Previous Year Paper

LIC ADO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 11 August 2019) (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning Ability and Numerical Ability (50 questions)

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons M, N, O, P, Q, and R were playing a game where they have to arrange six blocks of different shapes namely Circular, Hexagon, Rectangle, Square, Triangle, and Octagon one above the other in the form of a stack. Each person put up a different shape which was positioned from 1-6 where 1 is the bottom-most position.

Only one person kept a block between M and the person who kept the rectangle block. M who placed hexagon was just below Q. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position. The circular block was kept by R just below M. The triangle was kept at an even position just above P, but not on the top. The difference in the position of the square block and the position at which N kept the block is 4.

1

Which block was kept by R?

  1. ((a))

    Rectangle

  2. ((b))

    Square

  3. ((c))

    Circular

  4. ((d))

    Hexagon

  5. ((e))

    Triangle

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Circular

Six persons = M, N, O, P, Q & R

  1. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position.
PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. Only one person kept a block between M and the person who kept the rectangle block.

  2. M who placed hexagon was just below Q.

Case 1:

PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2Q
1HexagonM

 

Case 2:

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The circular block was kept by R just below M.

(So,case 1 is invalid. Move ahead with case 2.)

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The triangle was kept at an even position just after P, but not on the top.
PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2Triangle
1P

 

  1. The difference in the position of the square block and the position at which N kept the block is 4.
PositionShapePerson
6SquareQ
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3RectangleO
2TriangleN
1OctagonP

 

Thus, R kept the circular block.

2

Which block was kept immediately below the triangular block?

  1. ((a))

    Rectangle

  2. ((b))

    Square

  3. ((c))

    Circle

  4. ((d))

    Hexagon

  5. ((e))

    Octagon

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Octagon

Six persons = M, N, O, P, Q & R

  1. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position.
PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. Only one person kept a block between M and the person who kept the rectangle block.

  2. M who placed hexagon was just below Q.

Case 1:

PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2Q
1HexagonM

 

Case 2:

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The circular block was kept by R just below M.

(So,case 1 is invalid. Move ahead with case 2.)

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The triangle was kept at an even position just after P, but not on the top.
PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2Triangle
1P

 

  1. The difference in the position of the square block and the position at which N kept the block is 4.
PositionShapePerson
6SquareQ
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3RectangleO
2TriangleN
1OctagonP

 

Thus, octagon was kept immediately below the triangular block.

3

Which pair is an incorrect match?

  1. ((a))

    N-2

  2. ((b))

    P-1

  3. ((c))

    Q-6

  4. ((d))

    M-5

  5. ((e))

    O-4

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

O-4

Six persons = M, N, O, P, Q & R

  1. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position.
PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. Only one person kept a block between M and the person who kept the rectangle block.

  2. M who placed hexagon was just below Q.

Case 1:

PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2Q
1HexagonM

 

Case 2:

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The circular block was kept by R just below M.

(So,case 1 is invalid. Move ahead with case 2.)

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The triangle was kept at an even position just after P, but not on the top.
PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2Triangle
1P

 

  1. The difference in the position of the square block and the position at which N kept the block is 4.
PositionShapePerson
6SquareQ
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3RectangleO
2TriangleN
1OctagonP

 

Hence, ‘O-4’ is an incorrect match.

4

Which block was kept below the block kept by O?

  1. ((a))

    Rectangle

  2. ((b))

    Square

  3. ((c))

    Circle

  4. ((d))

    Hexagon

  5. ((e))

    Triangle

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Triangle

Six persons = M, N, O, P, Q & R

  1. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position.
PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. Only one person kept a block between M and the person who kept the rectangle block.

  2. M who placed hexagon was just below Q.

Case 1:

PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2Q
1HexagonM

 

Case 2:

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The circular block was kept by R just below M.

(So,case 1 is invalid. Move ahead with case 2.)

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The triangle was kept at an even position just above P, but not on the top.
PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2Triangle
1P

 

  1. The difference in the position of the square block and the position at which N kept the block is 4.
PositionShapePerson
6SquareQ
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3RectangleO
2TriangleN
1OctagonP

 

Thus, the Triangle was kept below the block kept by O.

5

At which position was circular block kept?

  1. ((a))

    1st

  2. ((b))

    2nd

  3. ((c))

    3rd

  4. ((d))

    4th

  5. ((e))

    6th

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4th

Six persons = M, N, O, P, Q & R

  1. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position.
PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. Only one person kept a block between M and the person who kept the rectangle block.

  2. M who placed hexagon was just below Q.

Case 1:

PositionShapePerson
6
5
4
3Rectangle
2Q
1HexagonM

 

Case 2:

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The circular block was kept by R just below M.

(So,case 1 is invalid. Move ahead with case 2.)

PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2
1

 

  1. The triangle was kept at an even position just after P, but not on the top.
PositionShapePerson
6Q
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3Rectangle
2Triangle
1P

 

  1. The difference in the position of the square block and the position at which N kept the block is 4.
PositionShapePerson
6SquareQ
5HexagonM
4CircularR
3RectangleO
2TriangleN
1OctagonP

 

Hence, the circular block was kept at 4th position.

6

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Colors are Bright.

All Bright are Colorful.

Some Colorful are not Sketches.

Conclusions:

I. Some Colorful are not Colors.

II. All Sketches being Bright is a possibility.

III. Some Colors being Sketches is a possibility

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusion I and III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion II and III follows

  5. ((e))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both Conclusion II and III follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Colorful are not Colors → False (Some Colors are Bright and All Bright are Colorful, so the Colorful which is Bright are also Color, so this is definitely false).

II. All Sketches being Bright is a possibility → True (Some Colorful are not Sketches, but there is no restriction of Sketches being part of Bright or Colorful).

III. Some Colors being Sketches is a possibility → True (As, no direct relationship between the two is given).

Hence, Both Conclusion II and III follows.

7

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few Idly are Vada.

Some Vada are not Tasty.

All Tasty are Delicious.

Conclusions:

I. Some Idly are not Vada.

II. Some Tasty can be Vada.

III. All Tasty being Idly is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either Conclusion I or III  follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and III follows

  5. ((e))

    All Conclusion follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All Conclusion follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Idly are not Vada → True (As, Only a few Idly are Vada is given which means Some Idly are Vada and Some Idly are not Vada, so this is a definite conclusion).

II. Some Tasty can be Vada → True (The possibility is true, as we know that Some Vada cannot be part of Tasty, but don't know about any negative relationship of Tasty with Vada).

III. All Tasty being Idly is a possibility → True (The possibility is true, as no direct relationship between the two is given).

Hence, All Conclusion follows.

8

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

All Girls are Beautiful.

Some Beautiful are Pretty.

No Pretty is Bad.

Conclusions:

I. Some Girls are Pretty.

II. Some Beautiful are not Bad.

III. All Bad being Pretty is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and III follows

  5. ((e))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only Conclusion II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Girls are Pretty → False (This is possible but not definite).

II. Some Beautiful are not Bad → True (Some Beautiful are Pretty and No Pretty is Bad, so the part of Beautiful which is Pretty will never be Bad, so this is definitely true conclusion).

III. All Bad being Pretty is a possibility → False (The possibility is false, as Pretty and Bad both have relationship of No with each other).

Hence, Only Conclusion II follows.

9

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Glue are Sticky.

Some Sticky are not Plastics.

All Plastics are Surgery.

Conclusions:

I. Some Glue are Surgery.

II. Some Plastics are not Surgery is a possibility

III. No Glue is Surgery.

  1. ((a))

    Both Conclusion II and I follows

  2. ((b))

    Either I or III follow

  3. ((c))

    Conclusion III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and IIl follows

  5. ((e))

    Conclusion II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Either I or III follow

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Glue are Surgery → False (This is possible but not definite, as no direct relationship between the two is given).

II. Some Plastics are not Surgery is a possibility → False (The possibility is False, as All Plastics are Surgery and  Some Plastics are not Surgery is definitely false).

III. No Glue is Surgery → False (This is possible but not definite, as no direct relationship between the two is given).

Hence, Either I or III follows.

Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Vanshika starts walking from point M in east direction, after walking 6m she turns right from point N and walks for 4m till point O. She then turns left and walks for 5m and then turns right from point P and walks for 2m till point R. She then turns right and walks for 15m and then turns left from point Q and walks for 3m till point S. She then turns left and walks for 4m till point T and stops.

10

In which direction is Point S with respect to Point P?

  1. ((a))

    North West

  2. ((b))

    South 

  3. ((c))

    South East

  4. ((d))

    South West

  5. ((e))

    North East

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

South West

Hence, Point S is in South West direction with respect to Point P.

11

Four among the five are the same in a certain way and thus form a group. Which among the following does not belong to the group?

  1. ((a))

    Q - N 

  2. ((b))

    T - P 

  3. ((c))

    S - O 

  4. ((d))

    Q - P 

  5. ((e))

    R - M

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

R - M

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between point M and point T = NO + PR + QS = 4m + 2m + 3m = 9m

First point is in south - west of second point except in R - M.

Hence, R - M does not belong to the group.

12

What is the shortest distance between point M and point T?

  1. ((a))

    9m

  2. ((b))

    10m

  3. ((c))

    6m

  4. ((d))

    5m

  5. ((e))

    11m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9m

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between point M and point T = NO + PR + QS = 4m + 2m + 3m = 9m

Hence, ‘9m’ is the correct answer.

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

7 people - A, D, G, K, P, S, and U  have exams scheduled over a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. The subjects are 

History, English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. At most 2 people have the same subject and at least one person has a subject. P has a History exam. S has his exam on Friday, 2 days before the one who has a Biology exam. G has a Physics exam on Wednesday. U has his exam 3 days before P, in the same subject as P. A, who has an English exam, has his exam 4 days before D, who has a Physics exam. K did not have the Chemistry exam.

13

When did the English exam take place?

  1. ((a))

    Monday

  2. ((b))

    Wednesday

  3. ((c))

    Tuesday

  4. ((d))

    Friday

  5. ((e))

    Sunday

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tuesday

Given:

7 people – A, D, G, K, P, S, and U

5 subjects – History, English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

  1. S has his exam on Friday, 2 days before the one who has a Biology exam.
  2. G has a Physics exam on Wednesday.
DaysStudentsSubjects
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
Thursday
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology

 

  1. U has his exam 3 days before P, in the same subject as P.
  2. P has a History exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology

 

  1. A, who has an English exam, has his exam 4 days before D, who has a Physics exam.
  2. K did not have the Chemistry exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
TuesdayAEnglish
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridaySChemistry
SaturdayDPhysics
SundayKBiology

 

Hence,  the English exam is on Tuesday.

14

How many people took exams between A and K?

  1. ((a))

    4 people

  2. ((b))

    3 people

  3. ((c))

    2 people

  4. ((d))

    1 people

  5. ((e))

    5 people

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 people

Given:

7 people – A, D, G, K, P, S, and U

5 subjects – History, English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

  1. S has his exam on Friday, 2 days before the one who has a Biology exam.
  2. G has a Physics exam on Wednesday.
DaysStudentsSubjects
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
Thursday
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology

 

  1. U has his exam 3 days before P, in the same subject as P.
  2. P has a History exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology

 

  1. A, who has an English exam, has his exam 4 days before D, who has a Physics exam.
  2. K did not have the Chemistry exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
TuesdayAEnglish
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridaySChemistry
SaturdayDPhysics
SundayKBiology

 

A had his exam on Tuesday, and K had his exam on Sunday.

Hence, 4 people took exams between A and K.

15

Who had the Biology exam?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

K

Given:

7 people – A, D, G, K, P, S, and U

5 subjects – History, English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

  1. S has his exam on Friday, 2 days before the one who has a Biology exam.
  2. G has a Physics exam on Wednesday.
DaysStudentsSubjects
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
Thursday
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology

 

  1. U has his exam 3 days before P, in the same subject as P.
  2. P has a History exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology

 

  1. A, who has an English exam, has his exam 4 days before D, who has a Physics exam.
  2. K did not have the Chemistry exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
TuesdayAEnglish
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridaySChemistry
SaturdayDPhysics
SundayKBiology

Hence, K had his Biology exam on Sunday.

16

How many people had their exams between the people having the Physics exam?

  1. ((a))

    P and K

  2. ((b))

    P, S, and U

  3. ((c))

    A, G, and D

  4. ((d))

    G and D

  5. ((e))

    P and S

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

P and S

Given:

7 people – A, D, G, K, P, S, and U

5 subjects – History, English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

  1. S has his exam on Friday, 2 days before the one who has a Biology exam.
  2. G has a Physics exam on Wednesday.
DaysStudentsSubjects
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
Thursday
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology
  1. U has his exam 3 days before P, in the same subject as P.
  2. P has a History exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology
  1. A, who has an English exam, has his exam 4 days before D, who has a Physics exam.
  2. K did not have the Chemistry exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
TuesdayAEnglish
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridaySChemistry
SaturdayDPhysics
SundayKBiology

 

G and D had their Physics exam on Wednesday and Saturday respectively.

Hence, 2 people - P and S, had their exams between G and D.

17

Who had the Chemistry exam?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

S

Given:

7 people – A, D, G, K, P, S, and U

5 subjects – History, English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

  1. S has his exam on Friday, 2 days before the one who has a Biology exam.
  2. G has a Physics exam on Wednesday.
DaysStudentsSubjects
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
Thursday
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology
  1. U has his exam 3 days before P, in the same subject as P.
  2. P has a History exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
Tuesday
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridayS
Saturday
SundayBiology
  1. A, who has an English exam, has his exam 4 days before D, who has a Physics exam.
  2. K did not have the Chemistry exam.
DaysStudentsSubjects
MondayUHistory
TuesdayAEnglish
WednesdayGPhysics
ThursdayPHistory
FridaySChemistry
SaturdayDPhysics
SundayKBiology

Hence, S had the Chemistry exam.

Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F have different weights. D is heavier than A and F. C is lighter than only E. The weight of B and D are 75 kg and 65 kg respectively.

18

Who among the following is the lightest?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

Persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.

  1. C is lighter than only E. So, E is the heaviest.

  2. D is heavier than A and F.

  3. The weight of B and D are 75 kg and 65 kg respectively. So, B is heavier than D.

PersonsE(Heaviest)CBDA/FF/A(Lightest)
Weights(kg)7565
<br>

Either A or F is the lightest.

Hence, ‘Cannot be determined’ is the correct answer.

19

If the sum of weights of B and A is 135 kg and sum of weights of D and F is 116 kg then who is the 2nd lightest?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

Persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.

  1. C is lighter than only E. So, E is the heaviest.

  2. D is heavier than A and F.

  3. The weight of B and D are 75 kg and 65 kg respectively. So, B is heavier than D.

PersonsE(Heaviest)CBDA/FF/A(Lightest)
Weights(kg)7565

As, A + B = 135, so, A = 135 – 75 = 60

And D + F = 116, so, F = 116 – 65 = 51

Hence, A is the 2nd lightest.

20

How many pairs of letters are there in the word “BARGAINED” that have the same number of letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have in the English alphabetical series?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    One

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Four

Hence, there are 4 pairs of letter from both forward and backward side.

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Seven members from same family R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting in a linear row facing north. U's daughter sits to the immediate right of U. X is the only son of S. R is a male person. T sits third from the extreme end. V is an immediate neighbour of T's Mother. There are two persons between V and R. There is only one person sits between T's wife and S's father. The number of people sitting to the left of S is the same as the number of people sitting to the right of T's wife. There are two people's sits between W and U. V is R's grandfather. W sits to the left of U. T's mother sits second to the right of T. T's wife sits to the immediate right of R.

21

Who is the wife of T?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

W

  1. T sits third from the extreme end.
  2. T's mother sits second to the right of T.

  1. V is an immediate neighbour of T's Mother.
  2. There are two persons between V and R.
  3. T's wife sits to the immediate right of R.

  1. There is only one person sits between T's wife and S's father.

  1. The number of people sitting to the left of S is the same as the number of people sitting to the right of T's wife.

  1. There are two people's sits between W and U.
  2. W sits to the left of U.
  3. U's daughter sits to the immediate right of U.

Thus, Case 2(a) and Case 2(b) eliminated.

  1. V is R's grandfather.
  2. X is the only son of S.
  3. R is a male person.

Final arrangement:

Hence, W is the wife of T.

22

Who is sitting adjacent to father of S?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    U

  5. ((e))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

U

  1. T sits third from the extreme end.
  2. T's mother sits second to the right of T.

  1. V is an immediate neighbour of T's Mother.
  2. There are two persons between V and R.
  3. T's wife sits to the immediate right of R.

  1. There is only one person sits between T's wife and S's father.

  1. The number of people sitting to the left of S is the same as the number of people sitting to the right of T's wife.

  1. There are two people's sits between W and U.
  2. W sits to the left of U.
  3. U's daughter sits to the immediate right of U.

Thus, Case 2(a) and Case 2(b) eliminated.

  1. V is R's grandfather.
  2. X is the only son of S.
  3. R is a male person.

Final arrangement:

Hence, U is sitting adjacent to the father of S.

23

How many granddaughters does U have?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

  1. T sits third from the extreme end.
  2. T's mother sits second to the right of T.

  1. V is an immediate neighbour of T's Mother.
  2. There are two persons between V and R.
  3. T's wife sits to the immediate right of R.

  1. There is only one person sits between T's wife and S's father.

  1. The number of people sitting to the left of S is the same as the number of people sitting to the right of T's wife.

  1. There are two people's sits between W and U.
  2. W sits to the left of U.
  3. U's daughter sits to the immediate right of U.

Thus, Case 2(a) and Case 2(b) eliminated.

  1. V is R's grandfather.
  2. X is the only son of S.
  3. R is a male person.

Final arrangement:

Hence, U does not have a granddaughter.

24

Who is sitting at the extreme right end?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

X

  1. T sits third from the extreme end.
  2. T's mother sits second to the right of T.

  1. V is an immediate neighbour of T's Mother.
  2. There are two persons between V and R.
  3. T's wife sits to the immediate right of R.

  1. There is only one person sits between T's wife and S's father.

  1. The number of people sitting to the left of S is the same as the number of people sitting to the right of T's wife.

  1. There are two people's sits between W and U.
  2. W sits to the left of U.
  3. U's daughter sits to the immediate right of U.

Thus, Case 2(a) and Case 2(b) eliminated.

  1. V is R's grandfather.
  2. X is the only son of S.
  3. R is a male person.

Final arrangement:

Hence, X is sitting at the extreme right end.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around the circular table facing towards the center. Each of them has different number of pens from 1 to 7. The pens are of different colors – Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, White and Yellow.

G and E are not adjacent to each other. The one, who has black color pen, sits third to the right of C, who has 1 pen. B sits adjacent to C. One person sits between B and the one, who has 2 pink color pens. A has double number of pens than that of B, who does not have Pink color pens. A sits immediate left of F, who has Red color pens. Neither A nor D has Black color pens. The one, who has 3 pens, sits adjacent to E. One person has 5 yellow pens. F does not have odd number of pens. The one, who has Green pens, sits immediate left of one, who has White pens. B does not have Green pens.

25

Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

Colors: Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, White and Yellow.

Number of pens: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

  1. The one, who has black color pen, sits third to the right of C, who has 1 pen.

  2. B sits adjacent to C.

  3. One person sits between B and the one, who has 2 pink color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. A has double number of pens than that of B, who does not have Pink color pens. So, A and B must have 6 and 3 pens respectively.

  2. A sits immediate left of F, who has Red color pens.

  3. Neither A nor D has Black color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. The one, who has 3 pens, sits adjacent to E. So, case 1(b) is rejected.

  2. G and E are not adjacent to each other. So, case 2 is rejected.

  3. One person has 5 yellow pens. So, E must have 5 Yellow pens.

  4. F does not have odd number of pens. So, F and G have 4 and 7 pens respectively.

  5. The one, who has Green pens, sits immediate left of one, who has White pens.

  6. B does not have Green pens. So, C and A have Green and White pens respectively. Also, B has Blue pens.

Final case:

All have odd number of pens except A.

Hence, A is the correct answer.

26

What is the color of pens that B has?

  1. ((a))

    Green

  2. ((b))

    Pink

  3. ((c))

    Yellow

  4. ((d))

    Blue

  5. ((e))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Blue

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

Colors: Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, White and Yellow.

Number of pens: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

  1. The one, who has black color pen, sits third to the right of C, who has 1 pen.

  2. B sits adjacent to C.

  3. One person sits between B and the one, who has 2 pink color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. A has double number of pens than that of B, who does not have Pink color pens. So, A and B must have 6 and 3 pens respectively.

  2. A sits immediate left of F, who has Red color pens.

  3. Neither A nor D has Black color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. The one, who has 3 pens, sits adjacent to E. So, case 1(b) is rejected.

  2. G and E are not adjacent to each other. So, case 2 is rejected.

  3. One person has 5 yellow pens. So, E must have 5 Yellow pens.

  4. F does not have odd number of pens. So, F and G have 4 and 7 pens respectively.

  5. The one, who has Green pens, sits immediate left of one, who has White pens.

  6. B does not have Green pens. So, C and A have Green and White pens respectively. Also, B has Blue pens.

Final case:

B has Blue pens.

Hence, Blue is the correct answer.

27

How many pens does E have?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

Colors: Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, White and Yellow.

Number of pens: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

  1. The one, who has black color pen, sits third to the right of C, who has 1 pen.

  2. B sits adjacent to C.

  3. One person sits between B and the one, who has 2 pink color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. A has double number of pens than that of B, who does not have Pink color pens. So, A and B must have 6 and 3 pens respectively.

  2. A sits immediate left of F, who has Red color pens.

  3. Neither A nor D has Black color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. The one, who has 3 pens, sits adjacent to E. So, case 1(b) is rejected.

  2. G and E are not adjacent to each other. So, case 2 is rejected.

  3. One person has 5 yellow pens. So, E must have 5 Yellow pens.

  4. F does not have odd number of pens. So, F and G have 4 and 7 pens respectively.

  5. The one, who has Green pens, sits immediate left of one, who has White pens.

  6. B does not have Green pens. So, C and A have Green and White pens respectively. Also, B has Blue pens.

Final case:

E has 5 pens.

Hence, 5 is the correct answer.

28

Who among the following has 7 pens?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    The one, who has white color pens

  3. ((c))

    The one, who has Black color pens

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    The one, who has Blue color pens

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The one, who has Black color pens

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

Colors: Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, White and Yellow.

Number of pens: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

  1. The one, who has black color pen, sits third to the right of C, who has 1 pen.

  2. B sits adjacent to C.

  3. One person sits between B and the one, who has 2 pink color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. A has double number of pens than that of B, who does not have Pink color pens. So, A and B must have 6 and 3 pens respectively.

  2. A sits immediate left of F, who has Red color pens.

  3. Neither A nor D has Black color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. The one, who has 3 pens, sits adjacent to E. So, case 1(b) is rejected.

  2. G and E are not adjacent to each other. So, case 2 is rejected.

  3. One person has 5 yellow pens. So, E must have 5 Yellow pens.

  4. F does not have odd number of pens. So, F and G have 4 and 7 pens respectively.

  5. The one, who has Green pens, sits immediate left of one, who has White pens.

  6. B does not have Green pens. So, C and A have Green and White pens respectively. Also, B has Blue pens.

Final case:

The one, who has Black color pens, has 7 pens.

Hence, option 3 is correct answer.

29

Who sits immediate left of E?

  1. ((a))

    The one, who has 7 pens

  2. ((b))

    The one, who has white color pens

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

Colors: Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, White and Yellow.

Number of pens: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.

  1. The one, who has black color pen, sits third to the right of C, who has 1 pen.

  2. B sits adjacent to C.

  3. One person sits between B and the one, who has 2 pink color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. A has double number of pens than that of B, who does not have Pink color pens. So, A and B must have 6 and 3 pens respectively.

  2. A sits immediate left of F, who has Red color pens.

  3. Neither A nor D has Black color pens.

Case 1(a):

Case 1(b):

Case 2:

  1. The one, who has 3 pens, sits adjacent to E. So, case 1(b) is rejected.

  2. G and E are not adjacent to each other. So, case 2 is rejected.

  3. One person has 5 yellow pens. So, E must have 5 Yellow pens.

  4. F does not have odd number of pens. So, F and G have 4 and 7 pens respectively.

  5. The one, who has Green pens, sits immediate left of one, who has White pens.

  6. B does not have Green pens. So, C and A have Green and White pens respectively. Also, B has Blue pens.

Final case:

So, D sits immediate left of E.

Hence, D is the correct answer.

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols, ©, $, *, @ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

'A © B' means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’

'A $ B' means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’

'A % B' means ‘A is neither greater then nor smaller than B’

'A * B' means ‘A is greater than B’

'A @ B' means ‘A is smaller than B’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely True?

30

Statements:      

 A * B, B © C, C © D

Conclusions:     

I. D * B          

II. C @ A

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II is true

According to the question

X is
Symbol©$%*@
Meaning=><
to Y

Given statement: A * B, B © C, C © D

On converting: A > B, B ≥ C, C ≥ D

On combining: A > B ≥ C ≥ D

Conclusions:     

I. D * B → D > B → False (As, B ≥ C ≥ D → B > D)

II. C @ A → C < A → True (As, A > B ≥ C → A > C)

Hence, only conclusion II is true.

31

Statements:       

L @ M, M % T, T @ O

<br>

Conclusions:    

 I. O $ M        

 II. T $ L

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither I nor II follows

According to the question

X is
Symbol©$%*@
Meaning=><
to Y

Given statement: L @ M, M % T, T @ O

On converting: L < M, M = T, T < O

On combining: L < M = T < O

Conclusions: 

I. T @ L → T < L → False (As, L < M = T < O → L < T)

II. O $ M → O ≤ M → False (As, L < M = T < O → O > M)

Hence, Neither I nor II follows**.**

32

Statements:       

C % F, F @ G, G © M

Conclusions:  

I. M % F        

II. C @ G

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only II follows

According to the question

X is
Symbol©$%*@
Meaning=><
to Y

Statements:       

C % F, F @ G, G © M

<br>

Conclusions:  

I. M % F        

II. C @ G

Given statement: C % F, F @ G, G © M

On converting: C = F, F < G, G ≥ M

On combining: C = F < G ≥ M

Conclusions: 

I. M % F → M = F → False (As, C = F < G ≥ M → clear relation between M and F can’t be determined)

II. C @ G C < G → True (As, C = F < G → C < G)

Hence, only II follows.

The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of 12th students passed (science and commerce) in five different zone i.e. east zone, west zone, central zone, north zone and south zone and the table chart shows the number of 12th students passed from science department in five different zones.

The total number of students 12th passed = 5000

 

ZoneThe number of 12th students passed from science department
East600
West250
Central700
North850
South550
33

The number of 12th students passed from science department in central and south zones together is what percentage more/less than the total number of the 12th students passed in east zone?

  1. ((a))

    15% less

  2. ((b))

    20% more

  3. ((c))

    25% more

  4. ((d))

    15% more

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25% more

Calculation:

The number of 12th students passed from science department in central zone = 700

The number of 12th students passed from science department in south zone = 550

Total number of 12th students passed from science department = (700 + 550)

⇒ 1250

Total number of 12th passed students in east zone = (5000 × 20/100)

⇒ 1000

Now,

Required percentage of passed students from science department in central and south zone to total number of students in east zone = [(1250 – 1000)/1000 × 100]

⇒ (250/1000 × 100)

⇒ 25%

∴ Required percentage is 25% more.

34

Out of the total number of 12th students passed from commerce department in west and south zones, 5/6th of the students are girls and the remaining are boys, then find the number of 12th boys passed from commerce department in west and south zones?

  1. ((a))

    90

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    106

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

75

Calculation:

Total number of 12th students passed in west zone = (5000 × 10/100)

⇒ 500

Number of 12th students passed from commerce department in west zone = (500 – 250)

⇒ 250

Total number of 12th students passed in south zone = (5000 × 15/100)

⇒ 750

Number of 12th students passed from commerce department in south zone = (750 –  550)

⇒ 200

Total number of 12th passed from commerce department in west and south zone = (250 + 200)

⇒ 450

Now,

5/6th of the students of commerce department are girls in west and south zones = (450 × 5/6)

⇒ 375

Number of 12th boys passed from commerce department in west and south zones together = (450 – 375)

⇒ 75

∴ Required number of 12th passed boys is 75

35

Find the difference between the total number of 12th students passed from science department in east and west zones together and the number of 12th students passed from commerce department in central zone?

  1. ((a))

    295

  2. ((b))

    300

  3. ((c))

    305

  4. ((d))

    350

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

300

Calculation:

The number of 12th students passed from science department in east zone = 600

The number of 12th students passed from science department in west zone = 250

Total number of 12th students passed from science department in east and west zones = (600 + 250)

⇒ 850

Total number of 12th passed students in central zone = (5000 × 25/100)

⇒ 1250

The number of 12th passed students from commerce department in central zone = (1250 – 700)

⇒ 550

Now,

The difference between the total number of 12th students passed from science department in east and west zones together and the number of 12th students passed from commerce department in central zone = (850 – 550)

⇒ 300

∴ Required difference is 300

36

If the number of 12th students passed from commerce and art department in north zone is three times the number of 12th students passed from science department in north zones, then the number of 12th students passed from art department from north zone is what percentage of the total number of 12th students including art department passed in north zone?

  1. ((a))

    52.15%

  2. ((b))

    54.90%

  3. ((c))

    55.88%

  4. ((d))

    55%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

55.88%

Calculation:

Let the number of art students be x

Then,

Total number of 12th students passed in north zone = (5000 × 30/100)

⇒ 1500

The number of 12th students passed from commerce department = (1500 – 850)

⇒ 650

The number of 12th students passed from science department in north zone = 850

According to the question

⇒ 650 + x = 3 × 850

⇒ 650 + x = 2550

⇒ x = (2550 – 650)

⇒ x = 1900

Now,

Total number of 12th students passed in north zone = (1500 + 1900)

⇒ 3400

Required percentage = (1900/3400 × 100)

⇒ 55.88%

∴ The number of 12th students passed from art department from north zone to the total number of 12th students passed in north zone is 55.88%

37

Find the ratio of the total number of 12th students passed in west zone and the average number of 12th students passed from commerce department in east and west zones?

  1. ((a))

    20 : 13

  2. ((b))

    13 : 20

  3. ((c))

    11 : 15

  4. ((d))

    3 : 5

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 : 13

Calculation:

The total number of 12th students passed in west zone = (5000 × 10/100)

⇒ 500

The number of 12th students passed from commerce department in west zone = (500 – 250)

⇒ 250

The total number of 12th students passed in east zone = (5000 × 20/100)

⇒ 1000

The number of 12th students passed in commerce department in east zone = (1000 – 600)

⇒ 400

The total number of 12th students passed from commerce department in east and west zones = (400 + 250)

⇒ 650

The average number of 12th students passed from commerce department in east and west zones = (650/2)

⇒ 325

Required ratio = (500 : 325)

⇒ 20 : 13

∴ The ratio of the total number of 12th students passed in west zone and the average number of 12th students passed from commerce department in east and west zones is 20 : 13

38

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

269.67 + 362.87 – 45.40 = (1281.20 – 84.80) ÷ ?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step-1- Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2- Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3- Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4- Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Given Expression,

269.67 + 362.87 – 45.40 = (1281.20 – 84.80) ÷ ?

We can also write values as:

269.67 ≈ 270, 362.87 ≈ 363, 45.40 ≈ 45, 1281.20 ≈ 1281, 84.80 ≈ 85

Given expression becomes,

⇒ 270 + 363 – 45 = (1281 – 85) ÷ ?

⇒ 270 + 363 – 45 = 1196 ÷ ?

⇒ 633 – 45 = 1196 ÷ ?

⇒ 588 = 1196 ÷ ?

⇒ ? = 1196/588

⇒ ? ≈ 2

39

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(5899.10 – 288.70) ÷ 29.96 = 12.81 × 11.80 + ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    31

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

31

Rules of Approximation:

  1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated value.
  2. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal more than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal and raise the remaining number by '1'.The number so obtained will be the approximated value.

Concept:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step-1- Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2- Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3- Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4- Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Given Expression,

(5899.10 – 288.70) ÷ 29.96 = 12.81 × 11.80 + ?

We can also write values as:

5899.10 ≈ 5899, 288.70 ≈ 289, 29.96 ≈ 30, 12.81 ≈ 13, 11.80 ≈ 12

Calculation:

Given expression becomes,

⇒ (5899 – 289) ÷ 30 = 13 × 12 + ?

⇒ 5610 ÷ 30 = 13 × 12 + ?

⇒ 187 = 13 × 12 + ?

⇒ 187 = 156 + ?

⇒ ? ≈ 31

40

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(90.1 + 181.89) ÷ 4.10 + 262.30 = ? % of 8250.054

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Rules of Approximation:

  1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated value.
  2. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal more than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal and raise the remaining number by '1'.The number so obtained will be the approximated value.

Concept:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order is given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated

(90.1 + 181.189) ÷ 4.10 + 262.30 = ? % of 8250.054

We can also write values as:

90.1 ≈ 90, 181.89 ≈ 182, 4.10 ≈ 4, 262.30 ≈ 262, 8250.054 ≈ 8250

Calculation:

Given expression becomes,

⇒ (90 + 182) ÷ 4 + 262 = ? % of 8250

⇒ 272 ÷ 4 + 262 = ?% of 8250

⇒ 68 + 262 = ?% of 8250

⇒ 330 = ?% of 8250

⇒ 330/8250 = ?/100

⇒ 33/825 = ?/100

⇒ 3/75 = ?/100

⇒ 1/25 = ?/100

⇒ 100/25 = ?

⇒ ? ≈ 4

41

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(87.19 + 122.87) ÷ (26.75 ÷ 8.88) = 1400.3 ÷ ?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

Rules of Approximation:

  1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated value.
  2. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal more than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal and raise the remaining number by '1'.The number so obtained will be the approximated value.

Concept:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below-

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first and following BODMAS rule in the bracket-

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Calculation:

Given Expression,

(87.19 + 122.87) ÷ (26.75 ÷ 8.88) = 1400.3 ÷ ?

We can also write values as:

87.19 ≈ 87, 122.87 ≈ 123, 26.75 ≈ 27, 8.88 ≈ 9, 1400.3 ≈ 1400

Given expression becomes,

⇒ (87 + 123) ÷ (27 ÷ 9) = 1400 ÷ ?

⇒ (87 + 123) ÷ 3 = 1400 ÷ ?

⇒ 210 ÷ 3 = 1400 ÷ ?

⇒ 70 = 1400 ÷ ?

⇒ ? = 1400/70

⇒ ? ≈ 20

Directions: Read the following information and answer the following questions.

The percentage of students who passed the examination of the respective subjects is given below.The percentage of students who passed the examination of Mathematics only, Social only and Science only is 7%, 8%, and 9% respectively. The percentage of students who passed the examination of Mathematics and Science only, Mathematics and Social only and Social and Science only is 14%, 13%, and 12% respectively. The percentage of students who passed the examination of all subjects is 31%.

The total number of students appearing for the examination of three subjects Science, Social and Mathematics are 1800.

42

Find the number of students who failed in all the three subjects.

  1. ((a))

    98

  2. ((b))

    118

  3. ((c))

    102

  4. ((d))

    108

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

108

According to the question,

The number of students who passed in Maths and Science only = (14% + 31%) × 1800

The number of students who passed in Maths and Social only= (13% + 31%) × 1800

The number of students who passed in Social  and Science only= (12% + 31%) × 1800

For exactly two subjects, we have to neglect the students who passed in all the three subjects = 31% 

The number of students who passed only two subjects  = (13% + 12% + 14%) × 1800

The number of students passed who failed in all three subjects 

= 1 - {P(A) + P(B) + P(C) + P(A ∪ B  ∪ C) + P( A ∪ B) + P(A ∪ C) + P(B∪ C)}  

The number of students passed who failed in all three subjects = 6%

The number of students who failed in all three subjects = 6% × 1800 = 108.

43

Find the number of students who passed in exactly two subjects.

  1. ((a))

    702

  2. ((b))

    752

  3. ((c))

    652

  4. ((d))

    812

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

702

The number of students who passed in Maths and Science = (14% + 31%) × 1800

The number of students who passed in Maths and Social = (13% + 31%) × 1800

The number of students who passed in Social  and Science = (12% + 31%) × 1800

Here, the question is exactly two subjects so we have to neglect all three subjects passed students 31% we are not considering

The number of students who passed only two subjects  =(13% + 12% + 14%) × 1800

⇒ 39% of 1800

⇒ 39/100 × 1800

⇒ 702

∴ The number of students who passed exactly two subjects = 702

44

Find the number of students who passed in only one subject.

  1. ((a))

    182

  2. ((b))

    192

  3. ((c))

    172

  4. ((d))

    272

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

The number of students who passed in only Maths = 7% of 1800

The number of students who passed in only Science = 9% of 1800

The number of students who passed in only Social  = 8% of 1800

So, the number of students who passed in only one subject = (7% + 9% + 8%) of 1800

⇒ 24% of 1800 

⇒ 432

∴ The number of students who passed in only one subject = 432

45

Find the number of students who passed in subject Science .

  1. ((a))

    1288

  2. ((b))

    1818

  3. ((c))

    1188

  4. ((d))

    1178

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1188

The number of students who passed only Science = 9% of 1800

The number of students who passed in all subjects together = 31% of 1800

The number of students who passed in Science and Maths only = 14% of 1800

The number of students who passed in Science and Social only =  12% of 1800

The number of students who passed in subject Science  = (9% + 12% + 14% + 31% ) of 1800

⇒ 66% of 1800

⇒ 1188

∴ The number of students who passed in Science subject =  1188

46

Find the number of students who passed all the three subjects if the total number of students is 2500.

  1. ((a))

    875

  2. ((b))

    825

  3. ((c))

    775

  4. ((d))

    750

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

775

Given that,

The total number of students = 2500

The number of students who passed all three subjects = 31% of 2500 

⇒ 31/100 × 2500

⇒ 775

∴ The number of students who passed all three subjects = 775

47

Ambati wants to buy Bajaj Pulsar 220cc bike which costs him Rs. 120000. After ___ years (approximately) he will be able to buy the bike if he invests Rs. 24000 under compound interest at the rate of 50% per annum.

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Amount = P(1 + r/100)n = 120000 

Amount = 24000 × ( 1 + 50/100)n = 120000 

⇒ (1.5)n = 5 

⇒ (1.5)4 = 5.0625 ≈ 5

∴ approximately he needs 4 years to buy the bike.

48

Length of a rectangle is 3 cm more than width of rectangle and the difference between area of circle and area of rectangle is 84 cm2. Fiind the length of rectangle if radius of circle is 7 cm.  (circle > rectangle)

  1. ((a))

    8 cm

  2. ((b))

    10 cm

  3. ((c))

    7 cm

  4. ((d))

    14 cm

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 cm

Shortcut Trick

Area of circle = (22/7) × 72 = 154 cm2.

Area of rectangle = 154 − 84 = 70 cm2.

Let width = x, then length = x + 3. So, x(x + 3) = 70.

By inspection, 7 × 10 = 70, where 10 − 7 = 3. Thus, length = 10 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Radius (r) = 7 cm, Difference in areas = 84 cm2, Length (L) = Width (W) + 3 cm.

Formula Used: Area of circle = πr2; Area of rectangle = L × W.

⇒ Area of Circle = (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 154 cm2.

⇒ Area of Rectangle = 154 − 84 = 70 cm2.

⇒ L × W = 70

⇒ (W + 3) × W = 70

⇒ W2 + 3W − 70 = 0

⇒ W2 + 10W − 7W − 70 = 0

⇒ W(W + 10) − 7(W + 10) = 0

⇒ W = 7 cm (ignoring negative value)

⇒ Length = 7 + 3 = 10 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Rectangles

Perimeter of a rectangle is 2 × (length + width). The diagonals are equal and bisect each other.

Circle Mensuration

Circumference of a circle = 2πr. For a radius of 7 cm, the circumference is always 44 cm and the area is 154 cm2.

Quadratic Roots Shortcut

For x2 + bx + c = 0, if c is negative, the roots have opposite signs. Find factors of c that differ by b.

49

The total number of pupils in three classes of a school is 333. The number of pupils in classes I and II are in the ratio 3 : 5 and those in classes II and III are in the ratio 7 : 11. Find the number of pupils in the class that had the highest number of pupils.

  1. ((a))

    63

  2. ((b))

    105

  3. ((c))

    165

  4. ((d))

    180

  5. ((e))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

165

Ratio of Pupils in class I and II = 3 : 5         ----(1)

Ratio of Pupils in class II and III = 7 : 11        ----(2)

To find the ratio for all the three class, we will have to make the ratio of Class II common for both the given ratio.

Multiply equation (1) by 7 and equation (2) by 5

∴ Ratio of Pupils in class I and II = 21 : 35

∴ Ratio of Pupils in class II and III = 35 : 55

So, pupils in class I, II and III are in ratio 21 : 35 : 55

Let the common multiplying factor be x.

So, no. of pupils in these classes are 21x, 35x, 55x respectively.

Total no. = 333 = 21x + 35x + 55x

⇒ 111x = 333

⇒ x = 3

Looking at the proportion, highest no. of pupils are in class III.

∴ No. of pupils in class III = 55x = 55 × 3 = 165

50

A train at 72 km/hr completely crosses another train having three forth of its length and going in the opposite direction at 54 km/hr in 20 sec. if it also passed a railway platform in 1 minute, the length of the platform is

  1. ((a))

    400 meters 

  2. ((b))

    500 meters

  3. ((c))

    800 meters

  4. ((d))

    700 meters

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

800 meters

Given that:

Speed of first train = 72 km/hr

Speed of second train = 54 km/hr

Both the train are moving in opposite direction to each other. They crosses in 20 sec.

Formula:

Relative speed = sum of the speed

Distance = speed × time

Calculation:

Let the length of the first train is 4x

Then, length of the second train = 3x

trains are going in opposite direction

So, the relative speed = 72 + 54 = 126 km/hr

= 126 × 5 / 18 = 35 m/sec

distance travelled by the trains in crossing each other = relative speed × time

⇒ ( 4x + 3x ) = 35 × 20

⇒ 7x = 700

⇒ x = 100 meter

length of the first train = 4x = 400 meter

Length of the second train = 3x = 300 meter

If the first train passes a platform of length L meter in 1 minute or 60 second

Then, speed = total distance travelled by the train in crossing the platform / time

⇒ 72 ×( 5 / 18 ) = ( 400 + L ) / 60

⇒ 400 + L = 20 × 60

⇒ L = 1200 – 400 = 800 meter

∴ Length of the platform is 800 meters.

General Knowledge, Current Affairs and English Language (50 questions)

51

Who will be the chief guest at India's Republic Day celebrations January 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Emmanuel Macron

  2. ((b))

    Tshering Tobgay

  3. ((c))

    Cyril Ramaphosa

  4. ((d))

    Donald Trump

  5. ((e))

    Xi Jinping

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cyril Ramaphosa

  • South African President Cyril Ramaphosa will be the Chief guest at India's Republic Day celebrations on 26 January 2019.
  • The celebrations are held every year before the President of India.
  • In 2018, the Chief Guest at Republic Day celebrations were the 10 heads of state from ASEAN countries.
  • The Chief guest at India's first Republic Day on 26 January 1950 was the President of Indonesia.
52

What was the theme of the World Environment Day 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Air pollution 

  2. ((b))

    Beat Plastic Pollution 

  3. ((c))

    Connecting people to nature 

  4. ((d))

    Small Islands and Climate Change 

  5. ((e))

    Green Economy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air pollution 

  • The World Environment Day is observed on 5 June every year and the theme for 2019 was Air pollution.
  • Every World Environment Day has a different host country and this year's host country was China.
  • It is a United Nations day for encouraging worldwide awareness and action to protect our environment and began in 1974.
  • India launched its Hawa Aane De campaign to raise awareness about the rising air pollution among the people. It was released by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change-Prakash Javadekar​
53

The G20 Summit for the year 2019 is going to be held in ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Shanghai, China 

  2. ((b))

    Osaka, Japan 

  3. ((c))

    New Delhi, India 

  4. ((d))

    Seoul, South Korea 

  5. ((e))

    Islamabad, Pakistan 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Osaka, Japan 

The G20 Annual Summit for the year 2019 is going to be held in Osaka, Japan on June 28-29, 2019.

54

The First Arab country to be granted full membership of Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is __________.

  1. ((a))

    Kuwait

  2. ((b))

    Oman

  3. ((c))

    Saudi Arabia

  4. ((d))

    Dubai

  5. ((e))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Saudi Arabia

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

Key Points

  • The FATF is an intergovernmental organization on the initiative of the G7 to develop policies to combat money laundering.
  • The FATF was founded in 1989.
  • The Financial Action Task Force is also known by its French name "Groupe d'action Financiere (GAFI)".
  • FATF has maintained the FATF blacklist and the FATF greylist since 2000.
  • Turkey and Israel are also members of FATF.
  • FATF had 39 full members, comprising 37 member jurisdictions and 2 regional organizations as of 2019.

Additional Information 

  • Some important members of FATF are following:-
  • India
  • United States
  • Japan
  • Australia
  • Belgium
  • Brazil
  • Austria
  • Canada
  • China
  • Finland
  • France
  • Germany
  • Denmark
  • Greece
55

Sri Lanka has signed a tripartite agreement with which country to construct a mega multi billion dollar port city project in capital Colombo?

  1. ((a))

    USA

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Japan

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

China

Sri Lanka & China have signed a tripartite agreement to proceed with the construction of a mega multi billion dollar port city project in capital Colombo. The agreement was signed between SL Urban Development Authority, the Ministry of Megapolis & the China Harbour Engineering Company. The project would transform Sri Lanka into an international financial hub in the Indian Ocean region.

56

When is World Braille Day observed every year?

  1. ((a))

    1 January

  2. ((b))

    2 January

  3. ((c))

    3 January

  4. ((d))

    4 January

  5. ((e))

    5 January

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4 January

The correct answer is 4 January:

  • World Braille Day is observed on January 4 every year on the birth anniversary of Louis Braille.
  • The inventor of Braille, Louis Braille was born in 1809 in France on January 4.
  • In November 2018, the General Assembly decided to proclaim 4 January as World Braille Day, recognizing that the full realization of human rights and fundamental freedoms relies on an inclusive written promotion.
  • Braille is a tactile representation of alphabetic and numerical symbols using six dots to represent each letter and number, and even musical, mathematical and scientific symbols.
  • It is used by blind and partially sighted people to read the same books and periodicals as those printed in a visual font.
57

Which of the following countries has become the sole contender to host the Asian Cup Football tournament in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    China

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    South Korea

  4. ((d))

    Bangladesh

  5. ((e))

    Pakistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

China

  • China has become the sole contender to host the Asian Cup Football tournament in 2023.
  • The announcement came after South Korea has announced to withdraw its bid to host the game.
  • The 2023 Asian Football Confederation (AFC) Asian Cup will be the 18th edition of the AFC Asian Cup.
  • It is organised by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
  • The tournament will involve 24 national teams.
58

Which tennis player won the Australian Open Men's Singles title at Melbourne on 27 January 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Rafael Nadal

  2. ((b))

    Roger Federer

  3. ((c))

    Kei Nishikori

  4. ((d))

    Novak Djokovic

  5. ((e))

    Juan Martín del Potro

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Novak Djokovic

  • Tennis player Novak Djokovic won the Australian Open Men's Singles title at Melbourne on 27 January 2019.
  • He defeated Rafael Nadal in the final match.
  • It was his 7th Australian Open Men's Singles title.
  • He won the Australian Open Men's Singles title in 2008, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2015 and 2016.
  • He also broke a tie with Pete Sampras, for third-most Grand Slam trophies.
59

Who was appointed as the 24th Chief of Naval Staff in May 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Bimal Verma

  2. ((b))

    Karambir Singh

  3. ((c))

    Surinder Pal Singh

  4. ((d))

    Sunil Lanba

  5. ((e))

    Bipin Rawat

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karambir Singh

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Karambir Singh.

  • Admiral Karambir Singh is the 24th and current Chief of the Naval Staff of the Indian Navy.
  • He replaced Sunil Lanba on May 31, 2019.
  • He was born in Jalandhar on 3rd November 1959.
  • He got Param Vishisht Seva Medal and Ati Vishisht Seva Medal.
60

When is 'World No Tobacco Day' celebrated?

  1. ((a))

    30 May

  2. ((b))

    1 June

  3. ((c))

    31 May 

  4. ((d))

    29 May

  5. ((e))

    21 May

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

31 May 

  • The focus of World No Tobacco Day 2019 is on "tobacco and lung health."
  • The campaign will increase awareness on the negative impact that tobacco has on people’s lung health, from cancer to chronic respiratory disease, the fundamental role lungs play for the health and well-being of all people.
  • The campaign also serves as advocating for a effective policies to reduce tobacco consumption.
61

Who has been appointed as the Assistant Secretary-General for resource management, sustainability and partnerships in United Nations?

  1. ((a))

    Anita Bhatia

  2. ((b))

    Ellen Johnson Sirleaf

  3. ((c))

    Hans Grohmann

  4. ((d))

    Amina Mohammed

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anita Bhatia

  • Anita Bhatia has been appointed as the Assistant Secretary-General for resource management, sustainability and partnerships and Deputy Executive Director of the UN Entity for Gender Equality and the Empowerment of Women (UN Women).
  • She is a veteran of strategic partnerships, resource mobilisation, and management.
62

Which of the following has adopted a resolution extending, until May 2021, an arms embargo on South Sudan and a travel ban and financial sanctions for targeted individuals?

  1. ((a))

    ECOSOC

  2. ((b))

    UNSC

  3. ((c))

    NATO

  4. ((d))

    UNESCO

  5. ((e))

    UNHCR

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

UNSC

  • The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) has adopted a resolution extending, until May 2021, an arms embargo on South Sudan and a travel ban and financial sanctions for targeted individuals.
  • The council additionally scheduled a midterm review of the measures to take place by December 15, 2020, and expressed its readiness to consider adjusting measures.
  • UNSC: Headquarters - New York, New York, United States.
63

Which country will host the 2019 FIFA U-20 World Cup?

  1. ((a))

    Brazil

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Spain

  4. ((d))

    Poland

  5. ((e))

    Saudi Arabia

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Poland

Poland pipped India in the race to host 2019 FIFA U-20 World Cup after the members of FIFA Council voted in its favour . With the tournament scheduled to be held around May to June, Poland emerged as the preferred choice as it will be difficult for the players to play in the scorching Indian summer. India had submitted their bid after successfully hosting the U-17 FIFA World Cup last year.

64

The 2019 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas will be held in which city?

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Varanasi

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    Jaipur

  5. ((e))

    Ujjain

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Varanasi

The next Pravasi Bharatiya Divas will be held in the holy city of Varanasi from January 21 to 23, 2019. The theme of the 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is "Role of Indian Diaspora in building a New India". The Ministry of External Affairs will also organize four Know India Programmes and online "Bharat Ko Jaaniye Quiz".

65

In 2019, ________ introduced a clause as per which if one is applying for a visa to that country, one needs to furnish a social media track record of the past five years.

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    UK

  5. ((e))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

USA

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. USA.

  • The USA introduced a clause as per which if one is applying for a visa to that country, one needs to furnish a social media track record of the past five years.
  • US visa application henceforth could get a lot more serious and can affect close to 15 million people travelling annually.
  • It is also being said that in the near future, applicants would have to furnish detailed information on their travel history.
  • This rule is applied to all applicants, except for those who are on official or diplomatic visas.
66

Who among the following is the current Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Kalikho Pul

  2. ((b))

    Nabam Tuki

  3. ((c))

    T. R. Zeliang

  4. ((d))

    Pema Khandu

  5. ((e))

    Pawan Kumar Chamling

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pema Khandu

Pema Khandu is the incumbent Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh. He is elected from Mukto constituency and is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party.

67

A committee led by Chairman ________ submitted the Draft National Educational Policy 2019 to improve the education structure and expansion of Right to Education.

  1. ((a))

    Abhijit Sen Committee

  2. ((b))

    Bhurelal Committee

  3. ((c))

    Dr Kasturirangan

  4. ((d))

    Chandra Shekhar Committee

  5. ((e))

    J. R. Varma Committee

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dr Kasturirangan

  • A committee led by Chairman Dr Kasturirangan submitted the Draft National Educational Policy 2019 to improve the education structure and expansion of Right to Education (RTE).
  • The government had initiated the process of formulating a New Education Policy to meet the changing dynamics of the requirements of the population with regard to quality education, innovation and research.
  • The Draft National Education Policy, 2019 is built on the foundational pillars of Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability and Accountability.
68

Which of the following won the Best motion picture — Drama at the 76th annual Golden Globes Awards, held in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Bohemian Rhapsody

  2. ((b))

    War Horse

  3. ((c))

    Joker

  4. ((d))

    American Beauty

  5. ((e))

    Judy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bohemian Rhapsody

  • The 76th annual Golden Globes Awards were held in 2019.
  • Best motion picture — Drama was won by  'Bohemian Rhapsody'.
69

Voters in which of the following cities of USA passed a ballot initiative that temporarily bans the public use of facial-recognition technology by law enforcement and other government officials?

  1. ((a))

    Seattle

  2. ((b))

    Chicago

  3. ((c))

    Portland

  4. ((d))

    Los Angeles

  5. ((e))

    San Diego

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Portland

The correct answer is Portland.

  • Just months after Portland, Oregon, passed a strict ban on facial-recognition technology, the East Coast Portland has followed suit.
  • Voters in Portland, Maine, this week passed a ballot initiative that temporarily bans the public use of facial-recognition technology by law enforcement and other government officials.
  • Portland’s city council also voted to ban local government bureaus from acquiring or using the controversial surveillance technology.
  • Several U.S. cities, including San Francisco and Oakland, have previously banned government use of facial recognition
70

ASEAN Youth Engagement Summit 2019 was held in ________.

  1. ((a))

    Malaysia

  2. ((b))

    Indonesia

  3. ((c))

    Singapore

  4. ((d))

    Phillippines

  5. ((e))

    Vietnam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Phillippines

  • ASEAN Youth Engagement Summit 2019 was held in the Phillippines from February 20-23, 2019.
  • Some of the key themes of the summit include culture and arts, business and economy, etc.
  • It is a high-level platform for the world changers, student leaders, and young professionals from the ASEAN Region.
71

Who was conferred with highest award to honor foreign nationals by the Maldives Rule of Nishan Izzuddeen’ in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Xi Jinping

  2. ((b))

    Narendra Modi

  3. ((c))

    Imran Khan

  4. ((d))

    Ram Nath Kovind

  5. ((e))

    Donald Trump

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Narendra Modi

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

  • Narendra Modi was conferred with the highest award to honour foreign nationals by the Maldives Rule of Nishan Izzuddeen in 2019.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be conferred with the Maldives' highest honour "Rule of Nishan Izzuddeen" during his visit to the country.
  • Modi will reach the Indian Ocean archipelago in his first bilateral visit after retaining power in the Lok Sabha polls.
  • "The Most Honourable Order of the Distinguished Rule of Nishan Izzuddeen" is the Maldives' highest honour accorded to foreign dignitaries, Foreign Minister Shahid said on Twitter.
  • Modi said India considers the country as a valued partner with whom it shares deep bonds of history and culture.
  • The prime minister visited the Maldives in November to attend President Ibrahim Solih's swearing-in ceremony.
  • The relations between India and the Maldives deteriorated after the then President Abdulla Yameen imposed an emergency on February 5 last year.
  • However, ties were back on track under Solih's presidency.

Additional Information

CountryCapitalPresidentPrime Minister
IndiaNew DelhiRam Nath KovindNarendra Modi
PakistanIslamabadArif AlviShehbaz Sharif
ChinaBeijingXi Jinping-
NepalKathmanduBidhya Devi BhandariSher Bahadur Deuba
72

Who among the following became the first Lokpal of India?

  1. ((a))

    Dilip B Bhosale

  2. ((b))

    Pradip Kumar Mohanty

  3. ((c))

    Pinaki Chandra Ghose

  4. ((d))

    Ajay Kumar Tripathi

  5. ((e))

    Meera Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pinaki Chandra Ghose

The correct answer is Pinaki Chandra Ghose.

Key Points

  • Pinaki Chandra Ghose became the first Lokpal of India.
  • Pinaki Chandra Ghose was the first Lokpal of India since 23rd March 2019 to 2023
  • He is a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Important Points

  • A Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represents the public interest in the Republic of India.
  • The Lokpal has jurisdiction over the central government to inquire into allegations of corruption against its public functionaries and for matters connected to corruption.
  • The Lokpal is responsible for enquiring into corruption charges at the national level while the Lokayukta performs the same function at the state level.
  • The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and eight members. Four of the judicial members have been former Chief Justices of different High Courts and the four non-judicial members have been from All India Services/Central Services.
73

Which bank has been merged with the Vijaya Bank, Dena Bank, and ______

  1. ((a))

    State Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    Indian Overseas Bank

  3. ((c))

    State Bank of Mysore

  4. ((d))

    Bank of Baroda

  5. ((e))

    Union Bank of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bank of Baroda

The correct answer is Bank of Baroda.

  • The amalgamation of Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with Bank of Baroda (BoB) came into effect from 1 April 2019.
  • With amalgamation with BOB to create India's third-largest bank.
  • According to the Amalgamation Scheme, Vijaya Bank shareholders would earn 402 BoB equity shares for every 1,000 shares owned.
  • In Dena Bank's case, its shareholders will receive 110 BoB shares per 1,000 shares.
  • The three-way merger announcement was among many reform initiatives undertaken by Financial Services Secretary Rajiv Kumar to make public-sector banks (PSBs) stable, robust and competitive globally.
74

Which Indian cricket bowler has become the fastest Indian to claim 100 wickets in One-day Internationals?

  1. ((a))

    Mohammed Shami

  2. ((b))

    Umesh Yadav

  3. ((c))

    Ishant Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Jasprit Bumrah

  5. ((e))

    Bhuvneshwar Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mohammed Shami

  • Indian cricket bowler Mohammed Shami became the fastest Indian to claim 100 wickets in One-day Internationals on 23 January 2019.
  • He took 100 wickets in 56 ODI matches.
  • Before Shami, Irfan Pathan reached the 100-wicket mark in 59 ODIs, while Zaheer Khan in 65 matches, Ajit Agarkar in 67 matches, and Javagal Srinath in 68 matches.
75

Where was a conference on 'The Future of Indian Banking' held on 22 February 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Lucknow

  3. ((c))

    Noida

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi

  5. ((e))

    Patna

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

New Delhi

  • A conference on 'The Future of Indian Banking' was held in New Delhi on 22 February 2019.
  • It was organised by NITI Aayog and the Foundation for Economic Growth and Welfare (EGROW Foundation).
  • The aim of the conference was to increase and elevate the discourse on the banking sector in India, and help develop insights to inform the continued evolution of the Indian banking sector
76

The Narasimham Committee-I was set-up to suggest some recommendations for improvement in the

  1. ((a))

    efficiency and productivity of the financial institution

  2. ((b))

    banking reform process

  3. ((c))

    export of IT sector

  4. ((d))

    fiscal reform process

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

banking reform process

The Narasimham Committee was established under former RBI Governor M. Narasimham in August 1991 to look into all aspects of the financial system in India. The report of this committee had comprehensive recommendations for financial sector reforms including the banking sector and capital markets.

77

Which of the following countries is not a member of the 'Quad' group?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    Australia

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Germany

The correct answer is Germany.

  • The Quad Group is a group consisting of India, Japan, the USA, and Australia.
  • Thus, Germany is not a member of the Quad.

Additional Information

  • The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (the Quad) is an informal strategic forum between the United States, Japan, Australia, and India.
  • The grouping is maintained by semi-regular summits, information exchanges, and military drills between member countries.
  • The forum was initiated as a dialogue in 2007 by Prime Minister Shinzo Abe of Japan, with the support of Vice President Dick Cheney of the US, Prime Minister John Howard of Australia, and Prime Minister Manmohan Singh of India.
  • The dialogue was paralleled by joint military exercises of an unprecedented scale, titled Exercise Malabar.
  • The diplomatic and military arrangement was widely viewed as a response to increasing Chinese economic and military power, and the Chinese government responded to the Quad by issuing formal diplomatic protests to its members.
78

What is the capital of Vietnam?

  1. ((a))

    Ho Chi Minh

  2. ((b))

    Phnom Penh

  3. ((c))

    Naypyidaw

  4. ((d))

    Hanoi

  5. ((e))

    Vinh Long

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hanoi

Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam and the country's second largest city. The city lies on the right bank of the Red River. Hanoi is 1,760 km (1,090 mi) north of Ho Chi Minh City and 120 km (75 mi) west of Hai Phong city.

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Foxconn, which makes iPhones for Apple, says it is deepening its investment in a US electric pick-up truck firm, which could challenge Tesla's Cybertruck. The technology giant is spending up to $170m (£147.8m) on shares in the loss-making start-up Lordstown Motors. The major cash injection comes as the company aims to ramp up production of its debut model., the Endurance. Lordstown recently began building the vehicle at a former General Motors plant in the US state of Ohio. Under the deal, the world's biggest contract manufacturer of electronics bought a more than 18% stake in Lordstown, Making it the biggest investor in the company.

"Since announcing our first transaction with Foxconn more than a year ago, it has been our objective to develop a broad strategic partnership that leverages the capabilities of both companies," Lordstown's executive chairman Daniel Ninivaggi said. "Foxconn's latest investment is another step in that direction," he added. The two companies also said they would jointly develop an electric vehicle together, although they did not give further details of the plan. The tie-up came after the world's biggest electric carmaker Tesla, which is owned by multi-billionaire Elon Musk, was earlier this month reported by the Reuters news agency to be planning to start mass production of its Cybertruck at the end of 2023. That would be two years after the original target for the highly-anticipated pick-up truck that Mr. Musk unveiled in 2019.

Taiwan-based Foxconn's investment is the latest cash injection into Lordstown as it continues to run at a loss. Separately on Monday, figures for the three months to the end of September showed a net loss of 154.4m,widerthanthe154.4m, wider than the 95.8m loss the company reported for the same time last year. Shares in Lordstown rose by almost 18% in extended trading in New York after the announcements.

Last week Foxconn agreed to a deal with Saudi Arabia's sovereign wealth fund to produce electric vehicles in the kingdom. The joint venture will operate under the brand name 'Ceer', which sounds like the Arabic word for "drive". Ceer will license technology from Germany's BMW and aims to start selling its electric vehicles in 2025.

The deal is part of Saudi Arabia's push to move its economy away from its dependence on fossil fuels. Last month Foxconn's chairman Liu Young-way said he hopes the company will one day make cars for Tesla as it ramps up electric vehicle manufacturing operation. Speaking at the company's annual Tech Day, he said the firm aimed to replicate its success in manufacturing consumer devices as it expands into making electric vehicles for major motor industry brands.

79

What can be inferred about Lordstown Motors' financial situation from the comparison of its third quarter net loss to the same period last year?

  1. ((a))

     Lordstown Motors reported a net profit in the third quarter

  2. ((b))

    Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter decreased from last year

  3. ((c))

    Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter remained unchanged from last year

  4. ((d))

    Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter was wider than last year

  5. ((e))

    Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter was smaller than last year

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter was wider than last year

The correct answer is Option 4 (Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter was wider than last year)

 

Key Points

  • The fourth paragraph states that
  • Lordstown Motors reported a net loss of 154.4millioninthethreemonthstotheendofSeptember,whichiswiderthanthe154.4 million in the three months to the end of September, which is wider than the 95.8 million loss it reported for the same period last year.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is D, Lordstown Motors' net loss in the third quarter was wider than last year.
80

Which of the following can be inferred from the fourth paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    Operating at a loss.

  2. ((b))

    The collaboration to produce electric vehicles.

  3. ((c))

    Building a strategic partnership.

  4. ((d))

    Foxconn's investment and its aim.

  5. ((e))

    Pushing to move the economy in a different genre.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The collaboration to produce electric vehicles.

The correct answer is '​The collaboration to produce electric vehicles.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the given paragraphs:
  • The first paragraph is all about Foxconn's investment and its aim.
  • The second paragraph is all about building a strategic partnership.
  • The third paragraph is all about Foxconn operating at a loss.
  • The fourth paragraph is all about the collaboration to produce electric vehicles.
  • The fifth paragraph is all about pushing the economy to move in a different genre.
  • Therefore, from the given options, the second option can be inferred from the fourth paragraph.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

81

What can be inferred about Foxconn's long-term plans in the automotive industry?

  1. ((a))

    Foxconn has no plans to expand its presence in the automotive industry

  2. ((b))

    Foxconn plans to focus exclusively on electric vehicle manufacturing

  3. ((c))

    Foxconn aims to become a major player in the automotive industry

  4. ((d))

    Foxconn plans to exit the automotive industry in the near future

  5. ((e))

    Foxconn is only interested in manufacturing vehicles for Tesla

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Foxconn aims to become a major player in the automotive industry

The correct answer is Option 3 (Foxconn aims to become a major player in the automotive industry)

 

Key Points

  • The second paragraph states that
  • Foxconn is the world's biggest contract manufacturer of electronics and recently agreed to a deal with Saudi Arabia's sovereign wealth fund to produce electric vehicles in the kingdom.
  • Additionally, Foxconn's chairman has expressed hopes that the company will one day make cars for Tesla as it expands into making electric vehicles for major motor industry brands.
  • Therefore, it can be inferred that Foxconn aims to become a major player in the automotive industry.

The correct answer is C, Foxconn aims to become a major player in the automotive industry.

82

What can be inferred about the motivation behind Saudi Arabia's sovereign wealth fund's joint venture with Foxconn?

  1. ((a))

    The joint venture aims to produce luxury electric vehicles for the Middle East market

  2. ((b))

    The joint venture aims to reduce Saudi Arabia's dependence on foreign electric vehicle manufacturers

  3. ((c))

    The joint venture aims to challenge Tesla's dominance in the electric vehicle market

  4. ((d))

     The joint venture aims to export electric vehicles to the United States

  5. ((e))

    The joint venture has no specific goals or objectives beyond producing electric vehicles.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The joint venture aims to reduce Saudi Arabia's dependence on foreign electric vehicle manufacturers

The correct answer is Option 2 (The joint venture aims to reduce Saudi Arabia's dependence on foreign electric vehicle manufacturers)

Key Points

  • The fifth paragraph states that
  • The joint venture between Foxconn and Saudi Arabia's sovereign wealth fund aims to produce electric vehicles under the brand name 'Ceer' using technology licensed from Germany's BMW.
  • Additionally, it states that the venture is part of Saudi Arabia's push to move its economy away from its dependence on fossil fuels.
  • From this, it can be inferred that the joint venture aims to reduce Saudi Arabia's dependence on foreign electric vehicle manufacturers.

Therefore, the correct answer is BThe joint venture aims to reduce Saudi Arabia's dependence on foreign electric vehicle manufacturers.

83

What can be inferred about Lordstown Motors' Endurance electric pick-up truck?

  1. ((a))

     Lordstown Motors has already launched the Endurance

  2. ((b))

    The Endurance is being built at a former Tesla plant in Ohio

  3. ((c))

    The Endurance will be the first electric pick-up truck on the market

  4. ((d))

    Lordstown Motors' success is heavily dependent on the success of Endurance

  5. ((e))

    Lordstown Motors has no plans to produce the Endurance in large quantities

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lordstown Motors' success is heavily dependent on the success of Endurance

The correct answer is Option 4 (Lordstown Motors' success is heavily dependent on the success of Endurance)

Key Points

  • The first paragraph states that
  • Foxconn is deepening its investment in Lordstown Motors, which is making an electric pick-up truck called the Endurance.
  • Furthermore, the paragraph states that Lordstown Motors recently began building the vehicle at a former General Motors plant in Ohio.
  • From this, it can be inferred that Lordstown Motors' success is heavily dependent on the success of Endurance.

Therefore, the correct answer is D, Lordstown Motors' success is heavily dependent on the success of Endurance.

84

The given sentences have an error, find the sentences with error, if both the sentences are correct select 'Neither 1 nor 2 have an error'. Ignore any punctuation errors.

1. When we reached the office, We find that they were all closed. 2. The Manager stated that he wanted to hear all sides of the argument.

  1. ((a))

    1 has an error

  2. ((b))

    2 has an error

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 have an error

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 have an error

  5. ((e))

    There is more than one error in either of the sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 has an error

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 1 has an error.

Key Points 

  • In sentence 1, the verb 'find' must be replaced with its past form 'found' to make it a grammatically correct sentence.
  • As the primary clause is in the past tense, the subordinate clause should also be in past form.
  • Hence, the second form of the verb should be used here.
  • Sentence 1 is absolutely right.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer as sentence 1 has an error.

Correct sentence: When we reached the office, We found that they were all closed.

Correct sentence: The Manager stated that he wanted to hear all sides of the argument.

85

The given sentences have an error, find the sentences with error, if both the sentences are correct select 'Neither 1 nor 2 have an error. Ignore any Punctuation errors.

1. I was afraid I might attacked when I heard footsteps behind me. 2. We have a lot of rooms in our house, some of which haven't been used in years.

  1. ((a))

    1 has an error

  2. ((b))

    2 has an error

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 have an error

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 have an error

  5. ((e))

    There is more than one error in either of the sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 has an error

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 1 has an error.

Key Points  

  • Sentence 1, as the clause is in the passive voice, the verb part 'might attacked' will be replaced with its passive form 'might be attacked' to make it a grammatically correct sentence.
  • Sentence 2 is absolutely right, as 'a lot of' takes plural noun after it.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer as sentence 1 has an error.

Correct sentence: I was afraid I might be attacked when I heard footsteps behind me.

Correct sentence: We have a lot of rooms in our house, some of which haven't been used in years.

Additional Information

  • A lot of and lots of = 'a large number or amount'.
  • We use a lot of or lots of with both countable and uncountable nouns.
  • There was a lot of rain last week. [rain = uncountable]
  • There were a lot of people at the party. [people = countable/plural]
  • There's lots of food in the cupboard. [food = uncountable]
86

The given sentences have an error, find the sentences with error, if both the sentences are correct select 'Neither 1 nor 2 have an error. Ignore any Punctuation errors. 

1. The audience clapped and cheered passionately as the show came to a close. 2. When the movie star arrived at the airport, he was met by a vast number of people.

  1. ((a))

    1 has an error

  2. ((b))

    2 has an error

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 have an error

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 have an error

  5. ((e))

    There is more than one error in either of the sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2 has an error

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. 2 has an error.

Key Points 

  • In sentence 2, the adjective 'vast' is not appropriate in the context and hence must be replaced with either 'large' or 'great' to make it a grammatically correct sentence.
  • Vast means very great in size, number, amount, or quantity and the use of the noun 'number' after it is erroneous.
  • We could have said 'A vast gathering of people.', which would also have been correct.
  • Sentence 1 is absolutely right.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer as sentence 2 has an error.

Correct sentence: The audience clapped and cheered passionately as the show came to a close.

Correct sentence: When the movie star arrived at the airport, he was met by a number of people.

Additional InformationSome examples of other similar faulty constructions: 

  • 'Blunder mistake', 'the highest zenith', 'like for example', etc.
87

The given sentences have an error, find the sentences with error, if both the sentences are correct select 'Neither 1 nor 2 have an error'. Ignore any punctuation errors.

1. It's much more warmer today than it was a few days ago. 2. He was absolute irritated and enraged when he learned that the girl had escaped.

  1. ((a))

    1 has an error

  2. ((b))

    2 has an error

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 have an error

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 have an error

  5. ((e))

    There is more than one error in either of the sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both 1 and 2 have an error

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Both 1 and 2 have errors.

Key Points 

  • In sentence 1, Double comparatives and Superlatives are always avoided. 'more' hence must be omitted to make it a grammatically correct sentence.
  • In sentence 2, the adjective 'absolute' must be replaced with the adverb 'absolutely' as it is modifying the adjectives 'irritated' and 'enraged'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer as both the sentences has errors.

Correct sentence: It's much warmer today than it was a few days ago.

Correct sentence: He was absolutely irritated and enraged when he learned that the girl had escaped.

88

The given sentences have an error, find the sentences with error, if both the sentences are correct select 'Neither 1 nor 2 have an error. Ignore any Punctuation errors.

1. Pakistani government has turned a deaf ear to the advices of the Indian Government for peace. 2. The administration is not taking pain to eliminate hunger.

  1. ((a))

    1 has an error

  2. ((b))

    2 has an error

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 have an error

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 have an error

  5. ((e))

    There is more than one error in either of the sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both 1 and 2 have an error

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Both 1 and 2 have errors.

Key Points

  • In sentence 1, ‘Advice’ means counsel and is not used in the plural. When ‘advice’ is to be used in the plural, use it as ‘pieces of advice’ to convey plural meaning instead of ‘advices’. ‘Advices’ means information.
  • She took her doctor’s advice and gave up smoking
  • In sentence 2, Change ‘pain’ to ‘pains’ to correct the error in diction. Because ‘pain’ means ‘suffering’ while ‘pains’ means ‘careful efforts’.​
  • It pains me to think how much money we’ve wasted.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer as both sentences 1 and 2 have an error.

Correct sentence: Pakistani government has turned a deaf ear to the advice of the Indian Government for peace.

Correct sentence: The administration is not taking pains to eliminate hunger.

Additional Information 

  • Advice: Is a noun: to give counsel to; offer an opinion or suggestion as worth following. When spoken, it rhymes with 'ice' [s].
  • The blog gives good advice for first home buyers.
  • Advise: Is a verb: an opinion or recommendation offered as a guide to action, conduct, etc. When spoken, it rhymes with 'realise'
  • Please advise her to stop smoking, as she refuses to listen to me.
89

Directions: In the following questions two columns are given. In column-I three sentences are given, each of them consists a blank which may or may not be filled with sentence or word provided in column-II. You are required to fill the blanks in the sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct.  

Column-IColumn-II
(E) India ______ saving lives and livelihoods by its willingness to take short-term pain for long-term gain.(i) standstill
(F) The lockdowns and social distancing norms brought the already slowing global economy to a _______.(ii) focused in
(G) India was the only country among _______ markets to receive equity FII inflows in 2020.(iii) emerging
  1. ((a))

    G-(iii) and E-(ii)

  2. ((b))

    F-(i) only

  3. ((c))

    E-(ii) F-(i) and G-(iii)

  4. ((d))

    F-(i) and G-(iii)

  5. ((e))

    G-(iii) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

F-(i) and G-(iii)

The correct answer is option (4) i.e. F-(i) and G-(iii)

Key Points

  • Meaning of the words given in column-II (in the context of the respective sentences):
  • (i) Standstill: stop completely.
  • (ii) Emerging: developing or growing.
  • "The lockdowns and social distancing norms brought the already slowing global economy to a standstill."
  • Which means the already slowing economy stopped completely.
  • Hence, the word "standstill" can fill the black appropriately.
  • "India was the only country among emerging markets to receive equity FII inflows in 2020."
  • Which means India is the only developing market which received equity FII inflows in 2020.
  • Hence, the word "emerging" can fill the black appropriately.

Additional Information

  • "India ______ saving lives and livelihoods by its willingness to take short-term pain for long-term gain."
  • Here " focused in" can't fill the blank appropriately.
  • The correct syntax is:
  • "India focused on saving lives and livelihoods by its willingness to take short-term pain for long-term gain."
  • Focus on: give attention to or concentrate on.
90

Directions: In the following questions two columns are given. In column-I three sentences are given, each of them consists a blank which may or may not be filled with sentence or word provided in column-II. You are required to fill the blanks in the sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct.  

Column-IColumn-II
(E) This G-20 summit is an opportunity to display India’s capability before the world in a ______ manner.(i) congenial
(F) Recently, the minister had discussions with all the party leaders in a very ________ atmosphere.(ii) holistic
(G) Capacities are being augmented so that people _____ waiting lists, hassles and  delays in train movements(iii) get ride of
  1. ((a))

    E-(ii) and G-(iii) only,.

  2. ((b))

    E-(ii), F-(i) and G-(iii) only,.

  3. ((c))

    F-(i) and E-(ii) only. 

  4. ((d))

    G-(iii) only.

  5. ((e))

    E-(ii) only.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

F-(i) and E-(ii) only. 

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. F-(i) and E-(ii) only. 

Important Points

  • Meaning of the words given in column-II (in the context of the respective sentences):
  • Congenial: Harmoniously and cordially.
  • Holistic: To consider the whole scenario rather than giving attention to some parts only.
  • Get ride of: This idiom has an error. It should be written as "Get rid of".
  • Meaning: free yourself of something. Eliminate the thing which was bothering you.
  • Example: I want to get rid of this annoying person.
  • Hence, this phrase can't fill any blank.

Key Points

  • "This G-20 summit is an opportunity to display India’s capability before the world in a ______ manner." 
  • The blank is preceded by an article (a) and followed by a noun (manner).
  • Grammatically the blank can be filled by a modifier (an adjective).
  • "get ride of" can't fill the blank because:
  1. It has a spelling mistake (discussed earlier)
  2. This idiom can't be preceded by an article.
  • From remaining two modifiers (congenial and holistic), congenial can't make the sentence meaningful.
  • Holistic manner (showcasing India's capability considering every relevant thing) can make the sentence meaningful.
  • "This G-20 summit is an opportunity to display India’s capability before the world in a holistic manner.
  • "Recently, the minister had discussions with all the party leaders in a very ________ atmosphere."
  • The blank is preceded by a modifier (very) and followed by a noun (atmosphere)
  • Grammatically it can be filled by another modifier.
  • The discussion took place in congenial atmosphere means the people discussed something harmoniously.
  • "Congenial" can fill the blank to make the sentence meaningful.
  • "Recently, the minister had discussions with all the party leaders in a very congenial atmosphere."

Confusion Points 

  • Ride: To seat on a vehicle or animal and travel.
  • Example: She used to ride her brother's bike.
  • Rid: To free yourself/ someone/ something of any unwanted/ dangerous/ harmful person or thing.
  • Example: I am trying to get rid of the problem.
91

Directions: In the following questions two columns are given. In column-I three sentences are given, each of them consists a blank which may or may not be filled with sentence or word provided in column-II. You are required to fill the blanks in the sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct.  

Column-IColumn-II
(E) Our seas and coastal borders are great ______ of our economic self-reliance and also provide impetus to it.(i) engineering
(F) You will be happy to know that our government has ______ the compliances, which were hindering the ease of doing business.(ii) custodians
(G) every sector related to our growth engine is ______at full capacity today.(iii) abolished
  1. ((a))

    E-(i)

  2. ((b))

    F- (iii) and G - (i)

  3. ((c))

    E-(ii) and F- (iii)

  4. ((d))

    G - (iii) only

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

E-(ii) and F- (iii)

The correct answer is option (3) i.e. E-(ii) and F- (iii) 

Key Points

  • Meaning of the words given in column-II (in the context of the respective sentences):
  • (i) Engineering: to devise or arrange something.
  • (ii) Custodians: caretaker and protector.
  • (iii) Abolished: to end a law or a system officially.
  • (E) "Our seas and coastal borders are great custodians of our economic self-reliance and also provide impetus to it."
  • (F) "You will be happy to know that our government has abolished the compliances, which were hindering the ease of doing business."

Important Points

  • (G) "every sector related to growth engine of our country is running/working at full capacity today."
  • Though the word engineering (verb + ing) is grammatically correct, it doesn't make the sentence meaningful.

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed. There are some blanks given in the passage. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number mentioned in the blank space.

Just as society has evolved over time, our food system has also evolved over centuries into a global system of immense size and complexity. The commitment of food science and technology professionals to advancing the science of food, ensuring a safe and abundant food supply, and contributing to healthier people everywhere is __(1)___to that evolution. Food scientists and technologists are versatile, interdisciplinary, and collaborative practitioners in a profession at the crossroads of scientific and technological developments.

This Institute of Food Technologists scientific review describes the scientific and technological achievements that made possible the modern production‐to‐consumption food system capable of feeding nearly 7 billion people, and it also discusses the promising potential of ongoing technological advancements to enhance the food supply even further and to increase the health and wellness of the growing global population. This review begins with a historical perspective that summarizes the parallel developments of agriculture and food technology, from the beginnings of modern society to the present.

The world has progressed through hunter-gatherer, agricultural, and industrial stages to providers of goods and services. This progression has been catalyzed by the cultural and social evolution of mankind and the need to solve specific societal issues, such as the need for preservation to free people from ___(2)__for food, and the need for adequate nutrition via consistent food supply year-round. These forces led to the development of the food industry, which has contributed immensely to the basis for a healthy human civilization and helped society prosper and flourish.

According to Harvard Univ. biological anthropologist Richard Wrangham, food processing was launched about 2 million years ago by a distant ancestor who discovered cooking, the original form of food processing. Later, but still, during prehistoric times, cooking was (3)_ by fermenting, drying, preserving with salt, and other primitive forms of food processing, which allowed groups and communities to form and survive. Humans thus first learned how to cook food, then how to transform, preserve, and store it safely. This experience‐based technology led to modern food processing. Much later, the domestication of plants and land cultivation became widespread, and at the end of the last Ice Age, humans revolutionized eating meat by domesticating animals for food. Thus, plant and animal agriculture also contributed to improving the human condition.

A study of every ancient civilization clearly shows that throughout history humans overcame hunger and disease, not only by harvesting food from a cultivated land but also by processing it with sophisticated methods. For example, the 3 most important foods in Ancient Greece—bread, olive oil, and wine—were all products of complicated processing that transformed perishable, (4)_, or hardly edible raw materials into safe, flavorful, nutritious, stable, and enjoyable foods.

Today, our production‐to‐consumption food system is complex, and our food is largely safe, tasty, nutritious, abundant, diverse, convenient, and less costly, and more readily (5)_ than ever before.

92

Which of these should be filled at (1) as per the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Peripheral

  2. ((b))

    Integral

  3. ((c))

    Structural

  4. ((d))

    Unified

  5. ((e))

    Beneficial

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Integral

The correct answer is Integral

Explanation –

  • The passage is about -" Food Science & Technology''.
  • The first passage is regarding the commitment of food science to its advancement that was necessary for evolution.

Key Points

  • Let's find out which option should be used in the given blank space by knowing the meanings of all the vocab words →

          Peripheral means relating to or situated on the edge or periphery of something.

          Integral means necessary to make a whole complete; essential or fundamental.

          Structural means relating to or forming part of the structure of a building or other item​.

          Unified means make or become uniform or whole.

  • " The commitment of food science and technology professionals.............. contributing to healthier people everywhere is (1)_____to that evolution." If we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that Peripheral and Structural are not suitable options because both words mean -relating to an edge or part of something.
  • Unified means make something or become uniform that is not related to the passage.
  • Integral means necessary to make which is the suitable option for the fill in the blank.

So the sentence will become " The commitment of food science and technology professionals to advancing the science of food, ensuring a safe and abundant food supply, and contributing to healthier people everywhere is integral to that evolution."

93

Which of these should be filled at (2) as per the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Pasturage

  2. ((b))

    Scavenge

  3. ((c))

    Foraging

  4. ((d))

    Cultivating

  5. ((e))

    Wastage

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Foraging

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Foraging

Explanation –

  • The passage is about -" Food processing & Technology''.
  • The third passage is regarding how the world has progressed through hunter-gatherer, agricultural, and industrial stages to providers of goods and services.

Key Points

  • Let's find out which option should be used in the given blank space by knowing the meanings of all the vocab words →

          Pasturage means covering the land with grass and other lower plants for grazing animals, especially cattle or sheep.

          Scavenge means search for and collect (anything usable) from discarded waste.

          Foraging means the acquisition of food by hunting, fishing, or the gathering of plant matter.

          Cultivating means prepare and use (land) for crops or gardening.

  • "This progression has been catalyzed by the cultural and social evolution of mankind and the need to solve specific societal issues, such as the need for preservation to free people from (2)_____for food." if we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that Pasturage will not fit here contextually because it means to cover the land with grass for grazing animals and the sentence is regarding the need for conservation of food.
  • Scavenge will also not fit here contextually because it means the search for anything from discarded waste that is not related to the conservation of food.
  • Foraging will fit here contextually because it means searching for food and provisions from different sources, which is related to the conservation of food.
  • Option 4, i.e. Cultivating is also the wrong option because it is related to farming.

So the sentence will become, "**This progression has been catalyzed by the cultural and social evolution of mankind and the need to solve specific societal issues, such as the need for preservation to free people from foraging for food."

94

Which of these should be filled at (3) as per the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Augmented

  2. ((b))

    Spiked

  3. ((c))

    build up

  4. ((d))

    Constrict

  5. ((e))

    Adulterated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Augmented

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Augmented

Explanation –

  • The passage is about - " Food Science & Technology''.
  • The third passage is about Food Processing from prehistoric times till now.

Key Points

  • Let's find out which option should be used in the given blank space by knowing the meanings of all the vocab words →

          Augmented means having been made greater in size or value.

          Spiked means a sharp increase in the magnitude or concentration of something.

          Build up is a phrase that means an increase, especially one that is gradual.

          Constrict means to make narrower, especially by encircling pressure.

  • "According to Harvard Univ. biological anthropologist Richard Wrangham, ...... cooking was (3)_____ by fermenting, drying, preserving with salt, and other primitive forms of food processing" if we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that 'spiked' and 'build up' are not the suitable options because they mean to increase something in magnitude or size that is not suitable for the word "cooking" that is used in the sentence.
  • Augmented is a suitable option because it means to increase the value. It makes sense with the word 'cooking'.
  • Option 4 is not suitable here because it is the opposite of the word 'Augmented'.

So the sentence will become " Later, but still, during prehistoric times, cooking was augmented by fermenting, drying, preserving with salt, and other primitive forms of food processing, which allowed groups and communities to form and survive."

95

Which of these should be filled at (4) as per the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Regrettable

  2. ((b))

    Unattractive

  3. ((c))

    Forageable

  4. ((d))

    Unpalatable

  5. ((e))

    Biodegradable

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Unpalatable

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Unpalatable

Explanation –

  • The passage is about - " Food Science & Technology''.
  • The second last passage is about how humans overcame hunger and disease, and transformed raw food into eatable food.

Key Points

  • Let's find out which option should be used in the given blank space by knowing the meanings of all the vocab words →

          Regrettable means giving rise to regret; undesirable. 

          Unattractive means not pleasing or appealing to look at.

          Forageble means the act of looking or searching for food or provisions.

          Unpalatable means not pleasant to taste.

  • "For example, the 3 most important foods in Ancient Greece—bread, olive oil, and wine—were all products of complicated processing that transformed perishable, (4)_____, or hardly edible raw materials into safe, flavorful, nutritious, stable, and enjoyable foods." if we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that 'regrettable' will not fit here contextually because the sentence is regarding the transformation of food. 'Regrettable' is used with respect to the person.
  • Also, 'Unattractive' will not fit here contextually because unattractive food doesn't make any sense.
  • 'Forageble' will be the wrong option because it means searching for food that is not related to the sentence.
  • 'Unpalatable' will be is a suitable option because it represents a transformation of unpleasant food into an eatable form.

So the sentence will become, " **For example, the 3 most important foods in Ancient Greece—bread, olive oil, and wine—were all products of complicated processing that transformed perishable, unpalatable or hardly edible raw materials into safe, flavorful, nutritious, stable, and enjoyable foods."

96

Which of these should be filled at (5) as per the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Available

  2. ((b))

    Unapproachable

  3. ((c))

    Accessible

  4. ((d))

    Employable

  5. ((e))

    unreachable

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Accessible

The correct answer is Accessible

Explanation –

  • The passage is about -" Food Science & Technology''.
  • The last passage explains the present situation of the food system.

Key Points

  • Let's find out which option should be used in the given blank space by knowing the meanings of all the vocab words →

          Available means able to be used or obtained.

          Unapproachable means inaccessible or not friendly.

          Accessible means able to be reached, entered, or easily obtained.

          Employable means able to be used or suitable for paid work.

  • Today, our production‐to‐consumption food system is complex, and our food is largely safe, tasty, nutritious, abundant, diverse, convenient, and less costly, and more readily (5)_____ than ever before. If we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that unapproachable is not a suitable option as it's a negative word and the sentence is positive.
  • The words available and accessible represent almost the same meanings, but available is used when a person or thing is present there & ready to use.
  • Accessible means when we try to get or obtain something, or when we are allowed to do something. Contextually 'Accessible' is the proper option for the fill in the blank.
  • Employable is the wrong option because it is used with respect to a person, and the passage is regarding the food system.

So the sentence will become " Today, our production‐to‐consumption food system is complex, and our food is largely safe, tasty, nutritious, abundant, diverse, convenient, and less costly, and more readily accessible than ever before."

97

Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required' as the answer.

Despite of working hard, Barcelona couldn't make it to the semi-final of the Champions League.

  1. ((a))

    Despite working hard

  2. ((b))

    In spite of working hard

  3. ((c))

    In spite working hard

  4. ((d))

    Both 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

 

Key Points

Both Despite and In spite of are negative conjunctions.

  • Despite/ In spite of: without being affected by.
  • In spite agrees with the preposition "of".
  • Despite is used independently.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: Despite/ In spite of working hard, Barcelona couldn't make it to the semi-final of the Champions League.
98

Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required' as the answer.

There are few medicines in the drawer. Take and give them to your father as soon as possible.

  1. ((a))

    There are a few medicines

  2. ((b))

    There are a little medicines

  3. ((c))

    There are the few medicines

  4. ((d))

    There is few medicine

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There are a few medicines

The correct answer is There are a few medicines.

 

Key Points

Few deals with a plural countable noun.

  • For example: Books, papers, etc
  • The subdivisions are given below in the table
FewNothing
A FewSomething
The FewSufficient
  • In the question, it is talking about some medicines. Therefore, the use of "a" before few is mandatory.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: There are a few medicines in the drawer. Take and give them to your father as soon as possible.

 

Additional Information

Little deals with a plural uncountable noun.

  • For example: Water, oil, etc.
  • The subdivisions are given below in the table

 

LittleNothing
A LittleSomething
The LittleSufficient
99

A sentence/ a part of sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'.

In the monsoon season, the washing away of soil is one of the immediate effects from deforestation.

  1. ((a))

    effects by deforestation.

  2. ((b))

    effects for deforestation.

  3. ((c))

    effects with deforestation.

  4. ((d))

    effects of deforestation.

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

effects of deforestation.

The correct answer is 'effects of deforestation'.

Key Points

  • The error is in the usage of 'from' in the underlined part.
  • The sentence talks about how washing of soil is a part of deforestation.
  • 'from' is used to indicate the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts.
  • The correct word for the underlined part must be 'of' which is used to indicate an association between two entities. In the sentence, it establishes a relationship between washing of soil and deforestation. As washing away of soil is due to deforestation.
  • 'from' must be replaced with 'of'.

Thus the correct sentence is - In the monsoon season, the washing away of soil is one of the immediate effects of deforestation.

Additional Information

  • Let us see the meanings of the other words:
  • by - used to identify the agent performing an action.
  • for - used to indicate the place someone or something is going to or toward
  • with - accompanied by (another person or thing).
100

A sentence/ a part of sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'. 

Patrick Carnes once said that ‘Addiction is a relationship, a pathological relationship in which obsession replaces people’.

  1. ((a))

    one said that

  2. ((b))

    said that

  3. ((c))

    once told that

  4. ((d))

    once saying that

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No improvement

The correct answer is 'No improvement'.

Key Points

  • The underlined part in the sentence is grammatically correct.
  • As there are no errors in the sentence, it does not need any improvements.
  • So, 'No improvement' is the correct answer.

Thus the correct sentence is - Patrick Carnes once said that ‘Addiction is a relationship, a pathological relationship in which obsession replaces people’.

Important Points

  • Whenever finding an error in the sentence, first look for grammatical errors.
  • Then look for context-related errors.

Insurance and Financial Marketing Awareness (50 questions)

101

The IRDAI launched the IGMS in the year 2010. Choose the correct expanded form for IGMS.

  1. ((a))

    Indo-German Management School

  2. ((b))

    Integrated Government Management System

  3. ((c))

    Indian Genome Mapping Scheme

  4. ((d))

    Integrated Grievance Management System

  5. ((e))

    Independent Growth Management System

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Integrated Grievance Management System

The correct answer is Integrated Grievance Management System.

Key Points

  • IGMS stands for Integrated Grievance Management System
  • Integrated Grievance-Management-System (IGMS) was launched by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (I.R.D.A.I.).
  • IRDAI launched the Integrated Grievance Management System (IGMS) in the year 2010.​
  • It is an online consumer complaints registration system.
  • Policyholders can register their complaints online with their insurance company and track the progress of complaint resolution.
  • IRDAI monitors the complaints and their progress in real time through IGMS.
  • The system has the ability to assign, store and track unique complaint IDs.
  • It also sends intimations to various stakeholders as required, within the workflow.
  • The system has defined target Turnaround Times (TATs) and measures the actual TATs on all complaints.
  • A complaint registered through IGMS will flow to the insurer's system as well as the IRDAI repository.
102

What Does, First Premium Receipt (F.P.R.), signify?

  1. ((a))

    Free-Look Period has ended.

  2. ((b))

    It is the Evidence, that the Policy-Contract has begun.

  3. ((c))

    Policy cannot be cancelled, Now.

  4. ((d))

    Policy has acquired a Certain Cash-Value.

  5. ((e))

    It is the Evidence, that the Policy-Contract has ended.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It is the Evidence, that the Policy-Contract has begun.

The correct answer is It is the Evidence, that the Policy-Contract has begun.

Key Points

  • First Premium Receipt (F.P.R.)
  • It is the receipt you receive when you pay the premium of your policy for the very first time.
  • acknowledges that the Policy-Contract has begun.
  • It also contains all details of the policy, including the Tax/Premium Paid Certificate.
  • An insurance contract commences when the life insurance company issues a first premium receipt (FPR).
  • After the issue of the FPR, the insurance company will issue subsequent premium receipts when it receives further premiums from the proposer.

Additional Information

  • IRDA or Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India.
  • The primary purpose of IRDA is to safeguard the interest of the policyholders and ensure the growth of insurance in the country.
  • Some of the functions of IRDAI are-
  • To safeguard the policyholder’s interest while ensuring fair and just treatment.
  • To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations.
  • To frame regulations periodically so that there is no ambiguity in the insurance industry.
103

First 'P'of 4Ps is

  1. ((a))

    product

  2. ((b))

    price

  3. ((c))

    place

  4. ((d))

    promotion

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

product

The correct answer is- Product.

Key Points

 Marketing:

  1. Marketing refers to all activities a company does to promote and sell products or services to consumers.
  2. Marketing makes use of the "marketing mix," also known as the four Ps—product, price, place, and promotion.
  3. ​​Product, price, place, and promotion are the Four Ps of marketing. The Four Ps collectively make up the essential mix a company needs to market a product or service.
  4. At its core, marketing seeks to take a product or service, identify its ideal customers, and draw the customers' attention to the product or service available.

Important Points

 Product Mix:

  • Product refers to an item or items the business plans to offer to customers. The product should seek to fulfil an absence in the market, or fulfil consumer demand for a greater amount of a product already available. Before they can prepare an appropriate campaign, marketers need to understand what product is being sold, how it stands out from its competitors, whether the product can also be paired with a secondary product or product line, and whether there are substitute products in the market.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is- First 'p,' of 4p's is Product.

Additional Information

 Price:

  • Price refers to how much the company will sell the product for. When establishing a price, companies must consider the unit cost price, marketing costs, and distribution expenses. Companies must also consider the price of competing products in the marketplace and whether their proposed price point is sufficient to represent a reasonable alternative for consumers.

 Place:

  • Place refers to the distribution of the product. Key considerations include whether the company will sell the product through a physical store, online, or through both distribution channels.

 Promotion:

  • Promotion, the fourth P, is the integrated marketing promotion and communications campaign. Promotion includes a variety of activities such as advertising, selling, sales promotions, public relations, direct marketing, sponsorship, and guerrilla marketing. Promotions vary depending on what stage of the product life cycle the product is in. Marketers understand that consumers associate a product’s price and distribution with its quality, and they take this into account when devising the overall marketing strategy.
104

Which statement is NOT correct about the LIC Aadhaar Stambh insurance plan?

  1. ((a))

    The premium payment term for this plan will be the same as the policy term

  2. ((b))

    LIC Aadhaar Stambh is an insurance plan only for female applicants

  3. ((c))

    This policy will be issued for a term of 10 years to 20 years

  4. ((d))

    The minimum basic sum assured offered under the plan is Rs.75,000

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

LIC Aadhaar Stambh is an insurance plan only for female applicants

  • LIC Aadhaar Stambh is an insurance plan is only for male applicants holding Aadhaar card.
  • The premium payment term for this plan will be the same as the policy term.
  • The minimum basic sum assured offered under the plan is Rs.75,000 and the maximum basic sum assured is Rs.3,00,000.
  • This policy will be issued for a term of 10 years to 20 years.
105

______ is an invitation to the public in large for inviting them to subscribe for the shares of the company.

  1. ((a))

    Prospectus 

  2. ((b))

    Application 

  3. ((c))

    Allotment letter 

  4. ((d))

    Memorandum of association 

  5. ((e))

    Articles of association

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prospectus 

The correct answer is prospectus. 

Key Points

  • Issue of Prospectus: Prospectus is an invitation to the public in large for inviting them to subscribe for the shares of the company. The prospectus contains complete details such as the financial position of the company, the number of shares offered, the price of such shares, etc.
  • Receipt of Application: After the receipt of the prospectus, interested investors can apply through application and deposit of specified application money with the scheduled bank as mentioned in the prospectus. The subscription remains to open up to 120 days. The company shall refund the application with 130 days of issue of a prospectus in case the minimum subscription has not been reached.
  • Shares allotment: Shares are allotted on a pro-rata basis if the minimum subscription is received. Allotment letter is offered to the investors to whom shares are issued.
106

Identify the place of origin of modern-day Insurance.

  1. ((a))

    Vatican City in Rome

  2. ((b))

    Hanging Gardens of Babylon

  3. ((c))

    Lloyds Coffee House in London

  4. ((d))

    Big Apple in New York

  5. ((e))

    BSE Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lloyds Coffee House in London

The correct answer is Lloyds Coffee House in London.

Key Points

  • Lloyds Coffee House in London 
  • ​It was a significant meeting place in London in the 17th and 18th centuries.
  • It was opened by Edward Lloyd.
  • It was a popular place for sailors, merchants, and shipowners.
  • Many people from the shipping industry used to visit the coffee house to discuss maritime insurance, shipbroking, and foreign trade.
  • Lloyd's coffee house soon became known as a good place to purchase insurance to cover ships and their cargoes against the perils of the seas.
  • Edward Lloyd also obtained a monopoly on maritime insurance related to the slave trade and maintained it until the early 19th century.
107

As per Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (I.R.D.A.I.) (Protection of Policy Holders' Interests) Regulations, 2017, What is the Stipulated Period, within which, Claim under a Life Assurance Policy, shall be paid or shall be disputed, provided that, the Company has received All Relevant Papers?

  1. ((a))

    Within 15 Days

  2. ((b))

    Within 20 Days

  3. ((c))

    Within 30 Days

  4. ((d))

    Within 3 Months

  5. ((e))

    Within 1 Month

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Within 30 Days

The correct answer is Within 30 Days.

Key Points

  • IRDAI (Protection of Policyholders Interest) Regulations 2017
  • It is applicable to all policyholders- Individual and Corporate.
  • ​Under this, Within 30 Days, the claim under a Life Assurance Policy shall be paid or shall be disputed, provided that, the Company has received All Relevant Papers.

Additional Information

  • ​The objective of these regulations is to-
  • To ensure that the interests of insurance policyholders’ are protected.
  • To ensure that insurers, distribution channels, and other regulated entities fulfill their obligations towards policyholders and have in place standard procedures and best practices in the sale and service of insurance policies.
  • To ensure policyholder-centric governance by insurers with emphasis on grievance redressal.
  • It protects the Interest-
  • At the time of sale of the insurance products
  • At the time of issuing the policy
  • After-sale service in respect of policy document
  • The Regulations say that Insurers shall take steps-
  • For enhancing insurance awareness so as to educate prospects
  • To prevent mis-spelling
  • To make fully aware the buyer of the insurance policy about the benefits of the products
108

Senior Citizen’s Welfare Fund was established in which of the following year?

  1. ((a))

    2010

  2. ((b))

    2015

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2018

  5. ((e))

    2019

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

  • Senior Citizen’s Welfare Fund was established under the Finance Act, 2015, to be utilized for such schemes for the promotion of the welfare of senior citizens, in line with the National Policy on Older Persons.
  • Fund gets money from unclaimed deposits of Public Provident Fund PPF and Employee Provident Fund EPF.
  • The money in accounts that have been inoperative for more than seven years will be diverted into this fund.
  • However, if someone comes back to claim the money even after seven years, the payment will be made after furnishing the required documents.
  • The fund will be administered by an Inter-Ministerial Committee, headed by a Chairperson.
  • The Committee will be competent to spend money from the fund for satisfying various objectives.
109

What is the full form of NAV?

  1. ((a))

    Net Actual Value

  2. ((b))

    Net Annual Value

  3. ((c))

    Net Asset Value

  4. ((d))

    Net Average Value

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Net Asset Value

  • Net Asset Value (NAV) means the difference between entity’s assets and the value of its liabilities.
  • The Price per fund unit is termed as the Net Asset Value.
  • NAV is the base for operations for open-ended mutual fund schemes i.e. investor can trade funds at their convenience and exit when they like at the current Net Asset Value.
110

Who is protected under the Incontestability Clause included under a Life Assurance Policy?

  1. ((a))

    Insurer

  2. ((b))

    Insured

  3. ((c))

    Insurance Agent

  4. ((d))

    Insurance Broker

  5. ((e))

    All of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Insured

The correct answer is Insured.

Key Points

  • Insured is protected under the In-Contestability Clause included under a Life Assurance Policy.
  • ​Contestability refers to having a dispute or contest over a claim.
  • All life insurance companies include the contestability clause to protect their interest.
  • According to the clause, if the policyholder expires within specified years of purchasing the policy (generally two years), the insurance company can contest or question the claim raised by his/her beneficiaries.
  • The insurer has the right to ask for verification of the personal details of the buyer.
  • This clause enables the insurers to deny or cancel a claim made before the completion of two years (or other specified years) from the policy date.
  • The clause also prevents the policy provider from tampering with any part of the insurance coverage based on mistranslation or misstatements by the insured (policyholder) after a period of time.

Additional Information

  • An insurer is an entity that accepts the risk and promises to pay for the losses that arise within the policy term. The insurer is generally called an 'insurance company'.
  • An insurance agent is a representative who sells the policy on behalf of an insurance company. The agent helps consumers select the right insurance based on their needs, but represents an insurance company.
  • An insurance broker is a specialist in insurance and risk management. Insurance brokers act on behalf of their clients and provide advice in the interests of their clients.
  • In other words, he is a professional who acts as an intermediary between a consumer and an insurance company, helping the consumer find a policy that best suits their needs.
111

The Complaint to the Insurance Ombudsman must be registered within ________ year(s).

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    6 months

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

  • The Complaint to the Insurance Ombudsman must be registered within 1 year.
  • A complaint must not be in pending in any court or consumer forum or under any arbitration.
  • The Government of India under powers of Insurance Act, 1938 issued a notification named Redressal of Public Grievances Rules 1998, which led to the appointment of Insurance Ombudsman.
  • Insurance Ombudsman is appointed to resolve all disputes in a cost-efficient and effective and impartial manner.
  • The decision to whether to accept a complaint or not is decided by the ombudsman and his decision will be final.

Important Points 

  • An Insurance Ombudsman shall be selected from amongst persons having experience of the insurance industry, civil service, administrative service or judicial service.
  • An Insurance  Ombudsman shall be appointed for a term of three years and shall be eligible for reappointment.
  • No person shall hold office as an Ombudsman after he has attained the age of seventy years.
  • An Ombudsman may be removed from office on the ground of gross misconduct during his term of office.
112

With respect to the insurance sector in India, what does TPA stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Temporary Price Asset

  2. ((b))

    Third Party Administrator

  3. ((c))

    Temporary Premium Administrator

  4. ((d))

    Third Party Asset

  5. ((e))

    Tax Pricing Administrator

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Third Party Administrator

The correct answer is Third Party Administrator.

Key Points

  • With respect to the insurance sector in India, TPA stands for Third Party Administrator.
  • Third-Party Administrator (TPA) is a company/agency/organization holding a license from the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA) to process claims - corporate and retail policies in addition to providing cashless facilities as an outsourcing entity of an insurance company.
  • When a health insurance claim occurs, the TPA acts as an intermediary between the insurer and the insured
113

What is the maximum claim amount for an Insurance Ombudsman complaint?

  1. ((a))

    10 lakh

  2. ((b))

    15 lakh

  3. ((c))

    5 lakh

  4. ((d))

    50 lakh

  5. ((e))

    25 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

50 lakh

The correct answer is 50** lakh.**

Key Points

  • The maximum claim amount for an Insurance Ombudsman complaint should not be more than 50 lakhs (Including ex-gratia payment and other expenses).
  • The award should be made within a period of 3 months from the date of receipt of a complaint and the insured must acknowledge the award in full as a final settlement within one month after receiving the award.
  • The Insurance Ombudsman is appointed to resolve all disputes in a cost-efficient, effective, and impartial manner.
  • The decision to whether to accept a complaint or not is decided by the ombudsman and his decision is final.
  • The Government of India under powers of the Insurance Act, 1938 issued a notification named Redressal of Public Grievances Rules 1998 which led to the appointment of the Insurance Ombudsman.

Important Points

  • An Insurance Ombudsman shall be selected from amongst persons having experience in the insurance industry, civil service, administrative service or judicial service.
  • An Insurance  Ombudsman shall be appointed for a term of three years and shall be eligible for reappointment.
  • No person shall hold office as an Ombudsman after he has attained the age of seventy years.
  • An Ombudsman may be removed from office on the grounds of gross misconduct during his term of office.
114

Who among the followings has been appointed as the Chairman of IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India).

  1. ((a))

    Satish Rao

  2. ((b))

    Rajeev Ranjan Agrnihotri

  3. ((c))

    Om Prakash Dubey

  4. ((d))

    Debasish Panda

  5. ((e))

    Munishwar Nath Bhandari

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Debasish Panda

The correct answer is Debasish Panda.

Key Points

  • The union government has appointed former Financial Services Secretary Debasish Panda as Chairman of IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India).
  • His tenure as the chief of insurance regulator will be for three years.
  • Panda, a 1987-batch IAS officer of the Uttar Pradesh cadre, retired as Financial Services Secretary in January 2022 after a two-year stint.

Additional Information

  • ​Important Current Affairs Related to Appointments in 2022:
  • The government has appointed former Finance Secretary Ajay Bhushan Pandey as Chairman of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) for a period of three years.
  • The Centre on 9 March 2022 filled the five-month vacant post of the whole-time member at SEBI by appointing banker Ashwani Bhatia.
  • LIC Mutual Fund has announced the appointment of Mr T S Ramakrishnan as its Managing Director and CEO, effective March 1, 2022.
  • The board of directors of L&T Finance Holdings Ltd (LTFH) has approved the appointment of S N Subrahmanyan as its Director and Chairperson.
  • IDFC FIRST Bank has approved the appointment of former economist and IFS officer Jaimini Bhagwati as an Additional Director on its board for three years.
  • Manoj Ahuja (As of Feb 2022) will take over as Agriculture Secretary, according to a decision by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on 08 Feb, 22.
  • He is currently serving as the Chairman of the Central Board of Secondary Education.
  • Professor Dinesh Prasad Saklani (As of Feb 2022) has been appointed as the new Director of the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).
  • He has been appointed for a period of five years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is the earliest.
  • Universal Acceptance Steering Group has appointed Paytm founder Vijay Shekhar Sharma as its ambassador.
  • Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari (As of Feb 2022) has been appointed Chief Justice of the Madras High Court, the Law Ministry said on Thursday.
115

In which of the following year Life Insurance Companies Act was passed?

  1. ((a))

    1890

  2. ((b))

    1900

  3. ((c))

    1910

  4. ((d))

    1912

  5. ((e))

    1915

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1912

In 1870, Bombay Mutual Life Assurance Society became the first Indian insurer. At the dawn of the twentieth century, many insurance companies were founded. In the year 1912, the Life Insurance Companies Act and the Provident Fund Act were passed to regulate the insurance business.

116

Who among the following had headed 6-member task force constituted on secondary market for corporate loans and also recently submitted the report to RBI?

  1. ((a))

    U K Thorat

  2. ((b))

    U Sinha

  3. ((c))

    Rajneesh Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Nandan Nilekani

  5. ((e))

    TN Manoharan

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

TN Manoharan

  • TN Manoharan had headed 6-member task force constituted on the secondary market for corporate loans and recently submitted its report to RBI.
  • TN Manoharan is a  Chairman of Canara Bank.
  • The task force has suggested a slew of measures, including participation by non-banks such as mutual funds, insurers, and pension funds, etc.
  • The TN Manoharan committee has recommended the setting up of a self-regulatory body of participants and they would finalise details for the secondary market for corporate loans, including the standardisation of documents.
  • They have also recommended amending the provisions for securitisation and assignment of loans, asset reconstruction, foreign portfolio investment, and external commercial borrowings.
  • The Reserve Bank of India had asked to give review on Public comment till 30th September
117

What is ULIP?

  1. ((a))

    It is a mutual fund

  2. ((b))

    It is medical plan only cover health issues

  3. ((c))

    It is united life insurance plan

  4. ((d))

    It is a Unit Linked Insurance Plan that gives investors both insurance and investment under a single integrated plan.

  5. ((e))

    It is an invested plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

It is a Unit Linked Insurance Plan that gives investors both insurance and investment under a single integrated plan.

A Unit Link Insurance Plan is basically a combination of insurance as well as investment. A part of the premium paid is utilized to provide insurance cover to the policy holder while the remaining portion is invested in various equity and debt schemes. The money collected by the insurance provider is utilized to form a pool of fund that is used to invest in various markets instruments (debt and equity) in varying proportions just the way it is done for mutual funds.

118

Which bank has launched two new products- Loan against Deposits (LAD) and Dollar Bonds for its NRI customers at its branch in GIFT City?

  1. ((a))

    ICICI Bank

  2. ((b))

    Axis Bank

  3. ((c))

    Yes Bank

  4. ((d))

    HDFC Bank

  5. ((e))

    NOT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ICICI Bank

The correct answer is ICICI Bank. 

Key Points

  • ICICI Bank has launched two new products- Loan against Deposits (LAD) and Dollar Bonds for its NRI customers at its branch in GIFT City.
  • ICICI Bank is the first bank to offer these products in GIFT City.
  • Loan against Deposits is a loan in foreign currency against a deposit in India (including Rupee NRE FDs).
  • Dollar Bonds are an alternate investment option for NRIs.

Additional Information

  • ​Global Current Account: This is a non-interest bearing account which does not require any minimum balance.
  • Global Savings Account: NRIs can deposit money for short term and earn interest in this savings account.
  • Term Deposits: They are similar to Foreign Currency Non Resident (FCNR) deposits with minimum lock-in period of seven days compared to one year for FCNR in India.
119

Who has been appointed as part-time chairman of Yes Bank?

  1. ((a))

     R Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Raghu Ram Rajan

  3. ((c))

    Deepak Parekh

  4. ((d))

    Shaktikanta Das

  5. ((e))

    Dipak Baviskar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 R Gandhi

The correct answer is R Gandhi.

Key Points

  • Former RBI Deputy Governor R Gandhi has been appointed as part-time chairman of Yes Bank.
  • RBI has approved his appointment as the Non-Executive (Parttime) Chairman of the Bank for a period of 3 years effective from September 20, 2022.
  • Gandhi is currently a financial sector policy expert and adviser.
  • He was a Deputy Governor of the RBI for three years from 2014 to 2017.

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India, chiefly known as RBI, is India's central bank and regulatory body responsible for the regulation of the Indian banking system.
  • It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • It is responsible for the control, issue, and maintaining the supply of the Indian rupee.
  • Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata
  • Ownership: Ministry of Finance, Government of India
  • Governor: Shaktikanta Das
120

Standard Chartered Bank headquarter is located at_______.

  1. ((a))

    London

  2. ((b))

    Paris

  3. ((c))

    Washington

  4. ((d))

    Moscow

  5. ((e))

    Berlin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

London

'Your Right Partner ' is Standard Chartered bank’s tagline. Standard Chartered is a British multinational banking and financial services company, headquartered in London. It has a network of more than 1,200 branches and outlets (including subsidiaries, associates and joint ventures) across more than 70 countries and employs around 87,000 people.

121

Human Life Value (HLV) is a number that tells the present value of future income expenses, liabilities, and investments. Who developed the concept of Human Life Value?

  1. ((a))

    John Maynard Keynes

  2. ((b))

    Solomon S. Huebner

  3. ((c))

    Nouriel Roubini

  4. ((d))

    Paul Krugman

  5. ((e))

    Thomas Piketty

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Solomon S. Huebner

The correct answer is Solomon S. Huebner.

Key Points

  • Solomon S. Huebner developed the concept of Human Life Value.
  • Huebner is known widely as "the father of insurance education."
  • The concept of "human life value" became a standard method of calculating insurance value and need.
  • He established the goal of professionalism in the field of insurance and developed the first collegiate level program in insurance.
  • Human Life Value (HLV) is a number that tells the present value of future income expenses, liabilities, and investments.
  • ​The HLV number is taken usually to understand how much money would be required to secure the lives of your dependents with term insurance, in case you are no longer around.
  • It rests on the premise that all property values in existence are created by individuals.
  • This is in direct opposition to the modern concept of "needs analysis" that dominates the financial planning and life insurance industry.
  • Ordinarily, there are seven things that are taken into account to assess HLV-
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Occupation
  • Target retirement age
  • Annual income
  • Employment benefits
  • Financial information on spouse and children
122

Which one of the following is NOT a direct indicator of Service-Quality?

  1. ((a))

    Reliability

  2. ((b))

    Empathy

  3. ((c))

    Assurance

  4. ((d))

    Cleverness

  5. ((e))

    Tangibility

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cleverness

The correct answer is Cleverness.

Key Points

  • Cleverness is NOT a Direct Indicator of Service-Quality.

Additional Information

  • Tangibility
  • It is the appearance of physical facilities, equipment, personnel, and communication materials.
  • Customers tend to expect clean and professional facilities.
  • Reliability
  • It is the ability to perform the promised service dependably and accurately.
  • Customers want to rely on businesses to deliver a working product or effective service.
  • Responsiveness
  • It is the willingness to help customers and provide prompt service.
  • Responding quickly to customer questions and concerns is vital.
  • Customers like to know that their requests are being taken seriously.
  • Assurance
  • It is the knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability to convey trust and confidence.
  • Assurance is significant when customers have many options but aren’t sure who to trust when purchasing.
  • Customers expect businesses to be the experts in the service they deliver.
  • Empathy
  • It is the caring, individualized attention the firm provides its customers.
123

Mutual Fund business from existing customers can be canvassed by__________.

  1. ((a))

    Coercion

  2. ((b))

    Cross-selling

  3. ((c))

    Internal marketing

  4. ((d))

    Outdoor marketing

  5. ((e))

    Road-shows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cross-selling

Mutual Fund business from existing customers can be canvassed by cross selling. Cross-selling is the action or practice of selling an additional product or service to an existing customer. In practice, businesses define cross-selling in many different ways. Elements that might influence the definition might include the size of the business, the industry sector it operates within and the financial motivations of those required to define the term

124

Name the term used to denote the rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. Choose the most appropriate option. 

  1. ((a))

    Hyper-Inflation

  2. ((b))

    Inflation

  3. ((c))

    Deflation

  4. ((d))

    Stagflation

  5. ((e))

    Disinflation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inflation

The correct answer is Inflation.

Key Points

  • The term Inflation is used to denote the rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy.
  • Inflation refers to the change in the prices of a basket of goods and services in a year.
  • In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
  • In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices —
  • WPI (Wholesale Price Index)
  • CPI (Consumer Price Index)
  • The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics, etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.
  • The WPI measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.

Additional Information

  • Hyper-Inflation
  • ​It is a term to describe rapid, excessive, and out-of-control general price increases in an economy.
  • In general, the term is used when the rate of inflation increases by more than 50% a month.
  • It reduces purchasing power.
  • It rapidly destroys the real value of the local currency, as the prices of all goods increase.
  • Deflation
  • ​It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services.
  • When the overall price level decreases so that the inflation rate becomes negative, it is called deflation
  • Reduced investment spending by the government or individuals may also lead to this situation.
  • Deflation leads to a problem of increased unemployment due to slack in demand.
  • Stagflation
  • Stagflation means a situation characterized by a simultaneous increase in prices and stagnation of economic growth.
  • It is an economic cycle characterized by slow growth and a high unemployment rate accompanied by inflation.
  • Disinflation
  • Disinflation is defined as a decrease in the rate of inflation over a period of time.
  • It is used to describe situations where the inflation rate has decreased marginally over a short period of time.
125

Which of the following can be categorized under contingency product?

  1. ((a))

    Bank Deposits

  2. ((b))

    Shares

  3. ((c))

    Bonds

  4. ((d))

    Life Insurance

  5. ((e))

    Debentures

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Life Insurance

The correct answer is Life Assurance.

Key Points

  • Life Insurance can be categorized under contingency products.
  • Contingency is a possible future situation or event.
  • In a life insurance contract, the insurer pays a certain amount if the policyholder dies under certain conditions.
  • The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens.
  • If there is no contingency, no payment is made.
  • Therefore, it is a contingent contract.

Additional Information

  • Bank Deposits, Shares, Bonds, and Debentures do not depend on contingency.
  • ​It can be used whenever you want to use whether there is urgency or not.

Important Points

  • An insurance company provides insurance coverage based on identified risk variables, such as the policyholder's age, general health condition, occupation, and lifestyle.
  • The policyholder receives coverage within set parameters in return for payment of an insurance premium.
  • If a policyholder has high-risk factors, his premium would be more than his healthier counterpart.
126

Which of the following settles the consumer disputes at district level?

  1. ((a))

    Sessions Court

  2. ((b))

    District Court

  3. ((c))

    District Forum

  4. ((d))

    District Collector

  5. ((e))

    Gram Panchayat

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

District Forum

The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is one of the benevolent social legislation intended to protect the large body of consumers from exploitation. 

  • It has become the vehicle for enabling people to secure speedy and in-expensive Redressal of their grievances.
  • The Agencies are set up under the Consumer Protection Act 1986 at District, State, and National level to provide simple and inexpensive quick redressal against consumer complaints, where a Consumer can file a complaint in the consumer court against any defective goods purchased or deficient service rendered including restrictive/ unfair trade practice adopted by any trader/person within two years from the date on which cause of action arose.

Important Points The Agencies are as follows:

  • a Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as the "District Forum" established by the State Government in each district. This consumer court deals with complaints where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed is less than twenty lakhs.
  • a Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission to be known as the "State Commission" established by the State Government; This consumer court deals with complaints where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed exceeds rupees twenty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
  • a  National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission established by the Central Government, which deals with complaints where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed exceeds rupees one crore.

Thus, District Forum settles the consumer disputes at the district level.

127

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

  1. ((a))

    Certificate of Deposit

  2. ((b))

    Participatory Note

  3. ((c))

    Promissory Note

  4. ((d))

    More than one of Above

  5. ((e))

    None of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Participatory Note

The correct answer is the Participatory Note.

Key Points

  • P-Notes or Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets.
  • They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered.
  • Certificate of Deposit (CDs) is short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another.
  • The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.
  • These can be issued to individuals, co-operatives and companies.
  • Commercial paper, or CP, is a short-term debt instrument issued by companies to raise funds generally for a time period up to one year.
  • It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note and was introduced in India in 1990.
  • A promissory note is a financial instrument that contains a written promise by one party to pay another party a definite sum of money.
128

What is meant by 'Risk-Classification'? Choose the Most Appropriate Option.

  1. ((a))

    The Process, in which, Individual Lives are Categorised and Assigned to Different Risk-Classes, Depending on the Degree of Risks, they Pose.

  2. ((b))

    The Tendency of People, Who suspect or know that, their Chance of Experiencing a Loss is High, to seek-out the Insurance, Eagerly; and to gain in the Process.

  3. ((c))

    The Process of Evaluating Each Proposal for Life Assurance in Terms of the Degree of Risk, it represents; and then Deciding: Whether or Not to Grant the Insurance, and on What Terms. 

  4. ((d))

    The Process, in which, the Applicants, Who are Exposed to Similar Degrees of Risk, are Placed in the Same Premium-Class.

  5. ((e))

    Both 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Process, in which, Individual Lives are Categorised and Assigned to Different Risk-Classes, Depending on the Degree of Risks, they Pose.

The correct answer is The Process, in which, Individual Lives are Categorised and Assigned to Different Risk-Classes, Depending on the Degree of Risks, they Pose.

Key Points

  • An insurance company provides insurance coverage based on identified risk variables, such as the policyholder's age, general health condition, occupation, and lifestyle.
  • The policyholder receives coverage within set parameters in return for payment of an insurance premium.
  • An insurance risk class is a group of individuals or companies that have similar characteristics, which are used to determine the risk associated with underwriting a new policy and the premium that should be charged for coverage.
  • Risk-Classification is the process in which individual lives are categorized and assigned to different risk classes depending on the degree of risks they pose.
  • The insurance Risk Class is a primary component of deciding which policy is best suited to which individual.

Additional Information

  • Life insurance risk classifications are relatively uniform throughout the industry, with some minor variations. The most common classifications are-
  • Preferred Plus/Elite
  • It is the lowest-risk category.
  • People in this risk class are in good health and they are typically younger.
  • They have no other immediate cause for concern.
  • These people can expect to pay the lowest premiums for life insurance.
  • Preferred
  • This is a small step down from the preferred plus.
  • The policyholders enjoy lower premiums due to good health but may have some subtle issues like higher cholesterol.
  • Standard Plus
  • They have above-average health, but things like blood pressure or body mass index (BMI) may be outside the ideal range.
  • Premiums are more favorable than the Standard risk class but they may pay more than someone in the Preferred or Preferred Plus grouping.
  • Standard
  • This means typical risk, and for life insurers, it means an average life expectancy.
  • One can have some health issues in one's family or past, which keeps them out of more preferred risk groups, resulting in higher premiums.
  • Substandard/Rated
  • If you are classified as a higher risk than standard, you are subject to various degrees or ratings of substandard, which each insurer approaches a bit differently.
  • They have a below-average life expectancy.
  • Treatment for chronic illnesses or major health conditions (such as prior heart attack, cancer, or diabetes) may be going on.
  • Premiums may be among the highest rates.
  • Smoker
  • Smokers will pay significantly more due to increased health risks.
  • Insurers will ask if you smoke or have in the past several years and may test for the presence of nicotine in routine blood work.
129

Which of the following is an example of an endowment assurance plan?

  1. ((a))

    Credit Life Insurance Plan

  2. ((b))

    Money Back Plan

  3. ((c))

    Mortgage Redemption Plan

  4. ((d))

    Whole Life Plan

  5. ((e))

    None of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Money Back Plan

The correct answer is Money Back Plan.

Key Points

  • Money Back Plan is an example of an endowment assurance plan.
  • It is a type of life insurance product that provides the dual benefit of investment and protection.
  • One can receive returns at regular intervals during the policy term.
  • It also provides a life cover that keeps an insured person financially protected in case of an unfortunate event.
  • It pays out the same maturity benefits in the form of several guaranteed "survival benefits" which are staggered evenly throughout the course of the policy.

Additional Information

  • Credit life insurance is a type of life insurance policy designed to pay off a borrower's outstanding debts if the policyholder dies.
  • It can be used to pay off existing debts in cases such as death, disability, and in some cases, unemployment.
  • This is optional coverage. When purchased, the cost of the policy may be added to the principal amount of the loan.
  • Mortgage Redemption Plan is a pure protection term insurance policy catering to insure loans.
  • ​It is an insurance policy that provides financial protection for home loan borrowers.
  • ​If the life insured dies within the policy tenure, the lump sum assured is used to pay off all the outstanding loans and debts so that the family is not liable to pay any.
  • ​Whole life insurance guarantees payment of a death benefit to beneficiaries in exchange for level, regularly-due premium payments.
  • The insured person is covered for the duration of their life as long as premiums are paid on time.
130

‘SENSEX’ is the popular Index of Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). It is measured on the basis of how many blue chip companies listed in BSE?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

30

The correct answer is 30.

Key Points

  • SENSEX(SENSitve indEX) is a free-float market-weighted stock market index of 30 well-established and financially sound companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange.
  • It was introduced by the Bombay stock exchange on 1 January 1986.
  • The index is widely reported in both domestic and international markets through print as well as electronic media.
  • The index was initially calculated based on the "Full Market Capitalization" methodology but was shifted to the free-float methodology with effect from September 1, 2003.
  • The SENSEX is the benchmark index with wide acceptance among individual investors, institutional investors, foreign investors and fund managers.
  • The objectives of S&P BSE SENSEX-
  • To measure Market Movements
  • Benchmark for Funds Performance
  • For Index Based Derivatives Products
  • Blue Chip companies refer to equity shares of companies with larger market capitalisation. These companies have entrenched market operations running for many years.
131

Which of the following function is not related to RBI 

  1. ((a))

    Credit control

  2. ((b))

    Issue of currency notes

  3. ((c))

    Lending of money to public

  4. ((d))

    Lender of the money to commercial banks as a last resort

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lending of money to public

The correct answer is the Lending of money to the public.

Key Points

  • The lending of money to the public is not the function of RBI.
  • Reserve Bank of India
  • The Reserve Bank of India is India's central bank and regulatory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • It is responsible for the issue and supply of the Indian rupee and the regulation of the Indian banking system.
  • Key functions of RBI are, banker's bank, the custodian of the foreign reserve, controller of credit, and managing the printing and supply of currency notes in the country.
  • Major functions of the RBI are as follows:
  • Issue of Bank Notes
  • Banker to Government
  • Custodian of Cash Reserves of Commercial Banks
  • Custodian of Country's Foreign Currency Reserves
  • Lender of Last Resort
  • Central Clearance and Accounts Settlement
  • Controller of Credit (Controlling Inflation) Banking Supervision
132

Which one of the following is not the objective of financial inclusion?

  1. ((a))

    To extend financial services to poor population

  2. ((b))

    To unlock the door of growth potential of weaker section

  3. ((c))

    Shrinking of banking infrastructure

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

  5. ((e))

    ​​None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shrinking of banking infrastructure

The correct answer is Shrinking of banking infrastructure.

Key Points

  • Financial inclusion:
  • Financial inclusion may be stated as the process of ensuring access to financial services and timely and adequate credit where required by vulnerable groups such as weaker sections and low-income groups at an affordable cost.
  • In a country like India, financial inclusion is a critical part of the growth process.
  • Since independence, the combined efforts of successive governments, regulatory institutions, and civil society have helped in increasing the financial inclusion net in the country.
  • The state of financial inclusion has repaired considerably over time.
  • However, financial inclusion hasn’t reached the poorest of the poor and there exist many stoppages and challenges which need immediate attention.
  • Thus, there exists both a great need and the believable to tap into the unbanked population and bring them into the financial net.
  • Objective of financial inclusion
  • To extend financial services to poor population.
  • To unlock the door of growth potential of weaker section.
  • To extend financial sector into rural areas.
133

Which of the following departments is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs)?

  1. ((a))

    Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)

  2. ((b))

    Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)

  3. ((c))

    Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)

  4. ((d))

    The Department of Financial Services (DFS)

  5. ((e))

    Both 1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The Department of Financial Services (DFS)

The correct answer is The Department of Financial Services (DFS).

Key Points

  • The Department of Financial Services (DFS) is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
  • The Department of Financial Services (DFS) is responsible for issues relating to
  • Public Sector Banks,
  • Development Financial Institutions (NABARD, NHB, EXIM, SIDBI etc.)
  • Agricultural Credit,
  • Public Sector Insurance Companies
  • Pension Reforms

Important Points

  • Department of Financial Services (DFS)
  • It is one of the five departments of the Ministry of Finance.
  • It is responsible for Initiatives and reforms relating to Financial Inclusion, Social Security, and Insurance as a Risk Transfer mechanism.
  • He also observes the credit flow to key sectors of the economy/farmers/common man.
  • The key flagship schemes being currently run/managed by DFS are Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) etc.

Additional Information

  • Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)
  • FIU-IND has launched Project FinNet - Financial Intelligence Network to "adopt appropriate technology to collect, analyze, and disseminate valuable financial information to combat money laundering and related crimes."
  • Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)
  • ​TPDS was launched by gov in June 1997 with a focus on the poor.
  • Under TPDS, beneficiaries were divided into Households below the poverty line or BPL and Households above the poverty line or APL.
  • Centralized Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
  • It is an online platform available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery.
  • It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India and States.
  • It comes under the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
134

What is the full form of FEMA ?

  1. ((a))

    Funds Exchange Media Agency

  2. ((b))

    Foreign Exchange Management Act

  3. ((c))

    Finance and Export Management Association

  4. ((d))

    Foreign Export Market Agency

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Foreign Exchange Management Act

The correct answer is Foreign Exchange Management Act.

Key Points

  • FEMA stands for Foreign Exchange Management Act.
  • Foreign Exchange Management Act is an act to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating external trade and payments and promoting the orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India.
  • This act extends to the whole of India.
  • The act was passed in parliament on 29th December 1999.
  • The act replaced the existing Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA).
  • Offenses involving foreign exchange are now classified as civil offences under Foreign Exchange Management Act.
  • It also prepared the way for the passage of the Money Laundering Prevention Act of 2002, which took effect on July 1, 2005.
135

The headquarter of the Agriculture Insurance Company Limited is situated in ________. 

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi 

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai 

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata 

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru 

  5. ((e))

    Chennai 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Delhi 

  • The headquarter of the Agriculture Insurance Company Limited is situated in New Delhi.
  • The Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited is a specialized insurance company that is focused on providing crop-yield based insurance and weather-based insurance schemes in India.
  • It was established in 2002.
136

Insurance law in India had its origins in the United Kingdom with the establishment of a British firm ________ in 1818.

  1. ((a))

    Bombay Life Assurance Company

  2. ((b))

    The Madras Equitable Life Insurance Society

  3. ((c))

    Aegon Life Insurance Company Limited

  4. ((d))

    Peerless Group

  5. ((e))

    The Oriental Life Insurance Company

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

The Oriental Life Insurance Company

Insurance law in India had its origins in the United Kingdom with the establishment of a British firm, the Oriental Life Insurance Company in 1818 in Calcutta, followed by the Bombay Life Assurance Company in 1823, the Madras Equitable Life Insurance Society in 1829. However, till the establishment of the Bombay Mutual Life Assurance Society in 1871, Indians were charged an extra premium of up to 20% as compared to the British and it was the 1st Indian insurer.

137

When was the Pilot crop Insurance Scheme first Launched?

  1. ((a))
  2. ((b))
  3. ((c))
  4. ((d))
  5. ((e))
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 1979.

  • Pilot Crop Insurance Scheme (PCIS) 1979-1984 was launched by the General Insurance Corporation (GIC) in 1979, which was based on the “Area Approach” for providing insurance cover against a deficit in crop yield below the threshold level.
  • This scheme covered cereals, millets, oilseeds, cotton, potato and chickpea.
  • The PCIS was implemented in 12 states and covered 6.23 lakh farmers for a premium of Rs. 195.01 lakh against claims of Rs. 155.68 lakh during 1984-85.
138

What does the line means “Life Insurance Policies become paperless”?

  1. ((a))

    In future LIC will not ask any person to show any paper document

  2. ((b))

    LIC will not provide any documents

  3. ((c))

    LIC will provide all documents and policy certificates in electronic form

  4. ((d))

    LIC will not insure any person here after as it has already reached its peak

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

LIC will provide all documents and policy certificates in electronic form

The correct answer is LIC will provide all documents and policy certificates in electronic form

Important Points

  • The Corporation is close to signing a Rs 1100 crore Electronic Data Management System (EDMS) contract with a consortium-led by global IT major Hewlett-Packard (HP) that will transfer it to the paperless world by 2010.

Key Points

  • eIA is the portfolio of insurance policies of a policyholder held in an electronic form with an insurance repository (IR). This will help an eIA holder keep track of insurance policies (life as well as non-life) across multiple insurers in one place. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Irdai) has allowed four entities to carry out IR business: NSDL National Insurance Repository (NIR), CDSL Insurance Repository, KARVI Insurance Repository and CAMS Insurance Repository.
139

Which section of the Indian Insurance Act 1938 provides for nomination of a person?

  1. ((a))

    Section 39

  2. ((b))

    Section 38

  3. ((c))

    Section 37

  4. ((d))

    Section 36

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Section 39

  • Nomination of a person is provided under Section 39 of the Indian Insurance Act 1938.
  • The Insurance Act has 120 Sections and 8 Schedules.
  • The Insurance Act to govern both Life Insurance and Non-Life Insurance was passed in 1938.
140

Insurance companies’ ability to pay the claims of policyholders is termed as _______

  1. ((a))

    Retrospective Rating

  2. ((b))

    credit life

  3. ((c))

    Solvency

  4. ((d))

    Schedule

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Solvency

  • Insurance companies’ ability to pay the claims of policyholders is termed as Solvency.
  • An insurer to remain solvent must have enough funds to meet obligations for his present and future claims that are made against the insurer.
  • If an insurer does not have the funds to meet his/her obligations, then the insurer is termed as insolvent.

 

TermDefinition
Retrospective RatingIt is policy where the premium paid to insurer changes according to the losses experienced by an insurer.
ScheduleIt gives details of policy holder and what amount of coverage is provided by his/her policy.
credit lifeIt is type of insurance in which insurer will pay off the policy holder’s borrowers usually in case of his/her death or any disability to the policy holder.
141

How many days does it take to open an e-Insurance account after all the necessary formalities are completed?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    15

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7

  • e-IA stands for e-Insurance Account or “Electronic Insurance Account”.
  • lt safeguards the insurance policy documents of policyholders in electronic format.
  • This e-Insurance account  facilitatse the policyholder by providing access to the insurance portfolio instantly wth internet access.
  • IRDA has granted the Certificate of Registration to four entities that are authorized to open e-Insurance Accounts.
  • These are NSDL Database Management Limited,Central Insurance Repository Limited.Karvy Insurance Repository Limited,CAMS Repository Services Limite
  • An e-Insurance account opens within 7days from the date of submission of application.
  • It is a unique Account number with 13 digit and each account holder will be granted a unique Login ID and Password.
142

The amount of risk retained by an insurance company that is not re-insured is called

  1. ((a))

    Retention risk

  2. ((b))

    Uninsurable risk

  3. ((c))

    Insurable risk

  4. ((d))

    Reinsure

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Retention risk

  • Retention Risk is a company's decision to take responsibility for a particular risk it faces, as opposed to transferring the risk over to an insurance company.
  • Companies often retain risks when they believe that the cost of doing so is less than the cost of fully or partially insuring against it.
  • If a company retains a certain risk, it will have to pay for losses from that risk out of its own reserve funds.
  • Companies prefer to retain risks if the premiums for insuring against it are particularly high.
  • For this reason, it is important for companies to make sure that they can properly afford to pay for potential losses before they make the decision to retain particular risks.
143

The IRDA board can consist of a maximum of how many members?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

  • The Government of India appoints the members of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
  • It has a 10-member body, comprising a chairman, 4 part-time members and 5 full-time members, all of whom are appointed by the Government of India.
  • IRDAI is a statutory, autonomous body which is tasked with promoting and regulating the Indian insurance industries.
  • It was constituted by the IRDAI Act, 1999, passed by the Government of India.
144

What is the Maximum accident insurance cover for account holders of PMJDY Accounts?

  1. ((a))

    3 Lakhs

  2. ((b))

     2 Lakhs

  3. ((c))

    1 Lakhs

  4. ((d))

    50,000 Rupees

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 2 Lakhs

The Correct answer is  2 Lakhs.

Key Points

  • Maximum accident insurance cover for account holders of PMJDY Accounts is Rs. 2 Lakhs.

Additional Information

  • The Government has decided to extend the comprehensive PMJDY program beyond 28/8/2018 with the change in focus on opening accounts from “every household” to “every adult”, with the following modification:

     (i) Existing Over Draft (OD) limit of Rs. 5,000 revised to Rs. 10,000.

     (ii) No conditions attached for active PMJDY accounts availing OD up to Rs. 2,000.

     (iii) Age limit for availing OD facility revised from 18-60 years to 18-65 years.

     (iv) The accidental insurance cover for new RuPay card holders raised from existing Rs.1 lakh to Rs. 2 lakh to new PMJDY accounts opened after 28th August 2018.

  • PMJDY stands for Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna.
  • It is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner.
  • It is important as it provides an avenue to the poor for bringing their savings into the formal financial system, an avenue to remit money to their families in villages besides taking them out of the clutches of the usurious money lenders.

 

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna (PMJDY), which is one of the biggest financial inclusion initiatives in the world.
  • It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 28, 2014.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has been the foundation stone for the Modi government’s people-centric economic initiatives. Whether it is direct benefit transfers, COVID-19 financial assistance, PM-KISAN, increased wages under MGNREGA, life and health insurance cover, the first step was to provide every adult with a bank account.
  • Objectives:
  • Ensure access to financial products & services at an affordable cost.
  • Use of technology to lower cost & widen reach.
145

________ recommended inclusion of private players in the insurance sector.

  1. ((a))

    R.N. Malhotra committee 

  2. ((b))

    P.J. Nayak committee 

  3. ((c))

    Y.V. Reddy committee 

  4. ((d))

    S.C. Khuntia committee 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R.N. Malhotra committee 

R.N. Malhotra committeeReforms in the Insurance Sector (1993)
Key RecommendationsPrivate players should be included in the insurance sector
Foreign companies should be allowed to enter the insurance sector, preferably through joint ventures with Indian partners.
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) be constituted as an autonomous body to regulate and develop the insurance sector.
146

Which of the following is largest Life Insurance Company in India?

  1. ((a))

    The New India Assurance Company Limited

  2. ((b))

    United India Insurance Company Limited

  3. ((c))

    ​Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)

  4. ((d))

    National Insurance Company Limited

  5. ((e))

    The New India Assurance Co. Ltd

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

​Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)

The correct answer is Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).

  1. Life Insurance Corporation of India
  2. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
  3. Max Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Delhi 2000
  4. ICICI Prudential Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2000
  5. Kotak Mahindra Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2001
  6. Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2000
  7. TATA AIA Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2001
  8. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2001
  9. Exide Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Bangalore 2001
  10. Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Pune 2001
  11. PNB MetLife India Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2001
  12. Reliance Nippon Life Insurance Company Private Mumbai 2001
  13. Aviva Life Insurance Company India Ltd. Private Gurugram 2002
  14. Sahara India Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Lucknow 2004
  15. Shriram Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Hyderabad 2005
  16. Bharti AXA Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2008
  17. Future Generali India Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2007
  18. IDBI Federal Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2008
  19. Canara HSBC Oriental Bank of Commerce Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Gurugram 2008
  20. Aegon Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Private Mumbai 2008
  21. Pramerica Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
  22. Star Union Dai-Ichi Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
  23. IndiaFirst Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
  24. Edelweiss Tokio Life I nsurance Co. Ltd.
147

Which of the following organizations provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters?

  1. ((a))

    ECGC

  2. ((b))

    IRDA

  3. ((c))

    LIC

  4. ((d))

    GIC Re

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ECGC

The Correct Answer is ECGC.

ECGC is responsible for providing export credit insurance support to Indian exporters.

Additional information about ECGC:

ECGCExport Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
Set up in1957
ObjectiveTo provide Credit Risk Insurance and related services for exports
Chairman cum Managing DirectorSmt. Geetha Muralidhar
148

When all the benefits of insurance policy get terminated due to non-payment of premium, then the policy is said to be __________ .

  1. ((a))

    Paid up

  2. ((b))

    Graced

  3. ((c))

    Charged

  4. ((d))

    Lapsed

  5. ((e))

    Canceled

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lapsed

  • The term itself means "lapse in coverage” .
  • All benefits to the policy holder ceased and is terminated due to non-payment of premium amount on the due date or even after the grace period is called a lapsed policy.

          A lapsed policy may be revived by fulfilling the terms and conditions as per the policy statement.

149

Insurance Repository is a company formed and registered under which act?

  1. ((a))

    Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

  2. ((b))

    Companies Act, 1956

  3. ((c))

    The IRDA Act 1999

  4. ((d))

    Banking and Insurance Companies Act, 1949

  5. ((e))

    Insurance Act, 1938

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Companies Act, 1956

  • Insurance Repository is a company formed and registered under the Companies Act, 1956.
  • It grants a certificate of registration issued by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) of India for maintaining data of insurance policies in Electronic form on behalf of Insurers.
  • The Insurance Repositories provides the ease of holding insurance policies issued in an electronic form.
150

The tagline of IDBI Bank is _____

  1. ((a))

    Taking Banking Technology to Common Man

  2. ((b))

    Build A Better Life Around Us

  3. ((c))

    Your Trusted Family Bank

  4. ((d))

    Together we Can

  5. ((e))

    Aao Sochein Bada

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Aao Sochein Bada

The tagline of IDBI Bank is 'Aao Sochein Bada'. It was established in 1964

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