ESIC UDC Memory Based Test (Shift 1) - 19th March 2022 (Previous Year Paper)

Students: U, V, W, X, Y, P, R and S.

(1) Two students sit between P and X who sits third to the right of Y. 

(2) U and V sit opposite to each other.

(3) U does not sit adjacent to Y. 

(4) The same number of people sit between R and S as that of between Y and S (means S sits exactly between R and Y). Now, W will occupy the remaining position.

(5) W faces the centre. Case 1 eliminates here. Thus the final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, X faces W.

Students: U, V, W, X, Y, P, R and S.

(1) Two students sit between P and X who sits third to the right of Y. 

(2) U and V sit opposite to each other.

(3) U does not sit adjacent to Y. 

(4) The same number of people sit between R and S as that of between Y and S (means S sits exactly between R and Y). Now, W will occupy the remaining position.

(5) W faces the centre. Case 1 eliminates here. Thus the final arrangement is as follows:

All students are at corner except X.

Hence, X does not belong to the group.

Students: U, V, W, X, Y, P, R and S.

(1) Two students sit between P and X who sits third to the right of Y. 

(2) U and V sit opposite to each other.

(3) U does not sit adjacent to Y. 

(4) The same number of people sit between R and S as that of between Y and S (means S sits exactly between R and Y). Now, W will occupy the remaining position.

(5) W faces the centre. Case 1 eliminates here. Thus the final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, four students are between W and R when counted from the left of W.

Students: U, V, W, X, Y, P, R and S.

(1) Two students sit between P and X who sits third to the right of Y. 

(2) U and V sit opposite to each other.

(3) U does not sit adjacent to Y. 

(4) The same number of people sit between R and S as that of between Y and S (means S sits exactly between R and Y). Now, W will occupy the remaining position.

(5) W faces the centre. Case 1 eliminates here. Thus the final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, the same number of students are sitting between Y and S as that of between U and W.

Students: U, V, W, X, Y, P, R and S.

(1) Two students sit between P and X who sits third to the right of Y. 

(2) U and V sit opposite to each other.

(3) U does not sit adjacent to Y. 

(4) The same number of people sit between R and S as that of between Y and S (means S sits exactly between R and Y). Now, W will occupy the remaining position.

(5) W faces the centre. Case 1 eliminates here. Thus the final arrangement is as follows:

P sits immediate left of U but sits third to the right of V.

Hence, the one who sits immediate left of U, sits third to the left of V is false.

Given arrangement-

 Left end C 2 $ E F % 8 P Z @ # 1 T N + 9 Y 4 H V S * 7 J X 3 K Q M ! Right end

From the given series it is clear that # 1,% 8, + 9, and * 7​ are preceded by a symbol.

Hence, there are four such numbers which are preceded by a symbol

Given series-

Left end  C 2 $ E F % 8 P Z @ # 1 T N + 9 Y 4 H V S * 7 J X 3 K Q M ! Right end

Sixth from left end - %

Ninth from the right end - *

8 P Z @ # 1 T  N + 9 Y 4 H V S 

Hence, there are fifteen elements which is sixth from left end and element which is ninth from the right end

Given series-

Left end  C 2 $ E F % 8 P Z @ # 1 T N + 9 Y 4 H V S * 7 J X 3 K Q M !  Right end

After eliminating symbols, the series will be-

Left end C 2 E F 8 P Z 1 T N 9 Y 4 H V S 7 J X 3 K Q M  Right end 

Hence, 7 will be the seventh element from the right end after dropping all the symbols from the given arrangement

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Hence, point S is in north-east of point O.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

By using Pythagoras theorem,

Shortest distance between N and S = √ (3² + 4²) = √ (9 + 16) = √25 = 5

Hence, the shortest distance between point N and point S is 5m.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Hence, point Q is in south-west of point M

Seven persons: P, Q, R, X, Y, A, K

1. The number of persons goes to the gym before A is same as the number of Persons goes to gym after Q.

2. Q goes to the gym a few days after A.

3. R goes to the gym on the weekend.

i.e. R goes to the gym either on Sunday or Saturday. Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.

4. Only one person goes to the gym between R and X.

Since R goes to the gym either on Saturday or Sunday. i.e. X will go to the gym either on Tuesday or Thursday. Hence case 1 gets eliminated.

5. K goes to the gym after X but before Q.

In case 2.2, X and Q are going to the gym on consecutive days. Hence, 2.2 do not satisfy this condition and gets eliminated.

6. K and X do not go to the gym on Wednesday.

Hence, K goes to the gym on Thursday.

7. P likes to go to the gym on weekdays.

Hence, P goes to the gym on Wednesday and T goes to the gym on Saturday.

Hence, P goes to the gym on Wednesday.

Seven persons: P, Q, R, X, Y, A, K

1. The number of persons goes to the gym before A is same as the number of Persons goes to gym after Q.

2. Q goes to the gym a few days after A.

3. R goes to the gym on the weekend.

i.e. R goes to the gym either on Sunday or Saturday. Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.

4. Only one person goes to the gym between R and X.

Since R goes to the gym either on Saturday or Sunday. i.e. X will go to the gym either on Tuesday or Thursday. Hence case 1 gets eliminated.

5. K goes to the gym after X but before Q.

In case 2.2, X and Q are going to the gym on consecutive days. Hence, 2.2 do not satisfy this condition and gets eliminated.

6. K and X do not go to the gym on Wednesday.

Hence, K goes to the gym on Thursday.

7. P likes to go to the gym on weekdays.

Hence, P goes to the gym on Wednesday and T goes to the gym on Saturday.

Hence, K goes to the gym on Thursday.

Seven persons: P, Q, R, X, T, A, K

1. The number of persons goes to the gym before A is same as the number of Persons goes to gym after Q.

2. Q goes to the gym a few days after A.

3. R goes to the gym on the weekend.

i.e. R goes to the gym either on Sunday or Saturday. Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.

4. Only one person goes to the gym between R and X.

Since R goes to the gym either on Saturday or Sunday. i.e. X will go to the gym either on Tuesday or Thursday. Hence case 1 gets eliminated.

5. K goes to the gym after X but before Q.

In case 2.2, X and Q are going to the gym on consecutive days. Hence, 2.2 do not satisfy this condition and gets eliminated.

6. K and X do not go to the gym on Wednesday.

Hence, K goes to the gym on Thursday.

7. P likes to go to the gym on weekdays.

Hence, P goes to the gym on Wednesday and T goes to the gym on Saturday.

Hence, only one person goes to the gym before A.

Seven persons: P, Q, R, X, Y, A, K

1. The number of persons goes to the gym before A is same as the number of Persons goes to gym after Q.

2. Q goes to the gym a few days after A.

3. R goes to the gym on the weekend.

i.e. R goes to the gym either on Sunday or Saturday. Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.

4. Only one person goes to the gym between R and X.

Since R goes to the gym either on Saturday or Sunday. i.e. X will go to the gym either on Tuesday or Thursday. Hence case 1 gets eliminated.

5. K goes to the gym after X but before Q.

In case 2.2, X and Q are going to the gym on consecutive days. Hence, 2.2 do not satisfy this condition and gets eliminated.

6. K and X do not go to the gym on Wednesday.

Hence, K goes to the gym on Thursday.

7. P likes to go to the gym on weekdays.

Hence, P goes to the gym on Wednesday and T goes to the gym on Saturday.

Hence, ‘X’ goes to the gym a day before P.

Seven persons: P, Q, R, X, Y, A, K

1. The number of persons goes to the gym before A is same as the number of Persons goes to gym after Q.

2. Q goes to the gym a few days after A.

3. R goes to the gym on the weekend.

i.e. R goes to the gym either on Sunday or Saturday. Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.

4. Only one person goes to the gym between R and X.

Since R goes to the gym either on Saturday or Sunday. i.e. X will go to the gym either on Tuesday or Thursday. Hence case 1 gets eliminated.

5. K goes to the gym after X but before Q.

In case 2.2, X and Q are going to the gym on consecutive days. Hence, 2.2 do not satisfy this condition and gets eliminated.

6. K and X do not go to the gym on Wednesday.

Hence, K goes to the gym on Thursday.

7. P likes to go to the gym on weekdays.

Hence, P goes to the gym on Wednesday and T goes to the gym on Saturday.

Hence, ‘Q - Saturday’ is the incorrect pair.

Given series: 420        885        290        569        182

On interchanging second and third digit: 402        858        209        596        128

Rearranging series in ascending order: 128        209        402        596        858

Now the fourth number is 596 made from 569.

Hence, the answer is 569.

Given series: 420        885        290        569        182

After the digits of each number arranged in descending order:

420        885        920         965        821

Second highest number = 920

Second lowest number = 821

Sum of second highest and second lowest number = 920 + 821 = 1741

Hence, the answer is 1741.

Given series: 420        885        290        569        182

On adding the difference between first and second digit of a number with the second digit, we get:

420 → (4 - 0) + 2 = 6

885 → (8 - 5) + 8 = 11

290 → (2 - 0) + 9 = 11

569 → (9 - 5) + 6 = 10

182 → (2 - 1) + 8 = 9

The result of the addition of the difference between the first and third digit of a number with the second digit of the same number is lowest in the case of 420.

Hence, the answer is 420.

Word is- C E N T R A L

Vowels and then consonants arranged alphabetically- A E C L N R T

Vowels replaced by the next letter and consonants replaced by the previous letter- B F B K M Q S

Fourth letter from the right end here is K.

Given number – 45289654

By adding 1 to every even digit and subtracting 1 from every odd digit, we get 54398745

Now, 3^rd digit from the left end is 3.

3^rd digit from the right end is 7.

7 + 3 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is ‘10’.

Given statements: Y ≥ T > R ≥ P; M ≤ X ≤ P > D

On combining: Y ≥ T > R ≥ P > D; Y ≥ T > R ≥ P ≥ X ≥ M

Conclusions:

I. Y > D → True (as Y ≥ T > R ≥ P > D → Y > D)

II. X < T → True (as T > R ≥ P ≥ X → T > X)

Hence, both I and II are True.

Given statements: R ≥ Q > O; E < O = B > W = C

On combining: R ≥ Q > O > E; R ≥ Q > O = B > W = C

Conclusions:

I. Q > E → True (as Q > O > E → Q > E)

II. C = R → False (as R ≥ Q > O = B > W = C → R > C)

Hence, only conclusion I is True.

Given statements: U > V > W; X ≥ T; Y < T; Y = U

On combining: X ≥ T > Y = U > V > W

Conclusions:

I. T > W → True (as T > Y = U > V > W → T > W)

II. Y < V → False (as Y = U > V → Y > V)

Hence, only I is True.

Given Statements : X = Y > Z > W ; X < A > B > C

On Combining : C < B < A > X = Y > Z > W

Conclusions:

I. Z > X → False ( As X = Y > Z → thus clearly we can conclude that X > Z ) 

II. A < Y → False ( As A < X = Y → thus clearly we can conclude that A > Y ) 

Therefore, Neither I nor II is True.

The Correct Answer is "1576".

Important Points

• The Battle of Gogunda is also called the Battle of Haldighat.
• In June 1576, a battle fought in Rajasthan, northwestern India.
• It was fought between Pratap Singh of Mewar, the senior Rajput chief, and a Mughal army led by Raja Man Singh of Jaipur.
• It represented an attempt by the Mughal emperor Akbar to subdue the last of the independent chiefs of Rajasthan.
• Pratap Singh made a stand at the pass of Haldighat, about 12 miles (19 km) from the fortress of Gogunda and northwest of Udaipur.
• Pratap continued his resistance from hill fastnesses, and Mewar did not finally acknowledge the Mughals until 1614.

Key Points

• Rana Pratap Singh Hindu maharaja of the Rajput confederacy of Mewar, now in northwestern India and eastern Pakistan.
• He successfully resisted the efforts of the Mughal emperor Akbar to conquer his area and is honored as a hero in Rajasthan.
• The son and successor of the weak Rana Udai Singh, Rana Pratap sought to avenge the 1567 pillage of his capital, Chitor, and subsequent raids by Akbar; this was in notable contrast to his fellow Hindu princes, who had submitted to the Mughals.
• Rana Pratap reorganized the government, improved the forts, and directed his subjects to take refuge in the mountain country when attacked by Mughals.

Additional Information

• The site of the battle was a narrow mountain pass at Haldighati near Gogunda in Rajasthan.
• Maharana Pratap fielded a force of around 3,000 cavalries and 400 Bhil archers.
• The Mughals were led by Raja Man Singh of Amber, who commanded an army numbering around 10,000 men according to Persian sources, Mewari sources give an account of 80,000 Mughal troops against the 20,000 strong Mewari armies.
• While both accounts differ significantly in total numbers, they agree on the point that the Mughal army outnumbered the Mewari troops by a factor of four to one.
• After initial successes by the Mewari army in battle, the tide slowly turned against them.
• In a fierce battle in which Pratap found himself wounded, he called a tactical retreat.
• A few of his men under Jhala Man Singh covered the retreat in a rearguard action.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e., Damodar River.

• Damodar River originates from the Latehar district (Chota-Nagpur plateau) in Jharkhand.
• It was earlier known as the "Sorrow of Bengal" because of its ravaging floods in the plains of West Bengal.
• The Ganges splits into the Padma and the Hooghly near Giria, Murshidabad in West Bengal among which the Padma flows eastward into Bangladesh, whereas the Hooghly flows south through West Bengal.
• The Barakar River, which originates from the Padma village in the Hazaribagh district in Jharkhand, is the main tributary of the Damodar River.
• Jamuna River is one of the major rivers of the North 24 Parganas district in West Bengal which was earlier a distributary of the Hooghly River separating from it near Tribeni but Jamuna is now an independent rain-fed channel that emerges south-east of the Nadia district and empties itself into the Ichamati River.

The correct answer is ​Rs. 6,000/year.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN):
• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PM-Kisan Yojana) is a government scheme through which, all small and marginal farmers will get up to Rs 6,000 per year as minimum income support.
• The PM Kisan Yojana came into effect on December 1, 2018.
• Under the PM Kisan Yojana, income support of Rs 6000 per annum is provided to all eligible farmer families across the country in three equal installments of Rs 2,000 each every four months.
• The scheme defines a family as a husband, wife, and minor children.
• The fund of Rs 2,000 is directly transferred to the bank accounts of the farmers/farmer's family.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana: 
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF).
• All Small and Marginal Farmers having cultivable landholdings up to 2 hectares falling in the age group of 18 to 40 years, whose names appear in the land records of States/UTs as of 01.08.2019 are eligible to get benefit under the Scheme.
• Under this scheme, the farmers would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years and if the farmer dies, the spouse of the farmer shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as a family pension.
• Family pension is applicable only to spouses.

Ramon Magsaysay Award was instituted by Philippines President Ramon Magsaysay in 1957. It is awarded to individuals showing qualities of emergent leadership. In the past few years, several Indians have been awarded this honor including Arvind Kejriwal, Sanjiv Chaturvedi, Anshu Gupta, Thodur Madabusi Krishna, Ravish Kumar, etc.

Key Points

• International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has become an associate member of the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
• The International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) works closely with the G20 and the Financial Stability Board in setting up the standards for strengthening the securities markets
• The IOSCO Objectives and Principles of Securities Regulation have been endorsed by the Financial Stability Board.
• The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global financial system.

The corrrect answer is Literature and Education.

Key Points

• Shri Ghulam Nabi Azad has been conferred with Padma Bhushan award in 2022.
• India's first chief of defence staff (CDS) late General Bipin Rawat has been posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan.
• Cyrus Poonawalla of the Serum Institue and Krishna Ella and Suchitra Ella of Bharat Biotech have been honoured with Padma Bhushan.
• The heads of Microsoft and Google Satya Nadella and Sundar Pichai have been named for the Padma Bhushan honours.

Important Points

• ​Padma Vibhushan Awardees for the year 2022 (4):

The Correct answer is 2014-2015.

Key Points

• 'Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive' (PRASAD) scheme was launched by the Ministry of Tourism..
• PRASAD' is a central scheme to develop pilgrimage and heritage destinations in the country.
• The nomenclature of the scheme changed from PRASAD to “National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) in October 2017.
• The objective of the PRASHAD scheme is to develop the pilgrim sites across the country to enrich the religious tourism experience.
• PRASHAD Scheme thrust is on integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in a planned, prioritized, and sustainable manner to provide a complete religious tourism experience.

The main objective of the Prasad Scheme is to 

• Harness tourism for employment generation and economic development.
• Development of World Class infrastructure in religious destinations.
• Promotion of local art culture handicraft and cuisine.
• ​The total number of sites identified for development under the scheme at present is 41.
• PRASHAD scheme is 100% funded by the Central Government at most of the pilgrim sites, if required they arrangements under the Corporate Social Responsibility and Public-Private Partnerships can be done.

Additional Information

• Goa CM Pramod Sawant has launched ‘Dishtavo', an online channel for holistic teaching and virtual orientation for higher education.
• Goa would be the first state in the country to create such an infrastructure for higher education.
• The government is also planning to provide ‘e-mitra’ — a facility in which each student who does not get network will be paired with one who doe.
• Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank and Sanjay Dhotre jointly launched the first online NISHTHA programme for 1,200 key resources persons of Andhra Pradesh.
• NISHTHA-National Initiative for School Heads and Teachers Holistic Advancement
• The programme was launched virtually from New Delhi.
• Please note that initially NISHTHA programme was launched in face-to-face mode in August 2019.
• However, COVID-19 pandemic lockdown has affected the conduct of this programme, therefore, NCERT  customised NISHTHA for an online mode through the DIKSHA and NISHTHA portals.
• This programme is organised at the elementary stage under Samagra Shiksha which is a Centrally sponsored flagship programme of Ministry of Human Resource Development, now Ministry of Education.
• This programme is expected to improve learning outcomes and the holistic development of children.
• SWAYAM is India’s national MOOC platform. It offers over 2,150 courses taught by close to 1,300 instructors from over 135 Indian universities. One aspect that sets it apart from other providers is that it allows students in India to earn academic credit online. Since the platform was launched in 2017, over 10 million learners have taken courses on SWAYAM. At the rate it’s growing, in a few years, SWAYAM could become the world’s largest MOOC provider.
• Rashtriya Uchchattar Shiksha Abhiyan(RUSA) is a holistic scheme of development for higher education in India initiated in 2013 by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India.

The correct answer is 15 January.

• On 15th January the National Army Day was observed in India.

Key Points

• Army Day is celebrated on 15 January every year in India, in recognition of Field Marshal Kodandera M.
• On 15 January 2022, India celebrated its 74th Indian Army Day in New Delhi.
• Gallantry awards and Sena medals are also awarded on this day.

Additional Information

• The Indian Army was founded almost 126 years ago by the British on April 1, 1895.
• The Indian army was established on 1st April, but Army Day in India is celebrated on 15th January.
• Field Marshal K. M.  Cariappa became the first Indian Army Chief of Independent India on 15 January 1949.
• The transfer of power of the army in the hands of an Indian citizen on 15 January is marked as Army day in the country.
• Cariappa led the Indian Army on the western border in the Indo-Pak war in 1947.

• Birju Maharaj attained prominence in Kathak dance form.
• Pandit Birju Maharaj is also known as Brijmohan Mishra.
• He belongs to Allahabad Kalka-Bindadin gharana of Kathak.
• He was honoured with Padma Vibhushan Award in the year 1986.
  

The correct answer is ​16 January.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi has declared that January 16 will be celebrated as 'National Start-up Day'.
• He has termed startups as the "backbone" of new India and the engine that will power the nation’s economic growth in the run-up to the 100th year of Independence.
• He also informed that the current decade is being referred to as the “techade” of India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Delhi**.**

Key Points

• Extra Information about states/UTs obtained from census 2011:

1. The most populated state of India is Uttar Pradesh with a population of 199,812,341.
2. The least populated state in Sikkim with a population of 610,577.
3. The highest population density is found in Delhi with 11320 per square kilometre.
4. The lowest population density is found in Arunachal Pradesh with 17 per square Kilometer.
5. The UT with the highest sex ratio in Delhi with 868 females per 1000 males.
6. The state with the lowest sex ratio in Haryana with a sex ratio of 879.
7. The UT with the lowest sex ratio is Daman and Diu.
8. The state with the highest literacy rate is Kerela with 94% and the state with the lowest literacy rate is Bihar with 61.7%.
9. Lakshadweep has the lowest population as per the Census 2011 with just 64,470 people.
10. According to the census 2011, the population density, sex ratio, and literacy rate of Lakshadweep are 2149, 946, and 91.85 percent respectively.
11. Lakshadweep is a Union Territory that consists of different islands, atolls, and coral reefs, off the coast of Kerala, India. Kavaratti is the capital of Lakshadweep.
12. The Census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. It is conducted every 10 years.
13. The first census was conducted in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo and the first census was completed in 1881.
14. Shri Dineshwar Sharma, a Kerala Cadre IPS Officer, is the current Administrator of Lakshadweep.

The correct answer is 2001.

Key Points

• Legendary singer Lata Mangeshkar passed away on February 6 2022.
• She crooned songs in over thousand Hindi films and has sung in over thirty-six Indian languages.
• Nicknamed as 'The Nightingale of India', the singer was bestowed with India's highest civilian honour Bharat Ratna in 2001.
• She was also honoured with the Padma Vibhushan and Padma Bhushan.

Additional Information

• Recent Obituaries:
• Renowned religious orator and Padma Shri awardee Ibrahim Sutar, who had earned the recognition of Kannada Kabir, passed away in February 2022.
• Monica Vitti, a 20th-century Italian actress, passed away in February 2022.
• Captain of India's 1964 Tokyo Olympics gold medal-winning hockey team, Charanjit Singh, passed away in January 2022.
• Marathi author and social activist Anil Awachat passed away in January 2022.
• Subhas Bhowmick, a former Indian footballer, passed away in January 2022.
• Eminent theatre personality and actress, Shaoli Mitra passed away in Kolkata in January 2022.
• Noted environmentalist Prof M K Prasad passed away in January 2022.

The Correct answer is -Rabindranath Tagore.

 Key Points

• The title of Mahatma was given to Gandhi by Rabindranath Tagore, the Bengali poet, author, and philosopher.
  

Tagore first used the title in a letter to Gandhi in 1915, writing, "To the one whom India's millions call Mahatma - to him my grateful homage

• Mahatma Gandhiji is revered in India as the Father of the Nation.
• Much before the Constitution of Free India conferred the title of the Father of the Nation upon the Mahatma, it was Bose who first addressed him as such in his condolence message to the Mahatma on the demise of Kasturba Gandhi.

Important Points

Mahatma Gandhi:

• He was born on October 2, 1869, in Porbandar.
• He was a politician, lawyer, writer, and social activist.
• Real name: Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.
• His father's name was Karamchand Gandhi, who was the dewan of Porbandar in Gujarat and Putlibai Gandhi was the mother of Mahatma Gandhi.
• Kasturba Gandhi was known as the wife of Mahatma Gandhi.
• He introduced non-violence tactics called Satyagraha against the British.
• His first satyagraha was Champaran Satyagraha in 1917.
• He was known as the father of the Nation, because of his contributions to the Indian Independence Movement
• Khilafat movement, Non-cooperation movement, the Salt March, and quit India movement are the most popular movements of Mahatma Gandhi initiated during the fighting for freedom.
• Autobiography: My experiments with the truth.
• He was assassinated on January 30, 1948.

Vernacular Press Act of 1878, proposed by Lytton the then Viceroy of India (1876-80)was also known as the Gagging Act and it was meant only for vernacular/ native language newspapers not for English ones.

• According to this act, it was mandatory for the editors of Indian languages ​​newspapers to make a written assurance to the magistrate or collector of their respective areas that they would not publish such articles in their newspapers that spread resentment in public against the government or there is a possibility of spreading communal hatred.
• Though the government was criticized in English-language newspapers also, Lytton did not consider these criticisms as objectionable. So on 14 March 1878, Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act.

Important Points

Removal of restriction on Press:

• Cranbrook, the Secretary of State was not in favour of the idea of the pre-censorship clause and later on it was done away with and a press commissioner was appointed to supply authentic and accurate news to the press.
• The entire Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882.

Thus, it is clear that the Vernacular Press Act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

Additional Information

• Lord William Bentinck first came to India as governor of Madras in 1803 and was recalled in 1807 on account of the mutiny of the sepoys at Vellore in 1806.
• After about two decades he was appointed the Governor-General of Bengal and took over the charge in 1828.

The correct answer is Power Of The Dog.

Key Points

• The 79th edition of the Golden Globes award ceremony took place on 9 January 2022.
• The Power Of The Dog won Best Film (Drama).
• Jane Campion won the Best Director for 'The Power Of The Dog'.
• Will Smith won the Best Film Actor (Drama) for 'King Richard'.
• This is the first time that Will Smith has won a Golden Globe after being nominated for the accolade six times in his career.
• Nicole Kidman won her 5th Golden Globe for Best Film Actress (Drama) for 'Being The Ricardos'.
• Best Foreign Language Film was won by Drive My Car (Japan).
• South Korean actor O Yeong-su won the country's first Golden Globe award on 9 Jan 2022 for his role in Netflix series "Squid Game".
• He won best supporting actor in television for his portrayal of Oh II-nam, also known as The Host or Player 001, becoming the first South Korean ever to snatch a Golden Globe.
• He is regarded as one of the greatest stage actors in South Korea.

Important Points

The correct answer is  Malvika Bansod**.**

Key Points

• Two-time Olympic medallist PV Sindhu on 23 Jan 2022 won the women's singles title at the Syed Modi International badminton tournament.
• At the Babu Banarasi Indoor Stadium, Lucknow, she defeated Malvika Bansod 21-13, 21-16 in the summit clash.
• It was her second Syed Modi title after having annexed the BWF World Tour Super 300 event in 2017.

Additional Information

• Tasnim Mir became the first Indian to grab World no 1 in Under-19 (U-19) Girls Singles category in the 2022 Badminton World Federation (BWF) Junior rankings.
• Nitesh Kumar won doubled gold at the 4th Para-Badminton National Championship, which concluded in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• Kidambi Srikanth has become the first Indian man to win a silver medal at BWF World Championships.
• Badminton World Federation:
• Founded: 5 July 1934;
• Headquarters: Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia;
• President: Poul-Erik Høyer Larsen (As of Jan 2022).
• Ace Indian badminton player PV Sindhu defeated China’s He Bingjiao to win the bronze medal in the women’s singles event at the Tokyo Olympics on August 01, 2021.

The correct answer is Urjit Patel.

Key Points

• Former RBI Governor Urjit Patel has been appointed as a Vice President of the Beijing-based multilateral funding institution AIIB.
• India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) with the second-highest voting share after China.
• Patel will be one of the 5 Vice Presidents of the AIIB with a three-year tenure.
• He will succeed outgoing Vice President D.J. Pandian.

Additional Information

• ​Nirmala Sitharaman has participated in the 6th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) in October 2021.
• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve economic and social outcomes in Asia.
• The bank currently has 104 members, including 17 prospective members from around the world.
• President of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank: Jin Liqun.
• Headquarters of AIIB: Beijing, China.
• **AIIB established: 16 January 2016.**​

The correct answer is Ruskin Bond.

Key Points

• Author Ruskin Bond has come up with his book, ''A Little Book of India: Celebrating 75 years of Independence''.
• It pays homage to the country that has been his home for 84 years.
• It has been published by Penguin Random House India (PRHI).
• Ruskin is the recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award, Sahitya Akademi's Bal Sahitya Puraskar, Padma Shri, and Padma Bhushan, among other prestigious awards.

Additional Information

• Important Current Affairs are related to book releases in 2021-22.
• Shubira Prasad is the author of the book "The Angels of Kailash", a second book of the trilogy of the battle between humans and demons.
• Anukrti Upadhyay has won the Sushila Devi Award 2021 for the Best Book of Fiction for her critically acclaimed novel, Kintsugi in December 2021.
• The Vice President, M. Venkaiah Naidu released the book ‘Dr. V L Dutt: Glimpses of a Pioneer’s Life Journey written by V L Indira Dutt, Chairperson, and MD of KCP Group in Chennai.
• Vice President M. Venkaiah Naidu has released the memoir 'Raj Kapoor: The Master at Work' written by filmmaker Rahul Rawail on 14 December 2021.
• A new book that unearths true stories of the 1971 Indo-Pak war, ’1971: Charge of the Gorkhas and Other Stories, written by Rachna Bisht Rawat released in December 2021.
• A biography titled ‘Naoroji: Pioneer of Indian Nationalism’, authored by Dinyar Patel won the 4th Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay NIF (New India Foundation) Book Prize 2021.
• In December 2021, the Vice President of India, M. Venkaiah Naidu launched a book titled ‘Public Service Ethics- A Quest for Naitik Bharat’, authored by Prabhat Kumar.
• In December 2021, the Vice President of India, M. Venkaiah Naidu on the 72nd anniversary of the adoption of the ‘Constitution of India’ released a book titled “Democracy, Politics, and Governance”,  authored by Dr. A. Surya Prakash.
• Vice President (VP) M. Venkaiah Naidu launched a book titled ‘The Midway Battle: Modi’s Roller-coaster Second Term’ authored by Gautam Chintamani in December 2021.

The correct answer is Jaipur.

Key Points

• The world's third-largest cricket stadium is going to be built in Jaipur.
• Rajasthan Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot (As of Feb 2022) and BCCI President Sourav Ganguly (As of Feb 2022) laid the foundation stone of the project virtually in February 2022.
• It will be the second-largest cricket stadium in India.
• A stadium each will be built in Jodhpur and Udaipur as well.

Additional Information

• ​ Important Current Affairs related to Cricket in 2021-22:
• To promote women’s empowerment, Legends League Cricket (LLC) has appointed cricketer Jhulan Goswami as an ambassador.
• India has won the U-19 Asia Cricket Cup 2021 held in Dubai, UAE in December 2021.
• South African wicket-keeper Quinton de Kock announced retirement from Test cricket on 30 December 2021.
• India has become the first Asian team to win a Test match at Centurion after beating South Africa by 113-run.
• Rishabh Pant has become the fastest Indian wicket-keeper to reach 100 dismissals in Test cricket.
• He achieved this feat against South Africa in Centurion on Dec 28, 2021.​
• Mohammed Shami has become the fifth Indian pacer to take 200 Test wickets.
• In December 2021, Rishabh Pant has been appointed as the brand ambassador of Uttarakhand.
• The International Cricket Council (ICC) has appointed Geoff Allardice as the permanent CEO of the International Cricket governing body in November 2021.
• ICC Headquarters: Dubai, United Arab Emirates
• ICC Founded: 15 June 1909
• ICC Deputy Chairman: Imran Khwaja (As of Jan 2022).
• ICC Chairman: Greg Barclay (As of Jan 2022).
• In December 2021, the Board of Control for Cricket in India ( BCCI) has formed a committee for the differently-abled cricketers of the country.

Panini was one of the most creative and innovative persons who contributed to the advancement of Sanskrit grammatical knowledge.

• He is often regarded as the father of literature and language, Sanskrit phonetics and morphology were studied scientifically by this well-known Sanskrit grammarian.​​

Important Points

• Panini examined the traditional Sanskrit language, which was the language of all literary works, and shed additional insight on its phonology.
• The most renowned and important of Panini's writings is called Ashtadhyayi.
• He went on step by step and explained the use of nouns, vowels and verbs and divided them into classes.
• He then went on to explain the construction of sentences and the use of compound nouns and tenses.
• It is very similar to the principles of Mathematics as the construction of this grammatical pattern functions mathematically.

​Hence, Panini was a famous scholar of Language and Grammar.

Key Points 

• Raja Ravi Varma
• Date of Birth: April 29, 1848
• Place of Birth: Kilimanoor, Travancore
• Date of Death: October 2, 1906
• Place of Death: Attingal, Travancore
• Profession: Painter, artist
• Spouse: Pooruruttati Nal Bhageerathi Bayi Thampuratty
• Children: Kerala Varma, Cheria Kochamma, Uma Amma, Mahaprabhu Amma, Rama Varma
• Father: Ezhumavil Neelakanthan Bhattatiripad
• Mother: Umayamba Bayi Thampuratty
• Awards: Kaisar-i-Hind Gold Medal (1904)

Additional Information 

• Raja Ravi Varma was an Indian painter and artist, considered as one of the greatest painters in the history of Indian art.
• Raja Ravi Varma is known for his amazing paintings, which revolve mainly around the Puranas (ancient mythological stories) and the great Indian epics - Mahabharata and Ramayana.
• Ravi Varma is one of the few painters who managed to accomplish a beautiful union of Indian tradition with the techniques of European academic art.
• This is one of the reasons why he is considered as one of the most, if not the most prominent Indian painters.
• Varma was also responsible for taking Indian art all over the world with his impeccable technique.

The correct answer is Art. 343.

Key Points

• Article 343(1) of the Constitution provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the Official Language of the Union.
• Article 343(2) also provided for continuing the use of English in the official work of the Union for a period of 15 years from the date of commencement of the Constitution.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 2024.

Key Points

• India's first human space mission "Gaganyaan" will be launched in 2024.
• The Indian Space Research Organisation or ISRO's first test flight for its ambitious Gaganyaan mission was launched in October from its Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Andhra Pradesh's Sriharikota.
• The maiden Flight Test Vehicle Abort Mission-1 (TV-D1) to demonstrate the Crew Escape System (CES) performance successfully touched down in the seawater of Bay Bengal.

Important Points

• The Gaganyaan mission's primary goal is to launch humans into space, placing them in a Low Earth Orbit at an altitude of 400 kilometers for a three-day mission, with a safe return to Earth scheduled for 2025.​
• The crew for the Gaganyaan mission will be transported to the designated orbit using an LVM3 rocket. This rocket consists of various stages, including solid, liquid, and cryogenic propulsion systems.

• The natural rubber that is obtained from the rubber tree is a polymer of isoprene (C5H8).
• Isoprene is an organic compound. Its IUPAC name is 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene.
• Rubber is naturally extracted from a rubber tree in the form of latex by a process called tapping in which incisions are made on the bark of a tree and the fluid is collected in a vessel.

The correct answer is 16.6%  

Key Points

• The Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) are officially designated groups of people and among the most disadvantaged socio-economic groups in India.
• The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes comprise about 16.6% and 8.6%, respectively, of India's population (according to the 2011 census).
• Scheduled castes distribution in India by state and union territory according to 2011 Census.
• Punjab had the highest percentage of its population as SC (~32%), while India's island territories and three northeastern states had 0%.
• Scheduled Tribes distribution in India by state and union territory according to 2011 Census. 
• Mizoram and Lakshadweep had the highest percentage of its population as ST (~95%).

Calculation:

The pattern of the number series is-

⇒ 1 × 1 + 4 = 5

⇒ 5 × 2 + 4 = 14

⇒ 14 × 3 + 4 = 46

⇒ 46 × 4 + 4 = 188

⇒ 188 × 5 + 4 = 944

∴ The value of ? is 944

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 8 × 2 = 16

⇒ 16 × 3 = 48

⇒ 48 × 4 = 192

⇒ 192 × 5 = 960

⇒ 960 × 6 = 5760

∴ The value of ? is 5760

Calculation∶

The series follows following pattern

⇒ 15² + 1 = 226

⇒ 17² + 3 = 292

⇒ 19² + 5 = 366

⇒ 21² + 7 = 448

⇒ 23² + 9 = 538

⇒ 25² + 11 = 636

∴ The value of ? is 366

Calculation∶

The series follows following pattern

9 × 1 + 2 = 11

10 × 2 + 3 = 23

11 × 3 + 4 = 37

12 × 4 + 5 = 53

13 × 5 + 6 = 71

14 × 6 + 7 = 91

∴ The value of ? is 91

Calculation:

The series follows following pattern

⇒ 10 + 19 = 29

⇒ 29 + 29 = 58

⇒ 58 + 39 = 97

⇒ 97 + 49 = 146

∴ The value of ? is 97

GIVEN:

Speed of boat in still water is 6 km/hr and speed of stream is 3 km/hr

CONCEPT:

If a boat is going against the stream during a trip, then for return trip it will be downstream.

FORMULA USED:

Upstream speed = speed of boat – stream speed

Downstream speed = speed of boat + stream speed

CALCULATION:

→ Upstream speed = 6 - 3 = 3 km/hr

→ Downstream speed = 6 + 3 = 9 km/hr

It has to travel 27 km upstream and downstream both.

→ Time taken = (27/9 + 27/3) = 3 + 9 = 12 hr

GIVEN:

A : B (6 years ago) = 5 : 6

A + B = 45 years

EXPLANATION:

Let their ages 6 years ago be 5x and 6x

A.T.Q

5x + 6 + 6x + 6 = 45

11x = 33

x = 3 yrs

Required ratio = (5x + 9) : (6x + 9)

⇒ (5 × 3 + 9) : (6 × 3 + 9) = 8 : 9

∴ The ratio will be 8 : 9

Given

An article was purchased for Rs.7000.After that price was marked by 30%.

Discount of 10% was given on mark up price.

Formula used

MP(1 - D/100) = SP

MP = Marked Price

SP = Selling Price

D = Discount

Calculation

Marked price = Rs.7000 + 7000 × 30/100

⇒ MP = Rs. 9100

⇒ SP = MP(1 - D/100)

⇒ SP = 9100 × 90/100

⇒ SP = Rs.8190

⇒ Profit = 8190 - 7000

⇒ Profit% = (1190/7000) × 100

∴ Profit% is 17%

Shortcut Trick

Let Train length be 3 units, then Platform length is 1 unit.

Total distance = 3 + 1 = 4 units.

Total distance = Speed × Time = 25 × 20 = 500 m.

4 units = 500 m ⇒ 1 unit = 125 m.

Train length = 3 units = 3 × 125 = 375 m.

∴ The correct answer is 375 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed (S) = 25 m/s, Time (T) = 20 seconds, Platform (P) = 1/3 of Train (L).

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time; Total Distance = Length of Train + Length of Platform

Calculations:

⇒ Let Train Length = L

⇒ Platform Length = L/3

⇒ Total Distance = L + L/3 = 4L/3

⇒ 4L/3 = 25 × 20

⇒ 4L/3 = 500

⇒ L = (500 × 3) ÷ 4

⇒ L = 125 × 3 = 375 m

∴ The correct answer is 375 m.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, it is S₁ + S₂.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Object Crossing Rule

When a train crosses a pole or a man, distance = length of train. When it crosses a bridge or platform, distance = train length + bridge/platform length.

Given:

Sunil : Kamal = 7 : 5

Sunil's age after 6 years = 48 years

Calculation:

Let their ages be 7x and 5x

After 6 years,

7x + 6 = 48

⇒ x = 6 years

Kamal's present age = 5 × 6 = 30 years

Required age = 30 - 4 = 26 years

∴ Age of Kamal 4 years ago is 26 years

Given:

X can do 1/4 of a work in 3 days

Y can do 1/6 of the same work in 4 days

Calculations:

X’s one day work = ¼ × 1/3

⇒ 1/12

Y’s one day work = 1/6 × ¼

⇒ 1/24

X’s wages : Y’s wages = X’s 1 day’s work : Y’s 1 day’s work

⇒ 1/12 : 1/24

⇒ 24 : 12

⇒ 2 : 1

X’s share = 2/3 × 1800

⇒ 1200

∴ X will get Rs. 1200.

Let the income of A and B be 5x, 4x respectively

Let the Expenditure of A and B be 2y, 1y respectively

∴ Savings of A = 5x - 2y

∴ Savings of B = 4x - y

As the savings of both are equal

⇒ 5x - 2y = 4x - y

⇒ x = y

∴ Ratio between income and expenditure of A = 5x/2y = 5 :  2

Given:

T = 15 hours

S’ = S – S/4

Formula used:

Time = Distance/ Speed

Calculation:

T = D/ S      ….(1)

⇒ D’ = D – 5

⇒ S’ = S × (1 – (1/ 4))

⇒ S’ = 3S/ 4

T = (D – 5)/ (3S/ 4)

Replacing T by Equation 1

⇒ D/ S = (D – 5)/ (3S/ 4)

⇒ D – ((3/ 4) × D) = 5

⇒ D = 20 km

∴ The distance travelled by Sohan is 20 km

Hint

Form two equations and equate them with time. Time in both the cases is same

Short Trick:

We know that the distance travelled is directly proportional to the speed when time is constant.

The ratio of distance travelled = 4:3 (Equal to the ratio of speed)

Difference = 1 unit

1 unit = 5km

4 units = 20 km

∴ Hence total distance covered = 20 km

Given:

Perimeter of square is 56 m

Length of rectangle is double the breadth

Formula:

Perimeter of square = 4 × s

Area of square = s × s

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(l + b)

Area of rectangle = l × b

Where, s = side of square, l = length of rectangle, b = breadth of rectangle.

Calculation:

Let side of square be s

4 × s = 56 m

⇒ s = 56/4 m

⇒ s = 14 m

Area of square = 14 × 14 = 196 m²

Area of rectangle = 196/2 = 98 m²

Let breadth of rectangle be x

Length = 2x

(x × 2x) = 98 m²

⇒ 2x² = 98 m²

⇒ x² = 98/2 m²

⇒ x² = 49 m²

⇒ x = 7 m

Length = 2 × 7 = 14m

Perimeter of the rectangle = {2 × (14 + 7)} m

Perimeter = (2 × 21) m

Perimeter = 42 m

∴ Perimeter of the rectangle is 42 m

Given:

The average of 11 numbers = 18

The average of 9 numbers = 17

The ratio of the remaining 2 numbers = 2 : 3

Calculation:

Total of the 11 numbers = 11 × 18

⇒ 198

Total of the 9 numbers = 9 × 17

⇒ 153

∴ Total of the remaining 2 numbers = 198 – 153

⇒ 45

Let the remaining two numbers be 2x and 3x.

∴ 2x + 3x = 45

⇒ 5x = 45

⇒ x = 9

∴ the smaller number = 2x

⇒ 2 × 9

⇒ 18

∴ the smaller number is 18.

Given:

15 × 2 – 2 × 8 – 7 = ?

Concept Used:

Calculation:

15 × 2 – 2 × 8 – 7 = ?

⇒ 15 × 2 – 2 × 8 – 7 = ?

⇒ 30 – 16 – 7 = ?

⇒ 30 – 23 = ?

⇒ 7 = ?

∴ 7 will come in place of the question mark ('?').

Concept used:

Calculation:

Considering the following given question

(4575 – 1740 – 2250) = ? – 39 + √9025

⇒ (4575 – 1740 – 2250) = ? – 39 + √9025

⇒ (4575 – 3990) = ? – 39 + √9025

⇒ 585 = ? – 39 + √9025

⇒ 585 = ? – 39 + 95

⇒ 585 + 39 = ? + 95

⇒ 624 = ? + 95

⇒ 624 – 95 = ?

⇒ 529 = ?

∴ ? = 529

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Now,

Calculations:

27 + 48 = ? + 25

⇒ ? = 75 – 25

⇒ ? = 50

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Now,

Calculations:

15 × ? + 104 = 284

⇒ 15 × ? = 180

⇒ ? = 12

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Calculation:

1156 + 984 - 2256 + 166 = ?

2306 – 2256 = ?

⇒ ? = 50

∴ The value of ? is 50

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Calculation:

√1521 + 212 – 18% of 500 = 5 × ?

⇒ 39 + 441 – 90 = 5 × ?

⇒ 390 = 5 × ?

⇒ 78 = ?

∴ The value of ? is 78

Given:

(√841 × 2) ÷ 58 + 13 × 7 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

(√841 × 2) ÷ 58 + 13 × 7 = ?

⇒ (29 × 2) ÷ 58 + 13 × 7 = ?

⇒ 58 ÷ 58 + 91 = ?

⇒ 1 + 91 = ?

⇒ ? = 92

∴ The value of ? is 92.

Concept Used:       

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

√196 – 114 + 96 + 112 – 187

⇒ 14 – 114 + 96 + 112 – 187

⇒ 14 – 114 + 208 – 187

⇒ 14 + 94 – 187

⇒ 108 – 187

⇒ -79

∴ The result will be -79.

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Now,

Calculations:

108 – 25 × 4 = √?

⇒ ? = 8²

⇒ ? = 64

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket, 

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next, 

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated, 

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated 

69 + 123 × 2 - 4 = ? + 11

⇒ 69 + 246 - 4 = ? + 11

⇒ 315 - 4 = ? + 11

⇒ 311 - 11 = ? 

∴ 300 = ?

The correct answer is Music enriches a person for life.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• An inference can always be logically deduced from the information given in the passage.
• It is never directly stated in the passage.
• The author has explained how the learnings from music last for a lifetime.
• Hence, the third option can be inferred from the second paragraph of the passage.

Let us look at some of the points from the passage: 

• 'Students of music are better suited to face the world once they leave school'
• 'that music students tend to score better on tests, have better communication skills, and are better-disciplined students'
• ' be more prepared for the workforce and are more readily hired by businesses'

From these points, we can conclude that the correct answer out of the given options is Music enriches a person for life.

The correct answer is country blues and pop country.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The given question is a direct question.
• Its answer can be found by reading the passage carefully.
• The first sentence of the first paragraph answers the question directly.

Let's look at the given sentence: 

• "Music can be divided into genres (e.g., country music) and genres can be further divided into subgenres (e.g., country blues and pop country are two of the many country subgenres)"

Hence, the fourth option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is country blues and pop country.

The correct answer is Within the arts, music may be classified as performing art, fine art, or auditory art.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The given question is a direct question.
• Its answer can be found by reading the passage carefully.
• The third sentence of the first paragraph answers the question directly.

Let's look at the sentence given in the paragraph.

• Within the arts, music may be classified as performing art, fine art, or auditory art

Hence, the fourth option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Within the arts, music may be classified as performing art, fine art, or auditory art.

The correct answer is All are true.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The given question is a direct question.
• Its answer can be found by reading the passage carefully.
• The last sentence of the first paragraph answers the question directly.

Let's look at the sentence from the passage: 

• Music may be played or sung and heard live at a rock concert or orchestra performance, heard live as part of a dramatic work (a music theater show or opera), or it may be recorded and listened to on a radio, MP3 player, CD player, smartphone or as film score or TV show.

Hence, the fourth option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is All are true.

The correct answer is Students of music are better suited to face the world once they leave school.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The given question is a direct question.
• Its answer can be found by reading the passage carefully.
• The second sentence of the second paragraph answers the question directly.
• The sentence is "Students of music are better suited to face the world once they leave school"

Hence, the first option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Students of music are better suited to face the world once they leave school.

The correct answer is Music students are better-disciplined students, have better communication skills, and ​tend to score better on tests.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The given question is a direct question.
• Its answer can be found by reading the passage carefully.
• The fourth sentence of the second paragraph answers the question directly.
• Hence, the fourth option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Music students are better-disciplined students, have better communication skills, and ​tend to score better on tests.

The correct answer is Music students tend to be more prepared for the workforce.

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The given question is a direct question.
• Its answer can be found by reading the passage carefully.
• The fifth sentence of the second paragraph answers the question directly.
• The sentence is “They tend to be more prepared for the workforce and are more readily hired by businesses*"*
• Hence, the first option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Music students tend to be more prepared for the workforce.

The correct answer is fine

Key Points

Let us note the following:

• The word subtle means so delicate or precise as to be difficult to analyze or describe.
• The word fine means very thin; narrow or delicate.

Therefore the correct answer is fine.

Additional Information

Let us understand the meanings of the given options:

• bare: without addition; basic.
• rupture: breach or burst.
• disarm: allay the hostility or suspicions of.
• contour: an outline representing the shape.

The correct answer is 'E' i.e. No error.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, no improvement is required in any of the parts or there is no error in the sentence.
• The given sentence is the third conditional sentence explaining that the present circumstances would be different if something different had happened in the past.
• The third conditional sentence format: if + past perfect, ... modal auxiliary (would, could, should, etc.)​ + have + past participle.
• When using the third conditional, we use the past perfect, i.e., had + past participle (here, left) in the if-clause and the modal auxiliary (would, could, should, etc.) + have + past participle (here, missed) in the main clause.
• We use the ''past perfect tense'' to talk about the impossible past condition and ''would have + past participle'' to talk about the impossible past result.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: If I had left earlier, I wouldn't have missed my flight.

Additional Information

• The third conditional is also like a dream, but with no possibility of the dream coming true.
• The third conditional is used when both the condition and result are no longer possible.

The correct answer is 'D' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the fourth part of the given sentence, the use of the preposition 'besides' is incorrect.
• The preposition 'besides' means ''in addition to'' or ''apart from'' somebody or something.
• Example: Besides being a dancer, she is a good singer.
• ​The given sentence is talking about the feeling of a son when his dad sleeps next to him.
• Therefore, the preposition 'beside' should be used in place of the preposition 'besides'.
• The preposition 'beside' means ''close to'' or ''next to'' somebody or something.
• Example: He sat down beside me.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Sentence: I feel secure when my dad sleeps beside me.

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the first part of the given sentence, the use of the adverb 'too' is incorrect.
• The adverb 'too' means to a higher degree than is desirable, permissible, or possible; excessively.
• Example: Too much experience is a dangerous thing.
• The given sentence is first talking about expressing a reaction to seeing someone coming out of the house.
• Therefore, the preposition 'to' should be used in place of the adverb 'too'.
• The preposition 'to' is used for expressing a reaction or attitude to something.
• Example: To my surprise, he refused to cooperate with us.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: To my surprise, I saw two strangers coming out of my house.

The correct answer is 'C' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the third part of the given sentence, the use of the possessive pronoun 'her' is incorrect.
• The possessive pronoun 'her' means belonging to or associated with a female person or animal previously mentioned or easily identified.
• ​Example: The girl threaded the needle for her mother.
• The given sentence is talking about women in general or more than one woman, not a single or particular woman.
• Therefore, the possessive pronoun 'their' should be used in place of the possessive pronoun 'her'.
• The possessive pronoun 'their' means belonging to or associated with the people or things previously mentioned or easily identified.
• Example: You should stay out of their business.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: Many women earn less than their male colleagues

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the noun 'author' is not a specified noun.
• The noun 'author' is not a particular author i.e. any author.
• 'A' and 'an' are indefinite articles, which means that they refer to, or introduce, an unspecified noun.
• We use 'a' before a consonant sound and we use 'an' before a vowel sound (here, author).
• The definite article 'the' is used before singular and plural nouns when the noun is specific or particular.
• ''No article'' is used when we refer to general ideas, plurals, or uncountable nouns.
• Therefore, the indefinite article 'an' should be used in place of the indefinite article 'a'.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: Choose an author as you choose a friend.

Additional Information

There are three articles: a, an, and the. Articles are used before nouns or noun equivalents and are a type of adjective.

The correct answer is shrink.

Key Points

• shrink -  be averse to or unwilling to do (something difficult or unappealing).

The sentence should be read as :​ Louis was a man of strong frame, who loved the chase, and did not shrink from the hardships of war.

Additional Information

Let us look at the meaning of the other words:

• disgust - a feeling of revulsion or strong disapproval aroused by something unpleasant or offensive.
• contract - decrease in size, number, or range.
• expand -  become or make larger or more extensive.

Important Points

• The sentence talks about how the subject is not afraid of war or its related hardships.
• This makes shrink the correct word for the given blank.

The correct answer is measure.

Key Points

• Measure -  ascertain the size, amount, or degree of (something) by using an instrument or device marked in standard units.

The sentence should be read as:​ The great image of Lochana Buddha at Nara, for example, would measure 138 ft.

• The given blank is followed by a certain numeric measurement and hence, measure is the correct word for the given blank.

Additional Information

Let us look at the meaning of the other words:

• Millimeter - one-thousandth of a meter (0.039 in.).
• Width - The measurement or extent of something from side to side.
• Height - the measurement of someone or something from head to foot or from base to top.

Hinglish

• Measure - मानक इकाइयों में चिह्नित एक उपकरण या उपकरण का उपयोग करके (कुछ) के आकार, राशि या डिग्री का पता लगाना।

वाक्य को इस प्रकार पढ़ा जाना चाहिए: The great image of Lochana Buddha at Nara, for example, would measure 138 ft.

• दिए गए रिक्त स्थान के बाद एक निश्चित संख्यात्मक माप है और इसलिए, दिए गए रिक्त स्थान के लिए measure सही शब्द है।

Additional Information

आइए दूसरे शब्दों के अर्थ को देखें:

• Millimeter (मिलीमीटर) - मीटर का एक हजारवां (0.039 इंच)।
• Width (चौड़ाई) - अगल-बगल से किसी चीज की माप या सीमा।
• Height (ऊँचाई) - सिर से पैर तक या आधार से ऊपर तक किसी का या किसी चीज़ का माप।

The correct answer is intervene.

Key Points

• intervene -  take part in something so as to prevent or alter a result or course of events.

The sentence should be read as :​ The UN refused to intervene in the civil war, apart from some troop convoys for humanitarian aid.

Additional Information

Let us look at the meaning of the other words:

• egalitarian - believing in or based on the principle that all people are equal and deserve equal rights and opportunities.
• diverse - showing a great deal of variety; very different.
• dissolve - close down or dismiss (an assembly or official body).
• frosted -  covered with or as if with frost.

Important Points

• The sentence talks about how the UN refused to take some sort of action with regards to a civil war.
• Both intervene or dissolve  can be applied to the sentence.
• But dissolve is incorrect  'civil war' is not an official body and hence it cannot be shut down.
• This makes intervene the correct word for the given blank.

The correct answer is 'D'. 

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'Imperious'.
• Let's explore the meaning and context of it.
• Imperious: expecting people to obey you and treating them as if they are not as important as you
  

Ex: The CEO was as imperious as ever.

• Thus the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• ​ Let's explore the meaning of other options as well.
• Masterful: inclined and usually competent to act as master
• Bent: not straight
• Own: used to emphasize that something belongs to a particular person

The misspelled word is 'defennded'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'defended'.
• Defend means to protect somebody/something from harm or danger (संकट से किसी की) रक्षा करना
• Example- She defended herself successfully in court, and was found innocent of the charges against her.
• Let us look at the meanings of the words given in the options:
• Country: an area of land with its own people, government, etc. (किसी भूक्षेत्र में रहनेवाले लोग, उनकी सरकार आदि, देश)
• Against: (preposition) being an opponent to somebody/something in a game, competition, etc., or an enemy of somebody/something in a war or fight. (के विरुद्घ (खेल आदि में) या (युद्ध में) शत्रु)
• Invaders:  someone who enters by force in order to conquer. (कोई है जो जीतने के लिए बलपूर्वक प्रवेश करता है।)
  
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The misspelled word is 'intented'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'intended'.
• Intend means to plan or mean to do something (कुछ करने की योजना बनाना या इरादा करना)
• Example- I did not intend to be rude.
• Let us look at the meanings of the other words given in the options:
• Encourage-  to give hope, support or confidence to somebody (किसी को) प्रोत्‍साहित करना; (किसी की) हिम्‍मत बढ़ाना
• More- a larger number or amount of people or things; something extra as well as what you have (व्‍यकि्तयों या वस्‍तुओं की अधिक बड़ी संख्‍या या मात्रा; जो है वह भी (और) साथ ही और भी, से अधिक)
• Distraction- something that takes your attention away from what you were doing or thinking about (काम से ध्यान बँटाने वाली वस्‍तु, एकाग्रता भंग करनेवाली वस्तु)
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The misspelled word is 'previaled'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'prevailed'.
• Prevail means to exist or be common in a particular place or at a particular time. (स्‍थान-विशेष या समय-विशेष में (किसी बात का) विद्यमान या प्रचलन में होना)
• Example- Those beliefs still prevail among certain social groups.
• Let us look at the other words given in the options:
• Admired: to respect or like somebody/something very much; to look at somebody/something with pleasure (किसी के प्रति आदर व प्रशंसा का भाव रखना; किसी को प्रिय दृष्टि से देखना)
• Creativity: the ability to make or produce new things using skill or imagination (सृजन-क्षमता)
• Writer: a person who writes, especially one whose job is to write books, stories, etc. (पुस्‍तक आदि का) लेखक
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence of the sentences after rearrangement is ECDBA.
• The sentence 'E' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "trees". Hence, 'E' is the first part.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is telling how trees help us or their importance in the life of human beings.
• Sentence D will come after C as it is giving information about the nature of trees.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is telling how the trees are important in the life of wild lives or their dependency on trees for all their needs.
• The sentence 'A' is the concluding part because it is telling trees are important and beautiful gifts of nature.
• From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'E' is the first sentence after rearrangement.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: The earth which we call mother has given us many gifts, one of them is trees. Trees release oxygen which needs for our life. They only know to give not to take. Many of the wild lives live in forests and they get their all need from trees. So trees are a beautiful and useful gift of nature.

Hint

• Important Rules to Solve the Para Jumbles:
• Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
• Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
• Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

The correct answer is 'C.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is ECDBA.
• The sentence 'E' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "trees". Hence, 'E' is the first part.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is telling how trees help us or their importance in the life of human beings.
• Sentence D will come after C as it is giving information about the nature of trees.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is telling how the trees are important in the life of wild lives or their dependency on trees for all their needs.
• The sentence 'A' is the concluding part because it is telling trees are important and beautiful gifts of nature.
• From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'C' is the second sentence after rearrangement.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is ECBDA.
• The sentence 'E' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "trees". Hence, 'E' is the first part.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is telling how trees help us or their importance in the life of human beings.
• Sentence B will come after C as it is telling how the trees are important in the life of wild lives or their dependency on trees for all their needs.
• Sentence D will come after B as it is giving information about the nature of trees.
• The sentence 'A' is the concluding part because it is telling trees are important and beautiful gifts of nature.
• From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'B' is the third sentence after rearrangement.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is ECDBA.
• The sentence 'E' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "trees". Hence, 'E' is the first part.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is telling how trees help us or their importance in the life of human beings.
• Sentence D will come after C as it is giving information about the nature of trees.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is telling how the trees are important in the life of wild lives or their dependency on trees for all their needs.
• The sentence 'A' is the concluding part because it is telling trees are important and beautiful gifts of nature.
• From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'B' is the fourth sentence after rearrangement.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

• The correct sequence of the segments after rearrangement is ECDBA.
• The sentence 'E' is independent of any other sentence as it is giving general information about "trees". Hence, 'E' is the first part.
• Sentence C will come after E as it is telling how trees help us or their importance in the life of human beings.
• Sentence D will come after C as it is giving information about the nature of trees.
• Sentence B will come after D as it is telling how the trees are important in the life of wild lives or their dependency on trees for all their needs.
• The sentence 'A' is the concluding part because it is telling trees are important and beautiful gifts of nature.
• From the above sequence, we can say that sentence 'A' is the fifth sentence after rearrangement.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.