ESIC UDC Mains Memory Based Paper (30th April 2022) (Previous Year Paper)

1. D is sitting tenth from the left end and immediate neighbour of N.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: When D is right of N and Case 2: When D is left of N.)      

2. K is sitting at the extreme right end.

3. P is fifth from the left of the D. (Here, we can eliminate case 1 as if statement 3 follows then statement 4 is not satisfied)

4. Three persons are between the P and N.

5. P is sitting between the A and S.

6. S is sitting fourth from the left end.

7. C is sitting tenth from the right end and immediate neighbour of D.

8. H sits immediate left of the S.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, four persons are sitting between S and N.

1. D is sitting tenth from the left end and immediate neighbour of N.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: When D is right of N and Case 2: When D is left of N.)      

2. K is sitting at the extreme right end.

3. P is fifth from the left of the D. (Here, we can eliminate case 1 as if statement 3 follows then statement 4 is not satisfied)

4. Three persons are between the P and N.

5. P is sitting between the A and S.

6. S is sitting fourth from the left end.

7. C is sitting tenth from the right end and immediate neighbour of D.

8. H sits immediate left of the S.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, 20 persons are sitting in a row.

1. D is sitting tenth from the left end and immediate neighbour of N.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: When D is right of N and Case 2: When D is left of N.)      

2. K is sitting at the extreme right end.

3. P is fifth from the left of the D. (Here, we can eliminate case 1 as if statement 3 follows then statement 4 is not satisfied)

4. Three persons are between the P and N.

5. P is sitting between the A and S.

6. S is sitting fourth from the left end.

7. C is sitting tenth from the right end and immediate neighbour of D.

8. H sits immediate left of the S.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, no one is sitting at the left end of the row.

1. D is sitting tenth from the left end and immediate neighbour of N.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: When D is right of N and Case 2: When D is left of N.)      

2. K is sitting at the extreme right end.

3. P is fifth from the left of the D. (Here, we can eliminate case 1 as if statement 3 follows then statement 4 is not satisfied)

4. Three persons are between the P and N.

5. P is sitting between the A and S.

6. S is sitting fourth from the left end.

7. C is sitting tenth from the right end and immediate neighbour of D.

8. H sits immediate left of the S.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, D is sitting in the middle of the person N and C.

1. D is sitting tenth from the left end and immediate neighbour of N.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: When D is right of N and Case 2: When D is left of N.)      

2. K is sitting at the extreme right end.

3. P is fifth from the left of the D. (Here, we can eliminate case 1 as if statement 3 follows then statement 4 is not satisfied)

4. Three persons are between the P and N.

5. P is sitting between the A and S.

6. S is sitting fourth from the left end.

7. C is sitting tenth from the right end and immediate neighbour of D.

8. H sits immediate left of the S.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, none of the above is correct.

Clearly, there is more than one meaningful word.

Hence, Y is the correct answer.

According to the English alphabet series and its positional value:

The logic follows here is:

only four pairs forming they are AC, CE, AE,TU.

Hence, There are four pairs of letters.

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Month: January, February, April, June, August, September, October and December

1. G goes on a month which has 31 days. G does not go on a vacation in January. 2. Only one person goes between A and G. 3. Three persons goes between A and F.

4. Five persons goes between H and C who does not go on a month which has 30 days 5. H does not go on a vacation which has 31 days

6. B goes next month after A 7. One person goes between B and E.

8. D goes before F.

Hence, The answer is Four.

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Month: January, February, April, June, August, September, October and December

1. G goes on a month which has 31 days. G does not go on a vacation in January. 2. Only one person goes between A and G. 3. Three persons goes between A and F.

4. Five persons goes between H and C who does not go on a month which has 30 days 5. H does not go on a vacation which has 31 days

6. B goes next month after A 7. One person goes between B and E.

8. D goes before F.

Hence, The person who goes vacation in September is E.

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Month: January, February, April, June, August, September, October and December

1. G goes on a month which has 31 days. G does not go on a vacation in January. 2. Only one person goes between A and G. 3. Three persons goes between A and F.

4. Five persons goes between H and C who does not go on a month which has 30 days 5. H does not go on a vacation which has 31 days

6. B goes next month after A 7. One person goes between B and E.

8. D goes before F.

The number of people going before B is three, The number of people going after G is also three.

Hence, the answer is G.

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Month: January, February, April, June, August, September, October and December

1. G goes on a month which has 31 days. G does not go on a vacation in January. 2. Only one person goes between A and G. 3. Three persons goes between A and F.

4. Five persons goes between H and C who does not go on a month which has 30 days 5. H does not go on a vacation which has 31 days

6. B goes next month after A 7. One person goes between B and E.

8. D goes before F.

All the persons except A is going on vacantion on the month which have 31 numbers of days.

Only A is going in a month which have 30 days.

Hence the correct answer is A.

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Month: January, February, April, June, August, September, October and December

1. G goes on a month which has 31 days. G does not go on a vacation in January. 2. Only one person goes between A and G. 3. Three persons goes between A and F.

4. Five persons goes between H and C who does not go on a month which has 30 days 5. H does not go on a vacation which has 31 days

6. B goes next month after A 7. One person goes between B and E.

8. D goes before F.

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Hence, The person who goes immediately before A after exchanging is E.

Statement:

Z = X > C < V ≤ B = N = M ≤ D ≤ Y = I > K < F > G

Conclusions:

I. Z < D → False (Z = X > C < V ≤ B = N = M ≤ D → No definite relation between the two can be determined)

II. I ≥ V → True (V ≤ B = N = M ≤ D ≤ Y = I → V ≤ I → I ≥ V)

Hence, Only conclusion II follows

Statement:

Q > W < E = R > T ≤ Y ≤ U ≥ I < O = P < Z < D > J

Conclusions:

I. Q > T → False (Q > W < E = R > T → There is no definite relation between the two elements)

II. R > O → False (R > T ≤ Y ≤ U ≥ I < O →There is no definite relation between the two elements)

Hence, Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Given statements: T ≥ U > W < S = V ≤ X; X < P = Q ≥ R > Y 

On combining: T ≥ U > W < S = V ≤ X < P = Q ≥ R > Y

I. T > Q → False (T ≥ U > W < S = V ≤ X < P = Q → relation between them cannot be determined)

II. Y < S → False (Y < R ≤ Q = P > X ≥ V = S → relation between them cannot be determined)

Hence, correct answer is neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Given Statements:  T ≤ R = F < P = D; Q < M ≤ S > C ≥ T 

On combining above two statements: Q < M ≤ S > C ≥ T ≤ R = F < P = D

Conclusions:

I. M > R False ( as M ≤ S > C ≥ T ≤ R, hence no clear direct relation can be established between M and R )

II. M ≤ R False ( as M ≤ S > C ≥ T ≤ R hence no clear direct relation can be established between M and R )

Here conclusion I and II forms complementary pair.

Hence either conclusion I or II follows.

Important Points 

For complimentary pair to form three conditions must be present.

i) Both conclusions must be individually false.

II) Elements in both conclusions must be the same.

III) All the three symbol <, >, = must be present after combining the two conclusions.

Given statements: A = C > D ≤ E ≤ H, C > I ≥ J > K = F, E ≥ D = P ≥ Q = G

Conclusions:

I A > F → True (Because A = C so A > 𝐼 ≥ 𝐽 > 𝐾 =𝐹  → A > F )

II G ≤ H → True (Because E ≤ H and E ≥ D so by combining H ≥ E ≥ D = P ≥ Q = G  → G ≤ H)

Hence, Both conclusion I and II follows.

1. Two people are sitting between E and F.

2. Neither E nor F is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

3. O is sitting second to the right of N who is facing E.

(It is only possible if E is sitting at the second seat from the right end in his row and F is sitting third to his left.)

4. A is an immediate neighbour of the person who is facing O.

(Implies, A is sitting to the immediate left of E as we can’t place A to the other side of the person facing O because F is there.)

5. Two people are sitting between M and P.

6. P is facing neither A nor B.

(Implies, M is sitting to the immediate left of O and P is sitting at the rightmost seat in his row.)

7. B is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

(As B is not sitting opposite P, implies, B must be sitting on the other extreme end.)

8. Q is not facing F.

(Q must be facing B as it is the only other option. Also, L is facing F as L is the only person left to be placed in the north-facing row.)

9. D is sitting second to the right of C.

(Implies, C is sitting to the immediate left of F and D is sitting to the immediate right of F.)

Clearly, A is facing M.

1. Two people are sitting between E and F.

2. Neither E nor F is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

3. O is sitting second to the right of N who is facing E.

(It is only possible if E is sitting at the second seat from the right end in his row and F is sitting third to his left.)

4. A is an immediate neighbour of the person who is facing O.

(Implies, A is sitting to the immediate left of E as we can’t place A to the other side of the person facing O because F is there.)

5. Two people are sitting between M and P.

6. P is facing neither A nor B.

(Implies, M is sitting to the immediate left of O and P is sitting at the rightmost seat in his row.)

7. B is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

(As B is not sitting opposite P, implies, B must be sitting on the other extreme end.)

8. Q is not facing F.

(Q must be facing B as it is the only other option. Also, L is facing F as L is the only person left to be placed in the north-facing row.)

9. D is sitting second to the right of C.

(Implies, C is sitting to the immediate left of F and D is sitting to the immediate right of F.)

Clearly, M is sitting second to the right of Q.

1. Two people are sitting between E and F.

2. Neither E nor F is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

3. O is sitting second to the right of N who is facing E.

(It is only possible if E is sitting at the second seat from the right end in his row and F is sitting third to his left.)

4. A is an immediate neighbour of the person who is facing O.

(Implies, A is sitting to the immediate left of E as we can’t place A to the other side of the person facing O because F is there.)

5. Two people are sitting between M and P.

6. P is facing neither A nor B.

(Implies, M is sitting to the immediate left of O and P is sitting at the rightmost seat in his row.)

7. B is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

(As B is not sitting opposite P, implies, B must be sitting on the other extreme end.)

8. Q is not facing F.

(Q must be facing B as it is the only other option. Also, L is facing F as L is the only person left to be placed in the north-facing row.)

9. D is sitting second to the right of C.

(Implies, C is sitting to the immediate left of F and D is sitting to the immediate right of F.)

Clearly, P is sitting opposite C.

1. Two people are sitting between E and F.

2. Neither E nor F is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

3. O is sitting second to the right of N who is facing E.

(It is only possible if E is sitting at the second seat from the right end in his row and F is sitting third to his left.)

4. A is an immediate neighbour of the person who is facing O.

(Implies, A is sitting to the immediate left of E as we can’t place A to the other side of the person facing O because F is there.)

5. Two people are sitting between M and P.

6. P is facing neither A nor B.

(Implies, M is sitting to the immediate left of O and P is sitting at the rightmost seat in his row.)

7. B is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

(As B is not sitting opposite P, implies, B must be sitting on the other extreme end.)

8. Q is not facing F.

(Q must be facing B as it is the only other option. Also, L is facing F as L is the only person left to be placed in the north-facing row.)

9. D is sitting second to the right of C.

(Implies, C is sitting to the immediate left of F and D is sitting to the immediate right of F.)

Except for N, all are sitting on extreme ends.

Hence, N does not belong to the group.

1. Two people are sitting between E and F.

2. Neither E nor F is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

3. O is sitting second to the right of N who is facing E.

(It is only possible if E is sitting at the second seat from the right end in his row and F is sitting third to his left.)

4. A is an immediate neighbour of the person who is facing O.

(Implies, A is sitting to the immediate left of E as we can’t place A to the other side of the person facing O because F is there.)

5. Two people are sitting between M and P.

6. P is facing neither A nor B.

(Implies, M is sitting to the immediate left of O and P is sitting at the rightmost seat in his row.)

7. B is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

(As B is not sitting opposite P, implies, B must be sitting on the other extreme end.)

8. Q is not facing F.

(Q must be facing B as it is the only other option. Also, L is facing F as L is the only person left to be placed in the north-facing row.)

9. D is sitting second to the right of C.

(Implies, C is sitting to the immediate left of F and D is sitting to the immediate right of F.)

Clearly, no one is sitting second to the left of F as he is sitting at the second seat from the left end in his row.

The logic followed here is:

So, LATE is coded as KYQA.

And,

So, TEAR is coded as SCXN.

Similarly,

So, RATTLE is coded as QYQPGY.

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing north.

(1) P is sitting at one extreme end.

Case (I)

Case (II)

(2) Q is sitting second to the right of S.

(3) R is sitting exactly between U and Q.

Case (I)

Case (II)

(4) T is not second to the right of P. Case I eliminates here. Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

Case (II)

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Hence, Q sits to the immediate right of T

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing north.

(1) P is sitting at one extreme end.

Case (I)

Case (II)

(2) Q is sitting second to the right of S.

(3) R is sitting exactly between U and Q.

Case (I)

Case (II)

(4) T is not second to the right of P. Case I eliminates here. Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

Case (II)

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Hence, SP is the correct answer.

1. Age of P is the square of the 3^rd prime number
2. The sum of the ages of S and P is 86.

That means, the third prime number is 5 and its square is 25.

Hence, age of S will be 86 - 25 = 61

3. S is older than P

 

4. The sum of the ages of P and R is 81.

Hence, Age of R = 81 - 25 = 56

 

5. Q is older than S and U is younger than T who is not older than R.

Hence, Q is the eldest person in the group.

6.Age of U is less than P whose age is less than T.

 

Hence, Age of U can be 13 years as per the given combination.

1. Age of P is the square of the 3rd prime number
2. The sum of the ages of S and P is 86.

That means, the third prime number is 5 and its square is 25.

Hence, age of S will be 86 - 25 = 61

3. S is older than P

 

4. The sum of the ages of P and R is 81.

Hence, Age of R = 81 - 25 = 56

 

5. Q is older than S and U is younger than T who is not older than R.

Hence, Q is the eldest person in the group.

6.Age of U is less than P whose age is less than T.

 

Hence, only two people born after T.

1. Age of P is the square of the 3rd prime number
2. The sum of the ages of S and P is 86.

That means, the third prime number is 5 and its square is 25.

Hence, age of S will be 86 - 25 = 61

3. S is older than P

 

4. The sum of the ages of P and R is 81.

Hence, Age of R = 81 - 25 = 56

 

5. Q is older than S and U is younger than T who is not older than R.

Hence, Q is the eldest person in the group.

6.Age of U is less than P whose age is less than T.

 

Hence, the incorrect statement is ‘Q’s age is 55 years’ as Age of S is 61 years and S is younger than Q.

1. Age of P is the square of the 3rd prime number
2. The sum of the ages of S and P is 86.

That means, the third prime number is 5 and its square is 25.

Hence, age of S will be 86 - 25 = 61

3. S is older than P

 

4. The sum of the ages of P and R is 81.

Hence, Age of R = 81 - 25 = 56

 

5. Q is older than S and U is younger than T who is not older than R.

Hence, Q is the eldest person in the group.

6.Age of U is less than P whose age is less than T.

 

As age of R is 56 years and sum of U and R is 75 years so age of U is 75 - 56 = 19 years.

1. Age of P is the square of the 3rd prime number
2. The sum of the ages of S and P is 86.

That means, the third prime number is 5 and its square is 25.

Hence, age of S will be 86 - 25 = 61

3. S is older than P

 

4. The sum of the ages of P and R is 81.

Hence, Age of R = 81 - 25 = 56

 

5. Q is older than S and U is younger than T who is not older than R.

Hence, Q is the eldest person in the group.

6.Age of U is less than P whose age is less than T.

 

Hence, R is the third eldest person and his age is 56 years.

1. Equal number of persons are elder and younger than Swati.

2. Shweta was born in an even numbered year after 1987 but before 2006

Case 1

 

Case 2

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3. Only one person is elder to Vaibhav.

4. Age of Soniya is an even number

5. Only one person was born between Swati and Raman

Case 1

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Case 2

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6. Sakshi was neither born in the year 1992 nor is the eldest among all → Case 2 gets canceled.

So, the final arrangement will be

Case 1

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Hence, Shweta is 29 years old.

1. Equal number of persons are elder and younger than Swati.

2. Shweta was born in an even numbered year after 1987 but before 2006

Case 1

 

Case 2

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3. Only one person is elder to Vaibhav.

4. Age of Soniya is an even number

5. Only one person was born between Swati and Raman

Case 1

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Case 2

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6. Sakshi was neither born in the year 1992 nor is the eldest among all → Case 2 gets canceled.

So, the final arrangement will be

Case 1

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Hence, Nikhil is the eldest among all.

1. Equal number of persons are elder and younger than Swati.

2. Shweta was born in an even numbered year after 1987 but before 2006

Case 1

 

Case 2

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3. Only one person is elder to Vaibhav.

4. Age of Soniya is an even number

5. Only one person was born between Swati and Raman

Case 1

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Case 2

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6. Sakshi was neither born in the year 1992 nor is the eldest among all → Case 2 gets canceled.

So, the final arrangement will be

Case 1

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Hence, Raman was born after Sakshi but before Soniya.

1. Equal number of persons are elder and younger than Swati.

2. Shweta was born in an even numbered year after 1987 but before 2006

Case 1

 

Case 2

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3. Only one person is elder to Vaibhav.

4. Age of Soniya is an even number

5. Only one person was born between Swati and Raman

Case 1

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Case 2

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6. Sakshi was neither born in the year 1992 nor is the eldest among all → Case 2 gets canceled.

So, the final arrangement will be

Case 1

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Hence, Sakshi was born in the year 2000.

1. Equal number of persons are elder and younger than Swati.

2. Shweta was born in an even numbered year after 1987 but before 2006

Case 1

 

Case 2

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3. Only one person is elder to Vaibhav.

4. Age of Soniya is an even number

5. Only one person was born between Swati and Raman

Case 1

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Case 2

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6. Sakshi was neither born in the year 1992 nor is the eldest among all → Case 2 gets canceled.

So, the final arrangement will be

Case 1

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Hence, Shweta was born is the year 1995 is false. Correct statement is: Shweta was born in the year 1992.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some chairs are cupboard → False (It is possible but not definite)

II. All table can be cupboard is a possibility → True (Possibility is true as shown below)

III. No chair is a cupboard → False (It is possible but not definite)

Conclusion I and III forms complementary pairs.

Thus, Only conclusion II and Either I or III follow.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some tasty not being sweet is a possibility → True (Possibility is true as shown below)

II. Some salt are not sweet → False (It is possible but not definite)

III. All tasty can never be salt → False (It is possible but not definite)

Thus, only conclusions I follows.

The least Possible Venn diagram is shown below:

Conclusions:

I. Some Tax can never be Rate → False (as only a few pay is tax is given)

II. No Rent is Rate→ False (The possibility is true hence definite is false)

III. Some Pays cannot be Rent→ False.

IV. Some Tax can be Rate → True.

Hence, the correct answer is only IV follows.

The least Possible Venn diagram is shown below:

Conclusions:

I. Some Line are not Pink → False.

II. Some Pink can never be Table → False. (It is possible)

III. Some college are not Line → False. (No direct relationship is given)

Hence, the correct answer none follows.

The least Possible Venn diagram is shown below:

Conclusions:

I. All Curd being Beans is a possibility → False (Only a few curd is bean means some curd is bean and some curd is not bean so, so all curd can’t be beans.)

II. Some Curd are not Office → True. (only a few curd is bean and no bean is office so, the part of curd that is bean are not office

III. Some Curd are not Beans → True. (Only a few curd is bean means some curd is bean and some curd is not bean)

Hence, the correct answer is II and III follows.

Companies of mobiles - Iphone, Oppo, Samsung, Xperia, One plus and Nokia.

Number of mobiles – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

1. Box of Nokia is three boxes above the box containing 3 mobiles.

2. The bottommost box contains 6 mobiles.

3. There is one box between the box of Nokia and box of Iphone.

 

4. There are 4 Samsung mobiles and the box of Samsung is just above the box containing 2 mobiles.

5. There are odd number of Nokia phones.

 

6. The box of Xperia is just above box of Oppo.

7. The box of One plus contains one less mobile than that of box of Iphones. So, there is only (1) One plus mobile. And, case 2 would be rejected.

 

There is one box above the box of Nokia.

Hence, one is the correct answer.

Companies of mobiles - Iphone, Oppo, Samsung, Xperia, One plus and Nokia.

Number of mobiles – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

1. Box of Nokia is three boxes above the box containing 3 mobiles.

2. The bottommost box contains 6 mobiles.

3. There is one box between the box of Nokia and box of Iphone.

 

4. There are 4 Samsung mobiles and the box of Samsung is just above the box containing 2 mobiles.

5. There are odd number of Nokia phones.

 

6. The box of Xperia is just above box of Oppo.

7. The box of One plus contains one less mobile than that of box of Iphones. So, there is only (1) One plus mobile. And, case 2 would be rejected.

 

There are 6 Oppo phones.

Hence, 6 is the correct answer.

Companies of mobiles - Iphone, Oppo, Samsung, Xperia, One plus and Nokia.

Number of mobiles – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

1. Box of Nokia is three boxes above the box containing 3 mobiles.

2. The bottommost box contains 6 mobiles.

3. There is one box between the box of Nokia and box of Iphone.

 

4. There are 4 Samsung mobiles and the box of Samsung is just above the box containing 2 mobiles.

5. There are odd number of Nokia phones.

 

6. The box of Xperia is just above box of Oppo.

7. The box of One plus contains one less mobile than that of box of Iphones. So, there is only (1) One plus mobile. And, case 2 would be rejected.

 

There are 3 Xperia mobiles.

Hence, option 3 is correct answer.

Companies of mobiles - Iphone, Oppo, Samsung, Xperia, One plus and Nokia.

Number of mobiles – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

1. Box of Nokia is three boxes above the box containing 3 mobiles.

2. The bottommost box contains 6 mobiles.

3. There is one box between the box of Nokia and box of Iphone.

 

4. There are 4 Samsung mobiles and the box of Samsung is just above the box containing 2 mobiles.

5. There are odd number of Nokia phones.

 

6. The box of Xperia is just above box of Oppo.

7. The box of One plus contains one less mobile than that of box of Iphones. So, there is only (1) One plus mobile. And, case 2 would be rejected.

 

There is 1 mobile in the topmost box.

Hence, 1 is the correct answer.

Companies of mobiles - Iphone, Oppo, Samsung, Xperia, One plus and Nokia.

Number of mobiles – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

1. Box of Nokia is three boxes above the box containing 3 mobiles.

2. The bottommost box contains 6 mobiles.

3. There is one box between the box of Nokia and box of Iphone.

 

4. There are 4 Samsung mobiles and the box of Samsung is just above the box containing 2 mobiles.

5. There are odd number of Nokia phones.

 

6. The box of Xperia is just above box of Oppo.

7. The box of One plus contains one less mobile than that of box of Iphones. So, there is only (1) One plus mobile. And, case 2 would be rejected.

 

There are two boxes between the box of Samsung and box of Oppo.

Hence, two is the correct answer.

Given: Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Their designation – GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, Assistance Manager, Probationary Officer, Cashier and Clerk.

1. Only two persons are senior to D. Only three designations are there between A and F. G is senior to C. A is senior to the Assistant Manager of the company.

 

2. Number of persons who are senior to E is same as number of persons who are junior to H. E is senior to D. As more than four designations are there between H and B. So case-2 and case - 3 are eliminated.

As G is senior to C.

The final arrangement is:

Hence, A  is manager.

Given: Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Their designation – GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, Assistance Manager, Probationary Officer, Cashier and Clerk.

1. Only two persons are senior to D. Only three designations are there between A and F. G is senior to C. A is senior to the Assistant Manager of the company.

 

2. Number of persons who are senior to E is same as number of persons who are junior to H. E is senior to D. As more than four designations are there between H and B. So case-2 and case - 3 are eliminated.

As G is senior to C.

The final arrangement is:

Hence, C is just senior to H.

Given: Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Their designation – GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, Assistance Manager, Probationary Officer, Cashier and Clerk.

1. Only two persons are senior to D. Only three designations are there between A and F. G is senior to C. A is senior to the Assistant Manager of the company.

 

2. Number of persons who are senior to E is same as number of persons who are junior to H. E is senior to D. As more than four designations are there between H and B. So case-2 and case - 3 are eliminated.

As G is senior to C.

The final arrangement is:

Hence, D – AGM is the correct answer.

Given: Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Their designation – GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, Assistance Manager, Probationary Officer, Cashier and Clerk.

1. Only two persons are senior to D. Only three designations are there between A and F. G is senior to C. A is senior to the Assistant Manager of the company.

 

2. Number of persons who are senior to E is same as number of persons who are junior to H. E is senior to D. As more than four designations are there between H and B. So case-2 and case - 3 are eliminated.

As G is senior to C.

The final arrangement is:

Hence, 4 persons are senior to G.

Given: Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Their designation – GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, Assistance Manager, Probationary Officer, Cashier and Clerk.

1. Only two persons are senior to D. Only three designations are there between A and F. G is senior to C. A is senior to the Assistant Manager of the company.

 

2. Number of persons who are senior to E is same as number of persons who are junior to H. E is senior to D. As more than four designations are there between H and B. So case-2 and case - 3 are eliminated.

As G is senior to C.

The final arrangement is:

Hence, H is cashier.

The correct answer is Volodymyr Zelensky.

Key Points

• Volodymyr Zelensky was a Ukrainian actor and comedian who was elected the sixth president of Ukraine in 2019.
• He won a landslide victory over incumbent Petro Poroshenko in the second round of the 2019 presidential election.
• Zelenskyy won the election with 73.2% of the vote in the second round.
• Prior to his acting career, Zelenskyy obtained a degree in law from Kyiv National Economic University.
• Nonetheless, Zelenskyy pursued comedy and created a production company, Kvartal 95, which produces films, cartoons, and TV comedy shows, including Servant of the People, in which Zelenskyy played the role of President of Ukraine.
• A political party bearing the same name as the television show was created in March 2018 by employees of Kvartal 95.
• Zelensky announced his candidacy for the 2019 Ukrainian presidential election.

Additional Information

• Ukraine: 
• Capital: Kyiv Trending
• Currency: Ukrainian hryvnia
• President: Volodymyr Zelensky

The correct answer is Groundwater: Making The Invisible Visible.

Key Points

• World Water Day is on 22 March every year.
• It aims at raising public awareness about the significance of fresh water and sustainable management of this significant resource.
• ‘Groundwater: Making The Invisible Visible’ is the theme for 2022.
• Officially the idea of World Water Day was a resolution adopted by the UN General Assembly conference on Environmental and Development in Rio De Janeiro in 1992.
• It was first observed in 1993.

Additional Information

• List of Important Days/Events in March:​

The Correct Answer is Monetary Policy Committee

Key Points

Monetary Policy: 

• It refers to the management of money supply for achieving macroeconomic objectives such as controlling inflation, consumption, growth, and liquidity.
• In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

​

Additional Information

• The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth
• In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended and provides a basis for the implementation of a flexible inflation targeting framework.
• Now the inflation target is set by GOI in consultation with RBI once every five years.
• Currently, the inflation rate target is 4 per cent, with a band of +/- 2 per cent (FEB- 21)
• It means if the inflation rate is below 2 then GOI and RBI will increase the inflation and if it is above 6 then they will try to reduce the inflation
• Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 also provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government

The correct answer is The International Monetary Fund.

Key Points

• The World Economic Outlook is published by the International Monetary Fund twice a year. (April and October)
• It analyses and predicts near and medium-term growth prospects.
• Countries are compared based on GDP growth rate, or absolute GDP.

Important Points

World Economic Outlook (October 2020)

• According to the October update of the World Economic Outlook 2020, India's GDP will witness a contraction of over 10%.
• Global growth would contract by 4.4% in 2020 and bounce back to 5.2% in 2021.
• India is likely to bounce back with an 8.8% growth rate in 2021, thus regaining the position of the fastest-growing emerging economy, surpassing China’s projected growth rate of 8.2%.
• China is the only country to show a positive growth rate of 1.9% in 2020.

The correct answer is 22 March.

Key Points

• Bihar Day is observed on 22 March.
• In the year 1912, the British gave a new identity to Bihar by separating it from the Bengal province.
• The year 2022 marks 110 years of the formation of the state.

 Important Points

• The event’s theme for 2022 is Jal, Jivan, Hariyali.
• It is a public holiday in the state.
• The capital of the state is Patna, while its CM is Nitish Kumar.

The correct answer is CODA.

• CODA movie won the award for Best Picture.

Key Points

• CODA movie won the award for Best Picture at the 94th Academy Awards.
• The movie is directed by Director Sian Heder.

Additional Information

• Drive My Car movie won the award for Best International Feature.
• The movie is from Japan.
• Oscar Award:
• It was instituted in 1929 and is conferred annually by the Academy of Motion Pictures in the United States.
• Mahboob Khan’s Mother India was the first Indian film to be nominated in the best foreign film category in 1958.
• The first Indian to share the Oscar was Bhanu Athaiya for the film ‘Gandhi’.
• Satyajeet Ray was the first Indian who was awarded Oscar for lifetime achievement in cinema in 1992.
• The 2022 Oscar awards were the 94th edition.
• It was held at Dolby Theatre at Ovation Hollywood.

The correct answer is 07 April.

Key Points

• WHO observes World Health Day every year on April 7, to spread awareness about the importance of general health and well-being around the world.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) convened the first World Health Assembly in 1948, which called for the establishment of this day.
• It was celebrated for the first time in 1950.
• The theme for 2022 is ‘Our planet, our health’.

Additional Information

• India celebrates National Maritime Day on April 5 every year.
• The day was first celebrated in the year 1964.
• The Army Medical Corps (AMC) celebrated its 258th raising day on 3 April 2022.
• The Corps has the motto of “Sarve Santu Niramaya” meaning “Let all be free from disease and disability”.
• April 4 is observed as the International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action.
• The day was declared by the UN General Assembly on 8 December 2005.

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Dadabhai Naoroji.

Dadabhai Naoroji founded the East India Association on 1 October 1866 in London.

• The organization aimed to promote public interests and welfare of Indians and give correct information about India to the British Public and voice Indian grievances in British press.
• It was the predecessor of the Indian National Congress.
• It produced its journal called 'Journal of the East India Association.'
• Naoroji delivered his first lecture to the Association in 1867.
• Women were accepted in the Association in 1912.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Important Points

• The union cabinet approved the amendment of the Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands Land Revenue and Tenancy Regulation, 1965 to confer occupancy rights to the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in the union territory.
• The Lakshadweep island mostly comprises of the ST population and they did not have occupancy rights.

Additional Information

Lakshadweep:

• Capital - Kavaratti

Option 4 is correct, i.e. ​President.

Under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution, the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under his hand and seal.

• The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary.
• The other judges are appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary.
• The consultation with the Chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief justice.
• A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
• He should be a citizen of India.
• He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or
• He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or
• He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.

The correct answer is Jens Stoltenberg.

Key Points

• NATO: North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
• This organization is an alliance of 31 independent member countries.
• It was established at the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty on 4 April 1949.

Additional Information 

• The fundamental goal of this organization is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security by political and military means.
• It enables members to consult and cooperate on defense and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
• Article 5 states that an attack against one Ally is an attack against all. This article was invoked when Bin Laden attacked the World Trade Centre in September 2001.
• Chairman of the NATO Military Committee: Admiral Rob Bauer.
• Secretary-General: Jens Stoltenberg.

The correct answer is Mohammed Siraj.

Key Points

• My11Circle, the fantasy cricket platform of Games24x7 has announced cricketer Mohammed Siraj as its new brand ambassador.
• Siraj plays for the Indian team and represents Royal Challengers Bangalore in the IPL.
• Siraj joins a group of other brand ambassadors of My11Circle including Saurav Ganguly, Ajinkya Rahane, batsman VVS Laxman and actor Ranveer Singh.

Important Points

• My11Circle has also launched its latest campaign called ‘Game ke Deewane’.

Additional Information

• International Cricket Council Men's Test Batting Rankings rankings:
• 1st: Joe Root, England
• 2nd: Kane Williamson, New Zealand
• 3rd: Steve Smith, Australia
• International Cricket Council Men's ODI Batting rankings:
• 1st: Babar Azam, Pakistan
• 2nd: Virat Kohli, India
• 3rd: Rohit Sharma, India
• International Cricket Council Men's T20I Batting rankings:
• 1st: Babar Azam, Pakistan
• 2nd: Dawid Malan, England
• 3rd: Aiden Markram, South Africa

The correct answer is Film of the Year.

Key Points

• Pushpa: The Rise won the Film of the year award at Dada Saheb Phalke International Film Festival 2022.
• It is a Telugu language action-drama film released in 2021.
• It was written and directed by Sukumar.
• It emerged as the highest-grossing Indian film in 2021.

Additional Information

Important Points

• Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival was founded in 2012 and established in 2016 to carry forward the legacy of Late Shri Dhundiraj Govind Phalke lovingly known as Dadasaheb Phalke – The Father of Indian Cinema.

The correct answer is Madhabi Puri Buch.

Key Points

• The government has announced Madhabi Puri Buch as new Chairperson of SEBI for a period of 3 years.
• Buch is a former whole-time member of SEBI.
• She will succeed Ajay Tyagi, whose five-year term comes to an end in February 2022.
• This is the first time that a woman and a person of private sector has been chosen for a key post with SEBI.

Additional Information

• SEBI is the regulator of the securities and commodity market in India owned by the Government of India.
• It was established on 12 April 1992.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai.

The correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

• The Blue Cross of India has launched a “first-of-its-kind” ambulance for street animals in Chennai in collaboration with the international animal welfare organization Four Paw.
• The Stray Animal Care programme will be a “hospital on wheels” with a veterinarian onboard to provide on-site treatment for sick and injured street animals.

Important Points

• The Chennai-based charity gets about 500 requests for animal care every day but can treat only around 60 animals because it has to pick up and transport them for treatment first.
• A lot of these animals could be treated on the streets as the injuries are minor, and since these street animals remain in the same area, repeat on-site treatment can be easily administered.
• Apart from the vet, the animal ambulance will also have a paraveterinary-worker-cum-driver.
• It will have a treatment table, an inverter, two fans, a fridge and drawers to keep bandages and sterile products.
• The ambulance will also have a washbasin, an anti-skid shock-absorbing mat, a retractable doctor’s seat, a stretcher trolley, a retractable tarpaulin, two movable cages for holding dogs, dog-catching equipment and overhead cupboards.
• The provision for administering IV (intravenous) fluids and oxygen will also be present on board.
• The initiative will be supported by the charity’s rescue-call service.
• Only animals that cannot be treated on the streets will be transported to hospitals.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• An online portal 'My EV' was launched by the Delhi government on 12 March 2022 to purchase and register electric autos in the city.
• The government will provide 5% interest subvention on the purchase of e-autos on loans under the Delhi Electric Vehicle Policy.
• The interest rate subvention provided will provide an additional incentive of ₹25,000 over the purchase incentive of ₹30,000.

Additional Information

• The Delhi Cabinet has approved setting up India’s first of its kind electronic-waste eco-park.
• It has also agreed to devise ‘Delhi Film Policy 2022’, as a thrust to promote tourism.
• Home Ministry has declared Delhi headquarters of Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd. (SPMCIL) as a ‘prohibited place’ under Section 2 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
• Union Home Minister Amit Shah has launched the ‘Smart Card Arms License’ and ‘Shastra App’ of the Delhi Police, on the occasion of the 75th anniversary of the Delhi Police.
• The Delhi government will launch a mega campaign for urban farming and hold a roundtable conference on April 25, 2022, to discuss about the future course of action.
• The horticulture department will be the nodal department for the campaign.