LIC AAO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 18 March 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

1. Shabarish is sitting to third left of person who likes Mango.
2. The person who likes mango sits third to left of the Chetan who likes Banana.

3. Two people sit between Chetan and Ankit who likes Mango.

4. Sagar who likes Strawberry faces the person who likes Orange so shabarish will like Orange. 5. The person who likes Banana is sitting to second right of the person who likes Strawberry so we can say that Sagar likes strawberry and Chetan likes Banana.

4. Preetam who likes Cherry is sitting to the second right of Sweta.
5. Sweta likes Kiwi.

Here two possiblility will be generated so we will take 2 cases here.

Case 1. In first case Sweta will sit immediate left of chetan so Preetam will be sitting immediate right of Chetan.

Case 2. In this case Sweta will sit immediate right of Chetan so according to that Preetam will be immediate right of Shabarish.

8. Anchal is sitting immediate left of Subham who likes Grapes.

According to this statement Case 2 will get eliminated because we can't place Anchal is immediate left of Subham so our answer will be come from case 1 only.

9. It is given that Subham likes Grapes so remaining fruit will like Anchal which is Apple.

So this is our final diagram.

Clearly, Ankit likes Mango.

1. Shabarish is sitting to third left of person who likes Mango.
2. The person who likes mango sits third to left of the Chetan who likes Banana.

3. Two people sit between Chetan and Ankit who likes Mango.

4. Sagar who likes Strawberry faces the person who likes Orange so shabarish will like Orange. 5. The person who likes Banana is sitting to second right of the person who likes Strawberry so we can say that Sagar likes strawberry and Chetan likes Banana.

4. Preetam who likes Cherry is sitting to the second right of Sweta.
5. Sweta likes Kiwi.

Here two possiblility will be generated so we will take 2 cases here.

Case 1. In first case Sweta will sit immediate left of chetan so Preetam will be sitting immediate right of Chetan.

Case 2. In this case Sweta will sit immediate right of Chetan so according to that Preetam will be immediate right of Shabarish.

8. Anchal is immediate left of Subham who likes Grapes.

According to this statement Case 2 will get eliminated because we can't place Anchal is immediate left of Subham so our answer will be come from case 1 only.

9. It is given that Subham likes Grapes so remaining fruit will like Anchal which is Apple.

So this is our final diagram.

Clearly, Sweta is facing Anchal.

1. Shabarish is sitting to third left of person who likes Mango.
2. The person who likes mango sits third to left of the Chetan who likes Banana.

3. Two people sit between Chetan and Ankit who likes Mango.

4. Sagar who likes Strawberry faces the person who likes Orange so shabarish will like Orange. 5. The person who likes Banana is sitting to second right of the person who likes Strawberry so we can say that Sagar likes strawberry and Chetan likes Banana.

4. Preetam who likes Cherry is sitting to the second right of Sweta.
5. Sweta likes Kiwi.

Here two possiblility will be generated so we will take 2 cases here.

Case 1. In first case Sweta will sit immediate left of chetan so Preetam will be sitting immediate right of Chetan.

Case 2. In this case Sweta will sit immediate right of Chetan so according to that Preetam will be immediate right of Shabarish.

8. Anchal is immediate left of Subham who likes Grapes.

According to this statement Case 2 will get eliminated because we can't place Anchal is immediate left of Subham so our answer will be come from case 1 only.

9. It is given that Subham likes Grapes so remaining fruit will like Anchal which is Apple.

So this is our final diagram.

Clearly, Sweta is sitting immediate left of Chetan.

1. Shabarish is sitting to third left of person who likes Mango.
2. The person who likes mango sits third to left of the Chetan who likes Banana.

3. Two people sit between Chetan and Ankit who likes Mango.

4. Sagar who likes Strawberry faces the person who likes Orange so shabarish will like Orange. 5. The person who likes Banana is sitting to second right of the person who likes Strawberry so we can say that Sagar likes strawberry and Chetan likes Banana.

4. Preetam who likes Cherry is sitting to the second right of Sweta.
5. Sweta likes Kiwi.

Here two possiblility will be generated so we will take 2 cases here.

Case 1. In first case Sweta will sit immediate left of chetan so Preetam will be sitting immediate right of Chetan.

Case 2. In this case Sweta will sit immediate right of Chetan so according to that Preetam will be immediate right of Shabarish.

8. Anchal is immediate left of Subham who likes Grapes.

According to this statement Case 2 will get eliminated because we can't place Anchal is immediate left of Subham so our answer will be come from case 1 only.

9. It is given that Subham likes Grapes so remaining fruit will like Anchal which is Apple.

So this is our final diagram.

Clearly, Only three people sit between Ankit and Preetam.

1. Shabarish is sitting to third left of person who likes Mango.
2. The person who likes mango sits third to left of the Chetan who likes Banana.

3. Two people sit between Chetan and Ankit who likes Mango.

4. Sagar who likes Strawberry faces the person who likes Orange so shabarish will like Orange. 5. The person who likes Banana is sitting to second right of the person who likes Strawberry so we can say that Sagar likes strawberry and Chetan likes Banana.

4. Preetam who likes Cherry is sitting to the second right of Sweta.
5. Sweta likes Kiwi.

Here two possiblility will be generated so we will take 2 cases here.

Case 1. In first case Sweta will sit immediate left of chetan so Preetam will be sitting immediate right of Chetan.

Case 2. In this case Sweta will sit immediate right of Chetan so according to that Preetam will be immediate right of Shabarish.

8. Anchal is immediate left of Subham who likes Grapes.

According to this statement Case 2 will get eliminated because we can't place Anchal is immediate left of Subham so our answer will be come from case 1 only.

9. It is given that Subham likes Grapes so remaining fruit will like Anchal which is Apple.

So this is our final diagram.

Hence, Anchal and Ankit is immediate neighbours of Subham.

Eight boxes – D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K – are placed one above the other.

Each of the boxes are colored with different colors among blue, purple, green, white, pink, yellow, black and red.

1) Two boxes are placed between box H and pink box, which is not placed at the bottom.

2) The black box is placed immediately below box H.

3) Not more than two boxes are placed below black box.

From above it is clear that there will be three cases,

4) yellow box is placed above pink box.

5) One box is placed between box F and yellow box.

6) Only three boxes are placed between box F and box J and Box J is not the bottommost box.

In case 2, If we put yellow colored box on 2^nd position then F will be at the 4^th position and from point 6 J will be at the bottommost box which is not possible so we will put Yellow colored box at the topmost position.

In case 3, just like case 2 yellow colored box cannot be put at the 2^nd position and if we put it on 1^st position then F will be at the 3^rd position and according to to point 6 J will be at the 7^th position which is not possible so we simply put it at 3^rd position and again there will be two possibilities of F.

7) The number of boxes between box J and box H is the same as between blue box and pink box.

8) Two boxes are placed between blue box and purple box.

9) K is green color box and is placed below box H, which is not white colored box. If H is not white then there is only one place left for White colored box and one color left for H.

From  point 9 case3 will be eliminated because there is no place for K and in case 2 if we put Blue colored box at 4^th position then there will be no place for Purple colored box so we simply put it at 2^nd position,

10) Box D is placed immediately above box E.

11) Box E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored box.

12) Box G is placed above box I but is not white colored box.

In case 1 D and E will be placed at 1^st position and 2^nd position respectively and in case 2 E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored so E will be placed and position. But from point 12 it is not possible for G to placed above I G is not white colored box so case 2 will be eliminated.

So, the final arrangement will be,

Hence 3 boxes are placed below the box H.

Eight boxes – D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K – are placed one above the other.

Each of the boxes are colored with different colors among blue, purple, green, white, pink, yellow, black and red.

1) Two boxes are placed between box H and pink box, which is not placed at the bottom.

2) The black box is placed immediately below box H.

3) Not more than two boxes are placed below black box.

From above it is clear that there will be three cases,

4) yellow box is placed above pink box.

5) One box is placed between box F and yellow box.

6) Only three boxes are placed between box F and box J and Box J is not the bottommost box.

In case 2, If we put yellow colored box on 2nd position then F will be at the 4th position and from point 6 J will be at the bottommost box which is not possible so we will put Yellow colored box at the topmost position.

In case 3, just like case 2 yellow colored box cannot be put at the 2nd position and if we put it on 1st position then F will be at the 3rd position and according to to point 6 J will be at the 7th position which is not possible so we simply put it at 3rd position and again there will be two possibilities of F.

7) The number of boxes between box J and box H is the same as between blue box and pink box.

8) Two boxes are placed between blue box and purple box.

9) K is green color box and is placed below box H, which is not white colored box. If H is not white then there is only one place left for White colored box and one color left for H.

From  point 9 case3 will be eliminated because there is no place for K and in case 2 if we put Blue colored box at 4th position then there will be no place for Purple colored box so we simply put it at 2nd position,

10) Box D is placed immediately above box E.

11) Box E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored box.

12) Box G is placed above box I but is not white colored box.

In case 1 D and E will be placed at 1st position and 2nd position respectively and in case 2 E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored so E will be placed and position. But from point 12 it is not possible for G to placed above I G is not white colored box so case 2 will be eliminated.

So, the final arrangement will be,

Hence box G is placed two boxes above the Black colored box.

Eight boxes – D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K – are placed one above the other.

Each of the boxes are colored with different colors among blue, purple, green, white, pink, yellow, black and red.

1) Two boxes are placed between box H and pink box, which is not placed at the bottom.

2) The black box is placed immediately below box H.

3) Not more than two boxes are placed below black box.

From above it is clear that there will be three cases,

4) yellow box is placed above pink box.

5) One box is placed between box F and yellow box.

6) Only three boxes are placed between box F and box J and Box J is not the bottommost box.

In case 2, If we put yellow colored box on 2nd position then F will be at the 4th position and from point 6 J will be at the bottommost box which is not possible so we will put Yellow colored box at the topmost position.

In case 3, just like case 2 yellow colored box cannot be put at the 2nd position and if we put it on 1st position then F will be at the 3rd position and according to to point 6 J will be at the 7th position which is not possible so we simply put it at 3rd position and again there will be two possibilities of F.

7) The number of boxes between box J and box H is the same as between blue box and pink box.

8) Two boxes are placed between blue box and purple box.

9) K is green color box and is placed below box H, which is not white colored box. If H is not white then there is only one place left for White colored box and one color left for H.

From  point 9 case3 will be eliminated because there is no place for K and in case 2 if we put Blue colored box at 4th position then there will be no place for Purple colored box so we simply put it at 2nd position,

10) Box D is placed immediately above box E.

11) Box E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored box.

12) Box G is placed above box I but is not white colored box.

In case 1 D and E will be placed at 1st position and 2nd position respectively and in case 2 E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored so E will be placed and position. But from point 12 it is not possible for G to placed above I G is not white colored box so case 2 will be eliminated.

So, the final arrangement will be,

Hence box D and box F are adjacent to the Pink colored box.

Eight boxes – D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K – are placed one above the other.

Each of the boxes are colored with different colors among blue, purple, green, white, pink, yellow, black and red.

1) Two boxes are placed between box H and pink box, which is not placed at the bottom.

2) The black box is placed immediately below box H.

3) Not more than two boxes are placed below black box.

From above it is clear that there will be three cases,

4) yellow box is placed above pink box.

5) One box is placed between box F and yellow box.

6) Only three boxes are placed between box F and box J and Box J is not the bottommost box.

In case 2, If we put yellow colored box on 2nd position then F will be at the 4th position and from point 6 J will be at the bottommost box which is not possible so we will put Yellow colored box at the topmost position.

In case 3, just like case 2 yellow colored box cannot be put at the 2nd position and if we put it on 1st position then F will be at the 3rd position and according to to point 6 J will be at the 7th position which is not possible so we simply put it at 3rd position and again there will be two possibilities of F.

7) The number of boxes between box J and box H is the same as between blue box and pink box.

8) Two boxes are placed between blue box and purple box.

9) K is green color box and is placed below box H, which is not white colored box. If H is not white then there is only one place left for White colored box and one color left for H.

From  point 9 case3 will be eliminated because there is no place for K and in case 2 if we put Blue colored box at 4th position then there will be no place for Purple colored box so we simply put it at 2nd position,

10) Box D is placed immediately above box E.

11) Box E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored box.

12) Box G is placed above box I but is not white colored box.

In case 1 D and E will be placed at 1st position and 2nd position respectively and in case 2 E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored so E will be placed and position. But from point 12 it is not possible for G to placed above I G is not white colored box so case 2 will be eliminated.

So, the final arrangement will be,

Hence 4 boxes are there between box E and box J.

Eight boxes – D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K – are placed one above the other.

Each of the boxes are colored with different colors among blue, purple, green, white, pink, yellow, black and red.

1) Two boxes are placed between box H and pink box, which is not placed at the bottom.

2) The black box is placed immediately below box H.

3) Not more than two boxes are placed below black box.

From above it is clear that there will be three cases,

4) yellow box is placed above pink box.

5) One box is placed between box F and yellow box.

6) Only three boxes are placed between box F and box J and Box J is not the bottommost box.

In case 2, If we put yellow colored box on 2nd position then F will be at the 4th position and from point 6 J will be at the bottommost box which is not possible so we will put Yellow colored box at the topmost position.

In case 3, just like case 2 yellow colored box cannot be put at the 2nd position and if we put it on 1st position then F will be at the 3rd position and according to to point 6 J will be at the 7th position which is not possible so we simply put it at 3rd position and again there will be two possibilities of F.

7) The number of boxes between box J and box H is the same as between blue box and pink box.

8) Two boxes are placed between blue box and purple box.

9) K is green color box and is placed below box H, which is not white colored box. If H is not white then there is only one place left for White colored box and one color left for H.

From  point 9 case3 will be eliminated because there is no place for K and in case 2 if we put Blue colored box at 4th position then there will be no place for Purple colored box so we simply put it at 2nd position,

10) Box D is placed immediately above box E.

11) Box E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored box.

12) Box G is placed above box I but is not white colored box.

In case 1 D and E will be placed at 1st position and 2nd position respectively and in case 2 E is neither purple colored nor yellow colored so E will be placed and position. But from point 12 it is not possible for G to placed above I G is not white colored box so case 2 will be eliminated.

So, the final arrangement will be,

Hence box I is Black in color.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I) Some paper is not pencil → True (as we know that no pen is pencil so, the part of paper which is pen is not pencil. So, the case is true)

II) Some pen is book but not paper → False (as we know the common part of pen and book is paper.It is possible but not definite. So, the case is false)

III) Some pencil can be book → True (as there is no direct relation is given between pencil and book so we can say that here is a possibility that some pencil can be book. Thus, this case is true)

IV) Some clip is not pen → True (as the part of clip which is pencil is not pen. So this case is true)

V) All pen can be clip → True (as there is no direct relation is given between pen and clip so we can say that here is a possibility that all pen can be clip. Thus, this case is true)

Hence, "Some pen is book but not paper" is false.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I) No good is sad → False (as there is no direct relation is given between good and sad so we cannot determine the answer. Thus, this case is considered as false)

II) Some good is happy → False (as it is possible but not definite. Thus, this case is false)

III) Some good is not happy → True (as we can see that some good which is bad is not happy. So, the case is definitely true)

IV) All sad is happy → False (as we know that some sad is happy but all sad is happy is possible but not definite Hence, this case is false)

Hence, "Some good is not happy" is the correct statement.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I) Some D is C → False (as we know that only B is C that means all C is B and C does not intersect with anyone. Thus, the statement is false)

II) Some D is A → False (as there is no direct relation is given between A and D. It is possible but not definite. So we cannot determine the answer. Thus, this case is considered as false)

III) All B can be A → False (as we know that only B is C that means no C is A. So, the part of B which is C cannot be  A. Therefore, all B cannot be A)

IV) All B can never be A is a possibility → False (as we know that only B is C that means no C is A. So, the part of B which is C is not A. Therefore, all B cannot be A is a definite case not possibility) 

Hence, none of the conclusions follow.

1. The one ordered noodles lives on the 3^rd floor.

2. Two persons live between the one who ordered pastry and B who does not live either above the floor or in the same type of flat with the one who ordered noodles.

Which means if the one who ordered noodles lives in flat X then B would live at flat Y and also below the floor of that person.

3. The one order roll lives in the west of D who lives on even number floor.

4. Sandwich is ordered by the one who lives in the south of the one who ordered roll.

Case I (a) will be cancelled as C cannot be either at 2^nd or at 3^rd floor because of given condition.

5. C does not order pastry. C lives at 4^th floor as D lives in 2^nd floor so C can’t be at floor 3.

We can say that E lives at 4^th floor as D lives at 2^nd floor.

6. The one ordered pizza lives in flat X.

7. D neither ordered cutlet nor ordered burger. So, D ordered salad.

8. A lives in the same type of flat with F.

If in case II A lives in flat Y then certainly F will live in flat Y. Which means I and H live consecutive floors of flat X, which is a contradiction.

9. I neither ordered sandwich nor ordered noodles.

10. The one ordered cutlet does not live below A.

11. C does not ordered cutlet. So, case II will be cancelled.

The final solution is,

Hence, E lives two floor above the one who ordered salad.

1. The one ordered noodles lives on the 3rd floor.

2. Two persons live between the one who ordered pastry and B who does not live either above the floor or in the same type of flat with the one who ordered noodles.

Which means if the one who ordered noodles lives in flat X then B would live at flat Y and also below the floor of that person.

3. The one order roll lives in the west of D who lives on even number floor.

4. Sandwich is ordered by the one who lives in the south of the one who ordered roll.

Case I (a) will be cancelled as C cannot be either at 2nd or at 3rd floor because of given condition.

5. C does not order pastry. C lives at 4th floor as D lives in 2nd floor so C can’t be at floor 3.

We can say that E lives at 4th floor as D lives at 2nd floor.

6. The one ordered pizza lives in flat X.

7. D neither ordered cutlet nor ordered burger. So, D ordered salad.

8. A lives in the same type of flat with F.

If in case II A lives in flat Y then certainly F will live in flat Y. Which means I and H live consecutive floors of flat X, which is a contradiction.

9. I neither ordered sandwich nor ordered noodles.

10. The one ordered cutlet does not live below A.

11. C does not ordered cutlet. So, case II will be cancelled.

The final solution is,

Hence, A and F live on consecutive floor.

1. The one ordered noodles lives on the 3rd floor.

2. Two persons live between the one who ordered pastry and B who does not live either above the floor or in the same type of flat with the one who ordered noodles.

Which means if the one who ordered noodles lives in flat X then B would live at flat Y and also below the floor of that person.

3. The one order roll lives in the west of D who lives on even number floor.

4. Sandwich is ordered by the one who lives in the south of the one who ordered roll.

Case I (a) will be cancelled as C cannot be either at 2nd or at 3rd floor because of given condition.

5. C does not order pastry. C lives at 4th floor as D lives in 2nd floor so C can’t be at floor 3.

We can say that E lives at 4th floor as D lives at 2nd floor.

6. The one ordered pizza lives in flat X.

7. D neither ordered cutlet nor ordered burger. So, D ordered salad.

8. A lives in the same type of flat with F.

If in case II A lives in flat Y then certainly F will live in flat Y. Which means I and H live consecutive floors of flat X, which is a contradiction.

9. I neither ordered sandwich nor ordered noodles.

10. The one ordered cutlet does not live below A.

11. C does not ordered cutlet. So, case II will be cancelled.

The final solution is,

Hence, both I and III are true.

1. The one ordered noodles lives on the 3rd floor.

2. Two persons live between the one who ordered pastry and B who does not live either above the floor or in the same type of flat with the one who ordered noodles.

Which means if the one who ordered noodles lives in flat X then B would live at flat Y and also below the floor of that person.

3. The one order roll lives in the west of D who lives on even number floor.

4. Sandwich is ordered by the one who lives in the south of the one who ordered roll.

Case I (a) will be cancelled as C cannot be either at 2nd or at 3rd floor because of given condition.

5. C does not order pastry. C lives at 4th floor as D lives in 2nd floor so C can’t be at floor 3.

We can say that E lives at 4th floor as D lives at 2nd floor.

6. The one ordered pizza lives in flat X.

7. D neither ordered cutlet nor ordered burger. So, D ordered salad.

8. A lives in the same type of flat with F.

If in case II A lives in flat Y then certainly F will live in flat Y. Which means I and H live consecutive floors of flat X, which is a contradiction.

9. I neither ordered sandwich nor ordered noodles.

10. The one ordered cutlet does not live below A.

11. C does not ordered cutlet. So, case II will be cancelled.

The final solution is,

Hence, D - 2nd floor - flat Y is the correct combination.

1. The one ordered noodles lives on the 3rd floor.

2. Two persons live between the one who ordered pastry and B who does not live either above the floor or in the same type of flat with the one who ordered noodles.

Which means if the one who ordered noodles lives in flat X then B would live at flat Y and also below the floor of that person.

3. The one order roll lives in the west of D who lives on even number floor.

4. Sandwich is ordered by the one who lives in the south of the one who ordered roll.

Case I (a) will be cancelled as C cannot be either at 2nd or at 3rd floor because of given condition.

5. C does not order pastry. C lives at 4th floor as D lives in 2nd floor so C can’t be at floor 3.

We can say that E lives at 4th floor as D lives at 2nd floor.

6. The one ordered pizza lives in flat X.

7. D neither ordered cutlet nor ordered burger. So, D ordered salad.

8. A lives in the same type of flat with F.

If in case II A lives in flat Y then certainly F will live in flat Y. Which means I and H live consecutive floors of flat X, which is a contradiction.

9. I neither ordered sandwich nor ordered noodles.

10. The one ordered cutlet does not live below A.

11. C does not ordered cutlet. So, case II will be cancelled.

The final solution is,

Hence, B ordered burger.

Given word: REMARKABLE

Vowels in the word: E A A E

After replacing the vowel with the next letter: F B B F

Consonant in the word: R M R K B L

After replacing consonants their previous letter: Q L Q J A K

After replacing all the letters according to the condition we get: Q F L B Q J B A K F

Hence, J is second to the left of A.

1. Bag is purchased immediately before perfume.

2. Only two persons bought between L and the one who purchase perfume.

3. Three persons bought between the one who purchase chair and the one who purchase table. (thus, case 1 and case 2 considered as false)

4. Only two persons bought between the one who purchase wallet and the one who purchase table.

5. Two persons bought between A and the one who bought Chair.

6. G purchase immediately before K but none of them bought Chair.

7. S does not buy wallet.

Hence, A perfume is the correct answer.

Seven floors are there in a building,

Statement I : Kavya lives above Nishtha. Two people live above Nishtha. Four people live between Pooja and Poonam. Two people live between Nishtha and Poonam.

Three people live between Poonam and Kavya, Hence statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II: One person lives below Aditi. Five people live between Poonam and Sucheta. Three people live between Aditi and Kavya.

There might be None or Four people sitting Poonam and Kavya. Nothing sure can be concluded about it, Hence statement II alone is not sufficient to answer.

Hence, Only statement I alone is sufficient.

Statement I : Arti is south of Pushpa who is west to Deepa who is to the south of Geeta who is south- east of Chia.

Geeta is to the north of Deepa, Hence statement I is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II : Bali is to the North of Arti and Deepa is to west of Bali. Esha is to the south of Deepa. Bali is to the south of Geeta.

Geeta is to the north east of Deepa, Hence statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, Statement I and II alone are sufficient to answer.

Conditions are as follows,

(I) Alphabet and numbers are arranged alternatively. Arrange the alphabet in reverse order (Z – A) and the number is arranging in ascending order. 

(II) If the number is the even then add one if the number is the odd then subtract one in every step in all the numbers.

(III) In the last step we put the values of the first letter of the word according to the previous word in the previous step.

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: 99 monkey 38 61 apple 19 orange 59 banana elephant

Step 1: orange 98 monkey 39 60 apple 18 58 banana elephant

Step 2: orange 19 99 monkey 38 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 3: orange 18 monkey 98 39 60 apple 58 banana elephant

Step 4: orange 19 monkey 38 99 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 5: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 98 60 apple 58 banana

Step 6: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 99 61 apple banana

Step 7: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 98 60 apple

Step 8: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 banana 61 99 apple

Step 9: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 60 apple 98

Step 10:   15   19   13   38   05   59   02   61   01   99

Step 10 is the last step of the given input.

Hence, there are ten steps to complete the given input.

Conditions are as follows,

(I) Alphabet and numbers are arranged alternatively. Arrange the alphabet in reverse order (Z – A) and the number is arranging in ascending order. 

(II) If the number is the even then add one if the number is the odd then subtract one in every step in all the numbers.

(III) In the last step we put the values of the first letter of the word according to the previous word in the previous step.

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: 99 monkey 38 61 apple 19 orange 59 banana elephant

Step 1: orange 98 monkey 39 60 apple 18 58 banana elephant

Step 2: orange 19 99 monkey 38 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 3: orange 18 monkey 98 39 60 apple 58 banana elephant

Step 4: orange 19 monkey 38 99 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 5: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 98 60 apple 58 banana

Step 6: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 99 61 apple banana

Step 7: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 98 60 apple

Step 8: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 banana 61 99 apple

Step 9: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 60 apple 98

Step 10:   15   19   13   38   05   59   02   61    01   99

Step 10 is the last step of the given input.

Clearly, ‘banana’ is the fourth from the right in step 7.

Conditions are as follows,

(I) Alphabet and numbers are arranged alternatively. Arrange the alphabet in reverse order (Z – A) and the number is arranging in ascending order. 

(II) If the number is the even then add one if the number is the odd then subtract one in every step in all the numbers.

(III) In the last step we put the values of the first letter of the word according to the previous word in the previous step.

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: 99 monkey 38 61 apple 19 orange 59 banana elephant

Step 1: orange 98 monkey 39 60 apple 18 58 banana elephant

Step 2: orange 19 99 monkey 38 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 3: orange 18 monkey 98 39 60 apple 58 banana elephant

Step 4: orange 19 monkey 38 99 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 5: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 98 60 apple 58 banana

Step 6: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 99 61 apple banana

Step 7: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 98 60 apple

Step 8: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 banana 61 99 apple

Step 9: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 60 apple 98

Step 10:   15   19   13   38   05   59   02   61   01   99

Step 10 is the last step of the given input.

Hence, the step 3 of the given input is Orange 18 monkey 99 38 61 apple 59 banana elephant.

Conditions are as follows,

(I) Alphabet and numbers are arranged alternatively. Arrange the alphabet in reverse order (Z – A) and the number is arranging in ascending order. 

(II) If the number is the even then add one if the number is the odd then subtract one in every step in all the numbers.

(III) In the last step we put the values of the first letter of the word according to the previous word in the previous step.

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: 99 monkey 38 61 apple 19 orange 59 banana elephant

Step 1: orange 98 monkey 39 60 apple 18 58 banana elephant

Step 2: orange 19 99 monkey 38 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 3: orange 18 monkey 98 39 60 apple 58 banana elephant

Step 4: orange 19 monkey 38 99 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 5: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 98 60 apple 58 banana

Step 6: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 99 61 apple banana

Step 7: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 98 60 apple

Step 8: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 banana 61 99 apple

Step 9: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 60 apple 98

Step 10:   15   19   13   38   05   59   02   61   01   99

Step 10 is the last step of the given input.

In step 5,

Second from left: 58

Second from right: 18

Difference between them: 58 – 18 = 40.

Conditions are as follows,

(I) Alphabet and numbers are arranged alternatively. Arrange the alphabet in reverse order (Z – A) and the number is arranging in ascending order. 

(II) If the number is the even then add one if the number is the odd then subtract one in every step in all the numbers.

(III) In the last step we put the values of the first letter of the word according to the previous word in the previous step.

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: 99 monkey 38 61 apple 19 orange 59 banana elephant

Step 1: orange 98 monkey 39 60 apple 18 58 banana elephant

Step 2: orange 19 99 monkey 38 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 3: orange 18 monkey 98 39 60 apple 58 banana elephant

Step 4: orange 19 monkey 38 99 61 apple 59 banana elephant

Step 5: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 98 60 apple 58 banana

Step 6: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 99 61 apple banana

Step 7: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 98 60 apple

Step 8: orange 19 monkey 38 elephant 59 banana 61 99 apple

Step 9: orange 18 monkey 39 elephant 58 banana 60 apple 98

Step 10:   15   19   13   38   05   59   02   61   01   99

Step 10 is the last step of the given input.

Hence, the last step of the given input is 15   19   13   38   05       59   02   61   01   99.

Only assumption II follows but assumption I does not follow.

From the given passage we can state that social media sites have both pros and cons. The problem is excessive usage. So, for that reason banning is probably not the solution. So, assumption I is invalid. But from the passage, we can also get to know that social media sites are being used by people from all over the world. Teenagers also use it. Hence, assumption II is implicit.

only assumption II follows but assumption I does not follow.

In the given statements, from statement 1 it is clear that unemployment is one of the biggest problems in India which needs the attention of the Govt. But we can't say it is the only problem which needs to be solved by our Govt. So, assumption I does not follow.

From both of the statements it is clear that unemployment gives rise to poverty in India. So, we can say that to boost India's economy we should generate employment. So, assumption II follows.

Displaying more safety norms on the highways, appealing to people not to drive at high speeds, imposing hefty fines on people violating traffic rules, and constructing bumpers on the roads to decrease the speed of vehicles by the state government, all these actions will result in a decrease in road accidents in the state.

Allowing only two-and four wheelers to drive at a high speed will result in an increase in road accidents instead of decreasing. 

Thus apart from 5), all will be valid courses of action to be taken by the state government to decrease road accidents.

Hence, the correct answer is The government should allow only two-and four wheelers to drive at a high speed.

• Aizawl’s Rajiv Gandhi Stadium will be upgraded as Khelo India State Centre of Excellence under the Khelo India Scheme.
• The Sports Ministry plans to establish one KISCE in each state and UT, with an effort to create a robust sporting ecosystem in the entire country.
• This will be a platform for multiplying existing talents in the region towards India’s dream of excellence in the Olympics.
• Mizoram:
• State Animal - Sumatran serow.
• State Bird - Mrs Hume's pheasant.
• National Parks - Murlen National Park, Blue Mountain National Park.

The correct answer is Narcotics Control Bureau.

In News

• First-time events in Republic Day Parade 2023.

Key Points

• For the first time, 12 women riders were part of the Camel Contingent of the Border Security Force.
• The "Daredevils" Motor Cycle Riders from the Corps of Signals were co-led by a woman officer.
• Agniveers were also a part of the parade for the first time.
• Narcotics Control Bureau showcased a tableau for the first time.
• Navy's IL-38 was showcased for the first and last time.
• A thrilling flypast by fighter jets including Rafale and Su-30s, trick motorcycle riding led by a woman, and marching contingents enthralled the spectators during the Republic Day parade here at the Kartavya Path.
• President Droupadi Murmu took the salute at the 74th Republic Day while Egypt President Abdel Fattah El-Sisi was the chief guest for this year’s parade.
• A contingent of the Egyptian army also formed part of the parade.
• In all, there were 16 marching contingents from the Armed Forces, Central Para Military Forces, Delhi Police, National Cadet Corps, National Social Service(NSS) along with 19 military, Pipes and Drums Bands.
• Also, 27 tableaux of various States, Departments and Armed Forces participated.
• The Indian Army was represented by Mounted Columns of 61 Cavalry, nine mechanized columns, six marching contingents and a fly past by helicopters of Army Aviation.
• Three Param Vir Chakra and three Ashok Chakra awardees participated in this year's Parade.
• The mounted columns of 61 Cavalry consist of 51 Horses while the Arjun tanks, Nag Missile System, two BMP vehicles, three Quick Reaction Fighting Vehicles (QRFV), Two K-9 Vajra Self Propelled Howitzer Guns, one Brahmos missile, two 10m Short Span Bridges, a Mobile Microwave Node and Mobile Network Centre each and Two Akash missile system showcased India’s military prowess.

Additional Information

• Narcotics Control Bureau:
• It is an Indian central law enforcement and intelligence agency.
• It comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The agency is tasked with combating drug trafficking and the use of illegal substances under the provisions of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Founded: 17 March 1986

​The correct answer is 3500.

In News

• To mark the formal end of this Republic Day 2023 celebrations, the Beating Retreat ceremony was held at Vijay Chowk in New Delhi on 29 January 2023.

Key Points

• President Droupadi Murmu, the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces joined the ‘Beating the Retreat’ ceremony.
• The event witnessed the country’s biggest Drone Show comprising 3,500 indigenous drones.
• According to the Ministry of Defence**, 29 captivating and foot-tapping Indian tunes** were played by the music bands of the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, the State Police, and the Central Armed Police Force (CAPF).
• On the facade of the North and South Block, for the first time, a 3D anamorphic projection was organised during Beating Retreat ceremony.
• The ceremony started in the early 1950s.
• Major Roberts of the Indian Army indigenously developed the unique ceremony of display by the massed bands.

​The correct answer is Meghnad Desai.

In News

• India-born British economist Meghnad Desai has authored a new book titled “The Poverty Of Political Economy: How Economics Abandoned the Poor.”

Key Points

• It highlights how the discipline of economics, since the time it evolved from the late 18th century, systematically kept the interests of the poor at the periphery.
• The book is published by HarperCollins Publishers India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

• The full form of  BRICS is Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• Initially, in 2009 there were only four countries. (BRIC)
• South Africa joined in 2010.
• It is associated with five emerging economies of the world that have a significant influence on regional affairs.
• It was formed in 2009 and since then the governments of these 5 countries met annually at formal summits.
• So, From 2010 Countries involved chairs the BRICS summits according to sequence of B-R-I-C-S.
• As, in 2021 India chaired the 13th BRICS Summit, next initial is C So, this year, in 2022 China Chaired the Summit. Next year South Africa will host this Summit.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India defeated England in the ICC U-19 Women’s T20 World Cup.
• India became the first-ever ICC Under-19 Women’s T20 World Cup winners on 29 January 2023.
• India had won the toss and elected to bowl first.
• The team was captained by Shafali Verma.
• Indian player Shweta Sehrawat scored the most runs in the Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup 2023.
• She scored 292 runs in 6 matches.
• Player of the match was given to Titas Sadhu.
• India defeated England by seven wickets to win the tournament.

Additional Information

• The 2023 ICC Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup was the first edition of the ICC Women's Under-19 Cricket World Cup.
• It was hosted by South Africa.

The correct answer is 34m.

Key Points

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched its first 34m tall Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) to place an Earth Observation Satellite (EOS-02) in August 2022.
• ISRO also launched the student satellite AzaadiSAT.
• Both were launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

Important Points

• ISRO is headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• Sreedhara Panicker Somanath is the Chairman of the ISRO.
• ISRO has the world's largest constellation of remote-sensing satellites.

ECO MARK is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for products that are ecologically safe and adhere to the standards prescribed by the BIS.

Important Points

ECO Mark Scheme

• It was instituted by the Government of India for labeling environment-friendly products.
• The Scheme is being administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards.
• The Scheme covers various product categories like Soaps and Detergents, Paints, Food Items, Lubricating Oils, Packing/Packaging Materials, Architectural Paints and Powder Coatings, Batteries, Electrical and Electronic Goods, Food Additives, Wood Substitutes, Cosmetics, Aerosols and Propellants, Plastic Products, Textiles, Fire-extinguisher, Leather and Coir & Coir Products.
• The presence of ECO Logo along with ISI Mark on a product indicates that the product meets certain Environmental criteria along with the Quality requirements as specified in the relevant Indian Standard.

Additional Information AGMARK

• AGMARK, or Agriculture Mark, is the certification mark to assure the quality of agricultural products in India.
• AGMARK acts as a third-party guarantee for the agricultural products that are produced and consumed in India.
• The main objective is to provide consumers with quality, unadulterated products.
• The grading can be used for both domestic and export purposes.

MPEDA​

• MPEDA regulates exports and market promotion of marine products outside India.
• It is mandated to take all measures required for ensuring sustained, quality seafood exports from the country including carrying out the inspection of marine products, implementation of financial assistance schemes for infrastructure development for better preservation & modernized processing, fixing standards, specifications, and imparting training to fishermen, fish processing workers, aquaculture farmers, and other stakeholders in the fields related to fisheries.

The correct answer is 16,982 crore.

In News

• The 49^th GST Council met under the Chairpersonship of Union Minister for Finance & Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman in New Delhi on February 18.

Key Points

• The meeting was also attended by Union Minister of State for Finance Pankaj Chaudhary besides Finance Ministers of States & UTs (with legislature) and senior officers of the Ministry of Finance & States/ UTs.
• The GST Council has, inter-alia, made recommendations relating to GST compensation, GST Appellate Tribunal, approval of the Report of Group of Ministers (GoM) on Capacity Based Taxation and Special Composition Scheme in certain Sectors on GST, recommendations relating to GST rates on Goods and Services and other measures for facilitation of trade.
• In the context of GST compensation, Government of India has decided to clear the entire pending balance GST compensation of Rs. 16,982 crore for June’2022.
• Since, there is no amount in the GST compensation Fund, Centre decided to release this amount from its own resources and the same will be recouped from the future compensation cess collection.
• With this release, Centre would clear the entire provisionally admissible compensation due for five years as envisaged in the GST (Compensation to States) Act’2017.
• In addition, Centre would also clear the admissible final GST compensation to those States who has provided the revenue figures as certified by the Accountant General of the States amounting to Rs. 16,524 crore.

Additional Information

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) came into effect from 1 July 2017 through the implementation of the One Hundred and First Amendment of the Constitution of India by the Indian government.
• The GST replaced existing multiple taxes levied by the central and state governments.
• The tax rates, rules and regulations are governed by the GST Council which consists of the finance ministers of the central government and all the states.

The Correct Answer is Cochin Port.

Key Points

• India’s maritime sector is of significant size with 13 major ports (12 Government-owned and one private) and 205 non-major ports present along the coastline spanning 7516.6 km.
• ​Vallarpadam Terminal:
• It is a part of the Cochin Port in Kochi, Kerala. It is located on Vallarpadam Island.
• It was built with an investment of about Rs. 3,200 crores, shared by the government and the Dubai-government-owned entity (Dubai Ports World).
• It was opened in February 2011 and can handle cargo up to one million TEUs (Twenty-foot equivalent units) per annum.

Additional Information

• Trans-shipment Hub:
• It is a terminal at a port that handles containers, stores them temporarily, and transfers them to other ships for their onward destination.
• It basically acts as a switching point for cargo carried by deep-sea vessels operating on trans-continental trade routes.

The correct answer is 'Moirang'.

Key Points

• Union Home Minister Amit Shah on January 06 visited the Indian National Army (INA) headquarters at Moirang in Manipur's Bishnupur district and hoisted the national flag.
• Mr.Shah also paid floral tributes to a photograph of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose at the memorial. He was accompanied by Chief Minister N Biren Singh.
• He is scheduled to address the public, and inaugurate and lay the foundation stone for projects worth Rs 1,300 crore.
• Earlier in the day, he inaugurated a medical college in Churachandpur, the first in the hill district, and unveiled a 120-foot-tall statue of a polo player riding a pony at Marjing Polo Complex in Manipur's Imphal East district.
• Manipur is considered the birthplace of the Polo game.

Additional Information

• The Indian National Army (INA) was a collaborationist armed unit of Indian collaborators that fought under the command of the Japanese Empire.
• It was founded on 1 September 1942 in Southeast Asia during World War II.
• It fought under the command of the Japanese military in the British campaign in the Southeast Asian theatre of WWII, with it's aim was to secure Indian independence from British rule.

The correct answer is Paris.

Key Points

• The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
• It aims to promote world peace and security through international cooperation in education, science and culture.
• It has 193 member states and 11 associate members, as well as partners in the non-governmental, intergovernmental and private sectors.
• Headquartered at the World Heritage Center in Paris, France.
• UNESCO was established in 1945 as the successor to the International Committee of the League of Nations on Intellectual Cooperation.

Additional Information

The correct answer 'UAE'.

Key Points

• Passport Index 2022 published by published by Arton Capital is the ranking of the world's strongest and weakest passports. The passport rankings tell you the number of countries you can enter without acquiring a visa.
• India has ranked 87 in the list, while UAE ranked first.
• With a UAE passport travelers can enter to 180 countries hassle-free, seven more than European countries such as Germany and Sweden, and nine more than Japan.
• The Passport Index methodology is based on the 139 members of the United nations and six territories were considered for the list.
• The data is based on on official information provided by governments, updated in real-time with intelligence obtained through crowdsourcing and enhanced with proprietary research from highly credible sources.
• UAE is followed by Germany, Sweden, Finland, Luxembourg, Spain, France. While Afghanistan stood last, Pakistan stood at 94.

Additional Information

• Arton Capital is a global citizenship financial advisory services firm based in Montreal, Canada.
• Founded in 2006 by Armand Arton, the firm has a number of services dedicated to “Global Citizenship”, with a particular focus on investor programs.
• The firm facilitates residence and citizenship programs.
• It brokers investment agreements, and runs several assessment tools, including the Passport Index, a real-time ranking of the world’s passports.

The correct answer is 50,000.

In News

• A green comet, termed C/2022 E3 (ZTF), is estimated to come closest to Earth after 50,000 years.

Key Points

• The comet is estimated to come closest to Earth around February 2.
• Termed the C/2022 E3 (ZTF), the comet was named to refer to those who first spotted it – astronomers using the wide-field survey camera at the Zwicky Transient Facility (ZTF) in the US, in March 2022.
• The comet could be visible with telescopes and binoculars, and might even be visible to the naked eye under a clear night sky.

Additional Information

• Comets:
• They are frozen rocky or gas-filled objects that are remnants of the formation of the solar system.
• Due to their composition, characteristics and the path they move in, they tend to leave a light “behind them”.
• Just like other bodies in space, comets also have orbits.
• They are sometimes pulled in close to the sun because of the sun’s gravity acting on them
• As they orbit near the Sun, they heat up and spew gases and dust into a glowing head that can be larger than a planet.
• The remains of dust following this burning up, from a distance, look like a trail of light to humans on Earth.
• Comets, therefore, have often been seen giving out blue or whiteish light, or even green.
• About Green Comet:
• Orbits sun in 50,000 years.
• It comes from the Oort cloud.
• It gets its beautiful green glow from diatomic carbon that is present in the comet’s head.
• When the ultraviolet rays of solar radiation fall on the comet, these molecules emit green light.

The correct answer is 'Varanasi'.

Key Points

• Union Minister for Civil Aviation Jyotiraditya Scindia, on December 1, launched Digi Yatra from the Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi for three airports in the country, namely New Delhi, Varanasi and Bengaluru.
• Digi Yatra is conceived to achieve contactless, seamless processing of passengers at airports based on Facial Recognition Technology (FRT).
• With Digi Yatra, India will now stand in the ranks of world class airports like Heathrow in London and Atlanta in United States of America.
• Digi Yatra in the first phase, will be launched at 7 airports. However, it has been initially launched at 3 airports i.e., Delhi, Bengaluru and Varanasi today, to be followed by 4 airports namely Hyderabad, Kolkata, Pune, and Vijayawada by March 2023.
• Later it would be implemented across various airports in the country.
• The service is presently being launched for domestic flights passengers only.

Additional Information

• The Digi Yatra project conceived by Digi Yatra Foundation under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, envisages a traveller today pass through various check points at the airports through a paperless and contactless processing using facial features to establish her identity which could be linked to the boarding pass.
• To use this facility, one-time registration on Digi Yatra app is required using Aadhar based validation and a self-image capture.
• There is no central storage of Personally Identifiable Information (PII). Passenger’s ID and travel credentials are stored in a secure wallet in the passenger’s smartphone itself.
• The uploaded data will utilise blockchain technology and all the data will be purged from the servers within 24 hours of use.

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points

• The 17th Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (PBD) will be held in Indore in January 2023.
• It is celebrated every year on 9th January to mark the contribution of the overseas Indian community in the development of India.
• It also commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India on 9 January 1915.
• 16th PBD (2021) Chief Guest: Chandrikapersad Santokhi, President of Suriname.

Additional Information

• The 'Pravasi Bharatiya Divas' was organised for the first time in 2003.
• ​In 2006, the concept of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) was launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad on 9 January.
• In 2015, it was decided to celebrate 'Pravasi Bharatiya Divas' every two years.
• On this day, the Government also confers Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award.
• 'Pravasi Bharatiya Divas' is sponsored by the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs and the CII (Confederation of Indian Industry).

​​The correct answer is 22nd.

In News

• The Union Cabinet has approved the extension of the term of the Twenty-second Law Commission of India up to 31st August 2024.

Key Points

• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government from time to time.
• The tenure of the present Twenty-second Law Commission of India ended on 20 February 2023

Additional Information

• Law Commission of India:
• The Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India.
• The commission's function is to research and advise the government on legal reform, and is composed of legal experts, and headed by a retired judge.
• It is established for a fixed tenure.
• It was formed for the first time in 1834.
• Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi is the Chairman of 22nd Law Commission.
• The Chairperson and Members of the Twenty-second Law Commission have joined office recently and have taken up several pending projects for examination.
• It will consist of the same composition, which is as under:
• a full-time Chairperson;
• four full-time Members (including Member-Secretary)
• Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as ex-officio Member
• Secretary, Legislative Department as ex officio Member
• Not more than five part-time Members

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

List of Padma Awardees 2021:

• Padma Vibhushan- 7
• Padma Bhushan -10
• Padma Shri Awardees -102
• Of these, 29 of the awardees are women, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee

Additional Information

​Padma Awards

• The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• The Awards are given in three categories:
• Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)
• Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) and
• Padma Shri (distinguished service)
• The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.

The correct answer is Burhanpur.

Key Points:

• Burhanpur became 1^st district in the state to link the Aadhar numbers with 100% voter ID cards.
• Apart from Burhanpur, the Pipariya assembly constituency has also completed the linking work 100%.
• The campaign to link Aadhar numbers with voter ID cards is running since 1st August.
• No. of voters in the assembly constituencies of Burhanpur is 555715.
• No. of voters in the Pipariya assembly constituency is 212073.
• Chief Electoral Officer of Madhya Pradesh: Anupam Ranjan.

The correct answer is Ajay Banga.

In News

• US nominates former Mastercard CEO Ajay Banga for World Bank president.

Key Points

• U.S. President Joe Biden on 24 February 2023, nominated business executive Ajay Banga to become president of the World Bank.
• Ajay Banga is currently appointed as the vice chairman at private equity firm General Atlantic.
• He has more than 30 years of business experience in handling different roles at Mastercard and the boards of the American Red Cross, Kraft Foods and Dow Inc.

Additional Information

• World Bank:
• Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
• Founded: July 1944, Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, United States
• Parent organization: World Bank Group
• Founders: John Maynard Keynes, Harry Dexter White
• President: David Malpass

The correct answer is ‘Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)’

Key Points

• IT services and banking companies have retained top positions in the Kantar Brands, 2022 Most Valuable Global Brands report.
• This year the number of Indian brands in the Global Top 100 rose to four: Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), HDFC Bank, Infosys, and Life Insurance Corporation (LIC).
• That’s more than the amount that Japan, Italy, or the UK placed – combined, said the report.
• TCS jumped 12 positions to 46th position from 58th in 2021 and its brand value was up 61 percent.
• TCS is now valued at $199 billion, almost equal to its peer Accenture.
• HDFC Bank’s rank was up five positions and its brand value increased 35 percent.
• However, life insurance player LIC saw its rank slip from 19 positions to 92, and its brand value was down by 4 percent compared to 2021.
• Infosys made its debut on the list at 64th position with a brand value of $33,551 billion, up 33 percent.

The correct answer is Vinod Aggarwal.

Key Points

• Auto industry body Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM) on 15 Sept 2022 elected Vinod Aggarwal as its new president for 2022-23.
• Aggarwal, the MD and CEO of Volvo Eicher Commercial Vehicles, succeeds Maruti Suzuki India Executive Vice Chairman Kenichi Ayukawa.
• SIAM is the apex national body representing all major vehicle manufacturers in India.

Additional Information​ 

• Important Appointments:
• American Express Corp on 12 September 2022 appointed Sanjay Khanna as the chief executive officer & country manager for India.
• Nagesh Singh, an Indian Foreign Service officer of the 1995 batch, has been appointed as India’s next ambassador to Thailand.
• In August 2022, Vikram K. Doraiswami was also appointed as India’s new High Commissioner to the United Kingdom.
• Sanjay Arora, director general of the ITBP and a 1988-batch IPS officer, has been appointed as the new Delhi Police Commissioner.
• IFS officer of the 1994 batch Pranay Kumar Verma has been appointed as India’s next High Commissioner to Bangladesh.
• Govt of Bangladesh has appointed Mustafizur Rahman as the next High Commissioner of Bangladesh to India.
• The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) panel has appointed Brajesh Kumar Upadhyay as Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).
• Retired IAS officer and former Drinking Water and Sanitation Secretary Parameswaran Iyer has been appointed as the new Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog.

The correct answer is 'Bharat Biotech.'

Key Points

• Bharat Biotech's intranasal COVID-19 vaccine candidate, BBV-154, has been approved by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
• The DCGI had earlier given its nod to conduct clinical trials for BBIL's (Bharat Biotech International Limited) intranasal vaccine as a booster dose.
• The drug regulator had also permitted the firm to conduct a phase-3 clinical trial to compare the immunogenicity and safety of BBV-154 (intranasal) with Covaxin.
• Last week, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) recommended Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) for Bharat Biotech's intranasal COVID-19 vaccine.
• Krishna Ella, Chairman and Managing Director of the company, had said earlier that there was no single instance of side effect or adverse reaction reported so far.
• Benefits of COVID-19 nasal vaccine:
• Speaking about the benefit of nasal injection, Ella was earlier quoted by news agency PTI as saying that any injectable vaccine only protects the lower level (of the body). That's why people vaccinated with injectable vaccines may still get RT-PCR positive, whereas the nasal jab protects the whole body. Bharat Biotech also claimed that the "intranasal vaccine stimulates a broad immune response."

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only

In News

• Delegates at the UN’s climate conference COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt thrashed out an agreement to establish a loss and damage (L&D) fund to compensate the most vulnerable countries from climate-linked disasters.

Key Points‘Loss and Damages’ Fund

• **COP27 established a ‘**Loss and Damages’ fund (L&D) for climate reparations.
• It will compensate the most vulnerable countries for climate-linked disasters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It refers to the costs the rich and developed countries, which are majorly responsible for industrial emissions that pollute the environment, should pay to poorer nations that have made a negligible contribution to pollution but are more vulnerable to extreme climate events.
• The expected monetary compensation from the L&D fund is estimated to be nearly $500 billion and rising by $200 billion annually.
• Crucial questions such as who will manage this fund, whether contributions are expected from large developing countries and what the fair share of contributors will be — have been left to a “transitional committee”.
• This committee will make recommendations for the adoption of the fund at the next Conference of the Parties (COP) of the UN’s Framework Convention for Climate Change COP 28, to be held in the UAE in 2023.
• According to the agreement, the fund would initially draw on contributions from developed countries and other private and public sources such as international financial institutions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM):
• The Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM) for Loss and Damages, set up in 2013, was the first formal acknowledgement of the need to compensate developing countries struck by climate disasters. ***Hence, statement 3 is correct.*​

The correct answer is Pacific Ocean.

Key Points:

EL- NINO:

• El Nino (Spanish for Christ Child) is the occasional development of warm ocean surface waters along the coast of Ecuador and Peru in South America.
• Even though El Nino occurs in the Pacific Ocean, it often reduces the number of hurricanes that form in the Atlantic Ocean. Conversely, La Niña events tend to be related to an increase in the number of Atlantic hurricanes.
• Recently this development has been used for forecasting climatic conditions in different parts of the world.
• The El Nino normally occurs around Christmas, roughly every 2 to 7 years, and lasts usually for a few weeks to a few months.
• El Nino event is related to two important atmospheric circulation systems:  
• Hadley Circulation: It features air rising near the Equator, flowing poleward at a height of 10 to 15 kilometers above the earth’s surface, descending in the subtropics, and then returning equatorward near the surface.
• Walker Circulation: There is a stable low-pressure system above the western Pacific near South East Asia and a high-pressure system in the central Pacific.
• This results in a constant westward flow of air masses from the area of high pressure to the area of low pressure. At higher altitudes, this air then flows directly eastward, oblique to the Hadley Circulation.
• Due to the combined components of Walker Circulation and Hadley Circulation, there is a strong prevailing wind toward the west in the lower layers of the atmosphere, which maintains the stable coastal upwelling system off the coast in western South America.
• El Nino and the Indian Monsoon rains are inversely related.
• 

The correct answer is Rajiv Gauba.

In News

• An apex panel comprising seven secretaries has been recently constituted by the union govt to monitor 'Mission Karmayogi' in February 2023.

Key Points

• The apex panel is chaired by Cabinet Secretary Rajiv Gauba.
• It will review the progress of the program and guide the government to train and upgrade the competencies of all civil servants to match the role.
• A Cabinet Secretariat Coordination Unit (CSCU) was recently set up under the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) or Mission Karmayogi.
• The CSCU will have as members a nominee of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), Secretary (coordination), Cabinet Secretariat, DoPT Secretary, Home Secretary, Expenditure Secretary, Environment, Forest and Climate Change Secretary, Higher Education Secretary and Revenue Secretary.

Additional Information

• Mission Karmayogi was launched on 2^nd September 2020 with the objective of enhancing governance through Civil Service Capacity Building.
• Under the programme, officers are evaluated on the basis of the courses they take throughout their career to enhance their skill.
• Public training institutions and universities have been enabled to be a part of this capacity-building measure.

The correct answer is 5 MMT.

Key Points

• The implementation of the 'National Green Hydrogen Mission' is expected to get the following outcomes by 2030:
• Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum with an associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country.​
• The targets by 2030 are likely to bring in over Rs. 8 lakh crore investments and create over 6 lakh jobs.
• Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO₂ emissions are expected to be averted by 2030.
• As per the experts, 'fuel of the future - Green Hydrogen' could supply up to 25% of the world's energy needs by 2050 and become a 10 trillion-dollar addressable market by 2050.
• The Prime minister has also set a 2047 deadline for becoming self-reliant in energy.
• The government expects wide-ranging benefits, including the creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
• Decarbonization of industrial, mobility, and energy sectors.
• Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock.
• Development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities.

The correct answer is ‘Op SANKALP’

Key Points

• INS Talwar is presently deployed for ‘Op SANKALP’ commemorating the 3^rd continuous year of the Indian Navy’s presence in the Gulf for the protection of India’s Maritime Interests.
• Indian Navy had commenced Maritime Security Operations, code named ‘Op SANKALP’, in the Gulf Region on 19 June 2019 to ensure safe passage of Indian Flag Vessels transiting through the Strait of Hormuz.
• This operation is being conducted in the milieu of the deteriorating security situation in the Gulf region, post attacks on merchant ships in the Gulf of Oman in June 2019.
• This operation is being progressed in close coordination with all stakeholders including the Ministry of Defence, the Ministry of External Affairs, the Ministry of Shipping, the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas and the DG, Shipping.
• Indian Navy continues to monitor the situation in the Gulf region and is maintaining a presence in the region to ensure the security of our sea-borne trade and the safety of Indian Flag Merchant Vessels transiting through the region.
• The Indian Navy stands committed to the protection of the nation's Maritime Interests.

The correct answer is Tamilnad Mercantile Bank.

Key Points

• An agreement appointing TMBL as an agency bank of RBI to undertake government agency business was signed by RBI in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Additional Information

• ​MD and CEO: Thiru S. Krishnan
• Headquarters: Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is National Informatics Centre.

Key Points

• A wide range of ICT services including Nationwide Communication Network for decentralised planning, improvement in Government services and wider transparency of national and local Governments is offered by National Informatics Centre.
• ​National Informatics Centre (NIC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the technology partner of the Government of India.
• NIC was established in the year 1976 by Narasimaiah Seshagiri under the Electonics Commission of India.
• It is established with the objective to provide technology-driven solutions to Central and State Governments.
• NIC is closely associated with the government in different aspects of governance by establishing a nationwide state-of-the-art ICT infrastructure and services for Central Government, State Governments, UT Administrations, Districts and other Government bodies.
• It also manages the National Knowledge Network.
• Shri Rajesh Gera is the Director General of National Informatics Centre, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.

From the graph and table, we get:

Total students in School A = (110 + 48 + 96 + 160 + 54 + 50) = 518

Total students in School B = (50 + 72 + 144 + 160 + 126 + 110) = 662

Required ratio= 518 : 662 i.e., 259: 331

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

From the graph and table, we get:

Number of students in School A in State S = 160

Number of students in School B in States P and Q together = (50 + 72) = 122

Required percentage = 160/122 x 100 = 131.14%

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

From the graph and table, we get:

If the ratio of male and female students in School B from State R is 7: 5 respectively,

So number of females students = 5/12 x 144 = 60

Required percentage = 60/240 x 100 = 25%

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

From the graph and table, we get:

Total number of students in School A from States P, Q, and R together = (110 + 48 + 96) = 254

Total number of students in School B from States S, T, and U together = (160 + 126 + 110) = 396

Required difference = (396 - 254) = 142

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

From the graph and table, we get:

 Total number of students in School A from all six schools together = (110 + 48 + 96 + 160 + 54 + 50) = 518

Total number of students in all six schools together = (160 + 120 + 240 + 320 + 180 + 160) = 1180

Required percentage = 518/1180 x 100 = 43.89%

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Given 

Ratio of the volume of the cube to cuboid = 4 : 5 

The ratio of the length of the cuboid to each edge of the cube = 2 : 1 

The ratio of the breadth of the cuboid to each edge of the cube is 1 : 2  

The height of the cuboid = 10 cm  

Formulation   

Volume of cube = (Length of the edge)³   

Volume of cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height 

Total surface area of cube = 6 × (Length of the edge)² 

Total surface area of cuboid = 2 × (Length × Breadth + Breadth × Height + Length × Height)

Calculation  

Let the length of the cuboid and the length of the edge of the cube be 2x cm and x cm respectively. 

Therefore, the breadth of the cuboid = x/2 cm 

Volume of cube = x³ 

Volume of cuboid = (2x) × (x/2) × 10 = 10x² 

So, x³/10x² = 4/5 

⇒ x/10 = 4/5  

⇒ x = 8  

The total surface area of cube = 6 × (8)²  = 384 cm²  

The total surface area of cuboid = 2 × (16 × 4 + 4 × 10 + 10 × 16) = 528 cm²  

The difference between the total surface areas of the two figures = 528 - 384 = 144 cm²  

Hence, the correct answer is 144 cm².

Given

Speed of boat in still water = 50 km/hour

Speed of stream = 10 km/hour

Time taken by boat in total journey= 15 hours 30 minutes

Time of stoppage = 30 Minutes

Formula used

Time taken in travelling = Total time of journey – Stoppage time

Calculation

Time taken in travelling = 15 hours 30 minutes - 30 Minutes = 15 hours

Let the one side distance = x km

According to question

⇒ x/(50 + 10) + x/(50 – 10) = 15

⇒ x/60 + x/40 = 15

⇒ 2x + 3x = 15 × 120

⇒ x = 360 km

∴ Distance travelled by the boat in its one side journey is 360 km.

In scheme P at SI for 4 years at y % per annum 

 Then interest is 4y%

 In Scheme Q at CI for 2 years at 12% per annum

 CI is successive interest = 12% + 12% + 12×12%/ 100

  ⇒ 12% + 12 % + 1.44% = 25.44% 

 Amount invested in both schemes are in the ratio 3 : 5

 Then total investment is 5 unit + 3 unit = 8 unit 

 We get overall interest from both the schemes is 27.9 %

 Then 27.9% of 8 = (4y% of 3+ 25.44% of 5 )

   ⇒ 223.2 % = 12y % + 127.2 %

   ⇒ 223.2% - 127.2 % = 12y % 

   ⇒ 96% = 12y %

   ⇒ y = 8% 

 Hence, 8% is the correct answer.

GIVEN :

The income of A and B is in the ratio 7 ∶ 8

The income of B and C is 4 ∶ 3.

The ratio of savings of A and C is 4 ∶ 3

The difference between the savings of B and C together to the savings A is Rs. 32,000.

CONCEPT :

Income = Expenditure + Saving

ASSUMPTION :

Income of A, B and C is 7x, 8x, 6x

Let their expenditure be y

Income = Expenditure + Saving

Savings of A = 7x – y

Savings of C = 6x – y

CALCULATION :

Ratio of A ∶ B = 7 ∶ 8

Ratio of B ∶ C = 4 ∶ 3

Now equating ratios of B we get

 (B ∶ C)_x2 = 8 ∶ 6

 A ∶ B ∶ C = 7 ∶ 8 ∶ 6

⇒ Ratio of saving A and C = (7x – y)/(6x – y) = 4/3

⇒ 21x – 3y = 24x – 4y

⇒ y = 3x

⇒ Saving of A = 7x – 3x = 4x

⇒ Saving of B = 8x – 3x = 5x

⇒ Saving of C = 6x – 3x = 3x

Difference between the savings of B and C together to the savings A is 32,000

⇒ (5x + 3x) – (4x) = 32,000

⇒ 4x = 32,000

⇒ x = 8000

∴ Income of B = 8x = 8 × 8000 = Rs. 64,000

Let, the first series be x, (x + 7), (x + 14), (x+21) and (x+28)

Also second series be y, (y + 11), (y + 22), (y + 33) and (y+44)

Average of series divisible by 7

 x + (x + 7) + (x + 14) + (x+21) + (x+28)

= (5x+70)/5 = x+14

Average of series divisible by 11

 y+(y+11) + (y+22) + (y+33) + (y+44)

= (5y+110) /5 = y + 22

Also, given,

 (x+14) / (y+22) = 28 / 44

44x + 616 = 28y + 616

11 x = 7 y --- (1)

The sum of their first term is 36

 x + y = 36 --- (2)

From equation 1 and 2

y = 22   and x = 14

Series divisible by 7 is 14, 21, 28, 35, 42

Series divisible by 11 is 22, 33, 44, 55, 66

Difference between the greatest term of the series divisible by 11 and the second greatest term of the series divisible by 7

Required difference = 66 - 35 = 31