NVS TGT Social Science held on 29th Nov 2022 shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 41.

Key Points

• In November 2017, the President of India appointed NK Singh as the chairperson of the 15th Finance Commission.
• The recommendations it makes will apply to the five years from 2021–2022 through 2025–2026.
• It is advised that states pay 41% of the central taxes from 2021 to 2026, the same as they did from 2020 to 21.

Additional Information

• Other recommendations made by 15th Finance Commission:
• The vertical devolution has been advised to remain at 41%, as it was in its interim report for 2020–21.
• It has recommended a weighting of 12.5% for demographic performance, 45% for income, 15% for population and area, 10% for forest and ecology, and 2.5% for tax and fiscal initiatives for horizontal devolution.
• It has suggested grants to cover the post-devolution revenue imbalance totaling roughly Rs. 3 trillion over the five years ending in FY26.
• The expected Gross Revenue Receipts to the Union from all 15th Finance Commission transfers (devolution + grants) amount to roughly 34%, which leaves the Union with enough financial room to meet its resource needs.​

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• A number of the Shrimad Rajchandra Mission's Dharampur in Gujarat projects are scheduled to get underway with the laying of the foundation stone by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Projects will virtually launch on August 4, 2022.
• Shrimad Rajchandraji was a Jain reformer, mystic, poet, philosopher, and scholar.
• He was born in the village of Vavaniya, close to Morbi.

Additional Information

• PM will lay the cornerstone for Shrimad Rajchandra Animal Hospital, which has 150 beds.
• The building will cost 70 crore rupees to build.
• Additionally, the Shrimad Rajchandra Center of Excellence for Women's Foundation Stone will be laid.
• Its construction is expected to cost around Rs 40 crore.
• The Shrimad Rajchandra Hospital will open in the Valsad district's Dharampur.
• It is a multispecialty hospital with 250 beds that cost 200 crore rupees to build.

The correct answer is Indian Space Research Organisation.

Key Points

• Young Scientist Program, or "YUVIKA," is a special program being organized by the Indian Space Research Organization for school children.
• Its objective is to provide younger pupils, with a preference for rural locations, with fundamental knowledge of space technology, space science, and space applications.
• The initiative aims to educate young people, who will be our country's future construction workers, about new developments in science and technology.
• This initiative, called "Catch them Young," was designed by ISRO.
• Additionally, it is anticipated that the program would inspire more students to seek careers in STEM-related fields of study and research.
• Headquarters: Bengaluru
  

Founded: 15 August 1969

Founder: Vikram Sarabhai

Additional Information

• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre:
• Formation: 3 January 1954
  

Founder: Homi J. Bhabha

Headquarters: Trombay, Mumbai

• Council of Scientific and Industrial Research:
• President: Narendra Modi
  

Founded: 26 September 1942

Founders: Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar, Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar

• Defence Research and Development Organisation:
• Date founded: 1958
  

Headquarters: DRDO Bhavan, New Delhi

Minister responsible: Rajnath Singh, Minister of Defence

The correct answer is Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education to be raised to 30% by 2035.

Key Points

• The National Education Policy 2020 was unveiled on July 29, 2020.
• The following are specifics of NEP 2020's key features:
• By 2035, the gross enrollment ratio in higher education is expected to increase to 50%, and 3.5 crore seats would be added.
• ensuring universal access to all educational opportunities from early childhood education through grade 12;
• ensuring access to high-quality early childhood care and education for all children between the ages of 3-6;
• a new curriculum and pedagogy (5+3+3+4);
• there are no clear distinctions between the sciences and the arts, between academic and extracurricular pursuits, or between career paths and academic streams;
• launching a national initiative on basic literacy and numeracy;​
• Academic bank of credits to be established to facilitate the transfer of credits.
• National Research Foundation will be created as an apex body to foster research.
• NEP 2020 emphasizes setting up of Gender Inclusion Fund.

Additional Information

• Other features:
• promote multilingualism and Indian languages with a strong emphasis;
• The home language, mother tongue, local language, or regional language will be used as the primary medium of teaching until at least Grade 5, but ideally until Grade 8 and beyond.
• modifications to assessment: up to two Board Exams per school year, one for the main test and one for development, if desired;
• the establishment of the PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) National Assessment Center;
• education that is both equitable and inclusive, with a focus on socially and economically disadvantaged groups (SEDGs);
• special education zones and a distinct gender inclusion fund for underprivileged areas and groups;
• robust and open procedures for hiring instructors and performance evaluations based on merit;

The correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II.

Key Points

• According to National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) India Rankings 2022:
• ​University of Delhi is at position 23.
• Banaras Hindu University is at rank 11.
• Jawaharlal Nehru University is at 10th rank.
• Savitribai Phule Pune University is at the 25th position.​

Additional Information

• According to National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) India Rankings 2022**,** Indian Institute of Technology Madras is at the 1st rank.
• Visvesvaraya Technological University is at the 100th rank.

The correct answer is a, b and c.

Key Points

• The definition of a state is discussed for the first time in Article 12 of Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• According to this section's definition, "the State encompasses the
• Government and Parliament of India,
• the Government and Legislature of each State, and
• all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the administration of the Government of India, unless the context otherwise requires."

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• ​Neeraj Chopra of India took home the silver at the 2022 World Athletics Championships in Oregon.
• It put an end to India's 19-year world championship medal drought.
• Since long jumper Anju Bobby George earned India's first medal, a bronze at the 2003 Summer Olympics in Paris, this was the country's second medal at the global championships and its first podium result.
• Neeraj Chopra came just short of Anderson Peters' winning record of 90.54m in the final at Hayward Field with his best effort of 88.13m.

Additional Information

• Annu Rani:
• Javelin thrower Annu Rani hails from Bahadurpur in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.
• In the women's javelin throw finals at the 2019 World Athletics Championships in Doha, she was the first Indian to do so.
• Shivpal Singh:
• Javelin thrower Sergeant Shivpal Singh represents India and is a Senior Non Commissioned Officer in the Indian Air Force.
• Davinder Singh Kang:
• Indian track and field athlete Davinder Singh Kang competes in the javelin throw competition.

The correct answer is Maria Ressa and Dmitry Andreyevich Muratov.

Key Points

• Journalists Maria Ressa of the Philippines and Dmitry Muratov of Russia received the 2021 Nobel Peace Prize.
• It was given to them in recognition of their efforts to defend free speech, which is necessary for **democracy and long-lasting peace.**​

Additional Information

• Abiy Ahmed, the prime minister of Ethiopia, was given the 2019 Nobel Peace Prize "for his efforts to achieve peace,"
• The World Food Programme (WFP), a UN organization, received the prize in 2020.
• Ales Bialiatski, a Belarusian human rights activist, Memorial, a Russian human rights organization, and Center for Civil Liberties, a Ukrainian human rights organization, share the 2022 Nobel Peace Prize.​

The correct answer is South Korea.

Key Points

• Launch of South Korea's first lunar mission, also known as its first mission outside of low Earth orbit.
• The mission's new name, Danuri, is a play on the Korean terms for "moon" and "enjoy," .
• It was formerly known as the Korea Pathfinder Lunar Orbiter (KPLO).
• The Korean Aerospace Research Institute oversees the mission (KARI).
• Danuri's objective is to evaluate South Korea's lunar spacecraft engineering.

Additional Information

• From the Cape Canaveral Space Force Station, Danuri was launched using a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket.
• The Danuri spacecraft is currently traveling around the moon.
• It will fly toward the sun before turning around and returning to its original location, arriving in the lunar orbit in mid-December.
• This technique, which requires a gravitational boost from the sun and is also known as a ballistic lunar transfer, is typically thought of as being lengthier.
• Danuri will conduct research using its six science instruments once it has landed on the moon and is in its 62-mile-high orbit.

The correct answer is minority communities of India.

Key Points

• A program called "Hamari Dharohar" has been developed to protect the rich cultural history of India's minority communities.
• The program calls for preserving the rich cultural heritage of minorities within the context of Indian culture as a whole, which includes organizing exhibitions, preserving written works and other materials, etc.
• According to the Indian Constitution's Seventh Schedule, "Public Order" is a state subject.
• The different State Governments are in charge of upholding law and order, recording and prosecuting offenses against the life and property of all citizens, including minorities.
• State reports of damage to minority-owned historic buildings have not been received by the ministry.

Additional Information

• Padho Pardesh scheme:
• The Padho Pardesh scheme was launched by the Indian government to lower the cost of international study for qualified students.
• Individuals from the minority group are eligible for this program's interest subsidy on education loans taken out for international study.

As per the given information,

Five trays A, B, C, D and E of a kitchen cart are placed.

• C is above D,
• D is above A

• E is below A
• B is below E.

 

Clearly, C is at the top.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

The logic folllows here is:

I. Red is green, green is blue.

The codes in tabular form:

→ The colour of the sky is blue but here Green is Blue and no information for Blue is given. Thus, the statement is not sufficient to answer.

II. Blue is pink, pink is red.  

→ The colour of the sky is blue but here Blue is Pink. So, the colour of the sky is Pink. Thus, the statement is sufficient to answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient".

Statement:

Most of teenager girls are suffering from Anemia.

Course of Action:

I. Free of cost folic acid supplements must be distributed to all affected girls.

→ It is true because Folic Acid supplementation has been shown to be a cost-effective intervention for addressing anemia and distributing free-of-cost folic acid supplements to all the affected girls will improve girls’ iron status, and reduces their susceptibility to anemia.

II. Awareness drive on iron-rich diet must be organised. 

→ It is true because organizing an Awareness drive on the iron-rich diet will educate teenage girls about iron-rich foods that can help treat iron deficiency anemia. Also, they can talk to their healthcare providers and take informed and early action.

Thus, both statements I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II follow".

Statements:

L ≥ P,

W < P,

M < W

On combining: L ≥ P > W > M

Conclusions :

I. P > M →  TRUE (as L ≥ P > W > M gives; P > M →so it is definitely true).

II. M < L → TRUE (as L ≥ P > W > M gives; L > M →so it is definitely true).

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II are true".

By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Statement : Pointing to a woman, Anil said, ‘‘She is the wife of the only nephew of the only brother of my mother.’’ 

Here, the woman is the wife of the only nephew of the only brother of Anil's mother i.e. the only nephew of Anil's mother's brother is Anil.

Thus, the woman is the wife of Anil.

Hence, the correct answer is "Wife".

Given Series : 5, 9, 27, 31, ?, 159, 1113

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "155".

Given: B, E, J, Q, ?

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Z".

According to the given information:

• A man walks towards East and then turns left. After walking some distance, he turns 45° left.

• After some time he turns 45° right.

Clearly, the man is walking in 'North' direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "North".

The logic follows here is:

Assertion (A):

The President of India is the head of the State.

→ According to Article 52 of the Indian Constitution; The President of India is the head of the State.

Reason (R):

Parliament comprises President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. 

→ Under the constitution of India, the Legislature of the Union, which is called Parliament consists of the President and two houses, known as Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. 

Thus, both the statement (A) and (R) are true but they are not connected.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)".

As per the given information,

The possible venn diagram for 'Some of the teachers are singers, some of the singers are dancers but no dancer is a teacher' is:

Clearly, the venn diagram shows the relation that 'Some of the teachers are singers', 'some of the singers are dancers' and 'No dancer is Teacher'.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

The Internet Protocol is a protocol or collection of guidelines for addressing and routing data packets. 

Key Points

• It helps move between networks and reach their intended location.
• The Internet divides data into smaller units known as packets for transmission.
• The web address indicates the location of the webpage.
• It contains the scheme (https), subdomain (www), top-level, second-level(textbook), and subdirectory(.com).
• The protocol used by websites is typically https.
• It is the Internet protocol suite that helps in distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems

Thus, HTTP is the most helpful protocol for the Internet in all web addresses. 

Additional Information

• Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol enables two computers to connect.
• Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an Internet communication protocol for sending electronic mail.
• The File transfer protocol is a protocol used to transfer files from a server to a client.

A computer device is any programmable electronic device whether portable or stationary. 

Key Points

• Computer devices can be categorised into two types Input and Output.
• The output device is the physical component used to transmit data from a computer.
• An output device is any piece of computer hardware that transforms data into a form that can be understood by humans.
• The following are some examples: Monitor, Printer, Plotter, Projector,  Speakers, Headphones, LCD Screen, Sound Card, and Video Card.

Thus, Mic is not to be used as an output device. 

Additional Information

• An input device is a piece of hardware or equipment that facilitates data entry into a computer.
• For Example Keyboard, Mouse, Joystick, Light Pen, Track Ball, Scanner,  Digitizer, and Microphone.

The correct answer is Central Processing Unit.

• Central Processing Unit (CPU): It is the most important unit, where all the processing jobs take place. CPU is the control centre of the computer and hence it is said to be the brain of the computer.

Additional Information

CPU has three main components:

• Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): It performs all the arithmetic operations like addition (+), multiplication (*), subtraction (-), division (/) on the numerical data directed by the control unit. All the logical operations, like less than (<), greater than (>), equal to (=), not equal to (≠) etc. are also carried out by ALU.
• Control Unit (CU): It controls and coordinates all the operations taking place in the system. It controls the flow of data and information from one unit to the other.
• Registers/Memory Unit (MU): To execute a program, data and instructions need to be stored temporarily. This storage is done in the MU. The data and instructions are retrieved from MU by Control Unit for supplying to ALU as when required by the program.

The location of the webpage is indicated by the web address.

Key Points

• The Internet Protocol is a protocol or collection of guidelines for addressing and routing data packets.
• It contains the scheme (https), subdomain (www), top-level, second-level(textbook), and subdirectory(.com).
• The protocol used by the web address is typically https.
• Whereas, https stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure.
• HTTPS is a protocol for protecting communication between two systems.

Thus, ‘s’ in the protocol → https signifies that It is a secure protocol.

Additional Information

• HTTPS created an encrypted connection between the web server and the browser.
• It uses the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocols.

Web browser pulls data from other websites and displays it on a computer. 

Key Points

• The Hypertext Send Protocol outlines how text, pictures, and video is communicated on the web and used to transfer information.
• A cookie is a piece of information from a website that is saved in a web browser for subsequent retrieval by the website.
• They allow web servers to track a user's browsing activity or keep stateful information on the user's device
• Cookies are used to let a server know whether visitors have visited a specific website again.
• Cookies can be used to store user information so that the user is continually shown content that is relevant to them.

Thus, a Cookie is a small piece of text sent to the browser by a website, to remember and track information about your visit to that website. 

Additional Information

• Antivirus is computer software designed to stop, find, and get rid of the malware.
• Spyware is understood to be harmful software intended to infiltrate a computer system to collect information and send it to a third party against the user's will.
• Malware is malicious software having malevolent intentions such as viruses, worms, trojan horses, ransomware, and spyware, among other things.

Microsoft Office is a group of client software, server software, and services created by Microsoft. 

Key Points

• Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, and Microsoft PowerPoint were included in the first edition of Office.
• Microsoft Word is a word processor that may be used to create papers, letters, reports, and other types of writing of professional quality.
• It includes sophisticated capabilities that give you the best formatting and editing options for your files and projects.
• Some of the Features of MS Word are Templates, Image formats, WordArt, Macros, Page Layout and etc.
• Users can use it for Newspaper Templates to create a newsletter for their photography club.

Thus, MS Word software under Microsoft Office Package is best suited. 

Additional Information

• Microsoft Word was created by Richard Brodie and Charles Simonyi.
• It was released in 1983.

Software is a collection of instructions or computer programmes used to run computers to carry out particular activities.

Key Points

• Software instructs a computer on how to run, to put it another way.
• It can be categorized into types: Application software and System software.
• Application software is used by end users and is created to perform a particular purpose.
• Application software instructs the computer to carry out user-provided commands.
• Some examples of application software are Microsoft Word, spreadsheets, Microsoft Excel, VLC media player, Firefox or Google Chrome, accounting applications, and photoshop.

Thus, Microsoft Excel and Microsoft Word are examples of Application Software. 

Additional Information

• Programming Language is a method of notation for creating computer programmes.  language.
• Utility Software helps users maintain and care for their computer systems.
• Operating Systems are important sets of programmes that control resources and offer services to other software.

A command is a clear instruction that tells a computer programme to carry out a certain operation or function. 

Key Points

• It could be sent using a command-line interface, such as a shell, as input to a network service as part of a network protocol.
• The copy command often moves files from one area to another.
• It can be used to merge numerous files into the target files in addition to making copies of already existing files.
• Shortcut keys for computers are a group of one or more keys that produce a specific command to be executed.
• Crtl+C is a shortcut command to help users to copy.

Thus, Ctrl + C is To copy an image from one slide in a presentation to another slide. 

Additional Information

• Alt-C allows copying text from your PC to your Smart device's clipboard.

Malware is computer software that can harmful to computers. 

Key Points

• Malware has been purposefully created to disrupt a computer, or server, leak sensitive data, gain unauthorized access to data, and deny access to data.
• Malware can be categorized into one or more subtypes such as computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, ransomware, spyware, adware, rogue software, wiper and keyloggers.
• A virus is a computer programme designed to infiltrate your system and corrupt or change your files and data.
• It can effect the computer's data by destroying and damaging it.

Thus, a Virus is a piece of code that is secretly introduced into a computer system in order to corrupt it or destroy data.

Additional Information

• Hacker is a term used to describe people who use those talents to circumvent cybersecurity measures.
• Spyware is malicious software which invaded and steals sensitive data.
• Firewall is a network security device that functions to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic

The World Wide Web is abbreviated as WWW and is colloquially referred to as the web. 

Important Points 

• The World Wide Web (WWW), also known as the Web, is the Internet's leading information retrieval service (the worldwide computer network).
• The Web provides users with access to a vast array of documents that are linked to one another via hypertext or hypermedia links—that is, hyperlinks, electronic connections that connect related pieces of information to allow a user easy access to them.
• The internet is a vast, global network of documents or web pages. Each page may include links to other pages located anywhere in the world.
• Browsers such as Internet Explorer, Netscape Navigator, Google Chrome, and others can be used to retrieve and view the pages. The browser retrieves the requested page, interprets the text and formatting commands, and displays the properly formatted page on the screen.

Therefore, we can conclude that www is a collection of multimedia web pages and other documents which are stored on websites.

Teaching-learning is a combined process where a teacher determines specific learning objectives, develops teaching and memorization strategies, implements a work schedule, and evaluates the effectiveness of the instruction.

 Key Points

Steps involved in the teaching-learning process-

• Formulating objectives- It is important that the learning objectives for a program, phase, course, or activity should line up. Therefore the program learning outcome clearly states the course objectives.
• Relating the previous knowledge with present topic- Activating previous knowledge is important for students' comprehension because it enables them to create new material from what they already know.
• Presentation of the content- It involves the presentation of the subject matter with the help of available teaching-learning materials.
• Evaluation- Evaluation of learning is concerned with the processes of learners' evaluation. It assesses learners' abilities and identifies areas where they need to develop. The purpose of the evaluation is to check whether the learning was effective and objectives of learning were achieved or not.
• Re-teaching- It is a crucial component of teaching that encourages students learning and motivation. It refers to teaching the same content again that students failed to learn.

Hence, we conclude that the correct order of teaching-learning processes is d, a, e, b, c.

Problem-solving is an instructional strategy that is used to develop conceptual understanding and the ability to transfer and apply those understanding in new situations.

 Key Points

• It provides learners with opportunities to use their newly acquired knowledge in meaningful, real-life activities and assists them in working at higher levels of thinking.
• It provides an opportunity to think rationally and develop thinking skills.
• In this method, giving regular and uniform assignments and homework to students can be beneficial for all students, regardless of their learning style or level.
• Homework or assignments can help them to practice and reinforce the skills and concepts they are learning in class, as well as prepare them for exams and assessments.
• It can also provide the teacher with valuable feedback on student understanding and progress.

Hence, we conclude that in the class using problem-solving approach to children by giving regular, uniform assignments and homework to students would be of great value.

A teacher is a facilitator who tries to satisfy the educational needs of the learners in such a manner that they play an important and positive role for the upliftment of society.

• An effective teacher is a multifaceted professional playing different roles of facilitator, curriculum creator, counselor, and role model for the learners.

Key PointsAn effective teacher should have the following qualities-

• Empathy-  Empathy is important while communicating with students as it will enable the teachers to feel concerned with students' problems and the efforts they make to cope with them. Empathy will enable them to be judicious, impartial, and objective.
• Concern and Commitment- The teacher should be dedicated and concerned about the development of the children and they should try to do all within their ability.
• Affection- A teacher should show love and concern for his students. In the absence of affection, the teacher cannot make students feel wanted and accepted.
• Humour- An element of humour is a good trait in a teacher. A teacher should develop the ability to play spontaneously with ideas, concepts, and relationships.

Hence, we conclude that empathy is significant when a teacher communicates with his/her students.

Additional Information

• Sympathy is more of a feeling of pity for someone.
• Apathy means not being interested about anything.
• Antipathy is the feeling of disliking someone.

Management of a classroom is a broader concept. It includes those external factors which take place out of the classroom but have a strong bearing on the learner’s behaviour in a classroom.

Key Points

• The needs that influence the learner’s behaviour in the classroom by and large are psychological in nature.
• For example, Anjali does not take part in any conversations or discussions in the classroom. She does not ask questions or seek clarification for her doubts.
• The teacher has to make attempts to satisfy her needs through appropriate motivation. The teacher should involve her in instructional tasks and assess her understanding. The learners’ motivation is often positively affected by the teacher’s sincere enthusiasm.
• Motivation is simply the reason for an action and that which gives purpose and direction to behaviour. It is a general term applied to the entire class of drives, desires, needs, wishes, and similar forces. Motivation can be considered the state of having encouragement to do something.

Hence, it is clear that the basic element of behaviour control in the classroom would be child’s motivation.

Visual impairment is also known as vision loss or vision impairment. It is measured through the loss of any of the visual functions such as acuity, color vision or binocular vision.

• Visually impaired children are born with visual impairment or become visually impaired later on due to illness, malnutrition, or an accident. They can be partially blind or fully blind. Suitable teaching strategies should be used to cater needs of these children.

Key Points

Role of Teacher- Some common strategies which a teacher may use to help visually impaired students are:

• Making changes in instructional material and classroom environment of general classroom for teaching visually impaired students.
• Providing large print-size reading materials to low-vision students. Using audio learning materials while teaching.
• Arranging seats in front, closer to the teacher and with other students.
• Allowing the use of computers in the classroom so that students with low vision are able to use screen enlargers, screen readers/ speech synthesizers for learning.

Hence, we conclude that to teach a visually challenged student the teacher should manage a seat in the front row and try to teach at the pace convenient to him.

An achievement test is designed to evaluate a unit during the teaching-learning process. It is quite useful in measuring the learning acquisition by a particular student in different subjects. 

• They are used to monitor students' learning and to provide ongoing feedback to both students and teachers during the teaching-learning process.

Key Points

 Steps involved in the construction of achievement tests-

1. Instructional objectives- the first and most important step in planning a test is defining and determining the instructional objectives.
2. Design- The second step is to make the "Design". The Design specifies weightage to different (a) instructional objectives, (b) types (or forms) of questions, (c) units and sub-units of the course content, (d) levels of difficulty.

• It is an instrument that reflects major policy decisions of the examining agency, whether it is a Board or an individual.

3. Blueprint- The third step is to prepare the "Blueprint". The policy decisions, as reflected in the design of the question paper, are translated into action through the Blueprint.
4. Writing of Questions- The next step after the finalization of the blueprint is writing appropriate questions in accordance with the broad parameters set out in the blueprint.
5. Marking Scheme- The fifth step is to prepare the "Marking Scheme". The marking scheme helps to prevent inconsistency in judgement. In the marking scheme, possible responses to items in the test are structured.
6. Question-wise Analysis- The sixth and last step is that of question-wise analysis. It helps the paper setter to ensure that there is no imbalance in the question paper.

Hence, we conclude that the first step in the construction of an achievement test is to define the objectives of the course.

‘Teaching’ means “impart knowledge or skill, give instruction or lessons, instill and inspire with”. By analyzing this meaning, we can say that teaching is an activity that facilitates learning.

Key Points 

• The teaching process takes the learner along with himself in order to stimulate, promote and endorse learning.
• It is done to bring desirable changes in human behavior. The overall personality development of a learner which is physical, mental, emotional, social, and moral, lies in the teaching of the teacher.
• It is a process that involves stimulation, guidance, direction, and encouragement of learning among children.
• It helps in the progress of a society by providing high rates of education completion, low crime rates, and by ensuring civic involvement.

Hence, we conclude that teaching is not a way to develop a national growth index.

Hint

• National growth index refers to the percentage difference in the values of all goods and services produced during a given time period and those produced earlier in the same time period.

Teaching is a process related to the effective transmission of knowledge and skills in an individual. It limits or enhances the ways the learners learn and assimilate concepts and ideas.

• Teachers are the implementers of education who foster the potential of young seedlings to grow and bloom.
• They carry a huge responsibility to shape and mould students' future and to contribute to their success.

Key PointsCharacteristics of an ideal teacher-

• He should motivate students to learn and to work according to their interests to achieve their true potential.
• He should have flexible principles as per needs because a teacher's ability to adjust to the classroom and promote student participation and engagement depends on how flexible his/her teaching style is.
• He should nurture students' natural curiosity to enable them to acquire knowledge by discovering the facts themselves.
• He should encourage students to engage in dialogue to make students able to pose questions and make decisions in search of understanding.
• He should create a positive classroom learning environment.

Hence, we conclude that for ideal teaching, a teacher should have flexible principles as per needs.

To protect ourselves against anxiety and stress, our ego sets up mechanisms that are known as defense mechanisms. Defense mechanisms are unrealistic and operate at the unconscious level. 

Key Points

Rationalization:

• When a person justifies his maladaptive behavior by false logic or ascribes it to noble motives which do not inspire it, it is called rationalization.
• Rationalization mechanism has two main defective values i.e.
• It helps to justify particular specific behavior.
• It contributes to soften disappointment related with unattained goals.
• While using rationalization mechanism, one thinks logically and offers socially approved reasons in order to justify one's behavior.
• A popular example of rationalization is the "sour grapes" reaction of the fox.
• Another example is students attributing their failure to the framing of the faulty question paper.

Hence, we conclude that when a student attributes his failure to the framing of the faulty question paper, he is using rationalization as a defense mechanism.

Additional Information

• Identification may operate as a defense mechanism by increasing feelings of worth and protecting the individual against self-devaluation.
• Compensation When a person feels inferior or inadequate because of some real or imagined personal short-coming or weakness or any setback and failure in life, he reacts in his defense through compensation.
• Projection- In projection, others are seen as responsible for one's own shortcomings, mistakes, misdeeds, unacceptable impulses, thoughts, and desires. It is the most common tendency observed in human behavior for ego protection.

Competition is a form of social action in which we strive against each other for the possession of or use of some limited material or non-material good.

 Key Points

• Competition is the behavior in which an individual tries to excel his/her own performance and simultaneously hinders others from completing their tasks.
• Competition within a group may lead to conflict and disharmony among group members.
• Classroom peers are believed to influence learning by teaching each other. If learners will be always in fear of competition with peers, it will affect learning negatively.

Hence, we conclude that the students are in a state of competition.

Additional Information

• Phobia refers to a persistent fear of some object or situation which presents no actual danger to the child.
• Stress refers to an imbalance between the demands a person feels and his capability to meet their demands.
• Mental disorder refers to an impairment of or a disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain from any disability of the mind or brain.

The correct answer is II only.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915 from South Africa where he had successfully fought the racist regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which he called satyagraha.
• The idea of satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
• It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then the physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.
• Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a Satyagrahi could win the battle through nonviolence.
• This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
• People – including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the truth, instead of being forced to accept the truth through the use of violence.

Additional Information

• The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Kranti Movement, was a movement launched at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 8th August 1942, during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.
• The Champaran Satyagraha was a peasant uprising, led by Mahatma Gandhi in the Champaran district of Bihar. The farmer's in the region revolted against the British power against the imposed indigo cultivation between 1914 and 1916.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918): Gandhi used Satyagraha and hunger strike for the first time during an industrial dispute between the owners and workers of a cotton mill in Ahmedabad. The owners wanted to withdraw the plague bonus to the workers while the workers were demanding a hike of 35% in their wages.

Thus, As a Gandhian, if you were to practice the idea of Satyagraha, you would emphasize Appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

The correct answer is Both A and B.

Key Points  

• Mahatma Gandhi’s experiments with clothing sum up the changing attitude to dress in the Indian subcontinent.
• As a boy from a Gujarati Bania family, he usually wore a shirt with a dhoti or pajama, and sometimes a coat.
• As a lawyer in Johannesburg, South Africa in the 1890s, he still wore Western clothes.
• Soon he decided that dressing ‘unsuitably’ was a more powerful political statement.
• In Durban in 1913, Gandhi first appeared in a lungi and kurta with his head shaved as a sign of mourning to protest against the shooting of Indian coal miners.
• Western-style clothing was also especially attractive to groups of Dalit converts to Christianity who now found it liberating. Here too, it was men rather than women who affected the new dress styles.

Additional Information

• Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi is widely recognized as one of the twentieth century's greatest political and spiritual leaders. Honored in India as the father of the nation, he pioneered and practiced the principle of Satyagraha—resistance to tyranny through mass nonviolent civil disobedience.
• The Champaran Satyagraha was a peasant uprising, led by Mahatma Gandhi in the Champaran district of Bihar. The farmer's in the region revolted against the British power against the imposed indigo cultivation between 1914 and 1916.

Thus, with two statements on the social history of colonial India Gandhi decided that dressing ‛unsuitably’ was a more powerful political statement. .

The correct answer is I and IV only.

Key Points

• Pastoralists are not relics of the past. They are not people who have no place in the modern world.
• Pastoralists not only continue to survive, but in many regions, their numbers have expanded over recent decades.
• The new political boundaries between India and Pakistan stopped Raika's movement.
• Environmentalists and economists have increasingly come to recognize that pastoral nomadism is a form of life that is perfectly suited to many hilly and dry regions of the world.

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Additional Information

• A nomad is a person with no settled home, moving from place to place as a way of obtaining food, finding pasture for livestock, or otherwise making a living. Most nomadic groups follow a fixed annual or seasonal pattern of movements and settlements.
• Nomadic groups in Central Asia included the Huns and other Turks, as well as Indo-Europeans such as the Tocharians, Persians, Scythians, Saka, Yuezhi, Wusun, and others, and a number of Mongol groups.

Thus, true about pastoralists in the modern world is Pastoralists not only continue to survive, but in many regions, their numbers have expanded over recent decades.​ Environmentalists and economists have increasingly come to recognize that pastoral nomadism is a form of life that is perfectly suited to many hilly and dry regions of the world.

The correct answer is I, II and III only.

• Abanindranath Tagore was the creator of the 'Indian Society of Oriental Art' and is a renowned Indian artist. Bharat Mata is a work painted by the Indian painter Abanindranath Tagore in 1905.
• Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882. It is inspired by and set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century, it is considered one of the most important novels in the history of Indian Nationalism.
• The above books represent Indian nationalism concerns.

Additional Information

• Gopal's biography of Nehru is the most scholarly and authoritative work to have appeared on Nehru. Its value lies in its comprehensiveness: it does not look exclusively at Nehru's politics or his inner life and psychology but shows how Nehru's mind was shaped.
• By 1921, Mahatma Gandhi designed the Swaraj flag. This was a tricolor flag and had a spinning wheel in the center of a red, green, and white banner.

Thus, Abanindranath Tagore’s painting Bharat Mata and Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’s novel Anandamath are suitable to be considered a ‛primary source’ for understanding concerns about nationalism in India under British rule.

The correct answer is a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

Key Points

• In the year 1928, the Bardoli Satyagraha took place. This movement was known as one of the biggest incidents of the Civil Disobedience movement, which was a part of India's war for independence.
• The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
• The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of India, on 5 March 1931 before the Second Round Table Conference in London.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike, 1918 was one of the initial Movements led by Gandhi at the beginning of the 20th century after his return from South Africa. It was one of the formative events in the political career of Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

• Rowlatt Acts, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The acts allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted the internment of suspects without trial.
• Simon Commission: In November 1927, the British government appointed the Simon Commission two years ahead of schedule to report on India's constitutional progress for introducing constitutional reforms, as promised

Thus,

The correct answer is A, C, B, D. 

Key Points

• The Bloody Sunday event was a massacre of unarmed civilians in St. Petersburg, Russia, on January 9, 1905.
• The event sparked a wave of protests and strikes across Russia, which eventually led to the Russian Revolution of 1917.
• ​ The Civil War was a conflict that took place in Russia from 1918 to 1920.
• The war was fought between the Bolsheviks, who had overthrown the Tsarist government, and the White Army, which was supported by the Western powers.
• The Bolsheviks eventually emerged victorious, and the Soviet Union was founded in 1922.
• The Comintern, or Communist International, was an international organization founded in 1919 by the Bolsheviks.
• The Comintern was dedicated to promoting world communism, and it played a significant role in the spread of communism around the world.
• The Comintern was dissolved in 1943.
• The beginning of collectivisation was a major turning point in Soviet history.
• In 1929, Joseph Stalin, the leader of the Soviet Union, began a campaign to collectivize agriculture.
• This campaign led to the deaths of millions of people and the destruction of the traditional peasant way of life.

​So the correct chronology is

The Bloody Sunday event (January 9, 1905)

The Civil War (1918-1920)

Formation of Comintern (March 3, 1919)

Beginning of Collectivisation (1929)

The correct answer is A and B.

Key Points

• Marx argued that industrial society was capitalist.
• Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories, and the profit of capitalists was produced by workers.
• The conditions of workers could not improve as long as this profit was accumulated by private capitalists.
• Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property.
• Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist society

Additional Information

• Socialism, for Marx, is a society that permits the actualization of man's essence, by overcoming his alienation. It is nothing less than creating the conditions for the truly free, rational, active, and independent man; it is the fulfillment of the prophetic aim: the destruction of the idols.
• Karl Marx's theory of alienation describes the estrangement of people from aspects of their human nature as a consequence of the division of labor and living in a society of stratified social classes.

Thus,  true in the context of the philosophy of Karl Marx are Marx argued that industrial society was ‛capitalist’.Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories.

The following are the changes that industrialization ushered in Russia in the late 19th and early 20th centuries:

• Expansion of railways. The construction of railways was one of the key drivers of industrialization in Russia. The railways helped to connect different parts of the country and to transport raw materials and finished goods.
• Increase in industrial production. The production of industrial goods increased rapidly during the period of industrialization. This was due to a number of factors, including the expansion of railways, the introduction of new technologies, and the availability of cheap labor.
• Growth of cities. The growth of industry led to the growth of cities. This was because people migrated from rural areas to cities in search of jobs.
• Improvement in living standards. The standard of living for many people improved during the period of industrialization. This was due to the increase in wages and the availability of more goods and services.
• Rise of labor movements. The growth of industry also led to the rise of labor movements. These movements were formed to protect the rights of workers and to improve their working conditions.

Additional Information

• Women and children moving away from factories. This is not correct. In fact, women and children were often the main workforce in factories during the period of industrialization. They were often paid lower wages than men and were subjected to poor working conditions.
• Controlled unemployment, particularly during times of low demand for industrial goods. This is also not correct. Unemployment was a major problem during the period of industrialization. It was especially high during times of economic recession.
• Reduction of housing and sanitation problems as towns grew rapidly. This is also not correct. Housing and sanitation problems were major problems in the rapidly growing towns of Russia during the period of industrialization.

So the answer is 4. Expansion of railways.

Among the given statements, only statement III is true regarding the life of a non-Jewish German woman in the first-half of the twentieth century.

Important Points

• Youth organisations were made responsible for educating German youth in the ‘the spirit of National Socialism’.
• Ten-year-olds had to enter Jungvolk.
• At 14, all boys had to join the Nazi youth organisation – Hitler Youth – where they learnt to worship war, glorify aggression and violence, condemn democracy, and hate Jews, communists, Gypsies and all those categorised as ‘undesirable’.
• After a period of rigorous ideological and physical training they joined the Labour Service, usually at the age of 18.
• Then they had to serve in the armed forces and enter one of the Nazi organisations.
• Children in Nazi Germany were repeatedly told that women were radically different from men.
• While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel hearted, girls were told that they had to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.
• Girls had to maintain the purity of the race, distance themselves from Jews, look after the home, and teach their children Nazi values.
• They had to be the bearers of the Aryan culture and race.
• In Nazi Germany all mothers were not treated equally.
• Women who bore racially undesirable children were punished and those who produced racially desirable children were awarded.
• They were given favoured treatment in hospitals and were also entitled to concessions in shops and on theatre tickets and railway fares.
• To encourage women to produce many children, Honour Crosses were awarded.
• A bronze cross was given for four children, silver for six and gold for eight or more.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that among the given statements, only statement III is true regarding the life of a non-Jewish German woman in the first-half of the twentieth century.

Among the given statements about the Bretton Woods Conference, both the statements (A) and (B) are true.

Important Points

• The Bretton Woods Conference established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to deal with the external surpluses and deficits of its member nations.
• The IMF and the World Bank together are referred to as the Bretton Woods Twins.
• The IMF and the World Bank began financial operations in 1947.
• The framework of the post-war economic system was agreed upon at the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA.
• The member nation of the World Bank automatically becomes a member of the IMF.
• The IMF is an international financial institution that monitors the global economic situation of its member countries.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that both the statements (A) and (B) are true.

Henry Patullo said that the demand for Indian textiles could never be reduced since no other nation produced goods of the same quality.

Important Points

• In 1772, Henry Patullo, a Company official, had ventured to say that the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce since no other nation produced goods of the same quality.
• Yet by the beginning of the nineteenth century, we see the beginning of a long decline in textile exports from India.
• In 1811-12 piece goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent.
• The main reasons for this were:
• ​As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside.
• At the same time, industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian markets as well.
• Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early nineteenth century. At the end of the eighteenth century, there had been virtually no import of cotton piece goods into India.
• But by 1850 cotton piece goods constituted over 31 per cent of the value of Indian imports, and by the 1870s this figure was over 50 per cent. Cotton weavers in India thus faced two problems at the same time: their export market collapsed, and the local market shrank, being glutted with Manchester imports.
• Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them. By the 1850s, reports from most weaving regions of India narrated stories of decline and desolation.

Therefore, we can conclude that Henry Patullo said that the demand for Indian textiles could never be reduced since no other nation produced goods of the same quality.

The Manchester Cotton Company was formed in the year 1859.

Key Points

• Before the 1860s, three-fourths of raw cotton imports into Britain came from America.
• British cotton manufacturers had for long been worried about this dependence on American supplies.
• Troubled by this worry, they eagerly looked for alternative sources of supply.
• In 1857 the Cotton Supply Association was founded in Britain, and in 1859 the Manchester Cotton Company was formed.
• Their objective was “to encourage cotton production in every part of the world suited for its growth”.
• India was seen as a country that could supply cotton to Lancashire if the American supply dried up.
• It possessed suitable soil, a climate favourable to cotton cultivation, and cheap labour.

 Thus, we can conclude that the Manchester Cotton Company was formed in the year 1859.

At Supa, the ‛Ryots’ attacked the shopkeepers and burnt the bahi khatas and debt bonds.

Important Points

• Through the nineteenth century, peasants in various parts of India rose in revolt against moneylenders and grain dealers.
• One such revolt occurred in 1875 in the Deccan.
• The movement began at Supa, a large village in Poona (present-day Pune) district.
• It was a market centre where many shopkeepers and moneylenders lived.
• On 12 May1875, ryots from surrounding rural areas gathered and attacked the shopkeepers, demanding their bahi khatas (account books) and debt bonds.
• They burnt the khatas, looted grain shops, and in some cases set fire to the houses of sahukars.
• From Poona the revolt spread to Ahmednagar.
• Then over the next two months it spread even further, over an area of 6,500 square km.
• More than thirty villages were affected.
• Everywhere the pattern was the same: sahukars were attacked, account books burnt and debt bonds destroyed.
• Terrified of peasant attacks, the sahukars fled the villages, very often leaving their property and belongings behind.

Thus, we can conclude that at Supa, the ‛Ryots’ attacked the shopkeepers and burnt the bahi khatas and debt bonds.

Among the given statements, (A) is true but (B) is false. 

Important Points

• An Englishman, Arthur Young, travelled through France during the years from 1787 to 1789 and wrote detailed descriptions of his journeys. Hence, statement A is true.
• He often commented on what he saw. Therefore, statement B is not true as it is an important ‛primary source’ to understand the Post-revolution France.
• In his travelogue, Young is conveying the message that any social system based on Injustice will not last long and its consequences can be disastrous for the exploiters.
• The 'slaves' mentioned by him are the peasants, servants and landless sharecroppers, who were the underprivileged and deprived sections of French society at that time.
• He is criticizing the complete social system and particularly the noblemen and the clergy.
• The danger sensed by him is violence from the underprivileged sections on the noblemen and their families.

Among the given statements, only A and B are true.  

Important Points

• In the summer of 1792 the Jacobins planned an insurrection of a large number of Parisians who were angered by the short supplies and high prices of food.
• On the morning of August 10 they stormed the Palace of the Tuileries, massacred the king’s guards and held the king himself as hostage for several hours.
• Later the Assembly voted to imprison the royal family.
• Elections were held.
• From now on all men of 21 years and above, regardless of wealth, got the right to vote.
• The newly elected assembly was called the Convention. Hence, statement D is not true.
• On 21 September 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France a republic.
• A republic is a form of government where the people elect the government including the head of the government. Thus, statement B is true and statement C is not true.
• There is no hereditary monarchy. Therefore, statement A is true.
• Louis XVI was sentenced to death by a court on the charge of treason.
• On 21 January 1793 he was executed publicly at the Place de la Concorde.
• The queen Marie Antoinette met with the same fate shortly after.

The international body which came up after the end of the Second World War in 1945 was United Nations Organisation.

Key Points

• The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945 after the Second World War by 51 countries.
• The countries were committed to maintaining international peace and security, developing friendly relations among nations, and promoting social progress, better living standards, and human rights.
• It was established with an aim of preventing future wars, succeeding the ineffective League of Nations.
• On 25 April 1945, 50 governments met in San Francisco for a conference and started drafting the UN Charter, which was adopted on 25 June 1945 and took effect on 24 October 1945, when the UN began operations.
• The UN is headquartered on international territory in New York City and has other main offices in Geneva, Nairobi, Vienna, and The Hague.
• The main purpose of its establishment were:
• To keep peace throughout the world;
• To develop friendly relations among nations;
• To help nations work together to improve the lives of poor people, to conquer hunger, disease, and illiteracy, and to encourage respect for each other’s rights and freedoms;
• To be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations to achieve these goals

Hence, the correct answer is United Nations Organisation.

Both the statements (A) and (B) are true.  

Important Points

• The Nazi regime used language and media with care, and often to great effect.
• The terms they coined to describe their various practices are not only deceptive.
• Nazis never used the words ‘kill’ or ‘murder’ in their official communications.
• Mass killings were termed special treatment, final solution (for the Jews), euthanasia (for the disabled), selection and disinfections.
• ‘Evacuation’ meant deporting people to gas chambers.
• The gas chambers were labelled ‘disinfection-areas’, and looked like bathrooms equipped with fake showerheads.
• Media was carefully used to win support for the regime and popularise its worldview.
• Nazi ideas were spread through visual images, films, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets.
• In posters, groups identified as the ‘enemies’ of Germans were stereotyped, mocked, abused and described as evil.
• Socialists and liberals were represented as weak and degenerate.
• They were attacked as malicious foreign agents.
• Propaganda films were made to create hatred for Jews.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that both the statements (A) and (B) are true.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale advised Gandhiji to spend a year travelling around British India.

Key Points

• In January 1915, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi returned to India after two decades of residence abroad.
• The India that Mahatma Gandhi came back to in 1915 was rather different from the one that he had left in 1893.
• Although still a colony of the British, it was far more active in a political sense.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was Gandhiji’s acknowledged political mentor after his return to India.
• On Gokhale’s advice, Gandhiji spent a year travelling around British India, getting to know the land and its peoples.
• His first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916.

Therefore we can conclude that Gopal Krishna Gokhale advised Gandhiji to spend a year travelling around British India.

The correct answer is The most important city of India.

• The Urbs Prima in Indis (Latin for “the most important City of India”) Represents Mumbai which is situated in The coastal city of India. (Urbs Prima in Indis- the most important City of India).
• Urbs Prima In Indis: The Rise and Rise of the Bombay Presidency

Additional Information

• At the first major all-India census of 1872, with a population of 644,405, Bombay emerged as the largest city in the Indian subcontinent and the second-largest in the British Empire, after London.
• “By early 1892, the city would have sixty-eight mills, employing 65,087 workers… The mill workers would form a potent social and political force that would influence Bombay life for just under a century…,” writes Fernandes in his book.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true. 

Key Points

• The fundamental tenet of communal politics is that religion serves as the cornerstone of a social community.
• A factor in the rise of communalism in India was in the 19th Century.
• When several religious organizations were formed by the Hindu and Muslim communities whose goals were poles apart. These were organizations that began to play communal politics in their favor
• Communalism can take different forms in politics such as laws favoring one religion over the other, communal violence, and campaigns based on religion.
• This leads to people of one religion turning against people of other religions, which is harmful to society
• Politics of Appeasement – Prompted by political considerations, and guided by their vested interests, political parties take decisions that promote communal violence
• Communalism is a political ideology that promotes the interests and identity of a particular religious or ethnic community as superior to those of others and seeks to establish a society based on the dominance of that community.
• It often portrays this community as having a shared culture, history, and values, and presents these as neutral, natural, and essential to the community's identity. This ideology often leads to conflict and tension between different communities and can result in violence, discrimination, and social unrest

The Correct Answer is Only B and C.

Key Points

• Troposphere:
• It is considered the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere.
• The troposphere starts at the surface of the earth and goes up to a height of 7 to 20 km.
• All weather occurs within this layer.
• This layer has water vapor.
• Temperature decreases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for every 165 m of height.
• Tropopause separates Troposphere and Stratosphere.
• Stratosphere:
• It is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere.
• It extends up to 50 km in height.
• This layer is very dry as it contains little water vapor.
• This layer provides some advantages for flight because it is above stormy weather and has steady, solid and horizontal winds.
• The ozone layer is found in this layer.
• The ozone layer absorbs UV rays and safeguards the earth from harmful radiation.
• Stratopause separates Stratosphere and Mesosphere.
• Mesosphere:
• It is the coldest of the atmospheric layers.
• The mesosphere starts at 50 km above the surface of the Earth and goes up to 85 km.
• The temperature drops with altitude in this layer.
• By 80 km it reaches -100 degrees Celsius.
• Meteors burn up in this layer.
• Mesopause separates Mesosphere and Thermosphere.
• Thermosphere:
• This layer is found above Mesopause from 80 to 400 km.
• This layer reflects radio waves that are transmitted from the earth.
• The temperature increases with height.
• Satellites occur in this layer.
• Exosphere:
• It is the outermost layer of the atmosphere.
• The zone where molecules and atoms escape into space is mentioned as the exosphere.
• It extends from the top of the thermosphere up to 10,000 km.

Additional Information

• The lower Thermosphere is called the Ionosphere.
• It consists of electrically charged particles known as ions.

The correct answer is It helps to retain soil moisture.

Key Points

• Mulching is the process or practice of covering the soil/ground to make more favorable conditions for plant growth, development and efficient crop production. Mulch technical term means 'covering of soil'.
• Mulching is a method of using cut leaves, straw, leaf litter, etc. to cover the bare soil while still farming and growing crops on it.
• The main objective of mulching is to keep the soil covered while farming it.
• Some plants such as maize, cotton, etc are used as ‘mulch’.
• Mulch is the protective layer formed by stubble.
• Mulches reduce soil moisture evaporation and increase the amount of soil moisture by adding organic matter into the soil.

Additional Information

• Terrace farming is a method of farming whereby 'steps' known as terraces are built.
• The terrace is made on steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops.
• Every step has an outlet that channels water to the next step.
• They can reduce surface runoff and soil erosion.
• It is the most appropriate method to check soil erosion by the wind in coastal and dry regions.
• Shelter belts are rows of trees planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover.
• Mulching means when the bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter.
• Contour ploughing is the farming practice of ploughing and planting across a slope following its elevation contour lines.

The Correct Answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Punjab:-
• The forest cover of Punjab is only 1847 sq km which is 3.67% of the total geographical area of the state.
• Like Haryana, Punjab is also more dependent on agriculture, so most of the lands have been utilized.
• Ropar is an Indus valley civilization site found here.
• Haryana
• The forest cover of Haryana is only 1603 sq km which is 3.63% of the total geographical area of the state.
• Haryana is more dependent on agriculture, so most of its lands have been utilized.
• Rakhigarhi and Bhirrana sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation are found here.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest cover in terms of area.
• Lakshadweep has the highest area under forest cover in terms of percentage of a geographical area covering 90.33%.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the Union Territories in India with the highest forest cover by area.
• The Union Territory with the highest percentage of its geographical area under forests is Lakshadweep.

The correct answer is Relatively Large Basin.

Important Points Peninsular river system has a Relatively smaller basin area compared to the rivers in the plains.

• These rivers flow through the hilly regions and drain into the surrounding seas or oceans.
• The Peninsular river system is characterized by a steep gradient, rapid flow, and narrow valleys.
• The major rivers of the Peninsular system include the Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Mahanadi, and Narmada.
• These rivers are fed by monsoon rains and snowmelt from the nearby mountains.
• The Peninsular rivers are crucial for agriculture, hydroelectric power generation, and transportation in the region.

However, they are prone to flash floods, erosion, and sedimentation due to their high gradient and steep valleys.

Additional Information Characteristic of the peninsular river system:

• The peninsular river system in India is highly dependent on monsoon rainfall.
• The peninsular rivers originate in the Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, and the Satpura and Maikal ranges, which receive the bulk of their annual rainfall during the monsoon season.
• This heavy reliance on monsoon rainfall can make the peninsular river system vulnerable to droughts and other climate-related changes, which can have significant impacts on the availability of water resources for agriculture, drinking water, and other uses.
• The peninsular river system in India is an excellent example of a system with antecedent and consequent drainage.
• Rivers like the Narmada and the Tapti have antecedent drainage patterns, while the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Cauvery rivers have consequent drainage patterns.
• The Peninsular river system in India has many old rivers with graded profiles.
• Graded profiles are characterized by a gentle slope that maintains a balance between erosion and deposition, resulting in a flat surface.
• These old rivers have been in existence for thousands of years and have undergone many changes due to geological and environmental factors.
• Some examples of these old rivers with graded profiles in the Peninsular river system include the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri rivers.
• These rivers have long meandering courses and are known for their extensive floodplains and delta regions.

The Correct Answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Himalayas in the Darjiling and Sikkim regions lie in an east-west direction, while in Arunachal Pradesh they are from the southwest to the northwest direction.
• Dihang River/Siang River is the name given to the Brahmaputra River in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Punjab/Kashmir Himalayas
• The part of the Himalayas that lies between the Indus River and Satluj River.
• Kumaon Himalayas
• The part of the Himalayas that lies between Satluj River and Kali River.
• Nepal Himalayas
• The part of the Himalayas that lies between the Kali River and Teesta River.
• Assam Himalayas
• The part of the Himalayas that lies between the Teesta River and the Dihang River.
• Purvanchal / Eastern Himalayas
• The part of the Himalayas that lies beyond the Dihang River valley.

Additional Information

• The Himalayas: These are geologically young and structurally fold mountains.
• They stretch over the northern borders of India.
• They represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain barriers in the world.
• This mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the river Indus to the Brahmaputra.
• They form an arc, which covers a distance of about 2,400 Km.
• Their width varies from 400 Km in Kashmir to 150 Km in Arunachal Pradesh.

The Correct Answer is (A) is true but (B) is false.

Key Points

• The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is about 30
• The North-South extent is 3214 km and the East-West extent is 2933 km.
• The distance between any two lines of longitude is maximum at the equator and goes on decreasing as one goes from the equator to the poles.
• India has 2.41% of the landmass against the geographical area of the World and is the seventh-largest country in the world with an area of 3,287,263 sq km
• It measures 2933km from East to West.
• It measures 3214 km from North to South.

​

Additional Information

• India’s latitudinal and longitudinal extent extends from west to east - India extends between 68°7’E and 97°25’E longitudes.
• The equator is the longest latitude.
• All latitudes are parallel to the equator.

The correct answer is 'Comparatively less at the equator.'

Key Points

• Length of 1° of Latitude:
• The Earth is an oblate spheroid, meaning it is slightly flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator.
• As a result, the length of 1° of latitude is not constant but varies slightly from the equator to the poles.
• At the equator, 1° of latitude is approximately 110.6 kilometers.
• At the poles, 1° of latitude increases to around 111.7 kilometers.
• This variation is due to the shape of the Earth; the radius is larger at the equator and smaller at the poles.

Additional Information

• Other Options Explained:
• Comparatively less at the poles:
• This option is incorrect because the length of 1° of latitude is actually greater at the poles due to the Earth's shape.
• Constant throughout the globe:
• While lines of latitude are spaced equally on a map, the actual distance they cover varies slightly due to the Earth's oblate spheroid shape.
• Comparatively higher at the subtropical zone:
• This option is incorrect as well because the length of 1° of latitude does not reach its maximum in the subtropical zones but rather consistently increases from the equator to the poles.

The Correct Answer is (A) is false but (B) is true.

Key Points

• Cadastral Maps are drawn on a very large scale, varying from 16 inches to a mile, to 32 inches to a mile. Most of the cadastral map has a scale between 1: 500  and 1: 2,500. They show all possible details of an area. These are drawn especially to demarcate the boundaries of fields, and buildings to register the ownership.
• Topographical Maps are drawn on a large scale which is smaller than that of Cadastral maps. They show principal topographic forms like relief, drainage, towns, village, forests, etc. The scale varies from 1:25000 to 1:50000.
• Wall Maps are also known as classroom maps, as they are used for classroom study. Their scale is smaller than that of the topographical maps but larger than the Globe. The scale for wall maps ranges from 1:100000 to 1:500000.
• Globe is drawn on a very small scale giving general information about the physical, climatic, and economic characteristics of different regions. They have a scale of 1:1000000 or smaller.
• Maps on the basis of purpose can be classified into different types. These are Political Maps, Historical Maps, Economic Maps, Weather and Climatic Maps, Relief Maps, Geological Maps, etc.

So, the correct answer is indeed option 4) (A) is false but (B) is true.

Additional Information

• Topographical Maps are drawn on a large scale which is smaller than that of Cadastral maps.
• They show principal topographic forms like relief, drainage, towns, village, forests, etc.
• The scale varies from 1:25000 to 1:50000.
• Wall Maps are also known as classroom maps, as they are used for classroom study.
• Their scale is smaller than that of the topographical maps but larger than the Globe.
• The scale for wall maps ranges from 1:100000 to 1:500000.
• Globe is drawn on a very small scale giving general information about the physical, climatic, and economic characteristics of different regions.
• They have a scale of 1:1000000 or smaller.

The Correct Answer is the Tropical region.

Key Points

• Megadiverse Country
• The Mega-diverse countries are those that house the largest indices of biodiversity, including a large number of endemic species.
• This concept was first proposed in 1988 by Russell Mittermeier and is now used to raise awareness of the protection of natural biodiversity, particularly in countries where this is more abundant and threatened.
• Although they only account for around 10% of the Earth's surface, the mega-diverse countries house at least 70% of the planet's terrestrial biological diversity, including more than two-thirds of all non-fish vertebrae species and three-quarters of all the higher plant species.
• The World Conservation Monitoring Centre (WCMC) of the United Nations Environment Program has identified a total of 17 mega-diverse countries: Australia, Brazil, China, Colombia, Ecuador, United States, Philippines, India, Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mexico, Papua New Guinea, Peru, Democratic Republic of Congo, South Africa, and Venezuela.
• Aside from the WCMC, in 2002 a total of 12 of the main developing countries considered mega-diverse gathered in Mexico: Brazil, China, Costa Rica, Colombia, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Kenya, Mexico, Peru, South Africa, and Venezuela.
• This meeting adopted the Cancun Declaration and the so-called Group of Similar Mega-diverse Countries was formed as a body of consultation and cooperation to promote interests related to the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity, and fair and equal participation in the benefits derived from the use of genetic resources.
• This Group has been joined by other countries over the years such as Malaysia, the Philippines, Guatemala, and Iran.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of the Megadiverse countries
• In accordance with the World Conservation Monitoring Centre, for a country to be considered mega-diverse, it must:
• Have at least 5,000 endemic plants.
• Have marine ecosystems within its borders.
• For their part, according to the Group of Similar Mega-diverse Countries, mega-diverse countries contain one or more of the following characteristics:
• Geographic position: Most are in tropical areas, where there is a large diversity of species.
• Diversity of countries: The complexity of mountain scenery brings forth the diversity of atmospheres, soils, and climates.
• Isolation: The progressive separation of islands and continents has allowed the development of unique flora and fauna.
• Size: The larger the size, the greater the diversity of scenery and species.
• Evolutionary history: Some of the countries are at crossroads between two biogeographic regions, producing a mixture of fauna and flora with different histories.
• Culture: The domestication of plants and animals has contributed to natural wealth.

The Correct Answer is Only A and B.

Key Points

• Endemic species are those species of plants and animals that are found in a particular area.
• In ecology, an endemic species is one that is unique to the area in which it is found.
• A species might be endemic to a limited geographic area, such as a single island, or a larger geographical area, such as a continent.
• The lion-tailed macaque is endemic to India.

Additional Information

• Examples of endemic species
• Asiatic Lion is also known as the Indian Lion.
• It can be only found in Gir Forest National Park, Gujarat.
• These are listed as endangered species.
• Kashmir Stag is found in the dense forests of Dachigum National Park, Kasmir Valley, and Chamba district, Himachal Pradesh.
• Sangai Deer is also known as Brow Antlered Deer.
• They are exclusively found in Keibul Lamjao National Park of Manipur.
• The purple frog is only found in the rainforests of western ghats in India.
• The dodo is an extinct flightless bird that was endemic to the island of Mauritius, in the Indian ocean.
• Dodo is an example of the vulnerability of endemic species to habitat alteration.
• Important Endemic specie in India are:
• Asiatic Lion in Gir Forest.
• Nilgiri Tahr in Nilgiri Hills.
• Sangai Deer in Loktak Lake.
• Purple Frog in the Western Ghats.
• Kashmir Stag in Kashmir Valley.
• Lion-Tailed Macaque in the Western Ghats.
• Pygmy Hog in Assam.
• Malabar Civet in the Western Ghats.

The Correct Answer is Climate change.

Key Points

• Our lives literally revolve around cycles:
• series of events that are repeated regularly in the same order. There are hundreds of different types of cycles in our world and in the universe.
• Some are natural, such as the change of the seasons, annual animal migrations, or the circadian rhythms that govern our sleep patterns.
• Others are human-produced, like growing and harvesting crops, musical rhythms, or economic cycles.
• ​Our lives literally revolve around cycles:
• series of events that are repeated regularly in the same order. There are hundreds of different types of cycles in our world and in the universe.
• Some are natural, such as the change of the seasons, annual animal migrations, or the circadian rhythms that govern our sleep patterns.
• Others are human-produced, like growing and harvesting crops, musical rhythms, or economic cycles.

Additional Information

• The episodic nature of the Earth's glacial and interglacial periods within the present Ice Age (the last couple of million years) have been caused primarily by cyclical changes in the Earth's circumnavigation of the Sun.
• Variations in the Earth's eccentricity, axial tilt, and precession comprise the three dominant cycles, collectively known as the Milankovitch Cycles. Hence option 3 is correct.
• It is of primary importance to explain that climate change, and subsequent periods of glaciation, resulting from the following three variables are not due to the total amount of solar energy reaching Earth.
• The three Milankovitch Cycles impact the seasonality and location of solar energy around the Earth, thus impacting contrasts between the seasons.

The Correct Answer is a Rapid decrease in temperature with increasing depth.

Key Points

• This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease in temperature is called the thermocline.
• About 90 percent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C.
• This layer, within the tropical region, is present throughout the year but in mid-latitudes, it develops only during summer.
• The second layer called the thermocline layer lies below the first layer and is characterized by a rapid decrease in temperature with increasing depth.

Additional Information

• Horizontal and Vertical Distribution of Temperature
• The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with increasing depth.
• The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers.
• The boundary usually begins around 100 - 400 m below the sea surface and extends several hundred meters downward

The Correct Answer is Only B.

Key Points

• Ocean currents : warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of
  

Europe while the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the north-east coast of North America.

• All these factors influence the temperature
  

of the ocean currents locally.

• The enclosed seas in the low latitudes record relatively higher temperatures than the open seas; whereas the enclosed seas in the high latitudes have lower
  

temperature than the open seas.

• TEMPERATURE OF OCEAN WATERS
• This section deals with the spatial and vertical variations of temperature in various oceans. Ocean waters get heated up by solar energy just as land. The process of heating and cooling oceanic water is slower than land.
• Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution
• Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward.
• Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with a larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.
• Prevailing wind: the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results in the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature.
• Ocean currents: warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. The Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe while the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the northeast coast of North America.

 

Additional Information

• Though the sea temperature decreases with increasing depth the rate of decrease of temperature is not uniform. The change in sea temperature below the depth of 2000m is negligible.
• Diurnal and annual ranges of temperature cease after a depth of 5 fathoms (30 feet) and 100 fathoms (600 feet) respectively.
• The rate of decrease of temperature with increasing depth from the equator towards the poles is not uniform.

The Correct Answer is Only B and C are correct.

Key Point

• The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low-pressure zone located at the equator where trade winds converge.
• It is a zone where air tends to ascend.
• The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the Gangetic plain) in July month is sometimes called the monsoon trough.
• This monsoon trough leads to the formation of thermal low over north and northwest regions in India.
• The trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40° and 60°E longitudes due to the shift of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone and start blowing from southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force.
• This will lead to the development of the southwest monsoon.
• The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from northeast to south and southwest takes place during the winter season.
• This will leads to the development of northeast monsoons.
• Hadley Cells are the low-latitude overturning circulations that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at roughly 30° latitude.

Additional Information

• The El Nino is defined as prolonged warming in the Pacific Ocean sea surface temperature as compared with the average value.
• The warm water of the Central Pacific slowly drifts towards the South American coast and replaces the cool Peruvian current.
• Such an appearance of water off the coast of Peru is known as El Nino.
• The event is associated with the pressure condition in the Central Pacific and Australia.
• This change in Pressure is known as southern oscillation.
• The combined phenomenon of El-Nino and southern oscillation is known as the ENSO, El-Nino Southern Oscillation.
• The arid west coast of South America receives heavy rainfall, drought occurs in Australia and sometimes in India, and floods in China.

The Correct Answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A). 

Key Points

• Low temperatures inhibit decay by organisms
• Humus is formed by the decay of organic matter such as dead leaves, plants, and animals. However, in low temperatures, the rate of decay of organic matter is very slow, and hence in the tundra region the humus accumulates without decay.
• Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is slow. With undecomposed organic matter because of low bacterial activity, layers of peat develop in sub-arctic and tundra climates.
• Rhizobium, a type of bacteria, lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants and fixes nitrogen beneficial to the host plant.

Additional Information

• Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is slow. With undecomposed organic matter because of low bacterial activity, layers of peat develop in sub- arctic and tundra climates.
• Generally, as one moves from the northern to the southern U.S., soil temperatures increase. This increase causes microorganism activity to increase, which speeds up the breakdown of the humus.
• Thus, we generally observe more humus accumulation in cooler areas and less accumulation in hotter areas.

The Correct Answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Key Points

• As there are different climatic regions on the earth's surface the exogenic geomorphic processes vary from region to region.
• EXOGENIC PROCESSES
• ​The exogenic processes derive their energy from the atmosphere determined by the ultimate energy from the sun and also the gradients created by tectonic factors.
• ​All the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered under a general term, denudation.
• The word ‘denude’ means to strip off or to uncover. Weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion, and transportation are included in denudation.

Additional Information

• Different types of exogenic processes are weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion, and transportation.
• Global Climate Classification
• Location:
• Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate is found between 5° and 10° north and south of the equator.
  

It is dominantly found in the lowlands of the Amazon, the Cango, Malaysia, and the East Indies.

• Temperature:
• There is great uniformity of temperature throughout the year.
• The mean monthly temperatures are always around 24 to 27°C, with very little variation.
• There is no winter.
• Precipitation:
• Precipitation is heavy and well-distributed throughout the year.
• The annual average is always above 150 cm. In some regions, the annual average may be as high as 250 – 300 cm.
• There is no month without rain. The monthly average is above 6 cm most of the time.
• There is much evaporation and convection air currents are set up, followed by heavy thunderstorms in the afternoons.

The Correct Answer is B, C and D only.

Key Points

• The rock cycle is a process that explains the basic relationships among igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks. The process depends on bedding planes, pressure, time, and changes in environmental conditions in the Earth's crust and at its surface.
• Water, acids, salt, plants, animals, and changes in temperature are all agents of weathering and erosion.

Additional Information

• Lithification:
• It refers to the process that loose and under-consolidated sediment particles transform into hard and solid rocks.
• This process includes a number of geological processes, such as consolidation, deep bury, cementation, recrystallization, and dehydration.
• Igneous Rocks
• As igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, they are known as primary rocks.
• The igneous rocks (Ignis – in Latin means ‘Fire’) are formed when magma cools and solidifies.
• Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia, and tuff are some examples of igneous rocks
• Sedimentary Rocks
• The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sediment, which means settling.
• These deposits through compaction turn into rocks.
• In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification.
• Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale, geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal, etc.
• Metamorphic Rocks
• Metamorphic means ‘change of form’.
• Metamorphic rocks are formed due to the proximity of sedimentary rocks to molten magma.
• Mechanical disruption and reorganization of the original minerals within rocks due to breaking and crushing without any appreciable chemical changes are called dynamic metamorphism.
• Examples- Marble, Quartzite, Schist, etc.

The Correct Answer is Both velocity and direction.

Key Points

• Seismic waves are waves traveling through the surface of the Earth due to earthquakes. These can be 'body waves' and 'surface waves.'
• Body waves travel in the interior of the Earth and are dependent on the density and modulus.  These can be Primary(P) and Secondary(S) waves.
• Surface waves travel below the surface of the Earth and have comparatively lesser speed than body waves.
• The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The denser the material, the higher the velocity.
• The shadow zone is the area of the earth from angular distances of 104 to 140 degrees from a given earthquake that does not receive any direct P waves.
• The shadow zone results from S waves being stopped entirely by the liquid core and P waves being bent (refracted) by the liquid core.

Additional Information

• An earthquake is a vibration of the surface of the earth that is caused due to the elasticity or the isostatic adjustment of the rocks under the surface of the earth that creates seismic waves.
• There are three types of seismic waves.
• Primary or Longitudinal waves are also known as P-Waves: These are longitudinal waves analogous to sound waves.
• Secondary or Transverse Waves are also known as S-waves: These are transversal waves analogous to light waves.
• Surface or Long-period Waves are also known as L-Waves: They originate when a ‘P’ wave hits the surface.
• The Bureau of Indian Standards grouped the country into four seismic zones namely Zone-II, Zone-III, Zone-IV, and Zone-V.
• Zone-V is the most seismic wave active region and Zone-II is the least.
• Zone II is known as the Low-intensity Zone. The intensity of the MM scale is less than or equal to 6.
• Zone III is known as the Moderate-intensity Zone. The intensity of the MM scale is equal to 7
• Zone IV is known as the Severe-intensity Zone. The intensity of the MM scale is equal to 8.
• Zone-V is known as the Very Severe-intensity Zone. The intensity of the MM scale is equal to 9 and above.

The Correct Answer is A, B and C only.

Key Points

• The outermost surface of the Earth is called the lithosphere, or crust.
• The Earth's crust is dynamic and constantly changing due to geological processes such as plate tectonics, volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, and erosion.
• These processes result in the formation of new landmasses, the reshaping of existing ones, and the creation of geological features such as mountains, valleys, and oceans.
• The Earth's crust also moves vertically due to processes such as uplift and subsidence. Uplift refers to the rising of the land surface, while subsidence refers to the sinking of the land surface.
• These vertical movements can be caused by a variety of factors, including tectonic activity, changes in the Earth's crustal structure, and the withdrawal or deposition of subsurface fluids such as water and oil.
• Earth movements are of 2 types:
• 1. Horizontal/lateral/orogenic movements
• 2. Vertical/epeirogenic movements
• Horizontal Earth Movements
• It moves which act along a horizontal plane within crustal rocks.
• They are caused by tensional and compressional and shear forces

The Correct Answer is Only B.

 Key Points

• The Earth’s rotation is the amount of time that it takes to rotate once on its axis.
• This is, apparently, accomplished once a day- i.e. every 24 hours.
• However, there are actually two different kinds of rotation that need to be considered here.
• For one, there’s the amount of time it takes for the Earth to turn once on its axis so that it returns to the same orientation compared to the rest of the Universe.
• Then there’s how long it takes for the Earth to turn so that the Sun returns to the same spot in the sky.
• Earth rotates once in about 24 hours with respect to the Sun, but once every 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds with respect to other, distant, stars.
• Earth's rotation is slowing slightly with time thus, a day was shorter in the past.
• MARS - 
• One orbit around the sun - 687 days One spin on axis - 1 day, number of moons - 02.
• MERCURY - One orbit around the sun - 88 days, One spin on the axis - 59 days.
• EARTH - One orbit around the sun - 365 days. One spin on the axis - 1 day Number of moons - 1.
• JUPITER - One orbit around the sun - 11 years, 11 months (4333 days= 11.87 yrs.) about 12 years. One spin on axis - 9 hours, 56 minutes, number of moons - about 53.
• Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun and orbits the Sun at an average distance of approximately 141 million miles (225 million km).
• Mars rotates on its axis, completing one revolution every 24.6 hours.
• The axis of Mars is tilted at 25 degrees and 12 minutes relative to its orbital plane about the Sun.
• This produces seasons on the surface of Mars, similar to the seasons on Earth.
• Mars completes one orbital revolution around the Sun every 1.88 Earth years.
• Two small natural satellites, Demos and Phobos, orbit Mars. Mars has no magnetic field to protect the surface from radiation from the Sun.

Additional Information

• By definition, the Earth’s rotation is the amount of time that it takes to rotate once on its axis.
• This is, apparently, accomplished once a day – i.e. every 24 hours.
• However, there are actually two different kinds of rotation that need to be considered here.

1. For one, there’s the amount of time it takes for the Earth to turn once on its axis so that it returns to the same orientation compared to the rest of the Universe.
2. Then there’s how long it takes for the Earth to turn so that the Sun returns to the same spot in the sky.

• Earth rotates once in about 24 hours with respect to the Sun, but once every 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds with respect to other, distant, stars.

The correct answer is (i), (ii), (iii).

Key Points

• Devaluation of currency
• ​​Under a fixed exchange rate system, when some government action increases the exchange rate (thereby, making domestic currency cheaper) is called devaluation.​​
• Devaluation implies the deliberate lowering of the value of one currency by the government in order to boost exports in an economy.
• Devaluation makes the domestic currency cheaper relative to other foreign currencies.
• Impact of devaluation
• Devaluation results in cheaper exports, and as a result, exports increase.
• Devaluation results in costlier imports, and as a result, imports decrease.
• Devaluation results in inflation in the short run.

Thus, Devaluation implies a reduction in the value of one currency against another, costlier imports, and a reduction in demand for imports.

Additional Information

• Revaluation of currency occurs when the government decreases the exchange rate (thereby, making domestic currency costlier) in a fixed exchange rate system.
• The revaluation results in a fall in exports by making exports costlier.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

• A: This type of hunger exists when a person is unable to get work for the entire year.
• Seasonal hunger is the form of hunger that occurs when a person is unable to find work for the full year.
• Seasonal hunger implies undernourishment over a quantifiable duration.

Thus, this statement is correct.

• B: This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities.
• Seasonal hunger is related to plantation and harvesting cycles.
• Seasonal hunger is common in rural areas due to the seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

Thus, this statement is also correct.

• C: This is not seen in urban areas due to the nature of economic activities associated with it.  
• Seasonal hunger is also seen in urban areas due to the presence of temporary or casual workers.
• Workers most affected by seasonal hunger in urban areas are construction laborers as there is no regular work and no stable source of income.

Thus, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Chronic hunger
• Chronic hunger results from meals that are chronically insufficient both in quantity and quality.
• Due to very low levels of income and inability to buy food for sustenance, the poor experience chronic hunger.

​

The correct answer is both A and B.

Key Points

• Meaning of privatization
• Privatization implies shedding the ownership and management of a government-owned enterprise.
• Government enterprises can be converted into private-sector enterprises in two ways-
• By the withdrawal of the government from ownership and management of public sector companies.
• By the outright sale of public sector companies.

Important Points

• Objectives of privatization
• To improve financial discipline.
• To facilitate modernization.
• To improve the economic performance of public sector undertakings.

Thus, privatization refers to the withdrawal of the government from the ownership and management of a public sector undertaking, and the outright sale of a public sector undertaking to individuals or groups of individuals.

Additional Information

• Dereservation of the industrial and services activities earmarked for only the public sector is part of the liberalization policy.
• Liberalization, privatization, and globalization are the structural reform policies that are long-term measures aimed at improving the efficiency and international competitiveness of the Indian economy by removing the rigidities in various segments of the Indian economy.

The correct answer is B, C, and D.

Key Points

• Classification of public sector enterprises
• With the motive to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism, and enable them to compete more effectively in the liberalized global environment, the Indian government identifies public sector enterprises and declares them as maharatnas, navratnas, and miniratnas (miniratna I and miniratna II).
• Through this classification, these enterprises are given greater managerial and operational autonomy in taking various decisions to run the company efficiently and thus increase the rate of profits.

Important Points

• There are 12 maharatna central public sector enterprises, 12 navratna enterprises 62 miniratna I, and 12 miniratna II enterprises in India as of November 2022.
• Some major Maharatnas are Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited, Coal India Limited, GAIL India Limited, and Steel Authority of India.
• Some major Navratnas are Bharat Electronics Limited, Container Corporation of India Limited, Engineers India Limited, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, and Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited.
• Some major Miniratnas are the Airports Authority of India, Antrix Corporation Limited, Balmer Lawrie & Co. Limited, Bharat Coking Coal Limited, and Bharat Dynamics Limited.

Thus, the Government of India declared the public sector undertakings into Maharatnas, Navaratnas, and Miniratnas with the purpose of improving efficiency, infusing professionalism, and enabling them to compete in the global environment.

The correct answer is Only (A) and (C) are true.

Key Points

• (A) The colonial rule led to the development of infrastructure such as railways, ports, water transport, and post and telegraphs in India.
• Under the colonial regime, basic infrastructure such as railways, ports, water transport, sea lanes, post, and telegraph did develop.
• The introduction of the system of the electric telegraph in India served the purpose of maintaining law and order, but, the postal services, despite serving a useful public purpose, remained inadequate.
• However, the real motive behind this infrastructural development was not to provide basic amenities to the Indian people but to serve colonial interests.

Thus, this statement is true.

• (B) The infrastructure built by the British helped people to migrate from one region to another region for better prospects on a large scale.
• Along with the development of roads and railways, the colonial government also took measures for the development of inland trade and sea lanes.
• However, these measures were far from satisfactory.
• There always remained an acute shortage of all-weather roads to connect to the rural areas during the rainy season. Therefore, people living in these areas suffered grievously during natural calamities.

Thus, this statement is not true.

• (C) The new infrastructure was used to gather farm raw materials for export to Britain and other trading countries and to mobilize the army.
• The roads that were constructed served the purposes of mobilizing the army within India and drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station or port to export these to England and other foreign trade destinations.

Thus, this statement is true.

Thus, on the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that colonial rule had led to the development of infrastructure such as railways, ports, water transport, and post and telegraphs in India, but the motive of such development was only to serve the colonial interests.

The correct answer is A, B, C, and E.

Key Points

• Five-year plans
• Five-Year Plans, a method of planning economic growth over limited periods, through the use of quotas, was used first in the Soviet Union and later in other socialist states like India.
• The Planning Commission of India, an agency of the government of India was established in the year 1950 to oversee the country’s economic and social development through the formulation of five-year plans.
• Objectives of five-year plans in India
• To ensure a high growth rate to improve the living standard of the residents of India.
• To achieve economic stability.
• To become a self-reliant economy.
• To facilitate the modernization of the economy.
• To promote social justice and reduction in inequalities.

Thus, on the basis of the above information, economic growth, equity, modernization, and self-reliance were the major goals of five-year plans in India.

Additional Information

• The first five-year plan was introduced in the year 1951.
• The twelfth and the last five-year plan formulated by the Planning Commission of India was implemented in the year 2012.
• The Planning Commission was replaced by a think tank called NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog in the year 2015.

The correct answer is Only C and D.

Key Points

• Functions of commercial banks
• Primary functions of commercial banks
• Accepting deposits
• A commercial bank accepts deposits from the general public and corporations.
• People can deposit their cash savings in the form of chequable and non-chequable deposits.
• Advancing loans
• Commercial banks advance loans to the producers for investment expenditure and to consumers for consumption expenditure.
• By performing this function, commercial banks act as an agent of economic growth.
• Agency functions of commercial banks
• Payment of taxes and bills
• Commercial banks also perform the function of payment of bills and taxes on behalf of their consumers or accountholders.
• Transfer of funds
• Commercial banks also facilitate the transfer of funds from one account to another as per the requirement of account holders.
• Locker facilities
• ​ A commercial bank also provides locker facilities to the customers to keep their valuables and documents safe and charges a minimum annual fee for this service.

Thus, collecting income taxes and transferring funds are agency functions of commercial banks in India.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Key Points

• Assertion (A): There is disguised unemployment in the agriculture sector.
• Disguised unemployment occurs when the number of workers employed in an economic activity is more than the number of workers actually needed to perform that activity.
• Disguised unemployment is when a part of the labor force is working below their potential, or too much labor is doing too few jobs which result in very low or zero marginal productivity.
• This type of unemployment is prevalent in developing countries with a large population where the labor supply is in excess of job opportunities.
• Disguised unemployment is most prevalent in the agriculture sector because a large proportion of the rural population in India depends upon this sector which results in low or near-zero per-worker productivity.

Thus, the assertion is true.

• Reason (R): The whole family contributes to the field even though not everybody is really needed.
• An example of disguised unemployment is the informal sector, where abundant skilled and unskilled laborers are available. Such labor markets include construction workers, domestic workers, agricultural workers, and gig workers.
• We can take another example of construction work, where, to construct a 2-BHK house, 5 workers are required, but, a total of  8 workers are engaged in the same work, and also, the productivity of these 3 extra workers is near zero, then 3 workers are disguisedly unemployed.

Thus, the reason is also true.

Hence, on the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that both assertion and reason are true and reason correctly explains assertion.

The correct answer is Only A and B are true.

Key Points

• A. About one-third of the urban workforce in India is in the secondary sector
• The secondary sector provides employment to about one-third of the urban workforce in India.
• People living in the urban areas are largely engaged in secondary and tertiary sectors and those in the rural areas are involved basically in primary sectors.
• The secondary sector employs 16% of the workforce in rural areas and 31% of the workforce in urban areas.

Thus, this statement about the employment pattern in India is true.

• B. About one-fifth of the rural workforce is engaged in the secondary sector
• About 60 percent of the workforce in rural India depends on agriculture, horticulture, forestry, and fishing.
• About 20 percent of the rural workforce is working in manufacturing industries, construction, and other industrial activities.

Thus, this statement about the employment pattern in India is also true.

• C. About half of the female workers in India are engaged in the service sector 
• About 57 percent of the female workforce is employed in the primary sector whereas less than half of the male workforce is employed in that sector.
• In rural areas, for every 100 rural women about 18 participate in the employment market.

Thus, this statement about the employment pattern in India is false.

On the basis of the above information, it is true that about one-third of the urban workforce and one-fifth of the rural workforce are engaged in the secondary sector, but, the statement that about half of the female workers in India are engaged in the service sector, is false.

The correct answer is Only a, c, d, and e.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act or scheme was launched by the government of India in all Gram Panchayats of districts Mahendergarh and Sirsa on 2nd February 2006.
• This scheme was also extended in two more districts namely Ambala and Mewat with effect from 1st April 2007.
• The remaining districts of the State are covered under the scheme with effect from 1st April 2008.

Important Points

• Objectives of the scheme
• Enhancement of livelihood security to the households in rural areas of the state by providing round-the-year employment with a minimum guarantee of one hundred days of wage employment in a financial year to every household willing to do unskilled manual work.
• The secondary objective includes the creation of assets for the development of rural areas.
• Key features of the scheme
• The scheme is open to all rural households who are in need of wage employment and are willing to do manual and unskilled work including agriculture and other activities.
• Under the scheme, unemployment allowance is payable if employment is not provided within 15 days of the receipt of the application.
• The rate of unemployment allowance is one-fourth of the wage rate for the first thirty days and not less than one half of the wage rate for the remaining period.

Thus, on the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that out of the above statements, a, c, d, and e are true about Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act,2005.

The correct answer is Rural poverty has declined much faster than urban poverty.  

• Facts about poverty in India
• The number of people in rural areas reduced from 261.3 million to 170.3 million from 1974-75 to 2004-05, while on the other hand, the number of poor in urban areas has shown an increase from 60 million to 68.2 million.
• Urban poverty in India is about 25 % of the total poverty in India.
• The poverty line in India for urban areas is INR 1,285 and for rural areas, it is INR 1059.42.
• As per the latest Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) compiled by the UN Development Programme (UNDP) and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI), the incidence of poverty in India dropped from 55.1% in 2005-06 to 16.4% in the year 2019-21.
• In the year 2022, the total male population living in poverty in India was about 38 million.
• In the year 2022, the number of females living in poverty in India was around 45 million.

Thus, On the basis of the above factual information, it is true that rural poverty has declined much faster than urban poverty.

The correct answer is (A) is false but (B) is true.

Key Points

• (A) During 1960 - 2015, the production of wheat and pulses increased by nearly 10 times.
• The stagnation in agriculture during the colonial regime was permanently broken by the introduction of the green revolution in India during the 1960s.
• The green revolution refers to the large increase in the production of food grains resulting from the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, especially for wheat and rice crops.
• On the basis of the 2021 estimate, the Green Revolution increased yields by 44% during the period1965 and 2010.
• Cereal production more than doubled in the developing nations between the years 1961–1985.
• Yields of rice, maize, and wheat increased steadily during the period.
• There is no official data available to prove that during 1960 - 2015, the production of wheat and pulses increased by nearly 10 times.

Thus, this statement is false.

• (B) Green Revolution benefitted only a section of Indian farmers in increasing their farm yields.
• During the first phase of the green revolution (the mid-1960s up to the mid-1970s), the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent states like Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
• Further, the use of HYV seeds primarily benefited only the wheat-growing regions of India.
• In the second phase of the green revolution (the mid-1970s to mid-1980s), the HYV technology spread to a larger number of states and benefited more variety of crops.
• While the nation had immensely benefited from the introduction of the green revolution, it lead to an increase in the disparities between small and large farmers, as only the large farmers could afford the required inputs, thereby reaping most of the benefits of the green revolution.
• Moreover, the HYV crops were also more prone to pest attacks, and, the small and marginal farmers who adopted this technology could lose everything in a pest attack.

Thus, on the basis of the above information, this statement is true.

The correct answer is Only B and C are true.

Key Points

• A. A considerable section of people who died in the Bengal famine were farmers who met with crop failure.
• The agricultural laborers, fishermen, transport workers, and other casual laborers were affected the most by dramatically increasing prices of rice.
• They were the ones who died in this famine.

Thus, this statement is false.

• B. People who died were mostly from low-income households.
• The deaths were predominantly caused due to starvation and diseases like malaria and cholera that got worsened due to population displacement, malnutrition, poor sanitation, and paucity of healthcare facilities.
• The people who died were mostly from low-income households as they could not afford to buy food at exorbitantly high prices.

Thus, this statement is true

• C. The Bengal famine mostly affected people who could not afford to buy food grains due to high price. 
• Most researchers agree that the crisis that occurred due to the Bengal famine was man-made and was triggered primarily by war-time inflation that pushed the price of food out of reach.

Thus, this statement is true

The correct answer is b, c, d, and e.

Key Points

• Functions of the Reserve Bank of India
• Formulation, implementation, and monitoring of the monetary policy for maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• Prescribing broad parameters of banking operations within which the country's banking and financial system functions to maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors' interests, and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
• Management of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India.
• Issue, exchange and destroy currency notes as well as put into circulation coins minted by the Government of India to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins of good quality.
• Perform a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.
• Introduce and upgrade safe and efficient methods of payment systems in the country to meet the requirements of the public to maintain public confidence in the payment and settlement system.
• Act as banker to the government and perform merchant banking functions for the central and the state governments.
• Act as banker to banks and maintain banking accounts of all scheduled banks in India.

On the basis of the above-mentioned functions of the RBI, it can be concluded that statements b, c, d, and e are true about the Reserve Bank of India.

The correct answer is (A) is false but (B) is true.

Key Points

• Infant Mortality Rate
• Infant Mortality Rate (or IMR) indicates the number of children that die before reaching the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year.
• Net Attendance Ratio
• Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending schools as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.
• Net State Domestic Product
• Net state domestic product (NSDP) is the measure of the state counterpart of a country's Net domestic product (NDP), which equals the gross domestic product (GDP) minus depreciation on a country's capital goods.

Important Points

• Statement (A): State A should be recognized as a developed State as its income is the highest among others.
• Higher per-capita income is not the only indicator of development in a country.
• Factors like the level of literacy rate, net attendance ratio, fertility and infant mortality rates, health facilities, and public facilities are also important indicators of development.
• In state A, per-capita income is the highest, but, the net attendance ratio is the lowest which shows a lack of education services, and, the infant mortality rate is the highest which shows a lack of availability and access to healthcare facilities.
• Stae A lacks the provision of basic services like education and healthcare which are important indicators of development.

Thus, statement A is false.

• Statement (B): State B should be recognized as a highly developed State as its income may be less than State A but its other indicators are better than States A and C.
• In state B, per-capita income is less as compared to states A and B.
• In state B, the net attendance ratio is the highest which shows adequate provision of educational facilities.
• Moreover, in state B, the infant mortality rate is the lowest, which shows adequate availability and access to healthcare facilities.
• State B has adequate education and healthcare facilities which are important indicators of development.

Thus, statement B is true.

Hence, it can be concluded that statement A is false but statement B is true.

The correct answer is a - ii, b - i, c - iii.

Key Points

The correct answer is Ram.

Key Points

• Meaning of malnutrition
• Malnutrition or nutritional deficiency occurs when an organism gets too few or too many nutrients, resulting in health problems.
• It implies a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of energy, proteins, and other nutrients in the body which adversely affects the body's tissues.
• Malnutrition is a category of diseases that includes undernutrition and overnutrition.
• Undernutrition implies a lack of nutrients, which can result in being underweight.
• An excess of nutrients causes overnutrition which results in obesity.
• Meaning of Body Mass Index (BMI)
• Body Mass Index (BMI) is a person’s weight in kilograms (or pounds) divided by the square of height in meters (or feet).
• Body mass index screens for weight categories that may lead to health problems, but it does not directly diagnose the body fat or health of an individual.
• Body mass index formula : BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m²)
• BMI classification

Important Points

• Calculation of Body Mass Index

Thus, Ram is suffering from malnutrition.

The correct answer is Life Expectancy at Birth.

Key Points

• Human Development Index (HDI)
• Human Development Index is a socioeconomic indicator of development that is presented by the United Nations Development Programme.
• Human Development Index ranks all the countries with a range of 0 (lowest HDI) and 1 (highest HDI) which is based on three goals of development.
• These goals of development are-
• Longevity which is measured by life expectancy at birth.
• Knowledge which is measured by adult literacy (with two-thirds weightage), and schooling (with one-third weightage).
• Standard of living which is measured by real per-capita income.

Thus, the life expectancy at birth indicator related to health is currently used to develop Human Development Index.

Additional Information

• Degrees of Human Development Index
• Low HDI: Countries with a range of 0.0 to 0.499
• Medium HDI: Countries with a range of 0.50 to 0.799
• High HDI: Countries with a range of 0.80 to 1.00

The correct answer is 'Its sectoral share of output has increased, but its share in employment has decreased'.

Key Points

• Secondary sector of the Indian economy
• GDP trends
• At present, the secondary sector, which includes the automotive industry, food-processing industry, textile industry, quarrying, and mining industry, consumer goods industry, etc. contributes 27.60 % to the total gross domestic product.
• The percentage of the workforce in the secondary sector has increased from 10.9 % in 1972—73 to 24.3 % in 2011—12.
• The average growth rate between 2012-2021 at constant prices is Agriculture (3.49%), Industry (3.82%), and Services (6.23%).
• The average growth rate at current prices is Agriculture (10.30%), Industry (6.65%), and Services (10.54%).
• Employment trends
• The percentage of the workforce in the secondary sector has increased from 10.9 % in 1972-1973 to 24.3 % in 2011-2012.
• The secondary sector employs 16% of the workforce in rural areas and 31% of the workforce in urban areas.
• In the secondary sector, women account for about 20% of the workforce and men account for about 25.9 percent of the workforce.

Thus, on the basis of the above statistical information, it is true that for the secondary sector of India, the share of output and employment have increased from the 1970s to the 2000s.

The correct answer is A and E.

Key Points

• Meaning of economic activity
• Economic activities are those that involve the production and consumption of goods and services with the motive of earning a monetary profit.
• Economic activities are concerned with the production, distribution, and exchange of economic goods and services.
• These activities lead to the creation of utilities and result in the production of wealth.
• Examples of economic activities include shopkeeper selling books in exchange for money, teachers teaching in a school in exchange for a salary, cobblers mending shoes in exchange for fees, etc.
• ​Meaning of non-economic activity
• Non-economic activities are those that are carried out solely for the sake of love, affection, respect, sympathy, and patriotism rather than for monetary benefits.
• Non-economic activities are carried out voluntarily with the motive of providing free services to others and the self.
• Non-economic activities are not measured in monetary terms.
• Examples of non-economic activities include household work, cooking for family, teaching own children at home, etc.

Thus, selling vegetables to a person nearby his or her house, and cooking by a domestic maid for her employer’s whole family are examples of economic activity.

Additional Information

• Economic activities are included in the calculation of national income.
• Non-economic activities are excluded from the calculation of national income.

The correct answer is B, C and D only.

Key Points

• Power sharing is a valuable approach to ensure the stability of political order because social strife frequently results in bloodshed and political instability.
• The proper balance between the various societal segments is provided via power sharing. It not only avoids conflict between different social groups but also fosters a sense of "belongingness" among them.
• Power sharing, therefore, contributes to upholding the democratic spirit.
• Any constitution must have some method of power distribution. Power sharing ensures that there is the best possible balance between the various facets of society.
• Power-sharing of some kind should exist in every state. Every citizen has a greater probability of encountering controversies and opportunities.
• This guarantees the continuity of the political system.
• The following justifies the need for power-sharing:
• Conflict and confrontations between social groups are less likely as a result.
• Second, a democratic rule requires sharing authority with people who are impacted by its application and must contend with its consequences.
• In the years to come, the populace will have the ability to change the balance of power and the right to be consulted on matters of governance.

Additional InformationModern democracies use a variety of power-sharing arrangements, some of which are described here.

• Horizontal power-sharing - The legislative, executive, and judicial branches of government all have equal access to authority. India is an example. This distribution makes sure that no organ can exert and use an infinite amount of power. The different organs keep an eye on one another. A system of checks and balances is the name given to this arrangement.
• The division of authority within the federal government - Different levels of government can share power. governments at the province, state, and regional levels as well as a general federal government for the whole nation. For instance, the Union Government of India is both the central and state government.
• Community government - A variety of socially engaged groups, including religious and linguistic ones, can share power. Belgium is an example.
• Political parties, pressure groups, and movements sharing power - It is ensured that power does not remain in one single hand through this type of power-sharing competition. Power is shared among numerous political parties representing various ideologies and social groupings for a longer period of time.

The correct answer is B, D, C, A  

Key Points

• As a result of the profound anxieties and hopes that were raised by the discoveries and various applications of nuclear technology, the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was established in 1957. The "Atoms for Peace" speech delivered by US President Eisenhower to the UN General Assembly on December 8, 1953, served as the impetus for the creation of the Agency.
• In the wake of the 1930s Great Depression, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) was founded in 1944. In order to provide a foundation for global economic cooperation, the 44 founding member nations. The organisation now has 190 countries as members, and 150 different countries make up its employees.
• The establishment of a global health organisation was one of the topics that diplomats addressed when they came together to create the United Nations in 1945. The World Health Organization (WHO) Constitution went into effect on April 7, 1948, which is now recognised as World Health Day. "The attainment by all peoples of the highest attainable degree of health" is the primary goal of the WHO, according to its constitution. It has 150 field offices worldwide, six regional offices, and its main office in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The UN System's largest specialised agency, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO), was established in 1945 with the goal of raising standards of nutrition and living by enhancing agricultural productivity and the living conditions of rural populations.

The correct answer is economic inequalities and political democracy can co-exist. 

Key Points

Democracies experience inequalities. Development and democracy go hand in hand.

• Economic inequities should be reduced by democracies, possibly more so than by development, it seems reasonable to assume.
• Even though a country has rapid economic growth, economic disparity results from wealth not being dispersed fairly among the populace.
• While the process of putting people on an equal footing in the political arena is ongoing, we observe growing economic inequities.
• The incomes of those at the bottom of the social scale have been falling. There aren't many other sources of revenue for poor farmers to rely on.
• Poor individuals struggle to provide for their fundamental requirements, including those related to health, housing, education, clothing, and food, among others.
• A small number of extremely wealthy people control an extremely disproportionate amount of income and wealth. The percentage of the few wealthy individuals in the nation's total income has been dramatically rising.
• Democracy is built on the idea of political equality. However, democracy has economic disparities. Additionally, there exist societal inequities.
• However, India's democracy has intensified the demands for equal opportunity and status made by castes that are subject to discrimination.
• In communities that have long been based on dominance and subordination, it can be challenging to accept that all people are created equal.
• In any society, disputes between various social groups cannot be completely and permanently resolved.
• Internal social divisions are typically downplayed, and non-democratic governments typically ignore them.
• Democratic governments are better equipped to prevent and resolve disputes, divisions, and wars.

The correct answer is A tenant occupied the flat of one landlord/landlady, he/she filed a suit in a district court and court ordered the tenant to vacate the flat. 

Key Points

• Civil law systems, often known as continental or Romano-Germanic legal systems, are present on all seven continents and makeup around 60% of the global legal landscape.
• They are based on ideas, classifications, and regulations taken from Roman law, with some canon law influence, and occasionally greatly expanded or modified by regional custom or culture.
• With components of civil law, common law, equitable law, customary law, and religious law, India has a hybrid legal system.
• In contrast to criminal law*, civil law is the portion of a nation's code of laws that regulates residents' private lives*, such as marriage and property ownership.
• Defamation, such as libel and slander, breach of contract, negligence leading to harm or death, and property damage are examples of civil law.
• Criminal law is the body of legislation that deals with crime and the appropriate punishment for criminal offences, whereas civil law deals with conflicts between persons, companies, etc.
• The four most significant categories of civil law are those that deal with contracts, property, family relationships, and civil wrongs that result in physical harm or damage to property (tort).

The correct answer is Referendum.

Key Points

In October 1999, General Pervez Musharraf oversaw a military coup in Pakistan. He ousted a democratically elected administration and proclaimed himself the nation's "Chief Executive."

• Later, he altered his title to President, and in 2002, a national referendum gave him a five-year extension.
• A referendum is a direct vote on a proposal, law, or political issue by the citizens of a certain territory. As a result, Musharraf asserted that the vote was held in accordance with democratic law, despite the fact that the Pakistani Constitution does not specify electing a president through a referendum.
• Pakistan held a referendum on April 30, 2002, allowing Pervez Musharraf to serve as president for a period of five years. The Opposition, however, boycotted the referendum since it was seen to be unlawful.
• The poll was criticised as being "completely defective" by the Pakistan Human Rights Commission. Since the government under General Parvez Musharraf was not elected by the populace, Pakistan was not considered a democracy.
• Even though the people may have chosen their members for both the national and provincial legislatures, they were not really seen as the ruling class. Additionally, they were unable to make the final choices.
• General Musharraf and army officials shared the authority to make final decisions; none of them had been chosen by the general public.
• Pakistan was ruled militarily under his administration.
• In order to win the 2002 referendum, he both removed the democratically elected government and employed unethical tactics.
• Additionally, he did not respond immediately to the militants. He desired to continue to be the leader of Pakistan.
• Parvez Musharraf had suspended the constitution and dissolved the parliament despite the fact that he was generally regarded as having common beliefs and had also vowed a return to civilian rule in the future.
• In order to govern Pakistan in the interim, he also established the National Security Council, which was composed of civilian and military appointments.

The correct answer is Spend more than ₹ 20 lakh in a constituency for a Lok Sabha election or ₹ 10 lakh in a constituency in an Assembly election.

Key Points

• The Election Commission of India raised the spending cap for candidates running for Lok Sabha seats from Rs. 54,00,000 to Rs. 70,00,000 (depending on the state) to Rs. 70,00,000 to Rs. 95,00,000. (ECI).
• Additionally, the spending cap for Assembly districts was increased from Rs 20 000 - Rs 28 000 to Rs 28 000 - Rs 40 000. (depending on states).
• The ECI established a committee in 2020 to investigate the election spending cap.
• In Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, the increased amount of Rs. 40 lakh would be applicable, while Goa and Manipur would receive Rs. 28 lakh.
• The most recent significant modification to the spending caps for candidates was made in 2014, with the exception of a 10% increase in response to the Covid-19 pandemic in 2020.
• The committee discovered that both the number of voters and the Cost Inflation Index have significantly increased since 2014. 
• Every candidate must maintain a separate and accurate account of all expenses made between the date they were nominated and the date the results were announced, according to Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951.
• Within 30 days of the election's conclusion, each candidate must submit their expense statement to the ECI.
• According to Section 10A of the RPA, 1951, an erroneous account or an expenditure that exceeds the cap might result in the ECI disqualifying the candidate for up to three years. It has frequently been contended that these restrictions are impractical because the candidate's actual expenses were substantially higher.
• A private member's bill to eliminate the limit on campaign expenditure by candidates was introduced in the Parliament in December 2019.
• The decision was made on the grounds that limiting election expenses encourages candidates to underreport their expenses, which is counterproductive.
• Political parties can spend as much as they want, which is frequently taken advantage of by their candidates.
• However, within 90 days of the conclusion of the elections, all registered political parties must provide the ECI with an account of their election expenditures.

The correct answer is Only I and III.

Key Points

• Each candidate must fill out a nomination form and provide a security deposit of money in order to run for office.
• On the **Supreme Court'**s order, a new declaration mechanism was recently implemented. Each candidate is required to submit a legal declaration with full disclosure of:
• active serious criminal cases against the candidate.
• information on the candidate's and his or her family's assets and liabilities
• qualifications in terms of education.
• Public disclosure of this data is required.
• Voters are given the chance to base their selection on the information presented by the candidate.

The correct answer is Only I and III.

Key Points

India is a parliamentary democracy with a constitutional form of government. Part XV of the Constitution, Articles 324 through 329, deals with election-related provisions.

• According to Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the authority only applies to the Election Commission (EC) of India.
• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are chosen by the President.
• Each person who is an Indian citizen and has achieved the voting age may register to vote. An exemption may be given if the applicant is ineligible because of "non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt or illegal practise."
• The Constitution grants Parliament the power to enact laws addressing constituency delimitation, the development of electoral rolls, and other connected issues.
• Similarly, courts are prohibited from meddling in electoral procedures by the Constitution.
• No law governing the apportionment of seats or the defining of constituencies is subject to a legal dispute.
• Elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies in India use the First Past the Post voting method.
• Constituencies are established throughout the entire nation.
• By placing a mark against the candidate of their choice on an electronic voting machine, voters choose just one candidate.
• The candidate who receives the most votes is proclaimed the winner.

Method Of Voting

• The idea of a universal adult franchise is the basis of democracy since it assures that each citizen has the right to one vote with equal weight.
• The right to vote is guaranteed to every adult citizen over the age of 18, irrespective of caste, religion, gender, level of education, socioeconomic status, or any other considerations.
• A list of all voters who are eligible to vote is prepared in order to make sure that nobody is denied their fundamental right to vote for any reason. The formal term for this list is the Electoral Roll or Voters' List.
• Each constituency's voters receive a copy of the voters' list well in advance of the election for review and correction. Voters cast their ballots on election day in accordance with the names on the voter list.
• This method ensures that everyone has the same opportunity to choose their representatives and that no one is denied the right to vote.
• The government is in charge of updating the voter list before the election; new names of all eligible voters are added to the list, and those of those who have moved out of their houses or passed away are removed.
• Every five years, the voter list is completely updated.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.  

Key Points

Direct democracy is the direct involvement of citizens in democratic decision-making. Direct democracies can function through a citizen assembly, referendums, and initiatives, in which voters cast ballots for proposals rather than for individuals or political parties.

• In a direct democracy, citizens vote on laws and other policy proposals directly. When voters choose representatives to cast those same votes on their behalf, that process is known as indirect democracy.
• Pure democracy is another name for direct democracy. It is a type of democracy where people directly choose (e.g., vote on, come to an agreement on) policy initiatives.
• It differs from representative democracy, in which citizens elect representatives who subsequently implement legislative changes.
• Across continents, nations, and various levels of state, direct democratic instruments are provided for but also used in a somewhat uneven way.
• Nationally, Europe and Latin America have the highest rates of procedures and usage, whereas Africa, Asia, and North America have lower rates. Switzerland has historically had the most complex national, cantonal, and local direct democracy systems.
• For example, citizens' efforts for an "abrogative referendum" to repeal existing legislation or portions of it were the main source of the majority of popular votes in Italy. In Austria, a vote may be called by the national parliament (used only once).
• The democratic ideals of popular sovereignty, political equality, and all justifications for participatory democracy that uphold the notion that all citizens should have the right to vote in referendums on matters of public policy in addition to elected representatives are the strongest normative justifications for direct democracy.
• Since assembly democracy is not a possibility in contemporary nations (outside of Switzerland), direct democratic institutions are seen as a complement to or counterbalance to representative democratic systems rather than as a full-fledged alternative.

The correct answer is Only II and III.

Key PointsA fair trial guarantees that trials must be handled by an impartial judge in an impartial setting where all parties are treated equally unless proven guilty. It is a fundamental human right.

• The oldest references to the idea of a fair trial may be found in the Magna Carta of 1215, which guaranteed everyone the right to a jury trial.
• The idea of a fair trial is acknowledged even at the international level by the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) in Article 10 and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) in Article 14.
• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is guaranteed to be upheld through a fair trial.
• A person who is detained or arrested under ordinary legislation has the following rights under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution:
• Right to know the reasons for your arrest.
• Right to speak with and have a lawyer represent you.
• The right to appear before a magistrate in person within 24 hours, excluding travel time
• A 24 hour right to release barring additional detention with the magistrate's permission.
• It should be highlighted that the aforementioned protections do not apply to hostile aliens or anybody detained or arrested as part of a preventive detention measure.
• The right to a fair trial is guaranteed by Articles 22 and 39A, which require the State to provide counsel to the accused if they are unable to afford it or if they have another impairment.
• A swift trial is something that the accused is entitled to since "justice delayed is justice denied."
• A copy of the charge sheet and any other evidence presented by the prosecution against the accused should be provided to him as part of his complete right to self-defence.
• Section 436 gives the accused the ability to get bail.
• The right to attend court proceedings with family members or well-wishers is recognized, and the accused should be present during the trial.
• According to Article 20(3), the accused is not allowed to give a statement while being threatened, under duress, or under any other form of coercion.
• According to Article 20 (1) of the Indian Constitution, someone can only be punished if they break the law and receive the appropriate punishment. It forbids retroactively increasing a penalty for a crime.
• A right to appeal a conviction to the Supreme Court, High Court, or any other Court of Session is provided by Section 37A of CrPC.

Additional Information

• The Chief Justice of India recently voiced his displeasure with the media's lack of accountability in its coverage of legal matters.
• A media trial is when information from a specific case is interpreted and presented to the public by a number of newspapers, magazines, television networks, and social media platforms.
• Before the Indian judiciary renders its decision, the media outlets in India have been seen to stage "Media Trials," in which they position an accused in such a way that the public feels he is responsible for the offence.
• In a number of situations, courts have ordered law enforcement agencies to refrain from disclosing information about their investigations, including the identity of the suspect before the case has concluded. Consider the 2018 case of Romila Thapar v. Union of India.
• Despite this, laws requiring the police to retain their anonymity are uncommon; Kerala is one of the few States having a Police Act that forbids taking pictures of people while they are in custody.
• The majority of other States have published administrative circulars with secret content that set forth various media policy standards with lax enforcement methods.
• The police urgently need a systematic, well-designed media policy with training and enforcement procedures.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key PointsIn the Indian system, the Prime Minister is the head of government or the true executive.

• The Prime Minister is chosen by the President; nevertheless, the constitution makes no provision for a procedure of appointment.
• But in a parliamentary democracy, the leader of the largest party in the legislature automatically becomes the Prime Minister.
• When no party has a clear majority, the President may use his or her discretion. He names someone and requests that they demonstrate their majority in the house.
• If the PM passes away with no apparent successor in place, the President may again name a competent person as a caretaker at his discretion in order to maintain continuity.
• The President is left with no choice, nevertheless, if the winning party has a candidate. Even though the Prime Minister holds office at the President's pleasure, he cannot be dismissed unless he has the support of the majority in the parliament.
• Different departments were established to handle government business in accordance with the Govt of India (Allocation of Business) Rules that the president created. The President distributed ministers and topics to each ministry on the Prime Minister's recommendation.
• The true union executives are the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
• They support and advise the president as he does his duties, but their counsel is binding on him.
• The Council of Ministers is responsible for the President's official acts taken on their advise because no court may look into the advice it provided to the President.
• Ministers, however, can be treated like regular individuals because the Constitution does not grant immunity for either personal or official activities.
• According to the 91st Amendment, the combined size of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers may not be greater than 15% of the size of the Lok Sabha. The individual who was excluded due to defection shall likewise be excluded from appointment as PM.
• The Council of Ministers is ultimately accountable to the Lok Sabha. A minister loses their position if they are not an MP for six months in a row. As a member of the government, a minister may participate in both houses' proceedings, but he or she may only cast a ballot in the house in which he or she is a member.
• The entire Council of Ministers is a team that sinks or swims as a result of collective responsibility. Therefore, all of the members of the Council of Ministers must resign if a no confidence vote is passed by the Lok Sabha. The motion of no confidence can only be approved by the Lok Sabha, and it must be against the full Council of Ministers rather than just one individual.
• As stated in the constitution, "Council of Ministers is Collectively Responsible to the Lok Sabha," this is the case.
• The council has ministers from the following three categories:
• Cabinet: They participate in cabinet discussions and have significant roles in the federal administration.
• Minister of state: They may be independent and in control of independent departments that aren't connected to cabinet ministries or they may be in charge of a particular department or task within a ministry that is under the direction of a cabinet minister.
• Deputy Ministers: They support cabinet ministers and ministers of state in their duties.

The correct answer is (A) is true but (B) is false.

Key Points

1. Cabinet Ministers are usually top-level leaders of the ruling party or parties who are in charge of the major ministries.

• This is true.
• Cabinet Ministers are appointed from among the members of the ruling party or coalition, and they head the important ministries such as Home, Finance, Defence, External Affairs, etc.

2. Ministers of state with independent charge are attached to and required to assist Cabinet Ministers.

• This is false.
• Ministers of State with independent charge are not attached to a Cabinet Minister but have a ministry of their own that they are responsible for.
• They operate independently and aren't required to assist a Cabinet Minister.
• However, they are not part of the Cabinet and do not attend Cabinet meetings unless specially invited.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key PointsIndia's first general elections after independence, conducted between October 25, 1951, and February 21, 1952, led to the formation of the first Lok Sabha. The Indian Constituent Assembly served as the nation's interim legislature beginning in August 1947.

• Everyone over the age of 21 was eligible to vote in elections because they were held under the principles of universal adult suffrage.
• For 489 seats, 53 political parties competed. There were roughly 1874 candidates representing different parties.
• There were 401 constituencies, some of which had more than one seat. The multi-seat constituencies were eliminated in the 1960s.
• The Indian National Congress (INC): The Congress, which was supported by a number of well-known figures from the nation's liberation movement, was the undisputed front-runner in India's first general election.
• The party easily triumphed, taking 364 of the 479 seats it ran for, more than all the other parties combined, and leaving the Communist Party of India (CPI), which came in second with only 16 seats, in the dust.
• The constituency, then known as Allahabad East cum Jaunpur West District but afterwards renamed Phulpur, was where Jawaharlal Nehru, the nation's first prime minister, ran for the Congress.
• Socialist Party (SOC): Following the CPI in the first general election of India came the Socialist Party (SOC), which won 12 of the 254 seats it ran for. 
• The Congress Socialist Party, a left-leaning division of the Indian National Congress founded by Narayan, Lohiya, and Acharya Narendra Dev, split apart from the former shortly after independence, served as the foundation for the Socialist Party.
• The party's split from the Congress was a result of ideological disagreements with Mahatma Gandhi and Nehru, although Lohiya persisted in upholding the Gandhian principle of Ahimsa while Narayan supported a more aggressive stance.
• The Socialist Party, the second largest party in terms of votes, secured more than 10 per cent of the votes all over the country. But it could not even win three per cent of the seats.
• The party was founded on a decentralised socialist tenet that called for a more restrained role for the Union government.
• The Socialist Party's election results were underwhelming despite Narayan's popularity due to his involvement in India's freedom movement; hence, following the election, it united with J.B. Kripalani's Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party (KMPP) to establish the Praja Socialist Party (PSP).
• The Samyukt Socialist Party, or simply the Socialist Party, which was led by Lohiya, split off from the PSP in 1955.
• The Socialist Party later re-joined the PSP in 1972. Following Gandhi's proclamation of the Emergency in 1975, Narayan spearheaded the calls for her dismissal, for which he was jailed.
• Following their release from prison, Narayan and other PSP leaders collaborated with a number of other organisations to build the Bharatiya Lok Dal, which by 1977, together with nearly all of the opposition in the nation, formed the Janata Party to challenge the Gandhi-led Congress.

Additional Information

• In India's first general election, the CPI, as previously indicated, finished second. The CPI established itself as the main opposition in the nation despite only winning 16 seats.
• After a decade of initiatives by various factions to establish a communist presence in the nation, the party was formally founded in Kanpur (formerly Cawnpore) in 1925.
• The party was obliged to function covertly after it was founded since the ruling British had forbidden communist activities throughout India. This limited the party's ability to do its work until India got independence.
• The party supported policies like as land reforms, adult universal suffrage, social equality for women, and the takeover of all privately-held businesses by the government. A "national democracy" was the party's main demand going into the first general election.
• Madras, where eight of its candidates won seats, followed by West Bengal, where it won five seats, Tripura, where it won two seats, and Orissa, where it won one, were the electoral hotspots for the party.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key PointsElections are a metaphor for a well-organized democratic process in which the country's adult citizens elect their representatives to represent them in the Parliament or Assembly. Every citizen who is at least 18 years old can take part in shaping the government thanks to it.

• General elections, midterm elections, and bye-elections are the three different kinds of elections. 
• General elections are those that are regularly held simultaneously across all or the majority of a state's constituencies. These are held every five years. In order to create a new Lok Sabha or State Assembly, general elections are held.
• Mid-term elections are those held after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha or State Assembly but before the end of the term, which is five years, in order to elect a new Lok Sabha or State Assembly.
• Finally, by-elections are held for a single constituency when a member of the Lok Sabha or State Assembly dies or resigns, creating a vacancy. Bye-elections are held in a single constituency to fill a seat left open by a member's death or resignation. 
• It has to conducted before six months have passed since the seat became vacant, these are held.
• The representative is chosen to serve out the remaining term.

The correct answer is Only A and B.

Key PointsFor candidates and political parties during elections, India's Election Commission (EC) issues a set of rules known as the Model Code of Conduct.

• The rules mostly include speeches, polling places, behaviour on election day, election manifestos, processions, and general behaviour.
• When the EC announces the election calendar, this Code goes into effect.
• Once the Model Code of Conduct enters into force, the government typically doesn't introduce any new ground for projects or public activities.
• It is forbidden for government entities to take part in any hiring practises during an election.
• The freedom of the opposing candidates' roadshows should not be impeded by the competing candidates or their campaign staff. This is largely under the principal jurisdiction of the code of conduct.
• Road traffic and the general public must not be impacted by the rallies and roadshows held during election campaigns. Important Rules of the Model Code of Conduct

The Model Code of Conduct has eight essential sections in all, which have been listed.

General Behavior:

• During any activity, religious or communal sentiments must not be compromised.
• Criticism of the other political party must be limited to their prior actions or achievements and must not be personal.
• It is prohibited to use places of religion (including temples, mosques, churches, etc.) for electioneering.
• Every citizen has a right to a quiet and undisturbed home life, and any space utilised for political purposes must only be used with the consent of the relevant person or organisation.

Meetings:

• In order for the police to ensure law, order, and peace, the party or candidate shall give adequate notice to the local police authorities of the location and time requested for a meeting.

Procession:

• In order to make the necessary arrangements, the local police or other relevant authorities must be informed well in advance of the procession's time, location, and route.

Election Day:

• To ensure a peaceful election, the party or candidate must work with the authorities at the voting places. No food or alcohol may be distributed outside of the voting booths.

Polling booth:

• No one other than voters may access the polling places without a legal pass issued by the Election Commission.

Observers:

• Observers are chosen by the Election Commission.
• The party in power, whether at the Center or in the State in question, shall ensure that there is no justification provided for any complaint that it has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
• If candidates or their representatives have any specific complaints or issues regarding the conduct of elections, they may bring them to the attention of the Observer.

Manifestos for elections:

• The Election Commission was instructed by the Supreme Court to establish standards for the contents of election manifestos in accordance with its ruling from July 5, 2013, after consulting with all recognised political parties.

The correct answer is Local Government.

Key PointsVillage Panchayats are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy, but there is no explicit mention of municipalities, with the exception of Entry 5 of the State List, which identifies local self-government as a state obligation.

• The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 dealing with municipalities was passed by Parliament in 1992 with the goals of establishing a uniform framework for urban local bodies and enhancing their capacity to serve as effective democratic units of self-government.
• On April 20, 1993, the President gave his approval to the Act. A fundamental basis for the decentralisation of rights and authorities to Municipal organisations at various levels is provided by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
• But it is the States' job to give it a concrete form. In India, the phrase "Urban Local Government" refers to the process through which the electorate governs an urban region.
• An urban local government can only regulate activities inside a given urban region that the state government has designated. 
• The Indian Constitution now includes a new Part IX-A as a result of the 74th Amendment Act.
• The provisions in this section, named "The Municipalities," range in scope from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
• The act also gave the Constitution a brand-new Twelfth Schedule. There are 18 useful municipal objects in this schedule.
• Municipalities are now governed by the Constitution's justiciable provisions thanks to the Act.
• In other words, according to the terms of the legislation, state governments are required by the constitution to implement the new system of municipalities [Article 243 Q].
• In order for urban governments to successfully serve as local government units, the legislation intends to revitalise and enhance them.