Official Paper

NVS TGT Social Science 2016 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

General Hindi & English (40 questions)

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए :

'संस्कार' एक ऐसा शब्द है जिसका हम पोस्टमार्टम नहीं कर सकते। उसका रेशा-रेशा खोलकर नहीं दिखा सकते कि वह किन तत्वों से बना है। उसमें हमारी कितनी पुश्तों का योगदान है। एक तरह से वह हमारे मानसिक डी.एन.ए. की तरह है । कितने युगों, साधनों, स्मृतियों, परंपराओं के रासायनिक मिश्रण का योगफल । हमने उसे कब और कैसे पाया, उसमें से कितना अर्जित किया, कितना पुरखों के अनुग्रह से मिला, इसे जानना भी आसान नहीं। हमारे लिए यह जानना ज़्यादा आसान है कि अंततः वही चीज़ें बचती हैं जो प्राणवान बनी रहें। सप्राण और निष्प्राण की पहचान हम चीज़ों के बढ़ने, पनपने की अंदरूनी ताकत से करते हैं। इस ताकत का होना या न होना ही विकसने-गिरने का कारक कारण है। बढ़ने की तरह चीजें घटती भी हैं। विकृत भी होती हैं। इस क्रिया की पहचान को महादेवी जी ने सुंदर व्याख्या की है। उनका कहना है, परिवर्तन हर चीज़ का नियम है । उसे तो हर हाल में होना ही है, पर परिवर्तन के दो रूप हैं - एक रूप है विकास, दूसरा रूप है विकृति। परिवर्तन दोनों दशाओं में होता है पर दोनों को एक ही श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता। एक उन्नति का परिचायक है, दूसरा अवनति का। संस्कार को हम इसी तुला पर तौलते हैं - कौन-कौन सी चीजें, कौन-कौन से अनुभव, कौन से दृश्य, कौन-सी सूचनाएँ हमें या हमारे व्यक्तित्व को आगे ले जाती हैं, कौन-सी पीछे। किन चीज़ों का फलयोग हमारे जीवन में उत्कर्ष की तरह सामने आता है, किनका अपकर्ष की तरह। रास्तों के चुनाव और अपनी संवेदना के इस्तेमाल के लिए यह समझ कारगर सिद्ध हो सकती है।

1

परिवर्तन क्यों अनिवार्य है ?

  1. ((a))

    ऊब से बचने के लिए

  2. ((b))

    सतत विकास के लिए

  3. ((c))

    पीढ़ियों का अंतराल

  4. ((d))

    प्रकृति का नियम

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

प्रकृति का नियम

परिवर्तन प्रकृति का नियम अनिवार्य है। 

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • परिवर्तन प्रकृति का नियम है। उसे तो हर हाल में होना ही है, पर परिवर्तन के दो रूप हैं - एक रूप है विकास, दूसरा रूप है विकृति।
  • परिवर्तन दोनों दशाओं में होता है पर दोनों को एक ही श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता।

Key Points

  • प्रकृति- कुदरत, स्वभाव, शील, तासीर, मिजाज।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'कृत्रिम'

Additional Informationऊब:-

  • अर्थ: उकताहट, खिन्नता, बोरियत, उदासी, सामंजस्य, एकरसता, नीरसता, उकताहट, बोरियत।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'बेक़रारी'

सतत:- 

  • अर्थ: सदा, हमेशा, निरन्तर, लगातार।

अंतराल:-

  • अर्थ: दूरी, फ़ासला, अंतर, दूरत्व।
2

सप्राण और निष्प्राण की पहचान है

(a) गतिशीलता व गतिहीनता

(b) विकासशीलता - विकृति

(c) बढ़ना या घटना

(d) ज्ञेय या अज्ञेय

उपर्युक्त विशेषताओं के आधार पर सही उत्तर है

  1. ((a))

    a, b, c

  2. ((b))

    b, c, d

  3. ((c))

    a, c, d

  4. ((d))

    a, b, d

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

b, c, d

सप्राण और निष्प्राण की पहचान है**- b, c, d**

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • हमारे लिए यह जानना ज़्यादा आसान है कि अंततः वही चीज़ें बचती हैं जो प्राणवान बनी रहें
  • सप्राण और निष्प्राण की पहचान हम चीज़ों के बढ़ने, पनपने की अंदरूनी ताकत से करते हैं।
  • इस ताकत का होना या न होना ही विकसने-गिरने का कारक कारण है । बढ़ने की तरह चीजें घटती भी हैं । विकृत भी होती हैं।

Key Pointsविकसित:-

  • अर्थ: प्रफुल्ल, खिला हुआ, प्रसन्न।
  • विलोम शब्द - ​'अविकसित'

विकृत:-

  • अर्थ: विकारयुक्त, रोगी, बेडौल, बीमार, ख़राब, परिवर्तित, दूषित।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'अविकृत'

ज्ञेय:-

  • अर्थ: जिसका जानना योग्य या कर्तव्य हो, जानने योग्य।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'अज्ञेय'

Additional Informationगतिशीलता:-

  • अर्थ:  गतियुक्तता, सचलता, तेज़ी, तीव्रता, उग्रता, शीघ्रता, दक्षता, प्रखरता।
  • ​विलोम शब्द - 'गतिहीनता'
3

'पोस्टमार्टम' का हिंदी पर्याय है

  1. ((a))

    जाँच-परख

  2. ((b))

    चीरफाड़

  3. ((c))

    आलोचना

  4. ((d))

    समर्थन

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

चीरफाड़

'पोस्टमार्टम' का हिंदी पर्याय है- चीरफाड़

  • अर्थ: वह परीक्षा जो किसी प्राणी की लाश को चीर फाड़कर की जाय

Key Points

  • ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।
  • जैसे - 
  • जाँच-परख- ​अच्छी तरह देख भाल
  • आलोचना - समीक्षा, गुण-दोष, छिद्रान्वेषण, टीका-टिप्पणी।
  • समर्थन - मदद, अनुमोदन, हिमायत, सहायता।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण 

  • अनुपम- अपूर्व, अतुल, अनोखा, अनूठा, अद्वितीय, अदभुत, अनन्य।
  • इज्जत- मान, प्रतिष्ठा, आदर, आबरू।
  • ईहा- मनोकामना, अभिलाषा, इच्छा, आकांक्षा, कामना।
  • उग्र- प्रचण्ड, उत्कट, तेज, महादेव, तीव्र, विकट।
  • एषणा- इच्छा, आकांक्षा, कामना, अभिलाषा, हसरत।
  • ओज- तेज, शक्ति, बल, चमक, कांति, दीप्ति, वीर्य।
4

'संस्कार' शब्द को परिभाषित करना क्यों कठिन है ?

  1. ((a))

    शाब्दिक अर्थ कठिन है ।

  2. ((b))

    यह एक लंबी प्रक्रिया का परिणाम है।

  3. ((c))

    संस्कार को समझना पेचीदा है ।

  4. ((d))

    संस्कार का अर्थ रूढ़ परंपरा समझा जाता है ।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

यह एक लंबी प्रक्रिया का परिणाम है।

'संस्कार' शब्द को परिभाषित करना कठिन है - यह एक लंबी प्रक्रिया का परिणाम है।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • ​सं��्कार शब्द में कौन-कौन सी चीजें, कौन-कौन से अनुभव, कौन से दृश्य, कौन-सी सूचनाएँ हमें या हमारे व्यक्तित्व को आगे ले जाती हैं, कौन-सी पीछे । किन चीज़ों का फलयोग हमारे जीवन में उत्कर्ष की तरह सामने आता है, किनका अपकर्ष की तरह। अर्थात यह एक लंबी प्रक्रिया का परिणाम है।

Key Points

  • प्रक्रिया- वह क्रिया या प्रणाली जिससे कोई वस्तु होती, बनती या निकलती हो, (प्रोसेस)
  • परिणाम - नतीजा, रूपांतर, फल, इफ़ेक्ट, विकार, कन्क्लूज़न, रिज़ल्ट, निष्कर्ष।
  • 'परिणाम' का संधि-विच्छेद परि + नाम होगा। इसमें व्यंजन संधि है।

Additional Informationशाब्दिक:- 

  • अर्थ: शब्द संबंधी, शब्द का, शब्द पर आश्रित, शब्दमय।

संस्कार:-

  • संस्कार = सम् + कार
  • संस्कार शब्द में व्यंजन संधि होगी।
  • अर्थ: सुधारना, अलंकार, सजावट, संस्कृति, सजाना, सभ्यता, सफ़ाई।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'उद्दंडता'

पेचीदा:-

  • अर्थ: चक्करदार, मुश्किल, टेढ़ा-मेढ़ा, कठिन, परेशानी, विपत्ति, कठिनाई, मुश्किल।

रूढ़:-

  • अर्थ: परंपरा; प्रथा, चढ़ाई, चढ़ाव, वह शब्दशक्ति जिससे शब्द अपने रूढ़ अर्थ का ज्ञान कराता है।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए :

'संस्कार' एक ऐसा शब्द है ज��सका हम पोस्टमार्टम नहीं कर सकते। उसका रेशा-रेशा खोलकर नहीं दिखा सकते कि वह किन तत्वों से बना है। उसमें हमारी कितनी पुश्तों का योगदान है। एक तरह से वह हमारे मानसिक डी.एन.ए. की तरह है । कितने युगों, साधनों, स्मृतियों, परंपराओं के रासायनिक मिश्रण का योगफल । हमने उसे कब और कैसे पाया, उसमें से कितना अर्जित किया, कितना पुरखों के अनुग्रह से मिला, इसे जानना भी आसान नहीं। हमारे लिए यह जानना ज़्यादा आसान है कि अंततः वही चीज़ें बचती हैं जो प्राणवान बनी रहें। सप्राण और निष्प्राण की पहचान हम चीज़ों के बढ़ने, पनपने की अंदरूनी ताकत से करते हैं। इस ताकत का होना या न होना ही विकसने-गिरने का कारक कारण है। बढ़ने की तरह चीजें घटती भी हैं। विकृत भी होती हैं। इस क्रिया की पहचान को महादेवी जी ने सुंदर व्याख्या की है। उनका कहना है, परिवर्तन हर चीज़ का नियम है । उसे तो हर हाल में होना ही है, पर परिवर्तन के दो रूप हैं - एक रूप है विकास, दूसरा रूप है विकृति। परिवर्तन दोनों दशाओं में होता है पर दोनों को एक ही श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता। एक उन्नति का परिचायक है, दूसरा अवनति का। संस्कार को हम इसी तुला पर तौलते हैं - कौन-कौन सी चीजें, कौन-कौन से अनुभव, कौन से दृश्य, कौन-सी सूचनाएँ हमें या हमारे व्यक्तित्व को आगे ले जाती हैं, कौन-सी पीछे। किन चीज़ों का फलयोग हमारे जीवन में उत्कर्ष की तरह सामने आता है, किनका अपकर्ष की तरह। रास्तों के चुनाव और अपनी संवेदना के इस्तेमाल के लिए यह समझ कारगर सिद्ध हो सकती है।

5

किसी वस्तु की चिरंतनता को हम किस तुला पर तौलते हैं ?

  1. ((a))

    लाभदायक - हानिकारक

  2. ((b))

    परिवर्तनयुक्त - परिवर्तनमुक्त

  3. ((c))

    विकसित - विकृत

  4. ((d))

    सुंदर - असुंदर

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

लाभदायक - हानिकारक

किसी वस्तु की चिरंतनता को हम तुला पर तौलते हैं- लाभदायक - हानिकारक

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • किसी वस्तु की चिरंतनता को हम एक **उन्नति (**लाभदायक)  का परिचायक है, दूसरा **अवनति (**हानिकारक) इसी तुला पर तौलते हैं।

Key Points

  • लाभदायक- फ़ायदेमंद, उपादेय, उत्कृष्ट, उपयोगी, उत्तम
  • विलोम शब्द - 'हानिकारक'

Additional Informationपरिवर्तनयुक्त:-

  • अर्थ: बदलाव, हेरफेर, तबदीली, फेरबदल।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'परिवर्तनमुक्त'

विकसित:-

  • अर्थ: प्रफुल्ल, खिला हुआ, प्रसन्न।
  • विलोम शब्द - ​**'अविकसित'**

विकृत:-

  • अर्थ: विकारयुक्त, रोगी, बेडौल, बीमार, ख़राब, परिवर्तित, दूषित।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'अविकृत'

सुंदर:-

  • अर्थ: मनोहर, सुहावना, चित्ताकर्षक, रमणीक, कमनीय, उत्कृष्ट, उत्तम, सुरम्य।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'असुंदर'

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए :

विवेकशीलता का अर्थ है सही और गलत की पहचान कर पाना और फिर सही के समर्थन में गलत का विरोध करना । यही है वह पक्षधरता जो मनुष्य को जागरूक बनाती है। हमारी त्रासदी यह है कि दृष्टा भाव से जीने को हम एक दार्शनिक और आध्यात्मिक अर्थ देकर अनायास अपना बचाव कर लेते हैं। दृष्टा भाव से जीने का कुछ भी ऊँचा अर्थ होता हो, सही के पक्ष में खड़े होने की आवश्यकता और महत्ता उससे कम नहीं होती। आज सवाल मनुष्यता के अस्तित्व का है, मनुष्यता अर्थात् वह भावना जो मानवीय आदर्शों से हमें जोड़ती है, जो यह अहसास कराती है कि मनुष्य होने के नाते हमारा यह कर्त्तव्य बनता है कि हम उचित के पक्ष में खड़े हों। अपने भीतर वह साहस पैदा करें जो अनुचित के विरुद्ध खड़े होने की प्रेरणा बनता है। 'कोउ नृप होहि हमहीं का हानी' वाला मंथरा-दर्शन कुल मिलाकर हमें सजीव मनुष्य से निर्जीव वस्तु में ही परिणत करता है। अपने आप को निर्जीव वस्तु के रूप में देखना मनुष्य के लिए असंभव की हद तक मुश्किल है। लेकिन जब हम यह भूल जाते हैं कि सही-गलत को पहचान करके सही के साथ खड़े होना हमारी मनुष्यता का प्रमाण है, तो हमारे सजीव और सजग होने का अर्थ ही क्या रह जाता है ? सवाल मनुष्योचित सजगता को जीवित रखने का है। कहीं भी, किसी भी तरह से यदि कुछ गलत हो रहा है तो इस सजगता का तकाज़ा है कि हम अपना विरोध दर्ज कराएँ - स्वयं अपनी दृष्टि में मनुष्य बने रहने के लिए। यही है तटस्थता की विरुद्धता का दर्शन और यही हमारे मनुष्य होने का प्रमाण भी है।

6

यहाँ 'तकाज़ा' शब्द का अर्थ है-

  1. ((a))

    शिकायत

  2. ((b))

    माँग

  3. ((c))

    ऋण

  4. ((d))

    देनदार

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

माँग

यहाँ 'तकाज़ा' शब्द का अर्थ है- माँग

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • कहीं भी, किसी भी तरह से यदि कुछ गलत हो रहा है तो इस सजगता का तकाज़ा है कि हम अपना विरोध दर्ज कराएँ - स्वयं अपनी दृष्टि में मनुष्य बने रहने के लिए । 

Key Points

  • 'तकाज़ा' शब्द का अन्य अर्थ है-  उत्तेजना, इच्छा, खपत, अनुरोध, दावा, ज़रूरत।  
  • अरबी भाषा का शब्द

Additional Informationशिकायत:-

  • अर्थ: शिकवा, गिला, निंदा, बुराई, दोष-कथन।

ऋण:-

  • अर्थ: कर्ज़, देनदारी, उधार, कृतज्ञता, उधारी, देय, लोन।

देनदार:-

  • अर्थ: कर्ज़दार, ऋणी, आभारी, ऋणी, उपकृत, अनुगृहीत, रैयत।
7

लेखक को तटस्थता की विरुद्धता के दर्शन की आवश्यकता क्यों महसूस हुई ?

  1. ((a))

    समय की माँग

  2. ((b))

    अनेक वादों के प्रचार से बचने के लिए

  3. ((c))

    मानवता के संरक्षण के लिए

  4. ((d))

    अपने अस्तित्व की रक्षा के लिए

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

मानवता के संरक्षण के लिए

लेखक को तटस्थता की विरुद्धता के दर्शन की आवश्यकता मानवता के संरक्षण के लिए महसूस हुई।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • हम अपना विरोध दर्ज कराएँ - स्वयं अपनी दृष्टि में मनुष्य बने रहने के लिए। यही है तटस्थता की विरुद्धता का दर्शन और यही हमारे मनुष्य होने का प्रमाण भी है।

Key Points

  • संरक्षण - बचाव, रक्षा, सुरक्षा, प्रतिरक्षा, हिफाजत, रखवाली।
  • विलोम शब्द- ​**'अरक्षण'**

Additional Informationमाँग:- 

  • अर्थ: चाह, आवश्यकता, फरमाइश, अनुरोध, आग्रह, प्रार्थना, याचना।

प्रचार:-

  • अर्थ: विज्ञापन, आचरण, गति, चलन, मार्ग, रिवाज, प्रोपगेंडा।

अस्तित्व:-

  • अर्थ: सत्ता, वजुद, विद्यमानता, उपस्थिति, मौजूदगी।
  • विलोम शब्द- 'अनस्तित्व'
8

गद्यांश में पक्षधरता से क्या आशय है ?

  1. ((a))

    सही के समर्थन से

  2. ((b))

    गलत के विरोध से

  3. ((c))

    सही-गलत में पहचान न कर पाना

  4. ((d))

    सही के समर्थन में गलत का विरोध

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

सही के समर्थन में गलत का विरोध

गद्यांश में पक्षधरता से आशय है - सही के समर्थन में गलत का विरोध

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • विवेकशीलता का अर्थ है सही और गलत की पहचान कर पाना और फिर सही के समर्थन में गलत का विरोध करना। यही है वह पक्षधरता जो मनुष्य को जागरूक बनाती है ।​

Key Points

  • समर्थन- किसी के मत या विचार पर सहमति जताने की क्रिया, अनुमोदन, (सपोर्ट) 
  • विलोम शब्द - 'विरोध'

Additional Informationसही:-

  • अर्थ: सत्य, यथार्थ, वास्तविक, सच, ठीक, शुद्ध। 
  • विलोम शब्द - 'गलत'
9

'दृष्टा भाव' का प्रयोग लोग अधिकतर किसलिए करते हैं ?

  1. ((a))

    आत्म-रक्षा के लिए

  2. ((b))

    अपनी कायरता छिपाने के लिए

  3. ((c))

    स्वयं को तटस्थ दिखाने के लिए

  4. ((d))

    किसी पचड़े में न पड़ने के लिए

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

आत्म-रक्षा के लिए

'दृष्टा भाव' का प्रयोग लोग अधिकतर आत्म-रक्षा के लिए करते हैं।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • ​ हमारी त्रासदी यह है कि दृष्टा भाव से जीने को हम एक दार्शनिक और आध्यात्मिक अर्थ देकर अनायास अपना बचाव कर लेते हैं ।

Key Points

  • आत्मरक्षा - स्वयं की या अपनी रक्षा।

Additional Informationकायरता:-

  • कायर + ता = कायरता
  • 'कायर' मूलशब्द और **'**ता' प्रत्यय
  • अर्थ: कायरपना, डरपोकपन, दब्बूपन
  • विलोम शब्द - 'निडर'

तटस्थ:-

  • अर्थ: उदासीन, निरपेक्ष, अलग, निष्पक्ष।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'साक्षेप'
10

लेखक को मंथरा-दर्शन क्यों अच्छा नहीं लगता ?

  1. ((a))

    स्वार्थ प्रेरित

  2. ((b))

    कायरतापूर्ण

  3. ((c))

    संवेदनहीन

  4. ((d))

    निर्जीव बनाता है ।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

स्वार्थ प्रेरित

लेखक को मंथरा-दर्शन स्वार्थ प्रेरित अच्छा नहीं लगता।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • मंथरा-दर्शन कुल मिलाकर हमें सजीव मनुष्य से निर्जीव वस्तु में ही परिणत करता है। अर्थात मंथरा-दर्शन स्वार्थ प्रेरित अच्छा नहीं लगता।

Key Points

  • स्वार्थ- मतलब, लाभ, गरज़, प्रयोजन, ढंग
  • विलोम शब्द - 'निस्वार्थ'
  • प्रेरित -  प्रोत्साहित , जोश में , उद्दीपित, उत्तेजित , उत्साहित

Additional Informationकायरतापूर्ण:-

  • अर्थ: बुजदिल, कापुरुष, डरपोक, ना समझ, अशक्ति।

संवेदनहीन:-

  • अर्थ:  जिसमें संवेदना न हो, निर्मम, क्रूर।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'संवेदनशील'

निर्जीव:-

  • अर्थ:  जिसमें प्राण या जान न हो, बेजान।
  • ​विलोम शब्द - **'**सजीव'
11

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    उसे मृत्युदंड मिला है।

  2. ((b))

    उसे मृत्यु की सज़ा मिली है।

  3. ((c))

    उसे तत्काल मौत की सज़ा मिली है।

  4. ((d))

    उसे मृत्यु का दंड मिला है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

उसे मृत्युदंड मिला है।

सही उत्तर 'उसे मृत्युदंड मिला है।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'उसे मृत्युदंड मिला है।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

​ Key Points

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • उसे मृत्यु की सज़ा मिली है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्य में वचन सम्बन्धी- अशुद्धि है।
  • वचन सम्बन्धी- अशुद्धि: हिंदी में कुछ शब्द सदैव बहुवचन में प्रयुक्त होने हैं। अतः उनका उचित बोध न होने के कारण तथा कर्त्ता एवं कर्म के वचन के अनुसार क्रिया प्रयुक्त न होने पर वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है।
  • उसे तत्काल मौत की सज़ा मिली है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्य में 'तत्काल' अनुप्रयुक्त शब्द है।
  • उसे मृत्यु का दंड मिला है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्य में 'मृत्यु का दंड'  के स्थान पर मृत्युदंड शब्द का प्रयोग होगा।

Additional Information

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
12

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    गाय का शुद्ध दूध यहाँ मिलता है।

  2. ((b))

    यहाँ गाय का शुद्ध दूध मिलता है।

  3. ((c))

    शुद्ध गाय का यहाँ दूध मिलता है।

  4. ((d))

    यहाँ मिलता है गाय का दूध शुद्ध।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

यहाँ गाय का शुद्ध दूध मिलता है।

सही उत्तर 'यहाँ गाय का शुद्ध दूध मिलता है।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'यहाँ गाय का शुद्ध दूध मिलता है।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • गाय का शुद्ध दूध यहाँ मिलता है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • शुद्ध गाय का यहाँ दूध मिलता है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • यहाँ मिलता है गाय का दूध शुद्ध।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में पदक्रम/क्रमभंग संबंधी अशुद्धि है।
  • क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी-वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।

Additional Information

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
13

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    उनके पास कोई भी सामान खाने के लिए नहीं है।

  2. ((b))

    कोई भी खाने का सामान उनके पास नहीं है।

  3. ((c))

    उनके पास खाने का कुछ भी सामान नहीं है।

  4. ((d))

    सामान नहीं है कोई भी उनके पास खाने का।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

उनके पास खाने का कुछ भी सामान नहीं है।

सही उत्तर 'उनके पास खाने का कुछ भी सामान नहीं है।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'उनके पास खाने का कुछ भी सामान नहीं है।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • उनके पास कोई भी सामान खाने के लिए नहीं है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • कोई भी खाने का सामान उनके पास नहीं है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • सामान नहीं है कोई भी उनके पास खाने का।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में पदक्रम/क्रमभंग संबंधी अशुद्धि है।
  • क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी-वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।

Additional Information  

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रे��ण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
14

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर गुलाब की एक माला टँगी है।

  2. ((b))

    एक गुलाब की माला मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर टँगी है।

  3. ((c))

    एक गुलाब की माला टँगी है मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर।

  4. ((d))

    एक गुलाब की माला चित्र पर टँगी है मेरे पिताजी के।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर गुलाब की एक माला टँगी है।

सही उत्तर 'मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर गुलाब की एक माला टँगी है।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर गुलाब की एक माला टँगी है।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • एक गुलाब की माला मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर टँगी है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • एक गुलाब की माला टँगी है मेरे पिताजी के चित्र पर।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • एक गुलाब की माला चित्र पर टँगी है मेरे पिताजी के। अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में पदक्रम/क्रमभंग संबंधी अशुद्धि है।
  • क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी-वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।

 

Additional Information 

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
15

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    एक फूलों की माला लाओ।

  2. ((b))

    फूलों की एक माला लाओ।

  3. ((c))

    एक माला फूलों की लाओ।

  4. ((d))

    फूल की माला एक लाओ।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

फूलों की एक माला लाओ।

सही उत्तर 'फूलों की एक माला लाओ।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'फूलों की एक माला लाओ।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Points

 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • एक फूलों की माला लाओ।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • एक माला फूलों की लाओ।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • फूल की माला एक लाओ।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में पदक्रम/क्रमभंग संबंधी अशुद्धि है।
  • एक फूलों की माला कभी नहीं होती है।
  • यह विरोधाभास है कि एक तरफ तो एक शब्द का प्रयोग कर रहे हैं तथा उसके पश्चात बहुवचन शब्द फूलों का प्रयोग हुआ है जो कि गलत है।
  • अतः फूलों की एक माला सही है।
  • क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी-वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।

Additional Information 

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबं���ी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
16

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह हटाने लगते हैं।

  2. ((b))

    उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह चुराने लगते हैं।

  3. ((c))

    उधार लेनेवाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह बनाने लगते हैं।

  4. ((d))

    उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से हटाने लगते हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह चुराने लगते हैं।

सही उत्तर 'उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह चुराने लगते हैं।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह चुराने लगते हैं।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Points

 अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह हटाने लगते हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उधार लेनेवाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से मुँह बनाने लगते हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उधार लेने वाले प्रायः ऋणदाता से हटाने लगते हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में क्रिया सम्बन्धी अशुद्धि है।
  • क्रिया सम्बन्धी अशुद्धि: क्रिया सम्बन्धी-सही क्रिया रूप प्रयुक्त न होने पर भी वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है।

Additional Information 

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
17

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    देश पंडित नेहरू का सदा आभारी रहेगा।

  2. ((b))

    पंडित नेहरू का आभारी रहेगा सदा देश।

  3. ((c))

    पंडित नेहरू का देश रहेगा आभारी सदा।

  4. ((d))

    देश सदा आभारी रहेगा पंडित नेहरू का।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

देश पंडित नेहरू का सदा आभारी रहेगा।

सही उत्तर 'देश पंडित नेहरू का सदा आभारी रहेगा।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'देश पंडित नेहरू का सदा आभारी रहेगा।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • पंडित नेहरू का आभारी रहेगा सदा देश।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • पंडित नेहरू का देश रहेगा आभारी सदा।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • देश सदा आभारी रहेगा पंडित नेहरू का।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में पदक्रम/क्रमभंग संबंधी अशुद्धि है।
  • क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी-वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।

Additional Information 

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
18

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    भारत में कई दर्शनीय स्थल योग्य हैं।

  2. ((b))

    भारत में कई स्थल दर्शनीय हैं।

  3. ((c))

    भारत में कई दर्शनीय स्थल हैं।

  4. ((d))

    देखने योग्य स्थल भारत में कई हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

भारत में कई दर्शनीय स्थल हैं।

सही उत्तर 'भारत में कई दर्शनीय स्थल हैं।' है।

  • भाषा वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से 'भारत में कई दर्शनीय स्थल हैं।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।
  • जो देखने योग्य हो उसे- दर्शनीय कहा जाता है।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • भारत में कई दर्शनीय स्थल योग्य हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपरोक्त वाक्य में अनुपयुक्त शब्द अशुद्धि है।
  • भारत में कई स्थल दर्शनीय हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपरोक्त वाक्य में क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी अशुद्धि है।
  • वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।
  • देखने योग्य स्थल भारत में कई हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपरोक्त वाक्य में क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी अशुद्धि है

 

Additional Information 

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
19

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    बाढ़ के प्रकोप से लोग तबाह हो गए।

  2. ((b))

    बाढ़ के प्रकोप से अनेक लोग तबाह हो गए।

  3. ((c))

    अनेक लोग तबाह हो गए बाढ़ के प्रकोप से।

  4. ((d))

    बाढ़ अनेकों लोगों को तबाह करती है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बाढ़ के प्रकोप से अनेक लोग तबाह हो गए।

सही उत्तर 'बाढ़ के प्रकोप से अनेक लोग तबाह हो गए ।' है।

  • दिए गए वाक्यों में 'बाढ़ के प्रकोप से अनेक लोग तबाह हो गए।' शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • ​अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • बाढ़ के प्रकोप से लोग तबाह हो गए। - अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपरोक्त वाक्य में अनुपयुक्त शब्द अशुद्धि है।
  • अनेक लोग तबाह हो गए बाढ़ के प्रकोप से।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपरोक्त वाक्य में क्रमभंग सम्बन्धी अशुद्धि है।
  • वाक्य रचना के आधार पर शब्द के उचित स्थान पर प्रयुक्त न होने से भी वाक्य में शुद्धि नहीं रहती है।
  • बाढ़ अनेकों लोगों को तबाह करती है।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • वाक्य में 'अनेकों' शब्द में शब्द ज्ञान संबंधी अशुद्धि है, उसके स्थान पर 'अनेक' शब्द का प्रयोग होना चाहिए।

Additional Information

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
  • वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।
20

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :

  1. ((a))

    आप नौ बजे के करीब आए होंगे।

  2. ((b))

    आप लगभग नौ बजे आए होंगे।

  3. ((c))

    आप लगभग नौ बजे आए हैं।

  4. ((d))

    करीब-करीब नौ बजे आप आए हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

आप लगभग नौ बजे आए हैं।

सही उत्तर 'आप लगभग नौ बजे आए हैं।' है।

  • दिए गए वाक्यों में "आप लगभग नौ बजे आए हैं।" शुद्ध वाक्य है।
  • अन्य दिए गए विकल्प अशुद्ध रूप में है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • आप नौ बजे के करीब आए होंगे। - अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • आप लगभग नौ बजे आए होंगे।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • करीब-करीब नौ बजे आप आए हैं।- अशुद्ध वाक्य
  • उपरोक्त वाक्यों में अनुपयुक्त शब्द "करीब, लगभग और करीब-करीब" के कारण वाक्य अशुद्ध है।
  • अनुपयुक्त शब्द के कारण अशुद्धि -वाक्य में अनुपयुक्त शब्द प्रयुक्त हो जाने से भी वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है।
  • अतः अनुपयुक्त शब्द को हटाकर उसके स्थान पर उपयुक्त शब्द का प्रयोग करना चाहिए।

Additional Information

वाक्य अशुद्धि शोधनवाक्यों में अनेक प्रकार की अशुद्धियाँ होती हैं जिनमें से कुछ इस प्रकार हैं –
‘वाक्य’ भाषा की महत्त्वपूर्ण इकाई है, अत: वाक्य को बोलते व लिखते समय उसकी शुद्धता, स्पष्टता और सार्थकता का ध्यान रखना आवश्यक है। यदि वाक्य में किसी तरह की अशुद्धि होती है तो आपके बोले गए वाक्य अर्थ भी बदल सकता है। सामने वाले व्यक्ति को आसानी से और सही-सही समझ आ सके उसके लिए आवश्यक है कि व्याकरण के नियमों की दृष्टि से ‘वाक्य’ को शुद्ध हो। अत: वाक्य को व्याकरण के नियमों के अनुसार शुद्ध करना ही ‘वाक्य अशुद्धि शोधन’ कहलाता है।अनुपयुक्त शब्द के कारण अशुद्धि वाक्य में अनुपयुक्त शब्द प्रयुक्त हो जाने से भी वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है। अतः अनुपयुक्त शब्द को हटाकर उसके स्थान पर उपयुक्त शब्द का प्रयोग करना चाहिए। उदाहरण - अशुद्ध रूप - रातभर गधे भौंकते रहे। शुद्ध रूप - रातभर कुत्ते भौंकते रहे।

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions/complete the statements with the help of the most appropriate options that follow :

The man whose work made life easier for humankind had to pay a heavy price for his success. Faraday's last years were marked by physical and psychological exhaustion. He gradually lapsed into senility and passed away quietly on 25 August, 1867.

Faraday was possibly the greatest experimental scientist the world has ever known. But Faraday, the man, was just as great as Faraday, the scientist. His fight to overcome poverty, lack of education, ill-treatment and discouragement can be a source of inspiration to mankind for years to come. At one stage in his career he deliberately gave up working as a constultant for industries so that he could concentrate on pure science, it is stoically accepted the hardship that it entailed. It was the British monarch's intervention that helped secure for him a government pension. He spared some of his time and energy to inspire young school-going children to take up careers in science. His annual Pre-Christmas lectures on science to school children were loved by them all (and by adults too).

No tribute can be greater than what Sir William Bragg, the physicist, paid Faraday : "Prometheus, they say, brought fire to the service of mankind. Of that we cannot be sure', but electricity we certainly owe to Michael Faraday."

21

Faraday is compared to Prometheus because both were

  1. ((a))

    exceptionally brilliant.

  2. ((b))

    extremely hardworking.

  3. ((c))

    benefactors of mankind.

  4. ((d))

    dedicated and diligent.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

benefactors of mankind.

The correct answer is benefactors of mankind.

Key Points

  • Faraday was honoured by Sir William Bragg as Prometheus, they say, brought fire to the service of mankind.
  • Faraday had made his life's work as a great experimental scientist to make life easier for mankind.

Thus benefactors of mankind is the correct answer.

Important Points 

  • Faraday is compared to Prometheus not because he's brilliant, hardworking or diligent but because of service to the mankind.
22

The word 'intervention' as used in the passage means

  1. ((a))

    encouragement

  2. ((b))

    mediation

  3. ((c))

    motivation

  4. ((d))

    promise

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

mediation

The correct answer is Mediation.

Key Points

  • As per the passage, the British monarch's intervention helped secure Faraday a government pension.
  • The word intervention used in passage means mediation.

Thus mediation is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Encouragement is the action of giving someone support, confidence, or hope.
  • Motivation is the desire to act in service of a goal.
  • Promise is a a declaration or assurance that one will do something.
23

What took a heavy toll on Faraday's health ?

  1. ((a))

    Poverty

  2. ((b))

    Excessive hard work

  3. ((c))

    Disturbed family life

  4. ((d))

    Unjust criticism of his rivals

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Excessive hard work

The correct answer is Excessive hard work.

Key Points

  • As per the passage, Faraday's last years were marked by physical and psychological exhaustion.
  • He gradually lapsed into senility and passed away quietly on 25 August, 1867.
  • So, it explains his excessive hard work which lead to his illness.

Thus Excessive hard work is the correct answer.

24

Identify the statement which is false.

  1. ((a))

    Faraday lacked good and formal education.

  2. ((b))

    He was poor.

  3. ((c))

    He had no patron to encourage him.

  4. ((d))

    He had many professional rivals

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

He had no patron to encourage him.

The correct answer is "He had no patron to encourage him."

Key Points

  • This statement is false because as per the passage a British monarch's intervention that helped secure for him a government pension which states that he has a patron.
  • Thus He had no patron to encourage him is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • The remaining statements are true, i.e. 
  • Faraday lacked good and formal education.
  • He was poor.
  • He had many professional rivals which in the passage is mentioned as discouragement..
25

Pursuit of pure science entails

  1. ((a))

    Failure

  2. ((b))

    Hardships

  3. ((c))

    Risks

  4. ((d))

    Huge resources

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hardships

The correct answer is Hardships.

Key Points

  • As per the passage "pure science, it is stoically accepted the hardship that it entailed" indicates the hardships Faraday faced.
  • In order to pursue pure science, one much go through several hardships before they face the success in the science stream.

Thus hardships is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Failure is an act or instance of failing or proving unsuccessful.
  • Risks : It is a possibility of loss or injury.
  • Huge resources : It means the unusually large in size, extent, vast amount of resources.
26

Directions : Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow :

He was _______ by his boss for frequent late coming.

  1. ((a))

    pulled down

  2. ((b))

    pulled up

  3. ((c))

    pulled in

  4. ((d))

    pulled on

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

pulled in

The correct answer is pulled in.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is pulled in, which completes "He was pulled in by his boss for frequent late coming".
  • Pulled in: it means to check, restrain etc.

Thus pulled in is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • The phrasal verb pull down means to make somebody less happy, but its real meaning goes as to destroy or take down.
  • Pulled up means to check oneself or to stop etc. In different circumstances its used accordingly.
  • Pulled on means to hold onto and move (something) toward oneself.
27

Directions : Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow :

I _______ him for 20 years.

  1. ((a))

    know

  2. ((b))

    knew

  3. ((c))

    could have known

  4. ((d))

    have known

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

have known

The correct answer is Have known.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, have known is to be used.
  • The reason being the time period of 20 years has passed and it is still continuing to the present.
  • So, we need to use present perfect tense.
  • ​​Example:
  • ​I have known him for four days.
  • Accordingly, 'have known' is the most appropriate verb for the given sentence.

The sentence can be completed as, I have known him for 20 years.

Additional Information

  • We often use 'for' and 'since' with perfect continuous tenses: 
  • ​For : We use 'for' to talk about a period of time : three hours, two months, one decade, etc.
  • Ex : He has been playing football for a long time.
  • Since : We use 'since' to talk about a point in past time: 9 o'clock, 1st January, Monday
  • ​Ex : I have been watching TV since 8 o'clock.
28

Directions : Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow :

He told me that he ______ to take up the assignment.

  1. ((a))

    is willing

  2. ((b))

    was willing

  3. ((c))

    has been willing

  4. ((d))

    will be willing

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

was willing

The correct answer is "was willing".

Key Points

  • The adjective “willing” means to be ready, eager or prepared to do something.
  • The given sentence is in indirect speech.
  • Also, the main verb 'told' is in past and in that clause, we need to use past tense of the verb i.e. was.
  • The tense required here is past tense.

Thus the correct answer is "was willing".

The sentence can be completed as, He told me that he was willing to take up the assignment.

Additional Information

  • Will be willing : Will be is used in future continuous tense, sometimes also referred to as the future progressive tense, is a verb tense that indicates that something will occur in the future and continue for an expected length of time. It is formed using the construction will + be + the present participle (the root verb + -ing).
  • Has been willing : “Has been” is used to mean that something began in the past and has lasted into the present time.
29

Directions : Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow :

A public man should be tolerant ______ criticism.

  1. ((a))

    of

  2. ((b))

    over

  3. ((c))

    to

  4. ((d))

    on

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

of

The correct answer is "of".

Key Points

  • The sentence is completed as, A public man should be tolerant of criticism. The appropriate Preposition will be "of".
  • A word signifying the relation between two words is known as Preposition.
  • Example: in, on, with, before, after, for etc.
  • 'Of' Preposition is used to say about a particular feature, aspect, or quality.
  • It is also used in indicating specific things.
  • It also shows concern about something.

Thus the correct answer is "of"

Additional Information

  • A preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun, pronoun, or noun phrase to show direction, time, place, location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an object.
  • Some examples of prepositions are words like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to."
  • Examples: Snow is falling all over the country.
  • All of us went to the movie theater.
  • The map lies on the desk.
30

Directions : Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow :

His parents often connive ______ his follies.

  1. ((a))

    upon

  2. ((b))

    at

  3. ((c))

    with

  4. ((d))

    over

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

at

The correct answer is "at".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, it is given that the subject's parents often ignore the subject's follies.
  • In the sentence,
  • Connive means to pretend ignorance of or fail to take action against something one ought to oppose.
  • Example: The captain connived at the smuggling of goods aboard his ship.
  • Follies means foolish acts or ideas of someone.
  • Example: His own folly caused him trouble.
  • "At" is a preposition used after a verb to show that somebody tries to do something, or partly does something.
  • Example: She nibbled at a sandwich.
  • In the given sentence, after the verb "Connive", the appropriate preposition to be used is "at".

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

31

Directions : Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow :

The scheme ______ for want of resources.

  1. ((a))

    fell down

  2. ((b))

    fell of

  3. ((c))

    fell through

  4. ((d))

    fell over

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

fell through

The correct answer is "fell through"

Key Points

  • Let us understand the meaning of the given phrases:
  • "Fell down" means to fall to the ground.
  • Example: Our mango tree fell down in the storm.
  • "Fell through" means to fail or stop in a sudden or final way.
  • Example:  The contract negotiations of the two companies fell through.
  • "Fell over" means to fall on something.
  • Example: Ashes from the volcano fall over a wide area.
  • In the given sentence, it is stated that because of the deficiency of the resources the scheme was stopped.
  • Thus, the correct phrase to fill the blank will be "fell through".

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

32

Directions : Which part of speech is the underlined word in each of the following sentences ?

They while away their evenings with books and games.

  1. ((a))

    Verb

  2. ((b))

    Adverb

  3. ((c))

    Preposition

  4. ((d))

    Conjunction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Verb

The correct answer is "verb".

Key Points

  • "While away" is a phrasal verb which means to spend time (idly) and usually pleasantly.
  • Example: We whiled away the afternoon with a walk around the garden.
  • "Verb" refers to all actions, including those related to feelings and emotions.
  • Example: My dog is sleeping.
  • From the above explanation, it is clear that the "while" in the given sentence is a verb.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Let us understand the meaning of the other given parts of speech:
  • An adverb is a word that modifies or describes a verb (he sings loudly), an adjective (very tall), another adverb (ended too quickly)
  • A preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun, pronoun, or noun phrase to show direction, time, place, location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an object. Some examples of prepositions are words like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to."
  • A conjunction is a word or phrase that connects words, phrases, clauses, and sentences together.

                            The flower is white and red.

33

Directions : Which part of speech is the underlined word in each of the following sentences ?

He left his brother behind and came back alone.

  1. ((a))

    Noun

  2. ((b))

    Adverb

  3. ((c))

    Preposition

  4. ((d))

    Adjective

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Adverb

The correct answer is "Adverb".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence,  the word 'Behind' has been used as an adverb and indicates ' in a place or situation that one has departed from'.
  • Example: Mary stayed behind to help clean up.
  • An adverb is a word that modifies or describes a verb (he sings loudly), an adjective (very tall), another adverb (ended too quickly).
  • Example - The dog waited impatiently for his food.
  • In the given sentence, the word "behind" is used as an adverb to talk about the relation between the subject and the place where he left his brother.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Let us understand the meaning of the other given part of speech:
  • A noun is a word that refers to a thing (house), a person (Harry potter), an animal (dog), a place (Odisha), a quality (firmness), an idea (justice)
  • Adjectives are words that describe the qualities or states of being of nouns: beautiful, silly, red, fun, fast. They can also describe the quantity of nouns: many, few, millions, twelve.
  • A preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun, pronoun, or noun phrase to show direction, time, place, location, spatial relationships, or to introduce an object. Some examples of prepositions are words like "in," "at," "on," "of," and "to."
  • Example: They go to bed at midnight.
34

Directions : Each of the following sentences has an error. Identify the part which has the error.

It was undoubtedly (1) / the best of (2) / the two options (3) / given to him (4).

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is "option 2".

Key Points

  • The error lies in part 2 i.e. 'the best of'.
  • Here we use adjective of comparative degree 'better' to show the comparison between two things. 
  • For example - She is the better of the two.
  • Superlative degree (best) is used to show the comparison between more than two objects or persons.
  • For Example -  She is the best student in the class.
  • Therefore the correct sentence is - It was undoubtedly the better of the two options given to him.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

35

Directions : Each of the following sentences has an error. Identify the part which has the error.

He was (1) / the imaginative child (2) / and would dream of doing (3) / great things (4).

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The error is in part 2 of the given sentence.
  • The use of the article "the" before the word "imaginative" is incorrect.
  • An article is a short monosyllabic word that is used to define if the noun is specific or not.
  • There are three articles in English – ‘a’, ‘an’ and ‘the’. These articles are divided into two types namely:
  • Definite article: 'The’ is said to be the definite article. A definite article is used to determine something that is specific or particular.
  • Example: The sun sets in the west or The crowd sang along with the band.
  • Indefinite articlesThe articles ‘an’ and ‘an’ are termed as indefinite articles. An indefinite article, as the name suggests, is used to indicate something that is not definite or specific. It can also be used before singular nouns.
  • ‘An’ is used before words that start with vowel sounds (“an equation” or “an element”), even if the word starts with a silent consonant.
  • Example: I had an apple for breakfast or My mother is a doctor.
  • The given word "imaginative" is an adjective and it starts with the vowel sounds "i".
  • Thus, we will use  "an" before the given word imaginative.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions/complete the statements with the help of the options that follow :

On 28 August, 1998, the statue of Birsa Munda was unveiled in the precincts of Parliament House by the President of India and Birsa Munda became the first tribal leader to join the galaxy of national leaders. The speeches delivered on the occasion described Birsa Munda as "a great social reformer", a "constructive genius" and above all an "enthusiastic nationalist", a "great freedom fighter", who "was like a 'Tulsi' plant grown in the premises of a household was ever ready to help others", an "exemplary son of mother India" who fought for her independence", an "emancipator of the Munda community in the long succession of Shri Ram, Shri Krishna and Jesus Christ", an "extraordinary statesman". The President of India placed the man and his movement in perspective and described Birsa Munda as an "early advocate and exponent of tribal rights" and as an "indomitable fighter against foreign rule and oppression". He led a movement which inter alia attracted a large number of women who suffered imprisonment, faced police bullets and embraced death. He underlined the relevance of the man and message for the tribals who are the protectors and preservers of "Jal, Jangle and Jantu", and appealed for the reexamination of the concept of development and progress for 'truly' sustainable development."

The family of Birsa Munda is in disarray, living in penury. The Birsaites as a whole, persecuted, harassed and isolated deserve a new deal.

The Mundas are still generally a poor and backward people and therefore a suitable strategy of accelerated development of the area and the people should be framed. The naming of the institutions and public places after Birsa Munda has continued and while the political parties and social organizations vie with one another in paying the homage to the Munda leader, only a few have come up with a concrete programme to translate rhetoric into action.

36

The author's attitude to political parties and social organisations is

  1. ((a))

    neutral

  2. ((b))

    ambivalent

  3. ((c))

    critical

  4. ((d))

    biased

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

critical

The correct answer is critical.

Key Points

  • Critical is containing or making severe or negative judgments, careful or analytical evaluations. It also means consisting of or involving judgment of value, worth, beauty, or quality critical writings.
  • It expressing or involving an analysis of the merits and faults of a work of literature, music, or art etc.
  • As per the passage the author's attitude to political parties and social organisations is critical.

Therefore critical is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Neutral : Neutral is being impartial or not supporting or helping either side in a conflict, disagreement.
  • Ambivalent : It is about having mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something or someone.
  • Biased : Biased is unfairly prejudiced for or against someone or something.
37

The word 'homage' as used in the passage means

  1. ((a))

    admiration

  2. ((b))

    servility

  3. ((c))

    love

  4. ((d))

    tribute

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

tribute

The correct answer is Tribute.

Key Points

  • Tribute : It is an act, statement, or gift that is intended to show gratitude, respect, or admiration.
  • A tribute is a sign of respect or admiration, an award to honor a person's accomplishments.
  • As per the passage tribute is the actual meaning we get from the word Homage.

Thus the correct answer is tribute.

Additional Information

  • Admiration : Admiration is defined as something regarded as impressive or worthy of respect.
  • Servility : It is an excessive willingness to serve or please others.
  • Love : Love is an intense feeling of deep affection, a range of strong and positive emotional and mental state to the simplest pleasures.
38

To whom did Birsa Munda urge to preserve and protect, 'Jal, Jantu and Jungle' ?

  1. ((a))

    Social organisations

  2. ((b))

    The common man

  3. ((c))

    The tribals

  4. ((d))

    The government

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The tribals

The correct answer is The tribals.

Key Points

  • Birsa Munda urged the tribals to preserve and protect, 'Jal, Jantu and Jungle'.
  • As per the passage : He (Birsa Munda) underlined the relevance of the man and message for the tribals who are the protectors and preservers of "Jal, Jangle and Jantu", and appealed for the reexamination of the concept of development and progress for 'truly' sustainable development."

Thus The tribals is the correct answer.

39

The best tribute to Birsa Munda would be to

  1. ((a))

    bring the tribals in the mainstream.

  2. ((b))

    ensure sustainable development.

  3. ((c))

    bring about social reforms.

  4. ((d))

    industrialise the tribal belt.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bring the tribals in the mainstream.

The correct answer is bring the tribals in the mainstream.

Key Points

  • As per the passage : The family of Birsa Munda is in disarray, living in penury. The Birsaites as a whole, persecuted, harassed and isolated deserve a new deal.
  • The Mundas are still generally a poor and backward people and therefore a suitable strategy of accelerated development of the area and the people should be framed.
  • This sentence of the passage explains that they are still marginalised and brining them into the mainstream would be the best tribute to Birsa Munda.

Thus bring the tribals in the mainstream is the correct answer.

40

Identify the statement which is false.

  1. ((a))

    Birsa Munda was a freedom fighter.

  2. ((b))

    He was a great educationist.

  3. ((c))

    He was an exemplary son of Mother India.

  4. ((d))

    He was a great social reformer.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

He was a great educationist.

The correct answer is "He was a great educationist".

Key Points

  • According to the passage : Birsa Munda as "a great social reformer", a "constructive genius" and above all an "enthusiastic nationalist", a "great freedom fighter", who "was like a 'Tulsi' plant grown in the premises of a household was ever ready to help others".
  • An "exemplary son of mother India" who fought for her independence", an "emancipator of the Munda community in the long succession of Shri Ram, Shri Krishna and Jesus Christ", an "extraordinary statesman".
  • He was all of the above but not a great educationalist as per the passage.
<br>

Thus He was a great educationist is the correct answer.

General Awareness (30 questions)

41

Match the following :

AB
(i)Raja Rammohan Roy(a)Arya Samaj
(ii)Mahadev Govind Ranade(b)Prarthana Samaj
(iii)Dayanand Saraswati(c)Brahmo Samaj
(iv)Swami Vivekanand(d)Ramkrishna Mission
  1. ((a))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)

  2. ((b))

    (i) - (d), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)

  3. ((c))

    (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)

  4. ((d))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)

The correct answer is (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d).

Key Points

PersonFounded
(i)Raja Rammohan Roy(c)Brahmo Samaj
(ii)Mahadev Govind Ranade(b)Prarthana Samaj
(iii)Dayanand Saraswati(a)Arya Samaj
(iv)Swami Vivekanand(d)Ramkrishna Mission
  • Hence, option (3) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d) is the correct sequence.

Additional Information

  • Brahmo Samaj
  • Brahmo Samaj was a reformist movement within Hinduism.
  • It was started at Calcutta in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Debendranath Tagore.​
  • Eradicate practices like the ‘Sati’ and caste system.
  • Prarthana Samaj​
  • Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 by Dadoba Pandurang and his brother **Atmaram Pandurang.**​
  • The motive behind it was to make people believe in one God and worship only one God.
  • It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined.
  • Arya Samaj
  • ​The Arya Samaj is a reform movement.
  • Established in Bombay in 1875 by Swami Dayananda Saraswati.
  • Ramkrishna Mission​
  • Named after and inspired by the Indian spiritual Guru Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
  • Founded by Ramakrishna's chief disciple Swami Vivekananda on 1 May 1897.
42

Which among the following is not guaranteed as the Right to Freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India

  2. ((b))

    Freedom of speech and expression

  3. ((c))

    Freedom from forced labour

  4. ((d))

    Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Freedom from forced labour

The correct answer is Freedom from forced labour.

Key Points

  • Article 19 ensures the following six freedoms:-
  • Freedom of speech and Expression
  • Freedom of assembly
  • Freedom of association
  • Freedom of movement
  • Freedom of Residence and Settlement
  • Freedom of Profession, Occupation, Trade, or Business.
  • The Right Against Forced Labour (Exploitation) is guaranteed by Article 23 of the Constitution.​

Additional Information

  • The Constitution provided for six Fundamental Rights:
  • Right to equality (Articles 14-18)
  • Right to freedom (Articles 19-22)
  • Right against exploitation (Articles 23-24)
  • Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25-28)
  • Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30)
  • Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

Important Points

  • Indian Constitution came into existence on 26th November 1949.
  • The Constituent Assembly of India drafted the constitution considering features of constitutions of the other countries as well as from the Government of India Act 1935.
  • There are various sources of the Indian constitution for some features of it are borrowed.
  • **From the US:**​
  • ​Fundamental rights
  • Independence of judiciary
  • Judicial review
  • Impeachment of the president
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges
  • Post of vice-president
  • From the Soviet Union (USSR) (now, Russia):
  • ​Fundamental duties
  • Ideals of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble​
  • From Ireland:
  • ​Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of the president​
  • From South Africa:
  • Procedure for amendment in the Indian Constitution

Election of members of Rajya Sabha

  • From Germany (Weimar):
  • ​Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
43

The crude birth rate (CBR) is expressed as

(CBR = Crude birth rate; Bi = Live births during the year; P = Mid year population of the area)

  1. ((a))

    CBR = P/Bi × 100

  2. ((b))

    CBR = Bi/P × 100

  3. ((c))

    CBR = P/Bi × 1000

  4. ((d))

    CBR = Bi/P × 1000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CBR = Bi/P × 1000

The correct answer is CBR = Bi/P × 1000.

Key Points

  • The crude birth rate (CBR) is equal to the number of live births (​Bi) in a year divided by the total midyear population (​P​), with the ratio multiplied by 1,000 to arrive at the number of births per 1,000 people.
  • The formula for crude birth is:
  • CBR = Bi/P × 1000.
  • CBR = Crude birth rate; Bi = Live births during the year; P = Mid-year population of the area).​

Additional Information

  • Crude Birth Rate (CBR)
  • Childbirths per 1,000 people each year.
  • This is a common measure of fertility for a given population.
  • The crude birth rate of India is 17.23 per 1000 people.
  • There are 10.23 million deaths in India in 2021.
44

Who among the following received Arjuna Award for Hockey in the year 2016 ?

  1. ((a))

    Sylvanus Dung Dung

  2. ((b))

    V.R. Raghunath

  3. ((c))

    Subrata Paul

  4. ((d))

    Rajat Chauhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

V.R. Raghunath

The correct answer is V.R. Raghunath.

Key Points

  • V.R. Raghunath received Arjuna Award for Hockey in the year 2016.
  • He became the first hockey player from Karnataka to receive the Arjuna Award in nearly 20 years.
  • The last Arjun awardee from Karnataka was Ashish Ballal and A.B. Subbaiah in 1996.
  • Raghunath made his debut for the National team in 2005.
  • He now **has 222 caps and 132 goals.**​

Important Points 

  • Some Arjun awards winners (2021):
Sport personSports
Arpinder SingAthletics
Simranjit KaurBoxing
Shikhar DhawanCricket
Vandana KatariyaHockey
Abhishek VermaShooting
Ankita RainaTennis
Deepak PuniaWrestling
Sharad KumarPara Athletics
Nishad KumarPara Athletics

 

Additional Information

  • Arjuna Award:
  • First Arjuna Award was given in 1961.
  • The Arjuna Award symbol is the Bronze Statue of Arjuna with his “Bow and Scroll”.
  • The sports persons receiving this award are given 15 Lakh Rupees in cash.
  • This is the second-highest sporting honour in India.
  • The award is conferred by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
  • At present Anurag Thakur is the Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
45

Who received the Sahitya Akademi award for the Hindi literary work "Aag ki Hansi" for the year 2015?

  1. ((a))

    Ramesh Chandra Shah

  2. ((b))

    Ramdarash Mishra

  3. ((c))

    Mridula Garg

  4. ((d))

    Chandrakant Devtale

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ramdarash Mishra

The correct answer is Ramdarash Mishra.

Key Points

  • Ram Darash Mishra was awarded Sahitya Akademi Award for the year 2015 for his Hindi work "Aag ki Hansi".
  • Nasira Sharma is the winner of the Hindi novel "Paarijat" in the year 2016.

Additional Information

  • The Sahitya Akademi was inaugurated by the Government of India on 12th March 1954 and it was registered as a society on 7th January 1956 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
  • The headquarters of the Akademi is located in New Delhi and it is the second-highest literary honour next to a Sahitya Akademi Fellowship.
  • The Sahitya Akademi award was first awarded in the year 1954.
  • It comprises a plaque and a cash price of one lakh rupees from the year 2009.
  • The Sahitya Akademi gives some other awards which are as follows:
  • Bhasha Samman Puraskar
  • Bal Sahitya Puraskar
  • Prize for Translation.

In News

  • The Sahitya Akademi, on 30 December 2021, announced its awards 2021 for literary works in 20 languages, including novels in Assamese and English.
  • In English, Author Namita Gokhale won the award for her book Things to Leave Behind.
  • Ms Gokhale was awarded for her novel Things to Leave Behind and Ms Pujari for Iyat Ekhan Aaronya Asil.
  • Daya Prakash Sinha was awarded in Hindi for Samrat Ashok (Play).
  • Among the winners for poetry were Mwdai Gahai (Bodo), Sanjiv Verenkar (Konkani), Hrushikesh Mallick (Odia), Meethesh Nirmohi (Rajasthani), Vindeshwariprasad Mishr ‘Vinay’ (Sanskrit), Arjun Chawla (Sindhi) and Gorati Venkanna (Telugu).
  • Books of short stories by writers Raj Rahi (Dogri), Kiran Gurav (Marathi), Khalid Hussain (Punjabi), Niranjan Hansda (Santali) and Ambai (Tamil) were among those chosen for the awards.
  • A biography by D.S. Nagabhushana in Kannada, an autobiography by George Onakkoor in Malayalam, a work of criticism by Wali Mohd.
  • Aseer Kashtawari in Kashmiri and a book of epic poetry by Chhabilal Upadhyaya.
  • For Hindi the Daya Prakash Sinha got the award for the  Play
46

Among the following athletes, who is considered as the greatest sprinter of all time and obtained the "triple-triple", three sprinting gold medals in three consecutive Olympics?

  1. ((a))

    Gatlin Justin

  2. ((b))

    De Grasse Andre

  3. ((c))

    Bolt Usain

  4. ((d))

    James Kirani

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bolt Usain

The correct answer is Bolt Usain

Key Points

  • Bolt Usain is considered as the greatest sprinter of all time and obtained the "triple-triple", three sprinting gold medals in three consecutive Olympics.
  • He is a world record holder in the 100 meters, 200 meters, and 4 × 100 meters relay.
  • Bolt is the only sprinter to win Olympic 100 m and 200 m titles at three consecutive Olympics (2008, 2012 and 2016).
  • He gained worldwide fame for his double sprint victory in world record times at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, which made him the first person to hold both records since fully automatic time became mandatory.
  • He won consecutive World Championship 100 m, 200 m, and 4 × 100 meters relay gold medals from 2009 to 2015.

Additional Information

  • Usain Bolt is a Jamaican sprinter.
  • He is considered the greatest sprinter of all time.
  • Usain Bolt set the world record in the 100-meter sprint at 9.58 seconds in 2009.
  • Birth- 21 August 1986
47

Organise in an ascending chronological order the following dynasties of Delhi Sultanate :

  1. The Tughlaqs 2. The Slave Sultans 3. The Khaljis 4. The Lodis
  1. ((a))

    2, 3, 1, 4

  2. ((b))

    1, 2, 3, 4

  3. ((c))

    4, 1, 2, 3

  4. ((d))

    2, 1, 3, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2, 3, 1, 4

The correct answer is 2, 3, 1, 4.

Important Points

  • Slave Dynasty(1206-1290 AD):
  • They were also called ‘Mamluks’.
  • Qutubuddin Aibak was the first king.
  • Khilji Dynasty(1290-1320 AD):
  • It was marked as the zenith of Muslim imperialism.
  • Jalaluddin Khilji was the founder.
  • Tughlaq Dynasty(1320-1414 AD):
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq was the founder of the dynasty.
  • He founded Tughlaqabad city near Delhi.
  • Lodi Dynasty(1451- 1526 AD):
  • They succeeded Syyadis(1414-1451 AD) Dynasty.
  • Bahalol Lodi was the founder.
  • Accordingly, the 2-3-1-4 sequence is correct.
  • Hence, option A is correct.
48

The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

  1. ((a))

    Anai Mudi

  2. ((b))

    Mahendragiri

  3. ((c))

    Shevroy Hills

  4. ((d))

    Javadi Hills

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mahendragiri

The correct answer is Mahendragiri.

Key Points 

  • Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats among the given choices.
  • It is located in the district of Gajapati, Odisha.

Confusion Points

  • Jidhagada Peak now holds the title of the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats, taking over from Mahendra Giri Hill. Formerly, Mahendra Giri Hill was considered the highest peak, but in April 2011, a team led by Mr. Venkat Reddy Y discovered that its elevation is only 1,501 meters.
  • The elevations of key peaks are as follows:
  • Arma Konda: 1,680 meters
  • Mahendragiri: 1,501 meters
  • Jindhagada Peak: 1,690 meters
  • However, as Arma Konda and Jidhagada were not provided as options, the correct response, considering the given choices, would be Mahendragiri.

Additional Information 

Eastern Ghats:

  • A discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal.
  • They are eroded and cut through by the four major rivers of peninsular India, Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna and Kaveri.
  • Some of the important ranges include the Shevaroy hills, Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc.
  • National Parks/Tiger Reserves that come under the Eastern Ghats are:
  • Simlipal National Park, Odisha
  • Sunabeda Tiger Reserve, Odisha
  • Satkosia Tiger Reserve, Odisha
  • Amrabad Tiger Reserve, Telangana
  • Sri Venkateswara National Park, Andhra Pradesh
  • Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, Andhra Pradesh.

49

Match the Dances (List-A) with the States (List-B) :

List-AList-B
(i)Bihu(a)Maharashtra
(ii)Mohiniattayam(b)Rajasthan
(iii)Lavani(c)Kerala
(iv)Bhavai(d)Assam
  1. ((a))

    (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)

  2. ((b))

    (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (c)

  3. ((c))

    (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)

  4. ((d))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)

The correct answer is (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b).

Key Points

  • Bihu is a set of three important festivals observed in the Indian state of Assam which are-
  • Rongali or Bohag Bihu observed in April
  • Kongali or Kati Bihu observed in October
  • Bhogali or Magh Bihu observed in January
  • Mohiniyattam is one of the two classical dance forms that originated in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Mohiniyattam was originally practiced by the Devadasis in Kerela.
  • Lavani is a folk dance in Maharashtra.
  • It is a combination of traditional song and dance, which is particularly performed to the beats of Dholki which is a percussion instrument.
  • Bhavai folk dance is performed during weddings by skilled Male or Females.
  • The male or female performers balance a number of earthen pots or brass pitchers as they dance nimbly swimming with the soles of their feet first on top of the glass and on the edge of the sword or on the rims of the brass plate during the performance.
  • Hence (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b) is the correct match.
50

Which of the following characterize Indian Foreign Policy in the Nehruvian period?

  1. Non-alignment
  2. Panchsheel
  3. Promoting cooperation among South-Asian countries
  4. Working for peace and decolonisation
  1. ((a))

    1, 2, 3

  2. ((b))

    2, 3, 4

  3. ((c))

    1, 2

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1, 2, 4

The correct answer is 1, 2, 4.

Key Points

  • The principles of Indian foreign policy are as follows: 
  • Pre-Independence stand of Indian foreign policy
  • Asian relations conferences
  • Non-alignment movement
  • Panch sheel
  • The leadership of third-world countries
  • The policy of Anti- Colonialism and Anti Racism
  • Peaceful settlement of International Disputes
  • Hence 1,2, and 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Article 51 of the Indian Constitution is related to Indian Foreign Policy.
  • It is a part of the Directive Principles of the States Policy.
  • This article deals with the promotion of international peace and security.
  • It promotes honourable relations with other countries.
  • It respects international laws and treaties.
  • It also encourages the settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
51

Two South-Asian countries which became members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) during the SCO summit in Uzbekistan's Capital Tashkent on June 23-24, 2016 are

  1. ((a))

    India, Sri Lanka

  2. ((b))

    India, Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    India, Afghanistan

  4. ((d))

    Pakistan, Bangladesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

India, Pakistan

The correct answer is India, Pakistan.

Key Points

  • India is set to become a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) along with Pakistan when the China-dominated security grouping meets for its summit in Uzbekistan's capital Tashkent on June 23-24, 2016 which will be attended by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. (As of 2016).

In News 

  • The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) will admit Iran as its newest member at the upcoming summit in Samarkand, Uzbekistan in September 2022.
  • This summit will be held under the Presidency of Uzbekistan.

Additional Information

  • Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
  • It is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
  • The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).
  • The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation:
  • Headquarters: Beijing, China
  • Founded: 15 June 2001
  • Founders: Russia, China, Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan​
52

The Human Development Report compares countries on which of the following standards?

a. Education

b. Health

c. Per-capita income

d. Happiness

  1. ((a))

    a, b, c,

  2. ((b))

    a, b

  3. ((c))

    a, b, c, d

  4. ((d))

    a, b, d

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a, b, c,

The correct answer is a, b, c.

Key Points

  • The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of Education, Health (Life expectancy), and Per capita income (Standard of Living).
  • Human Development Index:
  • The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) introduced the Human Development Index in its 1st Human Development Report in 1990.
  • It was prepared under the guidance of Mahbub-ul-Haq (Pakistani economist).
  • It is a method to assess the socio-economic development of countries around the world.
  • Indicators:
  1. Life Expectancy Index:
  • It refers to life expectancy at the time of birth, not at age 1.
  • Infant mortality is not a separate indicator in this index.
  • The long & healthy life dimension is measured by this index.
  1. Education:
  • It is the addition of the adult literacy rate & combined enrolment ratio.
  1. Standard of living:
  • It is represented by Purchasing Power Parity.
  • It is measured by gross national income per capita.
  • The gross national index is the total domestic & foreign output created by the people of that particular country.
  • Thus Happiness is not the criteria of Human Development Report.
53

Which of the following was added in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd amendment?

  1. ((a))

    Sovereign and democratic

  2. ((b))

    Socialist and secular

  3. ((c))

    Secular and democratic

  4. ((d))

    Sovereign and socialist

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Socialist and secular

The correct answer is Socialist, Secular.

 Key Points 

  • After the 42nd amendment, three new terms "Socialist, Secular, and Integrity" were added to the Preamble.
  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is one of the most important amendments to the Indian Constitution.
  • It was enacted by the Indian National Congress headed by Indira Gandhi then.
  • Due to the large number of amendments this act has brought to the Indian Constitution, it is also known as the ‘Mini-Constitution.’
  • Only one time the Preamble was amended in 1976 till date.

Important Points

  • The ‘Preamble’ of the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document, and it indicates the source from which the document which derives its authority, meaning, the people.
  • It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly of India and came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Additional Information 

TermMeaning
SocialistSocial and economical equality.
SecularStates that support in a neutral manner affair of all religions.
IntegrityThe state of being whole and undivided.
LibertyIt is the state of being free within the society
54

Which among these Central Public Service Sector Enterprises comes under the category of Maharatna?

  1. ((a))

    Bharat Electronics Limited

  2. ((b))

    Indian Railway Catering & Tourism Corporation Limited

  3. ((c))

    Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

  4. ((d))

    Engineers India Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

The correct answer is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited.

Additional Information

  • List of Maharatna Companies:
S NOMaharatna Companies
1.Power Finance Corporation Ltd (PFC)
2.National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
3.Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
4.Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
5.Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
6.Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
7.Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
8.Coal India Limited (CIL)
9.Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
10.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
11.Power Grid Corporation of India (POWERGRID)
12.Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
13.Oil India Ltd
14.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

Hence Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • A company is given "Maharatna" status if it has made a net profit of more than Rs. 5,000 crore for three years in a row, has an average annual turnover of Rs. 25,000 crores for three years, or has an average annual net worth of Rs. 15,000 crore for three years.
  • It should also have operations or footprints all over the world.
55

The molecular mass of HNO3 is equal to

(u - Atomic mass units)

  1. ((a))

    62 u

  2. ((b))

    63 u

  3. ((c))

    64 u

  4. ((d))

    65 u

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

63 u

The correct answer is 63 u.

Key Points

  • The Molecular mass of Nitric acid (HNO3) is 63 u.
  • Molecular Mass: 
  • It is the summation of all the atomic masses in a particular molecule.
  • It is expressed in atomic mass units (AMU).
  • Example:
  • the molecular mass of HNO3 can be determined as:
  • The atomic mass of H = 1u
  • The atomic mass of N = 14u
  • The atomic mass of O = 16u
  • Molecular mass of HNO3 = 1 + 14 + (16 × 3) = 63u.

The correct answer is.63 u. ​

Additional Information

  • The molecular formula of a compound that shows its constituent atoms and their number per molecule is denoted by subscripts.
  • Molecular formula if known can be used to calculate:
  • Molecular mass or molar mass.
  • Percentage of elements in the compound.
  • ​The molecular mass of any compound is calculated by adding the masses of all the constituent atoms. It is the mass of one molecule of a substance.
  • Molar mass is defined as the mass of one mole of a substance, i.e., 6.022 × 1023 number of particles of that substance.
  • The mass of one unit is expressed in the atomic mass unit, a.m.u, or simply 'u'.
  • ​If the percentage composition and molar mass is known, then it can be used to calculate the empirical formula which represents the formula in the simplest whole-number ratio.
56

The maps which are drawn to show the ownership of land property by demarcating field boundaries of agricultural land and the plan of individual houses in urban areas are called

  1. ((a))

    Topographical maps

  2. ((b))

    Atlas maps

  3. ((c))

    Geological maps

  4. ((d))

    Cadastral maps

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cadastral maps

The correct answer is Cadastral maps.

Key Points

  • Cadastral Maps are drawn on a very large scale, varying from 16 inches to a mile, to 32 inches to a mile. Most of the cadastral map has a scale between 1: 500  and 1: 2,500. They show all possible details of an area. These are drawn especially to demarcate the boundaries of fields, and buildings to register the ownership.

Additional Information

  • Topographical Maps are drawn on a large scale which is smaller than that of Cadastral maps.
  • They show principal topographic forms like relief, drainage, towns, village, forests, etc.
  • The scale varies from 1:25000 to 1:50000.
  • Wall Maps are also known as classroom maps, as they are used for classroom study.
  • Their scale is smaller than that of the topographical maps but larger than the Globe.
  • The scale for wall maps ranges from 1:100000 to 1:500000.
  • Globe is drawn on a very small scale giving general information about the physical, climatic, and economic characteristics of different regions.
  • They have a scale of 1:1000000 or smaller.
57

Match the Kingdoms with their Capitals :

A (Kingdoms)B (Capitals)
(i)Pallavas(a)Badami
(ii)Chalukyas(b)Madurai
(iii)Pandyas(c)Kanchi
(iv)Kadambas(d)Vaijayanti
  1. ((a))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)

  2. ((b))

    (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (a)

  3. ((c))

    (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)

  4. ((d))

    (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)

The correct answer is (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d).

Key Points

  • The capital city of the Pallavas was Kanchipuram.
  • The Pallavas emerged as a formidable power in the South around the 4th century AD and were at the height of their power in the seventh century AD.
  • The earliest Chalukyas with their capital at Badami (Vatapi) in Karnataka. They ruled from the mid-6th century.
  • They declined after the death of their greatest king, Pulakesin II in 642 AD. They were known as Badami Chalukyas.
  • The Pandyas ruled over the present-day southern Tamil Nadu.
  • Their capital was Madurai.
  • The Kadambas (345–525 CE) was an ancient royal family of Karnataka, India.
  • They ruled northern Karnataka and the Konkan from Banavasi or Vaijayanti in the present-day Uttara Kannada district.
  • Vaijayanti was the capital of the kadambas dynasty.
58

Which country was supposed to host the 19th summit of SAARC which was cancelled recently?

  1. ((a))

    Sri Lanka

  2. ((b))

    Bangladesh

  3. ((c))

    India

  4. ((d))

    Pakistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bangladesh

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

  • Bangladesh was supposed to host the 19th summit of SAARC.
  • The 19th SAARC summit was a scheduled diplomatic conference, which was originally planned to be held in Islamabad, Pakistan on 15–19 November 2016 but got cancelled after an attack on an Indian army camp in Kashmir.
  • The summit was to be attended by the leaders of the eight SAARC member states and representatives of observers and guest states.
  • Following the rising diplomatic tensions after the Uri terrorist attack, India announced its boycott of the summit, alleging Pakistan's involvement in the attack.
  • Later, Bangladesh, Afghanistan, and Bhutan also pulled out of the summit culminating in an indefinite postponement of the summit.

Additional Information

  • In the 1980s the idea of SAARC was initiated by General Zia Ur Rehman of Bangladesh, which resulted in the first summit of the seven leaders of the region in 1985.
  • Later, Afghanistan joined in 2007.
  • However, in the nearly 35 years of its existence, SAARC has not lived up to its promise of regional integration.
  • South Asia is the world’s least integrated region; less than 5% of the trade of SAARC countries is within.
  • A South Asian Free Trade Zone, which was agreed on in 2006, has not been materialized yet.
59

Which among the following statements about the tertiary (service) sector in India is not correct?

  1. ((a))

    This sector has become the largest producing sector.

  2. ((b))

    This sector has the largest share in the GDP.

  3. ((c))

    This sector has become important largely because of the growth in the basic services needs of the country.

  4. ((d))

    This sector has become the largest employer in the country.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

This sector has become the largest employer in the country.

The correct answer is This sector has become the largest employer in the country.

Key Points

  • The largest employer in the country is the Primary sector.
  • The tertiary industry is the segment of the economy that provides services to its consumers, including a wide range of businesses such as financial institutions, schools, and restaurants.
  • Sales, repair services, banking, and insurance are all part of the tertiary industry.
  • This sector's activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
  • This sector provides a huge quantity of skilled jobs and these jobs are called white-collar jobs.
  • It is also known as the 'Service Sector'.
  • The service sector accounts for 53.66% of the total of India's GVA (Gross Value Added).
  • It includes activities like transportation, financial & real estate activities, business services, hospitality services, education, health services, personal services, etc.
  • Hence this sector has become the largest employer in the country is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Primary Sector- sources of raw materials (agriculture and allied sector services)
  • Secondary Sector-transforms one good to another increasing the utility of the product (manufacturing sector)
60

The dimensional formula for 1/2mv2 is

  1. ((a))

    [M2LT]

  2. ((b))

    [ML2T]

  3. ((c))

    [MLT-2]

  4. ((d))

    [ML2T-2]

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

[ML2T-2]

The correct answer is [ML2T-2]

Important Points

  • Kinetic energy is defined as the object gaining energy due to its motion and it is written as;
  • E = 1/2 mv2.
  • Here we have m as the mass of the object, and v as the velocity of the object.
  • Dimensional formula of mass - [M]
  • Dimensional formula of velocity- [LT-1]
  • The dimensional formula for 1/2mv2 is [M] [LT-1]2
  • The dimensional formula is [ML2T-2]
61

Which among the following are the rights conferred on the consumer under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986?

a. Right to be informed

b. Right to choice

c. Right to represent

d. Right to redressal

  1. ((a))

    a, d

  2. ((b))

    a, b, d

  3. ((c))

    a, b, c, d

  4. ((d))

    a, c, d

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a, b, d

The correct answer is a, b, d.

Important Points

  • The rights conferred on the consumer under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986:
  • Right to Safety
  • This means the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services, which are hazardous to life and property. The purchased goods and services availed of should not only meet their immediate needs but also fulfill long-term interests.
  • Right to be Informed
  • This means the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard, and price of goods so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices.
  • Right to Choose
  • This means the right to be assured, wherever possible of access to a variety of goods and services at a competitive price.
  • In the case of monopolies, it means the right to be assured of satisfactory quality and service at a fair price.
  • Right to be Heard
  • This means that consumers' interests will receive due consideration at appropriate forums.
  • It also includes the right to be represented in various forums formed to consider the consumer's welfare.
  • Right to Seek redressal
  • This means the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers.
  • It also includes the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances of the consumer.
  • Right to Consumer Education
  • Means the right to acquire the knowledge and skill to be an informed consumer throughout life.
  • Ignorance of consumers, particularly of rural consumers, is mainly responsible for their exploitation.
  • Hence a, b, and d is the correct answer.
62

Match the following :

A (Schedule)B (Description)
(i)First Schedule(a)Provisions for the administration of tribal areas
(ii)Fifth Schedule(b)The States and Union Territories of India
(iii)Sixth Schedule(c)Provisions for disqualification on the grounds of defection
(iv)Tenth Schedule(d)Provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes
  1. ((a))

    (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)

  2. ((b))

    (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (c)

  3. ((c))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (c)

  4. ((d))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)

The correct answer is (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c).

The Constitution of India contains 12 Schedules which are as follows:-

First ScheduleName of States and Union Territories with their territorial jurisdiction.
Second ScheduleSalary of President, Governor, Chief judges, Judges of High Court and Supreme court, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of states, Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils if states and Comptroller and Auditor General.
Third ScheduleForms of Oaths and Affirmations for Union Ministers, Candidates for election to the Parliament, Members of Parliament, Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts, Comptroller and Auditor General, MInisters to State Legislature, Members of State Legislature.
Fourth ScheduleAllocate seats for States and Union Territories of India in Rajya Sabha.
Fifth ScheduleAdministration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
Sixth ScheduleProvision for the administration of Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Though these areas fall within the executive of the state, provisions have been made for District Councils and Regional Councils for the exercise of certain legislative and judicial powers in these areas.
Seventh ScheduleDivides the powers and functions between the Union and the State Government. There are three types of lists:- Union List State List Concurrent List Union List:- The Central Government or Parliament of India has the power to make decisions related to subjects included in the Union List. In total there are 100 (originally 97) subjects included in the Union List. State List:-  The respective State Government has the power to make decisions related to subjects included in the State List. In total there are 61 (originally 66) subjects included in the State List. Concurrent List:- The Central Government or Parliament of India, as well as the respective State Government, has the power to make decisions related to subjects included in the Concurrent List.
Eight ScheduleThere are 22 languages originally 14 languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Sindhi was added by 21st amendment in 1967. Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added by 71st amendment in 1992. Santhali, Maithili, Bodo, and Dogri were added by 92nd  amendment in 2003.
Ninth ScheduleAdded by 1st amendment in 1951. Contains acts and orders related to legislatures dealing with land reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system. In 2007 Supreme Court declared that the laws related to this Schedule after 24th April 1973 are now open to Judicial review.
Tenth ScheduleContains provision of disqualification on the ground of defection (Anti-defection Law). Added by 52nd amendment in 1985.
Eleventh ScheduleContains provisions related to the Panchayati Raj system (73rd amendment, 1992).
Twelfth ScheduleContains provisions related to Municipalities (74th amendment, 1992).
63

Paintings in the Mughal period was at its prime in the period of

  1. ((a))

    Jahangir

  2. ((b))

    Shahjahan

  3. ((c))

    Aurangzeb

  4. ((d))

    Akbar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jahangir

The correct answer is Jahangir.

Important Points

  • The Mughal painting reached its zenith in the period of Jahangir.
  • He was a naturalist by nature and preferred paintings of flora and fauna. The most unique trend in this era is the use of decorated margins around the paintings that were sometimes as elaborate as the painting themselves.
  • He emphasized on bringing naturals to portrait painting.
  • Foreshortening was unique to all Mughal paintings.

Additional Information

  • The Mughal paintings reflect the combination of Indian, Persian & Islamic styles.
  • It originated in the reign of Akbar in 1560 AD.
  • The Mughal school of Miniature paintings mostly depicts romantic scenes, Mughal royal courts, and battlefields, using gold & stone colours. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Evolution of the Mughal paintings :
  • 3D figure making, use of foresightening and calligraphy in the paintings started in the reign of Akbar.
64

Which of the following helicopter has been developed by Hindustan Aeronautical Limited (HAL)?

  1. ((a))

    Bell UH-1Y Venom

  2. ((b))

    Light Utility Helicopter

  3. ((c))

    Boeing CH-47 Chinook

  4. ((d))

    Sikorsky UH-60 Black Hawk

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Light Utility Helicopter

The correct answer is Light Utility Helicopter.

Key Points

  • Light Utility Helicopter has been developed by Hindustan Aeronautical Limited (HAL).
  • LUH is designed and developed as a replacement for Cheetah & Chetak helicopters which are being operated by the Indian Armed forces.
  • LUH is a new generation helicopter in the 3-Ton class incorporating the state of the art technology features like a Glass cockpit with Multi-Function Displays (MFD) and powered by a single Turbo Shaft engine with sufficient power margin to cater to demanding high-altitude missions.
  • LUH will meet the emerging needs of this class of helicopters in the coming decades.
  • The helicopter will be capable of flying at 220 Kmph; service ceiling of 6.5 Km and a range of 350 Km with a 500 kg payload.

Additional Information

  • Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL):
  • Headquarters: Bengaluru
  • Founder: Walchand Hirachand
  • Founded: 1963, Bengaluru
  • HAL is currently involved in designing and manufacturing fighter jets, helicopters, jet engines, and marine gas turbine engines, avionics, software development, spare supply, overhauling, and upgrading of Indian military aircraft.
  • Key projects under HAL
  • Tejas — Mk.1 (40 in service) , Mk.1A .
  • Tejas MK2 (MWF)— Medium weight fighter (under development) 2023 first flight expected.
  • AMCA — Mk.1 is a 5+ th generation stealth fighter (under development).
  • Dhruv — Advanced light helicopter.
  • Rudra — Armed and reconnaissance version of Dhruv.
  • Light Combat Helicopter — Light attack helicopter.
  • Light Utility Helicopter — Light utility helicopter.
  • Indian Multi-role Helicopter —  medium multi-role helicopter.
65

The method on which the process of separating the colloidal particles from the solvent and soluble solutes present in the colloidal solution by specially prepared filters, which are permeable to all substances except the colloidal particles are known as

  1. ((a))

    Vacuum filtration

  2. ((b))

    Dialysis

  3. ((c))

    Electro-dialysis

  4. ((d))

    Ultra-filtration

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ultra-filtration

The correct answer is Ultra-filtration.

Key Points

  • The method in which the process of separating the colloidal particles from the solvent and soluble solutes present in the colloidal solution by specially prepared filters, which are permeable to all substances except the colloidal particles is known as Ultra-filtration.
  • The blood is filtered through three layers i.e., the endothelium of glomerular blood vessels, the epithelium of Bowman’s capsule (podocyte cells), and a basement membrane between these two layers.
  • This type of filtration is called Ultra-filtration.

Additional Information

  • Vacuum filtration is a mechanical method of dewatering sludge and Incineration units are used for the disposal of dewatered sludge.
  • Dialysis works on the principle of the diffusion of solutes and ultra-filtration of fluid across a semi-permeable membrane.
  • Diffusion is a property of substances in water; substances in water tend to move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
  • Electro Dialysis (ED) is a membrane process, during which ions are transported through a semi-permeable membrane, under the influence of an electric potential.
66

The Duleep Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket competition played in India between teams representing:

  1. ((a))

    regional cricket associations

  2. ((b))

    various universities

  3. ((c))

    winner of previous Ranji Trophy against Rest of India

  4. ((d))

    Geographical zones of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Geographical zones of India

The correct answer is Geographical zones of India. 

Key Points

  • The Duleep Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket competition played in India between teams representing geographical zones of India.
  • The Duleep Trophy is named after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji (KS Duleepsinhji).
  • It is a domestic first-class cricket tournament played between teams representing geographical zones of India.
  • It is previously contested by three teams, namely India Red, India Blue, and India Green.
  • Since 2016-17, the tournament is played by teams chosen by selectors from the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), the apex governing body of cricket.
  • The Tournament was instituted in 1961-62 by BCCI.

Additional Information

SportsCup associated
GolfWalker Cup
FootballDurand Cup
Yacht RacingAmerican Cup
Football (India, Pakistan, Srilanka, and Myanmar)Colombo Cup
Tennis (Men)Davis Cup
Tennis (Women)Billi Jean King Cup
World Football (Soccer)Jules Rimet Trophy
Golf (Men)Ryder Cup
BadmintonSudirman Cup
World Table Tennis (Men)Swaythling cup
Asian BadmintonTunku Abdul Rahman Cup
Badminton (Women)Uber Cup
Basket BallWilliam Jones Cup
CricketPrudential World Cup
PoloEzra Cup
Lifetime Achievement Sporting Honour in IndiaDhyan Chand Award
First Class CricketDuleep Trophy
HockeyGuru Nanak Dev Gold Cup Maharaja Ranjit Singh Gold Cup
FootballRovers Cup
Boat RaceNehru Trophy
67

"On the 26th of January we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality". Who gave this statement?

  1. ((a))

    Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  4. ((d))

    Jaipal Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

The correct answer is Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Key Points

  • Dr B.R. Ambedkar said, "On the 26th of January we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality".
  • Other important statements by him:
  • Dr. B. R. Ambedkar made the statement 'The states are not vassals of the Union'.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said, " the states in our constitution are in no way dependent upon the centre for their legislative authority".

Additional Information

  • Babasaheb Ambedkar founded the Independent Labor Party in 1936.
  • In 1939, during World War II, he called upon Indians to join forces in large numbers to defeat Nazism, which, he said, was another name for Fascism.
  • He embraced Buddhism along with many of his followers on 14 October 1956. In the same year, he completed his last writing 'Buddha and His Dharma.
  • In 1990, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna.
  • The period from 14 April 1990 to 14 April 1991 was celebrated as the 'Year of Social Justice in the memory of Babasaheb.
68

The collenchyma:

  1. ((a))

    consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified cell walls having a few or numerous pits. They are usually dead and without protoplasts.

  2. ((b))

    occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants. It is found either as a homogeneous layer or in patches.

  3. ((c))

    performs various functions like photosynthesis, storage, secretion

  4. ((d))

    have small intercellular spaces

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants. It is found either as a homogeneous layer or in patches.

The correct answer is consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified cell walls having a few or numerous pits. They are usually dead and without protoplasts.

Key Points

  • The collenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified cell walls having a few or numerous pits.
  • They are usually dead and without protoplasts.
  • Collenchyma, in plants, supports tissue of living elongated cells with irregular cell walls.
  • Collenchyma cells have thick deposits of cellulose in their cell walls and appear polygonal in cross-section.
  • The strength of the tissue results from these thickened cell walls and the longitudinal interlocking of the cells.

Additional Information 

  • Collenchyma tissue is composed of elongated living cells of uneven primary thick walls, which possess hemicellulose, cellulose, and pectic materials.
  • It provides support, structure, mechanical strength, and flexibility to the petiole, leaf veins, and stem of young plants, allowing for easy bending without breakage.
  • Collenchyma is a supporting tissue characteristic of the growing organs of many herbaceous and woody plants, and it is also found in stems and leaves of mature herbaceous plants, including those that are only slightly modified by secondary growth.
69

The first meeting of the National Institute for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog was held in

  1. ((a))

    February 2016

  2. ((b))

    February 2015

  3. ((c))

    August 2014

  4. ((d))

    May 2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

February 2015

The correct answer is February 2015.

Key Points

  • The first meeting of the Governing Council of the NITI Aayog was held on 8 February 2015.
  • The Hon’ble Prime Minister urged all Chief Ministers to work with the Centre to forge a model of cooperative federalism, whereby the Centre and the States could come together to resolve differences and chart a common course to progress and prosperity.
  • The Governing Council of NITI Aayog, comprising Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislatures and Lt Governors of other Union Territories.
  • It came into effect on 16 February 2015 via notification by the Cabinet Secretariat.
  • The Seventh Meeting of NITI Aayog was held on 7 August 2022.

Additional Information

  • About NITI Ayog:
  • NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the govt of the Republic of India, providing each directional and policy input. 
  • Chairperson:  Narendra Modi.
  • CEO: Nidhi Chhibber
  • Headquarters: New Delhi.
  • Formed: 1 January 2015
70

Shobha Gurtu is associated with which of the following vocal art form?

  1. ((a))

    Khayal

  2. ((b))

    Thumri

  3. ((c))

    Tarana

  4. ((d))

    Bhajan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Thumri

The correct answer is Thumri.

Key Points

  • Shobha Gurtu, original name Bhanumati Shirodkar, renowned singer of Indian classical music.
  • Known for her rich earthy voice, distinctive vocal style, and mastery of various song genres, she was considered the “queen of thumri,” a light classical Hindustani style.

Additional Information 

  • Thumri:
  • Thumri originated in the Eastern part of Uttar Pradesh, mainly in Lucknow and Benares, in the 18th century AD.
  • It is influenced by Hori, Kajri and Dadra.
  • Thumri is a romantic and erotic style of singing and is also called ‘the lyric of Indian classical music.
  • The song compositions are mostly of love, separation, and devotion.
  • Its most distinctive feature is the erotic subject matter picturesquely describing the various episodes from the lives of Lord Krishna and Radha.
  • Thumri is usually performed as the last item of a Khayal concert.
  • There are three main gharanas of thumri–Banares, Lucknow, and Patiala.
  • Begum Akhtar, Gauhar Jan, Shobha Gurtu, Noor Jehan, and Prabha Atre are associated with Thumri.

Numerical Ability & Reasoning (30 questions)

71

A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q. P and R a married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P. Z is the brother of P. How is Q related to X?

  1. ((a))

    Husband

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Uncle

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Brother

A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z.

 Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q. 

P and R a married couple

Y is the brother of R

 X is the daughter of P.

Z is the brother of P

Hence, the correct answer is Brother.

72

If one is subtracted from each of the numbers

Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P

Which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right ?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Fourth to the right of the tenth from the right means  10 - 4  = 6th from the right, ie 5.

But according to the question, one is subtracted from each of the numbers, so it is equal to 4.

Hence, the correct answer is 4.

73

The last day of a century cannot be

  1. ((a))

    Monday

  2. ((b))

    Wednesday

  3. ((c))

    Friday

  4. ((d))

    Saturday

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Saturday

100 years contain 5 odd days.

⇒ Last day of 1st century is Friday.

200 years contain (5 x 2) ≡ 3 odd days.

⇒ Last day of 2nd century is Wednesday.

300 years contain (5 x 3) = 15 ≡ 1 odd day.

⇒ Last day of 3rd century is Monday.

400 years contain 0 odd day.

⇒Last day of 4th century is Sunday.

This cycle is repeated.

⇒ Last day of a century cannot be Tuesday or Thursday or Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is Saturday.

74

The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then determine the value price of x ?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16

Given:

CP of 20 articles = SP of x articles

Profit = 25%

Formula used:

% Profit = SPCPCP×100\frac{SP - CP}{CP}\times 100

Calculation:

According to the question,

Let the Cost Price of 20 articles be "y"

CP of 20 articles = SP of x articles = y

CP of 1 Article = y/20

SP of 1 Article = y/x

By using the above formula,

 yxy20y20×100=25\frac{\frac{y}{x}-\frac{y}{20}}{\frac{y}{20}}\times 100=25

⇒  (yxy20)(20y)=14(\frac{y}{x}-\frac{y}{20})(\frac{20}{y})=\frac{1}{4}

⇒ 20x = 5/4

⇒ x = 16

∴ The correct answer is 16.

75

Two wheels of diameter 7 cm and 14 cm start rolling simultaneously from two points A and B which are 1980 cm apart each other in opposite towards directions. Both of them make same number of revolutions per second. If both of them meet after 10 seconds, the speed of bigger wheel is

  1. ((a))

    88 cm/s

  2. ((b))

    110 cm/s

  3. ((c))

    132 cm/s

  4. ((d))

    154 cm/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

132 cm/s

Given:

Diameter of wheel (r) = 7cm

Diameter of other wheel (r') = 14cm

Rolling in opposite direction in two points = 1980 cm apart

Number of revolution both makes same.

Both meet after 10 seconds

Calculation:

Radius of wheels are : 7/2cm, 7cm.

Let each wheel makes x revolution per sec.

∴ [(2π × 7/2 × x) + (2π × 7 × x)] × 10 = 1980

⇒ [(14π x + 28π x)] = 198 × 2

⇒ 21π x = 198

x = 198 × 7/(22 × 21) = 3

∴ Speed of bigger wheel = 2π × 7 × 3 = 132 cm/sec

76

Write the missing number in the sequence ?

5, 13, 41, 85, 257, ?

  1. ((a))

    516

  2. ((b))

    517

  3. ((c))

    716

  4. ((d))

    717

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

517

LOGIC:

the number at odd digit is multiplied by 2 and 3 is added.

the number at even places is multiplied by 3 and 2 is added

so for first term “5” which is at position 1(which is odd).

5 × 2 + 3 = 13

now  13 is at position 2(even)

so 13 × 3 + 2 = 41.

similarly

41× 2 + 3 = 85

85 × 3 + 2  = 257

So:

257 × 2 + 3 = 517

Hence, the correct answer is 517.

77

Which letter is in the middle of 10th letter from left and 7th letter from right in the English alphabet ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

O

Alphabetical order with its placed value:

The 10th letter from left is J.

The 7th letter from right is T.

Thus the middle letter between J and T is O.

Hence, the correct answer is O

78

Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence:

a. Police

b. Crime

c. Justice

d. Judgement

e. Punishment

  1. ((a))

    b c a e d

  2. ((b))

    b a c d e

  3. ((c))

    a b c d e

  4. ((d))

    a b d e c

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

b a c d e

The meaningful sequence of the given words is:

b. Crime

a. Police

c. Justice

d. Judgement

e. Punishment

When a Crime takes place, Police gets involved and catches the criminal, then a trial takes place in the court, after which the Judge gives his/her Judgement and the criminal is punished.

Hence, b a c d e  is the correct answer.

79

Find the correct statement for the following:

Mouth : Teeth : Chew : :

  1. ((a))

    Eyes: Lashes: See

  2. ((b))

    Head: Brain: Think

  3. ((c))

    Skin: Sweat: Touch

  4. ((d))

    Feet: Dance: Toe

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Head: Brain: Think

Logic followed here: Third is the function of the second.

Function of the teeth is Chew.

Similarly;

Function of the Brain is Think.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

80

Find the wrong number in the following sequence 

5, 8, 15, 26, 50, 98, 194

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    26

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15

Pattern Followed here:

5 ×  2 - 2 = 8

8 × 2 - 2 = 14 (here it is 15)

14 × 2 - 2 = 26

26 × 2 - 2 = 50

50 × 2 - 2 = 98

98 × 2 - 2 = 194.

Therefore, the correct series is 5, 8, 14, 26, 50, 98, 194.

Hence, the correct answer is 15**.**

81

Choose the correct alternative to find the missing term ?

e j o, t y d, i n s , x c h, ?

  1. ((a))

    n r w

  2. ((b))

    n s w

  3. ((c))

    m r w

  4. ((d))

    m s x

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

m r w

Alphabetical Series with its placed Value:

LOGIC : In the given series  there is a gap of 5 letters between the first and second, second and third letters of each term, and also between the last letter of the term and first letter of next term.

Hence, the correct answer is mrw.

82

If PALAM could be given the code number 43 what number can be given to STUTTGART ?

  1. ((a))

    145

  2. ((b))

    142

  3. ((c))

    146

  4. ((d))

    148

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

146

The logic is:

PALAM = 43

PALAM → 16 + 1 + 12 + 1 + 13 = 43

Similarly,

STUTTGART = 146

STUTTGART → 19 + 20 + 21 + 20 + 20 + 7 + 1 + 18 + 20 = 146.

Hence, the correct answer is 146

83

If MASTER is coded as 411259, then SERVANT will be coded as ?

  1. ((a))

    1 5 9 4 1 5 2

  2. ((b))

    1 9 5 1 4 5 9

  3. ((c))

    1 5 4 9 5 1 9

  4. ((d))

    1 5 9 1 4 9 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 5 9 4 1 5 2

The pattern followed here is:

WordMASTER
Code411259

Similarly:

WordSERVANT
Code1594152

Hence, the correct option is 1.

84

Direction : ​Read the following carefully to answer the questions :

P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and are facing the centre. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S.

If Q takes the place of U, U takes the place of T, T takes the place of R and R takes the places of Q. Who is sitting second to the right of Q ?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

R

According to the given information:

I. U was sitting opposite to P, who was to the immediate left of R.

II. S was sitting to the immediate right of U.

III. T was exactly between P and S, so Q was sitting at the remaining place.

So, from above it is clear that R is sitting  second to the right of Q .

Hence, the correct answer is R.

85

​Direction : Read the following carefully to answer the questions :

P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and are facing the centre. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S.

Who is sitting opposite to Q ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

T

According to the given information:

I. U was sitting opposite to P, who was to the immediate left of R.

II. S was sitting to the immediate right of U.

III. T was exactly between P and S, so Q was sitting at the remaining place.

Here, Q is sitting exactly to the opposite of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Opposite to T".

86

If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the previous letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in the word ?

  1. ((a))

    one

  2. ((b))

    two

  3. ((c))

    three

  4. ((d))

    four

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

three

Alphabetical order with its placed value:

In the given word MEAT:

Vowels are  E,A

Consonant change with previous letter

M by L

T by S

new letters according to the given statement :

E,A,S,L 

There are three word formed by the given word MEAT

SEAL

LEAS

SALE

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Additional InformationVowels: A , E, I , O , U

Consonants: all alphabetical series except A , E, I , O, U

87

Summit is heavier than Arjun but not as heavier as Rakesh, Arjun is heavier than Jayant. Keshav is heavier than Summit but not as heavier as Rakesh. Who is the heaviest ?

  1. ((a))

    Summit

  2. ((b))

    Arjun

  3. ((c))

    Rakesh

  4. ((d))

    Keshav

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rakesh

Summit is heavier than Arjun  but not as heavier as Rakesh

Summit > Arjun

 Arjun is heavier than Jayant. 

Arjun > Jayant.

Keshav is heavier than Summit but not as heavier as Rakesh.

Keshav > Summit.

From the above it is clear that Rakesh is the Heaviest.

Hence, the correct answer is Rakesh.

88

How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately followed by an odd number and preceeded by an even number ?

8 5 8 6 7 6 8 9 3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3 5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9 3 1 7 5 1

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

In the given sequence 8 5 8 6 7 6 8 9 3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3 5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9 3 1 7 5 1

There are 4 such sets where the number immediately followed by an odd number and preceeded by an even number.

 8 6 7, 6 8 9, 2 2 3, 2 8 1

Hence, the correct option is 4.

89

If letters in the word UNIVERSAL are arranged in the alphabetical order and each letter is assigned numerical value equal to its serial number from the left in this rearranged order, what is the difference in the total of numerical values of consonants and that of vowels ?

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

17

Each letter is assigned numerical value equal to its serial number.

UNIVERSAL
123456789

Arranging in Alphabetical order

AEILNRSUV
123456789

The difference in the total of numerical values of consonants and that of vowels 

(4,5,6,7,9) - (1,2,3,8) 

= 31 - 14

= 17

Hence, the correct answer is 17.

90

Direction : For the questions, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II, choose the correct option given below :

(a) If only I is implicit

(b) If only II is implicit

(c) If either I or II is implicit

(d) If neither I nor II is implicit

Statement : Equality of income throughout a community is the essential condition for maximising the total utility which the total income available could confer on the members of that community.

Assumptions :

I : If extra income were taken from the rich and given, to the poor, the total utility experienced by the community would increase.

II : Equal pay for equal work.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a

The absolute utility can be amplified by balance of pay all through the local area, i.e., by giving additional pay from the rich to poor people. In this way, I is implicit. Likewise, II relates to monetary right and isn't worried about equity of pay all through the local area.  So, it is not implicit.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

91

Direction : For the questions, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II, choose the correct option given below :

(a) If only I is implicit

(b) If only II is implicit

(c) If either I or II is implicit

(d) If neither I nor II is implicit

Statement : Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have become a regular feature during monsoon.

Assumptions :

I : Materials used for road construction can not withstand the fury of monsoon resulting into innumerable pot holes on the roads.

II : Number of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in monsoon as compared to other seasons.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

d

Assumption I is not implicit because it introduces external facts about construction materials and potholes not mentioned in the statement. Assumption II is not implicit as there is no logical link established between the season and an increase in the number of vehicles.

So, from above it is clear neither I nor II is implicit.

Hence, the correct option is 4.

92

Direction : For the questions, two statements are given. Choose the correct alternative as given below :

(a) Statement I is the cause Statement II is its effect.

(b) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.

(c) Both the Statements I and II are independent causes.

(d) Both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Statements :

I : Indian women don't believe in donating blood. According to the first ever data bank on gender distribution of blood donors, India has only 6% blood donations by women. The rest 94% were male donors.

II : Just twenty five countries in the world collect more than 40% of their blood supplies from female donors, these include Australia, U.S., Thailand, Portugal, New Zealand, Zimbabwe etc.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

d

Both the statement don't depend on each other.

According to the first statement  India has only six percent blood donations by women. and the  rest 94% were male .

According to the statement 2  twenty five countries in the world collect more than 40% of their blood supplies from female donors. The rest 60 % were male.

so, both the statements are effects of independent causes.

Hence, the correct option is 4.

93

Direction : For the questions, two statements are given. Choose the correct alternative as given below :

(a) Statement I is the cause Statement II is its effect.

(b) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.

(c) Both the Statements I and II are independent causes.

(d) Both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Statements :

I : Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society.

II : There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle ages group of people.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

b

As the mindfulness about wellbeing in the general public is expanding especially among moderately aged gathering, the significance of Yoga and exercise is being acknowledged by all segments of the general public.

so,  Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

94

The problem figure has two blanks in it in place of the first and fourth figures. The answer figure contains four pairs of figures. You have to choose the pair which would fill in the blanks so that the first and second pairs have similar relationship.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

b

Logic followed in the given figure series:

From figure (1) to figure (2):

The small curves changes in the bigger curves and rotate 90 degree in clockwise direction as shown in figure.

Similar logic followed for the figure (3) to figure (4):

The small curves changes in the bigger curves and rotate 90 degree in clockwise direction as shown in figure.

The complete figures:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".​

95

A related pair of figures is given followed by four pairs of figures. Select a pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair :

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

c

Logic: Number of lines.

The number of lines in question figure:

Checking all the figures one by one:

Figure (a):

Figure (b):

v

Figure (c):

Number of lines is similar to the question figure.

Figure (d):

Here, number of lines in figure (c) is similar to the question figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

96

Study the following pattern

3 + 2 + 5 = 153030

8 + 4 + 3 = 243996

9 + 2 + 4 = 364872

5 + 4 + 5 = 2550100

Using the above pattern, find 7 + 2 + 5

  1. ((a))

    147070

  2. ((b))

    355050

  3. ((c))

    355070

  4. ((d))

    357070

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

355070

LOGIC: Its expression pattern with all 3 numbers taken into consideration.

the result is combined as below if we consider three numbers as a,b and c.

a+b+c = (ac) - ((a+b)×  c+c) - (ab*c)

3 + 2  + 5 = 153030

3 × 5 = 15.

(3 + 2) × 5 + 5 = 30.

(3 × 5) × 2 = 30.

Similarly;

7 + 2 + 5 = 355070.

7 × 5 = 35.

(7+2) × 5 + 5 = 50.

(7 × 5) × 2 = 70.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

97

The maximum value of product of two numbers, whose sum is 12, is

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

36

Given:

The sum of two numbers = 12

Concept used:

For maximum value, Put dy/dx = 0

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

Other number = 12 - x 

Product of two numbers = P = x ( 12 - x) = 12x - x2

P = 12x - x2

dP/dx = 12 - 2x = 0

⇒ 2x = 12

x = 6

∴ Pmax = 12 × 6 - (6)2 = 72 - 36 = 36

Pmax = 36

98

A can do work in 18 days. B can do the same work in 12 days. With the help of C, they did the work in 3 days. Then C can alone do the job in

  1. ((a))

    121712\frac{1}{7}days

  2. ((b))

    8378\frac{3}{7}days

  3. ((c))

    5175\frac{1}{7}days

  4. ((d))

    1371\frac{3}{7}days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5175\frac{1}{7}days

Calculation:

Number of days A requires to do piece of work = 18 days

Number of days B requires to do piece of work = 12 days

Let us consider number of days C requires to do piece of work = x days

Number of days A, B and C together require to do the piece of work = 3 days

∴ Work done by A in 1 day = 1/18

work done by B in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by C in 1 day = 1/x

Work done by A, B and C together in a day = 1/3

∴ Work done by A, B and C together in 1 day is also equal to the sum of work done by each of them in 1 day = 1/18 + 1/12 + 1/x = 5/36 + 1/x

∴ 5/36 + 1/x = 1/3

⇒ (5x + 36)/36x = 1/3

⇒ 5x + 36 = 12x

⇒ 7x = 36

x = 36/7 = 5175\frac{1}{7}days

∴ C can alone do the job in 5175\frac{1}{7}days.

Alternate Method 

A = 18 days

B = 12 days

A + B + C = 3 days

So

Total work = LCM (18,12,3) = 36 units

So

Efficiency of A = 2

Efficiency of B = 3

Efficiency of A + B + C = 12

So

Efficiency ofC = 12 - 2 - 3 = 7

So

C can complete the work in = 36/7 days = 5175\frac{1}{7} days

99

Choose the correct option that will follow the same pattern :

2, 15, 41, 80, ?

  1. ((a))

    111

  2. ((b))

    121

  3. ((c))

    123

  4. ((d))

    132

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

132

The pattern is + 13, + 26, + 39,...

Hence, the correct option is 132

100

Select the correct option for the following :

Concession : Placate : :

  1. ((a))

    Gun : Bolster

  2. ((b))

    Workout : Enervate

  3. ((c))

    Catalyst : Precipitate

  4. ((d))

    Lawyer : Mitigate

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lawyer : Mitigate

Concession : Placate 

The meaning of PLACATE is to soothe or mollify especially by concessions.

Similarly;

Mitigation means reducing risk of loss from the occurrence of any undesirable event.

Additional Information

Guna weapon that is used for shooting
Bolsterto support or encourage somebody/something; to make something stronger
Enervatemake (someone) feel drained of energy or vitality.
Catalyst
a person or a thing that causes change
Precipitate
to make something, especially something bad, happen suddenly or sooner than it should

Teaching Aptitude (20 questions)

101

When teaching, a teacher periodically tests her students to monitor their progress. She uses the results of such tests to identify areas where she may need to change or modify her instruction. The type of assessment used by her is called

  1. ((a))

    Normative

  2. ((b))

    Formative

  3. ((c))

    Summative

  4. ((d))

    Diagnostic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Formative

Assessment is the process of gathering, interpreting, recording, and using information about learners' responses to an educational task.

  • It helps in diagnosing the gaps in realizing the objectives of a subject and taking necessary measures to provide feedback to students about their progress and learning.

Key Points

Formative assessment:

  • It refers to the assessment for monitoring the student's progress throughout the learning and teaching process.
  • It mainly focuses on finding and diagnosing students' needs rather than grading and ranking them.
  • It is an ongoing process usually carried out by the teacher to continuously monitor students' progress in a non-threatening and supportive environment.
  • It involves qualitative feedback (rather than scores) for both students and teachers that focuses on the details of content and performance.
  • It encourages intrinsic motivation and self-esteem of students, both of which have crucial influences on learning performance.
  • It recognizes the need for students to be able to assess themselves and understand how to improve.
  • It helps the teacher to modify subsequent teaching-learning activities according to the needs of the children.

Hence, we conclude that the type of assessment used by the teacher is called formative assessment.

Additional Information

  • Diagnostic assessment is an assessment made before the learning of a unit commences in order to determine what a student does and does not know about a topic. It helps to identify where your students are in their learning and what course of action appropriate to the learning levels of the students are needed to be taken for continuing or improving their learning. For example- If the teacher is planning to teach different states of India in class VI, he needs to know whether the students are well conversant in using the Atlas.
  • Summative assessment refers to the assessment of learning that 'sums' or 'summarize' the development of students at a particular time. It is a process of assessing, grading or ranking the learning of students at a point of time. It is generally given at the end of a course to determine how much students have learned from the whole course. Examples of summative assessment annual examinations.
  • Normative assessment refers to comparing students' performance against a group norm or standard.
102

Which of the following learning outcomes are not tested appropriately by essay type questions?

  1. ((a))

    Ability to organize and integrate ideas

  2. ((b))

    Ability to sort and interpret data

  3. ((c))

    Ability to analyze facts and principles

  4. ((d))

    Problem solving ability

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Problem solving ability

Learning outcomes are statements that explain the knowledge or skills that students should have at the end of a course or unit and that help students understand why that knowledge and abilities will be helpful to them.

Key PointsEssay-type questions are also known as long answer questions. Essay-type questions usually do not clearly specify the exact answers required and students are free to select, organise and express their thoughts. 

  • The learning outcomes that may be expected of students through essay-type questions are related to a complex set of behaviors that involve: 
  • the ability to analyse facts and principles.
  • the ability to select, organize and integrate relevant ideas
  • the ability to sort and interpret data in written form in their own words.
  • the ability to construct answers than merely identify interpretations.

Hence, we conclude that problem-solving ability is not tested appropriately by essay-type questions.

Hint

  • As essay-type questions do not clearly specify the exact answers required. So, when the students do not know the exact answer they may still write some matter with seems to be relevant to the question but does not represent the answer that is actually required (bluffing). Hence it does not test problem-solving ability.
103

Which of the following is the major obstacle to ensure achievement of high academic standards from disadvantaged students?

  1. ((a))

    Belief that not every student is capable of mastering challenging content and skills. 

  2. ((b))

    Non-availability of sufficient instructional materials aligned with the school curriculum.

  3. ((c))

    Providing students substantial autonomy to determine what they learn and how they will learn it.

  4. ((d))

    Providing a variety of individual, small group and large activities.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Belief that not every student is capable of mastering challenging content and skills. 

Disadvantaged students are those belonging to the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, and minority groups. The children from these categories come to school with a disadvantaged tag with them and as a result, they become easy prey to differential treatment by the teacher and their classmates.

Key Points

  • The belief that not every student is capable of mastering challenging content and skills is an obstacle to ensure the achievement of high academic standards from disadvantaged students
  • Teachers' beliefs influence learning through the methods adopted by the teachers and consequents affect the motivation of the students.
  • This influence is maximum in the disadvantaged group as they suffer the most impact of generalization while they are the most vulnerable and require special attention and different teaching process.
  • A teacher who has certain beliefs against a particular community may not select students of that community for any activity, although those students deserve merit selection against all criteria.
  • The teacher should n motivate students and enhance learning by setting realistic expectations for them. The expectations should be high enough to motivate students but not so high as it could lead to anxiety and frustration in students.

Hence, it is clear that the belief that not every student is capable of mastering challenging content and skills is an obstacle to ensure the achievement of high academic standards from disadvantaged students.

Hint

  • Other options will e nsure a n inclusive and supportive learning environment for disadvantaged students. They will also ensure the achievement of high academic standards from disadvantaged students.
104

According to Article 21A of the constitution

  1. ((a))

    it is mandatory to provide free and compulsory education to children upto the age of 14 years.

  2. ((b))

    education is a fundamental right of children between the age of 0-14 years.

  3. ((c))

    education of children upto the age of 6 years is not a responsibility of the state.

  4. ((d))

    education is a fundamental right of children between the age of 6-14 years.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

education is a fundamental right of children between the age of 6-14 years.

Education is a lifelong process that modifies the behavior and personality of individuals thus develops them as a whole by providing nourishing and burden-free environments. 

Key Points

  • On the 26th of August 2009, the Indian Parliament passed a historic act known as the ‘Right to Education Act’ or RTE Act but the RTE Act was implemented in India with effect from 1st April 2010.
  • It is an act that aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.

Hence, it could be concluded that according to Article 21A of the constitution, education is a fundamental right of children between the age of 6-14 years.

Additional Information 

Features of the RTE Act - 2009 under Article 21A: 

  • Prohibition of private tuition by teachers to equalize educational opportunities to all.
  • Reservation of  25% seats for children belonging to economically weaker sections in private schools.
  • 45 hours including preparation hours as the minimum number of working hours per week for the teacher.
  • Not to deploy teachers in non-academic work except elections, population census, and disaster relief duties.
  • Establishment of primary and upper primary schools within the distance of 1km and 3kms respectively from child's house.
105

The procedures used by teachers to identify difficulties of learners in various fields of learning are part of

  1. ((a))

    placement assessment

  2. ((b))

    formative assessment

  3. ((c))

    diagnostic assessment

  4. ((d))

    summative assessment

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

diagnostic assessment

Assessment is a process of collecting, receiving, and using data for the purpose of improvement in the learning process. There are different types of assessments which include summative, formative, diagnostic assessments, etc.

Key PointsDiagnostic Assessment:

  • The teacher should conduct a 'Diagnostic Assessment' if the teacher has to know about the students’ strengths and weaknesses before the instructional materials are organized.
  • It helps the teachers to identify the learning difficulties or gaps in learner's understanding and to know learner's individual strengths, weaknesses, skills, etc.
  • It is the base of remedial teaching that helps the teacher to provide learners with the necessary help and guidance to overcome the problems which are determined during diagnostic assessment.
  • For example, if it is found that a learner has not understood certain concepts in a particular subject, then to help him/her understand these concepts, diagnostic assessment is conducted and remediation is provided.

Steps of diagnostic assessment:

  • Identifying students who need help.
  • Locating learning difficulties/gaps.
  • Discovering the causal factors.
  • Removing learning difficulties through remedial teaching.

Hence, it could be concluded that the procedures used by teachers to identify difficulties of learners in various fields of learning are part of the Diagnostic Assessment.

Additional Information

Summative AssessmentIt is a type of assessment that measures, certifies, and reports the level of students' learning by assessing them at the end of the term.
Placement assessmentIt measures whether students possess the pre-requisite skills needed to succeed in a unit or course or to what extent students have already achieved the objectives of the planned instruction
Formative AssessmentIt is a type of assessment that refers to monitor learners' progress throughout the teaching-learning process to diagnose learner's learning difficulties.
106

Which of the following would best predict a student's academic success?

  1. ((a))

    Personality factors

  2. ((b))

    Physical health

  3. ((c))

    Motivation

  4. ((d))

    Intelligence

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Intelligence

The academic achievement of students reflects their abilities and caliber of students. There are many ways, we can predict the academic success of an individual. The best way to predict academic achievement is through intelligence and intelligence tests.

Key Points

Intelligence is a hypothetical construct, which is usually equated with higher-level abstract thought processes. Intelligence includes sensation, perception, association, memory, imagination, discrimination, judgment, and reasoning.

  • It is mostly correlated with traditional academic achievement or being book smart. It is best to predict a student's academic success.
  • Intelligence tests are useful in predicting mainly academic achievement. Intelligence help students to find out their level of different mental abilities.
  • Intelligence has significant implications for our everyday life, and it influences our effective functioning. It is related to various life outcomes such as academic achievement.
  • linguistic and logical-mathematical intelligence, strongly contribute to performance in the traditional school system and academic achievement; usually promoted more in our societies.
  • It is generally agreed that those who are good at abstract reasoning, problem-solving, and decision-making are more intelligent than those who are poor at these mental activities.
  • In general, intelligence underlies how well we learn, plan, solve problems, and make decisions.

Additional Information

Other factors predict academic success:

  • The factors of personality effects the personality of an individual, these factors are social factors, physical factors, economic factors, etc.
  • Motivation is the need within the individual to do something or to fulfill her desire.
  • Physical health means having physical strength, endurance, and energy to work toward your goals.

Hence, we can conclude that intelligence would best predict a student's academic success.

107

'Give me a dozen of healthy children, I can make them doctor, judge, beggar or even a thief.' This statement illustrates which one of the following learning theories?

  1. ((a))

    Classical conditioning

  2. ((b))

    Gestalt

  3. ((c))

    Field theory

  4. ((d))

    Behaviourism

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Behaviourism

John Broadus Watson, an American psychologist who codified and publicized behaviourism, an approach to psychology that, in his view, was restricted to the objective, experimental study of the relations between environmental events and human behaviour.

  • He had emphatically proclaimed that give me a dozen of healthy children, I can make them doctor, judge, beggar or even a thief, irrespective of his abilities.

Key Points

John B Watson is known as the founder and father of behaviourism. Behaviourism was established with the publication of Watson's classic paper "Psychology as the Behaviourist Views It".

  • Behaviourism dominated experimental psychology for several decades, and its influence can still be felt today.
  • Behaviourism is largely responsible for establishing psychology as a scientific discipline through its objective methods and especially experimentation.
  • The above-mentioned statement illustrates Behaviourism as Behaviourism focuses on the idea that all behaviours are learned through interaction with the environment.
  • This learning theory states that behaviours are learned from the environment, and says that innate or inherited factors have very little influence on behaviour.

Hence, we conclude that the above-mentioned statement illustrates Behaviourism.

Additional Information

  • Kurt Lewin did his pioneering work in the development of Field Theory, a framework for understanding human behavior that focuses on how an individual conceptualizes and responds to physical and social environments.
  • Ivan Pavlov, a Russian psychologist has propounded the 'Theory of Classical Conditioning' which emphasizes that learning as a habit formation is based on the principle of association and substitution.
  • German psychologists  Wertheimer, Kohler, Koffka, and Lewin have studied the nature of perception and are the leaders of gestalt psychology. Gestalt psychologists consider the process of learning as a gestalt - an organized whole.
108

Genetically programmed naturally occurring changes over time are

  1. ((a))

    Maturational

  2. ((b))

    Development

  3. ((c))

    Evolutionary

  4. ((d))

    Transitional

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maturational

Maturation is the process by which a person's inherited traits undergo naturally occurring qualitative and quantitative changes over time. These changes emerge over time and they are relatively unaffected by the environment, except in the cases of malnutrition or severe illness. 

Key Points

  • Maturation refers to changes that occur naturally and spontaneously and that are, to a large extent, genetically programmed. It is largely dictated by the genetic blueprint which produces commonalities in our growth and development.
  • It is the process of reaching a stage of full potential or advanced development. It is a developmental process that refers to the unfolding of an individual's innate qualities or potential.
  • For example, most children can sit without support by 7 months of age, stand with support by 8 months and walk by one year. Once the underlying physical structure is sufficiently developed, proficiency in these behaviors requires an adequate environment and little practice.
  • It includes general motor skills like walking, jumping catching etc and other activities as well as fine motor skills like painting, writing, drawing, etc. It is a biological process that happens automatically and develops over time.

Hence, we conclude that genetically programmed naturally occurring changes over time are maturational.

Additional Information

  • Development refers to qualitative changes in an individual such as changes in personality or other mental and emotional aspects. The process of development continues even after the individual has attained physical maturity (growth).
  • Transitional changes are those which replace existing processes with new processes.
  • Evolution is a phenomenon in which organic matter evolves through time in order to live and adapt to its changing environment.
109

 A teacher of class VI in a coeducational school would observe perceptible differences between boys and girls in which of the following development? 

  1. ((a))

    Physical

  2. ((b))

    Intellectual

  3. ((c))

    Social

  4. ((d))

    Moral

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Physical

The human body changes at all stages of life but some stages are associated with a growth spurt - one is during infancy and the other significant one is during adolescence.

Key Points

  • A teacher of class VI in a coeducational school would observe perceptible differences between boys and girls in physical development as it is the time when a child is transformed into an adult man or woman.
  • It is called the stage of Puberty which is the time when external and internal physical changes in sex organs occur due to the secretion of reproductive hormones. It is the stage of life during which one become biologically and sexually mature.
  • Puberty is the one to three-year process of hormonal and physical change that causes the young person to reach sexual maturity; girls usually enter it about a year earlier than boys.
  • In girls, it starts with the onset of menstruation, and in boys with enlargement of the testes followed by the appearance of secondary sexual characters. While puberty refers to the physical and sexual maturation of both boys and girls.
  • Girls surpass boys physically in adolescence. The characteristic of the physical development of girls and boys are observed is that 'Girls are two-three years ahead in physical development as:
  • In girls, puberty usually starts between ages 9 and 11 while in boys, puberty usually starts around age 11.
  • Physical changes in girls usually start after age 12 while in boys it usually starts around age 13.
  • In girls, acne first appears at the age of 12 while in boys, acne appears around age 14.

Hence, it is clear that a teacher of class VI in a coeducational school would observe perceptible differences between boys and girls in physical development.

110

Which of the following approach views learning as an active mental process of acquiring, and using knowledge?

  1. ((a))

    Constructivist

  2. ((b))

    Behaviouristic

  3. ((c))

    Humanistic

  4. ((d))

    Social learning

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constructivist

Teaching approaches are the methods used by teachers to assist children throughout the learning process. The teacher should adopt such an approach to learning in which children remain active rather than become passive listeners.

Key PointsConstructivist Approach:

  • It is based on the belief that the student as a learner can construct his/her own knowledge with the help of his/her previous experiences and through interaction with the social environment around him/her.
  • It is an active mental process of acquiring, and using knowledge as constructivism encourages students to create knowledge through experience rather than merely passing it on from teacher to student.
  • Problem-solving is the primary activity in a constructivist approach. It emphasizes the active role of the learner in building understanding and making sense of information.
  • Students ask questions, study a topic, and use a variety of resources to find answers. Students are in charge of their own learning and take the initiative by reflecting on their experiences. As a result of this process, they become experts in their own learning.
  • The teacher acts as a facilitator and facilitates the process of learning in which the students are encouraged to do the task actively as responsible members. The classroom is democratic and activities are interactive and student-centred.

Hence, we conclude that the constructivist approach views learning as an active mental process of acquiring and using knowledge.

Additional Information

  • Humanistic approach: In this approach, the human being occupies a central place. This approach emphasizes learning in the natural environment of love, peace, cooperation, freedom, and equality rather than physical values, wealth, etc.
  • Behavioristic approach describes learning as a connection between stimulus and response. It emphasizes that behaviour begins with reflexes i.e. natural response and natural behaviour results from the acquisition of new bonds of stimulus and response through experiences.
  • Social learning approach also known as observational learning emphasizes learning through observing others' behaviour and actions.
111

After teaching a content, a teacher finds that the students are able to work with action verbs namely appraise, criticize and judge. Thus, objectives have been achieved at which of the following level?

  1. ((a))

    Analysis level

  2. ((b))

    Synthesis level

  3. ((c))

    Evaluation level

  4. ((d))

    Application level

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Evaluation level

Bloom's taxonomy of cognitive learning was created in 1956 by a committee under the leadership of educational psychologist Dr. Benjamin Bloom to promote higher forms of thinking in education, such as analysing and evaluating concepts processes procedures and principles rather than just remembering facts. 

  • Bloom's taxonomy is a collection of 3 hierarchical models used to categorise educational learning objectives into levels of complexity and specificity.
  • The 3 Domains of educational activities are:
  • Cognitive- It covers mental skills and knowledge.
  • Affective- It includes growth in feelings or emotional areas.
  • Psychomotor- It includes manual or physical skills.

Key Points According to Bloom's taxonomy, there are 6 major categories of cognitive processes starting from the simplest to the most complex.

LevelCategoryKeywords used to describe the activity
1. (Lowest)Knowledge- recall or retrieve previously learned information.Defines, describes, identifies, knows, labels, lists, matches, names, outlines, recalls, recognises, reproduces.
2.Comprehension- Understanding the meaning of a sentence, translation, interpolation, interpretation of instructions and problems, and stating a problem in one's own words.Comprehends, converts, defends, distinguishes, estimates, explains, extends, generalises, interprets, infers, gives an example, predicts, summarises, translates.
3.Application- Use a concept in a new situation or unpromoted use of an abstraction. Applies what was learned in the classroom into novel situations in the workplace.Applies, changes, computes, constructs, demonstrates, discovers, manipulates, prepares, produces, shows, solves, uses, relates.
4.Analysis- Separate materials or concepts into component parts so that their organizational structure may be understood, and distinguish between facts and interferences.Analyses, breaks down, compares, contrasts, deconstructs, differentiates, discriminates, distinguishes, relates, selects, outlines, separates, illustrates.
5.Evaluation- Making judgments about the value of ideas or materials.Appraises, criticises, compares, concludes, contrasts, describes, judges, justifies, explains, summarises, supports, discriminates, critics, interprets.
6. (Highest)Synthesis- Build a structure or pattern from diverse elements, and put parts together to form a whole with emphasis on creating a new meaning or structure.Writes, tells, summarises, rewrites, revises, categorizes, combines, compiles, composes, creates, devises, designs, explains, generates, modifies.

 

Hence, we conclude that the objectives have been achieved at the evaluation level.

112

A science teacher plans to teach a unit on 'changes' to class VI While preparing for the lesson, he should first determine the

  1. ((a))

    instructional strategies be would follow

  2. ((b))

    instructional materials be would use

  3. ((c))

    ways he would evaluate students

  4. ((d))

    knowledge students already have about the topic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

knowledge students already have about the topic

Effective teaching is a process in which the teacher teaches and realises the objectives of the lesson on one hand and children learn with the spirit of joy, on the other hand. Proper planning of a unit is very important for the teacher's success in his teaching.

  • Lesson plan is defined as the teacher's mental and emotional visualization of the classroom experience as he plans it to occur. It is the core of effective teaching. It is the blueprint of what a teacher is going to teach.

Key PointsPhases of lesson planning-

  • Preparation: This step of preparation helps the teacher to ascertain what ideas on the particular topic his/her students possess and what knowledge they require before moving on the next step in the teaching process. The teacher through the introduction of the topic helps learners to see their need for more learning and stimulate their interest in the lesson.
  • Presentation: The teacher will plan how to present the subject matter in such a way that it is appropriate to the level of understanding of the students. It should be based on the principle of continuity, sequence and integration of ideas.
  • Summarisation/recapitulation: This is merely a revision or repetition of the knowledge learned in the classroom. The children will learn how to reproduce/recall what they've learned.
  • Evaluation and feedback: Evaluation is done to determine whether the objectives of the lesson have been achieved. Evaluation can be sectional or at the end of the lesson. It helps the teacher to know whether her teaching has been effective and to make necessary changes in the techniques of teaching.

Hence, we conclude that while preparing for the lesson the teacher should first determine the knowledge students already have about the topic.

113

According to Piaget, the use of charts, graphs, and diagrams is a useful strategy for teaching children at the 

  1. ((a))

    Sensorimotor stage

  2. ((b))

    Preoperational stage

  3. ((c))

    Concrete operational stage

  4. ((d))

    Formal operational stage

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Formal operational stage

Formal operational stage: This stage is characterized by applying its logic directly to real objects or situations.

Important Points

At this stage: 

  • Teachers should continue using strategies and materials used in the concrete operations stage.
  • Use charts and illustrations, as well as incorporate new more sophisticated graphs and diagrams
  • Give step by step explanations and materials
  • Students need the opportunity to explore various hypothetical situations.
  • Children in this stage should be encouraged to work in groups in school to explain and discuss hypothetical topics.
  • For example: have then discussed social issues in groups and brainstorm.

Hence, we can say that the use of charts, graphs, and diagrams is a useful strategy for teaching children at the formal operational stage.

Additional Information

Piaget’s Four Stages of Cognitive Development:

Stages of DevelopmentCharacteristics
Sensorimotor (birth to 2 yr)- Experiences the world through senses and actions (looking, hearing, touching, mouthing, and grasping) - Cognitive development begins with the baby's use of senses and movements - Develops object permanence
Pre-Operational (2-7 yr)- Learns to use language to represent objects by images and words - Classifies objects by a single feature. - Thinking is ego-centric; has difficulty taking in the point of view of others. - Develops symbolic thought
Concrete-Operational (7-11 yr)- Thinking logically about concrete events, performing concrete arithmetic operations - Achieves conservation of number (age-6), mass (age-7), and weight (age-9) - Develops operational thought
Formal Operational (11 yr and above)- Potential for more mature moral reasoning - Becomes concerned with hypothetical, future, and ideological problems - Develops abstract concepts
114

Which one of the following was of the view that anything that can be learned by direct experience can also be learned from observation. Models are most effective if they are seen as having respect, competence, high status, or power. Thus, in most cases, teachers can be highly influential models.

  1. ((a))

    Kohler

  2. ((b))

    Bandura

  3. ((c))

    Thorndike

  4. ((d))

    Skinner

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bandura

Bandura’s Social Learning Theory of Personality is based on the premise that human behavior is largely acquired and that the principles of learning are sufficient to account for the development and maintenance of behavior. Bandura has done a great deal of work on social learning throughout his career and is famous for his “Social Learning Theory” which he has recently renamed, “Social Cognitive Theory”. 

Important Points

  • Bandura (1986) says that the environment also reinforces modeling, whereas contemporary learning theory proposes that both reinforcement and punishment have an indirect effect on learning.
  • People are more likely to follow the behaviors modeled by someone with whom they can identify. The more perceived commonalities and/or emotional attachments between the observer and the model, the more likely the observer will learn from the model. This term is known as Modelling.
  • That means anything that can be learned by direct experience can also be learned from observation. Models are most effective if they are seen as having respect, competence, high status, or power. Thus, in most cases, teachers can be highly influential models
  • Social Modeling can be explained as when the person witnessing other people successfully completing a task is another important source of self-efficacy. According to Bandura, when a person sees another person or persons similar to oneself succeeding by one’s sustained efforts, makes the person raise the belief that they too possess the capabilities that could help them master comparable activities and succeed.

Thus, we can conclude that Bandura is the correct option.

115

Building meaning by connecting what is to be learned with established words or images is the use of

  1. ((a))

    Mnemonic strategies

  2. ((b))

    Premack principle

  3. ((c))

    Scaffolding

  4. ((d))

    Assisted learning

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mnemonic strategies

Mnemonic strategy is a teaching strategy used to help students improve their memory of important information. It links new learning to prior knowledge through the use of visual or verbal cues.

Key Points

  • Mnemonic strategies are ways to help children memorize a phrase or concept with patterns. It includes songs, rhymes, drawings, poems, pictures, and acronyms.
  • This strategy is useful for storing information in both long and short-term memory. For example, to learn the colors of the rainbow, the implementation of the acronym VIBGYOR is taught to the students.
  • These techniques are used to aid children in remembering new and unfamiliar information. It links new information to prior knowledge through pictures or letter/word combinations.
  • It reduces confusion among similar items and enhances long-term information retention and application. Students with intellectual and developmental disabilities can benefit from the mnemonic strategy, making it easier for them to remember new information.

Hence, we conclude that building meaning by connecting what is to be learned with established words or images is the use of mnemonic strategies.

Additional Information

  • Premack principle: It states that a more preferred behavior can be used as reinforcement for a less preferred behavior. For example, when a mother promises her child that if he reads for 30 minutes, she will let him go outside to play. Here, playing outside is a reinforcement and reading was an effective response.
  • Scaffolding: It is defined as the temporary support to children to bridge the gap in what they know and what they need to learn while the teaching-learning is going on. In this process, the teachers, peers, or elders help the child to do a task or understand the concept that the child is initially unable to do independently.
116

A group of children learn a lot of arithmetical skills by way of completing a project on the 'celebration of festivals'. This is a kind of

  1. ((a))

    informal learning

  2. ((b))

    incidental learning

  3. ((c))

    formal learning

  4. ((d))

    non-formal learning

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

incidental learning

Incidental learning refers to the learning that happens accidentally as a result of activities when the learner has no deliberate objective of learning. For example, when a child plays a sport for enjoyment yet gradually develops skills over time.

Key Points

  • Incidental learning is unintentional by its nature, it is the byproduct of another activity. For example, when children learn arithmetical skills by completing a project on the "celebration of festivals".
  • Numerous techniques have been devised for the assessment of incidental learning. In one technique a person is asked to read a list of words to another person.
  • The assigned task for the reader is that of reading the words, but if he remembers something about the word or can remember the actual words, he is known to manifest incidental learning.
  • The listener is assigned the task of learning the words, but he/she may also engage in incidental learning and remember some characteristics of the reader, such as his/her accent, or how the reader was dressed.

Hence, we conclude that if a group of children learns a lot of arithmetical skills by way of completing a project on the celebration of festivals, this is a kind of incidental learning.

Additional Information

  • Informal education takes place in any kind of informal learning environment that we come across with. For example, we learn the traditions and cultures of our family by observing the different activities in our family as well as by interacting with the family members. It is the outcome of the interaction between the learner and his social environment. It is not organized and structured and can take place in a variety of physical and social settings.
  • Formal education is a structured process of organizing teaching-learning activities that include a predefined curriculum, proper plan of its transaction and implementation on a specified time schedule, daily interaction of teachers with students, centralized bodies to operate it, evaluation, and certification of performance of students. For example, education in schools and colleges.
  • Non-formal education provides flexibility in terms of time schedule, classes, duration of the program, examinations, etc. Like formal education, it is also an organized system of education that includes a centralized body for operating the system programs offered to a variety of groups, curriculum and its transaction process, evaluation, and certification. It fulfills the objective of lifelong and continuous education. For example distance education, open and distance learning, online education, etc.
117

Which of the following techniques/procedures is most useful to promote creativity in children?

  1. ((a))

    Simulation

  2. ((b))

    Experimentation

  3. ((c))

    Symposium

  4. ((d))

    Brain-storming

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Brain-storming

Creativity is the ability to come up with or generate creative ideas and possibilities. It involves thinking in new and original ways to reach a solution. It is goal-directed thinking which is unusual, novel, and useful.

Key PointsBrainstorming:

  • It is a group method proposed by Alex Osborn. It is a technique where people in a group setting are required to come up with as many ideas as possible without any self-censor or inhibition.
  • It is a creative technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific task by gathering a list of ideas before starting the task. A group of teachers and students sit around a table to brainstorm a specific problem.
  • Every participant puts forward any idea which comes to his/her mind. No member of the group is allowed to discuss the merits or demerits, practicability, or impracticability of a particular idea put forward by another member.
  • In the brainstorming session, each member expresses his/her ideas without inhibition. He/she is stimulated by the creative thinking of other members.

Hence, we conclude that brainstorming is a useful technique to promote creativity in children.

Additional Information

  • Experimentation is the process of determining anything through a scientific approach, particularly in a laboratory.
  • Symposium refers to a meeting or conference with the purpose of discussing a subject, particularly one where members form an audience and deliver presentations.
  • Simulation is a quantitative procedure that describes a process by developing a model of that process and then conducting a series of organized experiments to predict the behaviour of the process over time.
118

Which of the following do you consider most important to prevent classroom discipline problems?

  1. ((a))

    Close monitoring of student's behaviour

  2. ((b))

    Establishing rules and procedure

  3. ((c))

    Creating a stimulating classroom environment

  4. ((d))

    Reward students for good behaviour

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Close monitoring of student's behaviour

Classroom discipline:

  • Discipline is defined as the practice of teaching others to obey rules or norms by using punishment to correct unwanted behaviors.
  • In a classroom, a teacher uses discipline to ensure routine is maintained, school rules are enforced, and the students are in a safe learning environment.
  • While the word discipline seems negative, the goal of using discipline is to teach students boundaries and limits to help students achieve personal and academic life goals.

Classroom management to maintain discipline:

  • Teachers should have class rules. It is important to have a list of expectations, such as class rules, either posted on a wall or in a syllabus to ensure students understand what is expected of them.
  • Daily routines are also important. Having routine students commit to every day is a great way to help reinforce good behavior, responsibility, and best practice. Depending on age level, this could look a few different ways.
  • Most of the time, pupils act badly through boredom, disengagement, or because they are seeking attention. Although it’s hard, try not to give the perpetrator too much of your attention. Deal with the culprit appropriately and in line with the class Code Of Conduct.
  • Great classroom discipline goes hand in hand with lessons that capture your pupil’s interests. Get to know your students and their interests so that you can tailor lessons to be as engaging as possible for them.
  • Once a pupil has suffered the consequences of their actions, there is no point in dwelling on bad behavior. No students are inherently ‘bad’ and it’s important that your pupils come to school with a fresh outlook each day. Make it clear to your pupils that you wipe the metaphorical slate clean daily and everyone gets a fresh chance each day.

Conclusion: A well-disciplined classroom means a more positive learning environment. Without discipline, learning cannot be accomplished. If students constantly disrupt the teacher, the others in the class are affected. If a student does not follow the rules and does not complete classwork or homework, that student is missing out on valuable learning opportunities. The goal of discipline is to ensure each student receives the most from their education. Framing class rule is good to bring discipline, but all students are following them in a proper way that should be monitored by the teacher. Rewarding good behavior encourages students to follow rules and behave properly, but all are not good in their behavior. So, to maintain discipline in the classroom, it is important that students should be continuously monitored for their behaviour and to follow class rules. Hence, option (1) is correct.

119

Which of the following is an objective related to the affective domain?

  1. ((a))

    Students can paint a picture

  2. ((b))

    Students can write a letter

  3. ((c))

    Students can draw a graph

  4. ((d))

    Students can value honesty

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Students can value honesty

Benjamin Bloom's taxonomy is a set of three hierarchical models that refers to the classification of educational learning objectives. In the taxonomy, Bloom identified three domains of learning which include cognitive, affective, and psychomotor.

Key Points

Affective domain:

  • The objectives which are related to the domain of interests, attitudes, and values bring about desirable changes in the same included in this domain.
  • Only those objectives are included that are related to the domain of interests, attitudes, and values that bring out the desirable changes in the same.
  • These objectives are related to inner feelings and emotions and the outcome can not be seen easily in someone's behavior.
  • For example, students can value honesty as they will learn about the values which will bring positive change in their behavior.

Hence, the students can value honesty as an objective related to the affective domain.

Additional Information

Cognitive domain- Those educational objectives are included that are concerned with knowledge, recognition, recall, and cater to the development of intellectual abilities and skills. - In this domain, only those objectives are included which are concerned with the intellectual abilities and skills of the learner.
Conative or psychomotor domain- ​This domain helps in the development of skills. - The training of physical activities is the main objective of this domain. - For example, the students can draw a graph or paint a picture.
120

Which of the following would be more useful to eliminate routine misbehavior of students in the classroom?

  1. ((a))

    Removing potential trouble makers from class.

  2. ((b))

    Use of non-verbal cues

  3. ((c))

    Ignoring and moving along

  4. ((d))

    Providing token reinforcers as rewards

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Providing token reinforcers as rewards

Student misbehaviour can be referred to as the actions of children that disrupt the classroom learning processes. The majority of the time these actions are unfavourable attitudes, such as children who don't participate in events, show disrespect, are overly sociable, participate just partially or not at all, etc.

Key PointsTechniques for behaviour management

  • Token reinforcement- This technique is a highly effective behaviour modification technique, especially with children. In this technique, desired behaviour results in the reward of a token such as a poker chip or a sticker and undesirable behaviours result in the removal of a token. When children obtain a certain number of tokens the children get a meaningful object or privilege in exchange for the tokens. Eventually the rewarding of tokens decreases and desirable behaviours display independently.
  • Extinction: Eradicating undesirable behaviour by deliberately withholding reinforcement is another popular treatment method called extinction. For example, a child who habitually shouts to attract attention may be ignored unless he or she speaks in a conversational tone. This is based on the principle that if the behaviour is not rewarded or encouraged, it will become extinct.
  • Increase your repertory of techniques: A part of misbehaviour control is using the right technique at the right time since students are individuals and react in different ways.
  • Stop disruptive behaviour in time: Do not wait until the situation is totally out of hand. Stop the act before you become angry and lose control or before the whole class gets into the act.

Hence, we conclude that providing token reinforcement as a reward would be more useful to eliminate the routine behaviour of students in the classroom.

 Hint

  • Ignoring the noise for a moment might be a technique if the teacher believes that the noise will soon subside by itself. But this technique is not effective for a long time.
  • The teacher should avoid embarrassing the student and should not remove him from the class.
  • Signals such as a finger on the lips, a frown, or shaking of the teacher's head in a disapproving way might be all that is required to get the students quietly back to their work, but it is not helpful all the time.

Subject Knowledge (80 questions)

121

Identify among the following countries which did not experience the adverse impacts of great depression? 

  1. ((a))

    England

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Russia

Russia did not experience the adverse impacts of great depression.

Key Points

  • The Great Depression was an economic crisis started in 1929 and continued for next several next years.
  • It began in the United States of America after the stock market crash.
  • The main cause behind it was the fall of aggregate demand due to under consumption and over investment.
  • The output and employment levels in the countries of Europe and North America fall by huge amounts.
  • Along with USA, it affected the European countries like England, France, Germany etc. to a great extent.
  • The demand of the goods in the market during this period was very low so production was also lowered which led to unemployment.
  • However, Russia didn't suffer much due to the Great Depression as its economy was not deeply integrated and linked with that of western countries.
  • In fact, it benefited to a certain level by acquiring the services of specialist farmers, engineers etc. who were finding it hard to find jobs in their own countries.

Therefore, we can conclude that Russia did not experience the adverse impacts of great depression.

122

Consider the following events of Indian National Movement and arrange them in chronological order:

a. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

b. Poona Pact

c. Karachi Session of INC

d. Individual Satyagraha

  1. ((a))

    c, d, b, a 

  2. ((b))

    a, c, b, d

  3. ((c))

    a, b, d, c 

  4. ((d))

    b, d, a, c

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a, c, b, d

The correct chronological order of the given events of Indian National Movement is - a, c, b, d.

Key Points

  • Gandhi-Irwin Pact:
  • ​The historic Gandhi-Irwin Pact was concluded between Mahatma Gandhi and the then viceroy of India, Lord Irwin on 5th March 1931.
  • It was significant because it was the first time Gandhi and the viceroy met as ‘equals’.
  • Some of the provisions of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact are:
  • ​Discontinuation of the Civil Disobedience Movement by the Indian National Congress.
  • To release all political prisoners not convicted of violence.
  • Participation of the Indian National Congress in the Second Round Table Conference.
  • Right to make Salt for personal use without being taxed.
  • To restore the confiscated property of the Satyagrahis.
  • Karachi Session of INC:
  • ​A special Congress session was held at Karachi between 26th March to 31st March 1931 with Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel as the President.
  • The following decisions were taken in this session:
  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was approved.
  • A resolution on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Programme was passed.
  • A plan for the reconstruction of Indian society after independence was outlined.
  • Poona Pact:
  • ​The Poona Pact was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and B R Ambedkar signed in the Yerwada Central Jail, Poona on September 24th, 1932.
  • Acording to it, the idea of of a separate electorate for the depressed class was abandoned. instead, the reserved seats for the untouchables in the provincial legislatures were increased from 71 to 147.
  • The Poona Pact between caste Hindus and the Depressed Classes agreed upon a joint electorate.
  • Individual Satyagraha:
  • ​'Individual Satyagraha' was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1940 as a direct result of August Offer.
  • The demand of the Satyagrahis would be the Freedom of Speech, expressing his resentment against the war.
  • On 17th October 1940, Acharya Vinoba Bhave launched an Individual Satyagraha at Wardha (Maharashtra) under the guidance of Gandhiji.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that the correct chronological order of the given events of Indian National Movement is:

a. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

c. Karachi Session of INC

b. Poona Pact

d. Individual Satyagraha

123

Who among the following proposed the constitution of the League of Nations after the First World War? 

  1. ((a))

    Wilson

  2. ((b))

    Churchill

  3. ((c))

    Lenin

  4. ((d))

    Stalin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wilson

Woodrow Wilson proposed the constitution of the League of Nations after the First World War.

Important Points

  • The League of Nations was an international diplomatic group developed post the end of World War I.
  • It was a precursor to the United Nations where disputes between nations would not be solved by open warfare but rather by mediation and diplomatic means.
  • The League of Nations had a mixed record of success before it stopped operations during World War II.
  • The Origins of the League of Nations was found in the Fourteen Points laid down by US President Woodrow Wilson which envisioned an organisation that would solve a dispute between members.
  • The League was approved and ratified by the Treaty of Versailles at the Versailles Conference on 28 April 1919.
  • The first formal session of the League was held in Geneva in 1920.
  • The League of Nations consisted of a council made up of four permanent powers – Britain, France, Italy and Japan – and four others chosen at intervals from the remaining member states.
  • The First four chosen members were Belgium, Brazil, Spain and Greece.

Hence, we can conclude that Woodrow Wilson proposed the constitution of the League of Nations after the First World War.

124

The first industrial revolution happened in England during the period of 

  1. ((a))

    1780 - 1850

  2. ((b))

    1750 - 1780

  3. ((c))

    1700 - 1750

  4. ((d))

    1600 - 1700

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1780 - 1850

The first industrial revolution happened in England during the period of 1780 - 1850.

Key Points

  • Industrial Revolution means the transformation of industry and economy of a country with quick succession than normal slow rate.
  • Georges Michelet of France, and Friedrich Engels of Germany were the first to use the term Industrial Revolution.
  • The first Industrial Revolution began in England during the period of 1780 - 1850.
  • ​Due to the following reasons, Industrial Revolution first occurred in England:
  • England was the first country to experience industrialization because it had been a politically stable country.
  • There was abundance of natural resources like iron and coal in England. Iron and coal are necessary resources for the functioning of any industry.
  • England was an economically sound country. The Britishers had been doing business in foreign countries. They had amassed huge wealth which was necessary for the functioning of industries.
  • England had trade relations with many countries of the world. They had better transportation facility available. Through this, they could sell their products in the markets of other countries too.
  • There was availability of labour forces at cheap rates in England.

Hence, we can conclude that the first industrial revolution happened in England during the period of 1780 - 1850.

125

The first complete Census was taken in India in 

  1. ((a))

    1951

  2. ((b))

    1871

  3. ((c))

    1872

  4. ((d))

    1881

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1881

The first complete Census was taken in India in 1881

Important Points

  • A census is an official systematic survey of the population of a country.
  • Census is a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, evaluating, publishing and disseminating statistical data regarding the population of a country.
  • It covers demographic, social and economic data.
  • The first complete Census was taken in India in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo.
  • Lord Mayo was the Viceroy of India from 1869 to 1872.
  • A systematic and modern population census, in its present form was conducted non- synchronously between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country.
  • This effort culminating in 1872 has been popularly labeled as the first population census of India.
  • However, the first synchronous census in India was held in 1881.
  • Since then, censuses have been undertaken uninterruptedly once in every ten years.

Hence, we can conclude that the first complete Census was taken in India in 1881.

126

Which one of the following is the main cause of growth rate of population?

  1. ((a))

    Difference between birth rate and death rate

  2. ((b))

    Birth rate

  3. ((c))

    Death rate

  4. ((d))

    Migration

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Difference between birth rate and death rate

The Correct Answer is the Difference between birth rate and death rate

Key Points

  • The difference between birth rate and the death rate is called the natural growth rate of the population.
  • This rapid growth increase was mainly caused by a decreasing death rate (more rapidly than birth rate), and particularly an increase in average human age.
  • By 2000 the population counted 6 billion heads, however, population growth (doubling time) started to decline after 1965 because of decreasing birth rates

Additional Information

  • The annual average rate of change of population size, for a given country, territory, or geographic area, during a specified period.
  • It expresses the ratio between the annual increase in the population size and the total population for that year, usually multiplied by 100.
  • The Decadal growth rate of population in terms of percentage was highest in India in 1971.
  • The population growth rate peaked during the decade 1971-81, perhaps in the year 1972-73.
127

The three staged model of demographic transition theory and its characteristics are given in two columns.

Match them appropriately : 

AB
I.The First StageBoth fertility and mortality decline
II.The Second StageBoth fertility and mortality remain high
III.The Third StageFertility remains high and mortality rate declines.
Fertility remains high in the beginning but it declines with time and mortality rate reduces.
  1. ((a))

    (I) - (b), (II) - (d), (III) - (c)

  2. ((b))

    (I) - (b), (II) - (d), (III) - (a)

  3. ((c))

    (I) - (b), (II) - (c), (III) - (d)

  4. ((d))

    (I) - (b), (II) - (a), (III) - (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(I) - (b), (II) - (d), (III) - (a)

The correct answer is (I)- (b), (II)- (d), (III)- (c).

Key Points

There are three stages of demographic transition:

  • The First Stage is marked by high fertility and high mortality.
  • The death rate is also high due to epidemics and variable food supply.
  • The Second Stage- In this stage, the expansion of population remains high because the death rate reduces due to improvement of medical fertilities.
  • The fertility rate is high in the beginning but it declines with time and mortality rate reduces.
  • The Third Stage- In this stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably.
  • Population in the third stage is either stable and grow slowly.

 Thus, we can say that the above given characteristics of three model of demographic transition theory.

128

In which one of the following states the net sown area is less than 10 percent of its total area?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Manipur

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Jammu & Kashmir

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Arunachal Pradesh

The Correct Answer is Arunachal Pradesh

Key Points

  • In Punjab and Haryana, the net sown area is more than 80% of the total land in the state. On the other hand, it is less than 10% in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • Net sown area in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Manipur is low mainly due to the hilly and rocky terrain.
  • They are also largely covered by dense forests, which will need to be cut to develop agriculture.
  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands are covered by dense tropical forests and so the net sown area is low.

Additional Information

  • The fertility of the soil is not suitable for cultivation. They receive heavy rainfall which is adverse to the cultivation.
  • Added to this, these areas are backward and the farmers are very poor hence they lack a technological method of farming. Therefore, the net sown area differs from state to state.

129

Ravines of the Chambal basin are the good examples of which one of the following ?

  1. ((a))

    Sheet erosion

  2. ((b))

    Wind erosion

  3. ((c))

    Soil erosion

  4. ((d))

    Gully erosion

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gully erosion

The Correct Answer is Gully erosion

Key Points

  • Gully erosion is a widespread and often dramatic form of soil erosion caused by flowing surface water.
  • The Badlands of MP is the result of gully erosion by Chambal Erosion.
  • This problem is due to the Chambal river gully erosion in the Bhind-Murena district.
  • Rill and gully erosion 
  • In rill erosion, finger-like rills appear on the cultivated land after it has undergone sheet erosion.
  • These rills are usually smoothened out every year while forming.
  • Each year the rills slowly increase in number and become wider and deeper.
  • Gully erosion is the removal of soil along drainage lines by surface water runoff.
  • When rills increase in size, they become gullies. Once started, gullies will continue to move by headward erosion or by slumping of the side walls.
  • Gullies formed over a large area give rise to badland topography (Chambal Ravines)​

Additional Information

  • Types of Erosion are as follows
  • Rain Drop Erosion - Due to falling raindrops on the soil surface.
  • Sheet Erosion- Uniform removal of soil in thin layers from the surface.
  • Rill Erosion - Erosion takes place through numerous narrow streamlets.
  • Gully Erosion - Occurs due to runoff of surface water causing the removal of soil and forming gullies due to erosion.
  • Stream Bank Erosion- Nothing but washing up away from banks of a stream or a river.

130

Which one of the following is the most influential factor affecting location of an industry in a region?

  1. ((a))

    Least cost

  2. ((b))

    Government policy 

  3. ((c))

    Availability of raw material

  4. ((d))

    Transport

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Least cost

The Correct Answer is the Least cost

Key Points

  • The location of the industry will be located in an area where it ensures the cost will be lowest for: 
  • Moving raw materials to the processing location. Moving finished products to the market.
  • The least cost is known as the decision-making factor for the ideal location of an industry because if profit has to be maximum then the cost must be minimum.
  • Factors Affecting Location of Industries
  • The factors affecting the location of industries are the availability of raw material, land, water, labor, power, capital, transport, and market.
  • Industries are situated where some or all of these factors are easily available.
  • Sometimes, the government provides incentives like subsidized power, lower transport cost, and other infrastructure so that industries may be located in backward areas.
  • Industrialization often leads to the development and growth of towns and cities

Additional Information

  • Agro-based industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials. Food processing, vegetable oil, cotton textile, dairy products, and leather industries are examples of agro-based industries.
  • Mineral-based industries are primary industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials.  Iron made from iron ore is the product of

mineral-based industry.

  • Marine-based industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials. Industries processing seafood or manufacturing fish oil are some examples.
  • Forest-based industries utilize forest produce as raw

materials. The industries associated with forests are pulp

and paper, pharmaceuticals, furniture, and buildings.

131

Today the largest number of cotton textile mills in India run under which one of the following sectors ?

  1. ((a))

    Cooperative sector

  2. ((b))

    Public sector

  3. ((c))

    Private sector

  4. ((d))

    Joint sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cooperative sector

The Correct Answer is Cooperative sector

Key Points

  • Cooperative sector
  • The first textile mill in the country was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818 but it closed down after some time.
  • The first successful mechanized textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854.
  • The cotton textile industry is one of the oldest industries in the world. Till the industrial revolution in the 18th century, cotton cloth was made using hand spinning techniques (wheels) and looms.

Additional Information

  • Initially, this industry flourished in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat because of the favorable humid climate.
  • But today, humidity can be created artificially, and raw cotton is a pure and not weight losing raw material, so this industry has spread to other parts of India.
  • Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Puducherry, and Panipat are some of the other important centers.
132

Which one of the following means of transport is different from the three others for freight and passenger services?

  1. ((a))

    Roadways

  2. ((b))

    Railways

  3. ((c))

    Airways

  4. ((d))

    Pipelines

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pipelines

The Correct Answer is Pipelines

Key Points

  • A pipeline is a system of pipes used to transport liquids, gases, or movable solids from one place to another.
  • Transport
  • Transport is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and goods from one place to the other using humans, animals, and different kinds of vehicles.
  • Such movements take place over land, water, and air. Roads and railways form part of land transport; while shipping and waterways and airways are the other two modes.
  • Pipelines carry materials like petroleum, natural gas, and ores in liquified form. Moreover, transport

Additional Information

  • Pipeline 
  • Pipelines are used extensively to transport liquids and gases such as water, petroleum, and natural gas for an uninterrupted flow.
  • Water supplied through pipelines is familiar to all. Cooking gas or LPG is supplied through pipelines in many parts of the world. Pipelines can also be used to transport liquified coal. In New Zealand, milk is supplied through pipelines from farms to factories.
133

Which one of the following is not a metallic minerals?

  1. ((a))

    Mica

  2. ((b))

    Lead

  3. ((c))

    Bauxite 

  4. ((d))

    Cobalt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mica

The Correct Answer is Mica

Key Points

  • Mica
  • Mica is a Non-metallic mineral. It is known for having a series of extremely thin layers of sheets.
  • It can be transparent but also comes in different colors like black, green, red, yellow, or brown.
  • Because of its properties like low power loss factor, insulation, and resistance to high voltage, it is highly used in electrical and electronic industries.
  • While mica is not a metal or metallic mineral, neither can it be considered a nonmetal as it is not an element.
  • In their inorganic chemical formula, non-metallic minerals do not contain metal elements. Clay, Diamond, Dolomite, Gypsum, Mica, Amethyst, Quartz, etc

Additional Information

  • Nickel, Bauxite, and Zinc are metallic minerals.
  • Bauxite is primarily a metallic mineral though it is also used as an industrial mineral. It is the only ore used for large-scale aluminum production
  • Zinc (Zn) is brittle, but it becomes malleable at 100° C.  Zinc, a blue-grey, metallic element, is a moderately good conductor of electricity.  The most common alloy is brass, which is a mixture of zinc and copper.
134

The unit of R.F. scale is 

  1. ((a))

    centimetre to kilometres 

  2. ((b))

    inch to miles

  3. ((c))

    same unit for both - numerator and denominator

  4. ((d))

    inch to furlongs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

centimetre to kilometres 

The Correct Answer is centimeters to kilometers

Key Points

  • You must have seen maps with a scale bar indicating equal divisions, each marked with readings in kilometers or miles.
  • These divisions are used to find out the ground distance on the map.
  • In other words, a map scale provides the relationship between the map and the whole or a part of the earth’s surface shown on it.
  • We can also express this relationship as a ratio of distances between two points on the map and the corresponding distance between the same two points on the ground.
  • There are at least three ways in which this relationship can be

expressed. These are:

  • Statement of Scale
  • Representative Fraction (R. F.)
  • Graphical Scale
  • let us understand that the scale is normally expressed in one or the other system of measurement. You must have read and/or used kilometers, meters, centimeters,s, etc. to measure the linear distances between two points on the ground.

Additional Information

  • Systems of Measurements
  • Metric System of Measurement
  • 1 km = 1000 Metres
  • 1 Metre = 100 Centimetres
  • 1 Centimetre = 10 Millimetres
  • English System of Measurement
  • 1 Mile = 8 Furlongs
  • 1 Furlong = 220 Yards
  • 1 Yard = 3 feet
  • 1 Foot = 12 Inches

 

135

Which one of the following currents flows along the north-western coast of Africa ?

  1. ((a))

    Falkland current

  2. ((b))

    Benguela current

  3. ((c))

    Canary current

  4. ((d))

    Auglhas

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Canary current

The Correct Answer is Canary's current

Key Points

  • Canary Current: Low salinity current extending between Fram Strait and Cape Farewell.
  • It connects the Arctic directly to the North Atlantic.
  • Major freshwater sink for the Arctic.
  • It is a major contributor to sea-ice export out of the Arctic.
  • The Canary Current flows along the African coast from north to south between 30°N and 10°N and offshore to 20°W (Fedoseev 1970).

 

Additional Information

  • Ocean Currents
  • Equatorial Counter Current: It is located between the North and South equatorial currents and flows in opposition to them, that is, from west to east.
  • Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC): The ACC is an ocean current that flows clockwise from west to east around Antarctica. An alternative name for the ACC is the West Wind Drift.
  • Humboldt or Peruvian Current:-Flows from the southernmost tip of Chile to northern Peru, along the west coast of South America
  • California Current: It is the extension of the Aleutian Current along the west coast of North America in a southward flowing direction.
  • It is a part of the North Pacific Gyre.
  • Region of strong Upwelling.
  • Labrador Current: It flows from the Arctic Ocean towards the south and meets the warm northward moving Gulf Stream.

136

Which one of the following National Park is located in Uttrakhand?

  1. ((a))

    Ranthambhor

  2. ((b))

    Simplipal

  3. ((c))

    Kaziranga

  4. ((d))

    Corbett

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Corbett

The Correct Answer is  Corbett National Park

Key Points

  • It is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. The Project Tiger was launched in 1973 in Corbett National Park (the first National Park of India),  which is part of the Corbett Tiger Reserve.
  • The national park was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal tiger.
  • It is named after Jim Corbett who played a key role in its establishment.
  • Ramganga, Sonanadi, Mandal, Plain, and Kosi are the major rivers flowing through the Reserve
  • Flora
  • According to the botanical survey of India, Corbett has 600 species of plants - trees, shrubs, ferns, grass, climbers, herbs, and bamboos.  Sal, Khair, and Sissoo are the most visible trees found in Corbett.

Additional Information

  • Other Major Protected Areas of Uttarakhand:
  • Nanda Devi National Park.
  • Valley of Flowers National Park.
  • Valley of Flowers National Park and Nanda Devi National Park together are UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
  • Rajaji National Park.
  • Gangotri National Park.
  • Govind National Park.
137

Which one of the following is a 'Rabi' crop?

  1. ((a))

    Mustard

  2. ((b))

    Maize

  3. ((c))

    Soyabean

  4. ((d))

    Cotton

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mustard

The Correct Answer is Mustard

Key Points

  • The major rabi crop in India is wheat, followed by barley, mustard, sesame, and peas.
  • Mustard is a rabi crop that is widely grown in India. The yellow varieties are mostly grown in Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, etc. Different varieties of mustard can be grown on different soil types. Hence the soil requirement for these crops is flexible.
  • Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.
  • These crops are grown in large parts of India, especially in the states of Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttrakhand, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • India has three cropping seasons:
  • Rabi season
  • Kharif season
  • Zaid season

Additional Information

  • Major Crops of India
  • Some of the major crops grown in India are Jute, cotton, oilseeds, Sugarcane, Coffee, Tea, Pulses, Millets, Wheat, and Rice.
  • The variety of crops grown in different regions of India is dependent on cultivation practices, climatic conditions, and soil conditions.
138

Which one of the following·theories explains the origin of the universe ?

  1. ((a))

    Tidal

  2. ((b))

    Nebula

  3. ((c))

    Big Bang

  4. ((d))

    Planetesimal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Big Bang

The Correct Answer is Big Bang 

Key Points

  • The theory of the Big Bang was proposed by Georges Lemaitre in 1927. Georges didn't call it the Big Bang theory, he called it the hypothesis of the primeval atom
  • Georges Lemaître
  • According to the Big Bang theory, the expansion of the observable universe began with the explosion of a single particle at a definite point in time.
  • Georges Lemaître, (1894-1966), Belgian cosmologist, Catholic priest, and father of the Big Bang theory.

Additional Information

  • The three main theories put forward to explain the origin and evolution of the universe are:
  • The Big Bang Theory
  • The Steady-State Theory
  • The Pulsating Theory​​​
  • Steady State Theory:
  • According to this theory, the number of galaxies in the observable universe is constant and new galaxies are continuously being created out of empty  space, which fill up the gaps caused by those galaxies, which have crossed the boundary of the observable universe.
  • Pulsating Theory: 
  • According to this theory, the universe is supposed to be expanding and contracting alternately i.e. pulsating. At present, the universe is expanding.
  • According to pulsating theory, it is possible that at a certain time, the expansion of the universe may be stopped by the gravitational pull and they may contract again.
139

Distribution of land and water is most vividly explained by which one of the following ?

  1. ((a))

    Continental Drift

  2. ((b))

    Plate Tectonic

  3. ((c))

    Tetrahydral Theory

  4. ((d))

    Convectional Theory

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Plate Tectonic

The Correct Answer is Plate Tectonic

Key Points

  • A tectonic plate (also called a lithospheric plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere.
  • The concept of Tectonic Plates was first introduced in 1967.
  • The movement of the tectonic plates creates three types of tectonic boundaries:
  • Convergent, where plates move into one another.
  • Divergent, where plates move apart.
  • Transform, where plates move sideways in relation to each other.

 

 

Additional Information

  • The term plate tectonics was first used by Tuzo Wilson, of the University of Toronto but the Plate Tectonics theory was first published by W.J Morgan of Princeton University in 1962.
  • Major tectonic plates
  • Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate – (Surrounded by divergent boundaries.)
  • North American plate – (shifting westwards, velocity 4-5 cm/year. It is half oceanic—half continental)
  • South American plate – (shifting westwards, Half continental — half oceanic. 3-4 cm/year)
  • Pacific plate – (Truly oceanic plate. Shifting NW 2- 3cm/year)
  • India-Australia-New Zealand plate
  • Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
  • Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate – (mostly continental, shifting eastwards. Velocity -2-3cm/year)
140

Which one of the following is NOT a component of atmosphere ?

  1. ((a))

    Temperature

  2. ((b))

    Gases

  3. ((c))

    Water vapour

  4. ((d))

    Dust particles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Temperature

The Correct Answer is Temperature.

Key Points

  • Water vapour:
  • We know that water present in oceans and rivers evaporates during summer and escapes into the air.
  • Thus water vapor is one of the components of the air.
  • It occupies a very less percentage of the earth’s atmosphere.
  • Dust particles are also present in the atmosphere. They originate from different sources like fine soil, smoke-soot, pollen, dust, and disintegrated particles of meteors.
  • Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapor condenses to produce clouds.
  • The mixture of gases that makes up the Earth’s atmosphere is known as air. The atmosphere of earth is composed of
  • nitrogen (78%),
  • oxygen (21%),
  • argon (0.9%),
  • carbon dioxide (0.036%)
  • trace gases.

Additional Information

  • The atmosphere is described as the air that surrounds the earth.
  • The thickness of the earth’s atmosphere is about 480 km. 99 percent of the thickness lies up to the height of 32 km from the earth. With increasing altitude, the air pressure decreases.
  • The atmosphere has a mixture of gases that sustains life on earth.
  • The earth’s gravity helps hold the atmosphere in the place.
  • The major role of the atmosphere is to contain the entry of ultraviolet rays.
141

What is the wind direction in a cyclone in southern hemisphere ?

  1. ((a))

    Straight

  2. ((b))

    Diagonal

  3. ((c))

    Anti-clockwise

  4. ((d))

    Clockwise

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Clockwise

The Correct Answer is clockwise

Key Points

  • Cyclones are rapid inward air circulation around a low-pressure area. The air circulates in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere.
  • The word Cyclone is derived from the Greek word Cyclos meaning the coils of a snake. It was coined by Henry Paddington because the tropical storms in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea appear like coiled serpents of the sea.
  • Cyclones are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather.

Additional Information

  • Cyclones
  • better known as depressions and are confined to temperate latitude.​
  • depressions vary from 150 to 2000 miles.
  • the wind blows inward into the low pressure in the center.
  • circulates in the anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere.
  • circulates in a clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
  • precipitation resulting in cyclonic air is due to the convergence of warm tropical air and cold polar air
  • There are 4 types of cyclones and they are:
  • Tropical cyclone.
  • Polar cyclone.
  • Mesocyclone.
  • Extratropical cyclone.
142

Find odd one peak of the Himalaya on the basis of its location :

  1. ((a))

    Kanchenjunga

  2. ((b))

    Dhaulagiri

  3. ((c))

    Makalu

  4. ((d))

    Annapurna

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kanchenjunga

The Correct Answer is Kanchenjunga

Key Points

  • Annapurna is the world's 10th highest peak. Although climbers had reached 28,150 feet (8,580 meters) on Mount Everest by 1924,
  • All other peaks are in Nepal except Kanchenjunga.
  • Annapurna I became famous in 1950 as the first peak above 26,000 feet (8,000 meters) to be ascended to the summit.
  • The Great or Inner Himalaya or Himadri
  • It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6000 meters.
  • Mount Everest in Nepal – 8848 m.
  • Kanchenjunga in India – 8598 m.
  • Makalu in Nepal – 8481 m.
  • Dhaulagiri in Nepal – 8172 m.
  • Nanga Parbat in India – 8126 m.
  • Annapurna in Nepal – 8078 m.
  • Nanda Devi in India – 7817 m.
  • Namcha Barwa in India – 7756 m.

Additional Information

  • Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east. These are as follows:
  • Kashmir or North-Western Himalayas
  • Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas
  • Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas
  • Arunachal Himalayas
  • Eastern Hills and Mountains
143

Kumaon Himalaya is located between-

  1. ((a))

    Kali and Tista rivers

  2. ((b))

    Satluj and Kali rivers

  3. ((c))

    Tista and Dihang rivers

  4. ((d))

    Dihang and Brahmaputra rivers

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Satluj and Kali rivers

The Correct Answer is Kali and Tista rivers

Key Points

  • The part between the Satluj River and the Kali River is known as Kumaon Himalayas and the Nepal Himalayas lie between the Kali River and the Tista River. The area between the Tista and the Brahmaputra Rivers is known as the Assam Himalayas.
  • The Lesser Himalayas in Kumaon Himalaya is represented by the Mussoorie and Nag Tiba ranges.
  • The Shiwalik in this region runs south of the Mussoorie range between the Ganga and the Yamuna rivers.
  • The flat valleys between the Lesser Himalaya and the Shiwalik range are called ‘doors’ or ‘Duns’ of which Dehra Dun is the most famous.

Additional Information

  • The divisions of the Himalayas that have been demarcated by the river valleys are:
  • The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Indus and Satluj is known as the Punjab Himalayas.
  • The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Satluj and Kali is known as the Kumaon Himalayas.
  • To the south of the main Himalayas lies the Pir Panjal Range at an average height of 5,000 meters (16,000 ft).
  • From Gulmarg, in the northwest, it follows the southern rim of the Kashmir valley to the Banihal Pass.
  • Here the Pir Panjal meets the ridgeline that separates the Kashmir valley from the Warvan Valley.
144

Which one of the following is the most favourable reason of thick forests on the western slope of Western Ghats?

  1. ((a))

    High temperature

  2. ((b))

    Low latitude

  3. ((c))

    Windward slope

  4. ((d))

    Fertile soil

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Windward slope

The Correct Answer is Windward slope 

Key Points

  • Windward slope
  • It is because the western slope gets much heavier rainfall than the eastern slopes. Moisture-laden air moves eastwards across, the Western Ghats during the monsoon season.
  • The range is known as Shayan or Sahian in Kerala. In the southern part of the range is Anamudi (2,695 meters (8,842 ft)), the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
  • In India, Tropical Evergreen forests are found on the Western Slopes of the Western Ghats in states such as Kerala and Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Tropical Evergreen Forests
  • The Tropical Evergreen Forests usually occur in areas receiving more than 200 cm of rainfall and having a temperature of 15 to 30 degrees Celsius.
  • Some of the trees found in Indian Tropical Forests are rosewood, mahogany, and ebony. Bamboos and reeds are also common.
  • The following are the principal types of natural vegetation in India:
  • Tropical Evergreen Rain Forests
  • Deciduous or Monsoon Type of Forests
  • Dry Deciduous Forests and Scrubs
  • Semi Desert and Desert Vegetation
  • Tidal or Mangrove Forests
145

Who among the following is the first to respond when a disaster strikes ?

  1. ((a))

    N.G.O.

  2. ((b))

    Local administration

  3. ((c))

    Affected community members

  4. ((d))

    Local community members

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Local administration

The Correct Answer is Local administration

Key Points

  • Role of local administration in a disaster
  • Your local administration has first-hand knowledge of your community's social, economic, infrastructure, and environmental needs, helping them to provide support in a disaster.
  • The role of local administration under the Disaster Management Act 2003 is to:
  • have a disaster response capability
  • approve a local disaster management plan
  • ensure local disaster information is promptly given to the District Disaster Coordinator.

Additional Information

  • Local disaster management groups
  • Local governments appoint local disaster management groups.
  • Their role is to:
  • develop, review and assess effective disaster management practices
  • help local government to prepare a local disaster management plan
  • ensure the community knows how to respond in a disaster
  • identify and coordinate disaster resources
  • manage local disaster operations
  • ensure local disaster management and disaster operations integrate with state disaster management.
146

Find out reasons for outbreak of Tsunami among the following :

I. Earthquake

II. Volcanic eruptions

III. Landslides

IV. Moon's pull

  1. ((a))

    I and III

  2. ((b))

    I and ll

  3. ((c))

    II and III

  4. ((d))

    I and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

I and ll

The Correct Answer is II and III.

Key Points

  • Reasons for the outbreak of tsunamis are Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes.
  • A tsunami is a series of waves generated by violent seafloor movements associated with, deepsea earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, etc.
  • Although earthquake magnitude is one factor that affects tsunami generation, there are other important factors to consider. The earthquake must be a shallow marine event that displaces the seafloor.
  • Thrust earthquakes (as opposed to strike-slip) are far more likely to generate tsunamis.
  • But small tsunamis have occurred in a few Exceptional cases from large (i.e., > M8) strike-slip earthquakes.
  • So because of this only Earthquakes are not the major reason for Tsunamis.

Additional Information

  • Landslide
  • A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope. Landslides are a type of "mass wasting," which denotes any down-slope movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity.
  • Moon's pull
  • The moon's gravitational pull on the Earth is the main cause of the rise and fall of ocean tides.
  • The moon's gravitational pull causes two bulges of water on the Earth's oceans—one where ocean waters face the moon and the pull is strongest and one where ocean waters face away from the moon and the pull is weakest
147

Find out the main objective of the search and Rescue team from the following

I. Rescue the survivors trapped under debris.

II. Provide First Aid service to the trapped survivors.

III. Handover, recover and dispose of the deceased bodies.

IV. Listen to all sources of information.

  1. ((a))

    I, II and IV

  2. ((b))

    II, III and IV

  3. ((c))

    I, III and IV

  4. ((d))

    I, II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II and IV

The correct answer is I, II and IV.

Key Points

  • The main objective of a search and rescue team is to rescue the survivors trapped under debris.
  • This includes providing first aid to the survivors and handing over the deceased bodies to the appropriate authorities.
  • Listening to all sources of information is also important, as it can help the team to find the survivors more quickly.

Therefore, the answer is I, II and IV.

Additional Information

Here is a more detailed explanation of the main objectives of a search and rescue team:

  • Rescue the survivors trapped under debris: This is the primary objective of a search and rescue team. The team will use a variety of methods to find the survivors, including listening to all sources of information, using search dogs, and using specialized equipment. Once the survivors are found, the team will provide them with first aid and transport them to a safe location.
  • Provide first aid to the trapped survivors: Once the survivors are found, the team will provide them with first aid. This may include providing oxygen, bandaging wounds, and treating shock. The team will also transport the survivors to a safe location where they can receive further medical treatment.
  • Hand over, recover and dispose of the deceased bodies: If the survivors are not found, the team will hand over the deceased bodies to the appropriate authorities. The team will also recover the bodies and dispose of them in a safe and respectful manner.
  • Listen to all sources of information: The team will listen to all sources of information, including eyewitness accounts, social media posts, and news reports. This information can help the team to find the survivors more quickly and efficiently.
148

Which one of the following is mainly considered manmade disaster ?

  1. ((a))

    Fire

  2. ((b))

    Landslide

  3. ((c))

    Drought

  4. ((d))

    Erosion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fire

The Correct Answer is Fire

Key Points

  • Fire Accident - Man-made Disasters.
  • Human-caused fires result from campfires left unattended, the burning of debris, equipment use and malfunctions, negligently discarded cigarettes, and intentional acts of arson.  Lightning is one of the two natural causes of fires.
  • Man-made hazards are disruptions of a massive scale over a short or long period of time, caused by human action or inaction.
  • These disasters cause economic damage, loss of life, health emergencies, etc.
  • Man-made disasters can be classified into Sudden disasters, Continuing disasters, and Armed conflicts.

Additional Information

  • Disasters have been a part of human life since the beginning of time.
  • Man-made Disasters in India
  • Bhopal Gas tragedy
  • Recalling the night of December 2-3 1984 in Bhopal still sends a shiver down the spine of those who were there that fateful night when toxic Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) 

gas leaked from the factory owned by Union Carbide. The gas silently spread out engulfing the densely populated areas around the factory.

149

Which one of the following ministries is the Nodal Ministry at the centre for coordinating disaster management activities for all natural disaster except drought ?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Agriculture

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Civil Aviation

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ministry of Home Affairs

The Correct Answer is the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Key Points

  • The institutional and policy mechanisms for carrying out response, relief and rehabilitation have been well-established since Independence.
  • These mechanisms have proved to be robust and effective insofar as response, relief and rehabilitation are concerned.
  • At the national level, the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal Ministry for all matters concerning disaster management.
  • The Central Relief Commissioner (CRC) in the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal officer to coordinate relief operations for natural disasters.
  • The CRC receives information relating to forecasting/warning of a natural calamity from India Meteorological Department (IMD) or from Central Water Commission of Ministry of Water Resources on a continuing basis.

Additional Information

150

Identify the man-made factor responsible for landslide among the following :

  1. ((a))

    Poor drainage

  2. ((b))

    Steep slopes

  3. ((c))

    Land use pattern

  4. ((d))

    Stiffness of slope

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Land use pattern

The Correct Answer is Land use pattern

Key Points

  • Landslides are caused due to three major factors: geology, morphology, and human activity.
  • Geology refers to the characteristics of the material. The earth or rock might be weak or fractured, or different layers may have different strengths and stiffness.
  • Morphology refers to the structure of the land. For example, slopes that lose their vegetation to fire or drought are more vulnerable to landslides.
  • Vegetation holds soil in place, and without the root systems of trees, bushes, and other plants, the land is more likely to slide away.
  • Human activity which includes agriculture and construction increases the risk of a landslide.

Additional Information

  • Landslide:
  • A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope.
  • They are a type of mass wasting, which denotes any downward movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity.
  • The term landslide encompasses five modes of slope movement: falls, topples, slides, spreads, and flows.
  • Landslide-Prone Areas
  • The entire Himalayan tract, hills/mountains in sub-Himalayan terrains of North-east India, Western Ghats, and the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu Konkan areas are landslide-prone.
151

Which one of the following schemes is concerned with poorest of the poor?

  1. ((a))

    Antyodaya Anna Yojana

  2. ((b))

    Targeted Public Distribution System

  3. ((c))

    Revamped Public Distribution System

  4. ((d))

    Annapuma Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Antyodaya Anna Yojana

The correct answer is Antyodaya Anna Yojana

Key Points

  • The Antyodaya Anna Yojana is a government program that offers substantially discounted food to around one crore of the poorest families in India who fall below the poverty line (BPL).
  • The Antyodaya Anna Yojana was established in December 2000 to better implement the TPDS and provide food grains to the appropriate population groups. The goal of the Targeted Public Distribution System (TDPS) is to give the poor access to food and grains.

​Hence, the correct answer is Antyodaya Anna Yojana is concerned with poorest of the poor.

152

While borrowing a loan, a borrower looks for which one of the following ?

  1. ((a))

    Tough condition for repayment

  2. ((b))

    More collateral

  3. ((c))

    Easy terms of credit

  4. ((d))

    Low interest rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Easy terms of credit

The correct answer is Easy terms of credit.

Key Points

  • While taking a loan, borrowers look for easy terms of credit.
  • This means low (low/high) interest rate, easy (easy/ tough) conditions for repayment, less (less/more) collateral and documentation requirements.

Hence, the correct answer is that while borrowing a loan, a borrower looks for easy terms of credit.

153

Which one of the following is NOT included in the terms of credit ?

  1. ((a))

    Mode of payment

  2. ((b))

    Interest rate

  3. ((c))

    Collateral

  4. ((d))

    Saving

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Saving

The correct answer is savings.

Key Points

  • In terms of credit, apart from the rate of interest, collateral also includes documentation, mode of repayment. 
  • Rate of interest- The borrower is required to pay interest on the principal amount.
  • Collateral- The borrower uses this asset as a guarantee to the lender up until the debt is paid off.
  • Documentation- It is necessary to present accurate loan documentation that include all the terms and conditions.
  • Repayment method: It must be made clear how the borrower intends to pay back the loan. Loans with long repayment terms may be payable in annual, biannual, or monthly instalments.

Hence, the correct answer is that savings are not included in terms of credit.

154

The most of the important decisions regarding the savings and loan activities are taken in 'Self Help Groups' by which one of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Members

  2. ((b))

    Money lenders

  3. ((c))

    Banks

  4. ((d))

    NGOs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Members

The correct answer is members.

Key Points

  • Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are informal organizations where people gather to discuss how to better their living circumstances.
  • It can be characterized as a self-governing, peer-controlled information group of individuals with a comparable socioeconomic background and a desire to work together to accomplish a common goal.
  • The majority of significant decisions pertaining to savings and loan activities are made by the members of "Self Help Groups" (SHGs).

Hence, the correct answer is that most of the important decisions regarding the savings and loan activities are taken in "Self-Help Groups' by their members.

155

Investment in which of the following is NOT an investment in 'Human Capital'?

  1. ((a))

    Education ·

  2. ((b))

    Health service

  3. ((c))

    Training

  4. ((d))

    Tourism

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tourism

The correct answer is Tourism.

Key Points

  • In addition to serving as an input in the creation of other types of human capital, health is a type of human capital. Being ill reduces one's capacity for productive work and/or one's motivation to make investments in human capital.
  • It is believed that attributes like an employee's experience and skills are included in human capital. Given that not all labor is created equal, firms can increase human capital by putting money into the benefits, benefits packages, and training of their staff.

​Hence, the correct answer is that investment in tourism is not human capital.

156

Which age group among the following constitutes working population in India ?

  1. ((a))

    15 years to 65 years

  2. ((b))

    15 years to 59 years

  3. ((c))

    18 years to 59 years

  4. ((d))

    15 years to 64 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15 years to 59 years

The correct answer is 15 years to 59 years.

Key Points

  • The working population in India, also known as the working-age population, is generally considered to be the age group between 15 and 59 years.
  • This is based on the International Labour Organization (ILO) standards and is widely used to describe the labor force.

So, the correct answer is 15 years to 59 years.

Additional Information

  • The working-age population is an important demographic group in any economy, as it represents the individuals who are able and available to work.
  • In India, a large working-age population, coupled with economic growth, has the potential to contribute to the country's development.
  • However, challenges such as unemployment, underemployment, and skill development need to be addressed to harness the full potential of this population group.
157

Which state of India has the lowest poverty ratio among the following?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Goa

  3. ((c))

    Jammu and Kashmir

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • The poverty rate is the ratio of people (in a given age group) whose income falls below the poverty line; taken as half the median household income of the total population.
  • Kerala has the lowest poverty ratio with 0.71%.
  • Punjab has a poverty ratio of 5.59%.
  • Goa has a poverty ratio of 3.76%.
  • Kerala, Goa, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu and Punjab have registered the lowest poverty across India and are at the bottom of the index.

 Thus, we can say that Kerala in India has the lowest poverty ratio.

158

Which one of the following poverty alleviation schemes was started in 1999, in India ?

  1. ((a))

    Rural Employment Generation Programmes

  2. ((b))

    Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana

  3. ((c))

    Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozagar Yojana

  4. ((d))

    Pradhanmantri Gramodaya Yojana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozagar Yojana

The correct answer is Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozagar Yojana

Key Points

  • Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozagar Yojana was launched in April 1999 to encourage self-employment among the rural unemployed by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • This was accomplished by starting self-help groups where individuals were grouped according to their abilities and skills.
  • With the use of a combination of bank credit and government assistance, SGSY aims to lift every family out of poverty within three years by giving them assets that can generate income.

Hence, the correct answer isSwarnjayanti Gram Swarozagar Yojana was launched in 1993 in India.

159

Which one of the following programmes was launched on November 14, 2004 in 'India?

  1. ((a))

    Public Distribution System

  2. ((b))

    Employment Guarantee Scheme

  3. ((c))

    National Food for Work Programme

  4. ((d))

    Sampuran Gramin Rozgar Yojana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

National Food for Work Programme

The correct answer is the National Food for Work Program.

Key Points

  • National Food for Work Program was launched on November 14, 2004.
  • Everyone in India who is in need of a wage job and is willing to perform physical labor without any training is eligible for the program.
  • It is a centrally sponsored scheme.

Hence, the correct answer is National Food for Work Program was launched on November 14, 2004.

160

Underemployment occurs when people

  1. ((a))

    work less than what they are capable of doing

  2. ((b))

    do not want to work

  3. ((c))

    are not paid properly for their work

  4. ((d))

    want to work only in a certain period

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

work less than what they are capable of doing

The correct answer is to work less than what they are capable of doing.

Key Points

  • When a person doesn't work full time or accepts a job that doesn't correspond to their actual skills and financial requirements, they are considered to be underemployed.
  • In other words, their job doesn't fully utilize their education and training or only offers part-time employment.
  • Underemployment and unemployment are different, unemployment, describes people who have no current employment at all.

Hence, the correct answer is that underemployment is when people want to  work less than what they are capable of doing

161

Who among the following is the most affected during the famine?

  1. ((a))

    Bank workers

  2. ((b))

    Doctors

  3. ((c))

    Traders

  4. ((d))

    Workers

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Workers

The correct answer is workers.

Key Points

  • Famine is a widespread condition in which many people in a country or region are unable to access adequate food supplies.
  • Famines cause a lack of food.
  • The most affected people during the famines are workers.
  • Workers are hard hit by these calamities as they work in the unorganized sector.
  • They do not have job security and are dependent on daily wages for their livelihood.
  • Agricultural workers are the most hard-hit people during times of calamity.

 Thus, we can say that workers are the most affected during famines.

162

Which one of the following led to self-sufficiency in food grains in India?

  1. ((a))

    Wheat revolution

  2. ((b))

    Rice revolution

  3. ((c))

    Green revolution

  4. ((d))

    White revolution

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Green revolution

The correct answer is Green revolution.

Key Points

  • India is becoming food grain self-sufficient owing to the green revolution. This led to a significant increase in the production of wheat and rice due to the use of insecticides and pesticides.
  • The goal of the Green Revolution was to enhance food grain production, which led to a sharp decline in imports. Due to the Green Revolution, we are currently self-sufficient in food grains, have enough stock in the central pool, and are occasionally able to export grains.

​Hence, the correct answer is that the Green Revolution led to self-sufficiency in food grains in India.

163

Some facts related to the developmental goal are given below :

I. She gets as much freedom as her brother.

II. She is able to decide what she wants to do.

III. She is able to pursue her studies abroad.

All the above facts are associated with which one of the following category of persons ?

  1. ((a))

    A girl from a rich urban family.

  2. ((b))

    Prosperous farmers from Rajasthan.

  3. ((c))

    Prosperous farmers from Jharkhand.

  4. ((d))

    A daughter of a well placed adhoc employee in a private firm.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A girl from a rich urban family.

The correct answer is A girl from a rich urban family.

Key Points

  • For every person, advancement or development means something different. Every person has their own idea of what constitutes development. People look for things that will help them achieve their goals or satisfy their deepest wants.
  • The above mentioned goals are the goals of a girl from a rich urban family.
  • She gets as much freedom as her brother.
  • She is able to decide what she wants to do.
  • She is able to pursue her studies abroad.

​Hence, the correct answer is A girl from a rich urban family are associated with category of person.

164

On the basis of the sectors of economy, find the odd one from the following:

  1. ((a))

    Potter

  2. ((b))

    Carpenter

  3. ((c))

    Factory worker

  4. ((d))

    Bank worker

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bank worker

The correct answer is Bank worker.

Key Points

  • There are three sectors of economic activities:
  • Primary sector
  • Secondary sector
  • Tertiary sector
  • The primary sector includes goods produced by exploiting natural resources.
  • Fishing, dairy, agriculture, and mining are primary activities.
  • The secondary sector includes goods changed from natural products to other forms.
  • Potter, carpenter and factory workers are all workers in the secondary sector.
  • The tertiary sector includes activities which act as an aid for the production process.
  • Banking, communication, trade and essential services are part of the tertiary sector.

 Thus, we can say that a bank worker belongs to the tertiary sector, whereas a potter, carpenter and factory worker belong to the secondary sector.

165

Natural process of production comes under which one of the following ?

  1. ((a))

    Industrial sector

  2. ((b))

    Tertiary sector

  3. ((c))

    Secondary sector

  4. ((d))

    Primary sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Primary sector

The correct answer is Primary sector

Key Points

  • Natural process of production: This refers to the extraction or harvesting of resources that occur naturally, without significant human intervention.
  • Industrial sector (Option 1): This sector focuses on transforming raw materials into finished products through manufacturing processes.
  • Tertiary sector (Option 2): This sector deals with providing services instead of producing goods.
  • Secondary sector (Option 3): This sector, similar to the industrial sector, involves transforming raw materials but may include construction activities as well.
  • Primary sector (Option 4): This sector encompasses activities that directly utilize natural resources. Examples include agriculture, mining, forestry, and fishing.
  • Since the question refers to production through natural processes, the primary sector best fits the description. This sector relies on the growth and regeneration capabilities of nature for production.
166

In which of the following sectors most of the workers enjoy job security ?

  1. ((a))

    Industrial sector

  2. ((b))

    Organized sector

  3. ((c))

    Unorganized sector

  4. ((d))

    Private sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Organized sector

The correct answer is the Organized sector.

Key Points

  • The organized sector covers the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular.
  • People in this sector have assured work.
  • Hence, they enjoy the security of employment.
  • They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act etc.
  • Workers in this sector are expected to work only a fixed number of hours.

 Thus, we can say that workers in the Organized sector enjoy job security.

Additional Information

  • The unorganised sector is characterized by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of government.
167

Tertiary sector is becoming very important in India because of

I. Requirement of several services is increasing.

II. The development of agriculture and industry lead to the development of services

III. Rise in income of the people.

  1. ((a))

    I, II and III

  2. ((b))

    I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only II and III

  4. ((d))

    Only I and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II and III

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

  • The tertiary sector includes activities that are good by themselves but are an aid to the production process.
  • Transport, storage, banking, communication, and trade are some of the tertiary activities.
  • It is also known as the service sector.
  • It is becoming increasingly important in India because:
  • requirement of several services is increasing
  • development of agriculture and industry lead to the development of services
  • rise in income of the people
  • The service sector also includes essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods.

 Thus, we can say that the above statements are true about the tertiary sector.

168

There are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The democratically elected government in Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures.

 

Reason (R) : The feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils increased.

Which one from the following is applicable ?

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are not true. 

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true, but (R) is not true.

  4. ((d))

    (R) is true, but (A) is not true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are true.

Both statements (A) and (R) are true. 

Important Points 

  • In Sri Lanka, Tamils were in minority and the country was ruled by government dominated by majority community Sinhalese.
  • Majoritarian measures taken by Sri Lankan government which increased the feeling of alienation among Tamils were:
  • Recognizing Sinhala as the only official language.
  • Preferential treatment to Sinhala people in government jobs and admissions.
  • Constitutional protection to Buddhism only.
  • These policies made Tamils feel that their interests are ignored and they were highly discriminated against in general public life and profession too.
  • Gradually, this led to the distrust between the two communities and ultimately resulted in conflict and violence.
169

Choose the correct option from the following which relates to Belgium model of government :

I. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.

 

ll. The State Governments are subordinate to the Central Government.

 

III. Brussels has a separate government.

  1. ((a))

    I and II

  2. ((b))

    II and III

  3. ((c))

    I and III

  4. ((d))

    I, II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

I and III

Both Statement I and Statement III are correct. 

Important Points

  • Belgium followed the accommodative policy to bring ethnic harmony and social peace.
  • In its model of government, the following steps were taken:
  • The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central government.
  • This ensures that no single community makes the decision unilaterally.
  • Power Sharing between Central and State governments was such that functions were divided. State Governments are not subordinate to the Central Government. So, Statement II is incorrect.
  • Brussels has a separate government in which both communities have equal representation.

Therefore, Statements I and III are correct.

170

Choose the correct option out of the following features for federal government :

I. The Central Government can pass an order to the provincial governments.

 

II. The Central Government cannot order the State Government.

 

Ill. State Government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central Government.

  1. ((a))

    Only II

  2. ((b))

    Only I and III

  3. ((c))

    Only II and III

  4. ((d))

    Only I and II

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only II and III

Federalism in India is different from a typical federal system. It is inclined towards Central Government. It is also flexible in nature.

Important PointsFeatures of a federal government:

  1. There are two levels of government: at central and at provincial level.
  2. The jurisdictions and powers of both governments are specified in the constitution. State Governments are independent in their own spheres. They are answerable only to the courts of law in the country in accordance with constitution.
  3. Supremacy of the Constitution: Federal Government is based on the supremacy of the constitution. The constitution can not be changed unilaterally by the Central Government.
  4. In case of any conflict, courts act as the umpire by interpreting the constitution and powers of both governments.
  5. Central Government alone can not pass an order to State Government on its own.

Therefore, statement II and III are correct.

171

Which one of the following countries comes under the federation on the principle of 'holding together' -?

  1. ((a))

    Belgium

  2. ((b))

    U.S.A

  3. ((c))

    Switzerland

  4. ((d))

    Australia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Belgium

The correct answer is Belgium

Important PointsThere are two types of federation, which are classified on the basis of their mode of formation:

  • 'Coming Together' Federation: Independent States come together on their own to form a bigger unit to pool sovereignty and unity by retaining their independent identities
  • Prime concern is the security of the units.
  • Examples: USA, Switzerland and Australia.
  • Holding together' Federation: A large country decides to divide its powers among the constituent units or States and the Central Government. 
  • Prime concern is to manage the affairs and diversity effectively.
  • Examples: India, Spain and Belgium.

Additional Information

  • Federalism in India: Federalism in India is different from a typical federal system. It is inclined towards Central Government. It is also flexible in nature.
  • K.C. Wheare has defined Indian Federalism as Quasi-Federalism.
172

How many seats are reserved in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Castes?

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    70

  3. ((c))

    69

  4. ((d))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84

The correct answer is 84.

Important Points

  • The Lok Sabha has 84 seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 47 seats for the Scheduled Tribes.
  • This is as per the order issued by the delimitation commission in 2018.
  • The number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is based on the percentage of the total population they make up in the country.
  • This ensures that the idea of the reservation does not deny representation to the other social groups in the country.
173

To make the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective, some measures are given below. Choose the correct option :

I. It is mandatory to hold regular elections to local bodies.

II. Seats are reserved for the S.C.,S.T. and O.B.C.

Ill. One-third seats are reserved for woman.

IV. Power are given to all local bodies to collect revenue to meet their expenditures.

  1. ((a))

    II, III and IV

  2. ((b))

    I, II and IV

  3. ((c))

    I, Ill and IV

  4. ((d))

    I, II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

I, II and III

The corret answer is option 4.

Important PointsLocal self Government was given constitutional mandate by 73rd and 74th Amendments by creating Rural and Urban Local Self Governing Bodies, respectively. To make them effective, following measures are taken:

  • Direct and regular elections to local bodies. If the existing government dissolves or the term ends, fresh elections must be held within six months of such dissolution.
  • One-third of the positions in all local self-governing bodies' institutions are reserved for women.
  • Reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to their population.
  • If the States find it necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the other backward classes (OBCs).
  • The State government is also required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years. This Commission would examine the financial position of the local governments in the State.
  • This is to ensure that the allocation of funds to the rural local governments will not be a political matter.

Therefore, statement IV is not correct with respect to the measures taken by the government to strengthen democracy at third tier.

174

Which one of the following is responsible for social diversity in India?

I. Cultural differences

II. Economic differences

Ill. Political differences

IV. Linguistic differences

  1. ((a))

    I and II

  2. ((b))

    II and III

  3. ((c))

    I and IV

  4. ((d))

    III and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

I and IV

The correct answer is Option 3: I and IV. 

Important Points

  • Social Diversity in India: The composition of Indian society reflects on the various diversities existing in India. The bulk of Indian Population represents racial admixture in varying degrees. Diversity in India is found in terms of race religion, language, caste and culture.
  • Factors responsible for social diversity in India:
  1. Cultural differences: Indian society is divided into large number of religious communities, namely Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Jainism, Buddhism, Sikhism and Zoroastrianism. All these religions are further divided into various sects which have their own cultures.
  2. Linguistic differences: 8th Schedule of the Constitution recognizes 22 official languages. All the major languages have different regional variations and dialects. Language has also been an important source of diversity in society of India.
  3. Differences based on Caste: Caste system is unique in India and originally found among the Hindus, which originated in Later Vedic Age. Later on, occupational diversities gave birth to various jatis and sub-jatis.

  

Additional Information

  • Social diversity is created by social elements of people.
  • Factors such as economic and political differences can be found even in a particular social division, for example rich and poor people can belong to the same caste, religion or speak same language. So, they are not the factors of social diversity in India.

Hence we can conclude that Cultural and Linguistic differences is responsible for social diversity in India.

175

Which one of the following countries has 'two party system' ?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    U.S.A.

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

U.S.A.

The correct answer is USA. 

Important Points

  • Party systems are classified on the basis of number of effective or dominant parties who represent in the government, in any country. These are:
  1. One Party System: Only one party is allowed to control and run the government. Example: Communist Party of China in PRC.
  2. Two-Party Systems: The power and control of the government change between two effective parties, which form the governments. Though several other parties are also present. Example: USA - Republic Party and Democratic Party.
  3. Multi-Party System: Various parties compete for power and more than two parties have chances of forming the government, either on their own or in alliance with others. Example: India- two major alliances are NDA and UPA.

Therefore, USA has two -party system from among the options.

176

The criterion of delimiting various constituencies for election purpose is

  1. ((a))

    Population

  2. ((b))

    Area

  3. ((c))

    Majority community

  4. ((d))

    Physical boundary

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Population

The correct answer is Population.

Important Points

  • Delimitation: It is the process of drawing the boundaries of constituencies in accordance with the proportion of area and population.
  • Delimitation Commission:
  1. The task of delimiting constituencies is generally performed by the Delimitation Commission.
  2. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country.
  3. After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of the population in each constituency.
  4. . A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State.
  5. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the Delimitation exercise is undertaken.

Therefore, the criteria for delimiting the constituencies is the composition of the population in different parts of the states

Additional Information

  • The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
  • Its membership is consisting of five serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court and  Chief Election Commissioner who is the ex-officio chairperson.
177

Which one 0f the following states has the largest number of Constituencies?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal. 

Important Points

  • From the given options, the State with the largest number of Constituencies for Lok Sabha General Elections in West Bengal
West Bengal42
Bihar40
Andhra Pradesh25
Tamil Nadu39

Additional Information

  • The highest number of Lok Sabha Constituencies: Uttar Pradesh has 80 seats.
  • Lowest number: Only 1 constituency in Sikkim, Nagaland, Mizoram, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Ladakh.
178

Gram Panchayat works under which one of the following ?

  1. ((a))

    Municipal Committee of the area

  2. ((b))

    Zila Parishad

  3. ((c))

    Gram Sabha

  4. ((d))

    Panchayat Samiti

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gram Sabha

The correct answer is  Gram Sabha.

Key Points

  • Gram Panchayat works under the Gram Sabha.
  • Gram Sabha is the supreme authority of Gram Panchayat.
  • All the voters of the village are members of the Gram Sabha.
  • The Gram Sabha oversees the functioning of the Gram Panchayat and gives directions to the Gram Panchayat in its functioning.

Additional Information

  • Municipal Committee of the Area: Under 74th Amendment, every state shall constitute, at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole.
  • Zila Parishad: In the three-tier functioning of rural local government, Zila Parishad is top most tier which supervises the Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats.
  • Gram Sabha: All the members of the village whose names are on the electoral roll comprise the Gram Sabha. They elect a Sarpanch who is the Panchayat President. It is the place where all plans for the work of the Gram Panchayat are placed before the people.
179

In which one of the following countries free and fair election was held?

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    Fiji

  4. ((d))

    Canada

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Canada

The correct answer is Canada

Important Points

Elections in Canada

  • Canada's electoral system is dominated by Two political parties - the Liberal Party and the Conservative Party. Although there exist various other parties too.
  • Canada's first recorded election was held in Halifax in 1758. Since then, there has been free and fair elections in Canada.
  • All Canadian citizens aged 18 or older who currently reside in Canada as of the polling day may vote in federal elections.
  • The most recent Canadian federal election occurred on September 2021.​

Additional Information

 Electoral System in Iran

  • Since the establishment of the Islamic Republic in 1979, Iran has been through various ups and down which affected the regular conduct of elections.
  • Women are not constitutionally restricted from running; however, all women who registered as candidates have been excluded from standing for election by the Guardian Council.
  • In the recent elections, wide disqualification of prominent candidates provoked many activists and candidates to call for boycotting the election.

Electoral System in Pakistan: 

  • Between 1947 and 1958, there were no direct elections held in Pakistan at the national level. Provincial elections were held occasionally.
  • Military interference obstructs the conduct of free and fair elections in Pakistan.​

Electoral System in Fiji:

  • Fiji does not follow the principle of 'one vote one value' as it gives higher value to its indigenous people than others. So elections there are not considered free and fair.
180

In which one of the following countries the vote for indigenous person has more value than that of others?

  1. ((a))

    Fiji

  2. ((b))

    Saudi Arabia

  3. ((c))

    U.S.A.

  4. ((d))

    Nepal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fiji

The correct answer is Fiji. 

Key Points

  • The state of Fiji on the Pacific Island is an ethnically divided nation that gained independence from British Rule in 1970.
  • Two main ethnic groups in the country: The indigenous Fijians and the Indo-Fijians.
  • In 1987, two coups were led by the indigenous Fijian-dominated military alleging the majority ruling Indo-Fujians in the government of discrimination.
  • A new constitution in 1990 was finally adopted, with clauses that weighed heavily in favor of the indigenous people.

Steps taken to resolve the conflict:

  • A new electoral structure based entirely on communal representation of ethnic groups, with separate electoral rolls for Fijians, Indians and "general voters."
  • The vote of an indigenous Fijian has more importance than that of an Indian Fijian.
181

Which one of the following is not determined by the Indian Constitution ?

  1. ((a))

    Power of the citizens

  2. ((b))

    Rights of the citizens

  3. ((c))

    Power of the government

  4. ((d))

    Functions of the government

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Power of the citizens

The correct answer is Option 1: Power of the Citizens.

Important Points Constitution of India determines the following aspects:

Rights of the citizens:

  • Part III of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights of the citizens which are justiciable in character.
  • It contains Article 12 to 32.
  • Several other rights are also mentioned in different articles of the constitution such as legal rights, political rights etc.
  • The motto is to have political democracy and to safeguard the people from tyranny of the government.

Powers and Functions of the government:

  • Part V and VI deal comprehensively with the nature, description and powers of the Central as well as State governments.
  • Different chapters focus on different organs of these governments: legislature, executive and judiciary.
  • Part IV specifically deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are the guiding principles for the functioning of the government. This ensures the socio-economic democracy.

Indian Constitution does not determine the power of the citizens in a defined manner. The meaning of power is subjective in nature, It might have created the confusion among the citizens or even conflict between government and people. To keep things in harmony, citizens are provided with Rights.

182

Which one of the following bodies was constituted to prepare the Constitution of India ?

  1. ((a))

    Drafting Committee

  2. ((b))

    Constituent Assembly

  3. ((c))

    Constitutional Committee

  4. ((d))

    Constituent Committee

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Constituent Assembly

The correct answer is Constituent Assembly. 

Important PointsConstituent Assembly of India:

  • The Constitution of India was prepared by an elected body of people known as the Constituent Assembly of India.
  • The idea of a constituent assembly was first proposed in 1934 by M.N. Roy.
  • The Government of India Act, 1935 provided a basis to the Constituent Assembly to make the Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Elections of the constituent assembly: According to the proposals of the Cabinet Mission, the election to the Constituent Assembly was held.
  • The inaugural session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946. It was supposed to be attended by all 296 members but only 207 members could attend it because the Muslim League members absented from it.
  • On 11 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
  • On13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved resolution regarding the Objectives of the constituent Assembly.
183

When the election is held in a few constituencies to fill the vacancy caused by death or resignation of the members, it is called

  1. ((a))

    Mid-term election

  2. ((b))

    General election

  3. ((c))

    By-election

  4. ((d))

    Specific election

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

By-election

The correct answer is By-election

Key Points

  • By-Elections:
  • These are those elections conducted to fill an office that has become vacant between general elections.
  • A vacancy may arise as a result of an incumbent dying or resigning, or when the incumbent becomes ineligible to continue in office or when an election is invalidated by voting irregularities.
  • These elections are conducted by Election Commission of India only in those particular constituencies.

Additional Information

  • Mid-term Election:
  • These elections are held when the government vacates the office before the expiry of the term.
  • These elections are held for all the constituencies like general elections.
  • General Elections:
  • These elections are usual elections held after every five years on the stipulated date.
  • Election Commission of India is responsible for these elections too.
184

Which one of the following is NOT a part of Indian Parliament ?

  1. ((a))

    President

  2. ((b))

    Judiciary

  3. ((c))

    Lok Sabha

  4. ((d))

    Rajya Sabha

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Judiciary

The correct answer is Judiciary.

Important Points Parliament of India consists of:

President:

  1. He is the head of the State and an important part of Parliament.
  2. He summons the Parliament after every general election and at the start of every session.
  3. He issues ordinances when either house  or both the houses of the Parliament are not in session.
  4. Though he is not a member of the house and does not take part in the proceedings, he is an integral part of the Parliament.

Rajya Sabha:

  1. It is the upper house or second chamber of Indian Parliament which houses the MPs of different States and UT of India.
  2. Its members have a fixed tenure of six years.
  3. Its maximum strength is fixed by constitution at 250.

Lok Sabha:

  1. It is the lower house or first chamber of Indian Parliament. It houses the directly elected MPs from the whole India.
  2. Its term is usually five years though it can be dissolved earlier.
  3. It maximum strength is fixed at 550.
185

The theory of dialectical materialism was propounded by :

  1. ((a))

    Hegel

  2. ((b))

    Marx

  3. ((c))

    Lenin

  4. ((d))

    Engels

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Marx

The correct answer is Karl Marx. 

Important Points

  • Dialectical Materialism: It is a philosophical approach derived from the writings of Karl Marx along with his friend Engels.
  • It can be understood by deconstructing the term into two words:
  1. Dialect: The word ‘dialectics’ refers to a method of intellectual discussion by dialogue. It is a term of logic.
  2. Materialism: The material word perceptible to senses, has an objective reality independent of mind and spirit.

Key Points

Marx's concept of Dialectical Materialism:

  • Marx evolved his concept of dialectical materialism on the basis of his critique of the German philosopher Hegel’s theories of idealism.
  • In contradistinction to Hegel, Marx said it is the matter which is supreme and determinant of consciousness and idea and not vice-versa.
  • It seeks to explain everything in terms of contradictions of matter.
186

Who among the following wrote 'The Declaration of the Rights of Women' in 1791 in France?

  1. ((a))

    Marie Antionette

  2. ((b))

    J.J. Rousseau

  3. ((c))

    Jeanne Roland

  4. ((d))

    Olympe de Gauge

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Olympe de Gauge

Olympe de Gauge wrote 'The Declaration of the Rights of Women' in 1791 in France.

Key Points

  • Olympe de Gouge, a female French political activist and playwright, wrote the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and of the Female Citizen in 1791 in direct response to the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen.
  • Olympe de Gouge was one of the most important of the politically active women in revolutionary France.
  • She protested against the Constitution and the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen as they excluded women from basic rights that each human being was entitled to.
  • In 1791, she wrote a Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen, which she addressed to the Queen and to the members of the National Assembly, demanding that they act upon it.
  • In 1793, Olympe de Gouge criticised the Jacobin government for forcibly closing down women's clubs.
  • She was tried by the National Convention, which charged her with treason.
  • De Gouge was an outspoken critic of the government during the revolution’s “Reign of Terror” from 1793 to 1794.
  • As a result, she was the only female to be executed for her political writings during this period.

Hence, we can conclude that Olympe de Gauge wrote 'The Declaration of the Rights of Women' in 1791 in France.

187

The Treaty of Verseilles (1919) signed at the end of the First World War was harsh and humiliating for the Germany because

A. All the overseas colonies of Germany were taken away

B. Alsele and Lorraine were handed over to France

C. Germany was demilitarized

D. Heavy war indemnity was imposed

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D

  4. ((d))

    A, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B, C and D

All the given statements related to the Treaty of Verseilles (1919) are correct.

Key Points

  • The Treaty of Versailles was a document signed between Imperial Germany and the Allied Powers on 28th June 1919.
  • The treaty ended the state of war that had existed between Germany and the Allies from 1914 and brought World War I to an end.
  • The treaty gets its name from the Palace of Versailles where it was signed.
  • The Treaty of Verseilles (1919) signed at the end of the First World War was harsh and humiliating for the Germany because of the following provisions:
  • ​The Treaty of Versailles imposed many restrictions on Germany.
  • By the Treaty of Versailles, Germany’s territories were redefined. It had to give up its territories in the west, north and east.
  • All the overseas colonies of Germany were taken away.
  • The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden.
  • Alsele and Lorraine was returned to France.
  • Germany had to give up its weapons, and the strength of its army, navy and air force was reduced. Hence, Germany was demilitarized.
  • Germany was asked to pay for the losses suffered in the First World War. The compensation estimated at 6,600 million pounds was to be paid in installments.

Therefore, we can conclude that the following statements are correct related to the Treaty of Verseilles (1919):

c. All the overseas colonies of Germany were taken away

B. Alsele and Lorraine were handed over to France

C. Germany was demilitarized

D. Heavy war indemnity was imposed

188

Which among the following was the Hitler's world view?

A. Anti-Semitism

B. Nordic Aryans superiority

C. Racial hierarchy

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C

All the given options related to the Hitler's world view are correct.

Important Points

  • The Nazi thinking was synonymous with Hitler’s world view. The features of such thinking are as follows:
  • There was no equality among the human race, only a racial hierarchy – with the blonde, blue-eyed, Nordic German Aryans being at the top and the Jews being placed at the bottom level. All the other coloured people were placed somewhere in between, depending on their external features.
  • The other aspect of Nazi ideology was the concept of Lebensraum or living space. It was believed that new territories had to be acquired at the expense of the local population in order to enhance material resources and the power of the German nation.
  • They believed in the survival of the fittest, which was a twisted version of Charles Darwin theory about natural selection. In their version, they believed that the strongest race would survive, while the weak would perish.
  • Nazi thinking put much emphasis on ‘racial purity’. This meant that anyone born with physical and mental disabilities was considered ‘undesirable’ and impure. Allowing their existence would only pollute the German race and hence they had no right to exist. Along with Jews, Gypsies, Slavic and blacks were all considered subhuman and executed in large numbers under the shadow of World War II.
  • Nazis believed in war and aggression. Any notion of peace or related ideologies were considered weak by their standards. They believed that world domination through war justified in proving the superiority of the German race.

Thus, we can conclude that the following are correct related to Hitler's world view:

A. Anti-Semitism

B. Nordic Aryans superiority

C. Racial hierarchy

189

Among, which one of the following group countries was the Tripartite Pact signed ?

  1. ((a))

    England, France and USA

  2. ((b))

    England, Germany and USSR

  3. ((c))

    Germany, Austria and Turkey

  4. ((d))

    Germany, Italy and Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Germany, Italy and Japan

The Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy and Japan.

Key Points

  • The Tripartite Pact, also known as the Berlin Pact, was an agreement between Germany, Italy, and Japan signed in Berlin on 27 September 1940.
  • It was a defensive military alliance that was eventually joined by Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, Yugoslavia and Slovakia in later years.
  • According to this Pact Germany, Italy and Japan agreed to co-operate in their efforts on aforesaid lines.
  • They further undertake to assist one another with all political, economic and military means when one of the three contracting powers is attacked by a power at present not involved in the European war or in the Chinese-Japanese conflict.
  • The Tripartite Pact created a defense alliance between Germany, Italy and Japan and was largely intended to deter the United States from entering the conflict.

Therefore, we can conclude that the Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy and Japan.

190

What was the set of ideas that Lenin expressed in the newspaper 'PRAVDA' following his return to Russia in 1917?

  1. ((a))

    'The Communist Manifesto'

  2. ((b))

    'The Proleteriat Manifesto'

  3. ((c))

    'The Das Capital'

  4. ((d))

    'The April Theses'

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

'The April Theses'

The set of ideas that Lenin expressed in the newspaper 'PRAVDA' following his return to Russia in 1917 came to be known as 'The April Theses'.

Important Points

  • Lenin was the leader of the Bolshevik party.
  • After the downfall of the monarchy in Russia in February 1917, the Bolshevik leader Vladimir Lenin returned to Russia from his exile in April 1917.
  • He felt that it was time for Soviets to take over power.
  • He put three demands which were known as Lenin's 'April Theses'. These were:
  • The war (First World War) be brought to an end.
  • Land be transferred to the peasants.
  • The banks should be nationalised.
  • He expressed his ideas in the newspaper 'PRAVDA'.
  • When Lenin came to power he became active to bring these changes.
  • The banks were nationalised in November, 1917.
  • This meant that the government took over ownership and management.
  • Land was declared social property and peasants were allowed to seize the land of the nobility.
  • In March 1918, despite opposition by their political allies, the Bolsheviks made peace with Germany at Brest Litovsk.

Therefore, we can conclude that the set of ideas that Lenin expressed in the newspaper 'PRAVDA' following his return to Russia in 1917 came to be known as 'The April Theses'.

191

What was Lenin's first Official Act of 1917?

  1. ((a))

    The Decree on Peace

  2. ((b))

    The Decree on Work

  3. ((c))

    The Decree on Planning

  4. ((d))

    The Decree on Land

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Decree on Peace

'The Decree on Peace' was Lenin's first Official Act of 1917.

Key Points

  • On 26th October 1917, the Second All-Russian Congress of Soviets adopted a proclamation drafted by Lenin which declared the Provisional Government overthrown and laid out the new Soviet government’s program:
  • an immediate armistice on all fronts
  • transfer of land to peasant committees
  • workers’ control over production
  • the convocation of the Constituent Assembly
  • bread to the cities
  • the right of self-determination of all nations inhabiting Russia.
  • That very evening the Congress met for a second time and took three actions:
  • decrees on peace
  • decrees on land
  • formation of a new government
  • 'The Decree on Peace' was Lenin's first Official Act of 1917.
  • The decree on peace called on the belligerent powers to cease hostilities and commit themselves to no annexations or indemnities.
  • It also appealed to the workers of Britain, France and Germany to support the Soviet’s decision, that is, in effect, to put pressure on their respective governments to enter into negotiations for a just peace.

 Hence, the correct answer is - The Decree on Peace.

192

In March 1918, the Russian Capital was shifted to

  1. ((a))

    Moscow

  2. ((b))

    St. Petersburg

  3. ((c))

    Petro grad

  4. ((d))

    Minsk

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Moscow

In March 1918, the Russian Capital was shifted to Moscow.

Confusion Points  The new head of state, Vladimir Lenin, was concerned about a possible invasion by foreign forces. On March 5, 1918, he moved Russia from Saint Petersburg as its capital, restoring the Kremlin as the political center of the new country. , Moscow is the capital of Russia.

Key Points

  • In 1917, the Russian Revolution brought an end to the Russian Empire, and the establishment of the Soviet Union.
  • St. Petersburg was the capital of Russia before 1918.
  • St. Petersburg is where most of the key events of the 1917 Bolshevik revolution took place.
  • In 1918, as a matter of prudence and precaution, Lenin made the decision to move the seat of his government to Moscow.
  • Vladimir Lenin, the new Head of Government, was fearful of a possible foreign invasion.
  • He moved the capital of Russia from Saint Petersburg back to Moscow on March 5, 1918.
  • The Kremlin was re-established as the political center of the new nation.
  • Moscow has been Russia’s capital ever since.

Hence, the correct answer is - Moscow.

193

French legacy after the French Revolution to the world is

  1. ((a))

    Republic, Socialism and Democracy

  2. ((b))

    Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

  3. ((c))

    Democracy, Sovereignty and Republic

  4. ((d))

    Secularism, Democracy and Socialism

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are the legacy of the French to the world after the French Revolution.

Important Points

  • The ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution.
  • These spread from France to the rest of Europe during the nineteenth century, where feudal systems were abolished.
  • It inspired the Germans, Italians, and Austrians to overthrow their oppressive regimes.
  • The French Revolution inspired the struggling nations of Asia and Africa who were groaning under the oppression of European colonialism.
  • Tipu Sultan and Rajaram Mohan Roy are two examples of individuals who responded to ideas coming from the French revolution.
  • The French Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen had promoted the ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
  • These ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are the legacy of the French to the world after the French Revolution.
  • According to this Declaration, Men are born Free and remain free and equal in rights.

Hence, the correct answer is - Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Additional Information

  • Raja Rammohan Roy was one of those who was inspired by new ideas that were spreading through Europe at that time.
  • The French Revolution and later, the July Revolution excited his imagination.
  • He could think and talk of nothing else when he heard of the July Revolution in France in 1830.
194

Which of the following was the main condition in the rise of Napoleon in 1804?

  1. ((a))

    Battle of Waterloo

  2. ((b))

    Political Instability

  3. ((c))

    Robespierre Reign of Terror

  4. ((d))

    Fall of the Jacobean Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Political Instability

Political Instability was the main condition in the rise of Napoleon in 1804.

Key Points

  • The fall of the Jacobin government allowed the wealthier middle classes to seize power.
  • A new constitution was introduced which denied the vote to non-propertied sections of society.
  • It provided for two elected legislative councils.
  • These then appointed a Directory, an executive made up of five members.
  • This was meant as a safeguard against the concentration of power in a one-man executive as under the Jacobins.
  • However, the Directors often clashed with the legislative councils, who then sought to dismiss them.
  • The political instability of the Directory paved the way for the rise of a military dictator, Napoleon Bonaparte.
  • In 1804, Napoleon Bonaparte crowned himself Emperor of France.
  • He set out to conquer neighbouring European countries, dispossessing dynasties and creating kingdoms where he placed members of his family.
  • Napoleon saw his role as a moderniser of Europe.
  • He introduced many laws such as the protection of private property and a uniform system of weights and measures provided by the decimal system.

Thus, we can conclude that Political Instability was the main condition in the rise of Napoleon in 1804.

195

Who among the following composed the National Anthem of France?

  1. ((a))

    Nanin Wallen

  2. ((b))

    Robespierre

  3. ((c))

    Olymp de Gauge

  4. ((d))

    Roget de L'Isle

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Roget de L'Isle

Roget de L.'Isle composed the National Anthem of France.

Key Points

  • The Marseillaise is now the national anthem of France.
  • The song got its name as Marseillaise when it was sung for the first time by volunteers from Marseilles as they marched into Paris.
  • Marseillaise was a patriotic song composed by the poet Roget de L'Isle.
  • When France was going through a revolution, King Louis XVI of France got into a secret agreement with the King of Prussia.
  • To put down the events that had been taking place in France, since the summer of 1789, the rulers of neighboring countries had planned to send troops, as they were worried about the events going on in France.
  • In April 1792, before the troops of neighboring countries could move in, the National Assembly voted and declared a war on Austria and Prussia.
  • The Army was joined by thousands of volunteers from the provinces, they saw this as a war of the people against the aristocracies and kings all over Europe.
  • While marching, the volunteers in the Army sang many patriotic songs, Marseillaise was one one of the patriotic songs that was sung.

Therefore, we can conclude that Roget de L'Isle composed the National Anthem of France.

196

In which one of the following sessions of the Indian National Congress 'the Resolution on National Unity' was passed?

  1. ((a))

    Lahore, 1929

  2. ((b))

    Karachi, 1931

  3. ((c))

    Taizpur, 1936

  4. ((d))

    Ramgarh, 1940

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lahore, 1929

'The Resolution on National Unity' was passed in the Lahore (1929) session of the Indian National Congress.

Important Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress at the Lahore session of Congress in 1929.
  • Poorna Swaraj (complete independence) was declared as the ultimate goal after passing a historic resolution at this session.
  • This declaration forged a new kind of spirit into the national movement.
  • For the first time, a new tri-colour flag was unfurled on 31 December 1929 on the banks of river Ravi and 26th January 1930 was marked as the first Independence Day.
  • 'The Resolution on National Unity' was also passed in this session.
  • The INC announced to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
  • After these events, the demand for complete independence became more pronounced which filled vibrancy in hopes of millions of people.

Hence, the correct answer is - Lahore, 1929

197

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order :

a. Karachi Session

b. Poona Pact

c. Third Round Table Conference

d. Communal Award

  1. ((a))

    b, d, a, c

  2. ((b))

    a, c, d, b

  3. ((c))

    a, d, b, c

  4. ((d))

    d, a, c, b

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

a, d, b, c

The correct chronological order of the given events is a, d, b, c.

Key Points

  • Karachi Session:​
  • ​A special Congress session was held at Karachi between 26th March to 31st March 1931 with Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel as the President.
  • The following decisions were taken in this session:
  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was approved.
  • A resolution on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Programme was passed.
  • A plan for the reconstruction of Indian society after independence was outlined.
  • Communal Award:
  • ​The Communal Award was a series of elections awarded to the depressed classes and minorities.
  • It was created by the British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932.
  • Poona Pact:
  • The Poona Pact was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and B R Ambedkar signed in the Yerwada Central Jail, Poona on September 24th, 1932.
  • Acording to it, the idea of of a separate electorate for the depressed class was abandoned. instead, the reserved seats for the untouchables in the provincial legislatures were increased from 71 to 147.
  • The Poona Pact between caste Hindus and the Depressed Classes agreed upon a joint electorate.
  • Third Round Table Conference:
  • ​The Third Round Table Conference took place between 17 November 1932 and 24 December 1932.
  • Only 46 delegates in total took part in this conference.
  • The INC and the Labour Party decided not to attend it.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that the correct chronological order of the given events is:

a. Karachi Session

d. Communal Award

b. Poona Pact

c. Third Round Table Conference

198

Who among the following was the founder of 'Khudai Khitmadgar Andolan'?

  1. ((a))

    Abdul Rao Nishtar

  2. ((b))

    Khan Abul Humayun Khan

  3. ((c))

    Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

  4. ((d))

    Shaukatullah Ansar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was the founder of  'Khudai Khitmadgar Andolan'.

Key Points

  • The Khudai Khidmatgar Andolan was a non-violent movement against British occupation of the Indian subcontinent led by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a Pashtun freedom fighter, in the North-West Frontier Province.
  • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, the foremost 20th-century leader of the Pashtuns (a Muslim ethnic group of Pakistan and Afghanistan) was a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and was called the “Frontier Gandhi”.
  • Soon after attending an Indian National Congress (Congress Party) gathering in 1929, Ghaffar Khan founded the Red Shirt movement (Khudai Khitmatgar) among the Pashtuns.
  • Over time, the movement turned political, leading to the British taking notice of its growing prominence in the region.
  • Following the arrest of Khan and other leaders in 1929, the movement formally joined the Indian National Congress after they failed to receive support from the All-India Muslim League.
  • Members of the Khudai Khidmatgar were organised and the men stood out because of the bright red shirts they wore as uniforms, while the women wore black garments.
  • The Khudai Khidtmatgar opposed Partition, a stance that many interpreted as the movement not being in favour of the creation of the independent nation of Pakistan.

Hence, we can conclude that Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was the founder of  'Khudai Khitmadgar Andolan'

199

Which of the following is NOT in tune with the concept of colonialism ?

  1. ((a))

    Physical control on the other country.

  2. ((b))

    To exploit the natural resources of that country

  3. ((c))

    This is form of imperialism

  4. ((d))

    This is a form of Neo-colonialism

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

This is a form of Neo-colonialism

'This is a form of Neo-colonialism' is NOT in tune with the concept of colonialism .

Important Points

  • Colonialism is a policy where one country seeks to extend political or economic authority over the people and physical territory of another country.
  • Generally, economic dominance and exploitation of resources is the primary aim of a country indulging in colonialism.
  • Some of the characteristics related to the concept of colonialism are:
  • Colonialism is when one country physically exerts its domination, either through a combination of war and diplomacy, over another country.
  • In colonialism, a country controls another country with a view to exploit the natural resources of that country.
  • This is a form of imperialism as both Colonialism and Imperialism mean economic and political domination of the other. As a result, both are hard to differentiate at times.
  • In colonialism, there will be a movement of people to the new territory, becoming permanent settlers in the process.

Mistake Points

  • Neo-colonialism is the term used to define the control of less-developed countries by the developed countries through indirect means such as economic exploitation and promotion of capitalism.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that 'Colonialism is a form of Neo-colonialism' is NOT in tune with the concept of colonialism.

200

Who among the following characterised the twentieth century as 'the dreadful century'?

  1. ((a))

    Wilson

  2. ((b))

    Lenin

  3. ((c))

    Stalin

  4. ((d))

    Churchill

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stalin

Stalin characterised the twentieth century as 'the dreadful century'.

Important Points

  • Stalin was the dictator of the Soviet Union from 1923 to 1953.
  • His rule transformed the USSR from an agrarian state to major military and industrial power.
  • But his tenure was also marked by millions of deaths as a result of his policies to transform the Soviet economy.
  • He characterised the twentieth century as 'the dreadful century'.
  • Stalin, who headed the party after the death of Lenin, introduced firm emergency measures.
  • Stalin’s collectivisation programme did not increase the production.
  • In fact, the bad harvests of 1930-1933 led to one of most devastating famines in Soviet history when over 4 million died.
  • Many within the Party criticised the confusion in industrial production under the Planned Economy and the consequences of collectivisation.
  • Stalin and his sympathisers charged these critics with conspiracy against socialism.
  • Accusations were made throughout the country, and by 1939, over 2 million were in prisons or labour camps.
  • A large number were forced to make false confessions under torture and were executed – several among them were talented professionals.

Hence, we can conclude that Stalin characterised the twentieth century as 'the dreadful century'.

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