NVS TGT Social Science held on 28th Nov 2022 shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is USA

Key Points

• Exercise Yudh Abhyas, conducted annually between India and USA with the aim of exchanging best practices, tactics, techniques and procedures between the Armies of the two nations.
• Indian and US militaries to conduct the battalion-level “Yudh Abhyas” exercise between 15th November 2022 to 2nd December 2022.
• The Yudh Abhyas will be held at Auli in Uttarakhand which from just 100 km from the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
• In August, the US and Indian forces conducted the “Vajra Prahar” exercise at Bakloh in Himachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

• The constitution of India says that the Vice-President should not be a member of either the House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature.
• Vice President shall be elected by an Electoral college through a system of Proportional Representation by means of a Single Transferable Vote and the voting should be by secret ballot.
• He should not hold any other office of profit.

Additional Information

Vice President(VP)

• VP is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
• The Vice President shall act as President in case of any occurrence of vacancy due to death, resignation or removal.
• Vice President can also act as President when the President is unable to discharge his function due to absence or illness.
• In such a period Vice President will be entitled with all the immunities, powers and privileges of the President.

Election

• Vice President shall be elected by an Electoral college through a system of Proportional Representation by means of a Single Transferable Vote and the voting should be by secret ballot.
• The electoral college consists of members of both houses of the Parliament.
• The Vice President shall not be a member of any house of the Parliament.

Qualification

• He must be a citizen of India.
• Completed the age of 35 years.
• qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
• must not hold the office of profit.

Term

• Vice President can hold the office for a term of 5 years.
• He can resign addressed to President.
• He can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of states passed by the Majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People for which 14 day's notice period is required.
• Vice President continue to hold his office until his successor comes.
• The election for Vice President must be conducted before the expiration of the Term.
• In case of death, resignation or removal it should be conducted as soon as possible.

The correct answer is 26th November, 2022.

Key Points

• Every year, National Milk Day is celebrated on November 26 across India.
• The largest milk-producing country celebrates this day to demonstrate the importance of milk in everyone's life.
• It is celebrated to commemorate the birthday of the father of India’s White Revolution, Dr. Verghese Kurien (also nicknamed Milkman of India).

Additional Information

• World Milk Day is observed on 1 June every year by the United Nations.
• The theme of World Milk Day is Drink Milk: Today & Everyday.
• The first National Milk Day was celebrated on 26 November 2014 where various milk producers from 22 states participated.

The correct answer is National Research Foundation

Key Points

​ National Research Foundation

• The NRF is an independent statutory body established through the National Research Foundation Act (Act No 23 of 1998), following a system-wide review conducted for the Department of Arts, Culture, Science and Technology (DACST).
• The new entity incorporated the functions of the research funding agencies that were previously servicing various sections of the research community, namely the former Centre for Science Development (CSD) of the Human Sciences Research Council (HSRC) and the former Foundation for Research Development (FRD) that included several National Research Facilities.

Indian Council of Agricultural Research

• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare , Government of India.
• Formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
• The ICAR has its headquarters at New Delhi.
• The Council is the apex body for co-ordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country.
• With 111 ICAR institutes and 71 agricultural universities spread across the country this is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world.

The correct answer is Nikhat Zareen.

Key Points

• India's Nikhat Zareen has won the gold medal in the 52kg category at the Women's World Boxing Championships.
• She defeated Thailand's Jitpong Jutamas in the fly-weight final in Istanbul, Turkey on May 19.
• With this win, Nikhat becomes only the fifth Indian women's boxer after Mary Kom, Sarita Devi, Jenny RL and Lekha KC to win a gold at the World Championships.

Additional Information

• ​Women's World Boxing Championships is organised by the International Boxing Association.
• The International Boxing Association is an independent sport organization.
• It sanctions amateur boxing matches and awards world and subordinate championships.
• The International Boxing Association:
• Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
• President: Umar Kremlyov
• Founded: 1946

The correct answer is Ministry of Education.

Key Points

• Ministry of Education  took the initiative of Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA).
• Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) is an initiative of Ministry of Education (MoE), Govt. of India to systematically rank all major higher educational institutions and universities in India on indicators related to “Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development” amongst students and faculties.
• Major Indicators for consideration
• Budget & Funding Support.
• Infrastructure & Facilities.
• Awareness, Promotions & support for Idea Generation & Innovation.
• Promotion & Support for Entrepreneurship Development.
• Innovative Learning Methods & Courses.
• Intellectual Property Generation, Technology Transfer & Commercialization.
• Innovation in Governance of the Institution.

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

• USA  was the world's largest exporter of major arms in 2017-21, as per 'Trends in International Arms Transfers, 2021' the latest fact sheet of the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute.
• The volume of international transfers of major arms in 2017–21 was 4.6  per  cent lower than in 2012–16, but was 3.9  per  cent higher than in 2007–11.
• The five largest arms exporters in 2017–21 were the United States, Russia, France, China and Germany.
• The five largest arms importers were India, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Australia and China.
• Between 2012–16 and 2017–21 there were increases in arms transfers to Europe (19 per cent) and to the Middle East (2.8 per cent), while there were decreases in the transfers to the Americas (–36 per cent), Africa (–34 per cent), and Asia and Oceania (–4.7 per cent).

Additional Information SIPRI

• SIPRI provides data, analysis and recommendations for armed conflict, military expenditure and arms trade as well as disarmament and arms control.
• Following are the important details about SIPRI.              1. SIPRI Headquarters: Oslo, Norway.
               2. SIPRI Founded: 6 May 1966.
               3. SIPRI​ Director: Dan Smith.

The correct answer is To prohibit carbon emission.

 In News

• The aim of the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022  is to prohibit carbon emission.
• It provides for the regulation of energy consumption by equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries.
• The Electricity conservation act, 2001 which was last amended in 2010 is now being reformed in order to introduce changes inculcating clean energy as a major source of energy production.

Highlights of the Bills

• Obligation to use non-fossil sources of energy: Bill states that the government may require the consumers to meet a minimum share of energy consumption from non-fossil sources.
• Carbon trading: Bill empowers the central government to specify a carbon credit trading scheme.
• Energy conservation code for buildings: Bill provides for an ‘energy conservation and sustainable building code’ for green buildings.
• Applicability to residential buildings: Bill provides the new energy conservation and sustainable building code which will apply to the office and residential buildings.
• Under earlier Act, the energy conservation code applies to commercial buildings with certain criteria.
• Standards for vehicles and vessels: Bill expands the scope to include vehicles (as defined under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988) and vessels including ships and boats.
• Increase members in Governing Council of Bureau of Energy Efficiency.

Additional Information Significance of the bill

• The bill facilitates in achieving Panchamrit principles initiated by India in COP-26 at the Glasgow summit, 2021.
• It will help in promoting renewable energy and development of domestic Carbon market to fight climate change.
• The changes will succor in reducing about 550 tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent by 2030.
• It will pave way for introduction of new concepts such as Carbon trading and will help in adopting clean technologies.

Provisions in the Energy conservation act, 2001

• The act led to the establishment of Bureau of Energy efficiency(BEE) which can specify qualifications required for energy auditors.
• It empowers the Centre to specify norms and standards of energy efficiency for appliances, industrial equipment and buildings.
• Consumers who consume excess energy can be penalized for the excess consumption.
• The act allows centre to issue energy certificates to industries that consume less than their maximum allotted energy.

The correct answer is Rafael Nadal.

Key Points

• Spaniard Rafael Nadal on 5 June 2022 won the 14th singles title of the French open beating Casper Ruud of Norway 6-3, 6-3, 6-0 in the final.
• With this victory, 36-year-old Nadal has become the oldest champion of the French Open.
• It is his 22nd Grand Slam title.
• In women's singles, World Number One Iga Swiatek of Poland won the 2022 title by beating Coco Gauf in Paris on 4 June 2022.
• | Grand Slam Title 2022 | Male Winner | Female Winner | | --- | --- | --- | | U.S. Open | Carlos Alcaraz | Iga Swiatek | | Wimbledon | Novak Djokovic | Elena Rybakina | | French Open | Rafael Nadal | Iga Swiatek | | Australian Open | Rafael Nadal | Ashleigh Barty
  |

Additional Informations

• The French Open, also known as Roland-Garros, is a major tennis tournament.
• It is held over two weeks at the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France, beginning in late May each year.
• The tournament and venue are named after the French aviator Roland Garros.
• ​The French Open:
• Founded: 1891
• Location: Paris, France
• Surface: Clay – outdoors (1908–present); Sand – outdoors (1891–1907)
• Japan's Ena Shibahara and Wesley Koolhof of the Netherlands won the French Open mixed doubles title on 2 June 2022.

The correct answer is Frank Wilczek.

Key Points

• Dr. Frank Wilczek, a Nobel Prize-winner theoretical physicist and author, receives the 2022 Templeton Prize.
• The Templeton Prize, valued at more than $1.3 million, is one of the world’s largest annual individual awards.
• Established by the late global investor and philanthropist Sir John Templeton, it is given to honor those who harness the power of the sciences.

Additional Information

• The Templeton Prize was established in 1972 by John Marks Templeton, an American-born financial entrepreneur who sought to advance human knowledge of the universe through a broad set of intellectual approaches and an ecumenical perspective on spiritual progress.
• Though the prize is considered by some to be the equivalent of a Nobel Prize for religion, recipients may be of any profession, and emphasis is often placed on work that explores the intersections between spirituality and science.

The logic followed here is: 

Assertion (A) : Plaster of Paris is used for setting fractured bones by doctors.

→ True, Plaster of Paris is mixed with water and used around the fractured limb, it sets into a hard mass and keeps the bone joints in a fixed position, and is used for setting fractured bones.

Reason (R) : If Plaster of Paris is mixed with water and used around the fractured limb, it sets into a hard mass.

→  The Reason is the correct explanation of A, as Plaster of Paris is used for setting fractured bones.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A".

Given statement: 

Q < W, 

D < Q, 

W = L

On Combining: D < Q < W = L

Conclusions :

i) D < W →  FALSE (as D < Q < W = L gives; D < W → so it is definitely false).

ii) L ≥ Q →  FALSE (as D < Q < W = L gives; Q < L →so it is definitely false).

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II is true".

Given: 24, 96, 48, 192, ? , 384, 192

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "96".

The logic follows here is:

Each letter is increased by +5.

Thus, the next term of the given series is 'N'.

Hence, the correct answer is "N".

Statement:

Indians prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer.

Conclusions:

I. Cotton clothes are more comfortable during summer.

→ True, because cotton is a highly absorbent fabric and can easily absorb sweat from the skin during summer. Thus, cotton clothes are more comfortable during summer.

Thus, conclusion I follows.

II. India is a hot country.

→ False, because we cannot conclude that India is a hot country only because Indians prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer.

Thus, conclusion II does not follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

According to the given information:

If North-West becomes South, South-West becomes East and so on, then the new arrangement is:

Thus, South-East becomes 'North'.

Hence, the correct answer is "North".

Asper the given information:

The Venn Diagram that best represents the relationship among three groups of people - Fathers, Sons, and Men is as follows:

• Fathers and Sons both are Men
• Some Fathers are son and some sons are also fathers.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

As per the question,

• A is the brother of B; C is the mother of A; and F is the son of A.

• B is the granddaughter of D

​

Thus, F is 'Great Grandson' of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Great Grandson".

As per the question,

Four friends A, B, C and D compared their height.

A is taller than B but shorter than C.

• C > A > B   ---------------(1)

D is shorter than C but taller than A.

• C > D > A   ---------------(2)

​Thus, the final arrangement after combining both (1) and (2) is:

• C > D > A > B

​Clearly, 'C is the tallest' is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "C is the tallest".

The logic follows here is:

I. 'Ya Na Sa' means 'I am good' and 'Sa Na Ke' means 'I am hungry'.

Here, the code for 'good' is Ya.

So, I alone is sufficient to answer.

II. 'Pi Ya Se' means 'She is good' and 'Ya Su To' means 'You are good'.

Here, the code for 'good' is Ya.

So, II alone is also sufficient to answer.

Therefore, either of the statements is sufficient to find the code for 'good'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Either I or II is sufficient".

​Input devices are electromagnetic devices that receive information or a set of instructions from the outside world. 

Key Points

• It converts that information into a format that is accessible and intelligible by machines.
• Computer input devices act as an interface for the computer's proper communication with the outside environment.
• Users can save the data they enter via a variety of input devices in the computer's memory for later processing and preparation.
• A computer can be communicated with and controlled using an input device, which transmits data to the computer.
• The most common input devices are Keyboard, Mouse, Joy Stick, Light Pen, Microphone, Scanner, and Barcode Reader.

Thus, a Plotter is a device that can not be used as an input device in a computer system. 

Additional Information

• A plotter is an output device that produces vector graphics drawings.

Password security is a set of regulations, procedures, and technological advancements that increase the security of passwords and authentication procedures. 

Key Points

• The first line of security against unwanted access to computers and personal information is provided by passwords.
• The computer will be more secure from hackers and bad malware.
• The effective practice to secure our passwords are: 
• Never reveal passwords to others.
• Use multi-factor authentication (MFA)
• Use password managers
• Length trumps complexity
• Change it frequently
• Don't write down any in a file.

Thus, Passwords should contain memorable data for the easy recall is not an effective practice to secure our passwords.

A firewall creates a wall between a trustworthy network and an unreliable network. 

Key Points

• A firewall is a network security device used in computing that monitors and regulates incoming and outgoing network traffic.
• A firewall is essentially the barrier that stands between a private internal network and the open Internet at its most basic level.
• Firewalls can stop harmful software from connecting to a computer or network over the internet.
• It sets security policies that are used to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic through a firewall.

Thus,  I am Firewall. 

Additional Information

• Cookies are short data packets created by a web server while a user is accessing a website.
• Malware is a programme or file that purposefully hurts a computer, network, or server.
• Antivirus software is a computer programme intended to stop, find, and get rid of the malware.

Microsoft produced Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet for Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS. 

Key Points

• The fundamental capabilities of all spreadsheets are present in Microsoft Excel.
• It organises data manipulations like arithmetic operations using a grid of cells arranged in numbered rows and letter-named columns.
• It has a variety of built-in functionalities to address financial, engineering, and statistical requirements.
• It has a very limited three-dimensional graphical display and can present data as line graphs, histograms, and charts.

Therefore, MS Excel software of the Microsoft Office package is the best suited for this purpose. 

Additional Information

• MS PowerPoint is created to provide graphics for group presentations.
• Microsoft Access is a database management system (DBMS) that combines a graphical user interface.
• MS Word is a word processor that may be used to create papers, letters, reports, and other types of writing.

Unix is not an example of a web browser.

Key PointsBrowser:

• A web browser is a software application for accessing the information on the World Wide Web.
• When a user requests a web page from a particular website, the web browser retrieves the necessary content from a web server and then displays the page on the user's device.
• It is an application used to access and view websites.
• Microsoft Internet Explorer, Maxthon 6 Cloud Browser, Google Chrome, Opera, Mozilla Firefox, Apple Safari, etc. are some of examples of web browser
• A web browser is a computer program you use to view web pages
• A web browser helps in receiving the web-page matter through the internet.

Important PointsUnix operating system:

• The Unix operating system is generally known as Multi-user operating system
• UNIX is a multitasking, multi-user operating system that exists in many variants.

The Internet is a system of worldwide connected computer networks that communicate with one another using the Internet protocol suite. 

Key Points

• It is made up of a vast array of electrical, wireless, and optical networking technologies.
• ​Internet each of its constituent networks establishes its own rules for access and usage.
• Services available on the Internet include: 
• Locating people using social networking sites
• Downloading and uploading files from or to remote sites
• Playing community games
• Maintaining journals
• Forming groups and sharing views with like-minded people

Therefore, Statements a, b, c, d, e are correct.

Antivirus software is a programme or set of programmes. 

Key Points

• It is designed to look for, identify, stop, and get rid of computer viruses that can harm the system.
• Antivirus software may also find and get rid of other unwanted programmes like worms, adware, and other threats.
• Antivirus software operates by comparing the files and programmes on your computer to a database of known malware types.
• It will also check systems for the presence of fresh or undiscovered malware threats
• The antivirus searches its database for matches by comparing files, programmes, and applications entering and leaving the computer.

Therefore, I am Antivirus. 

Additional Information

• A firewall is a network security device used in computing that monitors and regulates incoming and outgoing network traffic.
• Cookies are short data packets created by a web server while a user is accessing a website.
• Malware is a programme or file that purposefully hurts a computer, network, or server.

CU or Control Unit is a part of the Central Processing Unit.

Key Points

Control Unit in ALU:

• A control unit (CU) is an integrated circuit in a processor that controls the input and output.
• It receives instructions from a program, then passes them to the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU).
• ​This unit enables the sequential flow of data between the different parts of the Central Processing Unit.
• It can interpret instructions and perform the necessary actions.

Spam is not an abbreviation for a computer threat. 

Key Points

• Spam is unwanted, uninvited digital communication transmitted in bulk.
• Spam is frequently transmitted by email, but it can also be sent through social media, text messages, and phone calls.
• Spammers transmit their unwanted messages in mass through a variety of communication channels.
• There are different types of Spam such as Phishing emails, Email spoofing, Tech support scams, Current event scams, Advance-fee scams, and Malspam.

Therefore, I am Spam. 

Additional Information

• A virus is a form of malware that accompanies another programme and has the ability to multiply and propagate once it has been run on a machine.
• Hacker is an expert who employs non-standard methods to accomplish a goal or get around a challenge within a computerised system.
• Spyware is malicious software such as spyware placed on a computer without the end user's knowledge.

The correct answer is Ctrl + Z.

Key Points 

• To undo an action press Ctrl+Z.
• If you prefer your mouse, click Undo on the Quick Access Toolbar.
• You can press Undo (or CTRL+Z) repeatedly if you want to undo multiple steps.
• Undo means to destroy the effect of something that has already happened.

Additional Information 

Important Shortcut keys used in MS Word:

• Cut the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+X
• Copy the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+C
• Paste the contents of the Clipboard -Ctrl+V
• Increase the font size by 1 point.- Ctrl+]
• Center the text - Ctrl+E
• Align the text to the left - Ctrl+L

Teachers are individuals who have elaborate systems of knowledge for understanding problems in teaching and learning. They have the necessary awareness of the theoretical and practical aspects related to teaching and learning. 

Key Points Teachers not only plan and teach but also evaluate the performance of the learners and take up necessary remedial measures to help them improve their learning.

• For good teaching in the class, first of all, a teacher should be well aware of the response that he is looking for in the class.
• Sensing that learners are bored, a teacher decides to stop teaching.
• Realizing that a learner has not understood a point fully, a teacher decides to simplify the explanation with more examples.
• In order to make a lesson more interesting, a teacher decides to narrate a related story.
• As learners start making too much noise and can not be managed by a teacher, she decides to let them go out and play.
• As the prepared plan does not prove effective to make learners understand the point, a teacher decides to deviate from the plan and tries out another sequencing of learning experiences.
• Recognizing a learner’s attention behavior, managing deviant behavior, recognizing learner needs, etc. that occur along with teaching are all part of the management process while teaching.

Thus, it is concluded that for good teaching in the class, first of all, a teacher should be well aware of the response that he is looking for in the class.

Interaction (or interactivity) between the teacher and student is an important aspect of the teaching-learning process. Teaching-learning should not be a one-sided activity of presenting information to the students.

Key Points

• Effective interaction in the classroom should ideally generate a flow of ideas.
• By actively participating in discussions and exchanging ideas, students learn to analyze information, question assumptions, and come up with creative solutions.
• Discussing different viewpoints and perspectives on a topic helps students develop a deeper understanding of the material and consider multiple angles.
• A classroom that encourages open sharing of ideas fosters a safe and supportive environment for students to explore their creativity and generate innovative solutions.

Hence, we can conclude that effective interaction in the classroom should generate a flow of ideas.

Frustration results from the blocking of needs and motives by something or someone that hinders us from achieving the desired goal. There could be a number of causes of frustration such as social discrimination, interpersonal hurt, low grades in school, etc. 

Key Points The term frustration refers to the blocking of behavior directed towards a goal. If motives are frustrated or blocked, emotional feelings and behavior often result.

• People who cannot achieve their important goals, feel depressed, fearful, anxious, guilty, or angry.
• Often they are simply unable to drive ordinary pleasure for living.
• Frustration creates uncomfortable emotional tensions that operate as insistent drives influencing the individual to change in various tension-reducing activities.
• The frustration of one's motive always results in downgrading self-concept.
• Self-concept is the self-knowledge we have about ourselves in various aspects such as physical characteristics, social roles, personality traits, interests, skills, etc.
• Self-concept is multi-dimensional.

Thus, it is concluded that the frustration of one's motive always results in downgrading self-concept.

Human growth and development is an orderly, predictable process beginning with conception and continuing until death. It involves many complex changes in all dimensions of a person through the life span.

Key Points Sunita, aged 5, tends to repeat a particular 'act' over and over; then moves on to another 'act', which in turn she repeats again. Her behavior indicates nothing unusual, this is a normal process of development.

• Each person progresses through definite phases of growth and development, but the pace and progression of this development are highly individual.
• Development refers to a progressive increase in skill and capacity to function which causes the qualitative change from a lower to a more advanced stage of complexity.
• Development is orderly and reasonably enduring.
• The development also refers to intellectual, moral, emotional, sexual, social, language, speech, and spiritual developments.
• It is a set of skills and competencies peculiar to each stage of development that must be accomplished by the children to deal effectively with their environment.

Thus, it is concluded that Sunita, aged 5, tends to repeat a particular 'act' over and over; then moves on to another 'act', which in turn she repeats again. Her behavior indicates nothing unusual, this is a normal process of development.

Critical thinking aims at simplification/ generalization on the one hand and truth and accuracy on the other. It scrupulously adheres to establish canons of logic. 

Key Points Teaching is the process of facilitating learning by leading discussions, asking open-ended questions, and acquiring knowledge by active participation. For developing creative thinking among the students,  Open-ended and subjective questions type of questions should be asked the teacher.

• Open-end questions consist of questions that require short or lengthy answers by the respondents.
• An open-ended question permits the respondents to answer in their own words.
• Open-ended questions give liberty to the respondents to express their views.
• It gives tremendous freedom to the respondents to answer according to their interpretation.
• Unanticipated answers can be obtained from the respondents.
• The researcher can get the real views of the respondents.
• The respondent needs more time to answer.
• Respondents may use different terms for the same concept.

Thus, it is concluded that for developing creative thinking among the students,  Open-ended and subjective questions type of questions should be asked the teacher.

Additional Information

Any visual aid which is used for the magnification of an image on a screen in dark or semi-dark conditions can be called a projected visual aid. 

Key Points Projected aids are “projected” onto a wall or screen using machines. On projection, the message on a slide or transparency gets magnified several times and hence can be seen by a large group of students.

Examples of Projected Aids are Overhead Projectors,  Epidiascope, Slide projectors, Films, video, Compact discs or CDs, and Computer and PowerPoint Presentations.

Thus, it is concluded that the Blackboard is not a projected teaching aid.      

Additional Information 

The term teaching refers to the actions of someone who is trying to assist others to reach their fullest potential in all aspects of development.

Key PointsThe nature and objectives of teaching are:

• (a) Teaching and learning are integrally related. - Correct. Teaching and learning are two sides of the same coin. They are connected processes. Effective teaching leads to effective learning.​
• (c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure social transformation in students. - Correct. While not the only objective, teaching does play a significant role in facilitating social transformation by imparting knowledge, fostering critical thinking, and promoting social values.
• (f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act. - Correct. Teaching is a social act as it often involves interaction, communication, and collaboration, while learning, although it can occur in social contexts, is ultimately a personal act as it is up to the individual to absorb and process the information.

Hint

• (b) There is no difference between teaching and training. - Incorrect. Teaching often refers to acquiring knowledge and understanding, while training is about acquiring a specific skill.
• (d) All good teaching is formal in nature. - Incorrect. Good teaching can happen in both formal (schools, colleges) and informal (home, social interactions) settings.
• (e) A teacher is a senior person. - Incorrect. A teacher can be of any age and experience often comes with age.

Thus, it is concluded that (a), (c) and (f) are correct

Evaluation is the systematic process of determining the extent to which the specified instructional objectives previously identified and defined have been achieved. The process of evaluation is based on the relationship between the objectives of the content and its actual outcome. 

Key Points Evaluation is both qualitative and quantitative, it may be 'formative' (during the process of development) or 'summative' (at the end of the total program or each phase thereof).

 During curriculum development, the evaluation used to improve content learning is called formative evaluation.

• Formative evaluation is used to monitor the learning progress of students during the period of instruction.
• Its main objective is to provide continuous feedback to both teacher and student concerning learning successes and failures while instruction is in process.
• Feedback to students provides reinforcement of successful learning and identifies the specific learning errors that need correction.
• Feedback to teachers provides information for modifying instruction and for prescribing group and individual remedial work.
• The formative evaluation depends on tests, quizzes, homework, classwork, and oral questions prepared for each segment of instruction.

Thus, it is concluded that during curriculum development, the evaluation used to improve content learning is called formative evaluation.

Additional Information 

The term teaching refers to the actions of someone who is trying to assist others to reach their fullest potential in all aspects of development. Teaching results when the teacher does any activity with the intention that his/her learners would learn something as a result of it.

Key Points

 The nature of the "teaching" profession are:

• The teacher should not only facilitate learning but should promote citizenship training and active integration with society, developing curiosity, critical thinking, creativity, initiative, and self-determination.
• The profession of teaching is learner-oriented, dynamic, and humane.
• The teacher should help in coordinating and enriching the efforts of students and other resources engaged in the task of teaching-learning.
• To acquire knowledge and understanding of instructional planning, preparation, transaction, and evaluation.
• To apply knowledge and understanding to new and unfamiliar teaching situations.
• To develop proper interests, attitudes, and values relating to the teaching profession and procedures.
• To develop the abilities for effective classroom management.

Thus, it is concluded that helping in being obedient to the Government is not the nature of the "teaching" profession.

In classrooms, learning often proceeds most effectively when there is rapid feedback provided by the teacher.

Key Points

• Feedback allows students to understand how well they are grasping the material, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to their learning strategies.
• This reinforces learning and helps them understand concepts more deeply.
• Timely feedback helps students gauge their progress and identify areas for improvement. It keeps them engaged and motivated in the learning process.
• Addressing errors and providing clarification early on prevents misconceptions and fosters a better understanding of the material.

Hence, we can conclude that in classrooms, learning proceeds most effectively if there is rapid feedback from the teacher.

The correct answer is Only A, C and D are true.

Key Points

• February Revolution, (March 8–12 [Feb. 24–28, old style], 1917), the first stage of the Russian Revolution of 1917, in which the monarchy was overthrown and replaced by the Provisional Government.
• Despite occurring in March of the Gregorian calendar, the event is most commonly known as the "February Revolution" because at the time Russia still used the Julian calendar.
• Russia followed the Julian calendar until 1st February 1918 and then changed to the Gregorian calendar.
• The event is sometimes known as the "March Revolution" after the Soviet Union modernized its calendar.
• The Gregorian dates are 13 days ahead of the Julian dates. And Georgian calendars are followed everywhere.

Thus, Today many consider that the 'February Revolution' took place on the 12th of March and the 'October Revolution' took place on the 7th of November because Russia followed the Julian calendar until the 1st of February 1918 and then changed to the Gregorian calendar. The Gregorian dates are 23 days ahead of the Julian dates.

Additional Information

• The October Revolution, officially known as the Great October Socialist Revolution in the Soviet Union, also known as the Bolshevik Revolution, was a revolution in Russia led by the Bolshevik Party of Vladimir Lenin that was a key moment in the larger Russian Revolution of 1917–1923.
• The Gregorian calendar is the calendar used in most parts of the world. It was introduced in October 1582 by Pope Gregory XIII as a modification of, and replacement for, the Julian calendar.
• The Julian calendar, proposed by Roman consul Julius Caesar in 46 BC, was a reform of the Roman calendar. It took effect on 1 January 45 BC, by edict. It was designed with the aid of Greek mathematicians and astronomers such as Sosigenes of Alexandria.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• Allies did not want to be harsh on Germany because Allies did not want to repeat the mistakes committed after the Ist World war whereby they imposed harsh terms on Germany, by virtue of the Treaty of Versailles which resulted in the rise of Hitler.
• Everyone came to feel that the rise of Nazi Germany could be partly traced back to the German experience at the end of the First World War.
• Allies: The Allied Powers were initially led by the UK and France.
• In 1941 they were joined by the USSR and USA. They fought against the Axis Powers, namely Germany, Italy, and Japan.

Thus, the statements regarding the rise of Nazi Germany and the growth of Hitler are true.

Additional Information

• World War I, often abbreviated as WWI, was one of the deadliest global conflicts in history. The main belligerents included much of Europe and their colonial empire.
• Most popular reasons that are cited as the root causes of World War :
• Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia, and Russia got involved to defend Serbia.
• Germany seeing Russia mobilizing declared war on Russia.
• France was then drawn in against Germany and Austria-Hungary.
• ​ Russia withdrew from the war after the November Revolution of 1917 overthrew Tsar Nicholas.
• Until the year 1939, the 1914-18 war was referred to as the "Great War".

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• A pamphlet written and published in Paris in 1789 by Abbé Emmanuel Joseph Sieyès, a “little-known and less-regarded provincial French priest.”
• Its title was “Qu'est-ce que le Tiers-État?” — or in English, “What is the Third Estate?”
• It was put out in three versions growing from 86 pages finally to 180.
• The representatives of the third estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for the whole French nation.
• They declared themselves a National Assembly and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch.

Thus, Abbé Sieyes wrote a pamphlet called 'What is the Third Estate'. The representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for the whole French nation.

Additional Information

• Emmanuel-Joseph Sieyès, usually known as the Abbé Sieyès, was a French Roman Catholic abbé, clergyman, and political writer who was the chief political theorist of the French Revolution; he also held offices in the governments of the French Consulate and the First French Empire.
• Georges Jacques Danton was a French lawyer and a leading figure in the French Revolution. He became a deputy to the Paris Commune, presided in the Cordeliers district, and visited the Jacobin club. In August 1792 he became French Minister of Justice and was responsible for inciting the September Massacres.
• Jean-Paul Marat was a French political theorist, physician, and scientist. A journalist and politician during the French Revolution, he was a vigorous defender of the sans-culottes, a radical voice, and published his views in pamphlets, placards, and newspapers.

The correct answer is A, B, and D only 

Key Points

• Women started their own political clubs in order to discuss and voice their interests.
• About sixty women’s clubs came up in different French cities.
• The Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was the most famous of them. One of their main demands was that women enjoy the same political rights as men.
• Together with the creation of state schools, schooling was made compulsory for all girls.
• Divorce was made legal, and could be applied for by both women and men.
• Women could now train for jobs, could become artists, or run small businesses.

Thus, French women experienced a revolution and changes in their lives around the late 18th century which was About sixty women’s clubs that came up in different French cities, Women could now train for jobs,  and schooling was made compulsory for all girls. 

Additional Information

• The French Constitution of 1791 was the first written constitution in France, created after the collapse of the absolute monarchy of the Ancien Régime.
• One of the basic precepts of the French Revolution was adopting constitutionality and establishing popular sovereignty.
• As the Constitution of 1791 gave political rights only to the richer sections of society.
• Political clubs were formed by people who wished to discuss government policies and plan their own forms of action. The most successful of these clubs was that of the Jacobins, which got its name from the former convent of St Jacob in Paris.

The correct answer is A, B, and D.

Key Points

• Many Mughal paintings show princes and emperors enjoying a hunt.
• In India, hunting tigers and other animals had been part of the culture of the court and nobility for centuries.
• But under colonial rule, the scale of hunting increased to such an extent that various species became almost extinct.
• The British saw large animals as signs of a wild, primitive and savage society.
• They believed that by killing dangerous animals the British would civilize India.
• They gave rewards for the killing of tigers, wolves, and other large animals on the grounds that they posed a threat to cultivators.
• 0ver 80,000 tigers, 150,000 leopards, and 200,000 wolves were killed for reward in the period 1875-1925.
• Gradually, the tiger came to be seen as a sporting trophy.

Thus,  the disappearance of a large scale of 'big game' in India under colonial rule due to The British saw large animals as signs of a wild, primitive and savage society, The British believed that by killing dangerous animals, they would civilize India and The scale of hunting increased to such an extent that various species became almost extinct.

Additional Information

• Baigas are a forest community in Central India.
• Verrier Elwin visited their land because he was very curious about them. He wanted to know their customs, and practices, their art, and folklore.
• The songs that he recorded lamented the hard time the Baigas were having under British rule.
• The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism in India and claimed forests in India.
• The 1865 act was a precursor to the Forest Act of 1878, which truncated the centuries-old traditional use by communities of their forests and secured the colonial governments' control over the forestry.

The correct answer is D

This is a textbook and it is a secondary source because it contains information collated and interpreted from different primary sources, like census reports and historical documents, to explain a historical concept or event. It provides commentary, analysis, or critique of the historical period of Colonial India.

Key Points

• Primary data is the data that is collected for the first time through personal experiences or evidence, particularly for research.
• It is also described as raw data or first-hand information.
• The mode of assembling the information is costly, as the analysis is done by an agency or an external organisation, and needs human resources and investment.
• The investigator supervises and controls the data collection process directly.
• The data is mostly collected through observations, physical testing, mailed questionnaires, surveys, personal interviews, telephonic interviews, case studies, and focus groups, etc.
• Secondary data is a second-hand data that is already collected and recorded by some researchers for their purpose, and not for the current research problem.
• It is accessible in the form of data collected from different sources such as government publications, censuses, internal records of the organisation, books, journal articles, websites and reports, etc. Thus, D is correct.
• This method of gathering data is affordable, readily available, and saves cost and time.
• However, the one disadvantage is that the information assembled is for some other purpose and may not meet the present research purpose or may not be accurate.

 

Additional Information

• 1931 Census report - It's a document that was generated during the colonial period and provides first-hand raw data about that time.
• Rokeya Hossain’s Sultana’s Dream - It's a piece of literature written in the colonial period which reflects the socio-cultural milieu of those times.
• Record of registration of births and deaths under Lord Cornwallis - Like the census, it's a historical document providing first-hand data from the colonial era.

The correct answer is the possibility of a workers’ state firing people’s imagination across the world.

Key Points

• The global impact of the Russian Revolution was that the Bolshevik Revolution helped spread socialist and communist ideas around the world.
• Communist governments were established in many European countries.
• This gave the world a new economic system which is known as socialism.
• Existing socialist parties in Europe did not wholly approve of the way the Bolsheviks took power – and kept it.
• However, the possibility of a workers’ state fired people’s imagination across the world.
• In many countries, communist parties were formed – like the Communist Party of Great Britain.
• The Bolsheviks encouraged colonial peoples to follow their experiment.

Thus, True in the context of the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR is the possibility of a workers’ state firing people’s imagination across the world.

Additional Information

• The Conference of the Peoples of the East was a multinational conference held in September 1920 by the Communist International in Baku, Azerbaijan.
• Congress adopted a resolution "On Party Unity," which effectively and immediately dissolved all party factions. Lenin also introduced “On the Syndicalist and Anarchist Deviation in our Party”, which the Congress also adopted.
• The Comintern was founded at a Congress held in Moscow on 2–6 March 1919.
• It opened with a tribute to Karl Liebknecht and Rosa Luxemburg, recently murdered by the Freikorps during the Spartakus Uprising, against the backdrop of the Russian Civil War.

The correct answer is A, B, and D only.

Key Points

• The movement known as Luddism (1811-17), led by the charismatic General Ned Ludd, exemplified another type of protest.
• Luddism was not merely a backward-looking assault on machines.
• Its participants demanded a minimum wage.
• Control over the labor of women and children
• Work for those who had lost their jobs because of the coming of machinery,
• The right to form trade unions so that they could legally present these demands.
• Ned Ludd was an English textile worker who lived in the late 18th century. He is best known for leading a series of protests against the introduction of mechanized looms into British factories, which he believed were destroying traditional forms of labor.
• 

Additional Information

Thus, Luddism's demands were Control over the Labour of Women and Children. Work for those who had lost their jobs due to machines. And the right to form Trade Unions.

• The Peterloo Massacre took place at St Peter's Field, Manchester, Lancashire, England, on Monday 16 August 1819. Fifteen people died when cavalry charged into a crowd of around 60,000 people who had gathered to demand the reform of parliamentary representation.
• The Factories Act 1847, also known as the Ten Hours Act was a United Kingdom Act of Parliament that restricted the working hours of women and young persons (13-18) in textile mills to 10 hours per day.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Someone who acted as both a moneylender and a trader.

Key Points

• A Sahukar was someone who acted as both a moneylender and a trader.
• In the 17th and 18th centuries, Gujrati and Marwari Baniyas started migrating to Deccani villages and became money lenders here.
• Unlike rural Baniyas these Sahukars were big businessmen, who gave loans to village community as a whole and exploited them.
• Rentier: A person who lived on rental income.
• Dewani: The Revenue department of state.
• Permanent Settlement: Land revenue system introduced by Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal.

Thus, Shaukar is Someone who acted as both a moneylender and a trader.

Additional Information

• Paharis often attacked the plains where the settled agriculturists lived. Their attacks were a way of asserting power over the settled groups so they could move ahead smoothly.
• Lord Cornwallis established the police force, which was regarded as one of the most popular aspects of British authority.
• Traders, moneylenders, missionaries, Hindu landlords, and the British were the outsiders being referred to as dikus.

The correct answer is B only.

Key Points

• The idea of satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
• It suggested that if the cause was true**, if the struggle was against injustice, then the physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.**
• Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a Satyagrahi could win the battle through nonviolence.
• This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor. People – including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the truth, instead of being forced to accept the truth through the use of violence.
• Through this struggle, the truth was bound to ultimately triumph.
• Mahatma Gandhi believed that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.

Thus, As a Gandhian, if you were to practice the idea of 'Satyagraha', you would emphasize Appealing to the conscience of the oppressor. 

Additional Information

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi in India and is considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer's uprising that took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, India, during the British colonial period.
• Ahemdabad Mill strike:  Gandhi used Satyagraha and hunger strike for the first time during an industrial dispute between the owners and workers of a cotton mill in Ahmedabad. The owners wanted to withdraw the plague bonus to the workers while the workers were demanding a hike of 35% in their wages.
• The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was a satyagraha movement in the Kheda district of Gujarat in India organized by Mahatma Gandhi during the period of the British Raj. It was a major revolt in the Indian independence movement. It was the third Satyagraha movement, which was launched 4 days after the Ahmedabad mill strike.

The Correct Answer is B, C, and D only.

Key Points

​During the colonial period in India, the British introduced scientific methods of forestry management and began to regulate the use of forests. While the British claimed that their forestry policies were aimed at conservation and the preservation of natural resources, the effects of colonial forestry in India were far-reaching and often detrimental to the local communities and ecosystems.

• B. Supply of captive labour for forest operations -
• One of the effects of colonial forestry in India was the use of forced labor to carry out forestry operations.
• The British recruited laborers from local communities to work in their forest plantations, often under inhumane conditions.
• The use of forced labor led to the exploitation and oppression of local communities, who were often subjected to violence and abuse by the British authorities.
• C. Scientific cultivation of certain species of trees -
• The British introduced new species of trees, such as teak, which were highly valued for their timber.
• They also developed scientific methods of forestry management, which included the establishment of nurseries and the use of selective logging.
• While these methods were aimed at increasing timber production, they often led to the degradation of forest ecosystems and the loss of biodiversity.
• D. Promotion of grazing, hunting, fishing and exploitation of forests -
• The British encouraged the exploitation of forests for commercial purposes such as grazing, hunting, and fishing.
• This led to the displacement of local communities who relied on the forests for their livelihoods and the degradation of forest ecosystems.
• The British also used forests for military purposes, such as the construction of railways and roads, which further contributed to the destruction of forests and the displacement of local communities.

In conclusion, the effects of colonial forestry in India were complex and often detrimental to the local communities and ecosystems. While the British claimed that their forestry policies were aimed at conservation and the preservation of natural resources, the reality was that they were more interested in exploiting the natural resources of India for their own economic gain.

The correct answer is Decentralised planning was introduced.

Key Points

• Steps taken by the Bolshevik government toward the establishment of a socialist society ​are:
• The Bolsheviks kept industries and banks nationalized.
• A process of centralized planning was introduced.
• An extended schooling system was developed and arrangements were made for factory workers and peasants to enter universities.
• They permitted peasants to cultivate the land that had been confiscated. The Bolsheviks confiscated lands to demonstrate the power of socialism.

Thus, the odd one in the Steps taken by the Bolshevik government toward the establishment of a socialist society is Decentralised planning was introduced.

Additional Information

• In the Soviet Union the First five-year plan (1928–32), implemented by Joseph Stalin, concentrated on developing heavy industry and collectivizing agriculture, at the cost of a drastic fall in consumer goods. The second Five-Year Plan (1933–37) continued the objectives of the first.
• The first five year plan was created in order to initiate rapid and large-scale industrialization across the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR). Having begun on October 1st, 1928, the plan was already in its second year when Harry Byers first set foot in the Soviet Union.
• Although many of the goals set by the plan were not fully met, there were several economic sectors that still saw large increases in their output. Areas like capital goods increased by 158%, consumer goods increased by 87%, and total industrial output increased by 118%.

The correct answer is A, B, and D only.

Key Points

• In 1919 Adolph Hitler took over the German Workers’ Party and called it the Nazi Party, giving birth to Nazism in Germany.
• Major principles were Having a one-party rule with a strong leader, Any opponent or critic to be subdued or brutally dealt with.
• The state is supreme and all citizens should readily submit to enhance the power of the State.

Thus, features of Nazi thinking are One party rules under the authority of a capable ruler. Any opponent or critic should be systematically purged. and State is supreme and all citizens should readily submit to enhance the power of the State.

Additional Information

• Three main foreign policies of Hitler were: 
• To prepare for the war, German foreign policy sought to undo the Treaty of Versailles, build alliances, and incorporate territories with German populations into the Reich.
• During the war, German foreign policy sought the cooperation of European states in achieving the Nazi goal of murdering the Jews in Europe.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

• It was Gandhiji's dream to clothe the whole nation in Khadi. He felt khadi would be a means of erasing differences between religions, classes, etc.
• But it was not possible for some to follow in his footsteps. Some others did not find it necessary.
• Khadi, was not just a homespun cloth but a revolutionary idea. Khadi, for him, was symbolic of Indian self-respect and self-reliance.
• Peter Gonsalves argues in his book Clothing for Liberation that khadi was used by Gandhiji less as a garment and more as a message to both Indians and the British.
• This epoch-making decision was taken by Gandhiji in Madurai after he decided that he has to work for and with the poor people of India and how can he identify with them if he wears different clothes from theirs.

Thus,Gandhiji's dream to clothe the whole nation in Khadi. He felt khadi would be a means of erasing differences between religions, classes, etc.

Additional Information

• Rowlatt Satyagraha: This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council which gave them the power to arrest any person without any trial. To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of work) to show Indians' objection to this rule, called the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
• Salt March or Dandi March was a 24-day non-violent march led by Mahatma Gandhi. New Delhi: On March 12, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi embarked a historic Salt March from Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat's Ahmedabad to the village of Dandi in the state's coastal area to protest against the steep tax the British levied on salt.
• The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Kranti Movement, was a movement launched at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 8th August 1942, during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.

The correct answer is Gangadhar Nehru.

Key Points

• The introduction to Motilal Nehru's collected works states that “ Gangadhar Nehru held the position of kotwal of Delhi when the Uprising of 1857 erupted”.

Thus, Gangadhar Nehru was the Kotwal of Delhi before the Revolt of 1857.

Additional Information

• Mahavir Singh Rathore was an Indian revolutionary and independence fighter in the 1930s. Singh was a member of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha. He helped in the escape of Bhagat Singh, Batukeshwar Dutt, and Durgawati Devi from Mozang House in Lahore.
• Tantia Tope, also spelled Tatya Tope or Tantia Topi, original name Ramchandra Panduranga, (born c. 1813–19, Pune, India—died April 18, 1859, Shivpuri), a leader of the Indian Mutiny of 1857–58. Although he had no formal military training, he was probably the best and most effective of the rebels' generals.
• Jamna Das Thakur Das established an anti-non-cooperation movement assembly. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in August 1920 by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi after the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. It was the first nationwide mass movement that was launched to resist British rule in India through non-violent means.

The correct answer is A, C and D only

Key Points

• HSRA was founded by Ram Prasad Bismil and other important figures associated with HSRA are Chandrasekhar Azad, Ashfaqulla Khan, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, Jatin das, Ajay Ghosh.
• The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was established in 1928.
• Revolutionaries like Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev were present at the meeting, held at the Feroz Shah Kotla ground in Delhi, during the establishment of the organisation

Thus,  the leaders of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) were  Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh.

Additional Information

• Bhagat Singh was involved in two high-profile plots against British authorities in India that helped galvanize the Indian independence movement. In 1928 he took part in a plot to kill the police chief responsible for the death of influential Indian writer and politician Lala Lajpat Rai.
• Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist whose defiance of British authority in India made him a hero among Indians, but his wartime alliances with Nazi Germany and Imperial Japan left a legacy vexed by authoritarianism, anti-Semitism, and military failure.
• Rabindranath Tagore, the Noble laureate gave the title of 'Desh Nayak' to Subhash Chandra Bose in recognition of his service to the nation and its people.
• Jatin Das was an Indian independence activist and revolutionary who worked to make India independent from the British Raj and was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association. He died in the Lahore Central Jail after a 63-day hunger strike.

The correct answer is Jotedars.

Key Points

• During the early nineteen century, a new class of rich peasants known as Jotedars emerged in the Bengal region.
• In Francis Buchanan’s survey of the Dinajpur district in North Bengal, we have a vivid description of this class of rich peasants known as Jotedars.
• The Jotedars collected huge tracts of land in rural areas. They also controlled the local markets, money lending activities, exercised control over the poor cultivators

Thus, Rich peasants in North Bengal were known as Jotedars.

Additional Information

• Bhagadars: The large agricultural areas under the Jotedars were cultivated through sharecroppers (also known as Bhagadars), who handed over half of the crop after the harvest to the Jotedars.
• The Deccan Riots of 1875 targeted conditions of debt peonage (kamiuti) to moneylenders. The rioters' specific purpose was to obtain and destroy the bonds, decrees, and other documents in the possession of the moneylenders. The peasants began a systematic attack on the moneylenders' houses and shops.
• The Tebhaga movement was led by the sharecroppers of the Bengal region against the oppressive Jotedars in 1946-47.

The Correct Answer isChitemene.

Key Points 

• In India, swidden agriculture is known by different names such as jhum, dhya, penda, bewar, nevad, podu, khandad and kumri
• kumeri cultivation
• Slash and burn or shifting cultivation is an age-old farming practice locally known as kumeri.
• Family members or a group of villagers clear a patch of natural forest of all plants, shrubs, bushes, and trees which are then burnt on the land to provide natural manure.
• In India, this primitive form of cultivation is called 'Bewar' or 'Dahiya' in Madhya Pradesh, 'Podu' or 'Penda' in Andhra Pradesh, 'Pama Dabi' or 'Koman' or Bringa' in Odisha, 'Kumari' in Western Ghats, 'Valre' or 'Waltre' in South-eastern Rajasthan, 'Khil' in the Himalayan belt, 'Kuruwa' in Jharkhand, and 'Jhumming'.

Additional Information 

• Farming are three types:-
• Subsistence farming. Subsistence farming is described as family farming because it meets the needs of the farmer's family.
• Commercial Farming. In this farming, crops are growing for sale in the market.
• Home Farming:- Home farming includes terrace farming and gardening.

The correct answer is Louis Fischer.

Key Points

• Gandhi's biographer Louis Fischer wrote that the Non-Cooperation Movement became an epoch in the life of India and Gandhiji.
• Louis Fischer was an American journalist. Among his works was a contribution to the ex-communist treatise The God that Failed, The Life of Mahatma Gandhi, the basis for the Academy Award-winning film Gandhi, as well as Life of Lenin, which won the 1965 National Book Award in History and Biography.

Thus, Gandhi's biographer Louis Fischer wrote that the Non-Cooperation Movement became an epoch in the life of India and Gandhiji.

Additional Information

• C.N. Broomfield.: During the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of Indians were put in jail. Gandhiji was also arrested in March 1922, and charged with sedition. The judge who presided over his trial was Justice C.N. Broomfield.
• Sarvepalli Gopal was a well-known Indian historian. He was the son of Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, the first Vice-President and the second President of India. He was the author of Radhakrishnan: A Biography and Jawaharlal Nehru: A Biography.
• Francis Robert Moraes was editor of many prominent newspapers in post-Independence India, including The Times of India and The Indian Express.

The correct answer is Awadh.

Key Points

• Lord Dalhousie described the kingdom of Awadh as "a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day". He said this in 1851. In 1856, the kingdom was formally annexed to the British Empire.
• On 7th February 1856, Lord Dalhousie ordered to depose Wajid Ali Shah on the account of alleged internal misrule.
• This was in line with Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse, in which the British would take over a kingdom if there was misrule also. The Kingdom of Awadh was annexed in February 1856.

Thus, Lord Dalhousie described, “A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day" for the Awadh kingdom.

Additional Information

• Jhansi was an independent princely state ruled by the Maratha Newalkar dynasty under the suzerainty of British India from 1804 till 1853, when the British authorities took over the state under the terms of the doctrine of lapse., and renamed it the Jhansi State.
• The Kingdom of Nagpur was an Indian kingdom in the 18th and 19th centuries. It came under the rule of the Marathas of the Bhonsle dynasty in the mid-18th century and became part of the Maratha Empire. The city of Nagpur was the capital of the state.
• Sambalpur: The state was placed under British administration from 1818 to 1820 when the local rule was restored and the principality became a British protectorate. When the ruler or the state died without a direct male heir in 1849, the British seized the state under the doctrine of lapse.

The correct answer is option 4

Key Points

• Elected representatives of the people rule and these representatives have the power of making final decisions.
• Elections are conducted in a free and fair atmosphere;
• The adult franchise is provided and every vote has equal value;
• Fundamental Rights and freedom of the people are protected
• Demokratie, which can be translated as "power of the people," is a form of government that is based on popular will.
• The word democracy is derived from the Greek words "demos," which means "people," and "kratos," which means "power."
• Democracy entails popular government. The phrase is derived from the Greek words "demos" (the people) and "kratos" (to rule).
• A democratic nation has a form of government where citizens have the authority to influence policy. Each democracy is unique and works in different ways.
• Some common features of democracy are:
• Respect for fundamental human rights,
• Political tolerance and a multiparty system,
• Democratic voting process,
• Respect for the law,
• Democratic government, and
• Participation of citizens.

Additional Information

• Direct democracy and indirect democracy are the two basic types of democracy.
• People can directly decide on policies under a direct democracy.
• In an indirect democracy, citizens cast ballots to choose their representatives, who then enact laws and make policy decisions.
• The United States and India are two instances of indirect democracies.
• A prime example of direct democracy is Switzerland.
• The more typical type of democracy is indirect democracy.

The Correct Answer is B and D.

Key Points

• Girdawari consists of the record of land agriculture.
• Khatauni is the record of land (all types of land).
• Khatauni can be called a book with different accounts of different areas, Khatauni is a very useful document by which the status and complete details of any area can be obtained from Patwari.
• Jamabandi is a document that includes the Record of Rights as well as records of cultivation, and ownership.
• Panchnama of the land is tantamount to taking physical possession of the land.

Additional Information

• If a farmer wants a loan from a bank to dig a well in his land, he has to show the land record to prove that the land belongs to him. Moreover, these records are also essential for the buying and selling of their property and the division of it among his children.
• Land records must be systematized in order to provide landowners with a user-friendly service. Most importantly, proper titling of land records prevents the use of bogus and fraudulent land papers.

The correct answer is Any MP

Key Points

• Members of the Indian Parliament, or MP, is a term used in India. They are chosen by the general public. They then join the Indian Parliament and help to establish the government.
• Members of Parliament are referred to as MPs in India. In the union government, they are recognized as directly and indirectly elected representatives of the nation. MPs, or Members of Parliament, refer to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.
• All Indian citizens have the right to free speech under our constitution, subject to reasonable limitations under Article 19, but the speech of members of parliament and other legislative bodies is specifically protected under Articles 105 and 194 as a parliamentary privilege, subject only to provisions of the constitution and the rules of such a legislative body.
• Any vote or speech made in Parliament is not punishable "in conjunction with" the actions of any MP.
• Attorney General has the right to take part in parliamentary proceedings but is not allowed to cast a vote. As for the rights to participate in Parliament, the Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor General do not have them.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• When a society is aware of the diversity and inequality inherent in its system of social values and culture, it demands that the government helps in improving the condition. Such methods include affirmative action policies, income redistribution, welfare programmes, financial inclusion, subsidies, etc.
• In order to enhance the representation of certain groups in fields where they are underrepresented, such as education and employment, affirmative action refers to a collection of policies and practises used by a government or organisation.
• Affirmative action policies can range from having a strict quota to just encouraging greater participation. Their nature differs from region to region. Support for affirmative action has historically and worldwide aimed to achieve objectives like addressing income and employment disparities, expanding educational opportunities, fostering diversity, and redressing ostensible past wrongs, harms, or obstacles.
• Issues Concerning Affirmative Action's Implementation
• Legislative representation's level of quality
• Less people are participating in parliamentary procedures, according to studies.
• Data on issues pertaining to justice indicated that they were the target of discrimination.
• Reservation policies have no time restrictions.

The correct answer is BJP - Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty).

Key Points

• Shrimati Indira Gandhi coined the phrase "Garibi Hatao". Garibi Hatao served as the theme and campaign anthem for Congress candidate Indira Gandhi's 1971 election campaign.
• The complete sentence was used: Garibi Hatao Desh Bachao ("Remove poverty, rescue the country").
• The phrase was introduced by D.D. Dhar and was a part of the Fifth Five-Year Plan.
• The slogan advocated anti-poverty initiatives to provide Indira Gandhi with autonomous national support based on rural and urban poor.
• It was a part of the 5th Five-Year Plan and was initiated by D.D. Dhar with the intention of achieving two major objectives: "removing poverty (Garibi Hatao)" and "achieving self-reliance," through the promotion of a high growth rate, improved income distribution, and very significant growth in the domestic savings rate.
• India's Fifth Five-Year Plan was designed by the Indira Gandhi administration (1974–1979). Agriculture, eradicating poverty, and generating jobs were given priority. The programme also attempted to reduce social and economic inequalities in society.

The correct answer is Representative democracy.

Key Points

• A democratic system in which voters elect their representatives and thereby indirectly participate in decision-making is referred to as a representative democracy.
• As a result, indirect democracy is another name for representative democracy. Meeting together, the people's elected representatives decide on their behalf. India operates as a representative democracy (a federal parliamentary republic).
• Approximately 60% of the world's nations are representative democracies, including India, the United States, the United Kingdom, and France (unitary states) (federal parliamentary republic).
• Our primary institutions, policies, events, and debates are examples of three forms of representational democracy: participatory, pluralist, and elite.
• Indirect democracy is another name for representative democracy. Any system where the public's interests are decided upon via intermediaries, such as representatives, is considered an indirect democracy. In a direct democracy, the results of referendums that establish the law determine the government's policies and laws.

The correct answer is This writ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing his/her legal duty.

Key Points

• We command is the exact meaning of this writ. Using this writ, the court might direct a public employee who has neglected or refused to carry out his duties to get back to work.
• In addition to public officials, a mandamus may be granted for the same reason against any public organisation, business, inferior court, tribunal, or government.
• Both the Articles 32 and 226 provide five types of writs namely writ of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, Habeas Corpus, a Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual in India.
• In the following circumstances, a mandate cannot be issued:
• To implement departmental directives without formal authority
• Forcing someone to work when the employment is optional and not required
• To make a contract's terms enforceable
• Mandamus cannot be granted against the Chief Justice of a High Court functioning in a judicial capacity, the Indian President, or State Governors.
• A person in good faith who has an interest in the public authority doing its duties must file a writ petition for mandamus. The person requesting mandamus must have a legal basis for doing so and must have demanded that the duty be performed but been rejected by the authority.

Additional Information

• Writs are written orders issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court directing Indian citizens to pursue constitutional remedies in the event that their basic rights have been violated.
• In accordance with Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, a citizen of India may petition the Supreme Court of India and the High Court for constitutional remedies if his or her fundamental rights have been violated.
• The Supreme Court has the authority to issue writs to enforce rights under the same article, whereas the High Court has the same authority under Article 226.
• The Indian Supreme Court is the guardian of the people's fundamental rights. It possesses unique and extensive powers for that. It issues five different types of writs to enforce citizens' fundamental rights. The five categories of writs are:
• Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto

The correct answer is 91th Amendment Act, 2002.

Key Points

• Clause 1A of Article 164, which states that "the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State should not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State," was added by the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act of 2003.
• Additionally, it stipulated that a State must have a minimum of twelve Ministers, including the Chief Minister.
• Similar changes were made in accordance with Article 75.
• According to it, the President shall appoint the Prime Minister, and the President shall appoint the other Ministers, on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
• ​A maximum of 15% of the Lok Sabha's total membership, including the Prime Minister, may serve as ministers in the COM. The 91st Amendment was passed to stop bloated Cabinets and the ensuing drain on the public coffers.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• Article 80 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of the Rajya Sabha.
• The maximum number of members of the Rajya Sabha can be 250, but at present, this number is 245.
• Of these, 12 members are nominated by the President from the fields related to literature, science, arts, and social service.
• The inaugural session of the Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, was convened on May 13, 1952, after the Upper House of Parliament was established on April 3, 1952.
• Since then, it has made numerous contributions to the nation's welfare and advancement. In the Indian Federation, the Lok Sabha reflects the voice of the people directly, whilst the Rajya Sabha represents the voice of the states in India's legislative structure.
• The states and union territories of the Indian Union are represented in the Upper House, often known as the Second Chamber or House of Elders.
• Since it is never completely disbanded, the Rajya Sabha is known as the permanent House of the Parliament.
• The distribution of Rajya Sabha seats to the states and UTs is covered under the IV Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• State-Related Powers of the Rajya Sabha:
• The States are represented in the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, it must be consulted before making any decisions that have an impact on the States.
• The Rajya Sabha must approve any removal or transfer of a topic from the State list requested by the Union Parliament.
• It may permit the creation of new All-India Services by the Parliament that are available to both the Center and the States (Article 312).
• When a proclamation is made by the President to declare a national emergency, president's rule, or financial emergency when the Lok Sabha has already been dissolved or when the dissolution occurs within the time frame allotted for its approval, the proclamation will still be valid even if it has only received the Rajya Sabha's approval (Articles 352, 356 and 360).

The correct answer is (A) is true and (B) is false

Key Points

• In India, "the right to vote" is guaranteed under the Constitution.
• Constitutional rights are those that are guaranteed by the Indian Constitution and granted to Indian people but do not fall under the purview of Part III.
• In accordance with Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, everyone has the right to vote. For each citizen to use this particular right, they must be at least 18 years old. India's inhabitants were granted full voting rights in 1950 under the 'Universal Suffrage' idea.
• The voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was lowered from 21 to 18 years old by the 61st Constitutional Amendment of 1988.
• Constitutional rights, in contrast to Fundamental rights, do not apply to everyone. They are relevant for specific reasons.
• Any law that appears to be inconsistent with constitutional rights is ruled to be void.
• Fundamental rights are the fundamental freedoms that every citizen is entitled to under the Constitution, regardless of caste, creed, religion, sex, or place of birth. Foreigners are however included in several Fundamental Rights.

The correct answer is Indian National Congress.

The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled

Key Points

• The first general elections in the nation were held between October 1951 and February 1952. The members of the provincial assemblies used a single transferable vote system of proportional representation to elect the constituent assembly members.
• The general elections in 1951 and 1952, however, were held under the principles of universal adult suffrage. Anyone who was at least 21 years old may vote at that time.
• In the first election, there were around 17.3 crore voters. There was a 45% turnout. 53 political parties competed for the 489 seats that were up for election.
• 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes cast were won by the Indian National Congress (INC), who also won the election quickly.
• Jawaharlal Nehru was the nation's first prime minister to be chosen democratically. The INC's significant contribution to India's independence was a key factor in its overwhelming triumph over all other regional parties.
• The Indian National Congress emerged as the largest opposition group. The Communist Party of India.

Additional Information

• Syama Prasad Mookerji, who served as Nehru's minister of industries, split off just before the first elections to found the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, a forerunner of the BJP, to represent the Hindu right wing.
• The Scheduled Caste Federation, which eventually became the Republican Party of India, was founded by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
• J B (Acharya) Kriplani, a prominent Congressman, created the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party.
• The driving forces behind the Socialist Party were Ram Manohar Lohia and J P Narayan.
• And after just giving up an armed conflict in Telangana, the communists (then united) also ran for 49 seats.
• Back then, there was no custom of an opposition leader. Four times as many votes went to the Congress than to its nearest rival. However, India elected 47 independents to 38 seats.
• In Bombay (reserved seat), Congress candidate Narayan Sadoba Kajrolkar defeated Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
• In 1953, Kakasaheb Kalelkar—who was also an MP—became the chairman of India's First Backward Classes Commission, which was the forerunner to the Mandal Commission.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• In terms of the fall in Congress's power, the 1967 elections were very different from those held in the past. In the majority of the states, Congress was able to win a majority and form a government on its own in the previous elections conducted in 1951, 1956, and 1961.
• Additionally, Congress dominated the central legislative assembly. India began a large-scale green revolution in agriculture in the 1960s in an effort to achieve food security.
• Due to this, middle caste peasants like Yadav, Jats, and Reddys—who make up the majority of these neo-rich peasants—have grown in number.
• Because of increased economic success, these middle caste farmers established themselves as the dominant castes in their particular areas and began significantly impacting Indian politics.
• In the 1967 elections, Congress was unable to win a majority in several states, leading to the creation of coalition governments in many of those states amongst other parties.
• As a result, political defections and horse trading increased in India, causing the country's political climate to become more unstable. In order to stop this threat, the Anti-Defection Law was passed and included to the Tenth Schedule.
• The 1967 elections also marked the beginning of the short-lived coalition government era and the politics of defection:
• Though the elections ended the monopoly of power held by the Congress in the states, Congress was not replaced by a single party in any of the states, but rather by a variety of parties, groups, and independents
• Coalition governments were established in all states ruled by the Opposition, with the exception of Tamil Nadu. The Left-Right or Secular-Communal divides were almost entirely bridged in the Opposition governments in Punjab, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh, which included Swatantra, the Jan Sangh, BKD, Socialists, and the CPI.
• Congress also formed coalition governments in some of the states where it had been reduced to a minority, teaming up with independents and breakaway groups from the Opposition parties.
• In several states where it had been reduced to a minority, Congress also established coalition administrations by joining forces with independents and breakaway factions from the Opposition parties. alliances with independents and breakaway factions from the Opposition parties to form ition administrations in some of the states where it had been reduced to a minority.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• Syria is a West Asian nation that has borders with Turkey, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, and Israel. The Mediterranean Sea is located to the west of its shoreline as well. Hence Statement A is incorrect.
• Syria is also home to a variety of ethnic and religious groups, with Arabs making up the majority, including Turkmen, Kurds, Assyrians, Circassians, Armenians, Greeks, and Mandaeans. Sunnis, Alawis, Shiites, Christians, Jews, Mandaeans, Druze, Salafis, Ismailis, and Yazidis are among the several religious communities in Syria. Sunni Muslims make up the largest religious community.
• In the past, the term "Syria" referred to a region that included the Levantine areas of the ancient world. Syria as it exists today contains remnants of numerous historical kingdoms and civilizations. The capital city of Syria, Damascus, and another city, Aleppo, are among the oldest continually inhabited cities in the world.
• Syria is also referred to as "Al Sham" in Arabic. When Syria became a founding member of the UN in 1945, it established itself as a parliamentary republic.
• After centuries of Ottoman rule in the area, this brought an end to the French mandate.
• Following a Ba'athist coup d'état in 1963, the Ba'ath Party has continued to hold onto power. The nation was in a state of emergency from 1963 to 2011, which meant that its residents lacked constitutional guarantees.

Additional Information Currently, Syria's government:

• A unitary republic is Syria.
• It is the only nation that publicly supports Ba'athism.
• Ba'athism is centred on the ideals of socioeconomic progress as well as Arab nationalism, pan-Arabism, and Arab socialism. Generally speaking, it is a secular ideology.
• Hence Statement B is correct.
• Syria has been ruled by the Ba'ath Party since 1963.
• Bashar al-Assad, who has been president of Syria since 2000, is the current leader of the country.
• Hafez al-Assad, who served as president from 1971 to 2000, was followed by him.
• The Syrian government has come under fire for operating like a personalist dictatorship.
• The Ba'athist regime has been charged with oppression, especially of the free press and political opponents.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• Democracy is a system of government in which people directly exercise their authority or do so through elected officials who serve as the ruling body.
• A democratic government, in theory, upholds democracy as a fundamental principle of government. People control the government in such a political system, either directly or through representatives they elect.
• Through elected officials or directly, democracy enables everyone to participate equally in the creation, development, and implementation of laws. It speaks of the social, economic, and cultural circumstances that permit the equal and free exercise of political self-determination.
• It is typically linked to a neoliberal economic system that favours a select few at the expense of the many, eventually becoming neo-liberal.
• The Democratic Government Has Four Fundamental Elements:
• The form of governance where representatives are chosen and removed through a transparent election process.
• Political and civic life is actively participated in by citizens.
• All citizens are treated equally under the law.
• All citizens' human rights must be safeguarded.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• Constituencies that reserve seats for members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are referred to as reserved constituencies. Based on their population density in designated constituencies, seats are set aside for the socially disadvantaged.
• The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, as well as other members of the weaker segments of society, may lack the connections, credentials, and other resources needed to win elections.
• Their ability to participate in national politics is made possible in large part by reserved constituencies. The use of reserved constituencies in particular locations is decided by governmental entities that keep track of the election circumstances in a particular area.
• This idea's major objective is to set aside a particular constituency for candidates who fall under the SC or ST classifications. In this constituency, no candidates from the general category may run.
• The Delimitation Commission, an impartial organisation, decides which constituencies are reserved. The Election Commission of India collaborates with the Commission, which is appointed by the Indian President.
• Its goal is to map out the boundaries of each constituency across the nation. Depending on the percentage of SC or ST residents in a state, that state has a certain number of constituencies.
• The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are given seats reserved in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies under the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is (A) is false but (B) is true.

Key Points

• To encourage more young people to vote in the nation's elections, a proposal to lower the voting age to 18 years old was made. In our nation, 18 is required to register to vote.
• The right to vote is guaranteed to every person who is at least 18 years old.
• The Rajya Sabha enacted the 61st Amendment Act on December 20, 1988, lowering the voting age from 21 to 18.
• Elections to the Houses and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of universal adult suffrage are covered in Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
• Before the 61st Amendment, the article stated that any Indian citizen who is 21 years of age or older and who is not barred from voting by any other grounds, such as non-residence, criminality, corrupt or illegal practises, or insanity, is eligible to do so.
• In addition to Section 62 of the RPA, 1951, which guarantees that everyone who is on the electoral roll of that constituency is eligible to vote, Article 326 of the Constitution (which guarantees the right to vote to every citizen over the age of 18 years, unless disqualified by any law) also guarantees this.
• In a certain election, one voter is only permitted to cast one vote in one constituency.
• Local self-government entails that institutions of local self-government, such as the Municipal Corporation, Municipalities, Gram Panchayats, etc., handle local matters such as the management of roads, provisions for sanitation, burial grounds, elementary and middle schools, etc. One requirement for running in local body elections is that the candidate be at least 21 years old.
• While the minimum voting age is 18 years old, the minimum age to run in State elections is 25 years old.

The correct answer is Both (I) and (II) are true.

Key PointsAccording to Article 33, 

• Parliament has the authority to change the rights granted by this Part, including how they are applied, etc.
• The extent to which any of the rights granted by this Part shall apply to members of the Armed Forces, members of the Forces responsible for maintaining public order, employees of any bureau or other organisation established by the State for intelligence or counterintelligence purposes, or employees of, or connected with, the telecommunication systems established for those purposes may be determined by law (c), be limited or revoked to ensure that they carry out their responsibilities properly and that there is discipline among them.

According to Article 34, 

• Restrictions on the rights granted by this section when martial law is in effect wherever it is,
• While maintaining or restoring order in any area of India's territory where martial law was in effect, regardless of what is stated in the preceding provisions of this Part,
• Parliament may by law indemnify any person serving the Union, a State, or any other person in respect of any act he performed there, as well as validate any judgement rendered, punishment meted out, forfeiture ordered, or other act carried out while martial law was in effect in such area.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• The Indian government launched the CDP, or Community Development Program, in 1952 to promote community development.
• The communities in rural areas were the main focus of community development programmes in India in the past. Nevertheless, a lot of social workers with formal training concentrated on metropolitan rather than rural communities.
• The Planning Commission in India has established the community development programme. They claim that it is an attempt to use their efforts to start and bring about economic and social transformation in the lives of the people.
• The CDP only lists the village-level economic and social rehabilitation initiatives that have the support of the local populace.
• There are three distinct phases to the CDP:
• National Extension Phase
• Phase of the Intensive Community Development Project for the Nation
• Phase following intensive development
• The selected areas are subjected to the manner of service provision based on the pattern of typical rural development in the first phase, known as the National Extension phase, and that too with less government spending.
• The second phase, known as the intensive phase, involves more intensive development plans that cost the government a lot more money and expose the chosen blocks to more thorough scrutiny.
• The third phase—a post-intensive phase—assumes that the groundwork for the process started for self-perpetuation was laid during the preceding phases, coupled with the decrease in the necessary costs of the special government.

The correct answer is  II and III.

Key Points

• M.N. Roy made the initial suggestion for a constituent assembly in 1934. The Cabinet Mission Plan served as the foundation for the actual constituent assembly, which was established in 1946.
• There were 389 members in the outset. The number was reduced to 299 after division when some members migrated to Pakistan. 229 of these were from the British provinces, and 70 came from princely kingdoms.
• The first interim leader of the Constituent Assembly was Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha. Later, Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was chosen as the vice president, and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president.
• The legal consultant was BN Rau. The assembly initially convened on December 9th, 1946.
• Jawaharlal Nehru moved the "Objective Resolution" on December 13th, 1946. The Constitution's Objective Resolution codified the goals and principles of the framers. This ensured social, economic, and political fairness, equality, and fundamental liberties for all Indians. The Preamble to the Constitution is based on this resolution, which was adopted by a unanimous vote on January 22, 1947.
• The song "Jana Gana Mana" was chosen as the country's anthem on January 24, 1950.
• 395 articles, 22 parts, and 8 schedules made up the final product. There had been 11 meetings of the assembly. The country's citizens were requested to provide their comments and suggestions within eight months after the draft's publication in January 1948.
• The last meeting took place from November 14 to November 26, 1949. The assembly approved and ratified the constitution on November 26, 1949.
• The constitution became operative on January 26, 1950. (which is celebrated as Republic Day).

The correct answer is 1948.

Key Points

• To develop Nepal's first constitution, Rana Prime Minister Padma Shamsher forms the Constitution Reform Committee in 1947. Experts on the Indian Constitution were invited.
• Padma Shamsher signed the Government of Nepal Constitution Act, 1948, which established the framework for a parliamentary system with a bicameral legislative body.
• The prime minister, who had the authority to veto any legislation that the legislature might enact, was to choose the whole membership of one house and the majority of the other.
• The Nepalese Constitution, which took effect in 2015 and replaced the Interim Constitution from 2007, governs Nepal.
• Maoist rebels, who fought a 10-year civil war that was finally settled in 2006 with a peace agreement, were the ones who first called for a new constitution.
• After the First Constituent Assembly was unsuccessful, the Second Constituent Assembly wrote the Constitution. In recent years, there has been a shift in the balance of power, but no faction has been able to advance the agenda with enough ideological and political clout.
• In 2015, the nation ratified the new post-monarchy Constitution. A lot of people from historically marginalised groups worry that the constitution will continue to be used against them.
• They worry that established parties, like as the Maoists, who are controlled by high-caste, primarily male, leaders, are hastening the changes.

Additional Information

• Redrawing federal boundaries has been demanded by the Madhesi, a minority tribe living in Nepal's Terai. They anticipate it to reflect the fact that minority groups, such as the Terai community people, now make up the majority in several new provinces. Additionally, the administration had started making adjustments that addressed Madhesi concerns in part.
• These include the designation of local languages as national ones and the creation of a federal commission to study the possibility of redrawing federal boundaries.
• However, the Madhesi parties, who are unyielding in their extreme demands, rejected these revisions. They have also been rejected by the opposition Communist Party of Nepal (Unified-Marxist-Leninist).
• The Madhesi parties and ethnic movements sought to redefine Nepali nationalism to make it more inclusive and federal since they believed that the country's problems were caused by an exclusive and unitary state. The drafting of the constitution is being severely hampered by these opposing viewpoints.

The correct answer is both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• Statement (A): Small and medium farmers provide the labour required for farming themselves.
• Labour is the most important factor which makes use of other factors to carry out production activities.
• Small and medium farmers, along with their families cultivate their own fields themselves.
• This helps them to save some money which otherwise would have to be paid as wages to farm labourers.

Thus, this statement is true.

• Statement (B): Large farmers hire farm labourers to work in their fields.
• Large farmers, who own large lands and money, hire farm labourers to work in their fields.
• Farm labourers are paid wages in cash or in kind by the farmers for whom they work.
• Wages paid to farm labourers vary from region to region, from crop to crop, and from one farm activity to another.

  Thus, this statement is also true.

On the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that small and medium farmers provide the labour required for farming themselves, whereas large farmers hire farm labourers to work in their fields.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

 

• Assertion (A): The colonial rule in India led to the development of infrastructures such as railways, ports, water transport, and post & telegraphs.
• This is true because the British colonial administration recognized the need for efficient transport and communication systems to facilitate the extraction of resources, trade, and administrative control.
• The British built railways to move raw materials like cotton and coal from the interiors of India to the ports for export to Britain.
• Ports were developed to handle the increased trade volume and to establish naval bases for security.
• Water transport was improved for better connectivity, and the post and telegraph systems were developed to enhance communication across the Indian subcontinent.
• Reason (R): The infrastructure built by the British helped people migrate from one region to another region for better prospects on a large scale.
• This is also true because the improved transportation and communication systems made it easier for people to move in search of jobs, education, and better living conditions.
• The development of railways, in particular, enabled large-scale migration and helped in the growth of cities and urban centers.
• The British initially built the infrastructure primarily for their own economic and political interests, but it did have the indirect effect of facilitating migration and mobility for the Indian population.

However, the primary reason behind the development of infrastructure by the British was not to help people migrate for better prospects. Instead, their main objective was to efficiently extract and transport resources from India to Britain, as well as to maintain better control over the Indian subcontinent. Therefore, while both (A) and (R) are true statements, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

The correct answer is a proportion of deposits that should be given to the Reserve Bank of India by commercial banks.

Key Points

• Cash reserve ratio
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the proportion of total deposits of commercial banks that they must keep as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India.
• In India, the cash reserve ratio is fixed by the RBI and is varied from time to time to regulate the money supply in the economy.
• An increase in the cash reserve ratio causes multiple times decrease in the credit creation capacity of commercial banks.
• A decrease in the cash reserve ratio causes a multiple times increase in the credit creation capacity of commercial banks.
• Reserve Bank of India raises the cash reserve ratio to correct inflation and lowers it to correct deflation.​

Additional Information

• The cash reserve ratio is one of the quantitative instruments of the monetary policy of India.
• The permissible range of cash reserve ratio ranges between 3 % to 15 %.
• At present, the cash reserve ratio is 4.50 % in India.

The correct answer is A is false but B is true.

Key Points

• The secondary sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India, replacing the primary sector.
• Over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all three sectors has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary sector.
• In any country, several services such as hospitals, educational institutions, police and defence services, courts, municipal corporations, transportation, banks, insurance companies, etc. are required as these constitute the basic needs of society.
• As a result, in the years 2013-14 and onwards, the tertiary sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India replacing the primary sector.
• Thus, statement A is false.
• There has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment.
• A remarkable fact about the Indian economy is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment.
• Since the years 1977-78, the primary sector has continued to be the largest employer in the Indian economy.
• Though industrial output or the production of goods in the secondary market went up by more than nine times during the period, employment in the industry went up by only three times.
• Also in the tertiary sector, while the production level rose by 14 times, employment in the tertiary sector rose only by five times.
• Thus, statement B is true.

Thus, it can be concluded that the tertiary sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India, but a similar shift has not taken place in the employment level.

The correct answer is A, B, and C.

Key Points

• Meaning of food security
• Food security means availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times.
• Dimensions of food security
• Availability of food 
• This implies food production within the country, food imports, and the previous year's stock stored in government granaries.
• Accessibility
• Accessibility means food is within the reach of every person at all times.
• Affordability
• Affordability implies that an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to fulfill one's dietary needs.

Important Points

• Ensuring food security
• ​Food security is ensured in a country when-
• Enough food is available for all people in the country.
• All people in the country have the capacity to buy food of acceptable quality.
• There are no barriers to access to food.

Thus, food security is ensured in a country where enough food is available for all, people have the capacity to buy of acceptable quality, and there is no barrier on access to food.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

• Meaning of globalization
• Globalization is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
• The policy of globalization was introduced in India in 1991 along with the policies of liberalization and privatization.

Important Points

• Advantages of globalization
• Facilitates the increased flow of goods and services across international markets at lower costs.
• Facilitates transfer of advanced technology from developed economies to under-developed economies.
• Globalization policy has been contributing to the creation of new job opportunities, especially in the field of information and communication services.
• Disadvantages of globalization
• Loss to domestic producers due to an increase in the level of competition from foreign companies.
• Unbalanced economic development as globalization in India has benefitted only the IT sector and other major sectors remain neglected.
• Unequal distribution of benefits as a major chunk of benefits of globalization is plowed back to parent companies located in foreign countries.

Thus, globalization has led to rapid movements in goods, services, investment, and technology between countries, and the creation of new opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving IT. But, the policy of globalization has failed to ensure the creation of opportunities for all and has led to increased competition which has proved harmful to the domestic economy.

The correct answer is Skill India.

Key Points

• Skill India Programme
• Skill India programme is an initiative launched by the government of India in the year 2015 to train 40 crore Indians in various industry-related jobs.
• List of Skill India courses
• Management and development programmes: Includes financial statement analysis, modern office practices, and marketing for managers.
• Training of trainer: Includes accreditation programme for EM trainers, technology infusion etc.
• Entrepreneurship development programmes: Includes women EDP, women empowerment, CRR scheme etc.
• Skill development programmes: Includes dairy-based ESDP, carpentry, electroplating, fashion designing etc.
• Other skills: Includes promotion of micro-enterprises, cluster development, lending strategies for MSMEs etc.

Thus, The mission launched by the Indian government to develop capacity among people to enable them to find a job or become entrepreneurs is called Skill India.

Additional Information

• Digital India Programme
• Digital India is a flagship programme of the government of India with a vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and a knowledge economy.
• This programme was launched on July 1, 2015, by the present Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.
• Make in India Campaign
• Make in India is an initiative launched by the Government of India in the year 2014 to set up and encourage companies to manufacture and assemble products made in India and incentivize dedicated investments into the manufacturing sector.
• This initiative targeted 25 economic sectors for job creation and skill enhancement and aimed to transform India into a global design and manufacturing export hub.
• Clean India Mission
• Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, or Clean India Mission is a country-wide campaign initiated by the Government of India in the year 2014 to eliminate open defecation and improve solid waste management.

The correct answer is both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• Statement (A): Disinvestment has been the major policy instrument of privatization.
• Disinvestment is the act of selling the equity shares of public sector enterprises to the private sector.
• Privatization implies the transfer of ownership, management, and control of the public sector enterprises to the private sector.

Thus, this statement is correct

• Statement (B): Through disinvestment, Public Sector Undertakings have been directed to be financially disciplined and modernize themselves.
• Disinvestment aims at reducing the financial burden on the government due to inefficient working of the public sector enterprises and ensuring effective management of public finances.
• Disinvestment promotes healthy competition and market discipline and helps to depoliticize non-essential services, which ensures the better provision of public goods.

Thus, this statement is correct.

On the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that disinvestment has been a major policy instrument of privatization through which public sector undertakings have been directed to be financially disciplined and modernized.

The correct answer is the interest rate, collateral, and mode of payment.

Key Points

• Terms of credit
• Interest rate
• Interest rate is the amount charged by the lender over and above the principal amount from the borrower.
• Collateral 
• Collateral is an asset owned by the borrower which is kept as security by the lender if the former fails to repay the loan as per the agreed terms.
• Documentation required
• The borrower before lending money checks all the documents related to the employment status and income earned by the borrower.
• Mode of payment
• It is related to the ways and duration for which the loan can be repaid by the borrower,i.e., annual, six-monthly, or monthly installments.

Thus, interest rate, collateral, and mode of payment are included in the terms of credit.

Additional Information

• Credit card
• A credit card refers to a financial instrument issued by the bank with a pre-set credit limit which is used to make cashless transactions.
• The credit limit is determined by the banks on the basis of the credit score, credit history, and income of the consumer.
• Debit card
• A debit card, also known as a check card or bank card is a payment card that is linked to the consumer's bank account and can be used to make cashless payments.

The correct answer is only A and D are true.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the monetary measure of the market value of final goods and services produced in an economy during a period of one year.
• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
• Purchasing power parity (PPP) is a macroeconomic metric used to compare economic productivity and standards of living between countries.
• PPP is an economic theory that compares different countries' currencies through a "basket of goods" approach.​
• Purchasing power parity measures the number of units of a country's currency required to buy the same quantity of goods and services in the domestic market as the U.S. dollar would buy in the United States.

Thus, the value of GDP in terms of purchasing power parity is generally higher than the GDP in rupee terms and is dependent upon the worth of goods and services in the USA and India.

Additional Information

• Nominal GDP estimates are used to determine the economic performance of a whole country or region and to make international comparisons, while GDP in terms of purchasing power parity is more useful when comparing differences in living standards between nations.
• India is the 5th largest country in terms of Nominal Gross Domestic Product and has ranked third in terms of GDP (PPP).

The Correct Answer is A, D, and E.

Key Points

• A common method used to estimate poverty in India is based on consumption levels, Head Count Ratio, and Calorie intake and if the income or consumption falls below a given minimum level, then the household is said to be Below the Poverty Line (BPL).
• Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s task force through the calculation of the poverty line based on the data captured by the National Sample Survey Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).
• According to the World Bank, Poverty is a pronounced deprivation in well-being and comprises many dimensions. It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity.
• According to recent reports, more than a quarter of the population living in rural areas of India is below the poverty line.
• Out of the total population living in the rural parts of India, 25.7% are living below the poverty line whereas, in the urban areas, the situation is a bit better with 13.7% of the population living below the poverty line.

Additional Information

• In India, more than a quarter of the population living in rural areas is below the poverty line.
• Out of the total population living in the rural parts of India, 25.7% are living below the poverty line.
• On the other hand, in the urban areas, the situation is a bit better with 13.7% of the population living below the poverty line.

Key Points

• Assertion (A): Governments in India took three ways to alleviate poverty - growth approach, asset generation, and anti-poverty approaches.
• Removal of poverty has been one of the major objectives of the Indian developmental strategy.
• The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based broadly on two planks-
• Promotion of economic growth
• Targeted anti-poverty programmes.

Thus, this assertion is false.

• Reason (R): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is a growth-oriented programme to address poverty.
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage-based employment to every rural household to ensure livelihood security in rural areas.
• It is also aimed at sustainable development to address the cause of drought, deforestation, and soil erosion.
• Under the act, one-third of the proposed jobs have been reserved for rural women.
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is a part of the anti-poverty approach.

Thus, this reason is also false.

On the basis of the above factual information, it can be concluded that both the given assertion and reason are false.

The correct answer is a - iii, b - i, c - ii.

Key Points

Thus, the correct matching is a - iii, b - i, c - ii.

The correct answer is A biscuit factory requires 10 persons but employs 15 persons.

Key Points

• Disguised unemployment
• Disguised unemployment is an economic term used to refer to the portion of the labor force that is involved in redundant work, which creates minimal to nil productivity.
• Disguised unemployment does not impact the aggregate output of an economy, as the productivity of disguisedly unemployed people is near zero or nil.
• Disguised unemployment is also known as hidden unemployment.
• Example of disguised unemployment
• If in a biscuit factory 10 employees can produce 100 kg of biscuits on a daily basis, but, a total of 15 employees are engaged in the same work, and the marginal productivity of 5 employees is near zero and the total output remains constant at 100 kg, then these 5 employees are considered to be disguisedly unemployed.
• In other words, the total output of 100 kg of biscuits will not decline if out of 15 employees, these extra five workers are removed from work.

Thus, 'a biscuit factory requires 10 persons but employs 15 persons' is an example of disguised unemployment.

Additional Information

• Disguised unemployment is more prevalent in the rural areas of the Indian economy.

The Correct Answer is Only A, D, and E.

Key Points

• Agricultural intensification can be technically defined as an increase in agricultural production per unit of inputs (which may be labor, land, time, fertilizer, seed, feed, or cash).
• Examples of agricultural intensification may range from using new pesticides in intensive agriculture to intensifying the use of indigenous and context-specific knowledge in local farming practices.
• Although agricultural intensification can take many forms, it always involves the intensification of some types of agricultural input with a view to increasing levels of yields.

Additional Information

• Working Capital:
• The financial requirements of an enterprise do not end with the procurement of fixed assets.
• No matter how small or large a business is, it needs funds for its day-to-day operations.
• This is known as the working capital of an enterprise, which is used for holding current assets such as stock of material, bills receivables, and for meeting current expenses like salaries, wages, taxes, and rent.
• Factors of Production are the resources used by people to produce goods and services.
• The factors of production are divided into four categories:
• Land
• Labor
• Capital
• Entrepreneur.
• The earnings made by the use of these factors of production are known as factor income.
• Land gives rent, laborer gets wages, capital earns interest and entrepreneur enjoys profit.
• Fixed capital refers to the capital that is not consumed or destroyed in the production of goods and services for example- plant and machinery, tools and equipment, property and building, etc.
• Working capital is the capital required by the business for day-to-day operations for example- raw materials, finished goods, spares, etc.

The correct answer is only D and E.

Key Points

• Demonetization policy
• On 8 November 2016, the Government of India announced the demonetization of all ₹500 and ₹1,000 banknotes of the Mahatma Gandhi series.
• The government of India also announced the issuance of new ₹500 and ₹2,000 banknotes in exchange for the demonetized banknotes.
• Objectives of the demonetization policy
• To curtail the shadow economy.
• To promote cashless transactions and digital economy.
• To eliminate the use of illicit and counterfeit cash for funding illegal activities and terrorism.​

Important Points

• Impact of demonetization on the Indian economy
• Demonetization led to the formalization of the Indian economy.
• Demonetization led to the adoption of newer forms of digital payments, like the Unified Payments Interface.
• Demonetization resulted in a robust increase in tax collections.
• The real GDP growth fell from 9 percent in the financial year 2017-18 to 3 percent in the last quarter of the financial year 2020-21.

Thus, currency notes of denominations of ₹500 and ₹1,000 were declared invalid during the demonetization policy of the Government of India in 2016.

The Correct Answer is Both (A) and (B) are false.

Key Points

• India is the world’s third-largest crude oil importer having an existing storage capacity of 5.3 million tons (MT) at:
• Visakhapatnam (1.3 million tons)
• Mangalore (1.5 million tons)
• Padur (2.5 million tons).
• India still needs to import 83% crude oil of its requirement which increases the import bill of India and further widens the Current Account Deficit (CAD) of the country.
• 86% of the energy of the country is dependent on oil with nearly 5 million barrels of oil consumption in a day.
• The fluctuation in the price of crude oil in the international market leads to a dire need for India to make petroleum reserves to ensure the country's energy security and avoid monetary loss.
• The current capacity of this is not sufficient to tackle any unpredicted event that occurs in the international crude market.

Additional Information

• Oil reserve of the world:
• At the end of 2019, the world had 1.73 trillion barrels of oil reserves.
• Venezuela is the leading country in terms of oil reserves, with over 304 billion barrels of oil beneath its surface.
• Saudi Arabia is a close second with 298 billion, and Canada is third with 170 billion barrels of oil reserves.

The Correct Answer is Mean years of schooling.

Key Points

• Dr Mehboob-ul-haq in 1990. developed the Human Development Index which measures development by well-being, rather than by income alone.
• Amartya Sen and Mehboob Ul Haq opinioned that development was not only about economic indicators but also about human development indicators like life expectancy, years of schooling, etc.
• HDI is part of the Human Development Report that is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Measured using 3 parameters
• Health – Life expectancy at birth.
• Education – expected years of schooling for school-age children and mean years of schooling in the adult population.
• Income – Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (PPP)
• Top Performers – Norway, Switzerland, Ireland.

Additional Information

• Human Development Index, 2020-
• India ranked 131 among 189 countries on the HDI for 2019.
• The report was released by UNDP.
• Norway topped the index, followed by Ireland and Switzerland. Hong Kong and Iceland complete the top five.

The Correct Answer is Service sector is the largest sector contributing to employment and Gross Domestic Product.

Key Points

• Economic activities result in the production of goods and services while sectors are the group of economic activities classified on the basis of some criteria like the basis of ownership, working conditions, and the nature of the activities.
• Economic activities are broadly grouped into primary, secondary, and tertiary activities.
• The primary sector includes:
• Agriculture, Mining, Fishing, Forestry, Dairy, etc.
• People engaged in primary activities are called red-collar workers.
• The secondary sector includes:
• Industrial production, cotton fabric, sugar cane production, etc.
• People engaged in secondary activities are called blue-collar workers.
• The tertiary sector includes:
• Goods transported by trucks or trains, banking, insurance, finance, etc.
• People involved in this sector jobs are called white-collar jobs.
• Sector-wise contribution of GDP in India: Services(54.40%) > Manufacturing(29.73%) > Agriculture(15.87%).

Additional Information

• The primary sector includes all those activities the end purpose of which consists in exploiting natural resources: agriculture, fishing, forestry, mining, and deposits.
• The manufacturing and Industry sector are known as the secondary sector, sometimes as the production sector.
• The secondary sector includes secondary processing of raw materials, food manufacturing, textile manufacturing, and industry.
• Broad Sectors of the Indian Economy
• Primary Sector: This sector of a country's economy includes agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining, quarrying, and extraction of minerals.
• Secondary Sector: Manufacturing, electricity gas and water supply, construction.
• Tertiary Sector: It is also called the service sector which includes Business, transport, telecommunication, banking, insurance, real estate, community, and personnel services.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• Assertion: Tertiary sector includes those activities that help in the development of primary and secondary sectors.
• The tertiary sector involves a wide range of services like transportation, communication, healthcare, banking, insurance, financial services, education, electricity, real estate, etc.
• The tertiary sector helps in the development of primary and secondary sectors by offering various services to both the producers and consumers in the primary and secondary sectors.
• For example, transportation of goods produced in the primary and secondary sectors to the consumers and facilitating the availability of funds for investment through banking and financial services.

Thus, the assertion is true.

• Reason: Dry cleaners, barbers, teachers, and doctors are included in the service sector.
• Doctors, lawyers, teachers, dry cleaners, barbers, career consultants, etc. are a part of the tertiary or services sector as they provide their specialized services to the consumers.
• These service providers do not exchange any tangible goods but offer services that provide utility to the consumers.

Thus, the reason is also true.

On the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that both the assertion and reason are true but, the given reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

The correct answer is Only A, C and D.

Key PointsDiastrophism:

• All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism.
• Diastrophism is endogenic geomorphic processes.
• They include:
• Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;
• Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;
• Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements; .
• Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates.
• In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds.
• Due to Epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation.
• Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas Epeirogeny is continental building process.
• Through the processes of orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and plate tectonics, there can be faulting and fracturing of the crust.
• All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.

Important PointsExogenic Forces:

• The external forces are known as exogenic forces.
• The actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of relief/elevations and filling up (aggradation) of basins/ depressions, on the earth’s surface.

Endogenic Processes:

• The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes.
• This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth.
• This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere.
• Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven.

The Correct Answer is Red and Yellow Soil.

Key Points

• Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau and also along the piedmont zone of the western ghat.
• The soil develops a reddish color due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
• Fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility.
• They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and humus.
• Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau and also along the piedmont zone of the western ghats.
• The soil develops a reddish color due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
• Red soils denote the largest soil group of India, covering an area of about 350,000 sq. km (10.6% of India's area) across the Peninsula.
• It contains thin organic and organic-mineral layers of highly leached soil resting on a red layer of alluvium.
• The red soils, with the proper use of fertilizers and irrigation techniques, give a good yield of cotton, wheat, rice, pulses, millets, tobacco, oil seeds, potatoes, and fruits

Additional Information

• Approximately 10.6% of the total geographical area of India is covered by red soil, including
• ​Tamil Nadu, parts of Karnataka, southeastern Maharashtra, eastern Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Chota Nagpur (Jharkhand), south Bihar, West Bengal (Birbhum and Bankura), Uttar Pradesh (Mirzapur, Jhansi, Banda, and Hamirpur), Aravallis, eastern Rajasthan, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and Meghalaya
• Alluvial Soil:
• ​Mostly available soil in India (about 43%) covers an area of 143 sq. km, wheat, maize, sugarcane, pulses, oilseed, etc. are mainly cultivated.
• Arid Soil:
• ​Also known as Desert soil, it accounts for over 4.42 % of the total land area of the country.
• These soils are saline in nature and in certain regions the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating water.
• Black Soil:
• ​Black soil is also known as “Regur Soil” or the “Black Cotton Soil”.

The correct answer is Magha and Phalguna.

Key Points

• In the Hindu calendar, Shishir is Ritu or a season related to winter and cold.
• It is the month of Magha and Phalguna or mid-January to mid-March in the calendar year.
• The twelve months in a year are divided into six seasons of two-month duration each. These seasons include Vasant Ritu (Spring), Grishma Ritu (Summer), Varsha Ritu (Monsoon), Sharad Ritu (Autumn), Hemant Ritu (Pre-Winter), and Shishir Ritu (Winter).

Thus, In the Indian tradition, the 'Shishir' season belongs to Magha and Phalguna according to the Indian calendar.

Additional Information

• Aasdha: In India's national civil calendar, this month is the fourth month of the year, beginning on 22 June and ending on 22 July. In Vedic Jyotish, Āsāṛh begins with the Sun's entry into Gemini. It is the first of the two months that comprise the monsoon season.
• Jyēṣṭha is associated with high summer and corresponds to May–June in the Gregorian calendar. In Tamil, the month is known as Aani, the third month of the solar calendar that begins in mid-June. In Vedic Jyotish, Jyēṣṭha begins with the Sun's entry into Taurus and is the second month of the year.
• Ashvina: It is the sixth month of the solar Bengali calendar and the seventh of the lunar Indian calendar of the Deccan Plateau. It falls in the season of Shôrot (Hindi Sharad), or Autumn. In Vedic Jyotish, Ashwin begins with the Sun's entry into Virgo

The Correct Answer is Cwg.

Key Points

• Cwg Climate
• This type of climate is found in most parts of the Northern Ganga Plains.
• In this type of climate, the summer temperature rises to 40°C which falls to 27°C in winter. Most of the rainfall occurs in summer and winter is dry.
• The CWG-type climate is also known as the 'Monsoon type with dry winters' type climate.
• Koppen divided India into nine climatic regions
• Amw - Monsoon type with the short dry winter season.
• As - Monsoon type with the dry season in high sun period
• Aw - Tropical Savanah type
• BShw - Semi-arid steppe type
• BWhw - Hot desert type
• Cwg - Monsoon type with dry winters
• Dfc - Cold, Humid winters type with shorter summer
• Et - Tundra type
• E - Polar type

Additional Information

• Koeppen’s Classification of Climatic Regions of India is a classification based on mean annual and mean monthly temperature and precipitation data.

The Correct Answer is Kashmir Himalayas.

Key Points

• Zafran is a local variety of Saffron in Kashmir valley.
• These are also important for the cultivation of almonds, walnut, apple, and orchards.
• Karewa deposits have different soil and sediments such as sand, clay, silt, shale, mud, lignite, and losses.
• Hence, these are very useful for agricultural and horticulture activities. Saffron cultivation in Karewas.

Additional Information

• Karewa Landform is found in the Kashmir Himalaya.
• Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations and it is divided into two stages, lower and upper.
• A succession of plateaus in the Kashmir Himalaya like terraces is called Karewas.
• The word Karewa literally means “elevated table-land".
• It is found only in the Kashmir region.
• Karewa is present above the Plains of Jhelum river and its tributaries.
• The Karewa deposits contain sand, clay, silt, mud, lignite, and gravel.
• Karewa soils are suitable for saffron cultivation.

          Saffron Producing Regions in India:

• Saffron production has long been restricted to a limited geographical area in the Union territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
• The pampered region, commonly known as the Saffron bowl of Kashmir, is the main contributor to saffron production.
• Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir is one of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage systems (GIAHS) recognized sites in India.
• Other districts producing saffron are Budgam, Srinagar, and Kishtwar districts.
• Recently, the Kashmir saffron got Geographical Indication (GI) tag status.​

The Correct Answer is Nicobar Islands.

 Key Points

• India is a vast country. Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere the mainland extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E.
• The southernmost point of the country is the Pygmalion Point or Indira Point is located at 6° 45′ N latitude.
• The Tropic of Cancer (23° 30'N) divides the country into almost two equal parts.
• Tropic of Cancer passes through Mizoram, Tripura, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat.
• India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth.
• India lies to the north of the equator between 6^o 44′N (Indira Point in Andaman & Nicobar Islands) and 37^o6′N (Indira Kol) latitude and 68^o 7′ E and 97^o 25′ E longitude.
• India's mainland:
• ​Longitudinal extent: From Gujarat in the west (68°7′E) to Arunachal Pradesh in the east (97°25′E).
• Latitudinal extent: From Indira Kol (37°6′N) in the north to Kanyakumari in the south (8°4′N).

Additional Information

• The north-south extent from Indira Col in Kashmir to Kanyakumari is 3,214 km.
• East-west width from the Rann of Kachachh to Arunachal Pradesh is 2,933 km.
• With an area of 32,87,263 sq km, India is the seventh-largest country of the world.
• India accounts for about 2.4 per cent of the total surface area of the world.

The Correct Answer is 181.

Key Points

• If parallels of latitude are drawn at an interval of one degree, there will be 89 parallels in the northern and the southern hemispheres each. The total number of parallels thus drawn, including the equator, will be 179
• A latitude line is a line a measure the north-south position of the position relative to the north and south poles.
• The value of the equator is 0° and the latitude of the poles are 90°N and 90°S
• The equator is at the exact center between the poles and is the 0°th latitude line.
• Tropics- The area between the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn that passes through the Equator is called the Tropics.
• Meridians-are imaginary lines running parallel from North to South and drawn from East to West.
• Longitudes- are basically the Degrees of the meridian. Together these are called the Longitude of Meridian. The degrees range from 180 degrees East to 0 degrees/ Prime Meridian to 180 degrees West.

Additional Information

• Latitudes- imaginary lines drawn parallelly from East to West running from North to South are called Latitudes. There are seven Important Latitudes that one must remember-
• The 0 Degree or the Equator.
• The 23 1/2 Degree North and 23 1/2 Degree South are called the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, respectively.
• The 66 1/2 Degree North and South is called the Arctic and Antarctic circle, respectively.
• The 90 Degree North and South are called the North pole and South pole, respectively.

The Correct Answer is a Round world surrounded by water.

Key Points

• In the great immortal Sanskrit epic of the Mahabharata, Bhishma Parva (Book 5), Jamvu-khanda Nirvana Parva (Chapter 6), verses 15 & 16, give a description of the world (called Sudarshana).
• The Earth's geography is described in the Mahabharata, reported here, as looking like a rabbit and the sacred peepal tree leaves (ficus religiosa)

 Additional Information

• There are two major Sanskrit epics:-
• Mahabharata:-
• Mahabharata was written by Maharishi Ved Vyas.
• There are one lakh verses and 18 parvises in Mahabharata.
• It was fought around 950 BC.
• Mahabharata describes the period between the tenth century BC to the fourth century AD.
• Mahabharata is also called Jaisamhita and Satasahasri Samhita.
• Bhagavad Gita is a dialogue between Pandava prince Arjuna and his guide Lord Krishna. Chapter 23-40 of the 6th book of Mahabharata contains Bhagavad Gita.
• Ramayana:-
• Ramayana was written by Valmiki.
• There are 24,000 verses and 7 Kanda in Ramayana.
• Its composition started in the fifth century BC and ended in the twelfth century AD.
• It is also known as Adi Kavya.

The Correct Answer is All contribute equally.

Key Points

• Nitrogen is very essential for the substance of life. It is present in approximately 78% of the earth’s atmosphere.
• Nitrogen fixation needs a strong reducing agent and energy in the form of ATP.
• N2 fixation is accomplished with the help of nitrogen-fixing microbes mainly Rhizobium.
• The enzyme nitrogenase which plays an important role in biological N₂ fixation is very insensitive.
• Nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere, but it is unusable to plants or animals unless it is converted into nitrogen compounds.
• Plants absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of nitrate (NO3-) and ammonium (NH4+).
• In aerobic soils where nitrification can occur, nitrate is usually the predominant form of available nitrogen that is absorbed.
• Nitrate is taken up by several nitrate transporters that use a proton gradient to power the transport.
• Nitrogen-fixing bacteria play a crucial role in fixing atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds that can be used by plants.
• The plants absorb the usable nitrogen compounds from the soil through their roots.
• Then, these nitrogen compounds are used for the production of proteins and other compounds in the cell.

Additional Information

• Amaranth species are cultivated as leaf vegetables, pseudocereals, and ornamental plants. Most of the Amaranthus species are summer annual weeds and are commonly referred to as pigweeds.
• Purslane is an annual succulent that has been considered both a useless weed and a powerful medicinal plant at different times throughout history.
• Spinach, also known as Spinacia oleracea, is a member of the Amaranthaceae family. Crimson clover is also a nitrogen-fixing plant, drawing nitrogen down into the soil for the spinach plants.

The Correct Answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• Normally, there is a seven-day interval between the spring tides and neap tides. During neap tides, the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces of the sun and moon tend to counteract one another.
• There is a seven-day interval between the spring tides and neap tides.
• Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.
• There are two types of tides namely, spring tides and neap tides depending upon the relative positions of the sun, the earth, and the moon.
• Neap tides:
• Normally, there is a seven-day interval between the spring tides and neap tides.
• At this time the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces of the sun and moon tend to counteract one another.
• The Moon's attraction, though more than twice as strong as the sun's, is diminished by the counteracting force of the sun's gravitational pull.
• Like spring tides, these tides also occur twice a month.
• Spring tides:
• When the sun, the moon, and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be higher.
• These are called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one during the full moon period and another during the new moon period.

Additional Information

• Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.
• There are two types of tides namely, spring tides and neap tides depending upon the relative positions of the sun, the earth, and the moon.

The Correct Answer is Both (A) and (B) are true.

Key Points

• The External Climate Forcing Processes are:
• Variations in the amount of energy received from the sun. About 30-40% of the UV energy from the sun is believed to be reflected back into space after hitting the earth's upper atmosphere, while the remaining 60-70% gets through to the earth. This ratio could change, however, due to variations in the sun’s characteristics from time to time, thus leading to changes to the global energy balance above and hence changes in our climate
• Variations in the earth’s orbit around the sun changes in the tilt of the earth’s axis, changes in the shape of the earth's orbit (i.e. eccentricity), and the shifting of the equinoxes (i.e. precession) play major roles in determining variations in the amount of sun’s energy reaching the earth and hence lead to variations in the earth’s climate (i.e. Climate Change).
• A volcanic eruption, lasting for a few days, emits large volumes of sulfur dioxide (SO2), water vapor, dust, and ash into the atmosphere that influence climatic patterns for years. The gases and dust particles partially block the incoming rays of the sun, leading to cooling. Hence, Statement A is correct.
• Exploding numbers of automobiles driven by oil and Increasing solar flares are the primary causes of climate change.
• Climate change is a long-term change in the average weather patterns that have come to define Earth's local, regional and global climates.
• The main cause of climate change is burning fossil fuels such as oil, gas, and coal.
• Changes observed in Earth’s climate are primarily driven by human activities, particularly fossil fuel burning, which increases heat-trapping greenhouse gas levels in Earth’s atmosphere, raising Earth’s average surface temperature.
• Over the last century, the average surface temperature of the Earth has increased by about 1.0^o F.
• Mount Pinatubo, a volcano, in western Luzon, Philippines, that erupted in 1991 (for the first time in 600 years) and caused widespread devastation.
• El Chichon volcano is located in Mexico and erupted in 1982.
• After the Mount Pinatoba and El Cion volcanic eruptions, the average temperature of the Earth rose to some extent for some years.  Hence, Statement B is correct.

Additional Information

• Average surface temperature -
• The global surface temperature has been measured since 1880 at a network of ground-based and ocean-based sites.
• Over the last century, the average surface temperature of the Earth has increased by about 1.0^o F. Hence option 2 is correct.
• The eleven warmest years this century have all occurred since 1980, with 1995 being the warmest on record.
• The higher latitudes have warmed more than the equatorial regions.
• Beginning in 1979, satellites have been used to measure the temperature of the atmosphere up to a height of 30,000 feet.
• The long-term surface record and the recent satellite observations differ, but that fact is not surprising.
• The two techniques measure the temperature of different parts of the Earth system - the surface, and various layers of the atmosphere.
• Global mean sea level has risen 4 to 10 inches over the last 100 Years, mainly because water expands when heated.

The Correct Answer is Canada.

Key Points

• The highest tides in the world occur in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia, Canada.
• The tidal bulge is 15 - 16 m. Because there are two high tides and two low tides every day (roughly a 24-hour period)
• As a rough estimate, the tide rises about 240 cm an hour (1,440 cm divided by 6 hours).
• The Bay of Biscay is bounded by the west coast of France and the north coast of Spain.
• Hudson Bay is an immense inland sea that penetrates deeply into northeastern Canada.
• The water in the Bay of Fundy has a natural resonance or rocking motion called a seiche.
• You could compare this to the movement of water in a bathtub. Although the water in a bathtub sloshes from one end to the other and back again in a few seconds, it takes about 13 hours for the water in the bay to rock from the mouth of the bay to the head of the bay and back again. As the ocean tide rises and floods into the bay every 12 hours and 25 minutes, it reinforces the rocking motion.
• That's how the largest tides in the Bay of Fundy result from tidal resonance.

Additional Information

• Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun on the ocean.
• The difference between high tide and low tide is called the tidal range.
• The biggest tidal range is found in the Bay of Fundy, Canada where the sea level rises and falls as much as 16 m (53 feet) in just over 6 hours.
• The smallest tidal ranges are less than 1 m (3 feet).
• The highest tides, called spring tides, are formed when the earth, sun, and moon are lined up in a row. Hence option 3 is correct.
• This happens every two weeks during a new moon or full moon.
• Smaller tides, called neap tides, are formed when the earth, sun, and moon form a right angle.
• This causes the sun and moon to pull the water in two different directions.
• Neap tides happen during a quarter or three-quarter moon.
• During equinoxes, the Sun exerts a stronger pull on the Earth than the rest of the year, because of the alignment between the sun and the equator.
• Consequently, the water's surface is strongly attracted by the Sun, which accentuates tides, we call them “great tides”.
• The equinox happens twice a year: the Spring Equinox happens around the 20th of March whereas the Autumn Equinox takes place around the 22nd of September, depending on the year.

The Correct Answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• The temperature of oceanic water is important for marine organisms including plants and animals. The temperature of seawater also affects the climate of coastal lands and plants and animals therein.
• Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely:
• Primary forces:
• Heating by solar energy: Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope.
• Wind: Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water's surface affects the movement of the water body in its course.
• Gravity: Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation.
• Coriolis force. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
• These large accumulations of water and the flow around them are called Gyres.
• These produce large circular currents in all the ocean basins.
• Secondary forces:
• Differences in water density: It affects the vertical mobility of ocean currents.
• Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity and in the same way, cold water is denser than warm water.
• Denser water tends to sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise.
• The temperature of water: Cold-water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves towards the equator.
• Warm-water currents travel out from the equator along the surface, flowing towards the poles to replace the sinking cold water.

Additional Information

• The use of these ponds has the advantage of having a big thermal mass.
• The efficiency of solar-to-electricity conversion is often less than 2%.
• To keep the appropriate salt concentrations throughout the pond, a lot of freshwaters is needed.
• A saline lake is used as a solar energy collector which acts as a flat plate collector that receives and stores solar energy in the warm.
• A salt-concentration gradient in the water allows solar ponds to perform successfully as solar energy collectors.
• Water that is severely salinated collects in the pond's bottom with concentration decreasing as it approaches the surface which is converted into cold, fresh water on the pond.
• The storage zone is a collection of saline water at the lake's bottom, whereas the freshwater top layer is known as the surface zone.
• Attempts to prevent heat loss from water with the use of salt, whose concentration rises with depth.

The Correct Answer is Tropical Zone.

Key Points

• Latitude and energy balance:-There are variations in the amount of radiation received at the earth’s surface. Some part of the earth has a surplus radiation balance while the other part has a deficit.

• The solar constant
• The solar constant is the total radiation energy received from the Sun per unit of time per unit of area on a theoretical surface perpendicular to the Sun's rays and at Earth's mean distance from the Sun.
• It is measured by satellites where atmospheric effects are absent.
• The value of the constant is approximately 1.366 kilowatts per square meter.
• Though called a constant, the solar constant is merely relatively constant.
• The relative constant does vary by 0.2% in a cycle that peaks once every eleven years.
• The first attempt at estimating the solar constant was made by Claude Pouillet in 1838 at 1.228 kW/m².

Additional Information

• Insolation is a measure of the solar energy that is incident on a specified area over a set period of time.
• It affects the temperature, the more insolation, the higher the temperature.
• Heat budget is the perfect balance between incoming heat absorbed by Earth and outgoing heat escaping it in the form of radiation.
• If the balance is disturbed, then the earth would get progressively warmer or cooler with each passing year.
• Solar energy is the radiation from the Sun capable of producing heat, causing chemical reactions, or generating electricity.
• It is harnessed using a range of technologies such as solar power to generate electricity, solar thermal energy including solar water heating, and solar architecture.

The Correct Answer is Esker.

Key Points

• Glacio-Fluvial Deposits Landforms
  

1. Esker 
   
2. Kame
   
3. Kettles & Humokes
   
4. Outwash Plain

• A thick ice sheet covering a vast area of land is called a continental glacier.
• The thickness of ice in such regions goes up to thousands of meters.
• Glaciers of this type build up at the center and move outward in all directions.
• The precipitation in these regions occurs in the form of snow. It gets accumulated year by year because of the relatively slower rate of its melting.
• When a mass of ice from the high mountainous regions starts moving down into the pre-existing valleys, it is called a valley glacier or a mountain glacier.
• The shape of the valley glaciers depends on the valley it occupies.
• As a glacier moves over the land, it drags rock fragments, gravel, and sand along with it.
• These rock fragments become efficient erosive tools. With their help glacier scrapes and scours the surface rocks with which it comes in contact.
• This action of glacier leaves behind scratches and grooves on rocks.

Additional Information

• The landforms like Cirque, 'U' shaped valley, Hanging Valley, etc are created by glacial erosion.
• Snow collects at the upper end in a bowl-shaped depression, is called a cirque.
• Layers of snow in the process of compaction and recrystallization are called firn.
• The deepest parts of these hollows are occupied by accumulated water to form Corrie Lake.
• There are tributary glaciers also which join the main glacier after moving over their mountainous path. These tributary glaciers like the main glaciers carve U - shaped valleys.
• The valley of the tributary glacier just looks like hanging downwards at the point of its confluence with the main valley referred to as a hanging valley.
• The longest glacier in India is the Siachen Glacier in Karakoram Range which is 72 kilometers long.
• Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand is 25.5 kilometers long.
• The two important rivers of India, the Ganga, and Yamuna, originate from Gangotri and Yamunotri glaciers respectively.

The Correct Answer is Only A, B, and D.

Key Points

• Weathering:
• ​Weathering is the disintegration of rocks, soil, and minerals under the influence of physical (heat, pressure) and chemical (leaching, oxidation and reduction, hydration) agents.
• As very little or no motion of materials takes place in weathering, it is an in-situ or on-site process.
• The weathered material is carried farther away by erosion.
  

There are three major groups of weathering processes:

• chemical;
• physical or mechanical;
• biological weathering processes.
• All types of weathering often go hand in hand.
• Weathering due to dissolution, solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation, and reduction that act on the rocks is termed chemical weathering.
• The expansion of solids due to temperature change, hydration, and crystallization is referred to as physical weathering.
• The reason behind exhalation sheets is unloading and pressure release.
• Biological weathering is the removal of minerals from the environment due to the growth or action of organisms.
• Chemical Weathering
• It is a cluster of weathering processes namely as a solution, hydration, carbonation, oxidation, reduction, and biological.
• These processes act on rocks to decompose, dissolve or moderate them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface/ soil water, and other acids.
• Water and air along with heat must be present to speed up all chemical reactions.
• Biological activity and weathering
• Decaying plant and animal matter help in the production of humic, carbonic, and other acids which enhance the decay and solubility of some elements.

Additional Information

• Hydration,
• Hydration is the chemical addition of water.
• Minerals take up water and enlarge.
• This enlargement causes an increase in the volume of the material itself or rock.
• This process is long and reversible.
• This may lead to the disintegration of rocks.
• Carbonation,
• Carbonation is the reaction of bicarbonate and carbonate with minerals.
• It is a general process that helps the fragmentation of feldspars and carbonate minerals.
• Carbon dioxide from the soil and atmospheric air is absorbed by water to form carbonic acid that acts like weak acid.
• These acids act on various surfaces and erode them.
• Oxidation and Reduction,
• In weathering, oxidation denotes the forming of a mixture of a mineral with oxygen to form hydroxides or oxides.
• Oxidation happens when there is ready access to the oxygenated water.
• The minerals commonly involved in this process are manganese, sulfur, iron, etc.
• In the process of oxidation, rock fragmentation happens due to the disturbance caused by the addition of oxygen.
• Oxidation and reduction processes are interconnected.​

 

 

The Correct Answer is Only A and D.

Key Points

• The erosion and transportation of earth materials are brought about by the wind, running water, glaciers, waves, and groundwater.
• Of these, the first three agents are controlled by climatic conditions.
• They represent three states of matter - gaseous (wind), liquid (running water), and solid (glacier) respectively.
• Groundwater
• Groundwater is fresh water (from rain or melting ice and snow) that soaks into the soil and is stored in the tiny spaces (pores) between rocks and particles of soil.
• Groundwater accounts for nearly 95 percent of the nation's freshwater resources.

Additional Information 

• Liquid water is the major agent of erosion on Earth.
• Rain, rivers, floods, lakes, and the ocean carry away bits of soil and sand and slowly wash away the sediment.
• Glaciers cause erosion by plucking and abrasion.
• Valley glaciers form several unique features through erosion, including cirques, arêtes, and horns.
• The wind is a powerful agent of erosion.
• Aeolian (wind-driven) processes constantly transport dust, sand, and ash from one place to another.
• Wind can sometimes blow sand into towering dunes.

The Correct Answer is **Only A,**B and ,C

Key Points

• Igneous Rocks are formed by crystallization from a liquid or magma.
• There are two types of Igneous rocks based on their mode of occurrence:

1. Volcanic or extrusive igneous rocks form when the magma cools and crystallizes on the surface of the Earth
2. Intrusive or plutonic igneous rocks wherein the magma crystallizes at depth in the Earth.

• Magma is a mixture of liquid rock, crystals, and gas with a wide range of chemical compositions, temperatures, and properties of a liquid.
• Extrusive igneous rocks
• They are formed by the cooling of lava on the earth’s surface.
• As lava cools very rapidly on coming out of the hot interior of the earth, the mineral crystals forming these rocks are very fine.
• These rocks are also called volcanic rocks. Basalt is a very common example of such rock.
• These rocks are found in volcanic areas.
• Deccan plateau’s regur soil in India is a formation of lava.
• Intrusive igneous rocks
• They are formed when magma solidifies below the earth’s surface.
• The rate of cooling below the earth’s surface is very slow, which gives rise to the formation of large crystals in the rocks.
• Deep-seated intrusive rocks are termed plutonic rocks and shallow-depth intrusive rocks are termed hypabyssal. Granite is a common example of intrusive rock.

Additional Information

• Granite, Gabbro, Pegmatite, Basalt, Volcanic, Breccia, and Tuff are examples of igneous rocks.
• Granite is a light-colored igneous rock with grains large enough for the unaided eye to be visible. It emerges from the gradual crystallization of magma below the surface of the Earth. Granite consists mostly of quartz and feldspar, with small quantities of mica, amphibians, and other minerals.
• Breccia forms where broken, angular fragments of rock or mineral debris accumulate.
• Gabbro is a phaneritic, mafic, intrusive igneous rock shaped into a holocrystalline mass deep beneath the Earth's surface by the gradual cooling of magnesium-rich and iron-rich magma.
• Pegmatite formed underground, with interlocking crystals typically larger than 2.5 cm in size. Most pegmatites are located near large masses of igneous rocks called batholiths in sheets of rock (dikes and veins).
• Basalt is a mafic extrusive igneous rock produced by the rapid cooling of magnesium- and iron-rich lava exposed to the surface of a terrestrial planet or moon or very close to it.

A, B and C is the correct answer

Key Points

• Deep ocean drilling activities can provide information about the composition and structure of the Earth's crust, including the oceanic crust. However, the oceanic crust is relatively thin and does not provide direct information about the deeper parts of the Earth's interior.
• Volcanic activities provide information about the composition and properties of magma and other materials that are sourced from the Earth's mantle, which is located beneath the crust. This can give direct insight into the chemical and physical properties of the Earth's interior.
• Mining activities can provide information about the composition and structure of the Earth's uppermost layers, including the crust and some of the upper mantle. However, mining activities only access a small fraction of the Earth's crust, and the information they provide is limited to specific locations.

Additional Information

 Seismic activities, 

• They are the most important indirect source available to understand the layered structure of the earth.
• The velocity of seismic waves changes as they travel through materials with different elasticity and density.
• The more elastic and denser the material is, the higher is the velocity.
• They also undergo refection or refraction when they come across materials with different densities.
• Earth’s internal structure can be understood by analysing the patterns of reflection, refraction and change in velocity of the seismic waves when they travel through it.

Indirect Sources of information about the Earth’s Interior

• Increase in pressure and temperature with depth
• Seismic waves
• Meteorites
• Gravitation
• Magnetic field