Official Paper

ESIC UDC Memory Based Test (Shift 2) - 19th March 2022 (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

General Intelligence & Reasoning (25 questions)

Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below.

Eight people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W, are sitting around a circular table facing the center but not necessarily in the same order. S is sitting third to the left of R. U is sitting second to the right of V. U and P are the immediate neighbours of S. T is not an immediate neighbour of V. Q is not an immediate neighbour of R.

1

Who is sitting to the immediate right of Q?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    U

  4. ((d))

    T

  5. ((e))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

U

Person = P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

  1. S is sitting third to the left of R.

(As it is a circular arrangement, we can randomly place R on any seat and then place S accordingly.)

                

  1. U is sitting second to the right of V.

  2. U and P are the immediate neighbours of S.

(If we place U to the immediate right of S then V would be to the immediate left of S which is not possible as we know P is one of the immediate neighbours of S. Implies, U is sitting to the immediate left of S and V is sitting second to the right of R. Also, P is sitting to the immediate right of S.)

                

  1. T is not an immediate neighbour of V.

(Implies, T is sitting between P and R.)

              

  1. Q is not an immediate neighbour of R.

(Implies, Q is sitting between U and V as it is the only possibility. Also, now that only W is left to be placed, we can place him between R and V as it is the only seat left now.)

Clearly, U is sitting to the immediate right of Q.

2

Who is sitting third to the left of V?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T

Person = P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

  1. S is sitting third to the left of R.

(As it is a circular arrangement, we can randomly place R on any seat and then place S accordingly.)

                

  1. U is sitting second to the right of V.

  2. U and P are the immediate neighbours of S.

(If we place U to the immediate right of S then V would be to the immediate left of S which is not possible as we know P is one of the immediate neighbours of S. Implies, U is sitting to the immediate left of S and V is sitting second to the right of R. Also, P is sitting to the immediate right of S.)

                

  1. T is not an immediate neighbour of V.

(Implies, T is sitting between P and R.)

              

  1. Q is not an immediate neighbour of R.

(Implies, Q is sitting between U and V as it is the only possibility. Also, now that only W is left to be placed, we can place him between R and V as it is the only seat left now.)

Clearly, T is sitting third to the left of V.

3

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating position and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

  1. ((a))

    WQ

  2. ((b))

    TS

  3. ((c))

    RV

  4. ((d))

    VU

  5. ((e))

    PR

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

TS

Person = P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

  1. S is sitting third to the left of R.

(As it is a circular arrangement, we can randomly place R on any seat and then place S accordingly.)

                

  1. U is sitting second to the right of V.

  2. U and P are the immediate neighbours of S.

(If we place U to the immediate right of S then V would be to the immediate left of S which is not possible as we know P is one of the immediate neighbours of S. Implies, U is sitting to the immediate left of S and V is sitting second to the right of R. Also, P is sitting to the immediate right of S.)

                

  1. T is not an immediate neighbour of V.

(Implies, T is sitting between P and R.)

              

  1. Q is not an immediate neighbour of R.

(Implies, Q is sitting between U and V as it is the only possibility. Also, now that only W is left to be placed, we can place him between R and V as it is the only seat left now.)

Except for TS, in all other pairs in all other pairs, the second person is sitting second to the right of the first person.

4

Who is sitting opposite Q?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

T

Person = P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

  1. S is sitting third to the left of R.

(As it is a circular arrangement, we can randomly place R on any seat and then place S accordingly.)

                

  1. U is sitting second to the right of V.

  2. U and P are the immediate neighbours of S.

(If we place U to the immediate right of S then V would be to the immediate left of S which is not possible as we know P is one of the immediate neighbours of S. Implies, U is sitting to the immediate left of S and V is sitting second to the right of R. Also, P is sitting to the immediate right of S.)

                

  1. T is not an immediate neighbour of V.

(Implies, T is sitting between P and R.)

              

  1. Q is not an immediate neighbour of R.

(Implies, Q is sitting between U and V as it is the only possibility. Also, now that only W is left to be placed, we can place him between R and V as it is the only seat left now.)

Clearly, T is sitting opposite Q.

5

Which amongst the following pair represents the immediate neighbours of R?

  1. ((a))

    TW

  2. ((b))

    VQ

  3. ((c))

    ST

  4. ((d))

    VS

  5. ((e))

    WS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TW

Person = P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

  1. S is sitting third to the left of R.

(As it is a circular arrangement, we can randomly place R on any seat and then place S accordingly.)

                

  1. U is sitting second to the right of V.

  2. U and P are the immediate neighbours of S.

(If we place U to the immediate right of S then V would be to the immediate left of S which is not possible as we know P is one of the immediate neighbours of S. Implies, U is sitting to the immediate left of S and V is sitting second to the right of R. Also, P is sitting to the immediate right of S.)

                

  1. T is not an immediate neighbour of V.

(Implies, T is sitting between P and R.)

              

  1. Q is not an immediate neighbour of R.

(Implies, Q is sitting between U and V as it is the only possibility. Also, now that only W is left to be placed, we can place him between R and V as it is the only seat left now.)

Clearly, T and W are the immediate neighbours of R.

Directions: Study the following informnation carefully to answer the given questions:

F © 4 A 6 P $ G L 1 ( & 2 B @ V M # 3 + 8 Z !

6

Which element is twelth to the left of fourth element from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

G

Ans:(3)

Solution:

Given series:

Left Side F © 4 A 6 P $ G L 1 ( & 2 B @ V M # 3 + 8 Z ! Right Side

  1. Fourth element from the right end is +.

  2. So, the twelfth element to the left of + is G.

Trick: Count 12th element to the left of +.

Hence, the element which twelfth to the left of fourth from the right is G.

7

How many such alphabets are there in the above arrangement which is immediately preceded by the number and immediately followed by the symbol?

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    More than Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Three

Ans: (4)

Solution:

Given series:

Left Side F © 4 A 6 P $ G L 1 ( & 2 B @ V M # 3 + 8 Z ! Right Side

  1. Alphabets which are immediately preceded by the number and immediately followed by symbol:

F © 4 A 6 P $ G L 1 ( & 2 B @ V M # 3 + 8 Z ! 

Hence, there are 3 alphabets which is immediately preceded by number and immediately followed by symbol: 6P$, 2B@ and 8Z!.

8

If all the numbers from the above arrangement is dropped, which symbol is fifth from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    @

  2. ((b))

    &

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

    $

  5. ((e))

    (

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

&

Ans: (2)

Solution:

Given series:

Left Side F © 4 A 6 P $ G L 1 ( & 2 B @ V M # 3 + 8 Z ! Right Side

  1. If all the numbers are dropped, the the arrangement will be:

F © A P $ G L ( & B @ V M # + Z !

So, the symbol which is fifth from the right end is:

F © A P $ G L ( & B @ V M # + Z !

Hence the symbol is fifth from the right end is &.

9

In the given word ‘HERITAGE’- if the vowels are changed to the next letters and the consonants are changed to the previous letters as per the alphabetical series, and alphabets are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then which letter would be 5th to the right of the 2nd letter from the left end?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Q

If the vowels are changed to the next letters and the consonants are changed to the previous letters:

Given WordHERITAGE
After changeGFQJSBFF
Alphabetical orderBFFFGJQS
<br>

Hence, ‘Q’ is 5th to the right of the 2nd letter from the left end.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between adjacent persons. Seven persons sits between T and P. U sits second to the right of W. Two persons sits between U and T.  W sits second from the left end. S sits second to the left of Q. Q sits third to the left of P. V sits second to the left of X, who sits exactly between Q and U. P sits immediate left of R, who sits one of the extreme ends.

10

How many persons sits in the row?

  1. ((a))

    Sixteen

  2. ((b))

    Fifteen

  3. ((c))

    Ten

  4. ((d))

    Twelve

  5. ((e))

    Nine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sixteen

Given,

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between adjacent persons.

  1. W sits second from left end.
  2. U sits second to the right of W.
  3. Two persons sits between U and T.
  4. Seven persons sits between T and P.

Following are the possibilities we get,

 

  1. Q sits third to the left of P.
  2. P sits immediate left of R, who sits one of the extreme ends.

 

  1. S sits second to the left of Q.

 

(Case II not follows because given S sits second to the left of Q but here U sits second to the left of Q)

 

 

  1. V sits second to the left of X, who sits exactly between Q and U.

 

Hence, Sixteen persons sits in the row.

11

Total how many persons are sitting between X and P?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Five

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Seven

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Six

Given,

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between adjacent persons.

  1. W sits second from left end.
  2. U sits second to the right of W.
  3. Two persons sits between U and T.
  4. Seven persons sits between T and P.

Following are the possibilities we get,

 

 

  1. Q sits third to the left of P.
  2. P sits immediate left of R, who sits one of the extreme ends.

 

  1.  S sits second to the left of Q.

 

(Case II not follows because given S sits second to the left of Q but here U sits second to the left of Q)

 

 

  1. V sits second to the left of X, who sits exactly between Q and U.

 

Hence, Six persons are sitting between X and P.

12

Who sits exactly between S and V?

  1. ((a))

    X

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    W

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X

Given,

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between adjacent persons.

  1. W sits second from left end.
  2. U sits second to the right of W.
  3. Two persons sits between U and T.
  4. Seven persons sits between T and P.

Following are the possibilities we get,

 

 

  1. Q sits third to the left of P.
  2. P sits immediate left of R, who sits one of the extreme ends.

 

 

  1.  S sits second to the left of Q.

 

(Case II not follows because given S sits second to the left of Q but here U sits second to the left of Q)

 

 

  1. V sits second to the left of X, who sits exactly between Q and U.

 

Hence, X sits exactly between S and V.

13

How many persons sits to the right of Q?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

Given,

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between adjacent persons.

  1. W sits second from left end.
  2. U sits second to the right of W.
  3. Two persons sits between U and T.
  4. Seven persons sits between T and P.

Following are the possibilities we get,

 

 

  1. Q sits third to the left of P.
  2. P sits immediate left of R, who sits one of the extreme ends.

 

 

  1.  S sits second to the left of Q.

 

(Case II not follows because given S sits second to the left of Q but here U sits second to the left of Q)

 

 

  1. V sits second to the left of X, who sits exactly between Q and U.

 

Hence, Four persons sits to the right of Q.

14

Who sits third to the right of U?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    X

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T

Given,

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between adjacent persons.

  1. W sits second from left end.
  2. U sits second to the right of W.
  3. Two persons sits between U and T.
  4. Seven persons sits between T and P.

Following are the possibilities we get,

 

 

  1. Q sits third to the left of P.
  2. P sits immediate left of R, who sits one of the extreme ends.

 

 

  1.  S sits second to the left of Q.

 

(Case II not follows because given S sits second to the left of Q but here U sits second to the left of Q)

 

 

  1. V sits second to the left of X, who sits exactly between Q and U.

 

Hence, T sits third to the right of U.

15

If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 4564735864, then the sum of digits which is 6th and 4th from right and left respectively ____.

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

11

Given number is 4564735864

Now we add 1 in all even digits and subtract 1 from all odd digits.

After the arrangement, we get

5475624975

The 4th digit from the left end is 5 and the 6th digit from the right end is 6.

So, the sum is 5 + 6 = 11

Hence, the sum of digits which is 6th and 4th from right and left respectively is 11.

Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Point B is 6 km to the west of point E. Point D is 2 km to the south of point H. Point C is 9 km to the east of point A. Point E is 8 km to the north of point C. Point G is 3 km to the west of point B. Point D is 10 km to the south of point B.

16

What is the distance between points B and H?

  1. ((a))

    5 km

  2. ((b))

    6 km

  3. ((c))

    8 km

  4. ((d))

    3 km

  5. ((e))

    2 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 km

The least possible diagram based on the given information,

Clearly, the distance between points B and H is 8 km.

17

What is the direction of point E from point A?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    South-East

  3. ((c))

    North-East

  4. ((d))

    South-West

  5. ((e))

    South

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

North-East

The least possible diagram based on the given information,

Clearly, point E is to the north-east of point A.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 J, K, L, M, and N are seated (no necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. In row-2 V, W, X, Y, and Z are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member to the other row.

Z sits third to the right of W. V sits second to the left of Z. The person facing V sits to the immediate right of K. Only one person sits between K and M. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. Only two people sit between J and L. Neither K nor J faces Y.

18

Who amongst the following is facing N?

  1. ((a))

    Y

  2. ((b))

    Z

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    W

  5. ((e))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

V

In row-1 J, K, L, M, and N → facing South

In row-2 V, W, X, Y, and Z → facing North

  1. Z sits third to the right of W.

  2. V sits second to the left of Z.

  3. The person facing V sits to the immediate right of K.

  1. Only one person sits between K and M.

  2. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. 

  1. Only two people sit between J and L → Case 2 gets eliminated

(If we take 2 persons between J and L, then the place of L will not be determined as it is already occupied by K)

  1. Neither K nor J faces Y → Case 1.1 gets eliminated

So, the final arrangement will be

Hence, V is facing N.

19

Which of the following statements is true regarding M?

  1. ((a))

    M faces one of the immediate neighbors of X

  2. ((b))

    K is one of the immediate neighbors of M

  3. ((c))

    None of the given statement is true

  4. ((d))

    L sits to the immediate right of M

  5. ((e))

    All of the given statements are true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

L sits to the immediate right of M

In row-1 J, K, L, M, and N → facing South

In row-2 V, W, X, Y, and Z → facing North

  1. Z sits third to the right of W.

  2. V sits second to the left of Z.

  3. The person facing V sits to the immediate right of K.

  1. Only one person sits between K and M.

  2. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. 

  1. Only two people sit between J and L → Case 2 gets eliminated

(If we take 2 persons between J and L, then the place of L will not be determined as it is already occupied by K)

  1. Neither K nor J faces Y → Case 1.1 gets eliminated

So, the final arrangement will be

Hence, L sits to the immediate right of M is true**.**

20

Who amongst the following is facing X?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    J

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

In row-1 J, K, L, M, and N → facing South

In row-2 V, W, X, Y, and Z → facing North

  1. Z sits third to the right of W.

  2. V sits second to the left of Z.

  3. The person facing V sits to the immediate right of K.

  1. Only one person sits between K and M.

  2. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. 

  1. Only two people sit between J and L → Case 2 gets eliminated

(If we take 2 persons between J and L, then the place of L will not be determined as it is already occupied by K)

  1. Neither K nor J faces Y → Case 1.1 gets eliminated

So, the final arrangement will be

Hence, K is facing X.

21

What is the position of Z with respect to Y?

  1. ((a))

    Third to the right

  2. ((b))

    Second to the right

  3. ((c))

    Immediate left

  4. ((d))

    Immediate right

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Immediate left

In row-1 J, K, L, M, and N → facing South

In row-2 V, W, X, Y, and Z → facing North

  1. Z sits third to the right of W.

  2. V sits second to the left of Z.

  3. The person facing V sits to the immediate right of K.

  1. Only one person sits between K and M.

  2. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. 

  1. Only two people sit between J and L → Case 2 gets eliminated

(If we take 2 persons between J and L, then the place of L will not be determined as it is already occupied by K)

  1. Neither K nor J faces Y → Case 1.1 gets eliminated

So, the final arrangement will be

Hence, Z sits to the immediate left of Y**.**

22

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, find the one which does not belong to the group. 

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    W

  5. ((e))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

N

In row-1 J, K, L, M, and N → facing South

In row-2 V, W, X, Y, and Z → facing North

  1. Z sits third to the right of W.

  2. V sits second to the left of Z.

  3. The person facing V sits to the immediate right of K.

  1. Only one person sits between K and M.

  2. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. 

  1. Only two people sit between J and L → Case 2 gets eliminated

(If we take 2 persons between J and L, then the place of L will not be determined as it is already occupied by K)

  1. Neither K nor J faces Y → Case 1.1 gets eliminated

So, the final arrangement will be

Except N, all others are sitting at the end of the row.

Hence, N does not belong to the group.

23

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known fact.

 

Statements:

All A are B.

Some B are C.

Some C are D.

 

Conclusions:

l. All B are A.

ll. All D are C.

  1. ((a))

    Only l follows 

  2. ((b))

    Only ll follows

  3. ((c))

    Both l and ll follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither l nor ll follows

  5. ((e))

    Either l and ll follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither l nor ll follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

l. All B are A → False (It is possible but not definite)

ll. All D are C → False (It is possible but not definite)

Hence, Conclusion Neither l nor follows.

24

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some sketch are not creative.

All creative are pen.

A few sketch are ink.

Conclusions:

I. Some pen are ink.

II. No pen is ink.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Either I and II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Either I and II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I. Some pen are ink → False(It is possible but not definite as shown in the diagram below)

II. No pen is ink → False(It is possible as shown in the above diagram but not definite as shown in the diagram below)

But here, the conclusion I and II form a complementary pair.

Important point

Few’ and ‘a few’ means some.

Additional information

Complementary pair

We check complementary pairs when they follow all the following conditions:

(1) Both the conclusions are false.

(2) Both the elements of conclusions are the same.

There are two types of complementary pairs

​1) All + Some not

2) No + Some

Here, no + some forms a complementary pair.

Hence, either I or II follows.

25

Direction: In the question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Machines are Transformers

All Transformers are Motors

Only a few Machines are Generators

Conclusions:

I. Some Generators are Transformers

II. Some Motors are Machines

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both conclusions I and II follow

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below:

Conclusions:

I. Some Generators are Transformers → True (All Machines are Transformers and Only few Machines are Generators)

II. Some Motors are Machines → True (All Machines are Transformers and All Transformers are Motors)

Hence, both the conclusions follow.

General Awareness (25 questions)

26

Which State/UT of India is associated with Saffron production?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Jammu & Kashmir

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

  5. ((e))

    Puducherry

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jammu & Kashmir

The correct answer is Jammu & Kashmir.

Key Points

  • The only state which produces saffron in India is Jammu – Kashmir.
  • Saffron:
  • Saffron, golden-coloured, pungent stigmas (pollen-bearing structures) of the autumn crocus (Crocus sativus).
  • It is used as a spice to flavour foods and as a dye to colour foods and other products.
  • Saffron has a strong, exotic aroma and a bitter taste and is used to colour and flavour many Mediterranean and Asian dishes.
  • Saffron is cultivated chiefly in Iran but is also grown in Spain, France, Italy (on the lower spurs of the Apennines Range), and parts of India.
  • Other Production in Jammu and Kashmir:
  • Agricultural exports from Jammu and Kashmir include apples, barley, cherries, corn, millet, oranges, rice, peaches, pears, saffron, sorghum, vegetables, and wheat, while manufactured exports include handicrafts, rugs, and shawls.

Additional Information

  • Himachal Pradesh:
  • The main cereals grown include wheat, maize, rice and barley with major cropping systems being maize-wheat, rice-wheat and maize-potato-wheat.
  • Pulses, fruits, vegetables and oilseeds are among the other crops grown in the state.
27

Which of the following country has decided to change its capital to Nusantara in January 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Indonesia

  2. ((b))

    Kazakhstan

  3. ((c))

    Laos

  4. ((d))

    Cambodia

  5. ((e))

    South Africa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

  • Indonesia has decided to change its capital from Jakarta to Nusantara.
  • Nusantara is a site deep within the jungle of Kalimantan on Borneo island.
  • It was chosen because it reflected Indonesia's geography, and was iconic internationally.
  • Jakarta will remain Indonesia's commercial and financial center.
  • It is also projected that Jakarta will sink in the next 30 years i.e. by 2050.

Additional Information

  • India has joined ‘G20 Troika’ and will work closely with Indonesia and Italy to ensure consistency and continuity of G20’s agenda.
  • The 37th edition of India-Indonesia Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) was held in the Indian Ocean region from 23-24 November 2021.
  • Kento Momota of Japan has won the men’s singles title at the 2021 Indonesia Masters Super 750 badminton tournament.
  • Indonesia:
  • Capital: Jakarta/Nusantara
  • Currency: Indonesian rupiah
  • President: Joko Widodo (As of Jan 2022).
28

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has topped in  the global rating survey released by Morning Consult Political Intelligence as the most popular world leader, with an approval rating of_______percent.

  1. ((a))

    91

  2. ((b))

    74

  3. ((c))

    71

  4. ((d))

    81

  5. ((e))

    64

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

71

The correct answer is 71.

 Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi has once again topped the global rating survey released by Morning Consult Political Intelligence as the most popular world leader, with an approval rating of 71 percent.
  • Boris Johnson, the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, ranked lowest on the list with an approval rating of 26 percent.
  • Approval ratings are based on a seven-day moving average of adult residents in each country, with sample sizes varying by country.”
  • At present, Morning Consult Political Intelligence is tracking the approval ratings of the leaders of India, the United Kingdom, the United States, Australia, Canada, Germany, France, Brazil, Mexico, Spain, South Korea, Japan, and Italy.
  • Global Leader Approval: Among All Adults
  1. Modi: 71%
  2. López Obrador: 66%
  3. Draghi: 60%
  4. Kishida: 48%
  5. Scholz: 44%
  6. Biden: 43%
  7. Trudeau: 43%
  8. Morrison: 41%
  9. Sánchez: 40%
  10. Moon: 38%
  11. Bolsonaro: 37%
  12. Macron: 34%
  13. Johnson: 26%
29

In which of the following state/union territories, the "Jarawa Tribe" resides?

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Lakshadweep

  3. ((c))

    Chhattisgarh

  4. ((d))

    Andaman and Nicobar

  5. ((e))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Andaman and Nicobar

The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar.

Key Points

  • The four major tribes of Andaman are as follows:
  • Jarawa
  • South Andaman and Middle Andaman Islands are inhabited by the Jarawa tribes.
  • There are only 300-400 people of this community alive today.
  • Great Andamanese
  • Strait Island is the part of the North and Middle Andaman district which is the home to the Great Andamanese tribe, fewer than 50 Great Andamanese are alive today.
  • Sentinelese
  • North Sentinel Island is part of the North Andaman region which is home to the Sentinelese tribe, only 50-100 tribes are alive today.
  • Onge
  • The Little Andaman Island is home to Ongetribes, these tribes are fewer than 100.

Additional Information

  • Tribes of Arunachal Pradesh
  • Apatanis
  • Abor
  • Dafla
  • Galong
  • Mishmi
  • Monpa
  • Tribes of Chhattisgarh​ 
  • Kawar is a scheduled tribe of Chhattisgarh, together with sub endogamous group i.e. Kamalbansi, Tanwar, Paikra, Rathia, Dudh, Chanti, Routia, and Chewra, in the rural area are significant tribes of Chhattisgarh.
  • Tribes of Lakshadweep​ 
  • Aminidivis
  • Koyas
  • Malmis
  • Melacheris
30

Victor Banerjee was awarded the Padma Bhushan in the field of ________.

  1. ((a))

    Art

  2. ((b))

    Public Affairs

  3. ((c))

    Trade and Industry

  4. ((d))

    Others-Culinary

  5. ((e))

    Science and Technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Art

The correct answer is Art.

  • Victor Banerjee was awarded the Padma Bhushan in the field of Art.

Key Points

  • Victor Banerjee:
  • Victor Banerjee is an actor.
  • He has appeared in various language films such as English, Hindi, Bengali and Assamese.
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan award in the field of art.
  • He is from the state of West Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Padma Bhushan:
  • The award is given for distinguished service of a high order in any field, including service rendered by government servants.
  • It is the third-highest civilian honour in India.
  • It was first awarded in 1954.
  • Padma Vibhushan:
  • The award is given for exceptional and distinguished services in any field including service rendered by government servants.
  • It is the second-highest civilian honour in India.
  • Padma Shri:
  • The award is given for distinguished service in any field including service rendered by government servants.
  • It is the fourth-highest civilian honour in India.
31

Which country beat South Korea 3-2 to win the AFC Women's Asian Cup title in February 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    China

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    Bhutan

  5. ((e))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

China

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

  • China beat South Korea 3-2 to win the AFC Women's Asian Cup title on 6 February 2022.
  • China won its record-extending 9th title since the last championship in 2006.
  • It was the first time for the South Korean women's football team to enter the final.

Additional Information

  • The AFC Women's Asian Cup is a quadrennial competition in women's football for national teams which belong to the Asian Football Confederation.
  • It is the oldest women's international football competition and premier women's football competition in the AFC region for national teams.
  • The competition is also known as the Asian Women's Football Championship and the Asian Women's Championship.
  • 20 tournaments have been held.
  • The competition also serves as Asian qualifying tournament for the FIFA Women's World Cup.
32

Who took in charge as new MSME minister after the Cabinet reshuffle in 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Virendra Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Jyotiraditya Scindia

  3. ((c))

    Narayan Rane

  4. ((d))

    Sarbananda Sonowal

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Narayan Rane

The correct answer is Narayan Rane.

Key Points

  • On 8th July 2021, Narayan Rane took charge as the new Union MSME (micro, small and medium enterprises) Minister.
  • The ministry was initially under Road Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari.
  • He will work in the direction of creating more jobs and promoting GDP growth in the country.
  • Narayan Rane was an MP of Rajya Sabha and former Chief Minister of Maharashtra.

Additional Information

  • Total 43 leaders sworn in as the ministers of the Union Cabinet at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 8th July 2021.
NameCurrent PostFormer Minister
Jyotiraditya Scindia- Minister of Civil Aviation- Hardeep Singh Puri
Virendra Kumar- Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment- Thawar Chand Gehlot
Sarbananda Sonowal- Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and - Minister of AYUSH- Mansukh L. Mandaviya and - Shripad Naik
33

To spread awareness about the importance of braille as a means of communication, which day is celebrated as World Braille Day every year?

  1. ((a))

    04 January

  2. ((b))

    14 December

  3. ((c))

    05 October

  4. ((d))

    24 December

  5. ((e))

    02 January

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

04 January

The correct answer is 04 January.

Key Points

  • World Braille Day is observed every year in memory of Louis Braille, the inventor of the Braille script. He was born on January 4, 1809.
  • World Braille Day marks the birth anniversary of Louis Braille, the French educator, who invented the Braille system, after being blinded at a young age.
  • World Braille Day is observed to spread awareness about the importance of Braille in communication.

Additional Information

  • World Statistics Day is celebrated every five years on October 20.
  • World Teachers' Day is celebrated on 5 October every year.
  • It is celebrated to commemorate the anniversary of the adoption of the ILO/UNESCO Recommendation concerning the Status of Teachers in 1966.
  • Every year 14-December is celebrated as International Energy day.
  • National Consumer Day is observed on 24 December annually.
  • On this day the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was enacted.
  • The theme for Consumer Rights Day 2021 is 'tackling plastic pollution.
34

In July 2021, who among the following became the Prime Minister of Nepal for the fifth time?

  1. ((a))

    Bidya Devi Bhandari

  2. ((b))

    Sher Bahadur Deuba

  3. ((c))

    Cholendra Shumsher Rana

  4. ((d))

    KP Sharma Oli

  5. ((e))

    Pushpa Kamal Dahal Prachanda

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sher Bahadur Deuba

The correct answer is Sher Bahadur Deuba:

  • Nepali Congress President Sher Bahadur Deuba on 13 July 2021, became the country's Prime Minister for the fifth time.
  • President Bidya Devi Bhandari appointed him in accordance with Article 76(5) of the Constitution.
  • Previously, Deuba served as Nepal's Prime Minister four times from June 2017-February 2018, June 2004-February 2005, July 2001-October 2002 and September 1995-March 1997.
  • Nepal's caretaker Prime Minister Khadga Prasad Sharma Oli resigned on July 13, 2021.
  • The Supreme Court overturned Prime Minister Oli's May 21 decision to dissolve the House of Representatives and ordered the appointment of Deuba as prime minister.
35

What is the minimum age limit to enroll Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana(PMSBY)?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    27

  4. ((d))

    24

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

The correct answer is- 18.

Key Points

  • The Scheme is available to people in the age group 18 to 70 years.
  • The risk coverage under the scheme is Rs.2 lakh for accidental death and full disability and Rs.1 lakh for partial disability.
  • The premium of Rs.12 per annum is to be deducted from the account holder’s bank account through ‘auto-debit’ facility in one installment.
  • The scheme is being offered by Public Sector General Insurance Companies or any other General Insurance Company who are willing to offer the product on similar terms with necessary approvals and tie-up with banks for this purpose.
36

Khadar and Bangar comes under which type of soil?

  1. ((a))

    Black Soil

  2. ((b))

    Alluvial Soil

  3. ((c))

    Laterite Soil

  4. ((d))

    None of these

  5. ((e))

    Red Soil

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Alluvial Soil

The correct answer is option 2, i.e, Alluvial Soil.

Khadar and Bangar comes under Alluvial Soil.

  • Bangar and Khadar areas are commonly found in doab regions.
  • Bangar soils are less fertile.
  • It is full of Kankers.
  • It is higher in sandy loam content.
  • Khadar is composed of silt and clay.
  • It is moisture retentive and sticky.
37

When did Simon Commission publish its report ?

  1. ((a))

    1927

  2. ((b))

    1928

  3. ((c))

    1930

  4. ((d))

    1932

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1930

The correct answer is option 3 i.e 1930.

Important Points

  • Simon Commission published its report in 1930.
  • Simon commission is the commission arrived in British India in 1928 to examine the Indian constitutional problems and to provide recommendations for reform.
  • The British government appointed the Simon Commission in 1927.
  • The commission arrived in British India in 1928.
  • The Commission published its 2-volume report in May 1930.
  • The commission is popularly known as the Simon Commission after its chairmanship of Sir John Simon.
  • Protest in Lahore against Simon commission leads to the death of prominent Indian nationalist Lala Lajpat Rai.
  • The Government of India Act 1935 was the outcome of the Simon Commission.
38

Which of the following rivers does not flows in Pakistan?

  1. ((a))

    Satluj

  2. ((b))

    Jhelum

  3. ((c))

    Chenab

  4. ((d))

    Ravi

  5. ((e))

    Beas River 

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Beas River 

The correct answer is option 1 i.e Beas River 

There are five rivers that flow from India into Pakistan: 

Sutlej River, Ancient Greek Zaradros, Sanskrit Shutudri, or Shatadru, longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River that give Punjab (meaning “Five Rivers”) its name.

It rises on the north slope of the Himalayas in Lake La’nga in southwestern Tibet, at an elevation above 15,000 feet (4,600 meters). Flowing northwestward and then west-southwestward through Himalayan gorges, it enters and crosses the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh before beginning its flow through the Punjab plain near Nangal, Punjab state.

It receives the Beas River and forms 65 miles (105 km) of the India-Pakistan border before entering Pakistan and flowing another 220 miles (350 km) to join the Chenab River west of Bahawalpur.

39

Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana (PMKSY) has been approved for implementation across the country with an outlay of _______ in five years.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 80,000 crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 25,000 crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 20,000 crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 50,000 crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 10,000 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 50,000 crore

The correct answer is Rs. 50,000 crore

Key Points

Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY):

  • The government of India is committed to accord high priority to water conservation and its management.
  • To this effect, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) has been formulated with the vision of extending the coverage of irrigation ‘Har Khet ko pani’ and improving water use efficiency ‘More crop per drop' in a focused manner with end to end solution on source creation, distribution, management, field application, and extension activities.
  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister has accorded approval of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) in its meeting held on 1st July 2015.
  • PMKSY has been formulated amalgamating ongoing schemes viz. Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) of the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation (MoWR, RD&GR), Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) of Department of Land Resources (DoLR) and the On-Farm Water Management (OFWM) of Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DAC).
  • PMKSY has been approved for implementation across the country with an outlay of Rs. 50,000 crore in five years.
  • For 2015-16, an outlay of Rs.5300 crore has been made which includes Rs. 1800 crore for DAC; Rs. 1500 crore for DoLR; Rs. 2000 crore for MoWR(Rs. 1000 crore for AIBP; Rs. 1000 crores for PMKSY).
40

Who wrote the novel 'The God of Small Things'?

  1. ((a))

    Arundhati Roy

  2. ((b))

    Kiran Desai

  3. ((c))

    Chetan Bhagat

  4. ((d))

    Salman Rushdie

  5. ((e))

    Vikram Sampath

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arundhati Roy

The correct answer is Arundhati Roy.

Key Points

  • The God of Small Things is a novel written by Indian writer Arundhati Roy.
  • Arundhati Roy was awarded Man Booker Prize for fiction in 1997 for her novel The God of Small Things.
  • Her notable works include The God of Small Things, The Ministry of Utmost Happiness, Kashmir: the case of freedom, Azadi: Freedom Fascism, Fiction.

Additional Information

  • Chetan Bhagat
  • In 2010, he was included in Time magazine's list of the world's 100 most influential people.
  • His notable works: Five Point Someone, 2 States, The Story of my Life, Half Girlfriend.
  • Kiran Desai
  • In 2006, she was awarded the Man Booker Prize for her novel The Inheritance of Loss.
  • In 2015, The Economic Times listed her as one of the 20 most influential global Indian women.
  • Her notable works: The Inheritance of Loss, Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard.
  • Salman Rushdie
  • He is an Indian-born British-American novelist and essayist.
  • His work, combining magical realism with historical fiction, is primarily concerned with the many connections, disruptions, and migrations between Eastern and Western civilizations, with much of his fiction being set on the Indian subcontinent.
  • His second novel, Midnight's Children (1981), won the Booker Prize in 1981.
41

In December 2021, Left-arm spinner Ajaz Patel created history by taking all _ wickets in an innings in the 2nd test match against India.

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • Left-arm spinner Ajaz Patel on December 4, 2021, created history by taking all 10 wickets in an innings in the 2nd test match against India.
  • He plays for New Zealand.
  • He finished with figures of 10/119.
  • He became the third bowler after Jim Laker and Anil Kumble to achieve the feat.
  • Patel had made his Test debut against Pakistan in 2018 in Abu Dhabi.

Additional Information

  • Anil Kumble's record had come against Pakistan in a Test match at Delhi's Feroz Shah Kotla in 1999.
  • Ravichandran Ashwin on 29 November 2021, went past Harbhajan Singh to become the third-highest wicket-taker for India in Test cricket, reaching the mark in his 80th match with 418 wickets.
  • Anil Kumble tops the chart with 619 wickets and is followed by Kapil Dev, who has a total of 434 wickets under his name.
  • Shreyas Iyer on 26 November 2021 became the 16th Indian batter to make a hundred on his Test debut.
42

_______ is the most dominant pulse but only with a share of around 40 percent in the total production.

  1. ((a))

    Moong

  2. ((b))

    Gram

  3. ((c))

    Urad

  4. ((d))

    Tur

  5. ((e))

    Arhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gram

  • Pulses are grown in all three seasons – Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid.
  • Gram is the most dominant pulse but only with a share of around 40 percent in the total production followed by Tur/Arhar at 15 to 20 percent and Urad/Black Matpe and Moong at around 8-10 percent each.
  • The production of pulses for both Rabi and Kharif seasons has increased in the last three decades.

Key Points

  • India is the largest producer (25% of global production), the consumer (27% of world consumption), and the importer (14%) of pulses in the world.
  • Pulses account for around 20 percent of the area under foodgrains and contribute around 7-10 percent of the total foodgrains production in the country
  • Though pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons, Rabi pulses contribute more than 60 percent of the total production.
  • Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Karnataka are the top five pulses producing States. The productivity of pulses is 764 kg/ha.

Additional Information 

    • Many crops are cultivated in both Kharif and rabi seasons.
  • Though pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons, Rabi pulses contribute more than 60 percent of the total production.
  • Black gram can be cultivated as both Kharif and rabi crop.
  • It is consumed in a variety of ways across the North to South in preparation of different regular and popular dishes like vada, idli, dosa, etc.
  • It is best suited to rice fallows during rabi in southern and south-eastern parts of India.
  • Bengal Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi Chana), Pigeon Peas(Arhar / Toor/ Red Gram), Green Beans (Moong Beans),
  • Chick Peas (Kabuli Chana), Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma), Black Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils (Masoor),
  • White Peas (Matar) are major pulses grown and consumed in India.
  • Gram (Chickpeas) is the most dominant pulse having a share of around 40 percent in the total production followed by Tur/Arhar.

Important Points 

  • The country’s pulses production stood at 234 lakh tonne in the 2018-19 crop year, down from the record level of 254 lakh tonne in 2017-18.
  • The production of pulses for both Rabi and Kharif seasons has increased in the last three decades.
  • Production of Kharif pulses in 2000-01 was 44.48 lakh tonnes which increased to 55.30 lakh tonnes by 2016-17.
  • The production of Rabi pulses has also increased from 66.27 lakh tonnes in 2000-01 to 108.18 lakh tonne
43

 75 Hunar Haats would be organized by which ministry?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Tribal Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Minority Affairs

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ministry of Minority Affairs

The correct answer is Ministry of Minority Affairs**.**

  • Minority Affairs Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi on 16 August 2021 announced that 75 Hunar Haats would be organized under the Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav (AAM).
  • It is the flagship initiative of the minority ministry to encourage master artisans and with the resolve of vocal for local.
  • A target has been set to provide employment opportunities to 7,50,000 artisans through 75 'Hunar Haats' across the country.​
  • There will also be a section "bawarchikhana" of traditional culinary experts in the 'Hunar Haat' where the people will enjoy traditional cuisines and dishes from different regions of the country.
  • Under the "Amrit Mahotsav", 'Mera Watan, Mera Chaman Mushairas and Kavi Sammelans' will also be organised across the country till 2023 in which renowned as well as emerging poets will give effective and patriotic message of "Ek Bharat-Shreshtha Bharat".
44

When was the Theosophical Society founded?

  1. ((a))

    1876

  2. ((b))

    1875

  3. ((c))

    1873

  4. ((d))

    1885

  5. ((e))

    1872

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1875

Option 2 is correct, i.e. 1875.

  • The Theosophical Society was founded by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in New York in 1875.
  • In 1882, the headquarters of the Society were established in Adyar, near Madras (now Chennai) in India.
  • It is an unsectarian body of seekers after Truth, who endeavour to promote Brotherhood and strive to serve humanity.

Link: http://www.open.ac.uk/researchprojects/makingbritain/content/theosophical-society

45

Murshid Quli Khan was nawabs of __________.

  1. ((a))

    Lucknow

  2. ((b))

    Varanasi

  3. ((c))

    Hyderabad

  4. ((d))

    Bengal

  5. ((e))

    Mysore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bengal

It is to the state of Bengal that Murshid Quli Khan, Alivardi Khan and Sirajuddaullah belonged. Moreover, after the reign of Aurangzeb, the Mughal Empire started to disintegrate, and seeing the weak administration in the Delhi, Murshid Quli khan carved out his own semi-independent Bengal province, to which the rest of the aforementioned belonged.

46

Who were the founder of Charbagh (Four garden) style in India ?

  1. ((a))

    Lodhis

  2. ((b))

    Khiljis

  3. ((c))

    Mughals

  4. ((d))

    Tughlags

  5. ((e))

    Nawabs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mughals

Key Points

Charbagh (Four gardens):

  • Charbagh is a Persian-style garden layout, in which the main building is put at the center of a quadrilateral garden, divided by walkways or flowing water into four smaller parts.
  • Charbagh style was brought to India by Mughals.
  • Humayun’s tomb and Taj Mahal in India are the most famous examples of this style.
  • In the Charbagh at the Taj Mahal, each of the four parts contains sixteen flower beds.
  • The quadrilateral garden is divided by walkways or flowing water into four smaller parts.
  • They are found in countries throughout Western Asia and South Asia, including Iran and India.

Hence, the Mughals were the founder of the Charbagh (Four gardens) style in India.

47

Which bank signs MoU with GIFT SEZ to boost financial services for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) and Global Custody Services?(Jan 2022)

  1. ((a))

    Kotak mahindra

  2. ((b))

    HDFC bank

  3. ((c))

    ICICI bank

  4. ((d))

    State Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kotak mahindra

Correct answer is Kotak mahindra

Key Points

Kotak Mahindra Bank Signs MoU with GIFT SEZ to Boost Financial Services

  • Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Gujarat International Finance Tec-city – Special Economic Zone (GIFT SEZ) Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary of GIFT-City, to improve customer’s overall financial services offerings.
  • KMBL and GIFT SEZ will jointly work on promoting the GIFT International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) jurisdiction for Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) structures, holding seminars and knowledge series, ease of doing business along with Global Custody Services.
  • It eases market access and cross border activities for the fund management community.
  • It provides easy market accessibility for both the domestic and overseas financial entities that plan to set up their operations in the financial & technology gateway of India.

Additional Information 

About Gujarat International Finance Tec-city co. ltd. (GIFT-City)

  • Headquarters – Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
  • MD & Group CEO - Tapan Ray.
  • Chairman - Sudhir Mankad

About Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL)

  • Establishment – 1985.
  • Headquarters – Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • MD & CEO – Uday Kotak.
48

Who among the following persons has been conferred with the highest civilian award of Assam state 'Asom Baibhav' in February 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Ratan Tata

  2. ((b))

    Mukesh Ambani

  3. ((c))

    Ajim Premji

  4. ((d))

    Narendra Modi

  5. ((e))

    Jagdish Mukhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ratan Tata

The correct answer is Ratan Tata.

Key Points

  • Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma (As of Feb 2022) conferred the state's highest civilian award 'Assam Baibhav' to Tata Trust's Chairman Ratan Tata in Mumbai on 16 Feb 2022.
  • He has been awarded for his exceptional contribution towards furthering cancer care in Assam.
  • The award carries a citation, a medal, and a cash amount of Rs five lakh.
  • The award was supposed to be given earlier on Jan 24, 2022.

Additional Information

  • ​The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a $112 million loan to strengthen skills education and training through the establishment of the Assam Skill University (ASU).
  • Lachit Divas (Lachit Day) is celebrated annually in the Indian state of Assam on November 24, to mark the birth anniversary of the legendary Ahom army general Lachit Borphukan.
  • Bandhan Bank has announced Popular Assamese & Bollywood singer Zubeen Garg as the brand ambassador for the Bank in Assam.
  • Assam Governor: Jagdish Mukhi (As of Jan 2022).
  • Assam Chief Minister: Himanta Biswa Sarma (As of Jan 2022).
  • ​Assam has set up a tea Park at Chayygaon in Kamrup District.
  • The Assam cabinet has decided to remove the name of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi from the Orang National Park in October 2021.
49

Which of the following organizations has tied up with GIFT City to offer courses in insurance, reinsurance, risk management and technology?

  1. ((a))

    Asian Insurance Academy 

  2. ((b))

    Insurance Institute of India

  3. ((c))

    National Insurance Academy

  4. ((d))

    both 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    Both 1 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

National Insurance Academy

The correct answer is National Insurance Academy.

Key Points

  • The National Insurance Academy has tied up with GIFT City to offer courses in insurance, reinsurance, risk management, and technology.
  • The collaboration would facilitate capacity building in insurance and risk management space for participants in GIFT City.
  • Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) houses India's first and the only International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).

 Important Points

  • Gujarat International Finance Tech-City (GIFT City) is a business district currently being constructed in the state of Gujarat.
  • Promoted by the state government of Gujarat as a greenfield project, it would include commercial and residential complexes.
50

When was the UDAN scheme launched?

  1. ((a))

    21- October- 2017

  2. ((b))

    21-October- 2018

  3. ((c))

    21- October - 2016

  4. ((d))

    21- October- 2014

  5. ((e))

    21- October- 2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

21- October - 2016

  • Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN) is a Regional Connectivity Scheme(RCS) that was launched on 21 October 2016 by the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
  • The implementing authority for the scheme is the Airport Authority of India.
  • This scheme aimed to make flights cheap and affordable and through the revival of the existing airports, provide connectivity to un-served and under-served airports of India.
  • The first flight under UDAN scheme took off on 27 April 2017 from Jubbarhatti Airport, Shimla to New Delhi.
  • Flights covering distance between 200-800 km are applicable to this scheme.
  • Under this scheme, minimum 9 and maximum 40 UDAN Seats (subsidized rates) on UDAN Flights have to be provided by the selected airline operator for operations involving fixed-wing aircraft and minimum 5 and maximum 13 Seats on flights for operations through helicopters

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

51

The income of A and B is in the ratio 7 : 5, If they spend 90% and 84% of their income respectively then the savings of A and B are Rs.700 and Rs.800. Find the income of A and B respectively.

  1. ((a))

    7000, 5000

  2. ((b))

    5000, 7000

  3. ((c))

    6000, 7000

  4. ((d))

    8000 , 5000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7000, 5000

Given:

The ratio of income of A and B = 7 : 5

Percentage expenditure of A’s income = 90%

Percentage expenditure of B’s income = 84%

Saving of A = 700

Saving of B = 800

Formula used:

Income = Expenditure + Savings

Calculation:

Let the income of A and B is 7x and 5x respectively.

Then, [{7x × (100 – 90)}/100] = 700

⇒ [{7x × 10}/100] = 700

⇒ 70x/100 = 700

⇒ x = (700 × 100)/70

⇒ x = 70000/70

⇒ x = 1000

A’s income = 7 × 1000 = 7000

B’s income = 5 × 1000 = 5000

∴ The income of A and B is 7000 and 5000 respectively.

52

In a school, the average age of students is 13 years and the average age of 14 teachers is 34 years. If the average age of teachers and students combined is 14 years, then the number of students is?

  1. ((a))

    250 

  2. ((b))

    260 

  3. ((c))

    270 

  4. ((d))

    280

  5. ((e))

    240

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

280

Given:

Average age of students = 13 years 

Average age of 14 teachers = 34 years 

Average age of school = 14 years

Formula used:

Average = sum of observations/total number of observations

Calculation:

Let the number of students be x

A.T.Q

14 = (x × 13 + 14 × 34)/(x + 14)

⇒ 196 + 14x = 13x + 476

⇒ x = 280

∴ The answer is 280

Alternate Method

                    Students               Teachers 

Avg. Age-         13                         34

 

Average-                       14

 

Number-            x                           y

x = 34 - 14 = 20 ratio

y = 14 -13 = 1 ratio

A.T.Q

1 ratio = 14

∴ 20 ratio = 280

∴ The answer is 280

53

A train moving at speed of 36 km/hr crosses a platform in 30 secs. If the length of platform is equal to 20% of length of train, then find the length of platform.  

  1. ((a))

    50 km

  2. ((b))

    300 m

  3. ((c))

    50 m

  4. ((d))

    30 m

  5. ((e))

    90 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

50 m

Given-

Speed of train = 36 km/hr

Time taken to cross the platform = 30 secs

Length of platform = 20% of length of train

Concept Used-

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation- 

Speed of train = 36 km/hr

⇒ 36 × 5/18

⇒ 10 m/sec

Let the length of train = x

Length of platform = 20% of x

⇒ 0.2x

distance travelled by train  = 30 × 10

⇒ x + 0.2x  = 300

⇒ 1.2x = 300 

⇒ x = (10/12) × 300 = 250 m

so, length of platform = 0.2 × 250 = 50m

∴ Length of platform is 50 m

54

Shyam rowed a distance of 24 km in 3 hours in still water. He rowed 20 km in 2 hrs downstream. Find the time he would take to travel 36 km upstream.

  1. ((a))

    2 hours

  2. ((b))

    3 hours

  3. ((c))

    4 hours

  4. ((d))

    5 hours

  5. ((e))

    6 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

6 hours

GIVEN:

Shyam rowed a distance of 24 km in 3 hours in still water. He rowed 20 km in 2 hrs downstream

CONCEPT:

Upstream downstream concept.

FORMULA USED:

Upstream speed = speed of boat – stream speed

Downstream speed = speed of boat + stream speed

CALCULATION:

→ Speed of boat = 24/3 = 8 km/hr

→ Downstream speed = 20/2 = 10 km/hr

→ Stream speed = 10 - 8 = 2 km/hr

→ Upstream speed = 8 - 2 = 6 km/hr

→ Time taken to travel 36 km upstream = 36/6 = 6 hr

55

A man bought two dogs for Rs. 2600. He sold one of them at a loss of 28% and the other at a profit of 36%. If each dog was sold for the same price. The cost price of the dog which was sold at loss was?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 900

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1700

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1200

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1010

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1700

GIVEN:

Total CP of dogs = Rs. 2600

loss on the first dog = 28%

profit on the second dog = 36%

SP of both dogs is the same

EXPLANATION:

Let the cost price of the dogs be x and y.

∵ SP is equal ⇒ 72% of x=136% of y72\%\space of \space x= 136\% \space of \space y

\(\frac xy=\frac{17}{9} \x : y = 17: 9 \total\space CP= 17+9=26\space ratio \CP\space of \space first\space dog=\frac{17}{26}\times2600=Rs1700\)

56

The perimeter of a square with diagonal 29√2 cm is equal to the perimeter of a rectangle. Find the area of the rectangle if the length of the rectangle is 8 cm more than the breadth of the rectangle?

  1. ((a))

    820

  2. ((b))

    825

  3. ((c))

    625

  4. ((d))

    725

  5. ((e))

    835

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

825

GIVEN :

Diagonal of a square = 29√2 cm

Length = Breadth + 8 cm

 

FORMULA USED :

Diagonal of a square = side × √2

 

CALCULATION :

Side × √2 = 29√2

Side = 29 cm.

Perimeter of a square = 4 × side = 4 × 29 = 116 cm

According to the question,

Perimeter of the square = Perimeter of the rectangle

Perimeter of rectangle [2(L + B)] = 116

⇒ L + B = 58

⇒ L + (L - 8) = 58 (Given length of rectangle is 8 cm more than the breadth)

⇒ L = 33 cm and B = 25 cm.

Area of the rectangle = L × B

⇒ 33 × 25 = 825 cm2

57

Two inlet pipes can fill the tank in 15 hours and 18 hours and one outlet pipe can empty the tank in 20 hours. If all the pipes are opened simultaneously, then in how much time the tank will be filled completely?

  1. ((a))

    150/19 hours

  2. ((b))

    250/13 hours

  3. ((c))

    180/13 hours

  4. ((d))

    200/17 hours

  5. ((e))

    150/7 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

180/13 hours

Solution:

Part filled by tap 1 in one hour = 1/15

Part filled by tap 2 in one hour = 1/18

Part emptied by an outlet in one hour = 1/20

If all the pipes are opened together, then net part filled in an hour -

⇒ 1/15 + 1/18 – 1/20

⇒ (12 + 10 - 9)/180       

⇒ 13/180

Time Taken = 180/13 hours.

58

A can rows a certain distance in downstream in 10 hours and returns from the place in 20 hours. If the speed of current is 5 km/h then find the speed of A in still water.

  1. ((a))

    12 km/h

  2. ((b))

    15 km/h

  3. ((c))

    20 km/h

  4. ((d))

    10 km/h

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15 km/h

Given:

Time taken by A in downstream is 10 hours

Time taken by A in upstream is 20 hours

The speed of the current is 5 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = (Speed × Time)

Speed in downstream = (Speed in still water + Speed of current)

Speed in upstream = (Speed in still water - Speed of current)

Calculation:

Let the speed in still water be x km/h

So, the speed in downstream = (x + 5) km/h

The speed in upstream = (x - 5) km/h

Now, in both case distance is the same

⇒ {10 × (x + 5)} = {20 × (x - 5)}

⇒ (x + 5) = (2x - 10)

⇒ x = 15

∴ The speed of A in still water is 15 km/h.

Alternate Method

 Formula used:

If a person rows a certain distance downstream in x hours and returns the same distance in y hours. If the stream flows at the rate of z km/h then the speed of the person in still water is given by

z × (x + y)/(y - x)

Calculation:

Here, z = 5 km/h

x = 10 hours

y = 20 hours

Speed of A in still water = 5 × (10 + 20)/(20 - 10) km/h

⇒ 15 km/h

∴ The speed of A in still water is 15 km/h.

59

The cost price of 2 jackets and 3 shorts is Rs. 2200 and the cost price of 2 shorts and 4 jackets is Rs. 2400. Find the ratio between the cost price of the shorts and the Jackets.

  1. ((a))

    8 : 9

  2. ((b))

    10 : 7

  3. ((c))

    6 : 5

  4. ((d))

    11 : 10 

  5. ((e))

    9 : 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 : 7

Given,

Cost price of 2 jackets and 3 shorts = Rs. 2200

Cost price of 2 shorts and 4 jackets = Rs. 2400.

Calculations:

Let the cost price of one Jacket and one shorts be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively

According to the question,

⇒ 2x + 3y = 2200      ...(1)

⇒ 2y + 4x = 2400

⇒ 2x + y = 1200      ...(2)

Now, Subtracting equation (2) from (1)

3y - y = 2200 - 1200

⇒ 2y = 1000

⇒ y = 500

Now, putting value of y in equation (2)

2x + 500 = 1200

⇒ 2x = 700

⇒ x = 350

Required ratio = 500 : 350 = 10 : 7

∴ The required answer is 10 : 7

60

Two years ago the average age of P, Q, R and S was 30 years. On including A, the average present age of all five is 35 years. Then present age of A is

  1. ((a))

    50 years

  2. ((b))

    47 years

  3. ((c))

    55 years

  4. ((d))

    35 years

  5. ((e))

    48 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

47 years

Given:              

Two years ago the average age of P, Q, R and S was 30 years

Calculations:

Let the present ages be P, Q, R and S respectively.

Two year ago their ages were (P - 2), (Q - 2), (R - 2) and (S - 2).

⇒ [(P - 2) + (Q - 2) + (R - 2) + (S - 2)]/4 = 30

⇒ P + Q + R + S – 8 = 120

⇒ P + Q + R + S = 128      ----(1)

On including A the average present age of all five is 35 years

⇒  (P + Q + R + S + A)/5 = 35

⇒ P + Q + R + S + A = 175      ----(2)

Put the value of (P + Q + R + S) by substituting equation(1) in (2)

⇒ 128 + A = 175

⇒ A = 47

∴ The age of A is 47 years.

61

What value should come in place of question mark(?) in the given number series?

6, 8, 18, 56, 226, ?

  1. ((a))

    1199

  2. ((b))

    1132

  3. ((c))

    1108

  4. ((d))

    1100

  5. ((e))

    1146

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1132

Calculation:

The logic behind the given series is as follows:

6 × 1 + 2 = 8

8 × 2 + 2 = 18

18 × 3 + 2 = 56

56 × 4 + 2 = 226

226 × 5 + 2 = 1132

∴ The value of '?' is 1132.

62

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

7, 4, 5, 9, ?, 52.5

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    22.99

  5. ((e))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 7 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 4

⇒ 4 × 1 + 1 = 5

⇒ 5 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 9

⇒ 9 × 2 + 2 = 20

⇒ 20 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 52.5

∴ The value of (?) is 20.

63

What value should come in place of the question mark(?) in the given series?

3, 7, 15, 31, ?, 127

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    62

  3. ((c))

    53

  4. ((d))

    59

  5. ((e))

    63

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

63

Calculation:

The number series follows the pattern:

3 × 2 + 1 = 7

7 × 2 + 1 = 15

15 × 2 + 1 = 31

31 × 2 + 1 = ? = 63

63 × 2 + 1 = 127

∴ The value of '?' is 63.

64

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

50, 53, 59, 68, ?, 95

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    82

  4. ((d))

    80

  5. ((e))

    85

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

80

Given:

The number series:

50, 53, 59, 68, ?, 95 

Concept Used:

Number series following a fixed pattern.

Calculation;

The given number series follows the pattern:

50 + (3 × 1) = 53

53 + (3 × 2) = 59

59 + (3 × 3) = 68

68 + (3 × 4) = 80

80 + (3 × 5) = 95

The number coming in place of “?” in the given number series is 80

65

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

29, 31, ?, 39, 46, 57

  1. ((a))

    33

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    34

  4. ((d))

    32

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

34

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

29 + 2 = 31

31 + 3 = 34

34 + 5 = 39

39 + 7 = 46

46 + 11 = 57

The missing number is 34.

66

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

420 ÷ 28 × 288 ÷ 32 = ?

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    140

  3. ((c))

    130

  4. ((d))

    125

  5. ((e))

    135

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

135

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

420 ÷ 28 × 288 ÷ 32 = ?

= (420 ÷ 28) × (288 ÷ 32) = ?

= 15 × 9 = ?

= 135 = ?

⇒ ? = 135

∴ The value of ? is 135.

67

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(372 ÷ 4) × 5 + 40 – 53 = ?

  1. ((a))

    442

  2. ((b))

    432

  3. ((c))

    462

  4. ((d))

    452

  5. ((e))

    482

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

452

Concept used:

 

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

(372 ÷ 4) × 5 + 40 – 53 = ?

⇒ 93 × 5 + 40 – 53 = ?

⇒ 465 + 40 – 53 = ?

⇒ 505 – 53 = ?

⇒ 452 = ?

∴ The value of ? is 452

68

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

10 + ? × 6 ÷ 2 = 46

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    13

  5. ((e))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

Given:

The given equation is:

10 + ? × 6 ÷ 2 = 46

Concept Used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below

Calculation;

10 + ? × 6 ÷ 2 = 46

10 + ? × 3 = 46

? × 3 = 46 – 10

? × 3 = 36

? = 36/3

? = 12

 The required value of "?" in the given equation is 12

69

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

(√25 × 12) ÷ 15 + √256 = ?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

20

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculations:

(√25 × 12) ÷ 15 + √256 = ?

⇒ (5 × 12)/15 + 16 = ?

⇒ 4 + 16 = ?

⇒ ? = 20

70

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

(12 × 9) ÷ 27 + 162 = ?

  1. ((a))

    240

  2. ((b))

    220

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    260

  5. ((e))

    280

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

260

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,  

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first and in the bracket, 

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next, 

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated, 

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated 

(12 × 9) ÷ 27 + 162 = ?

⇒ 108 ÷ 27 + 162 = ?

⇒ 4 + 256 = ?

∴ ? = 260

71

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question? 

√2401 + 6 × 4 = ?2 – 32 × 9

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    21

  5. ((e))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

19

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Calculation:

√2401 + 6 × 4 = ?2 – 32 × 9

⇒ 49 + 24 = ?2 – 288

⇒ 73 + 288 = ?2 

⇒ 361 = ?2 

⇒ 192 = ?2 

⇒ ? = 19

∴ The value of ? is 19

72

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

113 – 162 – 152 – 142 = ?

  1. ((a))

    -556

  2. ((b))

    556

  3. ((c))

    -654

  4. ((d))

    654

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

654

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

113 – 162 – 152 – 142 = ?

⇒ 1331 – 256 – 225 – 196 = ?

⇒ 1331 – 677 = ?

⇒ 654 = ?

 The value of ? is 654

73

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

√? + 40 ÷ 10 × 7 - 3 = 50

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    3125

  3. ((c))

    625

  4. ((d))

    225

  5. ((e))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

625

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Calculation:

Considering the given equation

√? + 40 ÷ 10 × 7 - 3 = 50

⇒ √? + 4 × 7 - 3 = 50

⇒ √? + 28 - 3 = 50

⇒ √? = 50 - 28 + 3

⇒ √? = 53 - 28 

⇒ √? = 25

⇒ ? = 252 

⇒ ? = 625

∴ The required value of "?" in the given equation is 625

74

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

125 + 60 × 2 – 23 × 10 = ?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket, 

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next, 

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated, 

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated 

125 + 60 × 2 – 23 × 10 = ?

⇒ 125 + 120 – 230 = ?

⇒ 245 – 230 = ?

⇒ 15 = ?

75

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

348 ÷ 29 × √256 + (12)2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    324

  2. ((b))

    342

  3. ((c))

    350

  4. ((d))

    336

  5. ((e))

    368

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

336

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket, 

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next, 

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated, 

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated 

348 ÷ 29 × √256 + (12)2 = ?

⇒ 12 × 16 + 144 = ?

⇒ 192 + 144 = ?

∴ ? = 336

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Read the passage and answer the following questions. Some words are given in bold. Pay Attention.

Once, a cat and a mouse were very good friends and happily lived together in the same house. As winter was approaching, they decided to stock some food items. So they went to the market and bought a big pot of cheese.

Fearing that other cats and mice might steal their cheese, they hid it carefully behind the altar in the church.

The cat was very greedy. After a few days, he had a great yearning to taste the cheese. He went to the mouse and told him that he was invited to baptize his cousin’s child in the church. The mouse believed him and the cat set out for his first steal.

He ate a large chunk of the cheese and returned home happily. When the mouse asked him what the child was named the cat replied, “Top-off.” The mouse was surprised at the name.

After a few days, the greedy cat wanted to have some cheese again and told the mouse that he had to baptize another child and rushed to the church. He finished half the cheese and told the mouse that this time the child was named “Half-gone.”

After a few days, the cat made the same excuse and went again and finished the remaining cheese. This time he told the mouse that the child was named “All-gone.” The mouse was puzzled by the cat’s behaviour but did not say anything.

When winter came, the mouse went to the church to get the cheese but found that it had vanished. At last, he understood the trick played by the greedy cat.

76

Choose the appropriate synonym for the word 'carefully'?

  1. ((a))

    careless

  2. ((b))

    inattentive

  3. ((c))

    luxurious

  4. ((d))

    hefty

  5. ((e))

    mindful

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

mindful

The correct answer is 'mindful'.

Key Points

  • Careful- carefully is an adverb. The word careful means thinking about what you are doing so that you do not have an accident or make mistakes, etc. (सावधान, ख़बरदार, सतर्क)
  • Its synonyms are- cautious, heedful, alert, aware, attentive, watchful, mindful, etc.
  • Its antonyms are- careless, inattentive, etc
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
77

Choose the most opposite of 'vanished'

  1. ((a))

    dissapear

  2. ((b))

    fade

  3. ((c))

    evaporate

  4. ((d))

    squeeze

  5. ((e))

    appear

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

appear

The correct answer is 'appear'.

Key Points

  • Vanish means to disappear suddenly or in a way that you cannot explain एकाएक ग़ायब हो जाना (ऐसे कि पता न चले), ओझल हो जाना
  • Its antonyms are appear, materialize.
  • Its synonyms are disappear, vanish, evaporate, dissipate, fade, etc.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
78

What is the meaning of the word 'greedy'?

  1. ((a))

    gluttonous

  2. ((b))

    self-indulgent

  3. ((c))

    gourmand

  4. ((d))

    Impatient

  5. ((e))

    all of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

gluttonous

The correct answer is 'gluttonous​'.

Key Points

  • Greedy means wanting more food, money, power, etc. than you really need (अपनी वास्तविक आवश्यकता से अधिक भोजन, पैसों आदि की कामना करनेवाला व्यक्ति; लोभी, लालची)
  • Let's see the options given:
  • ​Gluttonous: excessively greedy
  • Self- Indulgent: allowing yourself to have or do whatever you want in a way that is excessive or wasteful.
  • Gourmand: a person who enjoys eating and often eats too much
  • Impatient: restlessly eager
  • Example- Don’t be so greedy you’ve had three pieces of cake already.
  • Thus, Gluttonous is synonymous with the word 'greedy'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
79

Where did the cat and the mouse hid the cheese?

  1. ((a))

    In the church

  2. ((b))

    At the top of the church

  3. ((c))

    Behind the altar in the church.

  4. ((d))

    At the Alter of the church

  5. ((e))

    Underneath the Alter of the church

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Behind the altar in the church.

The correct answer is 'Behind the altar in the church.

Key Points

  • It is mentioned in the second paragraph, "Fearing that other cats and mice might steal their cheese, they hid it carefully behind the altar in the church."
  • Hence, we can conclude that the cat and the mouse hid the cheese behind the altar in the church.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

80

What excuse did the cat gave to the mouse when he yearned for the cheese the first time?

  1. ((a))

    that he was invited to baptize his cousin’s child in the church. 

  2. ((b))

    that he was invited to sing hymns

  3. ((c))

    that he was invited to officiate a wedding

  4. ((d))

    that he was invited to help

  5. ((e))

    none of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

that he was invited to baptize his cousin’s child in the church. 

The correct answer is 'option 1'.

Key Points

  • It is mentioned in the third passage, "The cat was very greedy. After a few days, he had a great yearning to taste the cheese. He went to the mouse and told him that he was invited to baptize his cousin’s child in the church. The mouse believed him and the cat set out for his first steal."
  • Hence, we can conclude that "he was invited to baptize his cousin’s child in the church" is the excuse cat gave to the mouse when he yearned for the cheese the first time

Hence, the only correct answer is option 1.

81

When the mouse asked him what his cousin's child name was, what name did the cat reply?

  1. ((a))

    below-off

  2. ((b))

    half-gone

  3. ((c))

    full-gone

  4. ((d))

    Top-off

  5. ((e))

    all-gone

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Top-off

The correct answer is 'Top-off.

Key Points

  • It is mentioned in the passage,

"He went to the mouse and told him that he was invited to baptize his cousin’s child in the church. The mouse believed him and the cat set out for his first steal. He ate a large chunk of the cheese and returned home happily. When the mouse asked him what the child was named the cat replied, “Top-off.” The mouse was surprised at the name."

  • Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
82

What can be the most appropriate title of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The cat and the mouse

  2. ((b))

    The greedy mouse

  3. ((c))

    The innocent cat

  4. ((d))

    The helpful mouse

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The cat and the mouse

The correct answer is "The cat and the mouse".

Key Points

  • Out of the given options, we can say that the only appropriate title would be 'The cat and the mouse'
  • The entire passage talks about how the cat used to fool the mouse. '
  • Hence, the only correct answer is option 1.
83

Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. if the sentence is error free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

He shut the (A) door to (B) avoid been (C) overheard. (D) No Error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

The correct answer is 'C' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • Replace been with being.
  • There are some verbs followed by gerunds. i.e. admit, advise, allow, can't help, deny, detest, dislike, love etc.
  • Here in the sentence, the verb 'avoid' should also be followed by gerunds( be+ing)
  • Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct sentence is: He shut the door to avoid being overheard.

Additional Information 

What are Gerunds?

  • A gerund is a verb in its ing (present participle) form that functions as a noun that names an activity rather than a person or thing. Any action verb can be made into a gerund.
  • Gerunds can appear at the beginning of a sentence when used as a subject:
  • Ex: Jogging is a hobby of mine.
  • Gerunds can act as an object following the verb:
  • Ex: Daniel quit smoking a year ago.
  • Gerunds can serve as an object after a preposition:
  • Ex: I look forward to helping you paint the house.
84

Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. if the sentence is error free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

The student told (A) his master (B) to simplify (C) the process. (D) No Error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • Replace told with asked in part A.
  • As the sentence is an imperative indirect speech, we need to follow the rules of direct to indirect speech conversion.
  • To report an order we use ‘tell’ and the infinitive of the verb. 
  • You told me to call you back later.
  • To report a request, we use the verb ‘to ask’ and the infinitive form of the verb. 
  • You asked me to call you back later.
  • Change the past perfect tense either into present perfect tense or past tense, as necessary.
  • Here, in the given sentence, the student makes a request to his master to simplify the process.
  • Therefore, 'told his teacher' will be replaced by the 'asked his teacher'.
  • Hence the most appropriate option for the given underlined part is Option 1.

The correct sentence is: The student asked his master to simplify the process.

85

Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. if the sentence is error free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

We gone to the (A) party on Sunday (B) with our (C) school friends. (D) No Error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • Replace gone with go/went.
  • Here, the sentence can be present indefinite tense or past indefinite tense.
  • The simple past tense takes the second form of the verb. (went)
  • Here, as the subject of the sentence is plural first person(we) so the verb to be used here can be 'went'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence*: We went to the party on Sunday with our school friends.*

Additional Information​ 

The Simple Present Negative

  • The formula for making a simple present verb negative is 'do/does + not + [root form of verb].' You can also use the contraction don’t or doesn’t instead of 'do not' or 'does not'.
  • Rohit does not want to share the pie.
  • She doesn’t think there is enough to go around.
  • To make the verb to be negative, the formula is [to be] + not.
  • I am not a pie lover, but Rohit sure is.
  • You aren’t ready for such delicious pie.
86

Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. if the sentence is error free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

I can have (A) caught the (B) bus if I (C) had hurried. (D) No Error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • Replace can have with could have.
  • Could have: This past modal verb is used hypothetically, to talk about things that didn't really happen in the past.
  • Could have + past participle: means that something was possible in the past, or you had the ability to do something in the past, but that you didn't do it.
  • We should use could have here because the sentence is hypothetical, He could have caught the bus if he had hurried. (But he did not).
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct sentence is: I could have caught the bus if I had hurried.

Additional Information 

Past Modals: Should Have, Could Have, Would Have

  • Could have, would have, and should have are sometimes called “modals of lost opportunities.” They work like a grammatical time machine. The simple past just tells what happened. Past modals tell what could have, would have, and should have happened.
  • To form these past modals, use could, would, or should followed by have, followed by a past participle verb. Use have for all pronouns; never use has or had to form a past modal. Here are some examples:
  • She could have gone to any college she wanted to.
  • would have gone to the party, but I was tired.
  • He should have told the truth about what he saw.
87

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Mr. Putin’s purported(A) objective of ensuring(B) the security(C) of his country(D) will not be acheived(E).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

E

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Purported' means Appearing or stated to be true, though not necessarily so; alleged.
  • 'Ensuring' means To make certain that something will occur or be the case.
  • 'Security' means The state of being free from danger or threat.
  • 'Country' means A nation with its own government, occupying a particular territory.
  • 'Acheived': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • The correct spelling is 'Achieved' means To successfully bring about or reach (a desired objective or result) by effort, skill, or courage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: Mr. Putin’s purported objective of ensuring the security of his country will not be achieved.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Achieved' are "Attain, Reach, Accomplish".
  • Example of 'Achieved' in a sentence:
  • He achieved his aim by sheer strength of will.
88

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

In addition(A), she mentioned(B) the importence(C) of transitioning to a circular(D) economy from the existing linear(E) one.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

The correct answer is 'C.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Addition' means The action or process of adding something to something else.
  • 'Mentioned' means To refer to something briefly and without going into detail.
  • 'Importence': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • The correct spelling is 'Importance' means The state or fact of being of great significance or value.
  • 'Circular' means Starting and finishing at the same place and often following roughly the circumference of an imaginary circle.
  • 'Linear' means Progressing from one stage to another in a single series of steps; sequential.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: In addition, she mentioned the importance of transitioning to a circular economy from the existing linear one.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Importance' are "Significance, Value, Power".
  • Example of 'Importance' in a sentence:
  • The care of the environment is of prime importance.
89

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

By the end of 1995, this had matured(A) into a full-dialogue partnarship(B) and in 1996, India joined the security(C) dialogue platform(D), the ASEAN Regional Forum(E).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Matured' means To become fully grown or developed.
  • 'Partnarship': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • The correct spelling is 'Partnership' means An association of two or more people as partners.
  • 'Security' means The state of being free from danger or threat.
  • 'Platform' means The declared policy of a political party or group.
  • 'Forum' means A meeting or medium where ideas and views on a particular issue can be exchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: By the end of 1995, this had matured into a full-dialogue partnership and in 1996, India joined the security dialogue platform, the ASEAN Regional Forum.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Partnership' are "Cooperation, Association, Collaboration".
  • Example of 'Partnership' in a sentence:
  • Mutual respect is necessary for any partnership to work.
90

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

This would afford(A) the required(B) to prevent(C) war and to prosicute(D) it (war) if deterrence(E) fails.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is 'D.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Afford' is To have enough money or time to be able to do something.
  • 'Required' means To need something.
  • 'Prevent' means To stop something happening or to stop somebody doing something.
  • 'Prosicute': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • The correct spelling is 'Prosecute' means Institute or conduct legal proceedings against (a person or organization).
  • 'Deterrence' means The action of discouraging an action or event through instilling doubt or fear of the consequences.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Sentence: This would afford the required to prevent war and to prosecute it (war) if deterrence fails.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Prosecute' are "Accuse, Charge, Implead".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Prosecute' are "Defend, Let off, Pardon".
  • Example of 'Prosecute' in a sentence:
  • We can only prosecute if there is sufficient evidence.
91

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Islamabad​(A), which termed the inquery(B) as ordered by India as insufficient(C), has demanded(D) a joint probe(E).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Islamabad' is The capital city of Pakistan.
  • 'Inquery': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • The correct spelling is 'Inquiry' means An act of asking for information.
  • 'Insufficient' means Not enough; inadequate.
  • 'Demanded' means To ask for something in an extremely firm or aggressive way.
  • 'Probe' means To ask questions in order to find out secret or hidden information.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: Islamabad, which termed the inquiry as ordered by India as insufficient, has demanded a joint probe.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Inquiry' are "Question, Query, Investigation".
  • Example of 'Inquiry' in a sentence:
  • The government has instituted a court of inquiry to look into the allegations.

Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, you need to rearrange the sentences so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.

A. It is situated in Uttrakhand.

B. Last week, I went to Mussoorie with my parents.

C. We traveled to Dehradun by train.

D. In the afternoon we decided to go to Mussoorie by private car.

E. It was morning when we reached Dehradun.

92

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is BACED.
  • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "visiting Mussoorie". Hence, 'B' is the first part.
  • Sentence A will come after B as it is telling where is Mussoorie situated.
  • Sentence C will come after A as it is telling how to reach Mussorie i.e. you have to first reach Dehradun via train.
  • Sentence E will come after C as it is giving information about the author's time of reaching Dehradun.
  • The sentence 'D' is the concluding part because it is telling how and when the author decided to leave for Mussoorie from Dehradun.
  • From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'B' is the first sentence after rearrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: Last week, I went to Mussoorie with my parents. It is situated in Uttrakhand. We traveled to Dehradun by train. It was morning when we reached Dehradun. In the afternoon we decided to go to Mussoorie by private car.

Hint

  • Important Rules to Solve the Para Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.
93

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

The correct answer is 'C.'

Key Points

 

  • The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is BACED.
  • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "visiting Mussoorie". Hence, 'B' is the first part.
  • Sentence A will come after B as it is telling where is Mussoorie situated.
  • Sentence C will come after A as it is telling how to reach Mussorie i.e. you have to first reach Dehradun via train.
  • Sentence E will come after C as it is giving information about the author's time of reaching Dehradun.
  • The sentence 'D' is the concluding part because it is telling how and when the author decided to leave for Mussoorie from Dehradun.
  • From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'C' is the third sentence after rearrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

94

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is 'D.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is BACED.
  • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "visiting Mussoorie". Hence, 'B' is the first part.
  • Sentence A will come after B as it is telling where is Mussoorie situated.
  • Sentence C will come after A as it is telling how to reach Mussorie i.e. you have to first reach Dehradun via train.
  • Sentence E will come after C as it is giving information about the author's time of reaching Dehradun.
  • The sentence 'D' is the concluding part because it is telling how and when the author decided to leave for Mussoorie from Dehradun.
  • From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'D' is the fifth sentence after rearrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

Digital marketing is the____(1)____ of marketing that utilizes internet and online based digital technologies such as desktop computers, mobile phones and other digital media and platforms to (2) products and services. Its development during the 1990s and 2000s changed the way brands and businesses use technology for marketing. One of the key objectives of modern digital marketing is to raise brand (3), the extent to which customers and the general public are familiar with and recognize a particular brand. The development of digital marketing is (4) from technology development. Digital marketing channels and traditional marketing channels are similar in (5) that the value of the (6) or service is passed from the original producer to the end user by a kind of supply chain.

95

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 1.

  1. ((a))

    component

  2. ((b))

    whole

  3. ((c))

    concept

  4. ((d))

    definition

  5. ((e))

    disposition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

component

The correct answer is 'component'.

Key Points

  • The passage is about 'digital marketing'.
  • Let us read the following sentence carefully: Digital marketing is the____(1)____ of marketing that utilizes internet and online based digital technologies
  • From the given sentence, we can understand that digital marketing is a part of marketing.
  • The word 'component' which means 'unit or part' is the correct word for blank no 1.

So the correct sentence isDigital marketing is the component of marketing that utilizes internet and online based digital technologies

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

  • whole: full or total
  • concept: idea
  • definition: meaning
  • disposition: nature or character
96

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 2.

  1. ((a))

    design

  2. ((b))

    develop

  3. ((c))

    create

  4. ((d))

    promote

  5. ((e))

    enroll

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

promote

The correct answer is 'promote'.

Key Points

  • The passage is about 'digital marketing'.
  • Let us read the following sentence carefully: such as desktop computers, mobile phones and other digital media and platforms to (2) products and services.
  • From the given sentence we can understand that the purpose of digital marketing is discussed here.
  • The meaning of the word 'promote' is 'to support or encourage'.

So the correct sentence issuch as desktop computers, mobile phones and other digital media and platforms to promote products and services.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

  • design: to plan
  • develop: to grow
  • create: to make
  • enroll: to register or sign up
97

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 3.

  1. ((a))

    dopiness

  2. ((b))

    stability

  3. ((c))

    awareness

  4. ((d))

    success

  5. ((e))

    confidentiality

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

awareness

The correct answer is 'awareness'.

Key Points

  • The passage is about 'digital marketing'.
  • Let us read the following sentence carefullyOne of the key objectives of modern digital marketing is to raise brand (3), the extent to which customers and the general public are familiar with and recognize a particular brand.
  • From the given sentence we can understand that the objective of digital marketing is to make general public familiar with a particular brand.
  • The meaning of the word 'awareness' is 'perception of something'.
  • Therefore, the correct word for blank no 3 is 'awareness'.

So, the correct sentence isOne of the key objectives of modern digital marketing is to raise brand awareness, the extent to which customers and the general public are familiar with and recognize a particular brand

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

  • dopiness: a state of sleepiness
  • stability: the state of being stable or firmness
  • success: favourable outcome
  • confident: hopeful
98

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 4.

  1. ((a))

    severe

  2. ((b))

    passable

  3. ((c))

    dissimulate

  4. ((d))

    thwart

  5. ((e))

    inseparable

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

inseparable

The correct answer is 'inseparable'.

Key Points

  • The passage is about 'digital marketing'.
  • Let us read the following sentence carefullyThe development of digital marketing is (4) from technology development.
  • From the given sentence we can understand that digital marketing is developing with technology development.
  • The meaning of the word 'inseparable' is 'impossible to separate'.
  • So, the correct word for blank no 4 is 'inseparable'.

The correct sentence isThe development of digital marketing is inseparable from technology development.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

  • severe: serious or grave
  • passable: fairly good
  • dissimulate: to pretend
  • thwart: to stand in the way of
99

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 5.

  1. ((a))

    obligation

  2. ((b))

    function

  3. ((c))

    fabrication

  4. ((d))

    attain

  5. ((e))

    contravention

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

function

The correct answer is 'function'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about 'digital marketing'.
  • Let us read the following sentence carefullyDigital marketing channels and traditional marketing channels are similar in (5)
  • From the given sentence we can understand that both Digital marketing channels and traditional marketing channels  do the same thing.
  • So, the word 'function' which means 'purpose' is the correct word for blank no 5.

The correct sentence isDigital marketing channels and traditional marketing channels are similar in function

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

  • obligation: duty or responsibility
  • fabrication: the process of inventing something
  • attain: to achieve
  • contravention: violation or failure to observe
100

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 6.

  1. ((a))

    estimation

  2. ((b))

    blemish

  3. ((c))

    disparage

  4. ((d))

    impediment

  5. ((e))

    product

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

product

The correct answer is 'product'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about 'digital marketing'.
  • Let us read the following sentence carefullythe value of the (6) or service is passed from the original producer to the end user by a kind of supply chain.
  • From the given sentence we can understand that the function or the purpose of the Digital marketing channels and traditional marketing channels is to pass the value of the service appropriately.
  • So, the word 'product' is appropriate for blank no 6.

The correct sentence isthe value of the product or service is passed from the original producer to the end user by a kind of supply chain. 

Additional Information

 The meaning of the given words:

  • estimation: a rough calculation
  • blemish: fault
  • disparage: to downgrade
  • impediment: block or barrier

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt