action has been performed on the subject.
• Preposition "by": Add the preposition "by" before the agent "her" to indicate who performed the action. The preposition "by" is used to connect the agent with the action in passive voice sentences.
• Applying these rules, the transformed sentence in passive voice is: "Some things were exaggerated by her."
• Therefore option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is "Win more money than is held by the bank".

Key Points

• The idiom "break the bank" means to spend a large amount of money, often more than one can afford, or to win more money than a bank (in a gambling context) can pay out (जुए में बहुत पैसा जीतना).
• Example: John wanted to surprise his wife with a luxurious vacation, but he didn't want to break the bank, so he looked for affordable deals.
• In this case, the correct option is "Win more money than is held by the bank".
• Although this option focuses on the gambling context, it is the closest to the meaning of the idiom among the given choices.
• It's important to note that "break the bank" can also be used in non-gambling contexts, as mentioned earlier.
• Therefore the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "Powerless".

Key Points

• Invincible: Incapable of being defeated, overcome, or subdued; unbeatable.
• Example: The team's star player seemed invincible, leading them to victory after victory throughout the season.
• Let us look at the meanings of all the words:
• Powerless: Lacking the ability, influence, or authority to control, change, or affect something.
• Example: After the storm knocked out the power, the city was left powerless and in darkness.
• Potent: Possessing great strength, influence, or effectiveness.
• Example: The new medication was quite potent, and it quickly relieved the patient's symptoms.
• Impregnable: Impossible to capture or break into; unable to be overcome or defeated.
• Example: The castle was built on a high cliff, making it virtually impregnable to invaders.
• Omnipresent: Present everywhere simultaneously; constantly encountered or widespread.
• Example: With the rapid spread of smartphones, the internet has become nearly omnipresent in daily life.
• From the meanings of all the words, it is clear that the correct antonym of "Invincible" is "Powerless".
• Therefore option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is option 4. 

Key Points

• The correct sequence for the sentences is "SPRQ".
• Here is the rearranged paragraph with reasons for the rearrangement:
• S1. Kabir knew that Ramananda got up very early in the morning and went down on the steps of the 'ghat' to bathe in the waters of the sacred Ganges.
• S. One dark night, Kabir went to the 'ghat' and lay down on one of the river steps.
• Sentence S logically follows S1, as it describes Kabir's action based on his knowledge of Ramananda's routine.
• P. As Ramananda came down the steps before daybreak for his usual bath, he trod on the sleeping man.
• Sentence P describes the incident that occurred when Ramananda followed his usual routine and encountered Kabir.
• R. "Ram – Ram" he exclaimed in astonishment.
• Sentence R describes Ramananda's reaction to stepping on Kabir.
• Q. Kabir at once jumped up and threw himself at the feet of the preacher.
• Sentence Q follows R, as it shows Kabir's immediate response to Ramananda's exclamation.
• S6. He said, "You have given me the mantra, 'Ram, Ram,' I have become your disciple".
• Sentence S6 is the conclusion of the story, where Kabir declares himself Ramananda's disciple.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The sentence contains an error in the part "changed the leadership of it's legal" of the sentence.
• The error is the incorrect use of the contraction "it's" instead of the possessive pronoun "its". "It's" is a contraction for "it is" or "it has", while "its" is a possessive pronoun indicating possession or belonging.
• So, "it's" should be replaced with "its".
• Therefore option 2 is correct.

Correct sentence: Over the past year, the company has changed the leadership of its legal, policy, and communications teams.

The correct answer is "BDCA".

Key Points

• The appropriate sequence for the sentences is "BDCA".
• Here is the rearranged paragraph with reasons for the rearrangement:
• B. In June 1944 Germany's military position in World War II appeared hopeless.
• Sentence B provides an introduction to the topic, setting the stage for the discussion of Germany's military position in June 1944.
• D. The situation on the eastern front was catastrophic.
• Sentence D elaborates on the military position mentioned in sentence B by describing the situation on the eastern front.
• C. The disastrous situation was evident by the British Army's stand to drive the Nazis back through the east.
• Sentence C further explains the disastrous situation on the eastern front and introduces the efforts of the British Army.
• A. While in the west, Allied Forces had fought their way through southern Italy as far as Rome.
• Sentence A contrasts the situation in the east with the progress made by the Allied Forces in the west, completing the paragraph's overview of the military situation in June 1944.
• Therefore the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Green energy 

Key PointsGreen energy: This option refers to renewable energy sources that are environmentally friendly and sustainable. Green energy includes wind energy, solar energy, hydropower, biomass, and other forms of renewable energy that have minimal environmental impact compared to fossil fuels. These sources produce electricity without emitting greenhouse gases or other pollutants that contribute to air and water pollution or climate change. 

Wind energy & green energy: Both wind energy and other forms of renewable or "green" energy sources, such as solar energy, hydropower, and biomass, are considered environmentally friendly.Wind energy is considered a form of green energy or renewable energy. Wind energy harnesses the kinetic energy of wind to generate electricity through wind turbines, while green energy encompasses various renewable energy technologies that utilize natural resources in sustainable ways.

Green energy: This option refers to renewable energy sources that are environmentally friendly and sustainable. Green energy includes wind energy, solar energy, hydropower, biomass, and other forms of renewable energy that have minimal environmental impact compared to fossil fuels.

Solar energy: Solar energy, derived from sunlight, is also a clean and renewable energy source. Solar panels convert sunlight into electricity without emitting greenhouse gases or pollutants. Solar energy is abundant, widely available, and can be harnessed using photovoltaic cells or solar thermal systems.

Wind energy: Wind energy, generated from the movement of air masses, is another clean and renewable energy source. Wind turbines convert the kinetic energy of wind into electricity, providing a sustainable alternative to fossil fuels. Wind energy is abundant and can be harnessed both onshore and offshore.

In summary, Green energy, such as solar energy, are considered best for keeping the environment clean because they produce electricity without emitting harmful pollutants or greenhouse gases. These renewable energy sources play a crucial role in reducing carbon emissions, mitigating climate change, and promoting environmental sustainability.

The correct answer is Corona.

Key Points

• Corona is the outermost layer of the Sun.
• It experiences a very high temperature, about one million degrees Celcius.
• It starts at about 2100 km above the photosphere.
• Corona isn't visible from the earth (except during solar eclipse).
• The corona does not have an upper limit.
• Photosphere, the Chromosphere, the Transition Region, and the Corona are the outer layers of the sun.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Grass → Insects → Frog → Snake → Eagle.

Key Points

• Foodchain:
• ​The sequence of living organisms in a community in which one organism consumes another organism to transfer food energy is called a food chain.
• In simple words, a list of organisms showing 'who eats whom' is called the food chain.
• The food can be transferred from one organism to the other through the food chain.
• All food chains begin with green plants which are the source of all food.
• It represents a unidirectional transfer of energy.
• Example: eagle → snake → frog → insects → grass
• Each step in the food chain is called a trophic level.
• A food chain starts with producers and ends with top carnivores.
• Grass → Insects → Frog → Snake → Eagle
• Here grass is eaten by insects, insects are eaten by a frog, a frog is then eaten by a snake finally, a snake is eaten by an eagle.
• This completes a food chain.

The correct answer is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Key Points

Frequency: The number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time.

The unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz).

• Infrasonic sounds have a frequency of less than 20 Hz and these are generally produced by sources of a bigger size such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, etc.
• Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are called infrasonic.
• Audible sounds have the frequency of 20-20000 Hz since these are sensitive to the human ears
• And if the frequency is greater or less than audible frequency, the human ear won't be able to sense it
• Ultrasonic sounds have a frequency greater than 20000 Hz and certain creatures such as dogs, cats, bats can hear this kind of sound.

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So, human can hear from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

The correct answer is Cement.

Key Points 

• Limestone is a form of calcium carbonate which is used extensively for the manufacture of cement.
• Cement is manufactured through a closely controlled chemical combination of calcium, silicon, aluminium, iron and other ingredients.
• Crushed limestone is often the main raw ingredient in the manufacture of portland cement.
• CaCO3 is the chemical formula of Calcium carbonate.
• Limestone is a carbonate sedimentary rock composed primarily of calcium carbonate (CaCO3).
• Limestone released carbon dioxide gas while heating.

Important Points 

• Limestone is used as:
• Building material.
• Essential component cement industry.
• Aggregate for the base of roads.
• Filler in products such as toothpaste or paints.

The correct answer is CaCO₃.

Key Points

• Lime water is calcium hydroxide and when carbon dioxide is passed it reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium carbonate which turns lime water milky.
• Lime manufacture
• From the earliest of times, lime has been made by heating limestone to high temperatures.
• Production methods have evolved from heating limestone in open fires, to the use of brick lime kilns at the start of the 17th century, to today’s horizontal rotating kilns several metres in diameter and up to 100 metres in length.
• These modern kilns operate at a temperature of about 1100-1200°C, allowing rapid conversion of limestone into lime.
• CaCO3(s) limestone → CaO(s) lime + CO2(g) carbon dioxide
• Lime’s chemical properties
• Lime (calcium oxide) is a white solid with strongly basic properties.
• The lime reacts readily with water to produce slaked lime, which is the chemical compound calcium hydroxide. A considerable amount of heat energy is released during this reaction.
• CO2 is a colourless, odourless, incombustible gas. It is a product of cellular respiration and combustion and is an essential component in photosynthesis.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The haemoglobin in our blood takes oxygen to different parts of our body from the Lungs.
• The oxygen affinity of haemoglobin. is less than that of  CO affinity towards haemoglobin.
• When we inhale air polluted with carbon monoxide (CO), carbon monoxide (CO) will combine with haemoglobin, forming carboxyhemoglobin in the blood and Stopping oxygen transport.
• The binding of carbon monoxide to haemoglobin, forming carboxyhemoglobin, reduces the amount of oxygen available to the heart muscle and other tissues for synthesizing ATP.
• It is a pollutant for humans since it reacts with Haemoglobin. It is harmful when breathed since it displaces oxygen in the blood and deprives the heart, brain and other important organs.

The correct answer is Virus.

Key Points 

• The - cell - theory notes that all living things are made up of cells, cells are the fundamental units of living things' structure and function and all cells come from other cells.
• Since viruses do not consist of cells and do not use cells in any of their processes, they are not related to the theory of cells.

Additional Information 

• Antonie van Leeuwenhoek discovered bacteria from the human mouth in 1683.
• Two scientists contributed to the discovery of the first virus, Tobacco mosaic virus. Ivanoski reported in 1892 that extracts from infected leaves were still infectious after filtration through a Chamberland filter-candle.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury remains almost spherical because cohesion of mercury is greater than its adhesion with glass.

• The cohesive force is the force of attraction that exists between molecules of the same substance. As opposed to this, a force known as non-cohesive force acts between molecules of various substances. When put within a container, substances whose cohesive force acting between the molecules is stronger than the non-cohesive force won't adhere to the walls of the vessel. 

• Mercury droplets on a glass plate, for instance, continue to be circular. However, those liquids wet the surface of the vessel when the cohesive force operating between the molecules of a liquid is less than the cohesive force acting between the liquid and the vessel.

The correct answer is Hygrometer.

Key Points

• A hygrometer is a weather instrument used to measure the amount of humidity in the atmosphere.
• There are two main types of hygrometers
• A dry and wet bulb hygrometer
• Mechanical hygrometer
• What is Humidity?
• Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere caused by condensation and evaporation.
• It can be measured as absolute humidity or relative humidity.

Additional Information

• A thermometer is a medical device that helps to measure the temperature, which is the temperature of the heart, brain, and other organs.

The correct answer is Malaria.

Key Points

• Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa that is responsible for causing malaria, a serious and potentially life-threatening disease.
• Malaria is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
• When an infected mosquito bites a human, it injects Plasmodium parasites into the bloodstream.
• Once inside the human body, the Plasmodium parasites travel to the liver and multiply.
• They then infect and destroy red blood cells, leading to the characteristic symptoms of malaria.
• These symptoms can include high fever, chills, sweating, headache, muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, and vomiting.
• There are several species of Plasmodium that can infect humans, including P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale.
• Among these, P. falciparum is the most severe and can lead to life-threatening complications, particularly in young children and individuals with weakened immune systems.

Additional Information

• Common cold: The common cold is primarily caused by various types of viruses, most commonly rhinoviruses. Other viruses that can cause the common cold include coronaviruses, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), adenoviruses, and parainfluenza viruses.
• Typhoid: Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi. It is typically contracted by consuming food or water contaminated with feces containing the bacterium. Poor sanitation and hygiene practices contribute to its spread.
• Pneumonia: Pneumonia can have various causes, including bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. Viral pneumonia can be caused by influenza viruses, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), adenoviruses, and others. Fungal pneumonia is often associated with specific fungi, such as Pneumocystis jirovecii in immunocompromised individuals.

The correct answer is Vitamin B and Vitamin C.

Key Points

• Vitamins are nutrients your body needs to develop and function properly.
• There are 13 essential vitamins: A, D, E, and K, which are fat-soluble, and vitamins C and the B-complex group, which are water-soluble.
• Each vitamin has a distinct role in keeping you healthy.

Important Points

Trick to remember fat-soluble vitamins- KEDA

• K-Vitamin K
• E- vitamin E
• D-vitamin D
• A-vitamin A

The correct answer of above Question is option 1. 

Key Points

• Brushing teeth regularly has numerous benefits, but it does not directly contribute to strengthening the muscles of our body.
• The main advantages of regular brushing include protecting our gums, reducing/preventing bad breath, and removing food particles stuck in our teeth.
• However, muscle strength is typically developed through physical exercise, strength training, and proper nutrition.
• Regular brushing helps maintain oral hygiene, prevents tooth decay, reduces the risk of gum disease, and promotes overall dental health.
• It also aids in maintaining fresh breath and a clean mouth.
• While brushing is an essential part of oral care, it does not have a direct impact on muscle strength or development in the body.

The correct answer is because ​it contains acetic acid.

Key Points

• Vinegar is used to preserve food primarily because it contains acetic acid.
• Acetic acid is a weak acid that acts as a natural preservative by creating an acidic environment that inhibits the growth of bacteria, mold, and other microorganisms that cause food spoilage.
• The acetic acid in vinegar helps to lower the pH of the food, making it less hospitable for bacteria to thrive.
• This preservation process helps extend the shelf life of food by slowing down the spoilage process.
• It is worth noting that vinegar does not contain hydrochloric acid, sulfuric acid, or fluoridic acid, and these acids are not typically used for food preservation purposes.

The correct answer is Saffron.

Key Points

• Saffron is a spice derived from the flower of Crocus sativus, commonly known as the “saffron crocus.”
• Saffron contains several plant-derived chemical compounds that are known to have been antioxidant, disease-preventing, and health-promoting properties.
• It is also used as an insecticide or pesticide.
• The scientific name of "Turmeric" is Curcuma longa.
• The scientific name of "Artichoke" is Cynara scolymus.
• The scientific name of "Ginger" is Zingiber officinale.

The correct answer is Transpiration.

Key Points

• Transpiration is the process by which plants release water vapor through their leaves. It plays a significant role in cooling plants.
• When water is taken up by the plant's roots and transported to the leaves, it evaporates through tiny openings called stomata on the leaf surface.
• As the water evaporates, it carries away heat energy from the plant, resulting in a cooling effect. This process is similar to how sweating cools our bodies.
• Transpiration not only helps regulate the plant's temperature but also aids in nutrient uptake and maintaining the plant's structure.

Additional Information

• Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose (energy) and oxygen.
• Tropisms: Tropisms are plant responses to external stimuli that cause the plant to grow or move in a particular direction. Examples of tropisms include phototropism (response to light), gravitropism (response to gravity), and thigmotropism (response to touch).
• Germination: Germination is the process by which a seed sprouts and begins to grow into a new plant. It involves the activation of metabolic processes and the emergence of a young plant from the seed.

The correct answer is Extreme.

Key Points

• The tropical and polar regions are known for having extreme climatic conditions.
• Tropical regions: The tropical regions are located near the Equator and experience a hot and humid climate throughout the year.
• These regions have high temperatures, abundant rainfall, and high levels of humidity.
• Tropical regions are characterized by a relatively stable climate with minimal seasonal variations.

Additional Information

• Polar regions: The polar regions are located near the Earth's poles, including the Arctic region around the North Pole and the Antarctic region around the South Pole.
• These regions have extremely cold temperatures and are covered in ice and snow for a significant part of the year.
• Polar regions experience long periods of darkness during winter and long periods of daylight during summer.
• Both the tropical and polar regions exhibit climatic conditions that are at the extreme ends of the spectrum.
• The tropical regions are known for their high temperatures and humidity, while the polar regions are known for their extremely cold temperatures and icy environments.

The correct answer is Digestive system.

Key Points 

Bariatric surgery:

• Bariatric surgery is an operation that helps lose weight by making changes to the digestive system.
• Bariatric surgery does not involve the removal of fatty tissues from the body.
• It is a procedure that reduces the size of the stomach with a gastric band or removes a portion of the stomach that results in the interruption of the digestive system and therefore, restricts the amount of food a patient can eat.
• Ever since the country’s first bariatric procedure in 1999, the number of surgeries now approximates 15,000 per year, when the requirement is for almost four lakh.
• Bariatric and metabolic surgeries are procedures that are effective in treating obesity and associated co-morbid conditions.
• In 2019, bariatric and metabolic surgery was included in health insurance by the Insurance and Regulatory Development Authority of India for treating obesity.

The correct answer is 1 Joule per Coulomb.​

Key Points

• It can also be expressed as amperes times ohms, joules per coulomb (energy per unit charge), or watts per ampere (power per unit current).
• And finally, volt can be stated in SI base units as 1 V = 1 kg m2 s-3 A -1 (one-kilogram meter squared per second cubed per ampere).
• Hence option 2 is correct.​

Additional Information 

• SI Unit of Voltage
• The standard unit of measurement used for the expression of voltage is volt which is represented by the symbol v.
• However, the volt is a derived SI unit of electric potential or electromotive force.
• For this reason, volt can further be defined in several ways.
• Volt can also be defined as electric potential along a wire when an electric current of one ampere dissipates one watt (W) of power (W = J/s).
• V = W/A

The correct answer is A reflected ray.

Key Points 

• Reflection- 
• ​When the light rays fall on the plane surface it deviates from its path in the same medium.
• or When a ray of light is incident on the plane surface is reflected back into the same medium it is termed as Reflection.
• Example - Plane Mirror.
• A reflected ray: The ray of light that bounces back from the surface of reflection is called the reflected ray. All the rays of the incident, normal and reflected lie on the same plane.

 

The correct answer is Iodine.

Key Points 

• Iodine
• It was first discovered by Courtois in 1811 from the ashes of seaweeds.
• Its atomic number is 53 and its mass number is 126.9.
• It is found in compound form in seawater and seaweeds as iodides.
• It is a non-metallic shining solid (possesses metallic lustre).
• In the human body, it exists in the form of Thyroxin, an organic compound secreted by the thyroid gland.
• Its deficiency in the Human body disturbs the working of the thyroid gland and leads to a goitre.

Additional Information

• Sodium
• Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal with the atomic number 11.
• It has a silvery-white appearance and is soft enough to be easily cut with a knife.
• Sodium is an excellent conductor of electricity and heat.
• It has a low melting point and reacts violently with water, releasing hydrogen gas.
• Sodium is widely used in various applications, such as the production of chemicals, soaps, and detergents, as well as in the field of medicine.
• Phosphorus
• Phosphorus is a non-metal element with the atomic number 15.
• It exists in several different forms, known as allotropes.
• White phosphorus is the most reactive and dangerous form. It is a translucent, waxy solid that appears yellowish or slightly off-white.
• White phosphorus is highly toxic and flammable.
• Red phosphorus is more stable and appears as a dark red powder. It is used in matches, fireworks, and as a flame retardant.
• Black phosphorus is the most stable allotrope and has a layered structure. It appears as a brittle solid with a dark gray to black color.
• Sulphur
• Sulphur is a non-metal element with the atomic number 16.
• It is known for its yellow color in its most common form.
• Sulphur occurs naturally as a brittle solid and can be found in various shades of yellow.
• It has a low melting point and can easily be vaporized.
• Sulphur is widely used in the production of sulfuric acid, fertilizers, and rubber products.
• It is also an essential element in the formation of proteins and is found in amino acids.

The correct answer is Magnesium.

Key Points

• Magnesium is a chemical element with the symbol Mg.
• Its atomic number is 12 and its atomic mass is 24.305 u.
• Magnesium is a silver-white metal and a member of the alkaline earth metals group.
• It is known for its lightweight and is widely used in various applications.
• Magnesium is used in products that benefit from being lightweight, such as car seats, luggage, laptops, cameras and power tools.
• It is also added to molten iron and steel to remove sulfur.
• It's used in flares, fireworks, and sparklers.
• Magnesium plays a crucial role in many biological processes and is essential for human health.

Additional Information

• Sulphur is a chemical element with the symbol S.
• Its atomic number is 16
• The atomic mass of sulphur is 32.06 u.
• Chlorine is a chemical element with the symbol Cl.
• Its atomic number is 17
• The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 u.
• Sodium is a chemical element with the symbol Na.
• Its atomic number is 11
• The atomic mass of sodium is 22.98977 u.

The correct answer is Evaporation.

Key Points

• Evaporation is the process of converting a liquid into a vapor by heating or exposing it to a higher temperature.
• It is used to separate a solute from its solution by removing the solvent through evaporation.
• When a solution is heated, the solvent evaporates, leaving behind the solute as a solid residue.
• This method is commonly used to recover dissolved substances or obtain solid compounds from a solution.

Additional Information

• Sedimentation is a process where solid particles settle down at the bottom of a container due to gravity.
• Filtration involves passing a mixture through a filter to separate solid particles from a liquid or gas.
• Condensation is the process of converting a vapor or gas into a liquid by cooling.

The correct answer is Cockroach.

Key Points

• Cockroaches have an open vascular system, also known as an open circulatory system.
• In this type of circulatory system, the blood or hemolymph is not confined to blood vessels but directly bathes the tissues and organs.
• The hemolymph is pumped by the heart into interconnected spaces called sinuses or hemocoel, where it comes into direct contact with cells and tissues.
• The exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products occurs between the hemolymph and the surrounding tissues.

Additional Information

• On the other hand, rats, humans, and birds have closed circulatory systems, also known as closed vascular systems.
• In closed circulatory systems, blood is confined within blood vessels, such as arteries, veins, and capillaries.
• The blood is pumped by the heart through a network of vessels, delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and removing waste products.
• Closed circulatory systems provide a more efficient and controlled distribution of blood and are found in higher vertebrates, including mammals and birds.

The correct answer is v2 = u2 + 2as.

Key Points

The correct equation is:

v² = u² + 2as.

This equation is known as the equation of motion for uniformly accelerated linear motion and relates:

final velocity = v,

initial velocity =u,

acceleration = a,

and distance covered = s in time (t).

It quantifies the change in velocity of an object in terms of its initial velocity, acceleration, and the distance it travels.

Snooping

• In the context of cybersecurity, "snooping" refers to unauthorized access to another person's or company's data.
• It involves observing, monitoring, or checking someone's data or activity, typically in a secretive or covert manner.
• Snooping can be performed in various ways, including eavesdropping on network traffic, accessing someone else's computer or files without permission, or using spyware to collect information.

The correct answer is option 2.

• The key used to open the CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) setup utility, also known as the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) setup, typically varies by motherboard manufacturer.
• However, among the options provided, the "Del" (Delete) key is often used. So, the correct answer would be: Del

 

Additional Information

Alt: The Alt key, short for "alternate," is typically used in combination with other keys for various functions.

• For example, Alt+F4 is a common keyboard shortcut to close the currently active program on many operating systems.
• In the context of system startup, the Alt key is not typically used on its own to access the BIOS.

 

Enter: The Enter key is used extensively throughout computing to confirm selections, submit forms, create new lines in text, etc.

• However, on its own, it's generally not used to access the BIOS during system startup.
• Some systems may require you to press Enter to confirm a selection after you've entered the BIOS using a different key, like Del or F2.

 

Tab: The Tab key is often used to switch focus between different elements in a user interface, such as moving between form fields in a web browser.

• In some BIOS setups, you might use Tab to switch between different sections or fields.
• However, similar to the Enter key, it's not typically used on its own to access the BIOS during system startup.

The correct answer is option 4.

The idea of "cloud computing" involves taking physical resources, such as server storage or processing power, and making them available as a: Virtual resource.

• Virtual resources are not tied to a specific, physical location or hardware and can be scaled up or down depending on user needs.
• This makes cloud computing flexible and efficient, as users only pay for what they use, and resources can be accessed from anywhere with an internet connection.

The correct answer is option 3.

The Melissa virus was primarily spread through: Microsoft Word

• Melissa was a macro virus that was spread via email attachments containing infected Microsoft Word documents.
• When the document was opened, the virus would automatically send itself to the first 50 contacts in the user's address book, leading to a rapid spread of the virus.
• This occurred in 1999, making Melissa one of the first significant email-borne viruses.

The correct answer is option 4.

• Crackers are malicious hackers who break into secure systems with the aim of stealing or damaging information. They are also known as Black Hats.

• A rapid audit of your network machines for flaws, exploits, and information enumerations can be performed using the simple-to-use, intuitive computer network security scanner known as Infiltrator.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points 

The full form of the CPU is Central Processing Unit. CPU is the main processing unit of the computer. The CPU is the brain of the computer. CPU receives the data from the input devices and processes it. Then produces the desired output. There are three parts of the CPU. These are the memory unit, control unit and ALU.

• Memory Unit: The memory unit of the CPU is used as a storage unit. After processing the data, the processed data is kept in the memory unit. CPU can reuse the data as per the requirement.
• Control Unit: The control unit is the section of the CPU that selects interprets and sees to the execution of program instructions. It controls the input as well as the output.
• ALU: The full form of ALU is Arithmetic Logic Unit. All kinds of arithmetic and logical operation are performed here.

Thus the correct answer is the control unit.

Additional Information 

Register unit: 

• A processor register (CPU register) is one of a small set of data holding places that are part of the computer processor.
• A register may hold an instruction, a storage address, or any kind of data (such as a bit sequence or individual characters).
• Some instructions specify registers as part of the instruction.

The correct answer is option 1.

Concept:-

The < dl > tag defines the description list, the < dt > tag defines the term (name), and the < dd > tag describe each term.

Key Points 

• An unordered list starts with the < ul > tag. Each list item starts with the < li > tag.
• An ordered list start with the < ol > tag. Each list item starts with the < li > tag.
• HTML also supports description lists. A description list is a list of terms, with a description of each term.

Additional Information Numbered-list:- A list whose items are numbered, with various styles including Arabic numerals and Roman numerals.

The correct answer  is option 2.

"It is a pointing device."

• Both a light pen and a touchscreen are considered pointing devices.
• They allow users to interact with the computer by positioning the cursor. So this isn't a distinguishing advantage.

"It has more positional accuracy."

• This is typically the key advantage of a light pen over a touchscreen.
• Light pens can provide more precision because they can detect the position of the pen tip very accurately.
• This makes light pens useful for detailed work such as graphic design or drafting.

"It is a mechanical pointing device."

• Both light pens and touchscreens are types of mechanical pointing devices.
• They translate physical movement into input that the computer can understand.
• So this isn't a distinguishing advantage.

"It is based on touching a surface pointing device."

• Both light pens and touchscreens require contact with the surface to function.
• The light pen needs to be in proximity to the screen to detect the light emitted by the screen, while a touchscreen responds to the presence of a finger or stylus.
• So this isn't a distinguishing advantage.

The correct answer of above Question is option 2. Crashing

"Hardware Troubles":

• Frequent restarts could potentially be linked to hardware issues, but they don't directly imply a virus infection.
• Problems like overheating, faulty RAM, or a failing power supply can cause this symptom.

"Crashing":

• This is usually the right answer.
• If a virus causes system instability leading to frequent restarts, it could be said that the system is "crashing."
• However, frequent crashes can also be due to software bugs or hardware issues, not just viruses.

"Slow performance":

• While a virus can slow down a computer's performance due to the usage of system resources,
• it does not directly imply that the computer would restart every few minutes.

"Extra files":

• Viruses often create additional files, but these files don't necessarily cause the computer to restart frequently.
• This symptom would more likely result in unexplained disk space usage.

Device Manager → right click on USB Root Hub → Enable Device

• In the context of the question, it's plausible that the USB Root Hub or the specific USB port could have been inadvertently disabled, in which case enabling it would allow the pen drive to be deducted.
• This option assumes that the device has been disabled in the settings, and by re-enabling it, the pen drive would be deducted.
• However, it's important to note that the solution can vary depending on the specific situation.
• If the device isn't disabled, for example, this solution wouldn't work, and one of the other solutions might be necessary.
• It's always best to consider all potential causes and solutions when troubleshooting technical issues.

The correct answer is option 1. 

• In MS Excel, the result value of either 'TRUE' or 'FALSE' is available in Logical functions.
• Microsoft Excel provides 4 logical functions to work with logical values.
• The logical functions provided by  MS Excel are AND, OR,  XOR, and NOT. 
• The AND function returns TRUE if all conditions are true and returns FALSE if any of the conditions are false.
• The OR function returns TRUE if any of the conditions are TRUE and returns FALSE if all conditions are false.
• The NOT function changes TRUE to FALSE, and FALSE to TRUE.
• The XOR function returns a logical Exclusive Or of all arguments.
• Microsoft Excel also provides 3 conditional functions namely: IF, IFERROR, and IFNA.

Key Points 

• If either of the parameters evaluates to true, the OR function gives the result as True; otherwise, it returns False.
• It operates under many test scenarios. Depending on the demand, it is combined with the AND function and the IF condition.
• Information functions are where the ISERROR Excel Function[1] belongs. If the provided value is an error, the function will return TRUE; otherwise, it will return FALSE.
• The Excel OR function is a fundamental logical function that is used to compare two numbers or statements, together with the AND function.
• The OR function differs in that it returns TRUE if at least one of the arguments evaluates to TRUE and FALSE if all of the arguments evaluate to FALSE.
• In addition to AND, the Excel OR function is a fundamental logical operation used to contrast two values or expressions. The distinction is that the OR function returns TRUE if at least one of its arguments evaluates to TRUE and FALSE if all of its arguments evaluate to FALSE.
• When a given condition is evaluated, one of the logical functions called IF returns one value if the condition is TRUE and another value if it is FALSE.

Firewall

1. A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
2. It essentially forms a barrier between a trusted internal network (like an intranet) and untrusted external networks (like the internet), and can therefore help to ensure the security of the information and resources present on the intranet's websites.
3. Firewalls can prevent unauthorized access and block data packets based on a set of security policies. Features often include detailed auditing, IP address filtering, packet filtering, and alerts for specific events.

A firewall is a program or hardware device that filters the information coming through an internet connection to a network or computer system. If

incoming information does not pass the rules stored in the firewall, it is not allowed through.

• Not only does a firewall block unwanted traffic, but it can also help block malicious software from infecting your computer.
• Firewalls represent the first line of defense in home network security.
• A firewall acts as a gatekeeper. It monitors attempts to gain access to your operating system and blocks unwanted traffic or unrecognized sources.
• A firewall acts as a barrier or filter between your computer and another network such as the internet. You could think of a firewall as a traffic controller. It helps to protect your network and information by managing your network traffic, blocking unsolicited incoming network traffic, and validating access by assessing network traffic for anything malicious like hackers and malware.

The Internet has become a basic necessity in economic activities and it is deepening its roots in social activities too. The post–the globalized era of the 90s heralded an entirely new phase in the annals of human civilization with ICT getting a huge impetus as a consequence of the Internet taking rapid, brisk, and phenomenal strides, changing in the process the communication scenario the world over.

• How we have been communicating with each other and sources and means of locating information have constantly been changing from time to time. (Ahluwalia, 2011, p.11)
• The Internet is also simply known as “the Net” or “the Web” and can be briefly understood as “a network of networks”.
• It got its birth out of fear in the Pentagon for the US military wanted its researchers nationwide to share the sophisticated computers.
• The roots of the internet were found in the year 1960 in a project namely ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network) which was carried out by the Defense Department of the US Government.

ARPANET:

• The Internet, then known as ARPANET, was brought online in 1969 by the renamed Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA).
• The Arpanet used a technology, called Packet switching, which splits messages into tiny pieces to be further transmitted through different telephone routes to the desired destination.
• The Creator of the Internet Vinton G. Cerf describing it as “The sky is the limit” defined ARPANET as:
• “ARPAnet is a network of computers. The Internet is a network of networks. An interplanetary net would be a network of Internet.” - Vinton, G. Cerf.

In brief,  ARPANET is the first network that was initiated by the internet. So, option 1 is correct.

Reciprocal license

• A reciprocal license, also known as a copyleft license, not only allows the software to be used for any purpose, but also enforces that any changes or modifications to the software must be licensed under the same terms as the original.
• This ensures that any derivative works remain free and open, just like the original software.
• The GNU General Public License (GPL) is a well-known example of a reciprocal license.

Disguise

• Encryption in the context of viruses (more accurately known as malware) is usually related to the characteristic of disguise.
• Malicious software often uses encryption to hide its code and behavior from security software.
• This technique makes it harder for antivirus tools to detect the malware, thus allowing it to infect systems and propagate without being discovered.

Additional Information 

1. Self-replication: This is a common characteristic of viruses. Once a virus has infected a host, it typically tries to spread itself by creating copies of its own code. This could be within the same system - for example, by infecting other files or processes - or across networks, by exploiting vulnerabilities or tricking users into spreading the virus.
2. Side effects: Viruses often have side effects that can range from harmless pranks to serious damage. For example, some viruses may display unwanted pop-ups or messages, while others might delete or corrupt data, steal sensitive information, or even render a computer completely unusable. The side effects of a virus are typically the most visible signs of an infection.
3. Executable path: This refers to the mechanism by which a virus runs its code. When a virus infects a file or system, it usually modifies the execution paths to ensure that the malicious code is run - often without the user's knowledge. For example, a virus could infect an executable file so that the virus code runs each time the file is executed, or it could alter system settings to run at startup. In some cases, a virus might even be able to infect the boot sector of a hard drive, causing the virus to load even before the operating system starts.

The correct answer is option (2).

Key Points 

• HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language, which is the standard language used to create and design web pages.
• It allows developers to structure content on the web by using various elements and tags.

The correct answer is option 4. Print Preview

• Microsoft Word's Print Preview function is designed to display the document exactly as it would appear when printed, which typically excludes certain visual elements such as the background color or effects.
• This is because these elements can consume a lot of printer ink and may not be desired in the final printed document.

Accumulator: 

1. It is one of the general-purpose registers of the microprocessor also called A register
2. The accumulator is an 8-bit register that is a part of the arithmetic/logic unit (ALU)
3. This register is used to store 8-bit data and to perform arithmetic and logical operations
4. The result of an operation is stored in the accumulator
5. The user can access this register by giving appropriate instructions (commands)

The correct answer is F7.

Key Points 

• Open the document you want to check for spelling or grammar mistakes, and then press F7.
• You can also use the ribbon to start the check.
• Press Alt + R to open the Review tab, and then press C, 1 to select the Check Document option.

Additional Information 

• F2 is the shortcut key to move text in MS word.
• F1 is the shortcut key to display the Word Help window.
• F9 is the shortcut key to update all the field codes in the current selection

OpenStack

1. OpenStack is an open-source cloud computing platform that allows users to create, automate, and manage both public and private clouds.
2. It's designed to handle data storage and retrieval, compute tasks, and networking resources throughout a data center, which can be managed through a dashboard, through the OpenStack API, or via a combination of both.
3. It's also worth noting that OpenStack can be scripted using languages like Python to automate tasks, and can be integrated with continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) tools like Jenkins, but OpenStack itself is the platform that provides the described cloud management functionality.

The logic follows here:

Hence, the correct answer is "478".

Expression: 405 + 27 × 40 – 308 ÷ 22

After interchanging the signs:

Option (1): + and ÷

405 ÷ 27 × 40 – 308 + 22

= 15 × 40 – 308 + 22

= 600 – 308 + 22

= 622 – 308

= 314

Option (2): × and +

405 × 27 + 40 – 308 ÷ 22

= 405 × 27 + 40 – 14

= 10935 + 40 – 14

= 10975 – 14

= 10961 ≠ 314

Option (3) ÷ and ×

405 + 27 ÷ 40 – 308 × 22

= 405 + 0.675 – 308 × 22

= 405 + 0.675 – 6776

= -6370.325 ≠ 314

Option (4) + and –

405 – 27 × 40 + 308 ÷ 22

= 405 – 27 × 40 + 14

= 405 – 1080 + 14

= 419 – 1080

= -661 ≠ 314

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The shaded part represents tall girls who are swimmers but don't play tennis.

So, the letter represents tall girls who are swimmers but don't play tennis is "G"

Hence, the correct answer is "G".

Given:

1. Ani is the niece of Mani.

2. Mani’s mother is Amaya.

3. Emi is Amaya’s mother.

4. Emi’s husband is Herry.

5. Krishna is the mother in law of Herry. 

Ani is the great granddaughter to Herry.

Hence, “great granddaughter” is the correct answer.

The logic is:

1) 6932 – 150 → (6 + 9) × (3 + 2) × 2 = 150

2. 7851 – 180 → (7 + 8) × (5 + 1) × 2 = 180

3. 3712 – 60 → (3 + 7) × (1 + 2) × 2 = 60

4. 2134 – 40 → (2 + 1) × (3 + 4) × 2= 42 ≠ 40

Hence, ‘2134 – 40’ is the odd one out.

The logic followed here is:

Given,  ‘COPIED’ is coded as ‘DNQHFC’

 

And, ‘LETTER’ is coded as ‘MDUSFQ’

Similarly, ‘DOCTOR’ is coded as 

  

Therefore, the code for DOCTOR is 'ENDSPQ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

Possible Family Tree Diagram:

A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D

According to the family tree diagram, A’s father is "Nephew" of D. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Nephew".

The figure that will come next in the following figure series is shown below:

All shapes rotate in the clockwise direction according to the given arrow in the figure given below.

Hence, ‘option 2’ is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side is:

Hence, The correct answer is "Option (1)"

Given:

‘BANANA’ is coded as ‘BAADAADA’

Similarly,

Hence, ‘AFAAFABEA’ is the correct answer.

Vent, Orifice, and Aperture all are SYNONYMS of each other which means an opening through which something may pass.

But 'Obstruction' is an odd word that means the action of obstructing or the state of being obstructed.

Hence, "Obstruction" is the odd word.

The pattern followed is.

(1st number)² + 5 = 2nd number

Given:

13 : 174 → 13 : 13² + 5

Similarly,

Option 1 → 8 : 69 → 8 : 8² + 5

Option 2 → 15 : 224 → 15 : 152 – 1

Option 3 → 14 : 200 → 14 : 14² + 4

Option 4 → 9 : 81 → 9 : 9²

‘8 : 69’ is related in the same way as the two numbers of the given number pair.

Hence, “8 : 69” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is as follows:

GATE : HXYX

Similarly,

SINK : TFSD

Hence the correct answer is "TFSD".

Given:

A and B are brother, C and D are sister, A's son is D's brother.

So, C is the "Daughter" of A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Daughter".

According to Abhay, Kavita’s birthday can be on 16^th, 17^th, 18_^th, 19^th 20^th 21^st and 22^nd.

According to his Yasir, Kavita’s birthday can be on the 21st, 22nd, 23rd, and 24th.

Here, the 21st and 22nd is common in both the  statement.

Hence , Kavita’s birthday is on 21st or 22nd.

The correct answer is  "21st or 22nd".

The logic followed here is :

Genuine : Authentic → 'Authentic' is the synonym of 'Genuine'.

Similarly,

Mirage : Illusion → 'Illusion' is the synonym of 'Mirage'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Illusion".

Here the pattern followed in each row is:

{(1st number  + 2nd number + 3rd number) ÷ 2} + 1.5 = 4^th number

Row 1: 35, 21, 9, 34

= {(35 + 21 + 9) ÷ 2} + 1.5 = (65 ÷ 2) = 32.5 + 1.5 = 34 = 4th number

Row 3: 5, 17, 11, 18

= {(5 + 17 + 11) ÷ 2} + 1.5 = (33 ÷ 2) = 16.5 + 1.5 = 18 = 4th number

Row 2: 35, 21, 9, 34

= {(13 + 7 + 15) ÷ 2} + 1.5 = (35 ÷ 2) = 17.5 + 1.5 = 19 = 4th number

Hence, “19” is correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

• Upper image shifting inside in the second image and flip vertically.
• Lower image shifting outside in the second image.

Similarly,

• Upper image shifting inside in the second image and flip vertically.
• Lower image shifting outside in the second image.

Hence, 'Option (1)' is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Biology is a branch of Science.

The other three options are branches of social science.

Hence, the correct answer is "Biology".

The following Venn diagram best represents the relationship between ‘House, Bedroom, Bathroom’

Hence, 'option 2' will represent the best relation.

The logic follows here:

Hence, The correct answer is "54".

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, “ID39” is the complete series.

Given:

A company sold a bike worth Rs. 40000 to a dealer at a profit of 5%. 

The dealer sold it to a customer at a profit of 12%. 

After a few years, the customer sold the bike back to the dealer at 25% loss.

If the dealer sold the old bike to a new customer at 5% profit.

Calculation:

According to question,

5 % profit = 40000 × 105/100 = 105 × 400

12 % profit = (105 × 400 × 112)/100 = 105 × 4 × 112

25 % loss = (105 × 4 × 112 × 75)/100

Again 5% profit = (105 × 4 × 112 × 75 × 105)/10000

⇒ 370440000/10000

⇒ 37044

∴ The correct answer is 37044.

Shortcut Trick

When two articles are sold at the same Selling Price (SP), one at x% profit and another at x% loss, there is always a net loss.

Net Loss % = x² ÷ 100 = 20² ÷ 100 = 4%.

Total SP = 1 + 1 = Rs 2 lakh.

Since Loss is 4%, Total SP represents 96% of Total CP (100% − 4%).

Total Loss = (Total SP ÷ 96) × 4 = (2 ÷ 96) × 4 = Rs 1/12 lakh.

∴ The correct answer is Rs 1/12 lakh loss.

Alternate Method

Given: SP_house = Rs 1 lakh, SP_shop = Rs 1 lakh. House loss = 20%, Shop profit = 20%.

Formulas: CP = SP × 100 ÷ (100 ± Profit/Loss%) | Total Loss = Total CP − Total SP

⇒ CP of House = 1,00,000 × 100 ÷ 80 = Rs 1,25,000

⇒ CP of Shop = 1,00,000 × 100 ÷ 120 = Rs 5/6 lakh (or Rs 83,333.33)

⇒ Total CP = 5/4 + 5/6 = (15 + 10) ÷ 12 = 25/12 lakh

⇒ Total SP = 1 + 1 = 2 lakh

⇒ Total Loss = 25/12 − 2 = (25 − 24) ÷ 12 = Rs 1/12 lakh

∴ The correct answer is (1/12) loss of Rs 1 lakh.

Additional Information

Two same-SP articles

If SP is same and profit% = loss% = x, then net loss% = x²/100. This rule is independent of the actual value of SP.

Loss in Value

To find the absolute loss value: Loss = [Total SP × (Loss%)] ÷ (100 − Loss%).

Given:

Calculation:

From line MN,

∠BAC = 180 - 129 = 51° 

And ∠ABC = 180 - 110 = 70° 

In ΔABC,

∠BAC + ∠ABC + ∠BCA = 180

⇒ ∠BCA = 180 - 51 - 70 = 59° 

According to the figure,

∠BCA = ∠ECF = 59° 

From line DG,

∠FEC = 180 - 121 = 59° 

In ΔFEC,

∠FEC + ∠ECF + ∠EFC = 180

⇒ ∠EFC = 180 - 59 - 59 = 62°

∠GFH = 180 - 62 = 118° 

In ΔFHG,

∠HGF + ∠GFH + ∠FHG = 180

⇒ ∠HGF = 180 - 118 - 41 = 21° 

∴ ∠HGF = 21°

Given:

The production of State D in 1992 - 93 = 16

The production of State D in 1994 - 95 = 12

Calculation:

Let the production of state D in 1992 - 93 be X times of the production of 1994 - 95

⇒ According to the question

⇒ 12X = 16

⇒ X = 16/12= 1.33

∴ The required result will be 1.33.

Given:

A merchant marked cloth at Rs. 50/metre. He offers 2 successive discounts of 15% and 20%.

Calculation:

Single equivalent discount for a% and b% = [a + b - $\dfrac{a × b}{100}$]%

Let, a = 20% and b = 15%

Single equivalent discount = 20 + 15 - $\dfrac{20 × 15}{100}$

⇒ 35 - 3 = 32%

∴  The net rate of cloth = (100 – 32)% of Rs. 50

⇒ 68% of 50

⇒ $\dfrac{68}{100}$ × 50 = Rs. 34 per meter

∴ The net rate of cloth = Rs. 34 per metre.

Alternate Method

D₁ = 15% = 0.15

D₂ = 20% = 0.20

Calculate the net price per meter after applying the discounts:

Net Price = 50 × (1 - 0.15) × (1 - 0.20)

⇒ 50 × 0.85 × 0.80

Net Price = 34

Shortcut Trick

Profit in terms of Cost Price (CP) is given as CP of 15 pens.

Profit % = (Profit units ÷ Selling units) × 100 = (15 ÷ 60) × 100 = 25%.

CP of 1 pen = 36 ÷ 20 = Rs. 1.80.

SP of 1 pen = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100 = 1.80 × 125 ÷ 100.

SP of 1 pen = 1.80 × 1.25 = Rs. 2.25.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2.25.

Alternate Method

Given → Profit on 60 pens = CP of 15 pens | 20 pens bought for Rs. 36. Formulas: Profit = SP − CP | SP = CP + Profit | SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100.

⇒ Let CP of 1 pen be Rs. x. ⇒ CP of 60 pens = 60x. ⇒ Profit = CP of 15 pens = 15x. ⇒ SP of 60 pens = CP + Profit = 60x + 15x = 75x. ⇒ Given 20 pens CP = Rs. 36 ∴ CP of 1 pen (x) = 36 ÷ 20 = Rs. 1.8. ⇒ SP of 60 pens = 75 × 1.8 = Rs. 135. ⇒ SP of 1 pen = 135 ÷ 60 = Rs. 2.25.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2.25.

Additional Information

Profit/Loss in terms of Quantity

When profit is expressed as CP of 'n' items on selling 'm' items, Profit% = (n ÷ m) × 100.

Unitary Method

Always calculate the price of a single unit to simplify calculations in profit and loss problems.

The required pattern which will make the question figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

The production of A = 27.9

The production of F = 68.4

Calculation:

Let the production of A be X times of the production of F.

According to the question

⇒ 27.9X = 68.4

⇒ X = 68.4/27.9 = 2.45

∴ The required result will be 2.45.

The pattern follows here:

Hence, the wrong term is "428​".

The words arranged in the English dictionary order as:

2. Aperture
3. Avocado
4. Crocodile
5. Mailbox
6. Mainstream

Thus, the words arranged in English dictionary order as '2, 4, 5, 1, 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'option 3'.

Statements:

All doors are sets. All nets are sets. All bins are sets.

Diagaram according to the given statements:

Conclusions:

 

I. Some nets are doors → False (because no direct relationship is given between nets and doors so it may be possible but not defined)

II. Some bins are doors → False (because no direct relationship is given between bins and doors so it may be possible but not defined)

So, neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

We have check all the options,

(1): 3, 4, 6

3. All cows are cattle
4. Some cattle are cats

Lease possible Venn diagram for statement 3 and 4

6. No cows are cats → False (This could be a possibility but not definitely true)

(2): 2, 3, 5

2. Some dogs are definitely not cattle
3. All cows are cattle

Least possible Venn diagram for statement 2 and 3,

5. Some dogs are cows → False (This could be a possibility but not definitely true).

(3): 1, 4, 2

1. No cats are dogs

4. Some cattle are cats

Lease possible Venn diagram for statement 1 and 4,

2. Some dogs are definitely not cattle → True (As No cats are dog and Some cattle are cats, which means the part of cattle which is Cats would never be Dog. hence, some dogs are definitely not cattle).

(4):  1, 5, 6

1. No cats are dogs
2. Some dogs are cows

Least possible diagram for statement 1 and 5,

6. No cows are cats → False (There are no direct relation between cow and cats given, so we can not say anything definite).

Hence, Option (3) indicate a combination where the 3rd statement can be logically deduced from the first two statements.

Given series:

F $ 5 A % & D 4 G @ C 3 X * T 1 9

Condition to be checked:

1. Alphabets which is immediately preceded by a prime number. 2. Alphabets which is immediately followed by a symbol.

Prime number → Alphabet → Symbol

F $ 5 A % & D 4 G @ C **3 X *** T 1 9

Thus there are two such patterns (5 A %, 3 X *) that are following the above conditions.

Hence,"2" is the correct answer.

Mistake Points

Immediately preceded by means immediately before or to come just before.

Immediately followed by means immediately after or to come just after.

Given:

A certain sum of money becomes 2.25 times of itself in 2 years.

Formula used:

A = P[1 + $\dfrac{R}{100}$]ⁿ

Calculation:

Let, Principle = P

T = 2 years and A = 2.25P

A = P[1 + $\dfrac{R}{100}$]ⁿ  

⇒ 2.25P = P [1 + $\dfrac{R}{100}$]²  

⇒ 2.25 = [1 + $\dfrac{R}{100}$]2  

⇒ $\sqrt{2.25}$ = 1 + $\dfrac{R}{100}$

⇒ 1.5 = 1 + $\dfrac{R}{100}$

⇒ $\dfrac{R}{100}$ = 1.5 - 1 = 0.5

⇒ R = 0.5 × 100 = 50%

Given:

Mohan sold an item for Rs 8400 and incurred a loss of 25%.

Formula used:

SP = CP × $\dfrac{\text{100}}{100-L}$

Or, SP = CP × $\dfrac{100+P}{100}$

Calculation:

Mohan sold an item for Rs 8400 and incurred a loss of 25%.

SP = 8400 × $\dfrac{\text{100}}{100-25}$

⇒ 8400 × $\dfrac{\text{100}}{75}$ = Rs. 11200

For 40% profit,

SP = CP × $\dfrac{100+P}{100}$ 

⇒ 11200 × $\dfrac{100+40}{100}$

⇒ 11200 × $\dfrac{\text{140}}{100}$ = Rs. 15680

Calculation:

The total number of items purchased by companies P and Q together = 22.5 + 20 = 42.5

The total number of items purchased by companies R and S together = 25 + 22.5 = 47.5

The respective ratio = 42.5 : 47.5

⇒ 17 : 19

∴ The respective ratio = 17 : 19.

Given:

 

Calculation:

Shopkeepers  P purchased by other sellers = 300 - 254 = 46

Shopkeepers  Q purchased by other sellers = 500 - 312 = 188

The difference between total articles sold to P and Q by all the other sellers = 188 - 46 = 142

∴ The difference between total articles sold to P and Q by all the other sellers is 142.

Shortcut Trick

Initial profit → 20% ⇒ Selling Price (SP) factor = 120

Target profit → 44% ⇒ Revenue factor = 144

Since SP per litre is unchanged, Volume ratio (Final : Initial) = 144 : 120 = 6 : 5

Water added = 6 − 5 = 1 unit for every 5 units of milk.

Required proportion of water to milk = 1/5th.

∴ The correct answer is 1/5th.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial profit on pure milk = 20%

Target profit after adding water = 44%

Sale price per litre is constant.

Milk (M) Cost = ₹100/L

Water Cost = ₹0

Total Volume (M + W)

SP = ₹120/L Total Profit = 44%

Calculations:

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) of 1 litre of pure milk = ₹100

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP) of 1 litre milk = 100 + 20% of 100 = ₹120

⇒ Let the vendor take 1 litre of pure milk and add 'w' litres of water.

⇒ Total volume of mixture = (1 + w) litres

⇒ Total Cost Price = 1 × 100 + w × 0 = ₹100

⇒ Total Selling Price = (1 + w) × 120

⇒ Required Profit = 44%

⇒ Total SP = CP × (100 + Profit%)/100

⇒ (1 + w) × 120 = 100 × (100 + 44)/100

⇒ (1 + w) × 120 = 144

⇒ 1 + w = 144 ÷ 120

⇒ 1 + w = 1.2

⇒ w = 1.2 − 1 = 0.2

⇒ Water to Milk ratio = 0.2 : 1 = 2 : 10 = 1/5

∴ The correct answer is 1/5th.

Additional Information

Profit with Free Ingredients

When a free ingredient (like water) is added, the profit increases because the total quantity increases while the cost remains the same. New Profit % = [(Total SP − Total CP) ÷ Total CP] × 100.

Alligation Rule for Mixtures

Ratio of Milk : Water = (CP of Water − Mean Price) : (Mean Price − CP of Milk). For profit-based questions, the Mean Price is the CP of the mixture.

Constant SP Concept

If SP per unit remains constant, the ratio of total revenue is directly proportional to the ratio of the total quantity sold (Revenue₁ ÷ Revenue₂ = Q₁ ÷ Q₂).

The correct answer is "household".

Key Points

• The term 'Economics' is derived from the Greek word 'Oikonomia' which is a combination of two words: 'oikos' meaning 'household' and 'nomos' meaning 'rules' or 'management'.
• Therefore, 'Oikonomia' means 'the management of a household'.
• In economics, the term 'household' refers not just to a single-family unit but to any individual or group of individuals who engage in economic activities such as production, consumption, and exchange of goods and services.

Key Points

Vestibule training:

• Vestibule training is a type of training that simulates actual work conditions within a training facility.
• The trainees work on equipment and machinery that is identical to what they will be using on the job, but without the pressure and risks of a real work environment.
• This type of training is useful when trainees need to learn specific skills, techniques or procedures before they can work safely and effectively in the actual workplace.

Additional Information

• Sensitivity training is a type of training designed to increase self-awareness and improve interpersonal communication and relationships.
• Committee assignments involve assigning employees to work on a committee or task force to solve a specific problem or accomplish a specific goal.