Official Paper

LIC AAO Mains Memory Based Test 2019 (Held on 28 June 2019) (Previous Year Paper)

120 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning Ability (30 questions)

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are seven people - A, F, J, N, R, U, and Z who like different movies - 3 Idiots, Sholay, Veer, Sultan, Zero, Hero, and War. Each one of them went to a cinema hall to watch their favourite movies on different days of the same week, starting from Monday to Sunday. No two people went to the cinema hall on the same day. 

N didn't go on Thursday. Only four people went before the one who likes Veer movie. Only one person went to watch a movie between J and the one who likes Veer movie. J was not the last person to watch a movie. Z went to watch a movie two days before J who does not like 3 Idiots. Three people went to watch the movie between A and the one who likes 3 Idiots. A neither likes Veer nor went to watch a movie immediately after Z. F went to watch a movie three days before N who likes Hero movie. R went to watch a movie immediately after the one who likes Zero movie. Z neither likes Zero nor Sholay movie. The one who likes Sultan movie went after the one who likes Sholay movie.

1

Who among the following likes War movie?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    U

  5. ((e))

    Z

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Z

7 people: A, F, J, N, R, U, and Z

7 movies: 3 Idiots, Sholay, Veer, Sultan, Zero, Hero, and War

Days of the week: Monday to Sunday.

  1. N didn't go on Thursday.

  2. Only four people went before the one who likes Veer movie.

  3. Only one person went to watch a movie between J and the one who likes Veer movie.

  4. J was not the last person to watch a movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayJ
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
Saturday
Sunday

 

  1. Z went to watch a movie two days before J who does not like 3 Idiots.

  2. Three people went to watch the movie between A and the one who likes 3 Idiots.

  3. A neither likes Veer nor went to watch a movie immediately after Z.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZ
Tuesday3 Idiots
WednesdayJ3 Idiots
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
SaturdayA
Sunday

 

  1. F went to watch a movie three days before N who likes Hero movie.

  2. R went to watch a movie immediately after the one who likes Zero movie.

  3. Z neither likes Zero nor Sholay movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZSholay
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJ
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayA
SundayNHero

 

  1. The one who likes Sultan movie went after the one who likes Sholay movie.
Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZWar
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJSholay
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayASultan
SundayNHero

 

Hence, Z likes War movie.

2

Which of the following movie does A like?

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Sholay

  3. ((c))

    Sultan

  4. ((d))

    3 Idiots

  5. ((e))

    War

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sultan

7 people: A, F, J, N, R, U, and Z

7 movies: 3 Idiots, Sholay, Veer, Sultan, Zero, Hero, and War

Days of the week: Monday to Sunday.

  1. N didn't go on Thursday.

  2. Only four people went before the one who likes Veer movie.

  3. Only one person went to watch a movie between J and the one who likes Veer movie.

  4. J was not the last person to watch a movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayJ
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
Saturday
Sunday

 

  1. Z went to watch a movie two days before J who does not like 3 Idiots.

  2. Three people went to watch the movie between A and the one who likes 3 Idiots.

  3. A neither likes Veer nor went to watch a movie immediately after Z.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZ
Tuesday3 Idiots
WednesdayJ3 Idiots
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
SaturdayA
Sunday

 

  1. F went to watch a movie three days before N who likes Hero movie.

  2. R went to watch a movie immediately after the one who likes Zero movie.

  3. Z neither likes Zero nor Sholay movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZSholay
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJ
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayA
SundayNHero

 

  1. The one who likes Sultan movie went after the one who likes Sholay movie.
Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZWar
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJSholay
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayASultan
SundayNHero

 

Hence, A likes Sultan movie.

3

How many people went to watch a movie after the one who likes 3 Idiots?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

7 people: A, F, J, N, R, U, and Z

7 movies: 3 Idiots, Sholay, Veer, Sultan, Zero, Hero, and War

Days of the week: Monday to Sunday.

  1. N didn't go on Thursday.

  2. Only four people went before the one who likes Veer movie.

  3. Only one person went to watch a movie between J and the one who likes Veer movie.

  4. J was not the last person to watch a movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayJ
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
Saturday
Sunday

 

  1. Z went to watch a movie two days before J who does not like 3 Idiots.

  2. Three people went to watch the movie between A and the one who likes 3 Idiots.

  3. A neither likes Veer nor went to watch a movie immediately after Z.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZ
Tuesday3 Idiots
WednesdayJ3 Idiots
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
SaturdayA
Sunday

 

  1. F went to watch a movie three days before N who likes Hero movie.

  2. R went to watch a movie immediately after the one who likes Zero movie.

  3. Z neither likes Zero nor Sholay movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZSholay
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJ
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayA
SundayNHero

 

  1. The one who likes Sultan movie went after the one who likes Sholay movie.
Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZWar
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJSholay
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayASultan
SundayNHero

 

Hence, five people went to watch a movie after the one who likes 3 Idiots.

4

On which of the following day did N go to watch a movie?

  1. ((a))

    Tuesday

  2. ((b))

    Wednesday

  3. ((c))

    Friday

  4. ((d))

    Saturday

  5. ((e))

    Sunday

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Sunday

7 people: A, F, J, N, R, U, and Z

7 movies: 3 Idiots, Sholay, Veer, Sultan, Zero, Hero, and War

Days of the week: Monday to Sunday.

  1. N didn't go on Thursday.

  2. Only four people went before the one who likes the Veer movie.

  3. Only one person went to watch a movie between J and the one who likes Veer movie.

  4. J was not the last person to watch a movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayJ
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
Saturday
Sunday

 

  1. Z went to watch a movie two days before J who does not like 3 Idiots.

  2. Three people went to watch the movie between A and the one who likes 3 Idiots.

  3. A neither likes Veer nor went to watch a movie immediately after Z.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZ
Tuesday3 Idiots
WednesdayJ3 Idiots
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
SaturdayA
Sunday

 

  1. F went to watch a movie three days before N who likes Hero movie.

  2. R went to watch a movie immediately after the one who likes Zero movie.

  3. Z neither likes Zero nor Sholay movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZSholay
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJ
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayA
SundayNHero

 

  1. The one who likes Sultan movie went after the one who likes Sholay movie.
Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZWar
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJSholay
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayASultan
SundayNHero

 

Hence, N went on Sunday to watch a movie.

5

Which of the following combination is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Monday - F - 3 Idiots

  2. ((b))

    Tuesday - U - Sholay

  3. ((c))

    Thursday - J - Zero

  4. ((d))

    Friday - R - Veer

  5. ((e))

    Saturday - A - Sholay

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Friday - R - Veer

7 people: A, F, J, N, R, U, and Z

7 movies: 3 Idiots, Sholay, Veer, Sultan, Zero, Hero, and War

Days of the week: Monday to Sunday.

  1. N didn't go on Thursday.

  2. Only four people went before the one who likes Veer movie.

  3. Only one person went to watch a movie between J and the one who likes Veer movie.

  4. J was not the last person to watch a movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayJ
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
Saturday
Sunday

 

  1. Z went to watch a movie two days before J who does not like 3 Idiots.

  2. Three people went to watch the movie between A and the one who likes 3 Idiots.

  3. A neither likes Veer nor went to watch a movie immediately after Z.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZ
Tuesday3 Idiots
WednesdayJ3 Idiots
ThursdayN
FridayVeer
SaturdayA
Sunday

 

  1. F went to watch a movie three days before N who likes Hero movie.

  2. R went to watch a movie immediately after the one who likes Zero movie.

  3. Z neither likes Zero nor Sholay movie.

Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZSholay
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJ
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayA
SundayNHero

 

  1. The one who likes Sultan movie went after the one who likes Sholay movie.
Days of the weekPeopleMovie
MondayZWar
TuesdayU3 Idiots
WednesdayJSholay
ThursdayFZero
FridayRVeer
SaturdayASultan
SundayNHero

 

Hence, "Friday - R - Veer" is the correct answer.

6

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given some conclusion is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly:

Statement:

E < K < O ≤ I ≤ W = Y > P ≥ A < L < D < F ≥ T ≥ H

Conclusions:

I. W > K

II. Y > D 

III. I < A

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I is True

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II is True

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III is True

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and II is True

  5. ((e))

    Both Conclusion I and III is True

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I is True

Given Statement:

E < K < O ≤ I ≤ W = Y > P ≥ A < L < D < F ≥ T ≥ H

Conclusions:

I. W > K → True (K < O ≤ I ≤ W → K < W)

II. Y > D → False (Y > P ≥ A < L < D, as definite relationship between Y and D cannot be determined).

III. I < A → False (I ≤ W = Y > P ≥ A, as definite relationship between I and A cannot be determined).

Hence, Only Conclusion I is True.

7

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given some conclusion is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly:

Statement:

J > K ≥ L ≥ W < O = T > H < S ≤ A = V > B > E < R ≤ M ≤ N

Conclusions:

I. S < N

II. K ≥ H 

III. A > R

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I is True

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II is True

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusion I and II is True

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion II and III is True

  5. ((e))

    None of the Conclusion is True

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of the Conclusion is True

Given Statement:

J > K ≥ L ≥ W < O = T > H < S ≤ A = V > B > E < R ≤ M ≤ N

Conclusions:

I. S < N → False (S ≤ A = V > B > E < R ≤ M ≤ N, as definite relationship between S and N cannot be determined).

II. K ≥ H → False (K ≥ L ≥ W < O = T > H, as definite relationship between K and H cannot be determined).

III. A > R → False (A = V > B > E < R, as definite relationship between A and R cannot be determined).

Hence, None of the Conclusion is True.

8

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given some conclusion is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly:

Statement:

D > K > L = T ≥ Q ≥ Y < A < O = V < M ≤ R ≤ S > W > X = Z

Conclusions:

I. L > R 

II. S > A

III. X > T

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I is True

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II is True

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III is True

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and III is True

  5. ((e))

    Both Conclusion I and II is True

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only Conclusion II is True

Given Statement:

D > K > L = T ≥ Q ≥ Y < A < O = V < M ≤ R ≤ S > W > X = Z

Conclusions:

I. L > R → False (L = T ≥ Q ≥ Y < A < O = V < M ≤ R, as definite relationship between L and R cannot be determined).

II. S > A → True (A < O = V < M ≤ R ≤ S → A < S).

III. X > T → False (T ≥ Q ≥ Y < A < O = V < M ≤ R ≤ S > W > X, as definite relationship between X and T cannot be determined).

Hence, Only Conclusion II is True.

9

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given some conclusion is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly:

Statement:

D < K < L = I > T > S > H = P ≥ W > O ≥ Y > A < R > Z

Conclusions:

I. L > W 

II. H = O 

III. T > A

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I is True

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II is True

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III is True

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and III is True

  5. ((e))

    All Conclusion I, II and III is True

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both Conclusion I and III is True

Given Statement:

D < K < L = I > T > S > H = P ≥ W > O ≥ Y > A < R > Z

Conclusions:

I. L > W → True (L = I > T > S > H = P ≥ W → L > W)

II. H = O → False (H = P ≥ W > O → H > O)

III. T > A → True (T > S > H = P ≥ W > O ≥ Y > A → T > A)

Hence, Both Conclusion I and III is True

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

A family consists of eight members Divya, Uma, Chetan, Bhavya, Sundar, Prasanna, Sindhu, Dinesh are sitting on a circular table. The equal numberof persons are facing inside and outside the table.

Sundar is sitting immediate right to his son and both are facing in the opposite direction.Chetan is the son-in-law of Sindhu who is the mother of two children.Dinesh is sitting third to the left of Uma who has a grandson.Uma who is facing outside the table is a daughter-in-law of Prasanna and only three persons are sitting between them.Mother of Dinesh is sitting immediate left of Bhavya and facing in the same direction her son.Divya is sitting opposite to her husband who is the grandson of Prasanna.Only two persons are sitting between Bhavya and Prasanna.

Chetan is sitting third to the right of Sundar, both are facing in the same direction.Bhavya is the sister in law of Chetan is sitting second to the right of her mother.

10

Who is the husband of Uma?

  1. ((a))

    Bhavya

  2. ((b))

    Dinesh

  3. ((c))

    Prasanna

  4. ((d))

    Chetan

  5. ((e))

    Unmarried

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chetan

  1. Uma who is facing outside the table is a daughter-in-law of Prasanna and only three persons are sitting between them.

 

  1. Only two persons are sitting between Bhavya and Prasanna.
  2. Dinesh is sitting third to the left of Uma who has a grandson.

 

 

  1. Chetan is the son-in-law of Sindhu who is the mother of two children.
  2. Bhavya is the sister in law of Chetan is sitting second tothe right of her mother.

 

 

 

  1. Chetan is sitting third to the right of Sundar, both are facing in the same direction.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Divya is sitting opposite to her husband who is the grandson of Prasanna.

So, Case case 3 is eliminated

  1. Sundar is sitting immediate right to his son and both are facing in the opposite direction.

Prasanna cannot be the son of Sundar Dinesh and from statement 7,Divya is 3rd generation so she cannot be the wife of Chetan.

Therefore case1, case2.1 and case 3 are eliminated.

 

 

Sundar is the father of Dinesh.

So, case 3.1 gets eliminate

  1. Mother of Dinesh is sitting immediate left of Bhavya and facing in the same direction as her son.

Case 1.1 is eliminated.

Sindhu is having two children so Uma and Bhavya are daughters of sindhu.

Final arrangement,

The correct answer is Chetan.

11

How Dinesh is related to Sindhu?

  1. ((a))

    Son

  2. ((b))

    Son in law

  3. ((c))

    Great-grandson

  4. ((d))

    Brother

  5. ((e))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Great-grandson

  1. Uma who is facing outside the table is a daughter-in-law of Prasanna and only three persons are sitting between them.

 

  1. Only two persons are sitting between Bhavya and Prasanna.
  2. Dinesh is sitting third to the left of Uma who has a grandson.

 

 

  1. Chetan is the son-in-law of Sindhu who is the mother of two children.
  2. Bhavya is the sister in law of Chetan is sitting second tothe right of her mother.

 

 

 

  1. Chetan is sitting third to the right of Sundar, both are facing in the same direction.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Divya is sitting opposite to her husband who is the grandson of Prasanna.

So, Case case 3 is eliminated

  1. Sundar is sitting immediate right to his son and both are facing in the opposite direction.

Prasanna cannot be the son of Sundar Dinesh and from statement 7,Divya is 3rd generation so she cannot be the wife of Chetan.

Therefore case1, case2.1 and case 3 are eliminated.

 

 

Sundar is the father of Dinesh.

So, case 3.1 gets eliminate

  1. Mother of Dinesh is sitting immediate left of Bhavya and facing in the same direction as her son.

Case 1.1 is eliminated.

Sindhu is having two children so Uma and Bhavya are daughters of sindhu.

Final arrangement,

Dinesh is the great-grandson of Sindhu.

12

Who is sitting immediate left of the son of Chetan?

  1. ((a))

    Sindhu

  2. ((b))

    Bhavya

  3. ((c))

    Prasanna

  4. ((d))

    Sundar

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sindhu

  1. Uma who is facing outside the table is a daughter-in-law of Prasanna and only three persons are sitting between them.

 

  1. Only two persons are sitting between Bhavya and Prasanna.
  2. Dinesh is sitting third to the left of Uma who has a grandson.

 

 

  1. Chetan is the son-in-law of Sindhu who is the mother of two children.
  2. Bhavya is the sister in law of Chetan is sitting second tothe right of her mother.

 

 

 

  1. Chetan is sitting third to the right of Sundar, both are facing in the same direction.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Divya is sitting opposite to her husband who is the grandson of Prasanna.

So, Case case 3 is eliminated

  1. Sundar is sitting immediate right to his son and both are facing in the opposite direction.

Prasanna cannot be the son of Sundar Dinesh and from statement 7,Divya is 3rd generation so she cannot be the wife of Chetan.

Therefore case1, case2.1 and case 3 are eliminated.

 

 

Sundar is the father of Dinesh.

So, case 3.1 gets eliminate

  1. Mother of Dinesh is sitting immediate left of Bhavya and facing in the same direction as her son.

Case 1.1 is eliminated.

Sindhu is having two children so Uma and Bhavya are daughters of sindhu.

Final arrangement,

The correct answer is Sindhu.

13

Who is sitting between Divya and brother in law of Bhavya?

  1. ((a))

    Uma

  2. ((b))

    Prasanna

  3. ((c))

    Sindhu

  4. ((d))

    Sundar

  5. ((e))

    No one

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No one

  1. Uma who is facing outside the table is a daughter-in-law of Prasanna and only three persons are sitting between them.

 

  1. Only two persons are sitting between Bhavya and Prasanna.
  2. Dinesh is sitting third to the left of Uma who has a grandson.

 

 

  1. Chetan is the son-in-law of Sindhu who is the mother of two children.
  2. Bhavya is the sister in law of Chetan is sitting second tothe right of her mother.

 

 

 

  1. Chetan is sitting third to the right of Sundar, both are facing in the same direction.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Divya is sitting opposite to her husband who is the grandson of Prasanna.

So, Case case 3 is eliminated

  1. Sundar is sitting immediate right to his son and both are facing in the opposite direction.

Prasanna cannot be the son of Sundar Dinesh and from statement 7,Divya is 3rd generation so she cannot be the wife of Chetan.

Therefore case1, case2.1 and case 3 are eliminated.

 

 

Sundar is the father of Dinesh.

So, case 3.1 gets eliminate

  1. Mother of Dinesh is sitting immediate left of Bhavya and facing in the same direction as her son.

Case 1.1 is eliminated.

Sindhu is having two children so Uma and Bhavya are daughters of sindhu.

Final arrangement,

Divya and Chetan are neighbours so no one is sitting between them.

14

Bhavya is married to whom among them?

  1. ((a))

    Unmarried

  2. ((b))

    Prasanna

  3. ((c))

    Sundar

  4. ((d))

    Dinesh

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unmarried

  1. Uma who is facing outside the table is a daughter-in-law of Prasanna and only three persons are sitting between them.

 

  1. Only two persons are sitting between Bhavya and Prasanna.
  2. Dinesh is sitting third to the left of Uma who has a grandson.

 

 

  1. Chetan is the son-in-law of Sindhu who is the mother of two children.
  2. Bhavya is the sister in law of Chetan is sitting second tothe right of her mother.

 

 

 

  1. Chetan is sitting third to the right of Sundar, both are facing in the same direction.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Divya is sitting opposite to her husband who is the grandson of Prasanna.

So, Case case 3 is eliminated

  1. Sundar is sitting immediate right to his son and both are facing in the opposite direction.

Prasanna cannot be the son of Sundar Dinesh and from statement 7,Divya is 3rd generation so she cannot be the wife of Chetan.

Therefore case1, case2.1 and case 3 are eliminated.

 

 

Sundar is the father of Dinesh.

So, case 3.1 gets eliminate

  1. Mother of Dinesh is sitting immediate left of Bhavya and facing in the same direction as her son.

Case 1.1 is eliminated.

Sindhu is having two children so Uma and Bhavya are daughters of sindhu.

Final arrangement,

Bhavya is unmarried.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Each of the six stores P, Q, R, S, T, and U sold a different number of books in one day. Only three stores sold less books than U. P sold more books than R. T did not sell the highest number of books. S sold more books than R and P but less than U. The store which sold the second-highest number of books sold 72 books.

15

How many books did Q probably sell?

  1. ((a))

    43

  2. ((b))

    58

  3. ((c))

    71

  4. ((d))

    65

  5. ((e))

    89

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

89

  1. Only three stores sold less books than U

  2. S sold more books than R and P but less than U

  3. P sold more books than R

    >   > U > S > P > R

  1. T did not sell the highest number of books

Q > T > U > S > P > R

It is given that the store which sold the second-highest number of books sold 72 books. From above it is clear that store T sold the second-highest number of books. So, store Q sold the highest number of books.

By option, we can say store Q sold 89 books because 72 is the second highest.

16

Which of the following stores sold the second lowest number of books?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

P

  1. Only three stores sold less books than U

  2. S sold more books than R and P but less than U

  3. P sold more books than R

    >   > U > S > P > R

  1. T did not sell the highest number of books

Q > T > U > S > P > R

 Hence, P sold the second lowest number of books.

17

If total number of books sold by P and T is 125, then how many books did store P sell?

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    53

  3. ((c))

    76

  4. ((d))

    68

  5. ((e))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

53

  1. Only three stores sold less books than U

  2. S sold more books than R and P but less than U

  3. P sold more books than R

    >   > U > S > P > R

  1. T did not sell the highest number of books

Q > T > U > S > P > R

Given; P + T = 125, and T = 72

P + 72 = 125

P = 125 - 72 = 53

Hence, store P sold 53 books.

18

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Apple are Sweet.

Only a few Sweet are Bitter.

Only a few Bitter are Tasty.

Conclusions:

I. Some Sweet are not Bitter.

II. Some Tasty are Bitter.

III. All Apple being Sweet is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and III follows

  5. ((e))

    All Conclusion follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All Conclusion follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Sweet are not Bitter → True (As, Only a few Sweet are Bitter is given which means Some Sweet are Bitter and Some Sweet are not Bitter).

II. Some Tasty are Bitter → True (As, Only a few Bitter are Tasty is given, which means Some Bitter are Tasty and Some Bitter are not Tasty, which also shows that Some Tasty are Bitter).

III. All Apple being Sweet is a possibility  → True (The possibility is true, as shown below).

Hence, All Conclusion follows.

19

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts

Statements:

Some Deserts are Warm.

Only a few Warm are Cold.

Only Cold is Winter.

Conclusions:

I. Some Deserts being Winter is a possibility.

II. Some Cold being Desert is a possibility.

III. All Warm being Cold is possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both Conclusion II and III follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only Conclusion II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Deserts being Winter is a possibility → False (As, Only Cold is Winter is given which means All Winter are Cold and Winter will not have any positive relationship with any element except with Cold, so Some Deserts being Winter is definitely false conclusion and possibility with definite conclusion is false).

II. Some Cold being Desert is a possibility → True (The possibility is true, as no direct relationship between the two is given).

III. All Warm being Cold is possibility → False (As, Only a few Warm are Cold is given, which means Some Warm are Cold and Some Warm are not Cold, so All Warm being part of Cold is definitely false conclusion and possibility with definite conclusion is false).

Hence, Only Conclusion II follows.

20

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts

Statements:

Only a few Clips are Hair Bands.

Only Hair bands are Rubber.

No Hair Band is Eyeliner.

Conclusions:

I. Some Clips are not Rubber.

II. Some Rubber are not Eyeliner.

III. All Eyeliner being Hair band is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion III and II follows

  5. ((e))

    All Conclusion follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both Conclusion I and II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Clips are not Rubber → True (As, Only Hair band is Rubber is given which means All Rubber are Hair band and Rubber will not have any positive relationship with any other element except with Hairband, so Some Clips are not Rubber is True).

II. Some Rubber are not Eyeliner → True (Only Hair band is Rubber is given which means All Rubber are Hair band and Rubber will not have any positive relationship with any other element except with Hairband, and No Hairband is Eyeliner is given, so Some Rubber are not Eyeliner is true).

III. All Eyeliner being Hair band is a possibility → False (As, Hair band and Eyeliner both have relationship of No with each other, so the possibility is false).

Hence, Both Conclusion I and II follows.

21

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Pen are Blue.

Only a few Blue are Red.

Only a few Red are Black.

Conclusions:

I. All Red being Blue is a possibility.

II. Some Black is Blue.

III. Some Pen which is Blue is not Red.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both  Conclusion I and III follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I follows

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. All Red being Blue is a possibility → True (The possibility is true, as Only a few Blue are Red is given, which means Some Blue are Red and Some Blue are not Red, which also states that Some Red is Blue, but we don't know about the remaining portion of Red whether it is Blue or not, so this is possible).

II. Some Black is Blue → False (This is possible but not definite).

III. Some Pen which is Blue is not Red → False (This is possible but not definite).

Hence, Only Conclusion I follows.

22

In light of rising concern that high-pressure living, thrilling though it may seem, is a silent killer and one of the factors contributing to men's lower life expectancy than women, men are now being encouraged to calm down. Ironically, though, more and more career-driven women are quickly learning some of the same "killing" behaviours, which is why they have historically had an advantage over males in the "longevity" stakes. 

The conclusion drawn above is based on the assumption that:

  1. ((a))

    High-pressure living is one of the factor contributing to the gender discrepancy in life expectancy.

  2. ((b))

    Although women still outlive men, the gender gap in life expectancy has shrunk significantly in recent years

  3. ((c))

    Women are not being advised the slow-down that men are being advised

  4. ((d))

    Long work hours, energy-draining "bonding" sessions, nonstop "power" parties, hard drinking, and heavy smoking are the silent killer habits that women have now adopted widely.

  5. ((e))

    Career-driven women are increasingly adopting a high-pressure lifestyle.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High-pressure living is one of the factor contributing to the gender discrepancy in life expectancy.

Males are now being urged to calm down due to growing concerns that high-pressure living, fascinating though it may appear, is a silent killer and one of the reasons men have a lower life expectancy than women. Ironically, though, more and more career-driven women are swiftly picking up on some of the same "killing" behaviours, which explains why they have traditionally outlasted men in terms of "longevity" metrics.

Option II puts forth additional information, which may or may not be true. This renders it unsound as an assumption behind the passage.

Option IV again, though carries possibly relevant information, cannot be safely selected as an assumption.

Option III would be far- fetched one whereas option I which gives the clear assumption behind the passage.

So, option I is the right option.

23

Statement: For-profit colleges enroll substantially fewer students than public or private nonprofit colleges. At the same time, in comparison to nonprofit universities, for-profit colleges get a disproportionate percentage of federal and state financial help, such as tuition grants and guaranteed loans, for their students. As a result, for-profit universities must enroll a bigger number of financially disadvantaged students than non-profit colleges.

The statement above depends on which of the following assumptions?

  1. ((a))

    A similar percentage of financially disadvantaged students attend both public and private nonprofit universities.

  2. ((b))

    For-profit universities do not use dishonest methods to assist its students in obtaining overly generous federal and state financial aid.

  3. ((c))

    Students attending for-profit institutions are more likely to get federal and state financial aid than those attending non-profit colleges.

  4. ((d))

    The educational standards between for-profit and nonprofit colleges are comparable.

  5. ((e))

    The majority of students who attend for-profit universities graduate without defaulting on their loan repayments.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

For-profit universities do not use dishonest methods to assist its students in obtaining overly generous federal and state financial aid.

According to the assertion, for-profit universities enroll a higher percentage of financially disadvantaged students than non-profit institutions. This conclusion is supported by the fact that a disproportionate amount of federal and state financial help is received by students attending for-profit universities. The claim makes an assumption that there is a correlation between the percentage of help received and the number of financially disadvantaged students enrolled. In doing so, it makes the assumption that the distribution of aid is disproportionate for no other reason.

A. Public vs. private non-profit institutions are different, but these distinctions are unimportant to the discussion.

B. This is the best option. A possible explanation for the unequal distribution of aid is that for-profit institutions used dishonest methods to secure superfluous financial help for their students. By claiming that this was not the case, this response option disproves the alternative explanation and draws attention to a crucial premise that underlies the assertion.

C. The actual proportion of students receiving financial help at for-profit as opposed to non-profit universities has no bearing on the claim.

D. The debate, which is entirely focused on variations in financial assistance distribution, does not address the relative educational quality of for-profit vs. non-profit universities.

E. It doesn't matter if students are successful in repaying their debts after graduation because the claim is still valid.

So, option B is the answer.

24

Direction: In the question a statement is given followed by some arguments. You must consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. 

Statement: Nowadays, medicine cannot always cure us, but it can lessen the effectiveness of our symptoms and improve our condition. Traditional medicine is called Traditional for a Reason. It is old fashioned and outdated. It is not as effective as Modern Medicine. Some traditional treatments work well but modern medicine just takes these traditional treatments and makes them more effective. Modern medicine can have side effects, but if taken with regulation and not in overdose, modern medicine can be the most effective way to help yourself.

Which of the following weakens the statement that modern medicine is a better option compared to traditional medicine?

  1. ((a))

    Traditional medicine works for everyone.

  2. ((b))

    Many lawsuits were filed and won by consumers against modern drug manufacturers, because of harmful side effects of modern medicine.

  3. ((c))

    The dangerous side effects of modern medicines have been well documented. Traditional medicines do not have any harmful side effects.

  4. ((d))

    Modern medicine is money oriented. It earns profit for everyone involved in this.

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The dangerous side effects of modern medicines have been well documented. Traditional medicines do not have any harmful side effects.

Nowadays, medicine cannot always cure us, but it can lessen the effectiveness of our symptoms and improve our condition. Traditional medicine is called Traditional for a Reason. It is old fashioned and outdated. It is not as effective as Modern Medicine. Some traditional treatments work well but modern medicine just takes these traditional treatments and makes them more effective. Modern medicine can have side effects, but if taken with regulation and not in overdose, modern medicine can be the most effective way to help yourself.

I. instead of comparing modern medicine with traditional medicine, it just talks about traditional medicine. So, this does not weaken the statement.

II. Instead of comparing modern medicine with traditional medicine it only talks of lawsuits against modern medicine manufacturers. Also, it is a lawsuit but side effects of modern medicines are not proved. So, this is not related.

III. This weakens the statement because it says that most modern medicines have harmful side effects whereas traditional medicines don’t.

IV. Profit does not mean modern medicine is not better than traditional medicine. So, this does not weaken the argument.

Hence, option III is the correct answer.

25

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions

Statement: Prime Minister announced a relief package for flood-hit Gujarat after undertaking an aerial survey of the affected districts even as heavy rains continued to batter most parts of north India.

Which of the following is an immediate course of action that must be followed in light of the above statement?

(I) Rescue and relief operations should be started in full swing.

(II) Food packets should be distributed in affected villages using IAF choppers where Indian Air Force (IAF) helicopters can also be pressed into service.

(III) The Prime Minister should announce an ex-gratia of Rs. 2 lakh for the next of kin of those killed and Rs. 50,000 for those injured grievously from the Prime Minister's National Relief Fund.

  1. ((a))

    Only (III)

  2. ((b))

    Only (II) and (I)

  3. ((c))

    All (III), (I) and (II)

  4. ((d))

    Both (II) and (III)

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only (II) and (I)

Let's have a look at all immediate courses of action given:

I - This course of action should immediately be followed as this rescue operation will help the flood victims.

II - This course of action should immediately be followed because food is an essential requirement for human beings for their survival and flood victims are unable to get it.

III - This course of action should is not appropriate to be immediately followed as money is not an immediate requirement of the flood victims.

Hence, the correct answer will be only (II) and (I).

Directions: Read the following information and answer the given questions:

10 people like different colours: Blue, Pink, Black, Green, White Brown, Red, Yellow, Orange and Purple are seated in two parallel rows with five people in each row such that there is equal distance between the adjacent persons and each person in one row faces the person in another row. In row 1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated facing South and in Row 2, M, N, O, P, and Q are seated facing North not necessarily in the same order. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes the Red colour. The one who faces O likes Blue colour and sits third to the right of D who likes Purple colour. M who likes Pink colour does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the row and is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Red colour. A who likes Yellow colour sits second to the left of B. B does not like the Blue colour. E likes the Green colour and faces the one who likes the Black colour. Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the row. N does not like the Red colour. Neither B nor O likes White colour. The one who likes Orange Colour does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the row.

26

Which colour does B likes?

  1. ((a))

    White

  2. ((b))

    Orange

  3. ((c))

    Brown

  4. ((d))

    Blue

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Brown

Persons: Row:1: A, B, C, D, and E are seated facing South

Row: 2: M, N, O, P, and Q are seated facing North

Colours: Blue, Pink, Black, Green, White Brown, Red, yellow, Orange and Purple.

  1. Two persons sits between O and the one who likes Red colour.

  2. The one who faces O likes Blue colour and sits third to the right of D who likes Purple colour.

  3. M who likes Pink colour does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row and is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Red colour.

  4. A who likes Yellow colour sits second to the left of B.

  5. B does not like Blue colour.

  6. E likes Green colour and faces the one who likes Black colour.

As the 1st case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.

  1. Q does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row.

  2. N does not like Red colour.

  3. Neither B nor O likes White colour. So, N will like White colour.

  4. The one who likes Orange Colour does not sits at any of the extreme end of the row. So. O will like Orange colour.

The final arrangement will be:

 Hence, B likes Brown colour.

27

Who likes Black Colour?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Q

Persons: Row:1: A, B, C, D, and E are seated facing South

Row: 2: M, N, O, P, and Q are seated facing North

Colours: Blue, Pink, Black, Green, White Brown, Red, yellow, Orange and Purple.

  1. Two persons sits between O and the one who likes Red colour.

  2. The one who faces O likes Blue colour and sits third to the right of D who likes Purple colour.

  3. M who likes Pink colour does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row and is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Red colour.

  4. A who likes Yellow colour sits second to the left of B.

  5. B does not like Blue colour.

  6. E likes Green colour and faces the one who likes Black colour.

As the 1st case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.

  1. Q does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row.

  2. N does not like Red colour.

  3. Neither B nor O likes White colour. So, N will like White colour.

  4. The one who likes Orange Colour does not sits at any of the extreme end of the row. So. O will like Orange colour.

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, Q likes Black Colour.

28

How many persons are sitting between C and D?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    0

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

Persons: Row:1: A, B, C, D, and E are seated facing South

Row: 2: M, N, O, P, and Q are seated facing North

Colours: Blue, Pink, Black, Green, White Brown, Red, yellow, Orange and Purple.

  1. Two persons sits between O and the one who likes Red colour.

  2. The one who faces O likes Blue colour and sits third to the right of D who likes Purple colour.

  3. M who likes Pink colour does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row and is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Red colour.

  4. A who likes Yellow colour sits second to the left of B.

  5. B does not like Blue colour.

  6. E likes Green colour and faces the one who likes Black colour.

As the 1st case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.

  1. Q does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row.

  2. N does not like Red colour.

  3. Neither B nor O likes White colour. So, N will like White colour.

  4. The one who likes Orange Colour does not sits at any of the extreme end of the row. So. O will like Orange colour.

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, 2 persons are sitting between C and D.

29

Who is sitting between M and N?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

Persons: Row:1: A, B, C, D, and E are seated facing South

Row: 2: M, N, O, P, and Q are seated facing North

Colours: Blue, Pink, Black, Green, White Brown, Red, yellow, Orange and Purple.

  1. Two persons sits between O and the one who likes Red colour.

  2. The one who faces O likes Blue colour and sits third to the right of D who likes Purple colour.

  3. M who likes Pink colour does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row and is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Red colour.

  4. A who likes Yellow colour sits second to the left of B.

  5. B does not like Blue colour.

  6. E likes Green colour and faces the one who likes Black colour.

As the 1st case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.

  1. Q does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row.

  2. N does not like Red colour.

  3. Neither B nor O likes White colour. So, N will like White colour.

  4. The one who likes Orange Colour does not sits at any of the extreme end of the row. So. O will like Orange colour.

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, O is sitting between M and N.

30

Which of the following condition is true?

  1. ((a))

    Q- Green

  2. ((b))

    B- White

  3. ((c))

    N- Orange

  4. ((d))

    P- Red

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P- Red

Persons: Row:1: A, B, C, D, and E are seated facing South

Row: 2: M, N, O, P, and Q are seated facing North

Colours: Blue, Pink, Black, Green, White Brown, Red, yellow, Orange and Purple.

  1. Two persons sits between O and the one who likes Red colour.

  2. The one who faces O likes Blue colour and sits third to the right of D who likes Purple colour.

  3. M who likes Pink colour does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row and is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Red colour.

  4. A who likes Yellow colour sits second to the left of B.

  5. B does not like Blue colour.

  6. E likes Green colour and faces the one who likes Black colour.

As the 1st case does not fulfil the above condition, it is eliminated.

  1. Q does not sit at any of the extreme end of the row.

  2. N does not like Red colour.

  3. Neither B nor O likes White colour. So, N will like White colour.

  4. The one who likes Orange Colour does not sits at any of the extreme end of the row. So. O will like Orange colour.

The final arrangement will be:

As P likes Red colour.

Hence, the condition ‘P- Red’ is true and the other conditions are false.

General Knowledge, Current Affairs (30 questions)

31

Indian Women's Hockey team secured Cantor Fitzgerald Under-21 International four-nation tournament at Dublin after beating ______ by 1-0 in the final.

  1. ((a))

    Canada

  2. ((b))

    Ireland

  3. ((c))

    Scotland 

  4. ((d))

    England

  5. ((e))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ireland

The correct answer is Ireland.

Key Points

  • Indian Women's Hockey team secured Cantor Fitzgerald Under-21 International four-nation tournament at Dublin after beating Ireland by 1-0 in the final.
  • The Indian junior women's hockey team clinched the 2019 Cantor Fitzgerald U21 International 4-Nations title after beating Ireland 1-0 in the final at Dublin, Ireland on June 4.
  • The win meant India ended the tournament with an unblemished record. With three goals in four games, Mumtaz Khan finished as the highest goal scorer of the tournament.

Additional Information

  • ​India women's national field hockey team is currently ranked 6th in the world ranking.
  • Savita Punia is the present captain of the Indian Women's Hockey team.
32

Which metro corporation becomes the first ever metro to receive power from the 'Waste-to-Energy' plant project?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi Metro Rail Corporation

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation

  3. ((c))

    Hyderabad Metro Rail Corporation

  4. ((d))

    Kolkata Metro Rail Corporation

  5. ((e))

    Bengaluru Metro Rail Corporation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation

The correct answer is Delhi Metro Rail Corporation.

Key Points

  • Delhi Metro Rail Corporation has become the first ever project in India to receive power generated from a waste-to-energy plant.
  • The move is in continuation of Delhi Metro Rail Corporation's (DMRC) efforts to establish an environment-friendly network.
  • Since the beginning of June 2019, DMRC has started receiving 2 MW power from a 12 MW capacity waste-to-energy plant set up in Ghazipur (Uttar Pradesh).
  • The power being received is being utilized at Vinod Nagar Receiving Sub-station (RSS) for meeting the operational requirements of the Pink Line of Delhi Metro.
  • Waste-to-energy Plant:
  • It is a state-of-the-art facility, set up by East Delhi Waste Processing Company Limited (EDWPCL). It is based on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model which involves the government of Delhi, East Delhi Municipal Corporation (EDMC), and EDWPCL.
  • It can process over 1,500 tonnes per day (TPD) of waste and can generate 12 MW of green power. This plant is India’s first Euro norms-compliant waste-to-energy facility.
  • DMRC is expected to use about 17.5 million units per annum from this plant but energy offtake will depend upon the actual generation of the plant.
  • The plant is estimated to mitigate more than 8 million tons of Greenhouse Gases (GHG) over the life of the project thus combating global warming.
  • DMRC was founded in 2002.
33

The Ministry of Human Resource Development introduced the Draft National Education Policy 2019. Who chaired the committee for the Draft National Education policy?

  1. ((a))

    K. Kasturirangan

  2. ((b))

    V.Ramgopal Rao

  3. ((c))

    Smriti Irani

  4. ((d))

    Nidhi Chibber

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K. Kasturirangan

The correct answer is K. Kasturirangan.

Key Points

  • The Draft National Education Policy, 2019 prepared by a committee chaired by Dr. K. Kasturirangan has been shared by the Ministry of Human Resource and Development for public comment.
  • The policy aims at making India a knowledge superpower by equipping students with the necessary skills and knowledge.
  • Key Features of the Draft Policy
  • The policy covers school education, higher education, and professional education which in turn include agricultural education, legal education, medical education, and technical education.
  • It also looks at the verticals of vocational education by including teacher education and research and innovation.
  • Early child care and education have been sought to be integrated within the Ministry of Education (a changed name has been suggested for the Ministry of Human Resource and Development - MHRD).​​

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Education of India:
  • Founded: 1985
  • Officeholders: Dharmendra Pradhan
34

Which of the following countries introduced the 'Golden Card Permanent Residency Scheme' a type of long-term visa for up to 10 years?

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    United Arab Emirates

  3. ((c))

    United Kingdom

  4. ((d))

    Saudi Arabia

  5. ((e))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

United Arab Emirates

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates.

Key Points

  • The United Arab Emirates introduced the 'Golden Card Permanent Residency Scheme' a type of long-term visa for up to 10 years.
  • The Prime Minister of the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al-Maktoum has launched the permanent residency system “Golden Card” for ex-pat investors, entrepreneurs, specialized talents, and researchers to be a part of the UAE’s success story.
  • The move is expected to attract more Indian professionals and businessmen to the Gulf nation.
  • The new permanent visa will generate foreign investment, encourage entrepreneurship, and attract top engineers, scientists, and students.
  • The Golden Card offers unprecedented benefits to cardholders and their families while creating an attractive environment for business and growth.
  • It will also increase the UAE's competitiveness and reaffirms the country's position as a global incubator.
  • The benefits of the permanent residency also include the spouse and children of the cardholder to ensure cohesive social ties.
  • The new permanent residency initiative has identified the first 6,800 qualified ex-pats from over 70 countries, to benefit from the Golden Card scheme's unprecedented benefits.
35

The New Space India Limited is a commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organization. It was established in the year ______. 

  1. ((a))

    2003

  2. ((b))

    2010

  3. ((c))

    2015

  4. ((d))

    2019

  5. ((e))

    2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2019

The correct answer is 2019.

Key Points

  • New Space India Limited was established in the year 2019.
  • New Space India Limited, the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation has signed an agreement with OneWeb, a company backed by the Bharti group, for satellite launches.
  • New Space’s first launch is expected in 2022 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota.
  • The launches will strengthen OneWeb’s in-orbit constellation of 428 satellites, to build a global network to deliver high-speed connectivity.

Additional Information

  • Indian Space Research Organisation:
  • Founded: 15 August 1969
  • Headquarters: Bengaluru
  • Founder: Vikram Sarabhai
  • Current Chairperson: S. Somanath
36

Arjun Munda is the current Minister of Tribal Affairs. Which of the following city is his Lok Sabha constituency?

  1. ((a))

    Gandhinagar, Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Khunti, Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Dispur, Assam

  4. ((d))

    Rourkela, Orissa

  5. ((e))

    Silchar, Assam

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Khunti, Jharkhand

The correct answer is Khunti, Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • Arjun Munda has Khunti, Jharkhand as his Lok Sabha constituency.
  • Arjun Munda was the Chief Minister of Jharkhand three times and is currently the Leader of the Opposition in the Jharkhand Assembly.
  • He is a very important Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leader from Jharkhand, hailed by his compatriots for his organizational skills as well as extensive mass contact.
  • Arjun Munda also became the National General Secretary of the party and successfully handled the responsibilities of an MP.

Additional Information

  • Jharkhand:
  • Capital: Ranchi
  • Governor: C.P. Radhakrishnan
  • Chief minister: Hemant Soren
37

The Lok Sabha Constituency of Mahendra Nath Pandey is Chandauli, Uttar Pradesh. He is currently appointed as the minister of which of the following ministries?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Minority Affairs

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Skills Development & Entrepreneurship

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Heavy Industries

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Railways 

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ministry of Heavy Industries

The correct answer is the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Key Points

  • Heavy Industries Minister Dr. Mahendra Nath Pandey inaugurated the Panchamrit event in Haryana's Manesar.
  • In line with Prime Minister Narendra Modi's Panchamrit Ki Saugat announcement, the event will highlight initiatives taken by the Ministry for the promotion and development of the automotive industry in the country.
  • The event will also organize an interaction session to deliberate upon the implementation of schemes aimed at developing an ecosystem of innovation that will enable green and clean mobility solutions and help in reducing carbon footprint.
  • Chandauli is a town and a nagar panchayat in Chandauli district in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India.
  • It is the administrative headquarters of Chandauli District
38

The annual bilateral exercise SIMBEX is conducted between the Indian Navy & the __________________.

  1. ((a))

    Republic of Singapore Navy

  2. ((b))

    Australian Navy

  3. ((c))

    Royal Ceylon Navy

  4. ((d))

    USA Navy

  5. ((e))

    Bangladesh Navy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Republic of Singapore Navy

The correct answer is the Republic of Singapore Navy.

Key Points

  • The annual bilateral exercise SIMBEX is conducted between the Indian Navy & the Republic of Singapore Navy.
  • SIMBEX series of exercises began in 1994 and were initially known as Exercise Lion King.
  • The scope and complexity of the exercise have risen substantially over the past two decades to include advanced naval drills covering a wide spectrum of maritime operations.
  • The exercise exemplifies the high level of cooperation between India and Singapore in the maritime domain.
  • It also highlights the commitment and contribution of the two nations toward enhancing maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region.

 Additional Information

  • The Indian Navy hosted the 29th edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) from 26 to 30 October 2022 at Visakhapatnam.
  • SIMBEX was conducted in two phases – the Harbour Phase at Visakhapatnam from 26 to 27 October 2022 followed by the Sea Phase in the Bay of Bengal from 28 to 30 October 2022.
  • Two ships from the Republic of Singapore Navy, RSS Stalwart (a Formidable Class Frigate) and RSS Vigilance (a Victory Class Corvette) arrived in Visakhapatnam on 25 October 2022 for participation in the exercise.
  • The Harbour Phase witnessed extensive professional and sporting interactions between the two navies including cross-deck visits, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE), and planning meetings.
39

The 19th SCO (Shanghai Corporation Organization) summit was held in Kyrgyzstan. Where is the headquarters of SCO located?

  1. ((a))

    Shanghai

  2. ((b))

    Bishkek

  3. ((c))

    Beijing

  4. ((d))

    Chongqing

  5. ((e))

    Guangzhou

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Beijing

The correct answer is Beijing.

Key Points

  • The headquarter of SCO is in Beijing.
  • On 13-14 June 2019, Bishkek hosted a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation's Heads of State Council.
  • Taking part in the meeting were Prime Minister of the Republic of India Narendra Modi, President of the Republic of Kazakhstan Kassym-Jomart Tokayev, President of the People's Republic of China Xi Jinping, President of the Kyrgyz Republic Sooronbay Jeenbekov, Prime Minister of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan Imran Khan, President of the Russian Federation Vladimir Putin, President of the Republic of Tajikistan Emomali Rahmon and President of the Republic of Uzbekistan Shavkat Mirziyoyev.
  • President of the Kyrgyz Republic Sooronbay Jeenbekov chaired the meeting.
40

Cyril Ramaphosa is the ___ & current president of South Africa.

  1. ((a))

    7th

  2. ((b))

    9th

  3. ((c))

    8th

  4. ((d))

    5th

  5. ((e))

    6th

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5th

The correct answer is 5th.

Key Points

  • South African legislators elected Cyril Ramaphosa president.
  • He promised to create jobs and work for the interests of all citizens, not just members of the majority African National Congress.
  • Cyril Ramaphosa is the 5th & current president of South Africa. (As per 2019)
  • The ANC won South Africa‘s May 8 general election, enabling the party to pick the country’s president, but its share of the vote fell to a post-apartheid low – reflecting anger at corruption and cronyism under Ramaphosa’s predecessor Jacob Zuma.
  • Many voters were also dismayed at the racial inequality that remains entrenched a generation since the former liberation movement took power.
41

In 2019, the famous comedian and film actor Dinyar Contractor passed away. He belongs to which of the following countries?

  1. ((a))

    France

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    India

  4. ((d))

    Sweden

  5. ((e))

    England

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

India

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • Veteran actor and theatre legend Dinyar Contractor, who appeared in films such as Baadshah and Khiladi, passed away.
  • Dinyar Contractor (January 23, 1941 – 5 June 2019) was an Indian stage actor, comedian, and Bollywood/Tollywood actor.
  • He acted in Gujarati theatre and Hindi theatre, as well as Hindi movies.
  • He started working on television programs with Adi Marzban when Mumbai Doordarshan launched the DD-2 channel in Mumbai with Aao Marvao Meri Saathe, a Gujarati program.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri in January 2019.
42

In which of the following cities, the Indian Navy's full-fledged Services Selection Board (SSB) was inaugurated in which of the following city?

  1. ((a))

    Visakhapatnam

  2. ((b))

    Cochin

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi

  5. ((e))

    Porbander

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kolkata

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

  • The Indian Navy's first full-fledged Services Selection Board (SSB) was inaugurated by Navy Chief Admiral Sunil Lanba at Diamond Harbour near Kolkata.
  • The SSB (Kolkata) is located at a place that was previously occupied by a Naval Coastal Battery, a Navy statement said.
  • This is the fifth SSB of the Indian Navy and will cater to the selection of both permanent and short service commission (SSC) officers.
  • The other boards are located in Bhopal, Bengaluru, Visakhapatnam, and Coimbatore.
  • Spread over 27 acres on the banks of Hooghly, the SSB (Kolkata) has the capacity to screen 5,000 officer-candidates annually.
43

The Manas National Park is located in Assam. It was declared a World Heritage site by UNESCO in which of the following year?

  1. ((a))

    1986

  2. ((b))

    1984

  3. ((c))

    1995

  4. ((d))

    1997

  5. ((e))

    1985

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

1985

The correct answer is 1985.

Key Point

  • The Manas National Park is located in Assam. It was declared a World Heritage site by UNESCO in 1985.
  • Manas National Park is a national park, a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve, and a biosphere reserve in Assam, India.
  • Manas National Park, from Assam, was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.
  • It is located in the Himalayan foothills,
  • Another important site for it is home to various endemic plants and animal species.
  • An erstwhile reserved forest, Manas, after getting included in Project Tiger, got the status of a tiger reserve.
  • It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan
  • The Manas river flows through the west of the park and is the main river within it.
  • It is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra river.
  • The Manas river also serves as an international border dividing India and Bhutan.
44

In 2019, Jokha Alharthi of Oman won the Man Booker International Prize for which of the following work?

  1. ((a))

    Bitter Orange Tree

  2. ((b))

    Celestial Bodies

  3. ((c))

    The God of Small Things

  4. ((d))

    Milkman

  5. ((e))

    The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Celestial Bodies

The correct answer is Celestial Bodies.

Key Points

  • The Man Booker International Prize, an international literary award hosted in the United Kingdom, is a counterpart to the ‘Man Booker Prize’ which is awarded only for English-language novels.
  • Oman author Jokha Alharthi on May 22, 2019, won the prestigious ‘Man Booker International Prize 2019’ for her novel “Celestial Bodies”.
  • With this, Alharthi became the first Arabic-language writer to win the prize and the first female writer from Oman to have her work translated into English.
  • Alharthi will split the prize money of 50,000 pounds (USD 64,000) with her UK-based translator, Marilyn Booth.
  • Alharthi received the award from Historian Bettany Hughes, the chairwoman of the judging panel, at a ceremony at the Roundhouse, London. While presenting the award, Hughes mentioned that the novel wins “over the head and the heart in equal measure.”
  • Alharthi also won the ‘Best Omani Novel Award’ for Celestial Bodies in 2010.
45

In which of the following Indian state the Elephanta Caves Festival is being celebrated every year to promote tourism and culture?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

  5. ((e))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • The Elephanta festival is organized by the Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC) to promote Mumbai tourism and culture.
  • It is one of the most prominently celebrated festivals in Mumbai.
  • This renowned festival is held on Elephanta Island, adjacent to the Elephanta Cave, a World Heritage Site.
  • The Island is located at a distance of ten kilometers from Mumbai Harbour and there are regular launch services from there to Elephanta Island. The initial name of the Elephanta caves was Gharapuri which means, 'peaceful living place of lord Shiva'.
  • The name Elephanta Cave was given by the Portuguese after a carved elephant was found on this island.
  • The festival, which is a feast of dance and music, is conducted in the month of February every year transforming the entire island into a huge auditorium.
46

Rahi Jeevan Saronabat is an Indian female pistol shooter. She is the first shooter to win Gold in which of the following event?

  1. ((a))

    Olympics

  2. ((b))

    Asian Games

  3. ((c))

    Commonwealth Games

  4. ((d))

    National Games

  5. ((e))

    World Shooting Championship

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Asian Games

The correct answer is Asian Games.

Key Points

  • Rahi won her first gold medal at the Commonwealth Youth Games held in Pune, India in the year 2008.
  • She won a gold and a silver medal at the Commonwealth Games that took place in New Delhi, India in the year 2010
  • Clinched a bronze medal in a 25-meter pistol event at the 2011 ISSF World Cup.
  • In the year 2013, she won the 25 m pistol event at the ISSF (International Shooting Sports Federation) World Cup that was held in Changwon, South Korea.
  • At the Commonwealth Games of 2014 which took place in Glasgow, she won the gold medal in the women’s 25 m pistol event.
  • In the same year 2014, she earned a bronze medal in the 25m pistol team event at the Asian Games that was held in Incheon.
  • She was honored with the country's prestigious Arjuna Award by the National Rifle Association of India in 2015.
  • Became the first Indian woman to win an individual gold medal at the 2018 Asian Games in the 25-meter pistol event with a game record score of 34.
47

The Indian Oil, Bharat Petroleum Corporation, and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation are to lay the world's longest LPG pipeline to revolutionize India's energy sector. The pipeline will be constructed from _________ to ___________.

  1. ((a))

    Jamnagar, Gujarat to Loni, Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Patna, Bihar to Kandla, Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Rourkela, Orrisa to Amethi, Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Kandla, Gujarat to Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kandla, Gujarat to Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Kandla, Gujarat to Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • IndianOil, Bharat Petroleum Corporation ( BPCL ), and Hindustan Petroleum Corp Ltd ( HPCL ) laid the world’s longest LPG pipeline, from Kandla (Gujarat) to Gorakhpur (UP). An IndianOil statement said the 2,757-km cross-country pipeline will connect three major States — Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh — to the western coast and reach LPG to 22 bottling plants (BPs) of the three oil marketing companies (OMCs).
  • A joint venture agreement to this effect was signed.
  • The Kandla-Gorakhpur LPG pipeline is estimated to cost about ₹10,000 crores.
  • It will be implemented through a joint venture company where IndianOil will hold 50 percent and the other two OMCs will hold 25 percent each.
  • “The pipeline will source LPG from three import terminals on the west coast and two refineries (at Koyali and Bina) and supply it to 22 bottling plants of the three OMCs connected en route — three in Gujarat, six in Madhya Pradesh and 13 in Uttar Pradesh,”.
48

The Darlipali Super Thermal Power Station is located in which of the following city?

  1. ((a))

    Pokhran, Rajasthan 

  2. ((b))

    Narora, Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Sundargarh, Odisha

  4. ((d))

    Solapur, Maharashtra

  5. ((e))

    Singrauli, Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sundargarh, Odisha

The correct answer is Sundargarh, Odisha.

Key Points

  • Darlipali Super Thermal Power Station is located at Darlipali village in Sundargarh district in Odisha.
  • The power plant is one of the coal-based power plants of NTPC Limited.
  • Coal will be obtained from Dulanga and Pakri Barwadih Coal Block and water supply will be sourced from the Hirakund Reservoir on the Mahanadi River through a pipeline at over a distance of about 30.0 km from the project site.
  • The plant is under construction by Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited (BHEL), L&T Power.

Additional Information

  • ​Odisha:
  • Founded:1936
  • Capital: Bhubaneswar
  • Chief minister: Naveen Patnaik
  • Governor: Ganeshi Lal​
49

The Lakhwar dam is constructed on the Yamuna river in the district of ________ & _________, Uttarakhand.

  1. ((a))

    Dehradun & Tehri

  2. ((b))

    Mussorie , Dhanolti

  3. ((c))

    Tehri & Gharwal

  4. ((d))

    Rishikesh & Haridwar

  5. ((e))

    Chamoli & Chopta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dehradun & Tehri

The correct answer is Dehradun & Tehri.

Key Points

  • The Lakhwar dam is constructed on the Yamuna river in the district of Dehradun & Tehri, Uttarakhand.
  • Lakhwar is a multipurpose project dam located on the Yamuna river.
  • It generates merely 300MW of power.
  • Tehri dam is the highest-situated dam in Uttarakhand.

Additional Information

  • ​Uttarakhand:
  • Founded: 2000
  • Capitals: Dehradun
  • Governor: Lieutenant General Gurmit Singh
  • Chief minister: Pushkar Singh Dhami
50

Mount Sinabung is one of the active valcones that lies in the pacific ring of fire. It is located in which of the following country?

  1. ((a))

    South Korea

  2. ((b))

    Malaysia

  3. ((c))

    Phillipines

  4. ((d))

    Indonesia

  5. ((e))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

  • Mount Sinabung is a Pleistocene-to-Holocene stratovolcano located in the Karo plateau of Karo Regency, North Sumatra, Indonesia.
  • The subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate creates it under the Eurasian Plate.
  • It erupted in 2010 after a 400-year-long hiatus and has been continuously active since September 2013.
  • Indonesia straddles the “Pacific ring of fire” with nearly 130 active volcanoes, more than any other country.
  • Sinabung had been inactive for centuries before it erupted again in 2010.

Additional Information

  • ​ Indonesia:
  • Capital: Jakarta
  • President: Joko Widodo
  • Population: 27.38 crores (2021) World Bank
  • Official language: Indonesian
51

World Population Day is celebrated every year on the 11th of July. The day was first marked by the United Nations General Assembly in which of the following year?

  1. ((a))

    2001

  2. ((b))

    2004

  3. ((c))

    1990

  4. ((d))

    1998

  5. ((e))

    1995

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1990

The correct answer is 1990.

Key Points

  • World Population day was first marked by the United Nations General Assembly in 1990.
  • Every year, July 11 is observed as World Population Day to draw urgent attention to the growing population.
  • It was established by the United Nations Development Programme in 1990, World Population Day finds its inspiration from the interest raised by ‘Five Billion Day’ on July 11, 1987 — the day population reached five billion.
  • Unlike every year, there is no specific theme but the day aims to draw attention to maternal health.
52

In 2019, on the occasion of World Environment Day, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched which of the following campaign?

  1. ((a))

    National Rivers Protection Campaign

  2. ((b))

    India Plastic Challenge

  3. ((c))

    Swacch Bharat Abhiyan 2.0

  4. ((d))

    Beat Plastic Pollution

  5. ((e))

    Hawa Aane De

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Hawa Aane De

The correct answer is Hawa Aane De.

Key Points

  • On the occasion of World Environment Day, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the 'Hawa Aane De' campaign.
  • Air pollution is one of the biggest global environmental challenges of today.
  • A time-bound national-level strategy for pan-India implementation to tackle the increasing air pollution problem across the country in a comprehensive manner in the form of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched on 10th January 2019.
  • Third Indo-German Environment Forum with the theme "Cleaner Air, Greener Economy:" was held in New Delhi in February 2019.
  • The one-day event through panel discussions and parallel sessions focused on challenges, solutions, and necessary framework conditions of air pollution control, waste management, and circular economy as well as the implementation of NDCs and SDGs based on the Paris Agreement and Agenda 2030 of the UN respectively.
  • Every year, World Environment Day is observed on 05th June.
  • Bhupender Yadav is the current union minister of the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
53

The 18th edition of the Asian Football Cup( AFC) tournament will be held from 16 June 2023 to 16 July 2023. Which of the following countries will host the 2023 AFC tournament?

  1. ((a))

    Qatar

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Japan

  5. ((e))

    UAE

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

China

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

  • China will host the 2023 AFC tournament.
  • The 2023 AFC Asian Cup will be the 18th edition of the AFC Asian Cup, the quadrennial international men's football championship of Asia organized by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
  • It will be held in Qatar from 16 June to 16 July 2023.
  • The tournament will involve 24 national teams after expansion in 2019.
  • Hosts Qatar are the defending champions.
54

The Chagos Island is an archipelago consisting of more than 60 islands lying in the territory of the Indian ocean. The Chagos islands chain is the overseas territories of which of the following country?

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    Mauritius

  3. ((c))

    United Kingdom

  4. ((d))

    Australia

  5. ((e))

    South Africa

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

United Kingdom

The correct answer is United Kingdom.

 

In News

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) has asked the United Kingdom to return the Chagos Archipelago to Mauritius.  CJ has said that continued British occupation of the Chagos archipelago is illegal.  

 Key Points

  • ICJ in its advisory opinion has said that:
  • The process of decolonization of Mauritius was not complete when the country was given independence in 1968 as the Chagos Archipelago was separated.
  • The UK should give up its administrative control over the Chagos Archipelago as rapidly as possible.
  • The case was referred to the ICJ, which hears legal submissions over international boundary disputes, after an overwhelming vote in 2017 in the UN general assembly.
  • In its submission to the ICJ last year, Mauritius argued it was coerced into giving up the Chagos Islands.
  • That separation was in breach of UN resolution 1514, passed in 1960, which specifically banned the breakup of colonies before independence.
  • The UK government argued that the court did not have jurisdiction to hear the case.
55

Airnub a US-based company offers nearly $100 million for investment in which of the following Indian startup?

  1. ((a))

    BoAT

  2. ((b))

    PharmEasy

  3. ((c))

    OYO

  4. ((d))

    Paytm

  5. ((e))

    BYJU's

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

OYO

The correct answer is OYO.

Key Points

  • Airnub a US-based company offers nearly $100 million for investment in OYO.
  • Airbnb has invested in the hospitality chain Oyo Hotels & Homes and has been making some aggressive moves lately to expand its lodging offerings beyond home rentals for tourists.
  • Airbnb is a San Francisco (U.S.) based company operating an online marketplace for short-term homestays.
  • Brian Chesky, Nathan Blecharczyk, and Joe Gebbia founded the company in 2008.

Additional Information

  • OYO (OYO Hotels & Homes), is an Indian multinational hospitality chain of leased and franchised hotels, homes, etc.
  • Ritesh Agarwal was the founder of OYO chains.
  • It was founded in 2012.
  • It is estimated that the revenue of OYO will jump to $751M in the Financial Year 2023.
56

Which of the following personalities has been selected as the 72nd External Auditor of the World Health Organization?

  1. ((a))

    Gita Gopinath

  2. ((b))

    Ngozi Okonojo

  3. ((c))

    Vaclav Balek

  4. ((d))

    Rajiv Mehrishi

  5. ((e))

    Csaba Karosi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rajiv Mehrishi

The correct answer is Rajiv Mehrishi.

Key Points

  • Rajiv Mehrishi has been selected as the External Auditor of the World Health Organization.
  • Previously, he served as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India later selected as external auditor of the World Health Organization (WHO) for four years from 2020 to 2023.
  • Mehrishi was elected at the 72nd World Health Assembly in Geneva with a majority.
  • Apart from India, others competing for the position were the Auditors General of Congo, France, Ghana, Tunisia, and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.

Additional Information

  • World Health Organization:
  • ​Founded: 1948
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
  • Director-General: Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
57

Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) located?

  1. ((a))

    Geneva, Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    Nairobi, Kenya

  3. ((c))

    Washington, USA

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi, India

  5. ((e))

    Vienna, Austria

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nairobi, Kenya

The correct answer is Nairobi, Kenya.

Key Points

  • The headquarters of the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is located in Nairobi, Kenya.
  • It was an outcome of the First UN Conference on Human Settlements and Sustainable Urban Development held in Vancouver, Canada in 1976.
  • It aims to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all.
  • It is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly.
  • It was established in 1977.
  • Maimunah Mohd Sharif is the Executive Director of the United Nations Human Settlements Programme.
58

In which of the following state India's first 'Blockchain District' was set up to create an environment for all the start-ups?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Telangana 

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

  5. ((e))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Telangana 

The correct answer is Telangana.

 Key Points

  • India's first 'Blockchain District' was set up in Telangana
  • The Telangana state government has conceptualized the country's first 'Blockchain District', which is the physical area within Hyderabad, aimed at creating the ecosystem.
  • It is expected from Blockchain that by 2030 it could generate $3 trillion per annum in business value and power 10-20% of the global economic infrastructure by then.
  • Tech Mahindra and the Telangana government signed an agreement to establish the Blockchain district.

Additional Information

  • ​Telangana:
  • Capital: Hyderabad
  • Founded:  2014
  • Chief minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao
  • Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan
  • Districts: 33
59

The Surface to Surface medium-range guided ballistic missile SHAHEEN-II is developed by which of the following countries?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    Iran

  4. ((d))

    Iraq

  5. ((e))

    Kazakhstan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pakistan

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

  • The Surface to Surface medium-range guided ballistic missile SHAHEEN-II is developed by Pakistan.
  • It is designed and developed by the NESCOM and the National Defence Complex of Pakistan.
  • The missile has a solid-fueled, two-stage missile with an estimated range of 1,500 – 2,000 km.
  • It is capable of carrying both conventional and nuclear warheads.

Additional Information

  • Pakistan (Islamic Republic of Pakistan):
  • Capital: Islamabad
  • President: Religion: 96.5% Islam (official‎);
  • Prime minister: Shehbaz Sharif
  • Population: 23.14 crores (2021) World Bank
  • Capital: Islamabad
  • Religion: 96.5% Islam
  • Official languages: Urdu, English
60

The first National Museum of Indian Cinema is located in which of the following cities?

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Pune

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Noida

  5. ((e))

    Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mumbai

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

  • The first National Museum of Indian Cinema is located in Mumbai.
  • It is located near the Gateway of India.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated India's first National Museum of Indian Cinema.
  • It is dedicated to the history and preservation of Indian cinema.

Additional Information

  • ​Maharashtra:
  • Capital: Mumbai
  • Governor: Ramesh Bais
  • Chief minister: Eknath Shinde

Data Analysis & Interpretation (30 questions)

Direction: Read the table carefully and answer the following questions:

The table below shows the percentage of people who like Pepsi and the number of people who like Mirinda and Thums Up in five societies.

SocietyPercentage (%) of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900
<br>

Note: People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

61

Find the difference between the total number of people who like Mirinda in all the societies together and the total number of people who like Thums Up in all the societies together.

  1. ((a))

    4,200

  2. ((b))

    4,500

  3. ((c))

    4,400

  4. ((d))

    4,800

  5. ((e))

    4,880

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4,800

Given:

SocietyPercentage of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900

 

People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

Calculation:

Let the number of people who like Pepsi in societies A, B, C, D and E be a, b, c, d and e respectively.

Then, Number of people who like Pepsi in society A = 25% of total people

⇒ a = (25/100) × (a + 1,800 + 1,500)

⇒ 4a = a + 3,300

⇒ a = 1,100

Number of people who like Pepsi in society B = 30% of total people

⇒ b = (30/100) × (b + 2,000 + 800)

⇒ 10b = 3b + 8,400

⇒ b = 1,200

Number of people who like Pepsi in society C = 20% of total people

⇒ c = (20/100) × (c + 1,750 + 1,050)

⇒ 5c = c + 2,800

⇒ c = 700

Number of people who like Pepsi in society D = 45% of total people

⇒ d = (45/100) × (d + 2,200 + 1,100)

⇒ 20d = 9d + 29,700

⇒ d = 2,700

and number of people who like Pepsi in society E = 40% of total people

⇒ e = (40/100) × (e + 2,400 + 900)

⇒ 5e = 2e + 6,600

⇒ e = 2,200

So, the following table will be prepared:

SocietyNumber of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A1,1001,8001,500
B1,2002,000800
C7001,7501,050
D2,7002,2001,100
E2,2002,400900
<br>

Now, the total number of people who like Mirinda in all the societies together = 1,800 + 2,000 + 1,750 + 2,200 + 2,400

⇒ 10,150

and the total number of people who like Thums Up in all the societies together = 1,500 + 800 + 1,050 + 1,100 + 900

⇒ 5,350

Required difference = 10,150 - 5,350

⇒ 4,800

∴ The difference between the total number of people who like Mirinda in all the societies together and the total number of people who like Thums Up in all the societies together is 4,800.

62

Find the ratio of the total number of people who like Thums Up in the societies D and E together to the total number of people who like Pepsi in the societies A, B and C together.

  1. ((a))

    2 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    2 ∶ 1

  3. ((c))

    3 ∶ 2

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 1

  5. ((e))

    1 ∶ 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 ∶ 3

Given:

SocietyPercentage of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900
<br>

People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

Calculation:

Let the number of people who like Pepsi in societies A, B, C, D and E be a, b, c, d and e respectively.

Then, Number of people who like Pepsi in society A = 25% of total people

⇒ a = (25/100) × (a + 1,800 + 1,500)

⇒ 4a = a + 3,300

⇒ a = 1,100

Number of people who like Pepsi in society B = 30% of total people

⇒ b = (30/100) × (b + 2,000 + 800)

⇒ 10b = 3b + 8,400

⇒ b = 1,200

Number of people who like Pepsi in society C = 20% of total people

⇒ c = (20/100) × (c + 1,750 + 1,050)

⇒ 5c = c + 2,800

⇒ c = 700

Number of people who like Pepsi in society D = 45% of total people

⇒ d = (45/100) × (d + 2,200 + 1,100)

⇒ 20d = 9d + 29,700

⇒ d = 2,700

and number of people who like Pepsi in society E = 40% of total people

⇒ e = (40/100) × (e + 2,400 + 900)

⇒ 5e = 2e + 6,600

⇒ e = 2,200

So, the following table will be prepared:

SocietyNumber of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A1,1001,8001,500
B1,2002,000800
C7001,7501,050
D2,7002,2001,100
E2,2002,400900
<br>

Total number of people who like Pepsi in the societies A, B and C together = 1,100 + 1,200 + 700

⇒ 3,000

and the total number of people who like Thums Up in the societies D and E together = 1,100 + 900

⇒ 2,000

Now, required ratio = 2,000 ∶ 3,000

⇒ 2 ∶ 3

∴ The ratio of the total number of people who like Thums Up in the societies D and E together to the total number of people who like Pepsi in the societies A, B and C together is 2 ∶ 3.

63

Find the average number of people in all the societies together.

  1. ((a))

    4,880

  2. ((b))

    4,680

  3. ((c))

    4,860

  4. ((d))

    6,480

  5. ((e))

    4,660

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4,680

Given:

SocietyPercentage of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900
<br>

People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of values)/(Number of values)

Calculation:

Let the number of people who like Pepsi in societies A, B, C, D and E be a, b, c, d and e respectively.

Then, Number of people who like Pepsi in society A = 25% of total people

⇒ a = (25/100) × (a + 1,800 + 1,500)

⇒ 4a = a + 3,300

⇒ a = 1,100

Number of people who like Pepsi in society B = 30% of total people

⇒ b = (30/100) × (b + 2,000 + 800)

⇒ 10b = 3b + 8,400

⇒ b = 1,200

Number of people who like Pepsi in society C = 20% of total people

⇒ c = (20/100) × (c + 1,750 + 1,050)

⇒ 5c = c + 2,800

⇒ c = 700

Number of people who like Pepsi in society D = 45% of total people

⇒ d = (45/100) × (d + 2,200 + 1,100)

⇒ 20d = 9d + 29,700

⇒ d = 2,700

and number of people who like Pepsi in society E = 40% of total people

⇒ e = (40/100) × (e + 2,400 + 900)

⇒ 5e = 2e + 6,600

⇒ e = 2,200

So, the following table will be prepared:

SocietyNumber of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A1,1001,8001,500
B1,2002,000800
C7001,7501,050
D2,7002,2001,100
E2,2002,400900
<br>

Total number of people in society A = 1,100 + 1,800 + 1,500 = 4,400

Total number of people in society B = 1,200 + 2,000 + 800 = 4,000

Total number of people in society C = 700 + 1,750 + 1,050 = 3,500

Total number of people in society D = 2,700 + 2,200 + 1,100 = 6,000

and the total number of people in society E = 2,200 + 2,400 + 900 = 5,500

Now, total number of people in all the societies together = 4,400 + 4,000 + 3,500 + 6,000 + 5,500

⇒ 23,400

Required average = 23,400/5

⇒ 4,680

∴ The average number of people in all the societies together is 4,680.

64

The total number of people who like Pepsi in the societies A and B together is what percent of the total number of people who like Mirinda in the societies D and E together?

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    12.5%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    100%

  5. ((e))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

50%

Given:

SocietyPercentage of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900
<br>

People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

Formula used:

Percentage = (Favourable value/Base value) × 100

Calculation:

Let the number of people who like Pepsi in societies A, B, C, D and E be a, b, c, d and e respectively.

Then, Number of people who like Pepsi in society A = 25% of total people

⇒ a = (25/100) × (a + 1,800 + 1,500)

⇒ 4a = a + 3,300

⇒ a = 1,100

Number of people who like Pepsi in society B = 30% of total people

⇒ b = (30/100) × (b + 2,000 + 800)

⇒ 10b = 3b + 8,400

⇒ b = 1,200

Number of people who like Pepsi in society C = 20% of total people

⇒ c = (20/100) × (c + 1,750 + 1,050)

⇒ 5c = c + 2,800

⇒ c = 700

Number of people who like Pepsi in society D = 45% of total people

⇒ d = (45/100) × (d + 2,200 + 1,100)

⇒ 20d = 9d + 29,700

⇒ d = 2,700

and number of people who like Pepsi in society E = 40% of total people

⇒ e = (40/100) × (e + 2,400 + 900)

⇒ 5e = 2e + 6,600

⇒ e = 2,200

So, the following table will be prepared:

SocietyNumber of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A1,1001,8001,500
B1,2002,000800
C7001,7501,050
D2,7002,2001,100
E2,2002,400900
<br>

Total number of people who like Pepsi in the societies A and B together = 1,100 + 1,200 = 2,300

and the total number of people who like Mirinda in the societies D and E together = 2,200 + 2,400 = 4,600

Now, required percent = (2,300/4,600) × 100

⇒ 50%

∴ The total number of people who like Pepsi in the societies A and B together is 50% of the total number of people who like Mirinda in the societies D and E together.

65

The total number of people in society D is what percent more of the total number of people in society B?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    150%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    100%

  5. ((e))

    200%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

50%

Given:

SocietyPercentage of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900
<br>

People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

Formula used:

Percentage = (Favourable value/Base value) × 100

Calculation:

Let the number of people who like Pepsi in societies A, B, C, D and E be a, b, c, d and e respectively.

Then, Number of people who like Pepsi in society A = 25% of total people

⇒ a = (25/100) × (a + 1,800 + 1,500)

⇒ 4a = a + 3,300

⇒ a = 1,100

Number of people who like Pepsi in society B = 30% of total people

⇒ b = (30/100) × (b + 2,000 + 800)

⇒ 10b = 3b + 8,400

⇒ b = 1,200

Number of people who like Pepsi in society C = 20% of total people

⇒ c = (20/100) × (c + 1,750 + 1,050)

⇒ 5c = c + 2,800

⇒ c = 700

Number of people who like Pepsi in society D = 45% of total people

⇒ d = (45/100) × (d + 2,200 + 1,100)

⇒ 20d = 9d + 29,700

⇒ d = 2,700

and number of people who like Pepsi in society E = 40% of total people

⇒ e = (40/100) × (e + 2,400 + 900)

⇒ 5e = 2e + 6,600

⇒ e = 2,200

So, the following table will be prepared:

SocietyNumber of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A1,1001,8001,500
B1,2002,000800
C7001,7501,050
D2,7002,2001,100
E2,2002,400900
<br>

Total number of people in society B = 1,200 + 2,000 + 800 = 4,000

and the total number of people in society D = 2,700 + 2,200 + 1,100 = 6,000

Now, required difference = 6,000 – 4,000 = 2,000

Required percent = (2,000/4,000) × 100

⇒ 50%

∴ The total number of people in society D is 50% more of the total number of people in society B.

66

What is the total number of people who like Pepsi in all the societies together?

  1. ((a))

    7220

  2. ((b))

    7480

  3. ((c))

    7120

  4. ((d))

    7600

  5. ((e))

    7900

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

7900

Given:

SocietyPercentage of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A25%1,8001,500
B30%2,000800
C20%1,7501,050
D45%2,2001,100
E40%2,400900
<br>

People who like Pepsi in a society = Percentage (%) of total people in that society

Formula used:

Percentage = (Favourable value/Base value) × 100

Calculation:

Let the number of people who like Pepsi in societies A, B, C, D and E be a, b, c, d and e respectively.

Then, Number of people who like Pepsi in society A = 25% of total people

⇒ a = (25/100) × (a + 1,800 + 1,500)

⇒ 4a = a + 3,300

⇒ a = 1,100

Number of people who like Pepsi in society B = 30% of total people

⇒ b = (30/100) × (b + 2,000 + 800)

⇒ 10b = 3b + 8,400

⇒ b = 1,200

Number of people who like Pepsi in society C = 20% of total people

⇒ c = (20/100) × (c + 1,750 + 1,050)

⇒ 5c = c + 2,800

⇒ c = 700

Number of people who like Pepsi in society D = 45% of total people

⇒ d = (45/100) × (d + 2,200 + 1,100)

⇒ 20d = 9d + 29,700

⇒ d = 2,700

and number of people who like Pepsi in society E = 40% of total people

⇒ e = (40/100) × (e + 2,400 + 900)

⇒ 5e = 2e + 6,600

⇒ e = 2,200

So, the following table will be prepared:

SocietyNumber of people like PepsiNumber of people like MirindaNumber of people like Thums Up
A1,1001,8001,500
B1,2002,000800
C7001,7501,050
D2,7002,2001,100
E2,2002,400900

The total number of people who like Pepsi in all the societies together = 1100 + 1200 + 700 + 2700 + 2200 

⇒ 7900

67

A shopkeeper purchased two articles 'P' and 'Q'. He sold article 'P' after giving a discount of 25% and made a profit of 5%. Average selling price of article 'P' and 'Q' is Rs. 1443.75 while overall profit made by him on selling both articles is 37.5%. If marked price of article 'P' is Rs. 1260, then find the profit made by him on selling article 'Q'?

  1. ((a))

    60.725%

  2. ((b))

    61.875%

  3. ((c))

    62.775%

  4. ((d))

    63.875%

  5. ((e))

    64.725%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

61.875%

Given :

Marked price of article 'P' = 1260 Rs.

Discount given on article 'P' = 25%

Profit made on article 'P' = 5%

Overall profit made on both articles = 37.5%

Average selling price of both articles = 1443.75 Rs.

Calculation :

Selling price of article 'P' = 1260 × 75% = 945 Rs.

Cost price of article 'P' = 945/1.05 = 900 Rs.

Total selling price of both articles = 1443.75 × 2 = 2887.5 Rs.

Total cost price of both articles = 2887.5/1.375 = 2100 Rs.

Cost price of article 'Q' = 2100 - 900 = 1200 Rs.

Selling price of article 'Q' = 2887.5 - 945 =1942.5 Rs.

Profit% earned on article 'Q' = [(1942.5 - 1200)/1200] × 100 = 61.875%

Hence, the correct answer is 61.875%.

68

Vande Bharat express and Tejas express trains were running in the same direction with the speed in the ratio 9 : 13 respectively. Vivek is the loco pilot of the Vande Bharat express, he noticed that Tejas express, which is coming from behind overtook and crossed his train completely in 185 seconds while Sachin is sitting in Tejas express observed that, he crossed the Vande Bharat express train in 90 seconds. Find the ratio of the length of Vande Bharat and Tejas express trains respectively.

  1. ((a))

     15 : 19

  2. ((b))

     18 : 19

  3. ((c))

     16 : 17

  4. ((d))

     18 : 23

  5. ((e))

     16 : 19

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 18 : 19

Speed of Vande Bharat express is 9 unit and speed of Tejas express train is 13 unit.

 Relative speed is when they going in the same direction = 13 unit - 9 unit = 4 unit.

 And relative speed is the same every moment it means speed is constant then the Time ratio is equal to the distance ratio.

 When Tejas express overtakes and crossed Vande Bharat express they travel distance, which is equal to the length of Tejas and the length of Vande Bharat.

 Distance = T + V 

 They take 185 seconds to overtake 

 When Sachin observe the Vande Bharat express then this distance is equal to length of Vande Bharat express. 

 Distance = V

 They take 90 seconds to cross 

 Time ratio is  185 : 90 ⇒ 37 : 18

 When speed is constant then the time ratio is equal to the distance ratio 

 Then  T+V : V = 37 : 18

    ⇒ T + V = 37 

    ⇒ T + 18 = 37

    ⇒ T = 37 -18 = 19

 The ratio of length of Train Vande Bharat and Tejas express is 18 : 19 respectively.

 Hence, 18 : 19 is the correct answer.

Read the given paragraph and answer the following questions.

Three friends Anand, Binod and Chanchal started a firm together. In the month of January, Anand invested an amount of Rs. 32000 while Binod and Chanchal invested in the ratio 2 ∶ 3. In the month of February, Anand and Chanchal invested Rs. 7000 and Rs. 9000 more respectively while Binod had withdrawn Rs. 3000. In the month of March, Chanchal invested Rs. 5000 more while Binod had withdrawn Rs. 5000. The investment made by Anand, Binod and Chanchal at the end of March is in the ratio 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 5.

69

If the profit of Binod in January is Rs. 17000 and profit of Chanchal in February is Rs. 12000. The ratio of profit of Anand in January to that in February is

  1. ((a))

    13 ∶ 39

  2. ((b))

    39 ∶ 13

  3. ((c))

    80 ∶ 39

  4. ((d))

    39 ∶ 80

  5. ((e))

    70 : 37

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

80 ∶ 39

Given:

AnandBinodChanchal
January320002x3x
February390002x - 30003x + 9000
March390002x - 80003x + 14000

Ratio of Investment made by Anand, Binod and Chanchal in March = 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 5

Calculation:

39000 ∶ (2x - 8000) ∶ (3x + 14000) = 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 5

⇒ 39000/(2x - 8000) = 3/2

⇒ 2 × 39000 = 3 × (2x - 8000)

⇒ 78000 = 6x - 24000

⇒ 6x = 102000

⇒ x = 17000

AnandBinodChanchal
January320003400051000
February390003100060000
March390002600065000
<br>

Calculation:

Let the profit of Anand in January be x and in February be y.

Investment of Anand in January ∶ Investment of Binod in January = Profit of Anand in January ∶ Profit of Binod in January

⇒ 32000 ∶ 34000 = x ∶ 17000

⇒ 16 ∶ 17 = x ∶ 17000

⇒ x = 16000

∴ Profit of Anand in January = Rs. 16000

Investment of Anand in February ∶ Investment of Chanchal in February = Profit of Anand in February ∶ Profit of Chanchal in February

⇒ 39000 ∶ 60000 = y ∶ 12000

⇒ 13 ∶ 20 = y ∶ 12000

⇒ y = 7800

∴ Profit of Anand in February = Rs. 7800

∴ Required ratio = 16000 ∶ 7800

⇒ Required ratio = 80 ∶ 39

70

If Anand, Binod and Chanchal invest for one more month i.e. April such that the investment made by Anand and Binod together is Rs. 41000 and they invested their amount for 10 and 15 days respectively. Find for how many days C invested his amount of Rs. 20000 in April if the profits made by Anand, Binod and Chanchal in April is Rs. 5000, Rs. 13000 and Rs. 12000 respectively.

  1. ((a))

    21 days

  2. ((b))

    15 days

  3. ((c))

    18 days

  4. ((d))

    13 days

  5. ((e))

    28 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

18 days

Given:

AnandBinodChanchal
January320002x3x
February390002x - 30003x + 9000
March390002x - 80003x + 14000

Ratio of Investment made by Anand, Binod and Chanchal in March = 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 5

Calculation:

39000 ∶ (2x - 8000) ∶ (3x + 14000) = 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 5

⇒ 39000/(2x - 8000) = 3/2

⇒ 2 × 39000 = 3 × (2x - 8000)

⇒ 78000 = 6x - 24000

⇒ 6x = 102000

⇒ x = 17000

AnandBinodChanchal
January320003400051000
February390003100060000
March390002600065000
<br>

Investment of Anand and Binod together = Rs. 41000

Investment of Chanchal = Rs. 20000

Anand invested for 10 days

Binod invested for 15 days

Anand's profit = Rs. 5000

Binod's profit = Rs. 13000

Chanchal's profit = Rs. 12000

Concept Used:

Ratio of investment corresponding to time = Ratio of their respective profits

Calculation:

Let the investment of Anand be x and investment of Binod be y.

Let Chanchal invested his amount for 'n' days.

(x × 10) ∶ (y × 15) ∶ (20000 × n) = 5000 ∶ 13000 ∶ 12000

⇒ 2x ∶ 3y ∶ 4000n = 5 ∶ 13 ∶ 12

⇒ 2x ∶ 3y = 5 ∶ 13

⇒ x ∶ y = 15 ∶ 26

∵ x + y = 41000

∴ x = (15/41) × 41000

⇒ x = 15000

y = 41000 - 15000

⇒ y = 26000

3y ∶ 4000n = 13 ∶ 12

⇒ (3 × 26000) ∶ 4000n = 13 ∶ 12

⇒ 39 ∶ 2n = 13 ∶ 12

⇒ 39/2n = 13/12

⇒ n = (39 × 12)/(2 × 13)

⇒ n = 18

∴ Chanchal invested his amount of Rs. 20000 for 18 days.

71

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

In a 500 meter race, Avi gives a head start to Sia of 10 seconds and still wins the race by 100 meters. What is the speed taken by Sia to win the race?

Statement (I): Ratio of speed of Avi and Sia is x: b.

Statement (II): Avi takes 100 seconds to finish the race

  1. ((a))

    Only statement I is sufficient

  2. ((b))

    Only statement II is sufficient

  3. ((c))

    Either statement I or statement II is sufficient

  4. ((d))

    Both statement I and II together is sufficient

  5. ((e))

    Both statement I and II together is not sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only statement II is sufficient

From statement I:

Let speed of Avi be x m/sec and Sia be b m/sec

Distance travel by sia in 10sec = b/10

Difference between distance travel by Avi and Sia is 100 meters. 

this statement is not sufficient to answer the question. 

From statement II:

Avi takes 100 sec to finish the race. 

Speed of Avi to finish 500 m race = 500/100 = 5 m/sec

Time taken by Sia to complete the race 110 sec.

Speed of Sia to complete the 500m race = 400/110 = 3.63 m/sec 

Hence statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

72

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

<br>

P, Q, and S can complete a work in 12 days. If S starts working alone for the first 6 days and then, left the work, the remaining work is completed by R alone. Find the time taken by R to complete the remaining work?

Statement I: P and Q together can complete the work in 15 days.

Statement II: R and S together can complete the work in 10 days.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

let the total work = 60 units

efficiency of P+Q+S = 60/12 = 5

Statement I: P and Q together can complete the work in 15 days.

efficiency of P+Q = 60/15 = 4

efficiency of S = 5-4 = 1

S starts working alone for the first 6 days and then, left the work.

Total work completed by S alone = 6*1 = 6 units

Remaining work = (60-6)/R = 54/R

So, the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II: R and S together can complete the work in 10 days.

efficiency of R+S = 60/10 = 6

So, the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining both statements I and II together: If S = 1

Then, the efficiency of R = 6-1=5

time taken by R to complete the remaining work = 54/5 = 10.8 days

Hence, the correct answer is the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

73

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

<br>

Mr. Yash invested Rs. ‘P’ in a scheme offering R% p.a. Simple interest. Find the value of ‘P’?

Statement I: Interest earned by Mr. Yash after 4 years is Rs.1600.

Statement II: Interest earned by Mr. Yash after 5 years is Rs.2000.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement I: Mr. Yash invested Rs. ‘P’ in a scheme offering R% p.a. Simple interest and Interest earned by him after 4 years is Rs.1600.

Therefore, (P×R×4)/100 = 1600

Or, P×R = 40000 ...(a)

Here we have two variables, so the equation can't be solved.

So, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II: Mr. Yash invested Rs. ‘P’ in a scheme offering R% p.a. Simple interest and Interest earned by him after 5 years is Rs.2000.

Therefore, (P×R×5)/100 = 2000

Or, P×R = 40000 ...(b)

Here we have two variables, so the equation can't be solved.

So, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining statement (I) and (II): we notice that both the equations (a) and (b) are identical. Therefore, the value of P and R can't be determined.

The correct is the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

74

Directions: Below question is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

What is the ratio between the marks obtained by Raj in mathematics and physics?

Statement I: The total marks obtained by Raj in Hindi, Mathematics and Physics is 270 and the total marks obtained by him in Mathematics and Hindi is 195.

Statement II: The ratio between the marks obtained by him in Hindi and Physics is 6 : 5.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement II alone is not sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Both statement I and statement II together is needed to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Neither statement I and nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both statement I and statement II together is needed to answer the question.

Given:

From statement I,

The total marks obtained by Raj in Hindi, Mathematics and Physics = 270 

The total marks obtained by Raj in Hindi and Mathematics = 195

From statement II,

The ratio between the marks obtained by Raj in Hindi and Physics = 6 : 5

Calculation:

From statement I and II together,

Marks in Physics = (Total marks in Hindi, Mathematics and Physics) - (Total marks in Hindi and Mathematics)

⇒ 270 - 195

⇒ 75

Let the marks obtained by Raj in Hindi and Physics be 6x and 5x respectively.

Then, 5x = 75

⇒ x = 15

Marks in Hindi = 6 × 15

⇒ 90

Marks in Mathematics = 195 - (Marks in Hindi)

⇒ 195 - 90

⇒ 105

Required ratio = 105/75

⇒ 7/5

⇒ 7 : 5

Hence the ratio between the marks obtained by Raj in mathematics and physics = 7 : 5

∴ Both statement I and statement II together is needed to answer the question.

75

Directions: The following question is accompanied by two statements (I), (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

What is the quantity of alcohol in 120 liters of a mixture of alcohol and water?

Statement I: If 12 liters of water is poured into the mixture, then the ratio of alcohol and water would be  8 : 3.

Statement II: If 20 liters of the solution is taken out and replaced with pure alcohol, then the ratio of the quantity of alcohol to that of water in the solution will be 5 : 1.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement II alone is not sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Both statement I and statement II together is needed to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Neither statement I and nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement I:

Given:

Added quantity of water = 12 l

Ratio of alcohol and water after addition of water = 8 : 3

Calculation:

Let x be the initial quantity of water

Equating the quantity of water

{(x + 12)/(120 + 12)} = 3/(8 + 3)

⇒ (x + 12)/132 = 3/11

⇒ (x + 12)/12 = 3

⇒ x + 12 = 36

⇒ x = 36 – 12 = 24

Quantity of water in 120 liters mixture is 24 l

Quantity of alcohol in 120 liters mixture is 120 – 24 = 96 l

∴ Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:

Given:

Quantity of mixture replaced with alcohol = 20 l

The ratio of alcohol and water after replacement = 5 : 1

Calculation:

Let the quantity of alcohol be x

⇒ Quantity of alcohol after replacement = (x/120) × 100 = 5x/6

⇒ Quantity of water after replacement = 100 – (5x/6)

Equating with given ratio

{(5x/6) + 20}/{100 – (5x/6)} = 5/1

⇒ {(5x/6) + 20} = 500 – (25x/6)

⇒ (30x/6) = 480

⇒ x = 480/5 = 96

Quantity of alcohol in 120 liters mixture is 120 – 24 = 96 l

The quantity of water in 120 liters mixture is 24 l

∴ Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Directions: Study the data carefully answer the following questions given below

The table given below shows the cost price, marked up % and discount % of five models of Redmi phones in a Mi store.

ProductCost price (CP)Marked up %Discount %
Redmi Note 10 pro1800030
Redmi Note 10 pro Max10
Poco M324999
Mi lite 11x2015
Mi 10 lite NE2500025
76

If 15% discount is allowed on Redmi Note 10 Pro, then what is the SP of Redmi Note 10 Pro?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 19890

  2. ((b))

    Rs 19790

  3. ((c))

    Rs 19880

  4. ((d))

    Rs 18890

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 19890

Given:

CP of Redmi Note 10 pro = Rs. 18000

Concept used:

Profit% = Profit = {(SP - CP)CP} × 100

Calculation:

MP = 18000 × 13/10

⇒ Rs. 23400

According to the question,

Price after discount = 23400 × 85/100

⇒ Rs. 19890

SP = Rs 19890

77

A buyer purchased a Redmi Note 10 pro from the Mi store, they gave him a discount of 15% on the marked price along with it they gave him an additional cash voucher of Rs. 1000. In this whole transaction find the profit percentage of the Mi store(Nearest to one decimal).

  1. ((a))

    1.5%

  2. ((b))

    2%

  3. ((c))

    3%

  4. ((d))

    4.9%

  5. ((e))

    3.9%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4.9%

Given:

CP of Redmi Note 10 pro = Rs. 18000

Concept used:

Profit% = Profit = {(SP - CP)CP} × 100

Calculation:

MP = 18000 × 13/10

⇒ Rs. 23400

According to the question,

Price after discount = 23400 × 17/20

⇒ Rs. 19890

SP = 19890 – 1000

⇒ Rs.18890

Profit % = {(18890 – 18000)/18000} × 100

⇒ 89/18

⇒ 4.944%≈ 4.9% 

∴ The profit percentage of the Mi store is 4.9%

78

Marked price of Poco M3 is 200% of cost price of Redmi Note 10 pro, then find the profit percentage on selling(approx). It is given that numerical values of profit and discount are same.

  1. ((a))

    21%

  2. ((b))

    22%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    23%

  5. ((e))

    25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

22%

Given:

CP of Redmi Note 10 pro = Rs. 18000

CP of Poco M3 = Rs. 24999

Concept used:

Profit = {(SP - CP)CP} × 100

Calculation:

MP of Poco M3 = Rs. 18000 × 200%

⇒ 36000

According to the question,

36000 – x = 24999 + x

⇒ 2x = 11001

⇒ x = 5500.5

⇒ Profit = Rs. 5500.5

Profit % = 5500.5/24999 × 100

⇒ 22.0028% ≈ 22%

∴ Profit percentage on selling is 22%

79

Find profit or loss % on selling Mi lite 11x.

  1. ((a))

    3%

  2. ((b))

    – 2%

  3. ((c))

    2%

  4. ((d))

    – 3%

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2%

Given:

Marked up % = 20%

Discount % = 15%

Concept used:

Profit/loss = + MP% – Discount% + {(MP% × Discount%)/100}

Calculation:

As we know about successive increase or decrease

  • 20% – 15% + {20 × (-15)}100

⇒ + 5% - 3%

⇒ + 2%

∴ Required profit % is 2%

80

Find the ratio between marked price of Redmi Note 10 pro and marked price of Mi 10 lite NE, when Mi 10 lite NE is sold at a profit of 20%.

  1. ((a))

    40 : 41

  2. ((b))

    117 : 200

  3. ((c))

    200 : 117

  4. ((d))

    5 : 9

  5. ((e))

    9 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

117 : 200

Given:

CP of Mi 10 lite NE = 25000

Concept used:

MP = CP × Marked up %

Calculation:

Marked price of Redmi Note 10 pro = 18000 × 13/10

⇒ 23400

Marked price of Mi 10 lite NE = 25000 × 6/5 × 4/3

⇒ 30000 × 4/3

⇒ 40000

Ratio = 23400 : 40000

⇒ 117 : 200

∴ Required ratio between marked price of Redmi Note 10 pro and marked price of Mi 10 lite NE is 117 : 200

81

The marked price of Redmi Note 10 pro Max is Rs. 26666 and 20% profit was earned from it while selling. Find the cost price (Nearest to one decimal).

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 20000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 19999

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 21999

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 21000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 22000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 20000

Given:

MP = Rs. 26666

Profit = 20%

Discount = 10%

Concept used:

SP = CP × profit %

SP = MP × Discount %

Calculation:

According to the question,

CP = 26666 × 9/10 × 5/6

⇒ 26666 × 3/4

⇒ 19999..5 

⇒ CP = Rs. 20000

∴ The cost price Redmi Note 10 pro Max is Rs. 20000

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. The following table shows the total amount spent on fencing the different types of land and the sides of the land also given. Some values are missing here. 

Fencing (per m)total amount spent on fencing
Circle10 Rs1320 Rs
Equilateral triangle12 Rs540 Rs
Square8 Rs768 Rs
Rectangle5 Rs500Rs
82

 If a 7 m wider path is inscribed in the circular land, then find the area of the path?

  1. ((a))

    770 sq m

  2. ((b))

    840 sq m 

  3. ((c))

    720 sq m 

  4. ((d))

    640 sq m

  5. ((e))

    800 sq m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

770 sq m

The area of the path = (22/7) * (212 – 142)

= > (22/7) * (21 + 14) (21 – 14)

= > (22/7) * 35 * 7 

= > 770 sq m

Hence the area of the path is 770 sq m.

83

Find the length of the rectangle, if the area of the rectangle is 576 sq m.

  1. ((a))

    32m

  2. ((b))

    36m

  3. ((c))

    44m

  4. ((d))

    40m

  5. ((e))

    30m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32m

Perimeter of circle = 2 * (22/7) * r = 1320 / 10 

r = 132 * (7/22) * (1/2) = 21 m

Perimeter of equilateral triangle = 3a = 540 / 12 = > a = 45 / 3 = 15 m 

Perimeter of equilateral triangle = 3a = 540 / 12 = > a = 45 / 3 = 15 m 

Perimeter of square = 768 / 8 = 96 = > 4a = 96 = > a = 24 m

Perimeter of rectangle = 500 / 5 = 100 = > 2 * (l + b) = 100 

= > l + b = 50 m 

Area of rectangle = 576 sq m

= > lb = 576

= > l * (50 – l) = 576

= > 50l – l2 = 576

= > l2 – 50l + 576 = 0

= > (l - 32) (l - 18) = 0

= > l = 32, 18

If l = 32,

then b = 18

If l = 18,

then b = 32

The length of the rectangle is always greater than the breadth.

So, l = 32 m, b = 18 m

The length of the rectangle (l) = 32 m

Hence the length of the rectangle is 32 m.

84

In an election survey, 83(1/3)% of total voters took part in the survey, 50% of them claim to vote for candidate D, 10% of them are uncertain & rest claim they voted for E. If all of them voted according to their commitment on the day of the election and those who were not part of the survey, voted for D and E in a ratio of 2:1 respectively and all the people, who are uncertain in the survey, voted for D and E in the ratio of 1 :4 respectively in the election. If D won By 640 votes then find the total number of voters in the election.

  1. ((a))

    6000

  2. ((b))

    6750

  3. ((c))

    9000

  4. ((d))

    5000

  5. ((e))

    7200

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

7200

In an election survey 83(1/3) % total voters took part in survey 

⇒ 83(1/3) % = 250 / 300 = 5 / 6

It means the total number of voters is 6 units and the voters, who participated in the survey is 5 units 

For easy calculation we let 6 unit = 180 and 5 unit = 150 

Total number of people, who participated in the survey is 150

50% of people, who participated in the survey voted for candidate D

⇒ 150 × 50% = 75

10% are uncertain 

 ⇒ 150 × 10% = 15

Rest people voted for candidate E

⇒ 150 - (75 + 15) 

⇒ 150 - 90 = 60

Those who do not participate in the survey they voted for D and E in a ratio 2 :1 respectively.

People who do not participate in the survey are 180 - 150 = 30

Then, the vote of 30 people divided in a ratio 2 : 1

⇒ 3 units = 30

⇒ 1 unit = 10

Vote for Candidate D = 20

Vote for Candidate E = 10

Uncertain number of people are 15 

They voted for D and E in a ratio 1 : 4 respectively

⇒ 5 units = 15

⇒ 1 unit = 3

Vote for Candidate D is 3

Vote for Candidate E is 4 units = 4 × 3 = 12

Total votes received by D is (75 + 20 + 3) = 98

Total votes received by E is (60 + 10 + 12) = 82

Here D win by 98 - 82 unit = 16 units 

16 units = 640

1 unit = 40

So, the total number of voters in the election is 180 × 40 = 7200

Hence, 7200 is the correct answer.

85

In a bag, there are some red, black and yellow balls. Sum of black and yellow balls is 9. Probability of selecting two red balls from that bag is 1/7 which is 250% of the probability of selecting two black balls. Find number of yellow balls in that bag if the number of black balls is even. 

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5

Given:

Black balls + Yellow balls = 9

Probability of selecting two red balls = 1/7 = Probability of selecting two black balls 

Concept used:

A combination is the choice of r things from a set of n things without replacement and where order does not matter and is given by 

⇒  nCr = n!/{r! × (n - r)!}

Probability of an event = number of favourable outcomes/total possible outcomes

Calculation:

Let the number of red and black balls be x and y respectively

Then, probability of selecting two red balls = (xC2)/((9 + x)C2) = 1/7

⇒ x × (x - 1)/(9 + x)(8 + x) = 1/7

⇒ 7x2 - 7x = x2 + 17x + 72

⇒ 6x2 - 24x - 72 = 0 

⇒ x = 6 

∴ Number of red balls = 6

Total number of balls  = 9 + 6 = 15

Now, the probability of selecting two black balls from the bag = (yC2)/(15C2) = (1/7) × 100/250

⇒ y(y - 1)/(15 × 14) = (1/7) × (2/5)

⇒ y = 4

∴ The number of black ball = 4

∴ The number of yellow coloured ball = 15 - 6 - 4 = 5 balls.

Direction: Read the data carefully and answer the following questions:

In a school of certain number of students like atleast one of the three colors- White, Browm and Blue. 1,200 students like only White color and the number of students who like only Brown color is 25% less than the number of students who like only White color. The number of students who like Blue color but not White color is two times the number of students who like only Brown color. The number of students who like only like only Blue color is 5/4 of the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color. The sum of number of students who like both White and Brown colors and both White and Blue colors is 1,500. The ratio of number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color to the number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 3 : 1. The number of students who like all the three colors is 1/4 of the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color.

86

If 48% of the total number of students who like Brown color are girls then, find the number of girls who like Brown color.

  1. ((a))

    1,300

  2. ((b))

    1,302

  3. ((c))

    1,304

  4. ((d))

    1,306

  5. ((e))

    1,308

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

1,308

Given:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color

Number of students who like Blue color but not White color = 2 ×  Number of students who like only Brown color

Number of students who like only like only Blue color = (5/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Sum of number of students who like both White and Brown colors and both White and Blue colors is 1,500

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color : Number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 3 : 1

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Calculation: 

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color.

⇒ [(100 – 25)/100] × 1,200

⇒ (75/100) × 1,200

⇒ 900

Number of students who like Blue color but not White = 2 × 900

⇒ 1,800

Let the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color be 4x.

Then, the number of students who like only Blue color = (5/4) × 4x = 5x

So, 5x + 4x = 1,800

⇒ 9x = 1,800

⇒ x = 200

Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color = 4 × 200 = 800

and the number of students who like only Blue color = 5 × 200 = 1,000

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × 800

⇒ 200

Let the number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color and the number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color be 3y and y respectively.

Then, (3y + 200) + (y + 200) = 1,500

⇒ 4y + 400 = 1,500

⇒ 4y = 1,100

⇒ y = 275

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color = 3 × 275 = 825

Now, the following venn diagram will be prepared:

Total number of students who like Brown color = 825 + 200 + 800 + 900

⇒ 2,725

So, the number of girls who like Brown color = (48/100) × 2,725

⇒ 1,308

∴ The number of girls who like Brown color is 1,308.

87

Find the difference between the total number of students who like only one color and the total number of students who like only two colors.

  1. ((a))

    1,200

  2. ((b))

    2,100

  3. ((c))

    1,000

  4. ((d))

    2,000

  5. ((e))

    1,100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1,200

Given:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color

Number of students who like Blue color but not White color = 2 ×  Number of students who like only Brown color

Number of students who like only like only Blue color = (5/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Sum of number of students who like both White and Brown colors and both White and Blue colors is 1,500

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color : Number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 3 : 1

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Calculation: 

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color.

⇒ [(100 – 25)/100] × 1,200

⇒ (75/100) × 1,200

⇒ 900

Number of students who like Blue color but not White = 2 × 900

⇒ 1,800

Let the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color be 4x.

Then, the number of students who like only Blue color = (5/4) × 4x = 5x

So, 5x + 4x = 1,800

⇒ 9x = 1,800

⇒ x = 200

Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color = 4 × 200 = 800

and the number of students who like only Blue color = 5 × 200 = 1,000

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × 800

⇒ 200

Let the number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color and the number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color be 3y and y respectively.

Then, (3y + 200) + (y + 200) = 1,500

⇒ 4y + 400 = 1,500

⇒ 4y = 1,100

⇒ y = 275

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color = 3 × 275 = 825

Now, the following venn diagram will be prepared:

Total number of students who like only one color = 1,200 + 900 + 1,000

⇒ 3,100 students

and the total number of people who like only 2 colors = 275 + 825 + 800

⇒ 1,900 students

So, required difference = 3,100 – 1,900

⇒ 1,200

∴ The difference between the total number of students who like only one color and the total number of students who like only two colors is 1,200.

88

The number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color is what percent of the number of students who like only White color

  1. ((a))

    68.25%

  2. ((b))

    67.25%

  3. ((c))

    68.75%

  4. ((d))

    67.75%

  5. ((e))

    75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

68.75%

Given:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color

Number of students who like Blue color but not White color = 2 ×  Number of students who like only Brown color

Number of students who like only like only Blue color = (5/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Sum of number of students who like both White and Brown colors and both White and Blue colors is 1,500

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color : Number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 3 : 1

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Formula used:

Percentage = (Favourable value/Base value) × 100

Calculation: 

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color.

⇒ [(100 – 25)/100] × 1,200

⇒ (75/100) × 1,200

⇒ 900

Number of students who like Blue color but not White = 2 × 900

⇒ 1,800

Let the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color be 4x.

Then, the number of students who like only Blue color = (5/4) × 4x = 5x

So, 5x + 4x = 1,800

⇒ 9x = 1,800

⇒ x = 200

Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color = 4 × 200 = 800

and the number of students who like only Blue color = 5 × 200 = 1,000

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × 800

⇒ 200

Let the number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color and the number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color be 3y and y respectively.

Then, (3y + 200) + (y + 200) = 1,500

⇒ 4y + 400 = 1,500

⇒ 4y = 1,100

⇒ y = 275

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color = 3 × 275 = 825

Now, the following venn diagram will be prepared:

Required percent = (825/1,200) × 100

⇒ 68.75%

∴ The number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color is 68.75% of the number of students who like only White color.

89

Find the total number of students in the school.

  1. ((a))

    5,000

  2. ((b))

    5,100

  3. ((c))

    5,200

  4. ((d))

    5,220

  5. ((e))

    5,300

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5,200

Given:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color

Number of students who like Blue color but not White color = 2 ×  Number of students who like only Brown color

Number of students who like only like only Blue color = (5/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Sum of number of students who like both White and Brown colors and both White and Blue colors is 1,500

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color : Number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 3 : 1

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Calculation:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color.

⇒ [(100 – 25)/100] × 1,200

⇒ (75/100) × 1,200

⇒ 900

Number of students who like Blue color but not White = 2 × 900

⇒ 1,800

Let the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color be 4x.

Then, the number of students who like only Blue color = (5/4) × 4x = 5x

So, 5x + 4x = 1,800

⇒ 9x = 1,800

⇒ x = 200

Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color = 4 × 200 = 800

and the number of students who like only Blue color = 5 × 200 = 1,000

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × 800

⇒ 200

Let the number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color and the number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color be 3y and y respectively.

Then, (3y + 200) + (y + 200) = 1,500

⇒ 4y + 400 = 1,500

⇒ 4y = 1,100

⇒ y = 275

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color = 3 × 275 = 825

Now, the following venn diagram will be prepared:

The total number of students in the school = 1,200 + 825 + 900 + 275 + 200 + 800 + 1,000

⇒ 5,200 students.

∴ The total number of students in the school is 5,200.

90

The number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is what percent more than the number of students who like all the three colors. 

  1. ((a))

    35%

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    37.5%

  4. ((d))

    38.5%

  5. ((e))

    33.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

37.5%

Given:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color

Number of students who like Blue color but not White color = 2 ×  Number of students who like only Brown color

Number of students who like only like only Blue color = (5/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Sum of number of students who like both White and Brown colors and both White and Blue colors is 1,500

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color : Number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 3 : 1

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color

Formula used:

Percentage = (Favourable value/Base value) × 100

Calculation:

Number of students who like only Brown color =  25% less than the number of students who like only White color.

⇒ [(100 – 25)/100] × 1,200

⇒ (75/100) × 1,200

⇒ 900

Number of students who like Blue color but not White = 2 × 900

⇒ 1,800

Let the number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color be 4x.

Then, the number of students who like only Blue color = (5/4) × 4x = 5x

So, 5x + 4x = 1,800

⇒ 9x = 1,800

⇒ x = 200

Number of students who like both Brown and Blue colors but not White color = 4 × 200 = 800

and the number of students who like only Blue color = 5 × 200 = 1,000

Number of students who like all the three colors = (1/4) × 800

⇒ 200

Let the number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color and the number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color be 3y and y respectively.

Then, (3y + 200) + (y + 200) = 1,500

⇒ 4y + 400 = 1,500

⇒ 4y = 1,100

⇒ y = 275

Number of students who like both White and Brown colors but not Blue color = 3 × 275 = 825

Now, the following venn diagram will be prepared:

Required difference = 275 – 200 = 75

So, required percent = (75/200) × 100

⇒ 37.5%

∴ The number of students who like both White and Blue colors but not Brown color is 37.5% more than the number of students who like all three colors.

Insurance and Financial Market Awareness (30 questions)

91

CCEA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. CCEA stands for __________.

  1. ((a))

    Chief Commission of Economic Affairs

  2. ((b))

    Committee on Commerce and Economic Affairs

  3. ((c))

    Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Committee on Commerce and Environment Affairs

  5. ((e))

    Cabinet Committee on Environment Affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

The correct answer is Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.

Key Points

  • CCEA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. CCEA stands for Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.​
  • The primary function is to review economic trends on a continuous basis, as also the problems and prospects, with a view to evolving a consistent and integrated economic policy framework for the country.​
  • It directs and coordinates all policies and activities in the economic field.
  • It considers proposals for investment of more than Rs 1,000 crore, deal with industrial licensing policies, and review rural development and the Public Distribution System.

Additional Information 

  • There are currently eight cabinet committees-
  • Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
  • Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.
  • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
  • Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
  • Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs.
  • Cabinet Committee on Security.
  • Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth.
  • Cabinet Committee on Employment & Skill Development.
  • Except for the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs and Accommodation, all committees are led by the Prime Minister.
92

______________ is a trade in which imported goods are re-exported with or without any additional processing or repackaging.

  1. ((a))

    External Trade

  2. ((b))

    Internal Trade

  3. ((c))

    Bilateral Trade

  4. ((d))

    Entrepot Trade

  5. ((e))

    Retail Trade

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Entrepot Trade

The correct answer is Entrepot Trade.

Key Points

  • Entrepot Trade
  • ​It is a trade in which imported goods are re-exported with or without any additional processing or repackaging.
  • It is primarily used to refer to duty-free ports with high volume or re-export trade.
  • For instance, if the metal is imported from India to Singapore, processed, and then re-exported to China, it is entrepot trade.

Additional Information

  • External Trade
  • External trade is defined as the trade involving buying and selling of goods between two different countries or two parties located in different nations.
  • Internal Trade
  • Internal trade is defined as the trade involving buying and selling taking place between two parties within the political and geographical boundaries of a nation.
  • Bilateral Trade
  • ​Bilateral trade is defined as trade exclusively between two countries.
  • Retail Trade
  • Retail trade is defined as the trade involving purchasing goods from manufacturers and selling them to the final consumers.
93

Who amongst the following are offered shares in a company under the ESOP?

  1. ((a))

    Employee

  2. ((b))

    Existing Shareholders

  3. ((c))

    Promoters

  4. ((d))

    NRIs

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Employee

An employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is a qualified defined-contribution employee benefit (ERISA) plan designed to invest primarily in the stock of the sponsoring employer. ESOPs are "qualified" in the sense that the ESOP's sponsoring company, the selling shareholder and participants receive various tax benefits.

94

CAMELS is an international rating system that rates financial institutions. What does E stand for in CAMELS?

  1. ((a))

    Equity

  2. ((b))

    Earnings

  3. ((c))

    Effective

  4. ((d))

    Endowment

  5. ((e))

    Economic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Earnings

The correct answer is Earnings.

Key Points

  • CAMELS is an international rating system that rates financial institutions. CAMELS stands for Capital adequacy, Asset quality, Management, Earnings, Liquidity, and Sensitivity
  • ​It is an international rating system used by regulatory banking authorities to rate financial institutions.
  • Supervisory authorities assign each bank a score on a scale.
  • A rating of one is considered the best, and a rating of five is considered the worst for each factor.
  • Unlike other regulatory ratios or ratings, the CAMELS rating is not released to the public.

Additional Information

  • Capital Adequacy
  • It assesses an institution’s compliance with regulations on the minimum capital reserve amount.
  • Regulators establish the rating by assessing the financial institution’s capital position currently and over several years.
  • Assets
  • It assesses the quality of a bank’s assets.
  • Asset quality is important, as the value of assets can decrease rapidly if they are high-risk.
  • Management Capability
  • It measures the ability of an institution’s management team to identify and then react to financial stress.
  • It depends on the quality of a bank’s business strategy, financial performance, and internal controls.
  • Earnings
  • It helps to evaluate an institution’s long-term viability.
  • A bank needs an appropriate return to be able to grow its operations and maintain its competitiveness.
  • Liquidity
  • It examines the interest rate risk and liquidity risk.
  • Liquidity risk is defined as the risk of not being able to meet present or future cash flow needs without affecting day-to-day operations.
  • Sensitivity
  • It measures an institution’s sensitivity to market risks.
95

As per the IRDAI, insurance companies can have an exposure to financial and insurance activities up to _______ of investment assets. 

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    50%

  5. ((e))

    55%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

30%

The correct answer is 30%.

Key Points

  • As per the IRDAI, insurance companies can have exposure to financial and insurance activities up to 30% of investment assets.  
  • It was earlier 25%.
  • Investment in housing finance companies and infrastructure finance companies are also a part of this.
  • This hike would help insurers bring their exposure to financial and insurance activities near broader Indian market indices.
  • The increase of investment assets capping provides more room for insurers to optimize their investment strategy.
  • It gives insurers the flexibility to invest in different assets and improve their returns over the long term.

Additional Information

  • Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India 
  • It is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDA Act, 1999) for overall supervision and development of the Insurance sector in India.
  • The key objectives of the IRDAI include the following-
  • protecting the interest of policyholders
  • the speedy and orderly growth of the insurance industry
  • quick settlement of genuine claims
  • effective grievance redressal mechanism
  • promoting fairness, transparency, and orderly conduct in financial markets dealing with insurance, and prudential regulation while ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market.
96

In which year did the IRDAI launch the Insurance Repository System?

  1. ((a))

    2011

  2. ((b))

    2012

  3. ((c))

    2013

  4. ((d))

    2014

  5. ((e))

    2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2013

The correct answer is 2013.

Key Points

  • The IRDAI launched the Insurance Repository System in 2013.
  • IRDAI introduced the concept of an insurance repository in the year 2011 and the former Union Finance Minister, P Chidambaram, formally launched the Insurance Repository System (IR) on 16th Sept 2013.
  • IRDAI introduced the IR (Insurance Repository) system to provide policyholders with a facility to keep insurance policies in electronic form.
  • It was to undertake changes, modifications, and revisions in the insurance policy with speed and accuracy in order to bring about efficiency, transparency, and cost reduction in the issuance and maintenance of insurance policies.
  • Insurance repositories cannot sell/solicit insurance policies.

Additional Information

  • Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India 
  • It is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDA Act, 1999) for overall supervision and development of the Insurance sector in India.
  • The key objectives of the IRDAI include the following-
  • protecting the interest of policyholders
  • the speedy and orderly growth of the insurance industry
  • quick settlement of genuine claims
  • effective grievance redressal mechanism
  • promoting fairness, transparency, and orderly conduct in financial markets dealing with insurance, and prudential regulation while ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market.
97

The term “Uberrimae fidei” or "uberrima fides" means __________.

  1. ((a))

    To Find Out

  2. ((b))

    Supreme Importance

  3. ((c))

    Utmost Good Faith

  4. ((d))

    Upper Limit

  5. ((e))

    Good Chance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Utmost Good Faith

The correct answer is Utmost Good Faith.

Key Points

  • The term “Uberrimae fidei” or "uberrima fides" means Utmost Good Faith.
  • Principle of Uberrima Fides
  • It is also known as utmost good faith.
  • It is a legal agreement, common to the insurance industry, requiring the highest standard of good faith during the disclosure of all material facts that could influence the decision of the other party.
  • A failure to adhere to uberrimae fidei is grounds for voiding the agreement.​

Important Points

  • There are seven basic principles that should be upheld in Insurance-
  • Principle of Utmost Good Faith
  • It is legally obliging all parties to act honestly and not mislead or withhold critical information from one another.
  • It states that the insurer and insured both must be transparent and disclose all the essential information required before signing up for an insurance policy.
  • Principle of Insurable Interest
  • It means that the subject matter of the contract must provide some financial gain by existing for the insured (or policyholder) and would lead to a financial loss if damaged, destroyed, stolen, or lost.
  • Principle of Proximate Cause
  • Proximate cause is the real cause or the legal cause that can be considered the primary cause for any loss that occurs for the insured.
  • The insurer will entertain the claim only if the significant cause is close enough to the loss.
  • Principle of Subrogation
  • It refers to the practice of substitution of a person or group by another in cases of debt claims in insurance.
  • Principle of Indemnity
  • It states that the insured shall be compensated appropriately for the losses caused to the goods by the insurer, only to the extent that the insurer does not make a profit out of the loss that occurred.
  • Principle of Contribution
  • It states that if the loss arises and you have taken more than one insurance policy, then the loss will be covered by the policies based on the proportion of the coverage the insurance policy provides.
  • Principle of Loss Minimisation
  • The insured must always try their level best to minimize the loss of his insured property, in case of sudden events like fire, etc.
  • The insured must take all necessary steps to control and reduce the losses and to save what is left.
98

Which of the following can be categorized under contingency products?

  1. ((a))

    Shares

  2. ((b))

    Life Insurance

  3. ((c))

    Bonds

  4. ((d))

    Bank Deposits

  5. ((e))

    Debentures

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Life Insurance

The correct answer is Life Insurance.

Key Points

  • Life Insurance can be categorized under contingency products.
  • Contingency is a possible future situation or event.
  • In a life insurance contract, the insurer pays a certain amount if the policyholder dies under certain conditions.
  • The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens. Therefore, it is a contingent contract.

Additional Information

  • Human Life Value (HLV) is a number that tells the present value of future income expenses, liabilities, and investments.
  • ​The HLV number is taken usually to understand how much money would be required to secure the lives of your dependents with term insurance, in case you are no longer around.
  • It rests on the premise that all property values in existence are created by individuals.
  • This is in direct opposition to the modern concept of "needs analysis" that dominates the financial planning and life insurance industry.
  • Ordinarily, there are seven things that are taken into account to assess HLV-
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Occupation
  • Target retirement age
  • Annual income
  • Employment benefits
  • Financial information on spouses and children
99

The chance of loss is termed as ________.

  1. ((a))

    Peril

  2. ((b))

    Uncertainty

  3. ((c))

    Probability

  4. ((d))

    Risk

  5. ((e))

    Claim

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Risk

The correct answer is Risk.

Key Points

  • The chance of loss is termed as Risk.
  • ​The asset may lose its value if a certain event happens.
  • The risk can be measured in terms of the probability of losing money, the amount of money that could be lost, or both.

Additional Information

  • Chance of loss is defined as the probability that an event will occur.
  • Like risk, probability has both objective and subjective aspects.
  • The cause of the risk event is known as peril.
  • There is a principle known as pooling.
  • This consists of collecting numerous individual contributions (known as premiums) from various persons. These persons have similar assets which are exposed to similar risks.
  • This pool of funds is used to compensate the few who might suffer the losses as caused by a peril.
  • Uncertainty simply means the lack of certainty or sureness of an event.
  • Risk and uncertainty are central to insurance and uncertainty about the future is the main reason insurance policies are bought.
  • An insurance claim is a formal request to an insurance company by a policyholder for coverage/compensation for a covered loss or policy event.
100

Which of the following situation occurs when one party in a negotiation has relevant information the other party lacks?

  1. ((a))

    Reverse Selection

  2. ((b))

    Goods Selection

  3. ((c))

    Multilateral Selection

  4. ((d))

    Repeated Selection

  5. ((e))

    Adverse Selection

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Adverse Selection

The correct answer is Adverse Selection.

Key Points

  • Adverse Selection occurs when one party in a negotiation has relevant information the other party lacks.
  • It often leads to making bad decisions, such as doing more business with less profitable or riskier market segments.
  • Under this, the insurer is confronted with the probability of loss due to risk not factored in at the time of sale.
  • The information being hidden may be of critical nature as these help in ascertaining the risk profile of the insured and accordingly help in determining the correct premiums.
  • It can occur in the event of an asymmetrical flow of information between the insurer and the insured.
  • The insurance company suffers adverse effects by offering coverage at a cost that does not accurately reflect its actual risk exposure.
  • Such scenarios may occur in the insurance sector, capital markets, and even in ordinary marketplaces
101

If the PQR company's stock price fell to 6persharewhileitsEarningPerShare(EPS)fellto6 per share while its Earning-Per-Share (EPS) fell to 0.75, the Price to Earnings (P/E) Ratio would fall to _______.

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

  • If the PQR company's stock price fell to 6persharewhileitsEarningPerShare(EPS)fellto6 per share while its Earning-Per-Share (EPS) fell to 0.75, the Price to Earnings (P/E) Ratio would fall to 8
  • ​The Value of Earning = $6
  • The Value of Share = $0.75
  • The Value of EPS = 6 / 0.75 = 8.

Additional Information

  • Earning-Per-Share (EPS)
  • ​It is a financial ratio that divides net earnings available to common shareholders by the average outstanding shares over a certain period of time.
  • It indicates a company's ability to produce net profits for common shareholders.
  • A higher EPS indicates greater value because investors will pay more for a company's shares if they think the company has higher profits relative to its share price.
  • There are several ways to calculate earnings per share-
  • EPS = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends) / End of period Shares Outstanding
  • EPS = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends) / Weighted Average Shares Outstanding
102

IFRS are a set of accounting standards for the financial statements of public companies that govern particular types of transactions and events to make them consistent, transparent, and easily comparable around the world. IFRS stands for __________.

  1. ((a))

    Indian Financial Reporting Standards

  2. ((b))

    International Financial Reporting Standards

  3. ((c))

    Insurance Fiscal Reporting System

  4. ((d))

    Investigating Final Reporting Standards

  5. ((e))

    Immediate Financial Reporting System

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

International Financial Reporting Standards

The correct answer is International Financial Reporting Standards.

Key Points

  • IFRS are a set of accounting standards for the financial statements of public companies that govern particular types of transactions and events to make them consistent, transparent, and easily comparable around the world. IFRS stands for International Financial Reporting Standards
  • ​These are a set of accounting standards that govern how particular types of transactions and events should be reported in financial statements.
  • They were developed and maintained by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB).
  • In simple language, they were created to establish a common language so that financial statements can easily be interpreted from company to company and country to country.
  • IFRS are standards in over 100 countries, including the EU and many parts of Asia and South America.

Additional Information

  • Components of Financial Statements under IFRS-
  • Balance Sheet
  • Statement of profit and loss
  • A statement of changes in equity
  • A statement of cash flows for the period
  • Notes to the financial statements – including a summary of significant accounting policies
103

Who maintains the foreign exchange reserve in India?

  1. ((a))

    Reserve Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    State Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Finance, Government of India

  4. ((d))

    Export - Import  Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Securities Exchange Board of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reserve Bank of India

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

  • In India, the Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 contains the enabling provisions for the Reserve Bank to act as the custodian of foreign reserves, and manage reserves with defined objectives.
  • The powers of being the custodian of foreign reserves are enshrined, in the first instance, in the preamble of the Act.
  • In 1946, India became a member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and from that time RBI has the responsibility of maintaining fixed exchange rates with all other member countries of the IMF.
  • Foreign exchange reserves are assets like foreign currencies, gold reserve, SDR, and deposits with IMF, treasury bills, bonds, and other government securities.
  • Most foreign exchange reserves are held in U.S. dollars, while China being the largest foreign currency reserve holder in the world.

Additional Information

State Bank of India- SBI (State Bank of India) was established on the advice of the Gorwala committee. - In 1952, A committee lead by A. D. GORWALA recommended the nationalization of banks and renaming the Imperial Bank of India like State Bank of India. - On July 1, 1955, The Imperial Bank of India was named as State Bank of India by the Reserve Bank of India ( Since RBI owns the controlling stake in SBI). - SBI is the Biggest public bank in Bharat. SBI is the sole bank that has the foremost branches in Bharat. - The headquarters of SBI is in Mumbai.
Ministry of Finance, Government of India- The Ministry of Finance is in the gov of India, concerned for the economy of India. Serving as a treasury department of India. - R. K. Shanmukham Chetty was the first Finance Minister of independent India. - It was formed on 29 October 1946. - The present Minister is Nirmala Sitharaman.
Export-Import  Bank of India- Exim Bank was established by the Government of India, under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981 as a purveyor of export credit, mirroring global Export Credit Agencies. - Exim Bank serves as a growth engine for industries and SMEs through a wide range of products and services. - This includes import of technology and export product development, export production, export marketing, pre-shipment and post-shipment, and overseas investment. - Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) was set up in 1982 by an Act of Parliament for financing, facilitating, and promoting India's foreign trade.
Securities and Exchange Board of India- The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body for the securities and commodity markets in India under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. - It was established on 12 April 1988 and was given statutory powers on 30 January 1992 through the SEBI Act, 1992. - The basic function of the Securities and Exchange Board of India is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market.
104

Which of the following offers reinsurance services in India?

  1. ((a))

    Life Insurance Corporation of India

  2. ((b))

    United India Insurance Company Limited

  3. ((c))

    General Insurance Corporation of India

  4. ((d))

    National India Insurance Company Limited

  5. ((e))

    New India Assurance Company Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

General Insurance Corporation of India

The correct answer is General Insurance Corporation of India.

Key Points

  • General Insurance Corporation of India offers reinsurance services in India.
  • ​GIC provides reinsurance to direct general insurance companies in the Indian market.
  • It receives a statutory cession of 4% on each and every policy subject to certain limits.
  • It leads many domestic companies’ treaty programs and facultative placements.

Additional Information

  • General Insurance Corporation
  • It is a central public sector undertaking under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance.
  • ​General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) was formed in pursuance of Section 9(1) of the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 (GIBNA).​
  • It was formed for the purpose of superintending, controlling, and carrying on the business of general insurance.
  • After a process of mergers among Indian insurance companies, four companies were left as fully owned subsidiary companies of GIC-
  • National Insurance Company Limited.
  • The New India Assurance Company Limited.
  • The Oriental Insurance Company Limited.
  • United India Insurance Company Limited.
  • With the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Act 2002 (40 of 2002) coming into force on March 21, 2003; GIC ceased to be a holding company of its subsidiaries.
  • In November 2000, GIC was renotified as the Indian Reinsurer and through administrative instruction, its supervisory role over the four subsidiaries was ended.
  • Mr. Devesh Srivastava is the Chairman-and-Managing Director of GIC.
105

Which of the following is NOT an insurance intermediary?

  1. ((a))

    Insurance Brokers

  2. ((b))

    Insurance Agents

  3. ((c))

    Third Party Administrators

  4. ((d))

    Insurance Ombudsman

  5. ((e))

    Insurance Surveyors

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Insurance Ombudsman

The correct answer is Insurance Ombudsman.

Key Points

  • Insurance Ombudsman is NOT an insurance intermediary.
  • Entities regulated by IRDAI-
  • Life Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies
  • General Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies. Among them, there are some standalone Health Insurance Companies that offer health Insurance policies.
  • Re-Insurance Companies
  • Agency Channel
  • Intermediaries, which include the following-
  • Corporate Agents
  • Brokers
  • Third Party Administrators
  • Surveyors and Loss Assessors

Important Points

  • The Offices of Insurance Ombudsman are under the administrative control of the Council for Insurance Ombudsmen (CIO), which has been constituted under the Insurance Ombudsman Rules, 2017.
  • Office of Insurance Ombudsman is an alternate Grievance Redressal platform that has been set up with the aim to resolve grievances of aggrieved policyholders of all personal lines of insurance.
  • Any aggrieved policyholder who has been issued a policy on personal lines of business, may either himself or through his legal heirs or nominee or assignee may register a complaint with the Office of Insurance Ombudsman either online or through written communication through e-mail or letter.
  • You can approach the Ombudsman with a complaint if-
  • You have first approached your insurance company with the complaint and-
  • They have rejected it
  • Not resolved it to your satisfaction or
  • Not responded to it at all for 30 days
  • Your complaint pertains to any policy you have taken in your capacity as an individual
  • The value of the claim including expenses claimed is not above Rs 30 lakhs.
106

Credit Rating Agencies in India is regulated by which of the following entities?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Corporate Affairs

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Finance

  3. ((c))

    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

  4. ((d))

    Reserve Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Government of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

The correct answer is Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

Key Points

  • All the credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
  • There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, including CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd, and Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited.
  • Credit rating agencies assign ratings to an organization or an entity.
  • The entities that are rated by credit rating agencies comprise companies, state governments, non-profit organizations, countries, securities, special purpose entities, and local governmental bodies.
  • Credit rating agencies take into consideration several factors like the financial statements, level, and type of debt, lending and borrowing history, ability to repay the debt, and the past debts of the entity before rating their credit.
  • Credit ratings are published by agencies like Moody’s Investors Service and Standard and Poor’s (S&P) based on detailed analysis.

Additional Information

RBI (Reserve Bank of India)- RBI was founded on 1 April 1935, in Kolkata. - HQ in Mumbai. - Governor is Shaktikanta Das. - The RBI is responsible for implementing monetary and credit policies, issuing currency notes, being a banker to the government, a regulator of the banking system, manager of foreign exchange, and regulator of payment & settlement systems while continuously working towards the development of Indian financial markets. - RBI is not a Commercial Bank. - RBI was nationalized on 1st January 1949. - The First Governor of RBI was Sir Osborne Smith (1935 – 1937). - The First Indian Governor of RBI was CD Deshmukh (1943 – 1949). - The only Prime Minister who was the Governor of RBI was Manmohan Singh (1982 – 1985). - The First women deputy Governor of RBI was KJ Udeshi.
Finance Ministry- It deals with taxation, financial legislation, financial institutions, capital markets, center and state finances, and the Union Budget. - The current Finance Minister of India is Nirmala Sitharaman (the first female full-time Finance Minister). - Liaquat Ali Khan was the first Finance Minister. - Independent India’s first Union Budget was presented on 26th November 1947 by Sri. R K Shanmukham Chetty.
107

A ___________ is a formal legal document that is used to describe a company’s securities that have been put on sale.

  1. ((a))

    Share certificate 

  2. ((b))

    Memorandum of Association

  3. ((c))

    Prospectus

  4. ((d))

    Articles of Association

  5. ((e))

    Statutory Declaration

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Prospectus

The correct answer is Prospectus,

Key Points

  • A Prospectus is a formal legal document that is used to describe a company’s securities that have been put on sale. 
  • ​It is a legal disclosure document that provides information about an investment offering to the public.
  • It is required to be filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or local regulator.
  • It contains information about the company, its management team, recent financial performance, and other related information that investors would like to know.
  • Section 30 of the Companies Act 2013 contains the provisions regarding the advertisement of the Prospectus.

Additional Information

  • Share certificate ​
  • It is a written document signed on behalf of a corporation that serves as legal proof of ownership of the number of shares indicated.
  • Once a company issues share certificates, it becomes documented proof of a shareholder's shareholding in the company.
  • Memorandum of Association
  • It is a legal document prepared during the formation and registration process of a company to define its relationship with shareholders and it specifies the objectives for which the company has been formed.
  • It is the principal document of a company.
  • It defines the objectives for which the organization has been formed.
  • It contains a name clause, registered office clause, object (or objective clause), objects clause, liability clause, capital clause, and association clause.
  • Articles of Association
  • It can be considered the “constitution of a company.”
  • ​It is a document that specifies the regulations for a company's operations and defines the company's purpose.
  • It lays out how tasks are to be accomplished within the organization, including the process of appointing directors and the handling of financial records.
  • The document may detail the name and legal form of the company, its purpose, capital structure, corporate governance, administration of corporate records, and other terms of its existence.
  • Statutory Declaration
  • ​It is a formal statement made affirming that something is true to the best knowledge of the person making the declaration.
  • The Statutory Declaration is to be signed by a Chartered Accountant or a Company Secretary or a Cost Accountant and one of the directors.
108

Who is the chairman of 15th Finance Commission?

  1. ((a))

    Arun Jaitley

  2. ((b))

    Ashok Khemka

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Kelkar

  4. ((d))

    N. K. Singh

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

N. K. Singh

The correct answer is N. K. Singh.

Key Points

  • N. K. Singh is the chairman of the 15th Finance Commission.
  • Nand Kishore Singh is an Indian politician, economist, and former Indian Administrative Service, officer.
  • He is a senior member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) since March 2014 after having served as a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha (2008-2014) from Bihar for the Janata Dal (United).
  • He has been a senior bureaucrat, a Member of the Planning Commission, and handled assignments of Union Expenditure and Revenue Secretary.
  • On 27 November 2017, the Modi government appointed him as the chairman of the Fifteenth Finance Commission of India.

Additional Information

  • Arun Jaitley was an Indian politician and attorney.
  • A member of the Bharatiya Janata Party, Jaitley served as the Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs of the Government of India from 2014 to 2019.
  • Vijay L. Kelkar is an Indian economist and academic, who is currently the Chairman of the Forum of Federations, Ottawa & India Development Foundation, New Delhi, and Chairman of Janwani – a social initiative of the Mahratta Chamber of Commerce, Industries, and Agriculture in Pune.
  • Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
  • It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the Indian President.
  • It was created to define the financial relations between the Centre and the states.
109

The headquarter of the Agriculture Insurance Company Limited is situated in ________. 

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi 

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai 

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata 

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru 

  5. ((e))

    Chennai 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Delhi 

  • The headquarter of the Agriculture Insurance Company Limited is situated in New Delhi.
  • The Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited is a specialized insurance company that is focused on providing crop-yield based insurance and weather-based insurance schemes in India.
  • It was established in 2002.
110

Which of the following is an example of an endowment assurance plan?

  1. ((a))

    Credit Life Insurance Plan

  2. ((b))

    Money Back Plan

  3. ((c))

    Mortgage Redemption Plan

  4. ((d))

    Whole Life Plan

  5. ((e))

    None of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Money Back Plan

The correct answer is Money Back Plan.

Key Points

  • Money Back Plan is an example of an endowment assurance plan.
  • It is a type of life insurance product that provides the dual benefit of investment and protection.
  • One can receive returns at regular intervals during the policy term.
  • It also provides a life cover that keeps an insured person financially protected in case of an unfortunate event.
  • It pays out the same maturity benefits in the form of several guaranteed "survival benefits" which are staggered evenly throughout the course of the policy.

Additional Information

  • Credit life insurance is a type of life insurance policy designed to pay off a borrower's outstanding debts if the policyholder dies.
  • It can be used to pay off existing debts in cases such as death, disability, and in some cases, unemployment.
  • This is optional coverage. When purchased, the cost of the policy may be added to the principal amount of the loan.
  • Mortgage Redemption Plan is a pure protection term insurance policy catering to insure loans.
  • ​It is an insurance policy that provides financial protection for home loan borrowers.
  • ​If the life insured dies within the policy tenure, the lump sum assured is used to pay off all the outstanding loans and debts so that the family is not liable to pay any.
  • ​Whole life insurance guarantees payment of a death benefit to beneficiaries in exchange for level, regularly-due premium payments.
  • The insured person is covered for the duration of their life as long as premiums are paid on time.
111

In terms of Economics, a Market is a place where:

  1. ((a))

    Government engage in exchange

  2. ((b))

    Buying and selling of goods and services takes place

  3. ((c))

    Government officials meet

  4. ((d))

    Construction takes place

  5. ((e))

    None of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Buying and selling of goods and services takes place

The correct answer is Buying and selling of goods and services takes place.

Key Points

  • In terms of Economics, a Market is a place where buying and selling of goods and services takes place.
  • ​The market may be physical like a retail outlet, where people meet face-to-face, or virtual like an online market, where there is no direct physical contact between buyers and sellers.

Additional Information

  • Features of a market include-
  • availability of a space
  • buyers and sellers
  • a commodity
112

Fiscal policy refers to:-

  1. ((a))

    Agricultural fertilizer policy

  2. ((b))

    Rural credit policy

  3. ((c))

    Interest policy

  4. ((d))

    Revenue and expenditure policy of the government

  5. ((e))

    Capital Tax

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Revenue and expenditure policy of the government

The correct answer is the Revenue and expenditure policy of the government.

  • Fiscal policy is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It is the sister strategy to monetary policy through which a central bank influences a nation's money supply.
  • Fiscal policy deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the government. Some of the major instruments of fiscal policy are as follows: Budget, Taxation, Public Expenditure, public revenue, Public Debt, and Fiscal Deficit in the economy.

Additional Information

  • The general objectives of Fiscal Policy are given below:
  • To maintain and achieve full employment.
  • To stabilize the price level.
  • To stabilize the growth rate of the economy.
  • To maintain equilibrium in the Balance of Payments.
  • To promote the economic development of underdeveloped countries.
  • The fiscal policy of India always has two objectives, namely improving the growth performance of the economy and ensuring social justice to the people.
113

LIC was formed by the Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956, with a capital contribution of _________ from the Government of India.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1 crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2 crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5 crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 10 crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 15 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 5 crore

The correct answer is Rs. 5 crore.

Key Points

  • LIC was formed by the Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956, with a capital contribution of Rs. 5 crore from the Government of India
  • ​In 1956, 245 Indian and foreign insurers and provident societies were taken over by the central government and nationalized.
  • LIC was formed by an Act of Parliament, viz. LIC Act, 1956, with a capital contribution of Rs. 5 crore from the Government of India.

Additional Information

  • Life Insurance Corporation
  • It is an Indian central public sector undertaking.
  • It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance.
  • It was established on 1 September 1956, when the Parliament of India passed the Life Insurance of India Act, nationalizing the insurance industry in India.
  • The Chairperson of the Life Insurance Corporation of India is M. R. Kumar.
  • The Central Office of LIC is based out of Mumbai. There are a total of 8 zonal offices, located in Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kanpur, Kolkata, Bhopal, and Patna.
114

What is the minimum tenure of the Public Provident Fund (PPF)?

  1. ((a))

    5 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  2. ((b))

    10 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  3. ((c))

    15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  4. ((d))

    20 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

  5. ((e))

    25 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years

The correct answer is 15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years.

Key Points

  • 15 Years + You can extend it in blocks of 5 years is the minimum tenure of the Public Provident Fund (PPF).
  • ​PPF scheme was launched in 1968 by the Finance Ministry's National Savings Institute.
  • The main objective of the scheme is to help individuals make small savings and provide returns on the savings.
  • A minimum of Rs. 500 and a maximum of Rs. 1.5 Lakh can be invested in a provident fund scheme annually.

Additional Information

  • Eligibility to open a PPF account-
  • You are a citizen of India.
  • You can open only one PPF account unless your second PPF account is in the name of a minor.
115

Which of the following company is not a foreign insurance company?

  1. ((a))

    Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd.

  2. ((b))

    Acko General Insurance Limited

  3. ((c))

    Prudential Corporation Holdings Ltd.

  4. ((d))

    General Insurance Corporation Ltd.

  5. ((e))

    Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Co. Ltd.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

General Insurance Corporation Ltd.

The correct answer is General Insurance Corporation Ltd.

Key Points

  • The General Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a foreign insurance company.
  • General Insurance Corporation
  • It is a central public sector undertaking under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance.
  • ​General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) was formed in pursuance of Section 9(1) of the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 (GIBNA).​
  • It was formed for the purpose of superintending, controlling, and carrying on the business of general insurance.
  • After a process of mergers among Indian insurance companies, four companies were left as fully owned subsidiary companies of GIC-
  • National Insurance Company Limited.
  • The New India Assurance Company Limited.
  • The Oriental Insurance Company Limited.
  • United India Insurance Company Limited.
  • With the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Act 2002 (40 of 2002) coming into force on March 21, 2003; GIC ceased to be a holding company of its subsidiaries.
  • Mr. Devesh Srivastava is the Chairman-and-Managing Director of GIC.

Additional Information

  • Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd.
  • ​AXA is a French multinational insurance firm.
  • Bharti AXA is a joint venture between Bharti Group and AXA group.
  • Prudential Corporation Holdings Ltd.
  • It is a British multinational insurance company.
  • Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Co. Ltd.
  • ​It is a joint venture between Allianz SE and Bajaj Finserv Limited.
  • Allianz is a European multinational financial services company headquartered in Munich, Germany.
  • Acko General Insurance Limited
  • ​It is an Indian Non-Government Company.​​​​
  • British International Investment has invested in this company.
116

CSR is a model that helps a corporation to be socially accountable to itself, its stakeholders, and the public. CSR stands for ____________.

  1. ((a))

    Corporate Security Revision

  2. ((b))

    Corporate Social Responsibility

  3. ((c))

    Corporate Special Right

  4. ((d))

    Company Service Responsibility

  5. ((e))

    Company Social Right

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Corporate Social Responsibility

The correct answer is Corporate Social Responsibility.

Key Points

  • CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility.
  • Corporate social responsibility (CSR) refers to policies that businesses implement as a component of corporate governance to guarantee that their business practices are moral and advantageous to society.
  • In India, the concept of CSR is governed by Clause 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, which was passed by both Houses of Parliament and received the assent of the President of India on 23 August 2013.
  • The CSR provisions within the Act are applicable to companies with an annual turnover of 1,000 crores and more, a net worth of Rs. 500 crores and more, or a net profit of Rs. 5 crores and more.
  • The Act encourages companies to spend 2% of their average net profit in the previous three years on CSR activities.
  • Schedule VII of the Companies Act indicates the activities that can be undertaken by the companies, which, inter alia, include Health care, Education and Rural Development Projects, etc.

Additional Information

  • Arguments for Social Responsibility-
  • Justification for existence and growth
  • The long-term interest of the firm
  • Avoidance of government regulation
  • Maintenance of society
  • Availability of resources with business
  • Converting problems into opportunities
  • Better environment for doing business.
  • Holding businesses responsible for social problems
  • Arguments against Social Responsibility-
  • Violation of profit maximization objective
  • Burden on consumers
  • Lack of social skills
  • Lack of broad public support
117

The General Insurance Business in India was nationalized in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1951

  2. ((b))

    1962

  3. ((c))

    1973

  4. ((d))

    1949

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1973

The General Insurance Business in India was nationalized in 1973.

  • In 1973, The General Insurance Corporation of India was incorporated as a company, and On 1 January 1973, it commenced as business.
  • The Indian Parliament passed the General Insurance business (Nationalisation) Act in 1972.
  • Insurance in India is specified in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution as a part of the Union List, meaning that it can only be legislated by the central government.
  • On 19 January 1956, the Government of India released an Ordinance nationalizing the life insurance sector and in the same year, Life Insurance Corporation came into existence.
118

The State Financial Corporations Act was passed in 1951. The primary objective of the State Financial Corporations is to provide assistance to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Small and Medium Scale Industries

  2. ((b))

    Mining Industries

  3. ((c))

    Chemical and Petrochemical Industries

  4. ((d))

    Pharmaceutical Industries

  5. ((e))

    Insurance Industry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Small and Medium Scale Industries

The correct answer is Small and Medium Scale Industries.

Key Points

  • The State Financial Corporations Act was passed in 1951. The primary objective of the State Financial Corporations is to provide assistance to Small and Medium Scale Industries
  • This Act provided for the establishment of State Financial Corporations.
  • It empowered all states and union territories to set up State Financial Corporations to meet the need for financial assistance of micro, small, and medium-scale industries.
  • The Financial Corporation may issue and sell bonds and debentures for the purpose of increasing its working capital.
  • The general superintendence, direction, and management of affairs and business of the Financial Corporation shall vest in a Board of Directors.

Additional Information

  • The major functions of State Financial Corporations are-
  • Long-Term Financial Assistance
  • Guarantee for Loans
  • Acts as Agents of Government
  • Underwriting and Subscription
  • Credit and Guarantee for Purchases
119

What is the full form of GATT?

  1. ((a))

    General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs

  2. ((b))

    General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

  3. ((c))

    Ground Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

  4. ((d))

    Ground Agreement on Trade and Tariffs

  5. ((e))

    General Agreement of Trade and Technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

The correct answer is General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.

Important Points

  • ​The Full form of GATT is General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
  • The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), signed on October 30, 1947, by 23 countries, was a legal agreement minimizing barriers to international trade by eliminating or reducing quotas, tariffs, and subsidies while preserving significant regulations.
  • The GATT was intended to boost economic recovery after World War II through reconstructing and liberalizing global trade.
  • The GATT went into effect on January 1, 1948.

Additional Information

World Trade Organization (WTO)

  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates and facilitates international trade between nations.
  • It officially commenced operations on 1st January 1995, pursuant to the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, thus replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) that had been established in 1948.
  • The WTO is the world's largest international economic organization, with 164 member states representing over 96% of global trade and global GDP.
  • At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments.
  • The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible.
  • The WTO is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Director-General of the World Trade Organization - Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala.
120

A person invests Rs. 1,00,000 in an insurance policy, and Rs. 45,000 in a PPF account. He also invests Rs. 35,000 in paying the fees of his two children. Then how much of his amount is tax exempted under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,80,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,00,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,50,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,00,000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1,25,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 1,50,000

The correct answer is Rs. 1,50,000.

Key Points

  • Rs. 1,50,000 is tax exempted under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.
  • There is a limit under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, even if you invest more than Rs. 1,50,000 in your insurance policy or invests more amount in PPF, the limit is Rs. 1,50,000  combined.
  • Section 80C of the Income Tax Act of India is a clause that points to various expenditures and investments that are exempted from Income Tax.
  • It allows for a maximum deduction of up to Rs.1.5 lakh every year from an investor’s total taxable income.
  • It is applicable only to individual taxpayers and Hindu Undivided Families.
  • Corporate bodies, partnership firms, and other businesses are not qualified to avail of tax exemptions under Section 80C.

Additional Information

  • Eligible investments for Tax Exemptions under Section 80C-
  • Provident Fund (EPF/VPF)
  • Public Provident Fund (PPF)
  • National Saving Certificate (NSC)
  • Tax Saving 5 years FD from Banks
  • 5 years Post Office Time Deposit (POTD)
  • Senior Citizen Saving Scheme (SCSS)
  • NHB deposit scheme
  • Life Insurance Premium (Participating Endowment Plans)
  • New Pension Scheme (NPS) (under Section 80CCD) Atal Pension Yojana
  • Equity Linked Savings Scheme (ELSS)
  • Unit Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP)
  • Tuition fee for 2 children
  • Stamp duty and registration cost of the House
  • Home Loan Principal Payment

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