IBPS Clerk Mains 8 October 2022 Memory Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 23 June 2022 launched a new portal NIRYAT (National Import-Export Record for Yearly Analysis of Trade).
• NIRYAT is developed as a one-stop platform for the stakeholders to get all the necessary information related to India`s foreign trade.
• He launched it while Inaugurating the new premises of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry - ‘Vanijya Bhawan’.

Important Points

• Despite global disruptions last year, India exported a total of $670 billion- ₹50 lakh crores.
• Initiatives like 'Vocal for Local' have also accelerated the country's exports.
• The government's emphasis on local products through the Vocal for Local campaign, 'One district, one product' scheme, has also helped in increasing exports.

The correct answer is 10^th.

Key Points

• The Tenth Schedule - popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act - was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, of 1985.
• It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
• The anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs for leaving one party for another.
• It allows a group of MP/MLAs to join (i.e., merge with) another political party without inviting the penalty for defection.
• As per the 1985 Act, a 'defection' by one-third of the elected members of a political party was considered a 'merger'.
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2003, changed this and now at least two-thirds of the members of a party must be in Favour of a "merger" for it to have validity in the eyes of the law.

Additional Information

Explanation:

• The programme was initiated in the year 2003.
• The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme is an umbrella programme for the prevention and control of vector-borne diseases under the National Health Mission.
• The Directorate of NVBDCP is the central nodal agency for the prevention and control of vector-borne diseases that as Malaria, Dengue, Lymphatic Filariasis, Kala-azar, Japanese Encephalitis and Chikungunya in India.

Programms:

Kala Azar control programme:

• Kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis is a chronic disease caused by an intracellular protozoan or the Leishmania species and transmitted to man by the bite of a female phlebotomus sand fly.

National Filaria Control Programme:

• Bancroftian filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, which is transmitted to man by the bites of infected mosquitoes: Culex, Anopheles, Mansonia and Aedes.
• The National Filaria Control Programme was launched in 1955. It has the objective of controlling Lymphatic Filariasis in un-surveyed areas and urban areas through anti-parasitic and anti-larval measures.
• The National Health Policy 2017 envisages the elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis. 2020 was the target year for the Global elimination of the disease.

Japanese Encephalitis Control Programme:

• Japanese encephalitis (is a zoonotic disease and caused by an arbovirus, group B (Flavivirus) and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes.
• The objective of the programme is the early diagnosis of the disease and sincere case management.

Dengue Control: 

• The objective of the programme is surveillance and Dengue outbreak control, vector control through community participation especially in the pre-monsoon period as the transmission is correlated to monsoon and capacity building to ensure timely treatment.

The correct option is (2)

It is used to measure the speed of the CPU.

Key Points

• MFLOPs, an abbreviation for mega floating-point operations per second, is a commonly used indicator of how quickly computers can do floating-point computations.
• MIPS (million instructions per second), which measures integer performance, is another widely used metric of computer speed and power.
• MFLOPs are a commonly used metric for gauging how quickly floating-point calculations are processed by microprocessors.
• The term FLOP, or floating point operations per second, refers to how quickly a computer can perform calculations.
• A Giga FLOP is merely a GFLOP. So having GPU with 2 times higher GFLOP value is very likely to speed up the training process.
• A central processing unit, also known as a CPU, is a piece of electronic equipment that executes commands from software, enabling a computer or other device to carry out its functions.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• Scientists working with the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) have discovered three subatomic particles never seen before.
• The 27 kilometre-long (16.8 mile) LHC at CERN is the machine that found the Higgs boson particle.
• The particle, along with its linked energy field is thought to be vital to the formation of the universe after the Big Bang 13.7 billion years ago.

Additional Information

• The European Organization for Nuclear Research, known as CERN, is a European research organization that operates the largest particle physics laboratory in the world.
• It was established in 1954.
• The organization is based in a northwest suburb of Geneva on the Franco–Swiss border and has 23 member states.

The correct answer is Commercial paper

Key Points.

• The money market is a market for short-term funds that deal in monetary assets whose period of maturity is up to one year.
• These assets are close substitutes for money. It is a market where low-risk, unsecured, and short-term debt instruments that are highly liquid are issued and actively traded every day.
• It has no physical location but is an activity conducted over the telephone and through the internet.
• It enables the raising of short-term funds for meeting the temporary shortages of cash and obligations and the temporary deployment of excess funds for earning returns
• The major participants in the market are the Reserve Bank of India Commercial Banks, Non-Banking Finance Companies, State Governments, Large Corporate Houses and Mutual Funds

Various instruments available in the money market are:

Treasury Bills (T-Bills):

• It is a short-term borrowing instrument issued by the Government of India. RBI issues it on behalf of Government of India.
• It is also known as zero coupon bonds.
• It has a maturity of less than one year.
• It is issued at discount and repaid at par.
• E.g. : A treasury bill of face value of Rs 1,00,000 will be sold at Rs 96,000 and at the time of maturity the investor will get Rs 1,00,000. Thus,, Rs 4,000 is the interest received by him.
• It is in the form of a promissory note.
• It is highly liquid and have negligible risk.
• It is available in denominations of Rs 25,000 and its multiples.

Commercial Paper:

• Commercial paper is issued by large creditworthy companies to raise short-term funds at lower rates of interest than the market rate.
• It is an unsecured promissory note, having a maturity of 15 days to one year.
• It is a negotiable instrument, transferable by endorsement and delivery.
• It is sold at discount and redeemed at par.
• It is an alternative to bank borrowing. The original purpose of commercial paper was to meet working capital needs of companies.
• It is used by companies for bridge financing, a method of financing used by companies before issuing shares or debentures, to cover the expenses associated with the issue of such securities, i.e. floatation costs (e.g.: brokerage, commission, printing of applications, advertising, etc.)

Call Money:

• Call money is a method used by commercial banks to borrow funds from each other, in order to maintain the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Cash Reserve Ratio is the minimum balance of cash to be maintained by banks, according to RBI guidelines.
• It is short-term finance repayable on demand.
• Maturity of call money is 1 day to 15 days.
• The interest paid on call money is called the call rate.
• Call rate is highly fluctuating, which varies from day-to-day or even from hour-to-hour.
• There is an inverse relationship between call rates and return on other short-term money market instruments. Increase in call rates makes the demand for call money decrease, an increase in demand for other short-term instruments, as they become cheaper in relation to call money.

Certificate of Deposit:

• Certificate of deposits are issued by commercial banks or developmental financial institutions to individuals, institutions, corporations and companies.
• It is an unsecured, negotiable instrument in bearer form.
• It is issued in periods of tight liquidity, when the deposits by individuals and households is less, but the demand for credit is high.
• They help to mobilise large amounts of money in a short time period.

Commercial Bill:

• It is a bill of exchange used by business firms to meet their working capital needs.
• It is a short-term, self-liquidating, negotiable instrument, used for financing credit sales of a firm.
• When goods are sold on credit, the seller (drawer) draws a bill of exchange on the buyer (drawee), who accepts it. When he accepts the bill, it becomes a marketable instrument, which is called a trade bill. When the seller presents it to the bank for discounting it, to get the funds before the maturity of the bill and the bank accepts it, it is called a commercial bill.

The correct answer is ​Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being a member of the legislative assembly or legislative council of a state:
• If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by the state legislature). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
• If he is an undischarged insolvent.
• If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state.
• If he is so disqualified under any law made, by Parliament.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has prescribed a number of additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951). These are similar to those for Parliament. These are mentioned here:
• He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections.
• He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
• He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He must not have any interest in government contracts, works, or services.
• He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 per cent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the state.
• He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offence of bribery.
• He must not have been punished for preaching and practising social crimes such as untouchability, dowry, and sati.

The correct answer is The Department of Financial Services (DFS).

Key Points

• The Department of Financial Services (DFS) is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
• The Department of Financial Services (DFS) is responsible for issues relating to
• Public Sector Banks,
• Development Financial Institutions (NABARD, NHB, EXIM, SIDBI etc.)
• Agricultural Credit,
• Public Sector Insurance Companies
• Pension Reforms

Important Points

• Department of Financial Services (DFS)
• It is one of the five departments of the Ministry of Finance.
• It is responsible for Initiatives and reforms relating to Financial Inclusion, Social Security, and Insurance as a Risk Transfer mechanism.
• He also observes the credit flow to key sectors of the economy/farmers/common man.
• The key flagship schemes being currently run/managed by DFS are Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) etc.

Additional Information

• Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)
• FIU-IND has launched Project FinNet - Financial Intelligence Network to "adopt appropriate technology to collect, analyze, and disseminate valuable financial information to combat money laundering and related crimes."
• Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)
• ​TPDS was launched by gov in June 1997 with a focus on the poor.
• Under TPDS, beneficiaries were divided into Households below the poverty line or BPL and Households above the poverty line or APL.
• Centralized Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
• It is an online platform available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery.
• It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India and States.
• It comes under the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).

The correct answer is Rs 20 lakh.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India has notified the enhancement of collateral-free loans to self-help groups (SHGs) from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
• The entire loan (irrespective of the loan outstanding, even if it subsequently goes below Rs 10 lakh) would be eligible for coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU).

Additional Information

• DAY-NRLM adopts a demand-driven approach.
• It enables the states to formulate their own state-specific poverty reduction action plans.
• For loans to SHGs above Rs 10 lakh and up to Rs 20 lakh, no collateral should be charged and no lien should be marked against the savings bank account of SHGs.

Important Points About DAY-NRLM:

• The DAY-NRLM is the flagship program of the Government of India.
• It promotes poverty reduction through building strong institutions for the poor, particularly women.
• It enables institutions to access a range of financial services and livelihoods.
• The scheme was launched in June 2011.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

• The Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021 will introduce in the winter session of Parliament.

Key Points

• Key Provisions:
• It seeks to regulate cryptocurrency and ostensibly ban all private cryptocurrencies.
• It seeks to create a facilitative framework for the creation of the official digital currency to be issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
• So far, the precise contours of the Bill are not in the public domain and no public consultations have been held.
• Present status:
• An inter-ministerial panel on cryptocurrency has recommended that all private cryptocurrencies, except any virtual currencies issued by the state, will be prohibited in India.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has also raised concerns on the cryptocurrencies traded in the market and conveyed them to the Centre.
• Back in March 2020, the Supreme Court had allowed banks and financial institutions to reinstate services related to cryptocurrencies by setting aside the RBI’s 2018 circular that had prohibited them (Based on the ground of “proportionality”). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• What are Cryptocurrencies?
• Cryptocurrencies are digital currencies in which encryption techniques are used to regulate the generation of units of currency and verify the transfer of funds, operating independently of a central bank. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Examples: Bitcoin, Ethereum etc.
• Why does the govt want to ban cryptocurrencies?
• Sovereign guarantee: Cryptocurrencies pose risks to consumers.  They do not have any sovereign guarantee and hence are not legal tender.
• Market volatility: Their speculative nature also makes them highly volatile.  For instance, the value of Bitcoin fell from USD 20,000 in December 2017 to USD 3,800 in November 2018.
• Risk in security: A user loses access to their cryptocurrency if they lose their private key (unlike traditional digital banking accounts, this password cannot be reset).
• Malware threats: In some cases, these private keys are stored by technical service providers (cryptocurrency exchanges or wallets), which are prone to malware or hacking.
• Money laundering.

Key Points

• International Day of Democracy is observed on 15 September.
• This year, the day focuses on "the importance of media freedom for democracy, peace and meeting the Sustainable Development Goals".
• According to the United Nations, the International Day of Democracy provides an opportunity to review the state of democracy in the world.
• The day aims to "transform the ideal of democracy" into a reality that can be enjoyed by everyone, everywhere.
• History of the day
• The International Day of Democracy was established in 2007 through a resolution passed by the United Nations General Assembly.
• According to the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), the resolution was designed to strengthen and strengthen democracy.
• The first International Day of Democracy was observed on 15 September 2008 by 46 national parliaments.
• The idea of celebrating the International Day of Democracy stems from the Universal Declaration on Democracy.
• It was adopted by the Inter-Parliamentary Council in its 161st session on 16 September 1997.

Additional Information

• 13 September - International Chocolate Day
• 14 September - Hindi Divas
• 16 September - Malaysia Day, World Ozone Day

The correct answer is Proposal Form.

Key Points

• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has relaxed the requirement of submitting separate proposal form for taking the immediate annuity products from proceeds of National Pension Scheme (NPS).
• This norm is applicable to Senior Citizens.
• IRDAI exercises this power under IRDAI Act, 1999.
• Now, the exit form of NPS will be treated as proposal form for purchasing annuity, thereby reducing the time and efforts of senior citizens as well as insurers.
• Proposal form is the most important and basic document required for life insurance contract between the insured and insurance company.
• It includes the insured's fundamental information like address, age, name, education, occupation etc. It also includes the person's medical history.
• Jeevan Pramaan is an AADHAR Biometric Authentication based **digital life certificates for Pensioners.**​

Additional Information

• The Annuity Service Providers (ASPs) are insurance companies regulated by IRDAI and empanelled by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) to provide the annuity to the NPS subscribers from the bouquet of annuities offered by them.
• The Central Government has introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 2004 (except for armed forces).
• NPS is being implemented and regulated by PFRDA in the country. It is made available to all Citizens of India from 2009.
• Any individual citizen of India (both resident and Non-resident) in the age group of 18-65 years can join NPS.
• Earlier Interim Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority(IPRDA) was there, which formed in 2004 then Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is a statutory regulatory body established under the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 2013.
• It was established to oversee the National Pension System (NPS), and regulate India’s pensions sector.
• PFRDA is headquartered in New Delhi and Supratim Bandyopadhyay is its Chairman.

The correct answer is ​Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 11 July 2022 unveiled a rupee settlement system for international trade.
• It aims to promote the growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing interest of the global trading community in the Indian Rupee.
• This new mechanism will enable Indian exporters to receive advance payment against exports from overseas importers in rupees.

Additional Information

• RBI on May 27, 2022, imposed a penalty of Rs 45 lakh on Japan-based MUFG Bank for non-compliance with the directions on 'time-bound implementation and strengthening of SWIFT-related operational controls'.
• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved HSBC’s acquisition of L&T Investment Management Ltd., the investment manager for L&T Mutual Fund.
• The $425 million deal involves HSBC buying the entity from its parent L&T Finance Holdings Ltd. (LTFH).
• The acquisition is being executed through HSBC Asset Management (India) Pvt. Ltd.
• RBI 25th Governor: Shaktikanta Das
• RBI Headquarters: Mumbai
• RBI Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.

The correct answer is 'Reserve Bank of India'.

Key Points 

• Four entities of the eight that commenced testing of their products in the second cohort under the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) regulatory sandbox structure themed “Cross Border Payments” have completed the “Test Phase”, the central bank informed on July 19.
• The four entities that have completed the “Test Phase” are: Cashfree Payments India Pvt Ltd, Fairex Solutions Pvt Ltd, Nearby Technologies Pvt Ltd, and Open Financial Technologies Pvt Ltd.
• Cashfree’s product extends a cross-border payment platform to facilitate the purchase of assets listed on foreign exchanges like publicly listed shares, exchange-traded funds i.e., ETFs and units of mutual funds, securities by Indian investors via local payment methods.
• Similarly, Fairex’s product provides an aggregation platform of leading cross-border payment providers for outward remittance. Nearby Technologies product facilitates routing the inward cross-border remittance to the beneficiary’s Aadhaar number as a virtual bank account using existing Rupee Drawing Arrangement (RDA) mechanism.
• Open’s product proposes a blockchain-based cross-border payment system, leveraging the current infrastructure and ensures frictionless and tamperproof monitoring capabilities.
• These entities have now exited the second cohort regulatory sandbox on ‘Cross-Border Payments’. The products found acceptable under this Cohort may be considered for adoption by regulated entities subject to compliance with applicable regulatory requirements.

Additional Information 

• Cross-border payments are financial transactions where the payer and the recipient are based in separate countries. They cover both wholesale and retail payments, including remittances.
• Cross-border payments can be made in several different ways. Bank transfers, credit card payments and alternative payment methods such as e-money wallets and mobile payments are currently the most prevalent ways of transferring funds across borders.

The correct answer is Legal Entity Identifier

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has made the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) code mandatory for all participants undertaking transactions in the markets regulated by the RBI.
• The LEI is a 20-character unique identity code assigned to entities who are parties to a financial transaction.
• it was indicated that the LEI system for all borrowers of banks having total fund-based and non-fund based exposure of ₹ 5 crores and above will be introduced in a phased manner (extract enclosed). Accordingly, it has been decided that the banks shall advise their existing large corporate borrowers having total exposures of ₹ 50 crores and above to obtain LEI.
• The LEI code is a measure to improve the quality and accuracy of financial data systems.
• Entities can obtain LEI from any of the Local Operating Units (LOUs) accredited by the Global Legal Entity Identifier Foundation (GLEIF) – the entity tasked to support the implementation and use of LEI.
• In India, LEI code may be obtained from Legal Entity Identifier India Ltd (LEIIL), a subsidiary of the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL), which has been recognized by the Reserve Bank as an issuer of LEI under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 and is accredited by the GLEIF as the Local Operating Unit (LOU) in India for issuance and management of LEI.

• The Union Cabinet has approved a reconstruction scheme for Yes Bank as proposed by the Reserve Bank of India.
• Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that SBI will invest 49 percent equity in Yes Bank with other investors also being invited.
• The scheme has been approved with the objective of protecting the interest of depositors and providing stability to Yes Bank.

The correct answer is 'Bandhan Financial Holdings Ltd'.

Key Points 

• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) approves acquisition of stake in IDFC Asset Management Company Limited and IDFC AMC Trustee Company Limited by Bandhan Financial Holdings Limited, ChrysCapital and GIC.
• The proposed combination envisages acquisition of 99.96% stake in IDFC Asset Management Company Limited (IDFC AMC) and 100% stake in IDFC AMC Trustee Company Limited (IDFC Trustee) by Bandhan Financial Holdings Limited (BFHL), Lathe Investment Pte. Ltd. (Lathe), Tangerine Investments Limited (CC Entity 1) and Infinity Partners (CC Entity 2).
• BFHL is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bandhan Financial Services Limited. BFHL is set up to act as the promoter of Bandhan Bank Limited and to hold the investment in Bandhan Bank as well as all other financial services entities of the group regulated by the Reserve Bank of India or other financial sector regulators.
• Lathe is wholly-owned by GIC (Ventures) Private Limited. Lathe is part of a group of investment holding companies managed by GIC Special Investments Private Limited.
• CC Entity 1 is a subsidiary of ChrysCapital IX, LLC (CC IX). CC IX is a private equity fund set up by the ChrysCapital group. CC Entity 2 is a partnership firm.

Additional Information 

• IDFC AMC is the asset management company to IDFC Mutual Fund (IDMF).
• IDFC AMC also operates a portfolio management business and acts as an investment manager to IDFC India Equity Hedge Fund, a Category III Alternative Investment Fund.

The correct answer is mRube 

Key Points

• mRube, the electronic trading platform promoted by Rubber Board on June 8, 2022.
• The Ahmedabad-based i-Sourcing Technologies is the technology partner.
• The e-market for rubber will be a game-changer in the rubber marketing system.
• Though rubber trade possesses an innate advantage of high-level marketing efficiency, the trading system has not upgraded with changing requirements of the consumer sector.
• The rubber market will rework a recreation right into a rubber advertising and marketing system.
• The e-commerce platform is being thought of full the prevailing buying and selling system by bringing higher transparency and market visibility.
• It is anticipated to carry extra enterprise to current rubber sellers, processors and producers by reaching out to new sellers/patrons, even in distant places.

The correct answer is 50,000.

Key Points

• The Arogya Sanjeevani Policy (which was launched on April 1, 2020) is a standardised insurance product that will take care of the basic requirements of policyholders.
• The Aarogya Sanjeevani policy is the health insurance policy launched by the IRDAI for the citizens of India, currently policy covers minimum sum insured of 50,000 rupees and maximum sum insured of 5 lakh rupees.
• Minimum entry age of the policy is 18 years and the maximum age at entry is 65.

Additional Information

• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an independent, legislative body responsible for regulating and promoting the Indian insurance and reinsurance industries.
• It was established by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 a Parliament Act passed by the Indian government.
• The headquarters of the organization are in Hyderabad, Telangana where it relocated in 2001 from Delhi.
• IRDAI is a 10-member body that includes the chairman, five full-time and four part-time members appointed by the Indian government.

The correct answer is NARCL.

Key Points

• The National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) has received a license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), enabling it to start operations as a so-called bad bank, an entity formed to take over and dispose of the identified stressed assets worth Rs 2 lakh crore of commercial banks.
• Under the new framework, banks will aggregate and consolidate stressed assets with NARCL for resolution. Public sector banks will hold 51 per cent ownership in NARCL.
• NARCL will acquire fully provisioned stressed assets by making an offer to the lead bank in a consortium of lenders; once the offer is accepted, NARCL will engage with India Debt Resolution Company Ltd.
• (IDRCL) for management and resolution of the stressed assets. In IDRCL, private entities will maintain 51 per cent ownership, with the government holding the rest.

Additional Information

• NARCL started with total capital of Rs 6,000 crore; it was incorporated in Mumbai in July 2021.
• SBI, Union Bank of India and Indian Bank have picked up a 13.27 percent stake each in NARCL. Punjab National Bank has acquired a 12 percent stake.
• IDRCL is a service company/operational entity established to manage stressed assets and engage with market professionals including turnaround experts.
• Public sector banks and state-owned financial institutions will own a 49 per cent stake in the entity and the rest by private sector lenders.
• The government-promoted bad bank National Asset Reconstruction Company of India Ltd (NARCL) offered to acquire five distressed loan accounts, including those of Future Retail and GTL Ltd in August 2022.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank on 6th January 2021 released the eligibility criteria for entities to be categorized as 'Specified User' of Credit Information Companies (CICs).
• The criteria set out the requirements for the entities to become eligible as Specified User of CIC under clause (j) of Regulation 3 of the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations, 2021.
• As per the requirements, a 'specified user' should be a company incorporated in India or a statutory corporation established in the country.
• The company should have a net worth of not less than ₹2 crores as per the latest audited balance sheet and should meet the requirement on a continuing basis.
• In case the entity is a company, it should have not less than three years of experience in running the business/activity of processing information for the support or benefit of credit institutions and shall have a clean track record.
• The company, its promoter(s) and director(s) should not have been convicted of any offence involving moral turpitude or any economic offence.
• The entity should have a certification from CISA certified auditor that it has a robust and secure information technology (IT) system in place for preserving and protecting the data relating to the credit information.

Reference: https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/content/pdfs/Eligibility05012022.pdf

Important Points

• Currently, there are four CICs operating in India:

1. Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd (CIBIL)
2. Equifax Credit Information Services Pvt Ltd
3. Experian Credit Information Company of India Pvt Ltd
4. CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services Pvt Ltd.

• These companies are governed by the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act (CICRA) in 2005.
• A CIC can engage in businesses such as:

1. Providing credit information to individual and corporate borrowers his/her/its own credit report.
2. Providing data management services to the Credit Institutions who are its members.

The correct answer is All of the above are small savings schemes.

Key Points

• Small savings schemes are designed to provide safe and attractive investment options to the public and at the same time to mobilise resources for development.
• Major small savings schemes are Post Office Monthly Income Scheme (MIS), National Savings Certificate, Public Provident Fund (PPF), Post Office Time Deposit Scheme, Senior Citizen's Savings Scheme and Post Office Savings Account.

Additional Information

• The government has effected minor hikes of 0.1% to 0.3% in interest rates payable on five small savings instruments, including Kisan Vikas Patra, Senior Citizens' Savings scheme and time deposits for two and three years, for the quarter beginning 1 October.
• 

The correct answer is ‘Mathematics’

Key Points

• Ukrainian maths professor, Maryna Viazovska won the top mathematics prize, the Fields Medal 2022.
• Maryna is only the second woman to receive the award, which is awarded to mathematicians under 40, since it was created in 1936.
• The other female laureate, Iran’s Maryam Mirzakhani, died of breast cancer in 2017 just three years after winning the prize.
• Viazovska and three other mathematicians received the Fields Medal, dubbed the Nobel Prize in maths, in Helsinki after the ceremony was moved from Saint Petersburg to the Finnish capital in response to Moscow’s war.
• Viazovska was born in 1984 in Kyiv and has a master's degree at Germany’s University of Kaiserslautern and a Ph.D. at the University of Bonn.
• Since 2018, she has been chair of number theory at the Ecole Polytechnique Federale de Lausanne.
• The Fields Medals were first awarded in 1936 in Oslo, Norway and were conceived by John Charles Fields, a Canadian mathematician.

The correct answer is USD 6.04 billion.

Key Points

• The latest data for Q1FY23 released by the RBI shows that remittance by Indians under the scheme jumped 64.75 percent to $6.04 billion from $3.67 billion in Q1FY22.
• The amount remitted in Q1FY23 is even higher than that in Q4FY22, where outward remittance under LRS was to the tune of $5.8 billion.

Additional Information

• International travel contributed $2.92 billion of the$6.04 billion remitted under LRS in Q1FY23, constituting almost 48 percent of the money remitted under the LRS scheme.
• Maintenance of close relatives formed the second largest segment after international travel, with Indian's remitting just over $1 billion in Q1FY23.
• Money remitted under the category “gift” constituted the third largest segment, with India remitting around $770.66 million in Q1FY23.
• Overseas education constituted the fourth largest segment, with $738.42 million remitted in Q1FY23.
• According to the scheme introduced in 2004, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to $250,000 per financial year for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.
• The scheme was introduced on February 4, 2004, with a limit of $25,000. The LRS limit has been revised in stages consistent with prevailing macro and micro economic conditions.

The correct answer is 'REC Ltd'.

Key Points

• REC Ltd has been accorded with the status of a ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise, thus giving REC greater operational and financial autonomy.
• An order to this effect was issued on September 22 by the Department of Public Enterprises, under the Ministry of Finance.
• The grant of ‘Maharatna’ status to REC will impart enhanced powers to the company’s Board while taking financial decisions.
• The Board of a ‘Maharatna’ CPSE can make equity investments to undertake financial joint ventures and wholly-owned subsidiaries and undertake mergers and acquisitions in India and abroad, subject to a ceiling of 15% of the Net Worth of the concerned CPSE, limited to ₹5,000 crores in one project.
• The Board can also structure and implement schemes relating to personnel and Human Resource Management and Training. With this, REC can also enter into technology Joint Ventures or other strategic alliances among others.
• REC has played a key role in the success of the flagship schemes of the Government of India such as DDUGJY and SAUBHAGYA and has contributed towards achieving village and household electrification in the country. Further, it is currently playing the role of nodal agency for Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS), for revamping the distribution sector to alleviate the financial & operational issues.

Additional Information

• REC Limited, formerly Rural Electrification Corporation Limited, is a public Infrastructure Finance Company in India’s power sector.
• It was incorporated in 1969 and promotes power projects across India.
• The company provides loans to Central/State Sector Power Utilities in the country, State Electricity Boards, Rural Electric Cooperatives, NGOs and Private Power Developers.

The correct answer is 15%.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2022-2023 proposes to reduce the "Alternate Minimum Tax" paid by "Cooperatives societies" from 18.5%to 15%.
• The Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman also proposed to reduce the Surcharge on "Co-operative societies" from present 12% to 7% for those having a total income of more than Rs. 1 Cr and up to Rs. 10 Cr.
• A concessional tax regime of 15% tax was introduced by the Government for newly incorporated domestic manufacturing companies. The Government proposes to extend the last date for commencement of manufacturing or production under section 115BAB by one year from 31^st March 2023 to 31^st March 2024.

Important Points

• The Union Budget 2022-2023 proposes a new provision permitting taxpayers to file an Updated Return on payment of additional tax. This updated return can be filed within two years from the end of the relevant assessment year.​
• The Central Government contributes 14% of the salary of its employee to the National Pension System (NPS) Tier-I. To provide equal treatment, the budget proposes to increase the tax deduction limit from 10% to 14% on employer’s contribution to the National Pension System (NPS) account of State Government employees as well.
• Smt. Sitharaman proposes to cap the surcharge on long-term capital gains arising on the transfer of any type of assets at 15%, which was earlier 37%.

Additional Information

• Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget 2022-23 in Parliament on February 1, 2022
• The key highlights of the budget are as follows:
• India’s economic growth is estimated at 9.2% to be the highest among all large economies.
• 60 lakh new jobs are to be created under the productivity-linked incentive scheme in 14 sectors.
• PLI Schemes have the potential to create an additional production of Rs. 30 lakh crore.
• A network of 23 tele-mental health centers of excellence will be set up, with NIMHANS being the nodal center and the International Institute of Information Technology-Bangalore (IIITB) providing technical support.
• The government has proposed to set up 75 Digital Banking Units (DBUs) in 75 districts of the country by Scheduled Commercial Banks
• The outlay for capital expenditure stepped up sharply by 35.4% to Rs. 7.50 lakh crore in 2022-23 from Rs. 5.54 lakh crore in the current year.
• The budget provides that any income from the transfer of any virtual digital asset shall be taxed at the rate of 30%.

The correct answer is Narinder Batra.

Key Points

• Narinder Batra has tendered his resignation from the post of Indian Olympic Association (IOA) President.
• Adille Sumariwalla has taken over as the IOA President till fresh elections are held.
• The Indian Olympic Association or Indian Olympic Committee is the body responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games, Asian Games and other international athletic meets
• It was founded in 1927 and is headquartered in New Delhi.

Additional Information

• Narinder Batra is also the President of the International Hockey Federation (FIH).
• Multi-sport events hosted by IOA include:
• 2008 - Commonwealth Youth Games
• 2010 - Commonwealth Games
• 2011 - South Asian Winter Games
• 2014 - Lusophony Games
• 2016 - South Asian Games

The correct answer is ‘United States of America’

Key Points

• The US surpassed China to become India's top trading partner in 2021-22, reflecting strengthening economic ties between the two countries.
• According to the data of the commerce ministry, in 2021-22, the bilateral trade between the US and India stood at USD 119.42 billion as against USD 80.51 billion in 2020-21.
• Exports to the US increased to USD 76.11 billion in 2021-22 from USD 51.62 billion in previous fiscal year, while imports rose to USD 43.31 billion as compared to about USD 29 billion in 2020-21.
• During 2021-22, India's two-way commerce with China aggregated at USD 115.42 billion as compared to USD 86.4 billion in 2020-21.
• Exports to China marginally increased to USD 21.25 billion last fiscal year from USD 21.18 billion in 2020-21, while imports jumped to USD 94.16 billion from about USD 65.21 billion in 2020-21.
• Trade gap rose to USD 72.91 billion in 2021-22 from USD 44 billion in previous fiscal year.
• America is one of the few countries with which India has a trade surplus of USD 32.8 billion with the US.

The correct answer is REC Limited.

Key Points

• REC Ltd has been accorded the status of a ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise, thus giving it greater operational & financial autonomy.
• Incorporated in 1969, REC is a non-banking finance company, focusing on power sector financing & development across India.
• It comes under the Power Ministry.
• It was earlier known as Rural Electrification Corporation.
• CMD: Vivek Dewangan

Additional Information

• ​ The Government of India categorizes Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three different categories – Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna. These categorizations are based on different criteria.
• The “Maharatna” category for CPSEs was introduced in 2009 with the objective to empower mega CPSEs to expand their operations.
• Under government rules, Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) must fulfil the following criteria for grant of Maharatna status.

1. Having Navratna status.
2. Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crores, during last 3 years.
3. The average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crores, during the last 3 years.
4. Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crores, during last 3 years.
5. Should have a significant global presence and international operations.
6. Listed on the Indian stock exchange with the minimum prescribed public shareholding limit under SEBI regulations.

• At present, there are Eight Maharatna companies besides REC Ltd:
• Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL),
• Coal India (CIL),
• GAIL (India),
• Indian Oil Corporation Limited,
• NTPC,
• Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
• Steel Authority of India (SAIL)
• Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

The correct answer is 'DAKSH'.

Key Points

• Reserve Bank Governor Shaktikanta Das on October 6 launched a new 'SupTech' initiative DAKSH - the bank's Advanced Supervisory Monitoring System, which is expected to make the supervisory processes more robust.
• In a statement, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said it has been taking various initiatives in strengthening supervision, which among other initiatives include adoption of latest data and analytical tools as well as leveraging technology for implementing more efficient and automated work processes.
• DAKSH is a web-based end-to-end workflow application through which RBI shall monitor compliance requirements in a more focused manner with the objective of further improving the compliance culture in Supervised Entities (SEs) like Banks, NBFCs, etc.
• The application will also enable seamless communication, inspection planning and execution, cyber incident reporting and analysis, and provision of various MIS reports, among others, through a platform which enables anytime-anywhere secure access.
• The RBI said that DAKSH means 'efficient' and 'competent', reflecting the underlying capabilities of the application.

Additional Information

• The overall direction of the RBI lies with the 21-member central board of directors, composed of: the governor; four deputy governors; two finance ministry representatives (usually the Economic Affairs Secretary and the Financial Services Secretary); ten government-nominated directors; and four directors who represent local boards for Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.
• Each of these local boards consists of five members who represent regional interests and the interests of co-operative and indigenous banks.

The correct answer is “Go Digital, Go Secure".

Key Points

• RBI has selected “Go Digital, Go Secure" as the theme for Financial Literacy Week 2022.
• This theme is one of the strategic objectives of the National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025.
• RBI will focus on creating awareness about the convenience of digital transactions, security of digital transactions, and protection of customers.
• It will be observed between February 14 to 18, 2022.

Additional Information​ 

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Feb 10, 2022, proposed to extend the Rs 50,000 crore on-tap liquidity window for emergency healthcare services till June 30, 2022.
• RBI had introduced the liquidity window at the repo rate with tenors of up to three years on May 5, 21.
• It has been introduced to provide immediate capital for ramping up Covid-19 related healthcare infrastructure and services.
• Digital payment transactions reported a 40% year-on-year jump as of September 2021, as per the RBI’s latest index.
• The newly constituted RBI’s digital payment index (RBI-DPI) stood at 304.06 during September 2021 as against 270.59 in March 2021 and 217.74 in September 2020.
• RBI announced that SBI, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank will remain as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) and will have to maintain additional common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital ratios as in 2020.
• Fino Payments Bank has received approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for starting an international remittance business under the money transfer service scheme (MTSS) on 03 January 2022.
• To put restrictions on para-banks whenever vital financial metrics dip below the prescribed threshold, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a prompt corrective action (PCA) framework for large non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) with effect from October 2022.
• About RBI:
• RBI 25th Governor: Shaktikanta Das (As of Feb 2022).
• RBI Headquarters: Mumbai;
• RBI Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.

The correct answer is ‘675 Million’

Key Points

• As per the United Nations-Habitat's World Cities Report 2022, India's urban population is estimated to stand at 675 million in 2035, the second highest behind China's one billion.
• The global urban population is back on track to grow by another 2.2 billion by 2050.
• India's urban population is projected to be 675,456,000 in 2035, growing from 483,099,000 in 2020 to 542,743,000 in 2025 and 607,342,000 in 2030.
• By 2035, the percentage of population in India at mid-year residing in urban area will be 43.2 percent.
• China's urban population in 2035 is projected at 1.05 billion while the urban population in Asia will be 2.99 billion in 2035 and that in South Asia 987,592,000.
• The report said that very big economies like China and India have a large share of the world's population and their development trajectories have greatly influenced global inequality.
• The report said that with existing urban populations continuing to grow naturally through rising birth rates, particularly in lower income countries, the urban population is forecast to grow from 56 percent of the global total in 2021 to 68 percent by 2050.
• Many municipal administrations choose to adopt a smart city agenda, to provide strategic and programmatic direction for urban development.

The correct answer is 2020-21 to 2024-25**.**

Key Points

• The Department of Fisheries has approved projects worth Rs 5,918 crore of various state governments and other agencies under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
• The dept aims to bring 'Blue Revolution' through sustainable development of the fisheries sector with an investment of Rs 20,050 crore for a period of five years, starting 2020-21 to 2024-25 in all states/union territories.

Additional Information

• The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries sector in the country.
• The investment of Rs. 20,050 crores under PMMSY is the highest ever in the fisheries sector.
• Out of this, an investment of about Rs 12340 crores is proposed for beneficiary-oriented activities in Marine, Inland fisheries and Aquaculture and about Rs 7710 crores investment for Fisheries Infrastructure.
• Objectives of PMMSY:
• It aims at enhancing fish production by an additional 70 lakh tonne by 2024-25
• Increase fisheries export earnings to Rs.1,00,000 crore by 2024-25
• Doubling of incomes of fishers and fish farmers
• Reducing post-harvest losses from 20-25% to about 10%
• Generation of additional 55 lakhs direct and indirect gainful employment opportunities in fisheries sector and allied activities.
• PMMSY scheme primarily focuses on adopting ‘Cluster or Area based approaches’ and creation of Fisheries clusters through backward and forward linkages.

The correct answer is Gulf of Oman.

In News

• India signs MoU with Iran for maritime coop; eyes long-term contract on Chabahar Port

India's Strategic Vision for Chabahar:

• To build India’s first offshore port and to project Indian infrastructure prowess in the Gulf;
• To circumvent trade through Pakistan, given the tense ties with India’s neighbour and build a long-term, sustainable sea trade route; and
• To find an alternative land route to Afghanistan.
• To provide Central Asia with an alternate route to the China ­Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).

Key Points 

• Chabahar Port is one of the important ports in Iran.
• Chabahar Port is located on the Gulf of Oman and is the only oceanic port in the country.
• Importance of Chabahar port for India:-
• With this, India can bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan.
• It will also boost India’s access to Iran, the key gateway to the International North-South Transport Corridor that has sea, rail, and road routes between India, Russia, Iran, Europe, and Central Asia.
• It also helps India counter the Chinese presence in the Arabian Sea which China is trying to ensure by helping Pakistan develop the Gwadar port.
• Gwadar port is less than 400 km from Chabahar by road and 100 km by sea.
• From a diplomatic perspective, Chabahar port could be used as a point from which humanitarian operations could be coordinated.

The correct answer is Wimbledon.

Key Points

• Grand Slam consists of four major tennis championships Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon and US Open.
• Wimbledon is the oldest tennis tournament in the world.
• It has been held at All England Club in Wimbledon, London since the year 1877.
• Wimbledon is the only major tournament to be played on grass.

Additional Information

• Due to Covid 19 pandemic, the Wimbledon 2020 was cancelled which is the first instance since World War II**.**
• Wimbledon 2022 is the 135th edition of the game between 27 June to 10 July 2022.

The correct answer is ‘NIRYAT’

Key Points

• The Government of India launches NIRYAT – National Import-Export Record for Yearly Analysis of Trade.
• The NIRYAT Portal is related to the Ministry of Commerce.
• This has been developed as a one-stop platform for stakeholders to access all the information necessary related to India’s foreign trade.
• The NIRYAT portal is another step in the country’s journey towards self-reliance: ‘Antmanirbhar Bharat’.
• In a first for the nation, the ambitious target of exports worth US$ 400 billion was achieved nine days before the deadline in March 2022.
• Indian technology exports are set to reach US$150 billion (excluding hardware exports), a growth of about 2\% and an addition of approximately US$ 3 billion over FY2020.
• IT services account for a turnover of US$ 81 billion and remain the leader in terms of market share.
• This segment is slated to continue to be the best performing segment of FY2021, with a year-on-year growth of 2.6%.
• Business Process Management was valued at US$ 34 billion, marking a growth rate of 2.3% year-on-year.
• Collaborative applications, application platforms, security software, system and service management software, content workflow and management applications will lead to a 2% growth of this segment to US$ 3 billion.

The correct answer is IUCN.

Key Points

• About Red Data Book
• Organization related to “Red Data Book” or “Red List” is IUCN.
• The Red Data Book is a public document that is created for recording endangered and rare species of plants, animals, fungi as well as some local subspecies that are present in a particular region.
• The Red Data Book contains the complete list of threatened species.
• It helps us in providing complete information for research, studies and also for monitoring the programs on rare and endangered species and their habits.
• The name of this book has its origins in Russia, it was originally known as the Red Data Book of the Russian Federation or the RDBRF.
• The book was based on research conducted between 1961 and 1964 by biologists in Russia.
• Currently, the IUCN maintains the Red Data Book.
• Red Data Book of India includes the conservation status of animals and plants which are endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
• The data for this book is provided through surveys which are conducted by the Zoological Survey of India and the Botanical Survey of India under the guidance of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Additional Information

• About IUCN
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was founded in 1948 with an aim to maintain a complete record of every species that ever lived.
• IUCN is the world’s most detailed inventory center of the global conservation status of biological species.
• Established in 1889, the International Boundary and Water Commission (IBWC) has responsibility for applying the boundary and water treaties between the United States and Mexico and settling differences that may arise in their application.
• The United States Section of the International Boundary and Water Commission (USIBWC) is a federal government agency and is headquartered in El Paso, Texas.
• The IBWC operates under the foreign policy guidance of the Department of State.
• The World Wide Fund for Nature is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961 that works in the field of wilderness preservation and the reduction of human impact on the environment.

The correct answer is 132nd.

Key Points

• India ranked 132 out of 191 countries in the 2021 human development index (HDI), according to a report released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Among India’s neighbours, Sri Lanka (73rd), China (79th), Bangladesh (129th) and Bhutan (127th) are ranked above India.
• Switzerland remained at the top spot, followed by Norway and Iceland.
• India ranked 131 in the 2020 index.

Additional Information

• ​Important Ranking and Index:
• India ranks 135 among a total of 146 countries in the Global Gender Gap Index 2022.
• Austrian capital Vienna has been ranked as the world's most liveable city in the report 'Global Liveability Index 2022'.
• Vienna replaced New Zealand's Auckland city as the most liveable city.
• Kerala has been ranked first in Asia in Affordable Talent in Global Startup Ecosystem Report (GSER) 2022.
• India has jumped six positions to 37th rank on the annual World Competitiveness Index for the year 2022.
• Denmark has been ranked at the top while Switzerland has been ranked at second position.
• According to a report by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), around 7.3% of Indians owned some form of digital currency in 2021.
• The website of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has been ranked first under the Central Ministries Portal in National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment.

The correct answer is Jens Stoltenberg.

Key Points

• NATO: North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
• This organization is an alliance of 31 independent member countries.
• It was established at the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty on 4 April 1949.

Additional Information 

• The fundamental goal of this organization is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security by political and military means.
• It enables members to consult and cooperate on defense and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
• Article 5 states that an attack against one Ally is an attack against all. This article was invoked when Bin Laden attacked the World Trade Centre in September 2001.
• Chairman of the NATO Military Committee: Admiral Rob Bauer.
• Secretary-General: Jens Stoltenberg.

The correct answer is 'World Bank'.

Key Points

• India’s government and the World Bank are in talks to introduce a risk-sharing mechanism to compensate banks giving loans for electric vehicle purchases, as the country seeks to decarbonize the transport sector.
• The risk instrument will help banks hedge against loan defaults and cut the cost of financing EVs, India’s G20 sherpa Amitabh Kant said at the sidelines of an industry event in New Delhi.
• The switch to clean transport in the South Asian nation is slower than the US and China in part due to the sluggish adoption of battery-powered vehicles.
• The high cost of these vehicles and insufficient charging stations are a major barrier with NEF saying that by 2040, 53% of new automobile sales in India will be electric, well behind China with 77%.
• Amitabh Kant said that the banks in India have been reluctant to give loans for EV purchases at a time when the cost of insuring these vehicles is high and the resale market is remains small.
• The World Bank will set up a $1 billion fund with an Indian bank that will be made available to all financial institutions, according to a senior NITI Aayog official working on the project.
• The fund will provide first-loss guarantees to lenders in case of loan defaults, said the official who declined to be named as discussions are still private.

Additional Information

• India has been pushing to decarbonize its transport sector, which accounts for 13.5% of the country’s total emissions, as it looks to achieve its goal of becoming net carbon zero by 2070.
• The government expects investments in the Indian EV industry to more than triple to $20 billion by 2030 from$6 billion in 2021.

The correct answer is December 2024.

• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program in additional 126 cities across 14 States/ UTs, in the presence of senior officials of States/UTs and various Central Ministries.
• ‘‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program was started to provide social security benefits to street vendors for their holistic development and socio-economic upliftment.

Key Points

• SIDBI is the Implementation Agency for PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme.
• It was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• It is a Central Sector Scheme.
• The scheme aims to provide an affordable working capital loan to Street Vendors and has successfully crossed the 30 Lakh mark.
• Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) has been extended beyond March 2022 till December 2024.
• The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to Rs. 10,000/- of one-year tenure.

Important Points

• 28,69,477 eligible beneficiaries have benefited under the PM SVANidhi Scheme till March 7, 2022.
• An amount of RS. 45.21 crore & RS. 7.55 crore have been paid as interest subsidy and cashback respectively.
• As a part of Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNibhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) entered into MoU with Zomato, one of the largest online platforms for ordering and delivery of food in India, to onboard street food vendors on its food-tech platform.
• (PM SVANidhi) comes under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• Union Minister of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA): Hardeep Singh Puri.

The correct answer is Department of Consumer Affairs.

Key Points

• The Department of Consumer Affairs has set up a committee to develop a comprehensive framework on the right to repair.
• The aim of the framework is to empower consumers and product buyers in the local market and harmonize trade.
• Its aim is also to emphasize developing sustainable consumption of products and reduction in e-waste.

Important Points

• The committee chaired by Additional Secretary in the  Department, Nidhi Khare held its first meeting wherein important sectors for the right to repair were identified.
• They include Farming Equipment, Mobile Phones, Tablets, Consumer Durables, Automobiles, and Automobile Equipment.
• During the meeting, the pertinent issues highlighted include companies avoiding the publication of manuals that can help users make repairs easily.
• In June 2022, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the concept of LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment) movement in India.
• This includes the concept of reusing and recycling various consumer products.

The correct answer is 2008.

Key Points

• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was incorporated in 2008 as an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
• An initiative of RBI and IBA under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, NPCI was initiated for creating a robust payment and settlement infrastructure in the country.
• Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.
• The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank Limited, HDFC Bank Limited, Citibank N. A. and HSBC.
• In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
• In 2020, new entities regulated by RBI were inducted, consisting of Payment Service Operators, payment banks, Small Finance Banks, etc.
• The shares were allotted pursuant to the issuance of equity shares on a private placement basis in compliance with the applicable provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

Additional Information

• It has changed the way payments are made in India through a bouquet of retail payment products such as RuPay card, Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM), BHIM Aadhaar, National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) and Bharat BillPay.
• NPCI also launched UPI 2.0 to offer more secure and comprehensive services to consumers and merchants.

The correct answer is ‘Japan’

Key Points

• Shinzo Abe, Japan’s longest-serving prime minister, died after being shot while giving a campaign speech.
• Mr. Abe, who was 67 years old, was prime minister until late 2020 and was one of Japan’s best-known politicians.
• On 26 September 2006, Abe was inaugurated as Japanese Prime Minister elected at the age of 52, he was the youngest prime minister since Fumimaro Konoe in 1941.
• He was the de facto leader of the largest faction in the ruling Liberal Democratic Party and wielded strong influence in the government despite standing down as prime minister in September 2020.
• Abe also served as Chief Cabinet Secretary from 2005 to 2006 under Junichiro Koizumi and was briefly leader of the opposition in 2012.

Additional Information 

About Japan:

• Prime Minister: Fumio Kishida
• Capital: Tokyo
• Currency: Yen
• Language: Japanese

The correct answer is Union finance minister.

Key Points

• Goods and Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
• GST Council is the governing body of GST with 33 members.
• The GST council is headed by the union finance minister
• The chairman of the GST council will be the union finance minister.
• Arun Jaitley was the first chairman of the GST Council.
• Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman is the current chairman of the GST council.

Additional Information

• At present, Madhabi Puri Buch is the chairman of SEBI.
• As of March 2022, Shaktikanta Das is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Narendra Modi is the 14^th Prime Minister of India.

The correct answer is ​Rs 1,43,612 crore.

Key Points

• The gross GST revenue collected in the month of August 2022 stood at Rs 1,43,612 crore, up 28% on a year-on-year basis.
• With this, the monthly GST revenues have exceeded Rs 1.4 lakh crore for six months in a row.
• In July, the GST collection was Rs 1.49 lakh crore, the second-highest level since its introduction in July 2017.

Important Points

• Gross GST revenue collected in August was Rs 1,43,612 crore, out of which CGST was Rs 24,710 crore, SGST was Rs 30,951 crore, IGST was Rs 77,782 crore.
• The cess was Rs 10,168 crore, including Rs 1,018 crore collected on import of goods.

The correct answer is 2026.

Important Points

• Government has extended the line for levy of GST compensation by nearly 4 years till 31st March 2026.
• As per Goods and Services Tax(Period of Levy and Collection of Cess) Rules,2022 notified by the Finance Ministry ,the compensation cess will be levied from July 1,2022 to March 31,2026.
• July 2022 marks the end of the five year period.
• As determined 43rd Council meeting, the cess that we are collecting that we are collecting beyond July 2022 will be used to payback the loan.

Additional Information

• Climate and energy framework sets target to for cutting green house gas emission and increasing the share of renewable energy by 2030
• Net Zero Carbon Emission by 2070 in india.
• 2024 Summer Olympics to be held in Paris also known Paris2024.
• FIFA World Women's World cup 9th edition is scheduled in **2023.**The opening match of the tournament will take place in Eden Park, ,Auckland.

The correct answer is Switzerland.

Key Points

• ​WWF is an acronym for World Wide Fund for Nature and it was founded in 1961.
• It is an international organization aimed at the conservation of the environment.
• In North America, it is called the World Wildlife Fund.
• The WWF provides money for conservation initiatives around the world.
• WWF works in the 6 major areas of climate, food, forests, freshwater, oceans, and wildlife.
• Headquarters - Rue Mauverny, Gland, Vaud, Switzerland.

Important Points

• In 1958, WWF's giant panda logo began from a panda named Chichi.
• The giant panda has been the symbol of WWF since its formation in 1961.
• Pandas live mainly in temperate forests high in the mountains of southwest China.
• The giant panda is perhaps the most powerful symbol in the world when it comes to species conservation.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Odisha has topped the ranking of states for implementation of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), followed by Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.
• Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister Piyush Goyal released the 'State Ranking Index for NFSA' 2022.
• Among the special category states, Tripura has obtained the first rank.
• Himachal Pradesh and Sikkim are at the second and third positions.

Important Points

• Gujarat is at fourth place, followed by Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman Diu, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand.
• Kerala has been ranked at the 11th position, Telangana (12th), Maharashtra (13th), West Bengal (14th) and Rajasthan (15th). Punjab is at the 16th position, followed by Haryana, Delhi, Chhattisgarh and Goa.

The correct answer is Canada, France, Germany, Italy.

Key Points

• The G7, originally G8, was set up in 1975 as an informal forum bringing together the leaders of the world’s leading industrial nations.
• The summit gathers leaders from the European Union (EU) and the following countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States.

Additional Information

• How the G-7 summit works?
• The G-7 nations meet at annual summits that are presided over by leaders of member countries on a rotational basis.
• The summit is an informal gathering that lasts two days, in which leaders of member countries discuss a wide range of global issues.
• The groundwork for the summit, including matters to be discussed and follow-up meetings, is done by the “sherpas”, who are generally personal representatives or members of diplomatic staff such as ambassadors.
• Significance:
• G7 is capable of setting the global agenda because decisions taken by these major economic powers have a real impact. Thus, decisions taken at the G7 are not legally binding, but exert strong political influence.

The correct answer is "By covering most parts of the earth".

Key Points

• The above passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• Let us refer to the line from the passage, "SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same".
• From the above line, we get to know that Starlink will reach India as it plans on covering most of the earth.
• So, "By covering most parts of the earth" is the correct answer.

he correct answer is "Speed between 50 Mbps to 150 Mbps".

Key Points

• The above passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• Let us refer to the line from the passage, "During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location".
• From the above line, we get to know that Starlink offered a broadband speed of 50-150 Mbps with latency is expected to be 20 ms to 40ms which depends on the location.
• So, "Speed between 50 Mbps to 150 Mbps" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is "Counsel".

Key Points

• The given passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• The given word 'recommendations' means a suggestion or proposal as to the best course of action, especially one put forward by an authoritative body.
• In option 2, the word 'Counsel' means advice, especially that given formally.
• So, 'Counsel' is the correct word. 
  

​

Additional Information

• Let us see the meanings of the other words used:
• Reject - dismiss as inadequate, unacceptable, or faulty
• Refuse - indicate or show that one is not willing to do something.
• Decline - (typically of something regarded as good) become smaller, fewer, or less; decrease.

The correct answer is "Phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router".

Key Points

• The above passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• Let us refer to the line from the passage, "In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router".
• From the above line, we get to know that Starlink provided its users with a kit that included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router
• So, "phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router​" is the correct answer. 
  

​

Additional Information

• Let us see the meanings of the words:
• Tripod - a three-legged stand for supporting a camera or other apparatus.
• Router - a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks.
• Kit - a set of articles or equipment needed for a specific purpose.

The correct answer is '​Withdrawing​​'.

• The given passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• The given word 'Offering' means presenting or proffering (something) for (someone) to accept or reject as desired.
• In option 3, the word 'Withdrawing' means removing or taking away (something) from a particular place or position.
• So, ' Withdrawing ' is the correct word. 
  

​

Additional Information

• Let us see the meanings of the other words used:
• Provide - make available for use; supply.
• Recommend - put forward (someone or something) with approval as being suitable for a particular purpose or role.
• Propose - put forward (a plan or suggestion) for consideration by others.

The correct answer is 'Contradicted'.

• The given passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• The given word 'Contradicted' means not based on or behaving according to the principles of equality and justice.
• In option 1, the word 'Contradicted' means denied the truth of (a statement) by asserting the opposite.
• So, 'Contradicted' is the correct antonym for the word.
  

Additional Information

• Let us see the meanings of the other words used:
• - 

Established - having existed or done something for a long time and therefore recognized and generally accepted.

• Firm - having a solid, almost unyielding surface or structure.
• Settled - resolve or reach an agreement about (an argument or problem).

The correct answer is '​Reply'.

• The given passage is about "SpaceX Starlink satellite".
• The given word 'Response' means something constituting a reply or a reaction.
• In option 4, the word '​Reply' means to say something in response to something someone has said.
• So, '​Reply' is the correct synonym for the word.
  

Additional Information

• Let us see the meanings of the other words used:
• Dissatisfy - fail to satisfy (someone).
• Deny  - state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence.
• Leave - go away from.

The correct answer is  It depends on your framework and definition

Key Points 

• Perspective means a person’s opinion or a way of judging and understanding things.
• In the given text, the discussion revolves around techniques for measuring mountain elevations and how different approaches might yield different results. Specifically, the text suggests that whether Mount Everest or Mauna Kea is recognized as the "tallest mountain in the world" depends on whether you measure their height from sea level to the summit (in which case Mount Everest is taller) or from base to peak (in which case Mauna Kea is taller).
• When the author writes, "It all depends on the perspective you take," they refer to the chosen method or definition of measuring a mountain's height. This can be interpreted as the framework used to define "tallest." Is our definition of "tallest" from base to peak, or is it from sea level to peak? This distinction is significant since the result changes depending on this decision—illustrating how the perspective or framework of measurements can impact the outcome.
• In this specific context, the phrase does not appear to imply dependency on skills or methods of measuring; rather, it emphasizes the definition or framework used to interpret such measurements. Consequently, the line “It all depends on the perspective you take” in this context refers to interpretation and choosing the basis of measurement, therefore best aligning with the option: "It depends on your framework and definition."

The correct answer is  No error.

Key Points

• In order to is a subordinating conjunction. It is always used with an infinitive form of verb when we want to express something.
• Since the subject is singular, the verb used is singular too.
• ‘The’ is used when we want to refer to a specific noun.
• Thus, the correct answer is No error.

The correct answer is  all of these (criterion, guideline, constant, specification)

Key Points

• Criterion means the eligibility for something.
• Guidelines are the instructions and measures to perform a task.
• Constant is the boundary or limitation for something.
• Specification means variable or a specific framework.
• Thus, the correct answer is criterion, guideline, constant and specification.

The correct answer is demotion.

Key Points

• Surge means to increase. This is the synonym of elevation.
• Demotion means spurning, decrease, lowness.
• Thus, the correct answer is demotion.

Confusion Points

• While "disdain" can involve a downward motion in a figurative sense (as it means to look down on something or someone with contempt), it is not a semantic opposite of "elevation".
• "Elevation" specifically refers to a rise in rank or status, or a physical lifting or moving up. The antonym would be a word that conveys a decrease in rank, status, or physical location. "Disdain" refers to a feeling of contempt or scorn but does not directly indicate a decrease or descent, which is why it's not the best choice for an antonym in this context.

The correct answer is  a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations.

Key Points

• The answer lies in the following lines of the passage:
• The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the heit of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International.

Thus, the correct answer is a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations.

The correct answer is  consistent baseline.

Key Points

• The answer lies in the second paragraph of the passage: “In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland.
• Thus, the correct answer is consistent baseline.

The correct answer is A-Q, B-R, C-P

Key Points

• There are three combinations from the given phrases that make meaningful sentences.
• Phrase A and Q connect grammatically and contextually. Part A states '"Showing more emotions at work could be the secret to better staff morale in this hybrid world of work, with almost nine in 10 (87%) agreeing" which is connected with Part Q i.e "that doing so makes them more productive and boosts feelings of belonging, said a study released by LinkedIn on Tuesday."
• Phrase B and R connect grammatically and contextually. Part B states "Seven in 10 (70%) professionals believe there was a stigma around sharing feelings at work"  which is connected with Part R i.e "due to this, over a quarter of professionals are still worried about wearing their hearts on their sleeves."
• Phrase C and P connect grammatically and contextually. Part C states "To accommodate professionals changing need for expressing emotions" which is connected with Part P i.e "LinkedIn also launched a new feature, 'funny reaction' for its members."

​The correct sentences will be:

• "Showing more emotions at work could be the secret to better staff morale in this hybrid world of work, with almost nine in 10 (87%) agreeing that doing so makes them more productive and boosts feelings of belonging, said a study released by LinkedIn on Tuesday."
• "Seven in 10 (70%) professionals believe there was a stigma around sharing feelings at work due to this, over a quarter of professionals are still worried about wearing their hearts on their sleeves."
• "To accommodate professionals changing need for expressing emotions LinkedIn also launched a new feature, 'funny reaction' for its members."
  

Hence, the correct option is option 3.

The correct answer is A-Q, B-P, C-R

Key Points

• There are three combinations from the given phrases that make meaningful sentences.
• Phrase A and Q connect grammatically and contextually. Part A states '"The trigger for the reforms in China were the twin projections of power by the US, " which is connected with Part Q i.e "namely the Gulf War of 1990 and the Taiwan Strait Crisis of 1995."
• Phrase B and P connect grammatically and contextually. Part B states "The Chinese Communist Party leadership recognised that it lacked the technological prowess "  which is connected with Part P i.e " to wage a modern war that could proscribe foreign powers from intervening in the region."
• Phrase C and R connect grammatically and contextually. Part C states "In the wake of the Kargil War in 1999, India also started seriously thinking of reforming and modernising " which is connected with Part R i.e "its defence forces and command and control structures." 
  

The correct sentences will be:

• "The trigger for the reforms in China were the twin projections of power by the US, namely the Gulf War of 1990 and the Taiwan Strait Crisis of 1995."
• "The Chinese Communist Party leadership recognised that it lacked the technological prowess to wage a modern war that could proscribe foreign powers from intervening in the region."
• "In the wake of the Kargil War in 1999, India also started seriously thinking of reforming and modernising its defence forces and command and control structures."

Hence, the correct option is option 4.

The correct answer is A-R, B-Q, C-P

Key Points

• There are three combinations from the given phrases that make meaningful sentences.
• Phrase A and R connect grammatically and contextually. Part A states "Hermit’ is the latest sophisticated spyware in the news, and it is believed to have " which is connected with Part R i.e "targeted iPhones and Android devices in Italy and Kazakhstan. "
• Phrase B and Q connect grammatically and contextually. Part B states "Once installed on a device, it can record audio on the device, "  which is connected with Part Q i.e "carry out unauthorised calls, and carry out many unauthorised  activities."
• Phrase C and P connect grammatically and contextually. Part C states "It can also take pictures on the device, steal device information such as details about applications," which is connected with Part P i.e "the kernel information, model, manufacturer, OS, security patch, phone number, etc.
  

The correct sentences will be:

• "Hermit’ is the latest sophisticated spyware in the news, and it is believed to have targeted iPhones and Android devices in Italy and Kazakhstan."
• "Once installed on a device, it can record audio on the device, carry out unauthorised calls, and carry out many unauthorised  activities."
• "It can also take pictures on the device, steal device information such as details about applications, the kernel information, model, manufacturer, OS, security patch, phone number, etc."

Hence, the correct option is option 3.

The correct answer is A-Q

Key Points

 Let us look at the sentence combinations.

• Phrase A of column 1 should be matched with the phrase Q of column 2 to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• "Under the anti-defection law, a member of a legislature can be disqualified if he or she has voluntarily given up membership of their political party."
• Phrase A cannot be used with phrase P and R because it would not make a meaningful sentence.
• Under the anti-defection law, a member of a legislature can be disqualified, were found in a truck on the road that stretches all the way to the U.S.-Mexico border.
• Under the anti-defection law, a member of a legislature can be disqualified, expressed the party's solidarity with the family members of former Lok Sabha member.

​Hence, the correct option is option 4.

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is FDBECG.
• The sentence 'F' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the topic of ''The White Revolution'' and its focus i.e. weakening the nobles and landlords. Hence, 'F' is the first sentence.
• Sentence D will come after F as it is talking about the emergence of a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families in place of the nobles and landlords.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is further giving information that a rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.
• Sentence E will come after B as it is giving information that only half of the rural population received any land and many of them who received the land did not receive enough of it to sustain themselves.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is talking about the final outcome of the White Revolution i.e. separating the rural population into three groups.
• The sentence 'G' is the final or sixth sentence as it is concluding that out of the three groups, the first group i.e. the group of prosperous farmers was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms.
• The sentence 'A' doesn't fit into the context as it is talking about the beginning of the Green Revolution program in India.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to sustain themselves. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

The correct answer is 'Sustain.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is saying that many of the rural population who received land did not receive enough to strengthen or support themselves.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Sustain'.
• Also, the use of the word ''enough'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'sustain' in the blank.
• The word 'Sustain' means To strengthen or support physically or mentally.
• Example: The soil in this part of the world is not rich enough to sustain a large population.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete Sentence: Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to sustain themselves.

Additional Information

• Let us explore  the other options:
• Torment means To cause to experience severe mental or physical suffering.
• Plague means To cause somebody or something a lot of trouble.
• Agonize means To worry or think for a long time about a difficult problem or situation.
• Excruciate means To torment someone physically or mentally.

The correct answer is 'C.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is FDBECG.
• The sentence 'F' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the topic of ''The White Revolution'' and its focus i.e. weakening the nobles and landlords. Hence, 'F' is the first sentence.
• Sentence D will come after F as it is talking about the emergence of a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families in place of the nobles and landlords.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is further giving information that a rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.
• Sentence E will come after B as it is giving information that only half of the rural population received any land and many of them who received the land did not receive enough of it to sustain themselves.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is talking about the final outcome of the White Revolution i.e. separating the rural population into three groups.
• The sentence 'G' is the final or sixth sentence as it is concluding that out of the three groups, the first group i.e. the group of prosperous farmers was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to sustain themselves. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is FDBECG.
• The sentence 'F' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the topic of ''The White Revolution'' and its focus i.e. weakening the nobles and landlords. Hence, 'F' is the first sentence.
• Sentence D will come after F as it is talking about the emergence of a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families in place of the nobles and landlords.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is further giving information that a rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.
• Sentence E will come after B as it is giving information that only half of the rural population received any land and many of them who received the land did not receive enough of it to sustain themselves.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is talking about the final outcome of the White Revolution i.e. separating the rural population into three groups.
• The sentence 'G' is the final or sixth sentence as it is concluding that out of the three groups, the first group i.e. the group of prosperous farmers was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to sustain themselves. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

The correct answer is 'D.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is FDBECG.
• The sentence 'F' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces the topic of ''The White Revolution'' and its focus i.e. weakening the nobles and landlords. Hence, 'F' is the first sentence.
• Sentence D will come after F as it is talking about the emergence of a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families in place of the nobles and landlords.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is further giving information that a rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.
• Sentence E will come after B as it is giving information that only half of the rural population received any land and many of them who received the land did not receive enough of it to sustain themselves.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is talking about the final outcome of the White Revolution i.e. separating the rural population into three groups.
• The sentence 'G' is the final or sixth sentence as it is concluding that out of the three groups, the first group i.e. the group of prosperous farmers was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to sustain themselves. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

The correct answer is 'Personnel, douse'.

Key Points

• Statement 1 means that a major fire destroyed a leading textile showroom in Surat, with fire and rescue services workers struggling to extinguish the fire in an operation extending for over 10 hours.
• Statement 2 means that Lake Superior and Lake Abrahm fire employees reached the spot to extinguish the blaze and brought the fire under control.
• The meaning of the words given in option (3):
• Personnel: people employed in an organization or engaged in an organized undertaking such as military service (किसी संगठन में कार्यरत या सैन्य सेवा जैसे संगठित उपक्रम में लगे लोग)
• Example - Many of the personnel involved require training.
• douse: extinguish a fire or light (आग या प्रकाश को बुझाना)
• Example - Stewards appeared and the fire was doused.
• From the given explanation, we can understand that option (3) is the correct answer.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Complete sentences: 

A major fire gutted a leading textile showroom in Surat, with fire and rescue services personnel struggling to douse the blaze in an operation extending for over 10 hours.

Lake Superior and Abrahm fire personnel reached the spot to douse the blaze. Officials brought the fire under control with the help of three fire engines.

Additional Information

• Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
• desiccate: cause to become completely dry (पूरी तरह से सूखने का कारण)
• Example - Both the older growth and the new vegetation were desiccated by months of the relentless sun.

The correct answer is 'Deftly, eventually'.

Key Points

• Statement 1 means that Abhishek was appreciated for cleverly handling India's trade talk with RCEP that India in the end didn't join.
• Statement 2 means that Aamir Khan and Alaya F skillfully play unwilling dad and persistent daughter, though film in the end flopped.
• The meaning of the words given in option (2):
• Deftly: in a way that is neatly skilful and quick in movement (एक तरह से जो बड़े करीने से कुशल और आंदोलन में त्वरित है)
• Example - Her fingers moved deftly, quickly parting the grass.
• eventually: in the end, especially after a long delay, dispute, or series of problems (अंत में, विशेष रूप से एक लंबी देरी, विवाद, या समस्याओं की श्रृंखला के बाद)
• Example - eventually, after midnight, I arrived at the hotel.
• From the given explanation, we can understand that option (2) is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Complete sentences:

Abhishek was lauded for deftly handling India’s trade talks with RCEP, the China-led body that India didn’t eventually join.

Aamir Khan and Alaya F deftly play unwilling dad and persistent daughter, though Tony Kakkar’s film eventually runs out of gas.

Additional Information

• Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
• Nimbly: in a way that is quick and exact either in movement or thoughts (एक तरह से जो विचारों में त्वरित और सटीक है)
• Example - The monkey leapt nimbly from rock to rock.

The correct answer is 'Investors, Constraints'.

Key Points

• Statement 1 means that maintaining the same status on tax rates sends a strong signal to the person putting money into financial schemes that the govt. is committed to a long-term stable and predictable tax policy, despite the current fiscal limitation.
• Statement 2 means that with institutional clients to worry about, the pros duly cut positions across the board while retail investors, who are free from such hindrance, charged on.
• The meaning of the words given in option (3):
• Investors: a person or organization that puts money into financial schemes, property, etc. with the expectation of achieving a profit (एक व्यक्ति या संगठन जो लाभ प्राप्त करने की उम्मीद के साथ वित्तीय योजनाओं, संपत्ति आदि में पैसा लगाता है)
• Example - Foreign investors in the British commercial property sector.
• Constraints: a limitation or restriction (एक सीमा या प्रतिबंध)
• Example - Time constraints make it impossible to do everything.
• From the given explanation, we can understand that option (3) is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Complete sentence:

Maintaining the status quo on tax rates also sends a strong signal to the investors that the government is committed to a long-term stable and predictable tax policy, despite the current fiscal constraints.

With institutional clients to worry about, the pros duly cut positions across the board while retail investors, who are free from such constraints, charged on.

The correct answer is 'Seamlessly, inclusive'.

Key Points

• Statement 1 means that the real advantage of that lens it that each area blends smoothly into the other and even better and building a comprehensive set that binds the lens and other parts of the telescope.
• Statement 2 means that to your bridal style, first consider your wedding theme, as your overall hairstyle should mesh easily and smoothly with your vision giving rise to an all-round appearance that takes the surrounding along with your desire.
• The meaning of the words given in option (2):
• Seamlessly: smoothly and continuously, with no apparent gaps or spaces between one part and the next (सुचारू रूप से और लगातार, एक भाग और दूसरे के बीच कोई स्पष्ट अंतराल या रिक्त स्थान नहीं है)
• Example - Each song is seamlessly integrated into the film.
• inclusive: including all the services or items normally expected or required (सामान्य रूप से अपेक्षित या आवश्यक सभी सेवाओं या वस्तुओं सहित)
• Example - Menus stating fully inclusive prices.
• From the given explanation, we can understand that option (2) is the correct answer.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Complete sentences:

The real advantage of this lens is that each area blends Seamlessly into the other, and even better, building an inclusive set that binds the lens and other parts of the telescope.

To determine your bridal style, first consider your wedding theme, as your overall hairstyle should mesh easily and Seamlessly with your vision giving rise to an inclusive appearance that takes the surrounding along with your desire.

Additional Information

• Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
• Abruptly: suddenly and unexpectedly (अचानक और अप्रत्याशित रूप से)
• Example - The film ends rather abruptly.

The correct answer is 'Collected, controlled'.

Key Points

• Statement 1 means that his eyes seemed to have gathered all the fire of the world and his tone was supervised, his features being calm.
• Statement 2 means that after his blood was accumulated, we concluded that stimulants and strychnine may be given, but they should be avoided until it is certain the bleeding has been properly controlled as they tend to increase it.
• The meaning of the words given in option (2):
• Collected: bring or gather together (एक साथ लाना या इकट्ठा करना)
• Example - She went around the office collecting old coffee cups.
• controlled: limit the level, intensity, or numbers of (स्तर, तीव्रता, या संख्या को सीमित करें)
• Example - She had to control his temper.
• From the given explanation, we can understand that option (2) is the correct answer.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Complete sentences:

His eyes seemed to have collected all the fire of the world, and his tone was controlled, his features being calm.

After his blood was collected, we concluded that stimulants and strychnine may be given, but they should be avoided until it is certain the bleeding has been properly controlled, as they tend to increase it.

Additional Information

• Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
• constricted: make narrower, especially by encircling pressure (संकीर्ण बनाओ, खासकर दबाव को घेरकर)
• Example - Chemicals that constrict the blood vessels.
• vague: of uncertain, indefinite, or unclear character or meaning (अनिश्चित, अनिश्चित, या अस्पष्ट चरित्र या अर्थ का)
• Example - Many patients suffer vague symptoms.

The correct answer is 'stringent'.

Key Points

• Inclusion(noun): the act of comprising as a part of a whole or group**:** the state of being included.
• example: School inclusion of students with disabilities is a necessity of society.
• Exclusion(noun): the act or an instance of to bar from participation, consideration, or inclusion.
• example: He was excluded from the club in light of his recent misbehaviour with a fellow member.

Hence, the word inclusion should be replaced with exclusion to form a contextually correct sentence.

The correct option is option 2.                                          

It should read as: Academies have been male bastions with the significant exclusion of women scientists, irrespective of their contributions and work.

Additional Information

Let us understand the meaning of other words

• Embracing(gerund): to include
• example: The painting was a modernist painting embracing the painter's ideas and themes.
• Banishment(noun): the punishment of being sent away from a country or other place.
• example: They were sentenced to banishment to the islands.
• Adoption(noun): accepting or starting to use something new
• example: I have recently adopted a healthier lifestyle.
• Assimilation(noun): the process through which individuals and groups of differing heritages acquire the basic habits, attitudes, and mode of life of an embracing culture.
• example:  My parents found it hard to assimilate to the city lifestyle.

The correct answer is 'revitalization'

Key Points

• Desolation(noun): the state of being unattended to or not cared for.
• example: The children were utterly desolated after their parents passed away.
• Revitalization(noun): the act or an instance of bringing something back to life, public attention, or vigorous activity.
• example: Yoga revitalizes the body.

Hence, the word desolation should be replaced with revitalization to form a contextually correct sentence.

The correct option is option 4.                                          

It should read as: Resource management ought to give sufficient importance to the regeneration and revitalization of these material resources as well as the subtle resource that resides within us.

Additional Information

Let us understand the meaning of other words

• Reinvention(noun): the action or process through which something is changed so much that it appears to be entirely new.
• example: The reinvention of the car parts made it a popular choice in the market.
• Extinction(noun): a situation in which something no longer exists.
• example: The African elephants are on the verge of extinction.
• Reanimation(verb): to bring (someone or something) back to life or to come back to life.
• example: The fish seemed to reanimate when put in water.
• Annihilation(noun): the state or fact of being completely destroyed or obliterated
• example:  The enemy troops were annihilated by the army.

The correct answer is Adverse.

Key Points 

• Harmful: Causing or capable of causing harm
• "too much sun is harmful to the skin"
• Adverse: Contrary to your interests or welfare
• "adverse circumstances"
• Adversely is incorrect as the grammatically correct form of the word would be adverse here which means harmful.

Hence, the word 'Harmful' should be replaced with 'Adverse' to form a contextually correct sentence.

It should read as:  

The anti-dumping statute gives American firms an internationally recognised tool to seek relief from the adverse impacts of unfair import prices.

 Additional Information

​ Let us understand the meaning of the other options:

• encouraging: Furnishing support and encouragement
• adversely: In an adverse manner
• favourable: Encouraging, approving or pleasing
• prosperous: In fortunate circumstances financially

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about Corporate organization in which you have usually well-defined processes.
• Options A, C, and D are talking about Startups and their advantages and work cultures.
• The second sentence is about Corporate organization in which many people are involved in the decisions and the decision process is often quite long and as logical as possible.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about Marketing which is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers.
• Options B, C, and D are talking about 'Sales' which is the exchange of commodities for money; the action of selling something, and its main focus.
• The first sentence is about Marketing’s primary focus i.e. promoting goods and services, pricing them, and making them available to customers.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'C.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about Physical or Offline learning in which mentors and teachers have to be present in the classroom on location and only a limited number of students could benefit from this
• Options A, B, and D are talking about Online learning and its different advantages.
• The third sentence is about Physical or Offline learning in which the commute can be hectic and involves a huge loss of time. 
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'D.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about Fellowship which is focused on the development of a student by offering them study in a specific field.
• The first three options A, B, and C are talking about Internship that it is offered to students or trainees interested in exploring and gaining more work experience in a particular industry, eligibility, and how to apply for an internship program.
• The fourth sentence is about Fellowship as it talks about a range of different activities in it; providing opportunities for exploring a field of work.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'C.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about Allopathy as it is talking about the inclusion of better-proven techniques for curing ailments.
• Options A, B, and D are talking about Homeopathy as it aims at curing the entire body of an ill person.
• The third sentence is about Allopathy which is also known as Modern Medicine and is based on proofs and successful clinical trials of medications.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about Hospitals in which you see doctors with a variety of backgrounds who work together to deal with your medical concerns.
• Options A, C, and D are talking about Clinics and how they typically cover the primary care needs of populations in local communities, in contrast to larger hospitals.
• The second sentence is about Hospitals as it is talking about the stay of the patients during their treatments which is not possible in clinics.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is option 3), i.e. B-C.

We can go through the sentence in the following way:

The company uses AI software (A)________ in the cameras to (B)________ video footage of traffic, (C)________ data that helps local (D)________ to plan traffic (E)________.

Installed means to place or to fix something.

Authorities means control or power.

Management means dealing with something; handling someething.

Clearly, A,D and E have meaningful words and these are grammatically correct.

Generating means to give rise to.

Analyse means to examine.

It can be said that cameras are used to examine something and information can be gathered through this. So, B and C should be interchanged.

The correct answer:

The company uses AI software (A) installed in the cameras to (B) analyse video footage of traffic, (C) generating  data that helps local (D) authorities to plan traffic (E) management.

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A-B.

Let us look at the sentence in the following way-

The project has far-reaching (A) _________ across cancer research, perhaps most (B) _________ in helping clinicians design treatment (C) _________ for individual cancer patients—bringing us closer to making what’s called (D) _________ medicine a (E)_________.

• Meanings of the words in bold are:
• Notably means in particular; especially.
• Consequences means results or effects, typically those that are unwelcome or unpleasant.
• Regimens means prescribed courses of medical treatment, diet, or exercise for the promotion or restoration of health.
• Precision means the quality, condition, or fact of being exact and accurate.
• Reality means the state of things as they actually exist; actuality.
• It is clear that C and D are correct. Also, E justifies the bold word.
• A requires a noun that means 'the results of the project mentioned'. 'Consequence' is a noun. B requires an adverb, so 'notably' should come here. Hence, we need to interchange A and B to make the sentence correct.

Corrected sentence - The project has far-reaching (A) consequences across cancer research, perhaps most (B) notably in helping clinicians design treatment (C) regimens for individual cancer patients—bringing us closer to making what’s called (D) precision medicine a (E) reality.

The correct answer is option 3.

Let us look at the sentence in the following way-

Despite this (A) ______ and the efforts of thousands of scientists working to (B) ______  off dangerous new (C) ______ , the coronavirus behind COVID-19 was (D) ______  when it launched into an (E) ______  world at the end of 2019. 

• Meanings of the words in bold are:
• Unidentified means not recognized or identified.
• 'Ward off' is a phrasal verb meaning 'to prevent a danger or illness from affecting you or harming you'.
• Outbreaks means sudden occurrences of something unwelcome, such as war or disease.
• Network means a group or system of interconnected things.
• Unprepared means not ready or able to deal with something.
• It is clear that B and C are correct. Also, E justifies the bold word.
• A requires a noun(network). D requires an adjective(unidentified). We need to interchange A-D to make the sentence correct.

Corrected sentence - Despite this (A) network and the efforts of thousands of scientists working to (B) ward off dangerous new (C) outbreaks, the coronavirus behind COVID-19 was (D) unidentified when it launched into an (E) unprepared world at the end of 2019.

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B-E.

Let us look at the sentence in the following way-

It is true that salmon and other fish have been (A) _______ from rivers and (B) ______ in which they once (C) _______, but this was not (D) ______to the great (E)  ______ of fishermen, as has generally been supposed.

• Meanings of the words in bold are:
• Banished means got rid of (something unwanted).
• Creeks means narrow, sheltered waterways, especially inlets in shorelines or channels in marshes.
• Abounded means existed in large numbers or amounts.
• Depredations means acts of attacking or plundering.
• It is clear that A and C are correct. Also, D justifies the bold word.
• B requires a word that describes a narrow waterway. E requires a word which describes the attacks against fisherman. Hence, we need to interchange B and E to make the sentence correct.

Corrected sentence - It is true that salmon and other fish have been (A) banished from rivers and (B) creeks in which they once (C) abounded, but this was not (D) owing to the great (E) depredations of fishermen, as has generally been supposed.

Persons: G, K, L, N, P, R and W.

Days: Monday to Sunday

Things: T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator,

1. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans.

2. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. 3. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. 4. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R.

5. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. 6. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top.

7. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. 8. W does not like Top. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

9. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. 10.  N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. So, Case 2A is eliminated.

12. W does not like Shoes. So, Case 1 is eliminated.
13. P is one of the persons.

The final arrangement is,

Except W-T Shirt every pair has one person in between them whereas W- T Shirt have two persons in between them.

Hence, W - T Shirt is the answer.

Persons: G, K, L, N, P, R and W.

Days: Monday to Sunday

Things: T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator,

1. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans.

2. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. 3. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. 4. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R.

5. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. 6. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top.

7. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. 8. W does not like Top. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

9. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. 10.  N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. So, Case 2A is eliminated.

12. W does not like Shoes. So, Case 1 is eliminated.
13. P is one of the persons.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, W attends the class immediately after K.

Persons: G, K, L, N, P, R and W.

Days: Monday to Sunday

Things: T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator,

1. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans.

2. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. 3. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. 4. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R.

5. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. 6. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top.

7. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. 8. W does not like Top. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

9. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. 10.  N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. So, Case 2A is eliminated.

12. W does not like Shoes. So, Case 1 is eliminated.
13. P is one of the persons.

The final arrangement is,

If P is related to Bag, R is related to Top, in the same way K is related to TV.

Hence, TV is the answer.

Persons: G, K, L, N, P, R and W.

Days: Monday to Sunday

Things: T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator,

1. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans.

2. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. 3. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. 4. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R.