Official Paper

NVS TGT Science held on 29th Nov 2022 shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness (10 questions)

1

What is the name of the policy which aims at creating a safe, accessible, affordable, and sustainable air sports ecosystem in India?

  1. ((a))

    The Air Sports Policy, 2022

  2. ((b))

    Sustainable Air Sports Policy, 2022

  3. ((c))

    The National Air Sports Policy, 2022

  4. ((d))

    The National Safe Air Sports Policy, 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The National Air Sports Policy, 2022

The correct answer is The National Air Sports Policy, 2022.

Key Points

  • Union Civil Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia has announced the National Air Sports Policy-2022 for the first time in New Delhi.
  • Recently, Civil Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia announced the National Air Sports Policy-2022 for the first time in the country.
  • Through this policy, 11 air sports including aerobatics, ballooning, gliding, parachuting, powered aircraft and rotorcraft will be promoted.

Important Points

  • National Air Sports Policy-2022
  • The aim of this increasing interest in aerial sports, the government is planning to encourage many programs related to it.
  • This was the reason that just a few days ago, the Central Government had issued a National Air Sports Policy draft and now yesterday i.e. on June 7, the National Air Sports Policy-2022 was issued for the first time.
2

Which of the following is incorrect with reference to NEP 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Professional education will be separated from higher education system.

  2. ((b))

    Higher educational institutions in India will aim to become independent self-governing institutions pursuing innovation and excellence.

  3. ((c))

    Agricultural education with allied disciplines will be revived.

  4. ((d))

    The opportunity to attain foundational literacy, obtain education and pursue a livelihood must be viewed as the basic right of every citizen.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Professional education will be separated from higher education system.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and just society, and promoting national development.

Key Points

  • The NEP 2020 strongly promotes the integration of professional, technical, and vocational education with general higher education.
  • The goal is to move towards a comprehensive, multidisciplinary higher education system.
  • This means engineering, medical, and other professional institutions will be part of larger multidisciplinary universities or clusters.

Hint 

  • Option 2: Correct. NEP 2020 aims to grant greater autonomy to HEIs to foster innovation and excellence.
  • Option 3: Correct. NEP 2020 calls for the revitalization of Agricultural education by incorporating greater synergy with the allied disciplines and local practices.
  • Option 4: Correct. This aligns with the policy's central philosophy of ensuring quality education and fundamental learning for all citizens.

Hence, 'Professional education will be separated from higher education system' is incorrect with reference to NEP 2020.

3

Which among the following is the implementing agency of Young, Upcoming, Versatile, Authors (PM – YUVA) scheme?

  1. ((a))

    NCERT

  2. ((b))

    CBSE

  3. ((c))

    NBT

  4. ((d))

    KVS

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

NBT

The correct answer is NBT.

Key Points

  • On 2 October 2022, the Ministry of Education launched the Young, Upcoming and Versatile Writers Scheme.
  • It is a program of the Ministry of Education for the young, budding, and versatile writers of the country.
  • For this, the National Bank Trust (NBT), India under the Ministry of Education has been made the implementing agency of the scheme.

Important Points

  • Young, Upcoming, Versatile, Authors (PM – YUVA)
  • It is a program of the Ministry of Education for the young, budding and versatile writers of the country.
  • For this, the National Bank Trust (NBT), India under the Ministry of Education has been made the implementing agency of the scheme.
  • Its job is to implement the scheme phase-wise under the stated phases of mentorship to the youth scheme.
  • The books prepared under this scheme will be published by the National Book Trust (NBT).
4

The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the State is at the disposal of

  1. ((a))

    The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of the State

  2. ((b))

    The Finance Minister of the State

  3. ((c))

    The President of India

  4. ((d))

    The Governor of the State

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The Governor of the State

The correct answer is The Governor of the State.

Key Points

  • The Consolidated Fund has been constituted under Article 266(1) of the Constitution of India. All the expenditure of the government is borne from this fund.
  • The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267(1) of the Constitution is a sum of money earmarked for a specific purpose that is placed at the disposal of the President for making advances to meet immediate unforeseen expenditure unless by authority Authorization should not be pending.

Important Points

  • Government Funds and Public Accounts
  • Consolidated Fund: According to Article 266(1) of the Constitution, the money received by the government from all revenues, such as customs duty, excise duty, income tax, estate duty, other taxes and fees, and the recovery of loans given by the government, they are all credited to the Consolidated Fund. After the approval of the Parliament, the government bears all its expenses from this fund. That is why it is called the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • Contingency Fund: As per Article 267 of the Constitution, the Parliament has been given the power to establish a fund. This fund is called the Contingency Fund of India. It is a fund into which money is deposited from time to time by laws passed by the Parliament. This fund is under the control of the President and to meet the emergent needs of the country, funds are made available to the government by the President from this fund.
  • Public Account of India: According to Article 266(2) of the Constitution, all other public money received by or on behalf of the Government of India is credited to the Public Account of India.
5

Who among the following won the Australian Open Women’s Singles Title, 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Danielle Collins

  2. ((b))

    Alison Riske

  3. ((c))

    Shelby Rogers

  4. ((d))

    Ashleigh Barty

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ashleigh Barty

The correct answer is Ashleigh Barty.

Key Points

  • Australian tennis player Ashleigh Barty won the Australian Open women's title by defeating American Danielle Collins on 29 January 2022.
  • Spain's Rafael Nadal won the Australian Open men's singles final on 30 January 2022.

Important Points The winner's list of Australian Open Tennis Title 2022:

SNEventsWinners
1Men’s SinglesRafael Nadal
2Women’s SinglesAshleigh Barty
3Men’s DoublesThanasi Kokkinakis and Nick Kyrgios
4Women’s DoublesBarbora Krejcikova and Katerina Siniakova
5Mixed DoublesKristina Mladenovic and Ivan Dodig
6

Which of the following decade has been declared by the United Nations as the International Decade of Indigenous Languages?

  1. ((a))

    2021 – 2030

  2. ((b))

    2022 – 2032

  3. ((c))

    2018 – 2028

  4. ((d))

    2019 – 2028

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2022 – 2032

The correct answer is 2022 – 2032.

Key Points

  • The United Nations has declared 2022 as the International Year of Artisanal Fishing and Aquaculture and Glass.
  • international year declared by the United Nations
  • 2022 - 32: International Decade of Indigenous Languages
  • 2021 - 30: United National Ecological Restoration Day.
  • 2019 - 28: Decade of Peace, Nelson Mandela Decade
  • 2018 - 27: International Decade for Poverty Alleviation

Important Points UNDP was established in the year 1965 by the United Nations General Assembly. It ensures expert advice, training and grant assistance to developing countries, with an emphasis on providing assistance to the least developed countries.

7

Who are the recipients of the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna

  2. ((b))

    Benjamin List and David MacMillan

  3. ((c))

    Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann

  4. ((d))

    John B. Goodenough, M. Stanley Whittingham and Akira Yoshino

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Benjamin List and David MacMillan

The correct answer is Benjamin List and David MacMillan.

Key Points The 2021 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Benjamin List and David McMillan for the development of asymmetric organocatalysis.

  • 2021 Nobel Prize winner
  • Medicine - David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian
  • Physics - Tsukuro Manabe, Claus Hasselmann and Giorgio Perisic
  • Chemistry - Benjamin List and David W.C. macmillan
  • Literature- Abdul Razak Gurnah – Novelist from Tanzania
  • Peace - Maria Ressa and Dmitri Muratov
  • Economic Sciences - David Card, Joshua Angrist and Guido Imbens

Important Points

  • 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry 
  • Carolyn R. Bertozzi, K. Barry Sharpless and Morton Meldal were awarded the 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry 'for the development of click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry'.
  • Sharpless (won a second time) coined the term 'click chemistry' extensively.
  • Meldal, independently discovered a special chemical structure called 'triazole' which has many important applications.
  • Bertozzi worked to develop click reactions that could work inside living organisms, calling them 'bioorthogonal' reactions (a term he coined).
8

Which country tops the ranking of happiness 2019 – 2021 in the World Happiness Report, 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    Denmark

  3. ((c))

    Finland

  4. ((d))

    Norway

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Finland

The correct answer is Finland.

Key Points

  • Recently the 'Global Happiness Report 2022' has been published by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
  • Finland has been declared the world's happiest country for the fifth time in a row, followed by Denmark.
  • This year marks the 10th anniversary of the 'Global Happiness Report'.
  • According to the 10th edition of the World Happiness Report 2022, a total of 146 countries were ranked in this year's index. In this, India has been ranked 139 out of 149 countries while Finland is at the top.

Important Points

  • Global Happiness Report:
  • The World Happiness Report published in 2012 is based on two main ideas:
  • Happiness or life assessment is to be measured through surveys and
  • To identify the major factors that determine the well-being and quality of life in the country.
  • The report usually ranks 150 countries based on a number of factors such as real GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom of decision-making, and perception of corruption.
  • This year, 146 countries have been ranked in the report.
9

Which Indian Navy personnel was awarded Nao Sena Medal (gallantry) on the occasion of Independence Day, 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Lt. Cdr. Mritunjay Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Vineet Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Vivek Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Lt. Cdr. Vineet Joshi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lt. Cdr. Mritunjay Kumar

The correct answer is Lt. Cdr. Mritunjay Kumar.

Key Points

  • President of India Draupadi Murmu has approved 107 gallantry awards for the Armed Forces and Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) on the eve of Independence Day. In India, the President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces.
  • Gallantry Awards approved by the President include 3 Kirti Chakras, 13 Shaurya Chakras, 2 times Sena Medals (Gallantry Awards), 81 Sena Medals (Gallantry Awards), 1 Navy Medal (Gallantry Awards), and 7 Vayu Sena Medals (Gallantry Awards).

Important Points

  • Jawans awarded with Shaurya Chakra-
    1. Indian Army - 8 (one posthumous)
  • Major Nitin Dhania
  • Major Amit Dahiya
  • Major Sandeep Kumar
  • Major Abhishek Singh
  • havaldar ghanshyam
  • Lance Naik Raghvendra Singh
  • Sepoy Karanveer Singh (Posthumously)
  • Gunner Jasbir Singh (posthumously)
    1. Navy - 1
  • Lieutenant Commander Mrityunjay Kumar
    1. CRPF - 1
  • Assistant Commandant Amit Kumar
10

Which of the following statements regarding Passenger Name Record Information Regulations, 2022 is incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    It makes it mandatory for air service operators to share details of international travellers with a customs agency.

  2. ((b))

    The new law has strict penal provisions for non-compliance — a minimum of one lakh rupees and maximum of ten lakh rupees is stipulated for each act of non-compliance.

  3. ((c))

    The risk analysis of passengers will be done by the National Customs Targeting Centre-Passenger (NTPC-P).

  4. ((d))

    Agencies will have information 24 hours before the departure of passengers and they have adequate response time to act, in case of any risk detected.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It makes it mandatory for air service operators to share details of international travellers with a customs agency.

The correct answer is 

Key Points

  • Passenger’s Name Record Information Regulations 2022
  • The salient points of the Regulations are as under:
  • The Regulations require the operator of Aircrafts (i.e airlines) to transmit specified information electronically to the designated Customs System. Passengers are not required to individually submit any information to Customs, neither do they need to furnish any additional information to the Airlines on account of these regulations. Airlines are already collecting this information under the aegis of the Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation.
  • The data exchange between the Airlines and the Customs Systems is through the PNRGOV EDIFACT message format. This is a standard electronic message format endorsed jointly by the World Customs Organisation (WCO), International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the International Air Transport Association (IATA) and is widely used internationally.
  • Although some data elements included in the Regulations are available from other sources, the objective of these regulations is to obtain this data in advance of departure or arrival of the passengers for analytics by the Customs Risk Management System.
  • The information collected is subject to strict information privacy and data protection and there are adequate legal and administrative safeguards built in. Processing of the information to reveal ethnicity, race, religious or philosophical beliefs, health etc. is strictly prohibited. Hardware and software necessary for data protection has already been envisaged. The information received is used for further processing only by a senior officer of the rank of Principal Additional Director General/Additional Director General.
  • In normal course, the data collected is stored only for five years after which it is disposed of by depersonalisation or anonymisation. The Regulations provide for an extensive and independent system audit and security audit to prevent misuse of the information.

Reasoning Ability (10 questions)

11

Five houses A, B, C, D and E are in a line. House A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of A, and B is to the right of D. Which house is in the middle? 

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A

As per the given information,

Five houses A, B, C, D and E are in a line.

  • House A is to the right of B.
  • B is to the right of D.

  • E is to the left of C and right of A.

Therefore, the final arrangement will be:

Clearly, 'A' is in the middle.

Hence, the correct answer is "A".

12

Given below is a question followed by two statements, I and II. Decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

A, B, C and D are four friends. Who is the oldest in the group?

I. D is older than B and C but younger than A.

II. C is younger than A but older than B.

  1. ((a))

    I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

  2. ((b))

    II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II is sufficient

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

As per the given information,

A, B, C and D are four friends. Who is the oldest in the group?

I. D is older than B and C but younger than A.

  • A > D > B / C

→ Clearly, A is the oldest. Thus, statement I alone is sufficient to answer.

II. C is younger than A but older than B.

  • A > C > B

→ Here, the position of D is not fixed so we can not conclude that who is the oldest. Thus, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer.

Clearly, statement I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient to answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient".

13

A statement is given followed by two Courses of Action, I and II. Consider the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement:

Cases of dengue fever are rising in the city.

Course of Action:

I. Mosquito breeding sites should be traced and treated immediately.

II. Mosquito net or repellants should be used during the night.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both I and II follow

Statement:

Cases of dengue fever are rising in the city.

Course of Action:

I. Mosquito breeding sites should be traced and treated immediately.

→ The sites in which mosquitoes that breed dengue thrive should be traced and treated. Because by reducing the habitat available for these mosquitoes can help prevent dengue.

So, statement I follows. 

II. Mosquito net or repellants should be used during the night.

→ The mosquito net or repellants should be used during the night can help repel mosquitoes from biting you.

So, statement II follows. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II follow".

14

Three statements are given below, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Find out which of the conclusions is/are true based on the given statements.

Statements :

  1. W > R < P
  2. T ≤ R
  3. Q ≥ W = S

Conclusions :

I. Q > P

II. T ≤ S

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II are true.

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither conclusion I nor II is true. 

Statements:

  1. W > R < P
  2. T ≤ R
  3. Q ≥ W = S

Conclusions:

I. Q > P → False (As Q ≥ W = S and W > R < P → Q ≥ W > R < P, no clear relation between Q and P, so it is false)

II. T ≤ S → False (As Q ≥ W = S; W > R < P and T ≤ R → T < R, so it is false)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II is true".

15

A man pointing to a boy said, ‘He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother.’ How is the boy related to the person?

  1. ((a))

    Nephew

  2. ((b))

    Brother

  3. ((c))

    Uncle

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nephew

By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Statement: A man pointing to a boy said, ‘He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother.’

Here, the boy is the son of the only daughter of the father of Man's brother that is man's brother's father is also the father of the man and the only daughter of his father will be his sister and the son of his sister will be the 'Nephew' of the man.

Clearly, 'the boy is 'Nephew' of the Man'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Nephew".

16

Find the missing term of the given series.

1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    64

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

125

Given:1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "125".

17

Find the next term of the series.

W, C, I, O, ?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    X

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

U

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "U".

18

A river flows from North to South, and then turns right and takes a semi-circular round around a huge building. Then it turns right by 90°. After flowing some distance, it turns left again by 90°. In which direction is the river flowing now?

  1. ((a))

    From West to East

  2. ((b))

    From East to West

  3. ((c))

    From North to South

  4. ((d))

    From South to North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

From West to East

As per the given information,

A river flows from North to South, and then turns right and takes a semi-circular round around a huge building. Then it turns right by 90°. After flowing some distance, it turns left again by 90°.

Thus, the following diagram can be drawn:

Clearly, the river is flowing in 'From West to East'.

Hence, the correct answer is "From West to East".

19

Two statements are labelled below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the correct answer with the help of code.

Assertion (A) :

Roughage in food prevents constipation.

Reason (R) :

Roughage adds bulk to food.

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true but (R) is false.

  4. ((d))

    (A) is false but (R) is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

The logic follows here is,

Roughage adds bulk to food and makes its passage through the stomach easier, thus preventing constipation.

Thus, Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)."

20

Identify the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship among Doctors, Teachers and Women. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

As per the given information,

The Venn diagram that best represents the relationship among Doctors, Teachers, and Women is:

Here,

  • Some Women can be Teachers or Doctors.
  • Some Women can be both Teacher and Doctors**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

Knowledge of ICT (10 questions)

21

Which of the following cannot be used as an input device on a computer system?

  1. ((a))

    Joystick

  2. ((b))

    Touch Pad

  3. ((c))

    Plotter

  4. ((d))

    Keyboard

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Plotter

A computer device is any programmable electronic device whether portable or stationary. 

Key Points

  • Computer devices can be categorised into two types Input and Output.
  • An input device is a piece of hardware or equipment that facilitates data entry into a computer.
  • Input devices are electromagnetic devices that receive information or a set of instructions from the outside world and translate that information into a format that is machine-readable and intelligible.
  • For Example Keyboard, Mouse, Joystick, Light Pen, Track Ball, Scanner, TouchPad, Digitizer, and Microphone.

Thus, Plotter cannot be used as an input device on a computer system.

Additional Information

  • An output device is any piece of computer hardware that transforms data into a form that can be understood by humans.
  • Some examples of output are Monitor, Printer, Plotter, Projector,  Speakers, Headphones, LCD Screen, Sound Card, and Video Card.
22

An innocent looking email attachment or a program downloaded and installed on a computer that appears to be harmless, but is in fact malicious and executes whatever task the attacker designed it to carry out is called

  1. ((a))

    Virus

  2. ((b))

    Spamming

  3. ((c))

    Trojan Horse

  4. ((d))

    Phishing

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Trojan Horse

Malware is computer software that can harmful to computers. 

Key Points

  • Malware has been purposefully created to disrupt a computer, or server, leak sensitive data, gain unauthorised access to data, and deny access to data.
  • Malware can be categorized into one or more subtypes such as computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, ransomware, spyware, adware, rogue software, wiper and keyloggers.
  • A Trojan horse is a programme that has been downloaded and installed on a computer that pretends to be harmless but is actually harmful.
  • Trojans are typically transmitted through some type of social engineering such as tricking a user into opening an email attachment or ads on social media or somewhere else.

Thus, An innocent-looking email attachment or a program downloaded and installed on a computer that appears to be harmless, but is in fact malicious and executes whatever task the attacker designed it to carry out is called Trojan Horse. 

Additional Information

  • A computer virus is a form of malware that has the ability to multiply and propagate once it has been run on a machine.
  • Spamming is the practice to send messages at a large scale without their consent through electronic messaging platforms.
  • Phishing is a form of social engineering assault that is frequently employed to obtain user information, such as login credentials and credit card details.
23

A software, which prevents, scans, detects and removes malware from a file or a computer system is called

  1. ((a))

    Cookies

  2. ((b))

    Firewall

  3. ((c))

    Antivirus

  4. ((d))

    Browser

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Antivirus

Malware is computer software that can harmful to computers. 

Key Points

  • Malware is computer code that can damage your laptops and desktops as well as the data they contain.
  • The term antivirus software comes from the fact that it was first created to find and eliminate computer viruses.
  • Antivirus is a program to find and get rid of viruses and other types of dangerous software from computers.
  • Its function is to prevent, identify, and eliminate malware.
  • It frequently operates in the background to deduce malware on computers, servers, and mobile devices and stop it from spreading.

Thus, software, which prevents, scans, detects and removes malware from a file or a computer system is called Antivirus.

Additional Information

  • Cookies are a piece of information from a website that is saved in a web browser for subsequent retrieval by the website.
  • Web browsers are programmes used to access websites.
  • Firewall is a network security device used to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic
24

Pihu is regularly connecting her mobile phone and her computer for taking backup. Which of the following types of networks do you thinks she is using for the same? 

  1. ((a))

    LAN

  2. ((b))

    PAN

  3. ((c))

    MAN

  4. ((d))

    WAN

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

PAN

​A computer network is a collection of two or more networked computers. 

Key Points

  • A computer network connection can be created using either cable or wireless media used for sharing files and resources.
  • There are various types of networks: Personal Area Network (PAN), Local Area Network (LAN), Metropolitan Area Network (MAN), and Wide Area Network (WAN).
  • A Personal Area Network is built around one individual.
  • It includes a computer, a phone, or a personal digital assistant.
  • PAN can be used to connect these personal gadgets to a digital network and the internet by establishing communication between them.

Thus, PAN types of networks she is using for taking backups.

Additional Information

  • WAN is a computer network that is spread over a big geographic area.
  • MAN is a computer network spanning an entire city, a college campus, or a small area.
  • LAN is a group of computers and related peripherals that are interconnected in a constrained space.
25

In a computer system with a standard configuration, which of the following will have largest capacity in bytes?

  1. ((a))

    Hard Disk

  2. ((b))

    RAM

  3. ((c))

    DVD ROM

  4. ((d))

    Pen Drive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hard Disk

Bytes are digital information is stored in units. 

Key PointsThe largest capacity in bytes can typically be found in the hard disk of a computer. Here's why:

  • Hard Disk: Modern hard disks can reach capacities up to several terabytes (TB). As of my last update in 2021, hard disks of up to 20TB were common.
  • RAM: The capacity of the RAM is usually much less than hard disk capacity. Most modern systems come with 8GB to 64GB of RAM, which is factor of thousand less than the hard disk storage when looking from GB to TB.
  • DVD-ROM: A standard single-sided, single-layer DVD-ROM can store 4.7GB of data. Dual-sided or dual-layer DVDs can store more, but their capacity is still much less than either hard disks or typical RAM sizes.
  • Pen Drive: While Pen Drives (also known as USB Flash Drives) are quite portable and convenient, their storage capacity is typically less than a hard disk. Capacities range widely, but as of my last update in 2021, commonly available sizes were typically up to 2TB, less frequent than hard disks of the same size.

So, based on a standard configuration, a hard disk generally has the largest capacity in bytes. However, remember that the specific capacity of these components can vary widely depending on the exact model and configuration of the computer system.

Additional Information

  • The equivalent of a single character, such as the letter B, a comma, or a percentage sign, is represented by a single byte.
  • Eight consecutive binary digits (bits) make up a byte, each of which can be either a 0 or a 1.
26

Which of the following office tools will you suggest to the teachers for making their question papers and assignments?

  1. ((a))

    MS Word

  2. ((b))

    MS PowerPoint

  3. ((c))

    MS Excel

  4. ((d))

    MS Access

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MS Word

Microsoft Office is a group of client software, server software, and services created by Microsoft. 

Key Points

  • Microsoft Office suits contain Microsoft Word, MS Access, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft PowerPoint, etc.
  • Microsoft Word is a word processor that may be used to create papers, letters, reports, and other types of writing of professional quality.
  • It includes sophisticated capabilities that give you the best formatting and editing options for your files and projects.
  • Some of the Features of MS Word are Templates, Image formats, WordArt, Macros, Page Layout and etc.
  • It can be used by teachers to make question papers and assignments.

Thus, MS Word software under Microsoft Office Package is best suited. 

Additional Information 

  • MS PowerPoint is used to make presentations for personal and professional purposes.
  • MS Excel is a spreadsheet program used to save and analyse numerical data.
  • ​Microsoft Access is an information management tool used to store all kinds of information for reporting, analysis, and reference.
27

Ajay Sen has copied a text content from a document and now he wishes to paste the copied content in another document. Which keyboard shortcut should he use for the same?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + C

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + P

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + V

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + V

Shortcut keys for computers are a group of one or more keys that produce a specific command to be executed.

Key Points

  • A command is a clear instruction that tells a computer programme to carry out a certain operation or function.
  • The copy command often moves files from one area to another.
  • Crtl+C is a shortcut command to help users to copy.
  • The paste command is used to handle both single and multiple files.
  • After the copied text content from a document, if users want to paste that copied content into another document.
  • The shortcut for the paste command is Ctrl + V.
  • The Paste command is used to copy and paste data from the virtual clipboard onto the area where the mouse cursor is now located.

Thus, Ctrl + V keyboard shortcut paste command. 

Additional Information

  • Some of the Shortcut commands are mentioned below: 
  • Ctrl + C: Copy
  • Ctrl + P: Print a document
  • Ctrl+E:  Aligns the line
28

What is the use of the function key F7 while using MS Office tools like MS Word, MS Excel, MS PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    For saving the file with ‘Save As’ option

  2. ((b))

    For printing the content of file

  3. ((c))

    For ‘Find & Replace’ dialog box

  4. ((d))

    For ‘Spell & Grammar Check’ dialog box

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

For ‘Spell & Grammar Check’ dialog box

Microsoft Office is a group of client software, server software, and services created by Microsoft. 

Key Points

  • Microsoft Office suits contain Microsoft Word, MS Access, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft PowerPoint, etc.
  • Microsoft Word is a word processor that may be used to create papers, letters, reports, and other types of writing of professional quality.
  • MS PowerPoint is used to make presentations for personal and professional purposes.
  • MS Excel is a spreadsheet program used to save and analyse numerical data.
  • In Microsoft programmes, the F7 key is frequently used to spell and grammar checks a document.
  • The highlighted word is checked in the Thesaurus with Shift+F7.

Thus, MS Word software under Microsoft Office Package is best suited. 

Additional Information

  • Some other uses of F7
  • Sift+F7: Thesaurus
  • Ctrl+F7: Move
  • Atl+F7: Next spell and grammar checks
29

An antivirus software is an example of

  1. ((a))

    Application Software

  2. ((b))

    Programming Language

  3. ((c))

    Utility Software

  4. ((d))

    Operating System

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Utility Software

Software is a collection of instructions or computer programmes used to run computers to carry out particular activities.

Key Points

  • Software instructs a computer to run.
  • It can be categorized into types: Application software and System software.
  • System software is a category of a computer programme made to run the hardware and application software of a computer.
  • It can be further divided into Operating systems, Device drivers, and Utility Software.
  • Utility software helps to examine, configure, optimise, or manage a computer
  • Some examples of Utility software are  Antivirus, File Management Systems, Compression Tools, Disk Management Tools,  Disk Cleanup Tools and Disk Defragmenters.

Thus, Antivirus software is an example of Utility Software.

Additional Information

  • Programming Language is a method of notation for creating computer programmes.
  • Operating Systems are important sets of programmes that control resources and offer services to other software.
  • Application software is used by end users and is created to perform a particular purpose.
30

What is the alternate name for address of a webpage on a website?

  1. ((a))

    IP Address

  2. ((b))

    Folder Name

  3. ((c))

    Domain Name

  4. ((d))

    URL

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

URL

The location of the webpage is indicated by the web address.

Key Points

  • The location of the webpage is indicated by the web address.
  • The URL (uniform resource locator) is another name for the web address.
  • It identifies the location of the web page that is being displayed as well as other pertinent details.
  • It contains the scheme (https), subdomain (www), top-level, second-level (textbook), and subdirectory(.com).
  • A URL is nothing more than the Web address of a particular resource.

Thus, the URL is the alternate name for the address of a webpage on a website.

Additional Information

  • IP Address is a unique address used to identify a device on the internet or a local network.
  • A domain name is an Internet resource name that all Web servers.

Teaching Aptitude (10 questions)

31

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Teaching is

  1. ((a))

    a purely formal process

  2. ((b))

    a divine process

  3. ((c))

    a process which gives joy to all the learners

  4. ((d))

    an interactive process

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

an interactive process

Teaching’ means “impart knowledge or skill, give instruction or lessons, instill and inspire with”. By analyzing this meaning, we can say that teaching is an activity that facilitates learning.

Key Points

  • It is an intimate contact between a more mature personality and a less mature one**,** which is designed to further the education of the latter.
  • According to Edmund Amidon, Teaching is an interactive process primarily involving classroom talk, which takes place between teacher and pupil, and occurs during certain definable activities.
  • The teaching process takes the learner along with himself in order to stimulate, promote and endorse learning.
  • It is a process that involves stimulation, guidance, direction, and encouragement of learning among children.
  • Teaching is not a haphazard activity but a goal-directed activity that leads to predetermined behavior.

Hence, we conclude that teaching is an interactive process.

32

One major objective of teaching is

  1. ((a))

    to help learners to become extroverts

  2. ((b))

    to bring desirable changes in learners’ behaviour

  3. ((c))

    to train learners to be practical in life

  4. ((d))

    increasing the success rate of the students

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to bring desirable changes in learners’ behaviour

‘Teaching’ means “impart knowledge or skill, give instruction or lessons, instill and inspire with”. By analyzing this meaning, we can say that teaching is an activity that facilitates learning.

Key Points

Objectives of teaching-

  • It aims at bringing about desirable changes in the behavior of the learners or their cognitive structure.
  • It develops the thinking ability of the students.
  • It fosters the potential of students to grow and bloom.
  • It makes children apply disciplinary knowledge to real-life situations.

Hence, we conclude that one major objective of teaching is to bring desirable change in learners' behavior.

33

A good teacher should not teach without

  1. ((a))

    chalk and duster

  2. ((b))

    sufficient teaching aids

  3. ((c))

    an evaluation strategy developed in advance about his/her topic of teaching

  4. ((d))

    proper lesson planning

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

proper lesson planning

A teacher is a facilitator who tries to satisfy the educational needs of the learners in such a manner that they play an important and positive role for the upliftment of society.

  • An effective teacher is a multifaceted professional playing the different roles of a facilitator, curriculum creator, counsellor, and role model for the learners.

Key PointsCharacteristics of a good teacher-

  • He/she should communicate warmth, understanding, and empathy to his/her students.
  • He/she should generate enthusiasm for learning in his/her classroom.
  • He/she should create a positive classroom learning environment through a climate of acceptance, caring, feeling of being safe and secure, etc.
  • He/she should not teach without proper lesson planning as without lesson plans, teachers are less likely to be clear about the learning objectives, activities, and materials needed for the class.
  • He/she should be the master of his/her subject and should be capable of giving explanations at different levels so that he/she can reach all students.

Hence, we conclude that a good teacher should not teach without proper lesson planning.

Note:- We have provided the most appropriate answer to this question. The answer provided by the board is ambiguous.

34

Which one of the following is not an important characteristic of a learner?

  1. ((a))

    Readiness to learn

  2. ((b))

    Paying attention to what the teacher says

  3. ((c))

    Ready to accept his/her mistakes

  4. ((d))

    Prior preparation of the topic to be taught

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Prior preparation of the topic to be taught

Learning is the process of acquiring new understanding, knowledge, behaviors, skills, values, attitudes, and preferences.

  • A learner refers to someone who is eager to learn something practical, theoretical and skillful in the field of mental, physical, academic, social or emotional levels.

Key Points

Characteristics of a learner-

  • Readiness- Motivation, interest, and curiosity to learn.
  • Attitudes and habits- Must be positive, must pay attention to the teacher, and must be ready to accept his/her mistakes.
  • Absence of anger and jealousy as it reduces learning abilities.

Hence, we conclude that prior preparation of the topic to be taught is not an important characteristic of a learner as it is done by the teacher while lesson planning.

35

Which one of the following should be ideally reflected in the teaching of a teacher?

  1. ((a))

    Principal’s personality

  2. ((b))

    Students full attendance in the class

  3. ((c))

    Absence of students who ask too many questions

  4. ((d))

    Social issues

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Social issues

A teacher is a facilitator who tries to satisfy the educational needs of the learners in such a manner that they play an important and positive role for the upliftment of society.

  • An effective teacher is a multifaceted professional playing different roles of a facilitator, curriculum creator, counselor and a role model for the learners.

 Key PointsCharacteristics of an effective teacher-

  • Teacher has the moral responsibility of taking into consideration the ability and aptitude of learners and guiding them accordingly.
  • Teaching should incorporate such activities which shall strengthen the bonding between all in the classroom and all get equal opportunity of expression.
  • Teacher must teach that character building is higher than academic achievement.
  • The teacher should reflect on social issues. He will become a better educator by developing social awareness and respect for the students' feelings.
  • Teacher should not avoid the inquisitiveness of learners related to sex, attraction, drugs, stress, abuse, suicide, bribery, etc.

Hence, we conclude that social issues should be ideally reflected in the teaching of a teacher.

36

By adopting a good teaching method, a teacher should help students in 

  1. ((a))

    getting good marks in examination

  2. ((b))

    getting admission in top institutions after passing school education

  3. ((c))

    solving problems in all spheres of life

  4. ((d))

    shaping their future

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

solving problems in all spheres of life

Teaching methods are referred to as the strategies adopted by the teacher to assist children throughout the learning process. Effective learning of children depends on the method the teacher adopts.

Key PointsBy adopting a good teaching method, a teacher should help students in -

  • participating actively in the teaching-learning process.
  • providing a scope for learning something by doing.
  • solving problems in all spheres of life.
  • thinking independently and constructing knowledge of their own.
  • achieving effective learning outcomes.
  • addressing the diverse needs of learners.
  • conveying experiences, skills, and information to them.

Hence, we conclude that by adopting a good teaching method, a teacher should help students in solving problems in all spheres of life.

37

Moral education can be best imparted by

  1. ((a))

    Teacher-centred teaching methods

  2. ((b))

    Learner-centred teaching methods

  3. ((c))

    Interactive/Participative teaching methods

  4. ((d))

    Content-focused teaching methods

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Interactive/Participative teaching methods

Teaching methods are referred to as the strategies adopted by the teacher to assist children throughout the learning process. Effective learning of children depends on the method the teacher adopts.

Key Points 

Interactive/participative method:

  • Interactive methods ensure the active participation and involvement of children which play a very vital role in learning and shaping the personality of a child.
  • This method is based on a situational appraisal of what should be learned or done right now, considering the circumstances of the students and the teacher. They demand a participatory understanding of various aspects and domains.
  • This method can be used to impart moral education because moral development occurs through social interaction.
  • For example, Lawrence Kohlberg studied moral development by posing moral dilemmas to groups of children as well as adolescents and adults and knowing their views about the situation.

Hence, we conclude that moral education can be best imparted by the interactive/participative method. 

Additional Information

  • In teacher-centered methods, all the instructional activities and procedures are under the control of the teacher.
  • In learner-centered method, the teacher "becomes a resource rather than an authority."
  • Content-focused methods- Both the teacher and the students must be able to relate to the material being taught in this method. Generally, this denotes that the knowledge and abilities that are to be imparted are viewed as valuable or extremely significant.
38

Which can be the best teaching aid for teaching the topic ‘‘World Peace’’ to senior secondary students?

  1. ((a))

    Charts and maps

  2. ((b))

    Stories and anecdotes based films

  3. ((c))

    Puppet show

  4. ((d))

    Audio material developed by the United Nations Organization

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Stories and anecdotes based films

Teaching learning materials (TLMs), also known as teaching aids, facilitate a teacher in achieving the learning objectives formulated by her/him prior to starting teaching-learning activities.

  • The role of teaching-learning resources in the classroom is to make learning real, practical, and fun for children.

Key Points

  • Stories - Stories at the secondary level opens door to a new world for children. It allows children to discover new concepts and knowledge, learning key life lessons by listening to an interesting, fascinating story.
  • Anecdotes are relatively brief stories that are relevant to the subject at hand. They typically give personal insight or experience.

Stories and anecdotes-based films help in-

  • Arousing children’s curiosity and stimulating their imagination.
  • Entertaining them and appealing to their sense of adventure.
  • Clarifying and dealing with their emotions, giving recognition to their problems and suggesting solutions.
  • Developing their intellect and self-confidence and inner resources.
  • For example- Topics like "World Peace" can be introduced through stories and anecdotes-based films as it improves students' communication abilities, inspires them to study the past and present, and forges bonds amongst students in the class through shared experiences.

Hence, we conclude that the best teaching aid for teaching the topic "World Peace" to senior secondary students is stories and anecdotes based films.

Additional Information 

  • Audio aids: These aids refers to the materials or devices which call upon the auditory senses and thus help individuals to learn through listening e.g. Radio broadcasts, Cassette, and CD player.
  • Charts help to display data and invite further exploration of a topic.
39

Critically judge the following :

Assertion (A) : Adolescence is a period of stress and storm.

Reason (R) : In adolescence, the capacity of adolescents to acquire and utilize their knowledge reaches its peak.

Select the correct option.

  1. ((a))

    (A) is false but (R) is true.

  2. ((b))

    (A) is true but (R) is false.

  3. ((c))

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  4. ((d))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Adolescence is termed as a period in the development of the human being when the growing individual begins to transform into an adult-like physical form accompanied by improvement in mental faculties. 

  • It lasts from 12 to 18 years and is considered as the period of development and adjustment during the transition between childhood and adulthood.

Key Points

  • Adolescence has traditionally been considered a more difficult period in development than the preceding middle childhood years for both adolescents and their parents.
  • Adolescence has been thought of as a period of “storm and stress”a time of heightened emotional tension resulting from the physical and glandular changes that are taking place in this period.
  • At the same time, adolescents have immense mental, physical, and emotional potential.
  • Their thinking becomes more abstract, they perceive long-range options and develop reasoning.
  • This is a critical time in life because the experiences, knowledge, and skills acquired in adolescence have important implications in adulthood.

​Hence, we conclude that both A&R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

40

In classroom teaching-learning, the use of teaching-learning material by the teachers is significant because teaching-learning material

  1. ((a))

    makes learning more meaningful

  2. ((b))

    supports teacher’s work

  3. ((c))

    helps students to be attentive

  4. ((d))

    activates the senses of the students

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

makes learning more meaningful

Teaching learning materials (TLMs), also known as instructional aids, facilitate a teacher in achieving the learning objectives formulated by her/him prior to starting teaching-learning activities.

  • The role of teaching-learning resources in the classroom is to make learning real, practical, and fun for children. It also helps in bringing novelty and freshness to classroom teaching as they relieve learners from anxiety, fear, and boredom.

Key PointsImportance of teaching-learning material- 

  • Motivate Learners – Capturing attention is the first step to any learning. Teaching learning resources help in capturing the attention of learners in the classroom.
  • Help in Longer Retention of Information – The more the number of sensory channels involved in interacting with teaching learning resources, the longer will be the retention of information.
  • Facilitate Holistic Learning – To achieve varied objectives, varied learning experiences need to be provided, which can be done through the use of teaching-learning resources.
  • Makes learning meaningful – it makes learning real, practical, and pleasurable for the students.
  • Facilitate change in Attitude – Teaching learning resources also help in changing the attitude of learners towards learning in general and subject content in particular.
  • Application of Theoretical Knowledge into Practical Applications – Teaching learning resources show the application of theoretical knowledge into practical applications.
  • Teaching learning resources help in making learning fun in the classroom- Students enjoy the novelty of handling new objects and learn new concepts through them.

Hence, we conclude that in classroom teaching-learning, the use of teaching-learning material by the teacher is significant because teaching-learning material makes learning more meaningful.

Domain Knowledge (80 questions)

41

Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

  1. ((a))

    An aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate

  2. ((b))

    An alloy of iron, nickel and carbon

  3. ((c))

    A mixture of sulphur and sodium chloride powder

  4. ((d))

    A mixture of hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen gases

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A mixture of sulphur and sodium chloride powder

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • When two or more substances are present in any proportion is known as a mixture.
  • A mixture is said to be heterogeneous if the composition of the substance throughout is not uniform.
  • There are two or more distinct phases in a heterogeneous mixture.
  • The components of a heterogeneous mixture are visible with the naked eye or at least under a microscope.
  • A mixture is said to be homogeneous if the composition of the substance throughout is uniform.
  • The components of a homogeneous mixture cannot be seen by the naked eye or even under a microscope.

Explanation:

  • The mixtures which contain physically distinct parts and have non-uniform compositions are called heterogeneous mixtures.
  • Mixtures of sodium chloride and sulphur is an example of a heterogeneous mixtures.
  • An aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate forms a homogeneous solution.
  • An alloy of iron, nickel and carbon is a homogeneous mixture of metals and non-metals.
  • A mixture of hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen gases is a homogeneous mixture.

Conclusion:

Thus, A mixture of sulphur and sodium chloride powder is a heterogeneous mixture.

42

Which of the following is a set of isoelectronic species?

  1. ((a))

    Li, Na, K

  2. ((b))

    S-2, Cl-1, Ar

  3. ((c))

    Ar, K+, Ca+

  4. ((d))

    Ne, Na+, F

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

S-2, Cl-1, Ar

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • Isoelectronic species are elements or ions that have the equal number of electrons.
  • In isoelectronic species, as the nuclear charge increases, the force of attraction by the nucleus on the electrons also increases.
  • Variation of size among isoelectronic species: As the nuclear charge increases, the force of attraction by the nucleus on the electrons also increases. As a result, the ionic radius decreases.

Explanation:

  • Isoelectronic species = they are the species belonging to different atoms or ions which have same number of electrons but different magnitude of nuclear charge.
  • Now, A positive charge denotes the loss of an electron & A negative charge denotes the gain of an electron by a species.
  • Number of electrons in the given species are as:
  • Li: 3
  • Na: 11
  • K: 19
  • S2-: 18
  • Cl- : 18
  • Ar : 18
  • K+ : 18
  • Ca+ : 19
  • Ne : 8
  • F : 9
  • S-2, Cl-1, Ar are contains same number of electrons . So they are isoelectronics.

Conclusion:

Thus, species: S-2, Cl-1, Ar are isoelectronic species.

43

Select the correct statement from the following :

  1. ((a))

    In an ion the number of electrons and protons is same

  2. ((b))

    In an ion the number of electrons and neutrons is same

  3. ((c))

    In an ion the number of electrons and protons can never be equal

  4. ((d))

    In an ion the number of protons and neutrons is always same

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

In an ion the number of electrons and protons can never be equal

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • An ion is an atom or molecule with a net electrical charge.
  • Ions are of two types, cation and anion.
  • The cation has a positive charge and the anion has a negative charge.
  • These charges are due to the addition or subtraction of negative particles in the atom.
  • When an ion is formed, the number of protons does not change.

Explanation:

  • Ion :- It is an electrically charged atom or molecule formed by loss or gain of electrons.
  • Ion formed by loss of electron is called cation.
  • Ion formed by gain of electron is called anion.
  • An ion is an atom or molecule that has a different number of electrons than protons.

Conclusion:

Thus, in an ion the number of electrons and protons can never be equal is the correct statement.

44

You have four closed containers A, B, C and D containing CH4, N2, H2 and CO2 respectively. If the mass of gas in each container is 10 g, which one of the four containers would have maximum number of molecules of the gas?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • One mole of a substance is equal to 6.022 × 10²³ units of that substance (such as atoms, molecules, or ions).
  • The number 6.022 × 10²³ is known as Avogadro's number or Avogadro's constant.
  • The concept of the mole can be used to convert between mass and number of particles.
  • The number of Moles = Mass of substance / Mass of one mole.

Explanation:

The number of moles of CH4 in container A:

Given the mass of CH4= 10 g

Molar mass of CH4= 16 g/mol

Number:of:molecules=Given:massMolar:mass×Avogadros:Number(NA)Number : of : molecules = \frac{Given: mass}{Molar : mass}\times Avogadro's : Number(N_{A})

Number of molecules = 1016×NA\frac{10}{16}\times N_{A}

Number of molecules = 0.625NA

The number of moles of N2 in container B:

Given mass of N2= 10 g

Molar mass of N2= 28 g/mol

Number of molecules = 1028×NA\frac{10}{28}\times N_{A}

Number of molecules = 0.357NA

The number of moles of H2 in container C:

Given the mass of H2= 10 g

Molar mass of H2= 2 g/mol

Number of molecules = 102×NA\frac{10}{2}\times N_{A}

Number of molecules = 5NA

The number of moles of CO2 in container D:

Given the mass of CO2= 10 g

Molar mass of CO2= 44 g/mol

Number of molecules = 1044×NA\frac{10}{44}\times N_{A}

Number of molecules = 0.227NA

Conclusion:

Thus, container C would have the maximum number of molecules of the gas.

45

Which of the following has the highest mass?

  1. ((a))

    10 moles of H2O

  2. ((b))

    0.5 moles of C12H22O11

  3. ((c))

    2.0 moles of CaCO3

  4. ((d))

    4.0 moles of CO

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2.0 moles of CaCO3

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • The molar mass of a substance is the mass in grams of one mole of the compound.
  • In a substance, the amount of entities present e.g. atoms, molecules, ions, is defined as a mole.
  • A mole of any substance is 6.022×1023 molecules.

Explanation:

Option 1: 10 moles of H2O

Molar mass of H2O = 18 g/mol

Mass = moles x molar mass

= 10 x 18

= 180 g

Option 2: 0.5 moles of C12H22O11

Molar mass of C12H22O11 = 342 g/mol

Mass = moles x molar mass

= 342 x 0.5

= 171 g

Option 3: 2.0 moles of CaCO3

Molar mass of CaCO3 = 100 g/mol

Mass = moles x molar mass

= 100 x 2.0

= 200 g

Option 4: 4.0 moles of CO2 

Molar mass of CO2  = 44 g/mol

Mass = moles x molar mass

= 44 x 4.0

= 176 g

Conclusion:

Thus, 2.0 moles of CaCO3 have the highest mass.

46

Consider the following statements about Rutherford’s Nuclear Model of an atom :

A. The mass and positive charge of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus

B. Electrons have negative charge

C. Neutrons exist in the nucleus

D. Most of the space in the atom is empty

The correct statements are :

  1. ((a))

    A, B and D

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    C and D

  4. ((d))

    A and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and D

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • The Rutherford atomic model was also known as the "Rutherford nuclear atom" and the "Rutherford Planetary Model".
  • In 1911, Rutherford described the atom as having a tiny, dense, and positively charged core called the nucleus.
  • The light, negatively charged, electrons circulated around this nucleus, much like planets revolving around the Sun.

Explanation:

  • Rutherford put forward the nuclear model of an atom, which had the following features:
  • There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus.
  • Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
  • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
  • The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom

Mistake Points 

  • B. Electrons have negative charge: While true, this statement is more a general fact about atoms and not a unique feature of Rutherford's model. Rutherford did acknowledge electrons' negative charges but did not focus on their specific properties in his model.

Conclusion:

Thus, the correct statements are A and D.

47

Which of these statements is/are true about Solder?

A. It is an alloy of Pb and Sn

B. It is used in making utensils

C. It is used in making electrical wires

D. Small amount of Cu is added to make it hard

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    A and C

  4. ((d))

    C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and C

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • Alloy, a metallic substance composed of two or more elements, as either a compound or a solution.
  • The components of alloys are ordinarily themselves metals, though carbon, a nonmetal, is an essential constituent of steel.
  • Solder is commonly used in, electronics, heating, air conditioning, mechanical, fire sprinkler, and other similar systems as well as radiator manufacturing, repair, and sheet metal work.

Explanation:

  • Solder is an alloy of lead and tin. It is used for joining pieces of metal.
  • It contains 50% lead and 50% tin.
  • Solder is suitable for welding electrical wires because it has a low melting point.
  • Hence, it is used for soldering (or welding) electrical wires together.
  • It has a relatively lower melting point than lead and tin.

Conclusion:

Thus, statements A and C are true about Solder.

48

Consider the following four elements where atomic numbers are given in parenthesis :

A(9), B(11), C(12), D(13)

The elements having same valency are

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    C and D

  4. ((d))

    A and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B

Correct answer: 1)

Concept:

  • Valency is the combining power of an element. Elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same valency.
  • The valency of an element is related to how many electrons are in the outer shell.
  • Valency is simply equal to the number of electrons gained, lost, or shared by an atom of an element to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration.

Explanation:

Electronic configuration of element A: 2, 7

So, the valency of element A is 1.

Electronic configuration of element B: 2, 8,1

So, the valency of element B is 1.

Electronic configuration of element C: 2, 8,2

So, the valency of element C is 2.

Electronic configuration of element D: 2, 8,3

So, the valency of element D is 3.

Conclusion:

Thus, the elements having the same valency are A and B.

49

The number of electrons in an element X is 18 and the number of neutrons present in its nucleus is 20. The correct representation of the element X is

  1. ((a))

    2038X{_{20}^{38}X}

  2. ((b))

    1838X{_{18}^{38}X}

  3. ((c))

    2036X{_{20}^{36}X}

  4. ((d))

    1836X{_{18}^{36}X}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1838X{_{18}^{38}X}

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • Atomic number (Z):  Atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom.
  • Since an atom is electrically neutral, thus the number of protons and the number of electrons are equal.
  • Mass Number (A): The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called the mass number.
  • It is denoted by A.
  • The protons and neutrons together are called nucleons.

Explanation:

  • Number of electrons in element X =18
  • The number of neutrons present = 20.
  • Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons in neutral atom = 18 .
  • Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 18+20 = 38
  • So, the atom is represented as 1838X{_{18}^{38}X}

Conclusion:

Thus, the correct representation of the element X is 1838X{_{18}^{38}X}

50

Consider the following statements :

A. Cytoplasm is called protoplasm.

B. Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.

C. Mitochondria, nucleus, and plastids have DNA, hence they are able to make their own structural proteins.

D. Mitochondria are said to be the powerhouse of the cell as ATP is generated in them.

The correct statements are

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    C, D and A only

  4. ((d))

    B and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B and D only

Concept:

  • The cell is the structural and functional unit of life.
  • Cells contain various cell organelles such as the nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi body, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes, plastids, ribosomes, vacuoles, etc.
  • Cells are bounded by cell membranes.
  • On the basis of the presence or absence of a distinct membrane-bound nucleus, cells are divided into prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
  • Cells carry out physiological processes such as digestion, excretion, secretion, defense, memory, recognition, transport of gases, nutrients, etc.

Important Points

Statement A: INCORRECT

  • Protoplasm is jelly-like, colourless, transparent, and viscous living part of the cell, that comprises cytoplasm, cell organelles, nucleus, and nucleoplasm.
  • Various organic and inorganic substances like proteins, fats, hormones, and enzymes all make up the protoplasm.
  • The cytoplasm is a semi-fluid matrix that occupies the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
  • The cytoplasm denotes the matrix that occurs between the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane.
  • Whereas, the protoplasm includes the cytoplasm, as well as all the organelles within them.

Statement B: CORRECT

  • Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus.
  • The enzymes are released from the Golgi apparatus in tiny vesicles that eventually fuse with the acidic endosomes of the Golgi apparatus, becoming complete lysosomes.
  • Lysosomes are filled with almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes, hydrolases - lipases, proteases, and carbohydrates. These enzymes are optimally active at the acidic pH.
  • Golgi bodies are the reticular structures of eukaryotic cells that are principally involved in transporting, modifying, and packaging proteins and lipids.

Statement C: INCORRECT

  • Mitochondria, nuclei, and plastids have their own DNA.
  • These organelles are also called semi-autonomous cell organelles.
  • However, all these organelles do not make their own structural proteins:
  • Most of the chloroplast (plastid) proteins are encoded by the nuclear genes.
  • The mitochondrial proteins are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes and then imported into the organelle.
  • For the nuclear proteins, the RNA and ribosomes are exported out of the nucleus, for protein translation to take place in the cytosol. The newly synthesized proteins are then imported back into the nucleus.

Statement D: CORRECT

  • Mitochondria are sausage-shaped or cylindrical double membrane-bound cell organelles.
  • Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.
  • They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they are called the "powerhouse of the cells".

Hence, the correct answer is option 4 - B and D only.

51

Cell organelles that have their own DNA and ribosomes are

  1. ((a))

    Golgi apparatus and lysosomes

  2. ((b))

    Mitochondria and plastids

  3. ((c))

    Plastids and endoplasmic reticulum

  4. ((d))

    Mitochondria and vacuoles

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mitochondria and plastids

Concept:

  • Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.
  • Cells contain different kinds of cell organelles to perform different physiological functions.
  • It contains both membrane-bound and non-membrane-bound cell organelles.
  • Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi complex, lysosome, vacuoles, etc. while prokaryotic cells lack such membrane-bound organelles.
  • Ribosomes are found in both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells.

Explanation:

  • Within the cell, ribosomes are not only found in the cytoplasm but also within mitochondria and plastids.
  • They possess 70S ribosomes, smaller than that cytoplasmic ribosomes.
  • These ribosomes resemble prokaryotic ribosomes, which provides an evidence of the endosymbiotic theory.
  • According to this theory:
  • Some prokaryotic organisms functioned in symbiosis with other organisms to perform photosynthetic (chloroplast) or respiratory (mitochondria) functions.
  • Later these symbionts evolved as a single eukaryotic organism, where the prokaryotes became double-membraned organelles.
  • Mitochondria and plastids also have their own single circular DNA.
  • Mitochondria and plastids are commonly called semi-autonomous cell organelles.

Additional Information

Lysosomes:

  • These are membrane-bound vesicular structures filled with almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes, hydrolases - lipases, proteases, and carbohydrates.
  • These enzymes are able to digest carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.

Golgi apparatus:

  • They are the reticular structures of eukaryotic cells that are principally involved in transporting, modifying, and packaging proteins and lipids.
  • It is the major site of the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Endoplasmic reticulum:

  • The ER is the tiny tubular structure scattered in the cytoplasm, involved in the synthesis of protein and lipid and secretion.
  • On the basis of the presence or absence of ribosomes on the surface of ER, it is two types- the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Vacuoles:

  • Vacuoles are membrane-bound spaces that contain water, sap, excretory products, other materials, etc.
  • In plant cells, vacuoles occupy up to 90% of the volume of the cells.

Hence, the correct option is (2).

52

The proteins and lipids which are essential for building the cell membrane are manufactured by

  1. ((a))

    Mitochondria

  2. ((b))

    Plasma membrane

  3. ((c))

    Golgi apparatus

  4. ((d))

    Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Key Points

  • The endoplasmic reticulum is a part of the endomembrane system.
  • These are tiny tubular structures scattered in the cytoplasm and consist of membrane-bound channels, tubules, sacs, or vesicles.
  • On the basis of the presence of ribosomes ER of two types rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
  • If ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum then it is called a rough endoplasmic reticulum and if there are no ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum then it is called a smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation:

  • The proteins and lipids which are essential for building the cell membrane are manufactured in the Endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
  • Rough ER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
  • The Smooth ER is the major site for the synthesis of lipids.
  • In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
  • ER also acts as an internal support for cytoplasm.
  • Plasma membrane lipids and proteins are synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum through the process known as membrane biosynthesis.

Additional Information

Mitochondria:

  • These are sausage-shaped, cylindrical double membrane-bound cell organelles.
  • Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.
  • They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, thus they are called the "powerhouse of the cell".
  • The mitochondrial matrix contains circular DNA, 70S ribosomes, and enzymes that take part in protein synthesis and respiration respectively.

Plasma membrane:

  • It is a selectively permeable outer layer of the cell.
  • PM is composed of lipids that are arranged in a bilayer.
  • The important functions of PM include the transport of materials, mechanical barrier, cell division, formation of intercellular junctions, osmosis, endocytosis, and secretion, and it also ensures cellular integrity.

Golgi apparatus:

  • Golgi apparatus are membrane-bound cell organelles with flat or disc-shaped sacs, tubules, and vesicles.
  • Its important functions include the storage, modification, and packaging of biochemical compounds.
  • It is also the major site of the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Hence, the correct answer is Endoplasmic reticulum.

53

Consider the following statements about tissues :

A. Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues

B. Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at the corners

C. Meristematic tissue in its early stage lacks vacuoles

D. Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces

The correct statements are

  1. ((a))

    A and C only

  2. ((b))

    B and D only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B, C and D only

Concept:

  • A tissue is a group of cells having a common origin and usually performing a common function.
  • Plant tissues are classified into two groups, meristematic and permanent tissues.
  • The plant tissue has the ability to divide actively throughout its life, which is called meristematic tissue.
  • Both the primary as well as secondary meristems are completely grown and cells become structurally and functionally specialized and lose the ability to divide, such cells are known as permanent tissues.

Important Points

Statement A: INCORRECT

  • Apical and intercalary meristems are meristematic tissues.
  • Apical meristems are present at the tips of the roots and shoots.
  • They help in the elongation of stems and roots and also increase the height of the plants.
  • The intercalary meristems are present at the internodes or the base of the leaves.
  • It helps to increase the length of the internode.

Statement B: CORRECT

  • Collenchyma tissues are simple permanent tissues.
  • Cells may be oval, spherical, or polygonal in shape and often contain chloroplasts.
  • These long and thick-walled tissues occur in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants.
  • Collenchyma consists of cells that are much irregularly thickened at the corners due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin.
  • They provide mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as the young stem, petiole of a leaf, etc.

​Statement C: CORRECT

  • Meristematic tissues have the ability to enlarge, stretch, divide, and differentiate into other types of cells when they mature.
  • The cells may be oval or rounded or polygonal in shape and all are living.
  • Meristems have a large nucleus but lack vacuoles.
  • Vacuoles are mainly used to store food or waste materials.
  • Meristematic cells are involved in cell division and growth; they are not involved in food synthesis and also do not produce much wastes.
  • Thus, young meristems do not require vacuoles.
  • Intercellular space between cells is also absent in meristems.

Statement D: CORRECT

  • Parenchyma tissues are simple permanent tissues.
  • The cells of parenchyma are generally isodiametric and they may be oval, spherical, round, polygonal, or elongated in shape.
  • They are loosely packed, having intercellular spaces.
  • Parenchyma performs other functions like photosynthesis, secretion, etc.

Hence, the correct option is (4) B, C and D only.

54

In an experiment, a student removed the tip of a sugarcane plant. It was observed that the plant is still growing in length. It may be due to the presence of 

  1. ((a))

    apical meristem

  2. ((b))

    cambium

  3. ((c))

    intercalary meristem

  4. ((d))

    lateral meristem

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

intercalary meristem

Key Points

Given: In an experiment, a student removed the tip of a sugarcane plant. It was observed that the plant is still growing in length.

  • The above observation may be due to the presence of intercalary meristem.
  • Sugarcane is a monocot plant and contains intercalary meristems.
  • Intercalary meristems are the meristematic tissues that are present in stems at the base of nodes and leaf blades.
  • These meristems can proliferate and regenerate new cells of the plant body that are removed intentionally or not.

Additional Information

Apical meristems - 

  • These occur at the tips of roots and shoots.
  • They are responsible for root and shoot expansion.

Cambium - 

  • It produces secondary permanent tissue and is responsible for secondary growth.
  • The meristematic layer that is responsible for cutting off vascular tissues, xylem and phloem, is called the vascular cambium.

Lateral meristem - 

  • The meristem occurs in the mature regions of roots and shoots of many plants, particularly those that produce a woody axis and appear later than the primary meristem called lateral meristem.
  • Lateral meristems are responsible for secondary growth, which increases stem girth and thickness.

Hence, the correct option is (3).

55

While cycling, a student met with an accident in which two long bones of his right hand were dislocated. The possible reason for this dislocation is 

  1. ((a))

    tendon break

  2. ((b))

    ligament break

  3. ((c))

    skeletal muscle break

  4. ((d))

    areolar tissue break

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ligament break

Key Points

Given: While cycling, a student met with an accident in which two long bones of his right hand were dislocated.

  • The possible reason for the above-stated dislocation is a ligament break.
  • Ligaments attach one bone to another, thus the breakage of the ligament can be the reason for the dislocation of bones.
  • Ligaments are dense regular connective tissue and are strong and elastic in nature.
  • The radius and ulna are the two long bones in the hand.
  • A strong band of fibers called an annular ligament is found on the head of the radius that retains it in contact with the radial notch of the ulna.
  • The student must have broken this ligament that dislocated these long bones of the hand causing a fracture.

Additional Information

Tendon:

  • Tendons are dense regular connective tissues that connect bones and muscles.
  • These are tough, inelastic, and fibrous in nature.
  • According to the question, two long bones of the hand are dislocated, so a tendon break is not possible.

Skeletal muscles:

  • Skeletal muscle tissues are closely attached to the skeletal bones and maintain the structural framework of the body.
  • Skeletal muscles are connected to bones by tendons, and they create all the movements of body parts in relation to one another.
  • The breakage of skeletal muscles cannot be responsible for the dislocation of bones as bones are joined by ligaments.

Areolar tissue:

  • Areolar tissues are the loose connective tissues present beneath the skin.
  • It serves as a support framework for epithelium, supports the internal organ, and also helps in tissue repair.

Hence, the correct option is (2) ligament break.

56

Consider the following class of plants :

A. Bryophyta

B. Gymnosperms

C. Pteridophyta

D. Thallophyta

Classes of plants having specialised tissues for the conduction of water are

  1. ((a))

    A and D only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B and C only

Concept:

  • Whittaker in the year 1969 came up with the concept of five kingdom classification.
  • He classified all the living organisms into five kingdoms- Monera, Protista, Fungi, Animalia and Plantae
  • The plant kingdom can be further classified as- Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.

Important Points

A- Bryophyta

  • They are atracheophytic, archegoniate, and amphibious cryptogams.
  • Various mosses and liverworts fall under the classification Bryophyta.
  • They are commonly found growing in the moist and shaded areas in the hills.
  • Bryophytes can live in the soil, but they depend on the water for sexual reproduction.
  • They have thallus like body and possess rootlike and leaf like structures.
  • Their main plant body is haploid.

B- Gymnosperms

  • Their seeds are naked without a fruit wall.
  • The ovules in these plants are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed.
  • Gymnosperms are heterosporous and sporophylls aggregate to form cones.
  • Most of the plants are perennial and woody.
  • They contain xylem tissue for water conduction.
  • The xylem is without vessels (trachea) and phloem lacks companion cells.

C- Pteridophyta

  • They are archegoniate, embryophytic, tracheophytic cryptogams.
  • Ferns and horsetails fall under the Pteridophyta.
  • They are found growing in cool, damp, shady places. They also grow well in sandy soils.
  • Evolutionarily they are the first plants to posses the vascular system - xylem and phloem.

D- Thallophyta

  • Thallophytes are the organisms that posses a thallus like body.
  • The body is not differentiated into stem, roots and leaves.
  • They are atracheophytes (vascular tissues are absent).
  • Lichens and algae fall under thallophyta.

Therefore statements B and C are correct.

57

Consider the following statements :

A. Aves have feather-covered body, forelimbs are modified as wings and breathe through lungs

B. Aves are warm-blooded, egg-laying and have four-chambered heart

C. Amphibians, fishes and reptiles are oviparous

D. Most of the mammals are viviparous

The correct statements are

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and D

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and D

Concept:

  • R.H. Whittaker gave the five kingdom classification, according to which organisms can be classified into five kingdoms:
  • Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
  • Animalia can be classified on the basis of presence and absence of notochord into the following phyla:

Porifera ⇒ Coelenterata ⇒ Ctenophora ⇒ Platyhelminthes ⇒ Aschelminthes, ⇒ Annelida ⇒ Arthropoda ⇒ Mollusca ⇒ Echinodermata ⇒ Hemichordata ⇒ Chordata

  • Phylum Chordata is divided into three subphyla: Urochordata, Cephalochordata, and Vertebrata.
  • The sub phylum Vertebrata can be again classified into classes - Pisces, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia.
  • Oviparous - refer to animals that lay eggs.
  • Viviparous - refer to animals that give birth to young ones.

Important Points

Pisces - 

  • Pisces are the true jawed vertebrates.
  • They are exclusively aquatic organisms and they bear fins.
  • They can have a bony or cartilaginous skeleton.
  • Lateral line organs or neuromast organs help in detecting the water currents.
  • Exoskeleton consists of dermal scales and bony plates..
  • They can be viviparous or oviparous.
  • Many of the fishes under the class Chondrichthyes are viviparous.
  • Fishes under the class Osteichthyes are mostly oviparous.

Amphibia - 

  • These can live both on terrestrial and aquatic habitat (amphibious).
  • Two pairs of pentadactylous limbs are present.
  • They have three-chambered heart.
  • Amphibians breath through their skin, as well as their lungs in some cases.
  • Amphibians are poikilothermic animals.
  • They are oviparous and they lay eggs in water.

Reptilia - 

  • Reptiles are poikilotherms.
  • They have creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
  • Their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, have scales or scutes.
  • Gaseous exchange is primarily pulmonary.
  • They have tympanum which represents their ear.
  • Heart consists of two atria and and incompletely divided ventricle therefore incomplete double circulation occurs.
  • They are mostly oviparous.

Aves

  • Aves is a class of homeotherms, and includes birds.
  • They are bipedal and their forelimbs are modified into wings.
  • Exoskeleton consists of epidermal feathers claws on toes and beak.
  • They respire through lungs and air sacs are connected to these lungs.
  • The heart is four chambered.
  • Fertilization is internal and all birds are oviparous.

Mammalia - 

  • The presence of mammary glands (modified sweat glands) is the characteristic feature of these organisms.
  • Body is covered by hair which is epidermal in origin.
  • They have two pair of limbs adapted for different activities like running, walking, climbing etc.
  • They are homoiotherms,
  • They are viviparous.
  • The Primates show female reproductive cycle called the Menstrual cycle and non primates show oestrous cycle.

From the above points we can conclude that statements A, B and D are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

58

Among the following, the true fish is

  1. ((a))

    Dogfish

  2. ((b))

    Jellyfish

  3. ((c))

    Silverfish

  4. ((d))

    Starfish

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dogfish

Important PointsPisces/fishes characteristic features-

  • Pisces are the true-jawed vertebrates.
  • They are exclusively aquatic organisms and they bear fins.
  • They can have a bony or cartilaginous skeleton.
  • Lateral line organs or neuromast organs help in detecting the water currents.
  • Exoskeleton consists of dermal scales and bony plates.
  • They can be viviparous or oviparous.
  • The Pisces can be further classified into two different classes 
  • Chondrichthyes - Have cartilaginous endoskeleton
  • Osteichthyes - Have bony endoskeleton
  • Many of the fishes under the class Chondrichthyes are viviparous.
  • Fishes under the class Osteichthyes are mostly oviparaous.

Explanation:

Dogfish - 

  • Scoliodon is also known as dog fish.
  • It is a true fish and falls under the class Chondrichthyes.
  • They have streamlined body with cartilaginous endoskeleton.

Jellyfish - 

  • Jellyfish is not a true fish
  • It falls under the phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria)
  • They have stinging cells also called cnidoblasts or cnidocytes in the body.

Silverfish - 

  • Silverfish is an insect.
  • It belongs to the phylum Arthropoda.

Starfish - 

  • Starfish is not a fish.
  • It falls under the phylum Echinodermata
  • They have water vascular system which is their characteristic feature.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

59

In the context of four common gases, namely Oxygen (O2), Chlorine (Cl2), Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Carbon monoxide (CO), select the correct option from the following table :

OptionProduct of respirationProduct of incomplete combustionUsed in water purification systemAcidic oxide
ACO2COO2CO
BCO2CO2Cl2CO2
CO2COCl2CO2
DCO2COCl2CO2
  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • Respiration is the process in which the cells of an organism obtain energy by combining oxygen and glucose, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide, water, and ATP (energy).
  • Incomplete combustion is a type of combustion in which the combustible substances react partially with oxygen.
  • An oxide that exhibits the property of acids is called acidic oxide.
  • Since they are acidic, they react with a base to form a salt.

Explanation:

  • In respiration, the by-products are water and carbon dioxide molecules produced by the breakdown of carbohydrates.
  • Carbon monoxide is produced due to incomplete combustion because, in the limited space inside a gas heater (or a car engine), there is not enough oxygen to completely oxidize the hydrocarbon fuels.
  • Chlorine is a highly effective method of disinfection. So it is used in water purification systems.
  • Non-metal oxides are acidic in nature. So CO2 is an acidic oxide.

Conclusion:

Thus, the correct option is D.

60

Four objects A, B, C and D are running on a levelled horizontal road with different speeds. The speed of every object remains uniform. If the distance (d) - time (t) graph of the four objects are as per the diagram, the correct statement about the motions of the objects is

  1. ((a))

    B is faster than C

  2. ((b))

    A is the slowest

  3. ((c))

    C is faster than D

  4. ((d))

    D is the slowest

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A is the slowest

Concept:

Speed:

  • It is defined as the rate of change of distance per unit of time.
  • Formula, Speed, v=dsdtv=\frac{ds}{dt} where ds = change is distance, dt = change in time
  • It is a scalar quantity because it has only magnitude but not direction.
  • The slope of distance vs time graphs represents speed.

Explanation:

  • The slope of distance vs time graphs represents speed.
  • From the graph, the slope of object A is minimum while the slope of object D is maximum.
  • So, the A is the slowest and the D is the fastest.
61

An object is covering distances in direct proportion to the square of time elapsed. The acceleration of the object is

  1. ((a))

    constant

  2. ((b))

    increasing

  3. ((c))

    decreasing

  4. ((d))

    zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

constant

Concept:

Speed:

  • It is defined as the rate of change of distance with respect to time.
  • Formula, Speed, v=dsdtv=\frac{ds}{dt} where, ds = change in distance, dt = change in time
  • The SI unit of speed is m/s.
  • It is a scalar quantity because it has only magnitude but not direction.

Acceleration:

  • It is defined as the rate of change of speed with respect to time.
  • Formula, acceleration, a=dvdta=\frac{dv}{dt}, where v = velocity, t = time
  • The SI unit of acceleration is m/s2.

Calculation:

An object is covering distances in direct proportion to the square of the time elapsed, x = kt2, where k = constant

Speed, v=dsdtv=\frac{ds}{dt}

v = 2kt

Acceleration, a=dvdta=\frac{dv}{dt}

a = 2k

Hence, the acceleration is constant.

62

A block of mass 2 kg is sliding on a smooth horizontal surface with a constant speed of 0.5 m/s. The force required to keep the block sliding at the same speed is

  1. ((a))

    400 N

  2. ((b))

    200 N

  3. ((c))

    100 N

  4. ((d))

    zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

zero

Concept:

Force:

  • The push or pull on an object with mass causes it to change its velocity.
  • Force is an external agent capable of changing a body's state of rest or motion.
  • It is defined as the product of mass and acceleration.
  • Formula, force, F = ma, where m = mass, a = acceleration
  • The SI unit of force is Newton (N).
  • It is a vector quantity because it has a magnitude and a direction.

Calculation:

Given,

The mass of the block, m = 2 kg

Constant speed, v = 0.5 m/s

The block is sliding with a constant speed, so acceleration, a = 0 m/s2

Force, F = ma

F =  2 × 0 = 0 N

Hence, the force required to keep the block sliding with the same speed is 0 N.

63

In the game of cricket, a fielder after catching the fast-moving ball pulls his hands backward with the moving ball. This enables the fielder to

  1. ((a))

    decrease the rate of change of momentum of the ball.

  2. ((b))

    increase the rate of change of momentum of the ball.

  3. ((c))

    decrease the acceleration of the ball by increasing the time duration in which the high speed of the ball reduces to zero.

  4. ((d))

    exert larger force on the ball to stop it.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

decrease the acceleration of the ball by increasing the time duration in which the high speed of the ball reduces to zero.

Concept:

Newton's Second law of motion:

  • Force is equal to the rate of change of momentum. For a constant mass, force equals mass times acceleration
  • Formula, Force, F=dPdtF=\frac{dP}{dt}, where dP = change in momentum, dt = change in time.
  • Force, F = ma, where m = mass, a = acceleration
  • It is applied to identify the amount of force needed to make an object move or make it stop.

Explanation:

  • While catching a fast-moving cricket ball, a fielder on the ground gradually pulls back his hand back with the moving ball.
  • In doing so, he experiences a smaller force for a longer interval of time to catch the ball.
  • Resulting in a lesser impulse on his hands and hence it will not hurt the hands of the fielder.
64

A vehicle travels half the distance L with speed v1, and the other half with speed v2, then the average speed of the vehicle is

  1. ((a))

    v1+v22v_1+v_2\over2

  2. ((b))

    v1v2v1+v2v_1v_2\over v_1+v_2

  3. ((c))

    2v1v2v1+v22v_1v_2\over v_1+v_2

  4. ((d))

    v12+v22v1+v2v_1^2+v_2^2\over v_1+v_2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2v1v2v1+v22v_1v_2\over v_1+v_2

Concept:

Average speed:

  • The average speed is the total distance traveled by the object in a particular time interval.
  • Formula, average speed, vavg=ΔxΔtv_{avg}=\frac{Δ x}{Δ t}, where Δx = total distance traveled, Δ t = time interval
  • The average speed is a scalar quantity.
  • It is represented by the magnitude and does not have direction.

Calculation:

Consider the below diagram for which motion is as shown below

 

Time taken to travel first half distance,

t1=L/2v1t_1=\frac{L/2}{v_1}

The time is taken to travel the second half distance,

t2=L/2v2t_2=\frac{L/2}{v_2}

The total time is taken, t = t1 + t2

Average distance, vavg=Lt1+t2v_{avg}=\frac{L}{t_1+t_2}

vavg=LL/2v1+L/2v2v_{avg}=\frac{L}{\frac{L/2}{v_1}+\frac{L/2}{v_2}}

vavg=2v1v2v1+v2v_{avg}=\frac{2v_1v_2}{v_1+v_2}

65

The velocity (v) - time (t) graph of a ball of mass 50 g along a straight line on a horizontal surface is as shown. The magnitude of the force exerted by the surface on the ball to bring it to rest is

  1. ((a))

    0.0001 N

  2. ((b))

    0.001 N

  3. ((c))

    0.01 N

  4. ((d))

    0.1 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.001 N

Concept:

Force:

  • It is defined as the product of mass and acceleration.
  • Formula, F = ma, where m = mass, a = acceleration
  • The SI unit of the force is Newton.

Equation of motion:

  • The first equation of motion: v = u + at
  • The second equation of motion: s = ut + 0.5 at2
  • Third equation of motion: 2as = v2 - u2
  • Here, v = final velocity, u = initial velocity, a  = acceleration, t = time

Calculation:

Given,

The mass of the ball, m = 50 g = 50 × 10-3 kg

From the graph, 

The initial velocity, u = 20 cm/s, The final velocity, v = 0 cm/s, Time, t = 10 s

From the first equation of motion,

v = u + at

a=vuta=\frac{v-u}{t}

a=02010=2 cm/s2a=\frac{0-20}{10}=-2~ cm/s^2

= - 0.02 m/s2

The force exerted on the table, 

F = ma

F = 50 × 10-3 × (- 0.02) = - 0.001 N

Here, the negative sign indicates that the direction of force is opposite.

66

An engine of mass 10000 kg pulls a train of 5 wagons each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a force of 45000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N, the acceleration of the train is 

  1. ((a))

    2.0 m/s2

  2. ((b))

    2.25 m/s2

  3. ((c))

    4.0 m/s2

  4. ((d))

    4.5 m/s2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.0 m/s2

Concept:

Friction force:

  • The force that resists the sliding or rolling of one solid object over another.
  • Frictional forces, such as the traction needed to walk without slipping, may be beneficial, but they also present a great measure of opposition to the motion

Force:

  • It is defined as the product of mass and acceleration.
  • Formula, F = ma, where F = net force, m = mass, a = acceleration
  • The SI unit of the force is Newton.​​

Newton's Second Law of motion:

  • Force is equal to the rate of change of momentum. For a constant mass, force equals mass times acceleration
  • Formula, Force, F=dPdtF=dPdtF=dPdt

, where dP = change in momentum, dt = change in time.

  • Force, F = ma, where m = mass, a = acceleration
  • It is applied to identify the amount of force needed to make an object move or make it stop.

Calculation:

Given,

The mass of the engine, M = 10000 kg

The mass of each 5 wagons, m = 2000 kg

The force exerted by the engine, F =  45000 N

Frictional force, f = 5000 N

Net force, Fnet = ma

Fnet = F - friction force

Fnet = 45000 - 5000 = 40000 N

According to Newton's second law,  Fnet = ma, here, m = total mass

Fnet = (M + 5m) a

a=FnetM+5ma=\frac{F_{net}}{M+5m}

a=4000010000+5×2000a=\frac{40000}{10000+5\times 2000}

a = 2 m/s2

67

SI units of Universal Gravitational Constant (G) and acceleration due to gravity (g) are respectively

  1. ((a))

    N kg2/m2 ; m/s2

  2. ((b))

    N m2/kg2 ; m/s2

  3. ((c))

    N m2/kg2 ; m/s

  4. ((d))

    N m2/s2 ; m/s2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

N m2/kg2 ; m/s2

Concept:

Universal Gravitational Law:

  • Sir Isaac Newton put forward the universal law of gravitation in 1687 and used it to explain the observed motions of the planets and moons.
  • Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation states that every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with force directly proportional to the product of the masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

  • Formula, Force, F=GM1M2r2F=\frac{GM_1M_2}{r^2}where, F is the gravitational force between bodies, M1 and M2 are the masses of the bodies, r is the distance between the centers of two bodies, and 8G is the universal gravitational constant.
  • Here, G = 6.673 x 10-11 N m2/kg2.

Acceleration due to gravity:

  • Acceleration due to gravity is the acceleration gained by an object due to gravitational force.
  • Its SI unit is m/s2. It has both magnitude and direction, hence, it’s a vector quantity.
  • Acceleration due to gravity is represented by g.
  • The standard value of g on the surface of the earth at sea level is 9.8 m/s2.

Explanation:

Gravitational force, F=GM1M2r2F=\frac{GM_1M_2}{r^2}

G=Fr2M1M2G=\frac{Fr^2}{M_1M_2}

The SI unit of the universal gravitational constant is N m2/kg2.

The SI unit of the acceleration due to gravity is the same as that of acceleration. Hence, the SI unit of the acceleration due to gravity is m/s2.

68

An object is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 20 m/s. If the air resistance is negligible, the greatest height to which this object would rise is (g = 10 m/s2)

  1. ((a))

    10 m

  2. ((b))

    20 m

  3. ((c))

    40 m

  4. ((d))

    200 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20 m

Concept:

Motion:

  • Motion is the phenomenon in which an object changes its position.
  • Motion is represented in terms of displacement, distance, velocity, acceleration, speed, and time

​Equation of motion: 

  • v = u + at
  • S = ut + 0.5 at2
  • 2as = v2 - u2
  • Here, v = final velocity, u = initial velocity, a = acceleration, t = time
  • Under the influence of gravity, acceleration is replaced by the acceleration due to gravity.

Calculation:

Given,

The initial velocity, u = 20 m/s, The final velocity, v = 0 m/s, The acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2

From the third equation of motion under the influence of gravity,

v2 - u2 = -2gh

h=v2u22gh=\frac{v^2-u^2}{-2g}

h=022022×10=20 mh=\frac{0^2-20^2}{-2\times 10}=20~m

Hence, the maximum height is 20 m.

69

An object weighs Wa in air. When immersed fully in water it weighs Ww. If on immersing in a liquid, the object weighs Wl, the relative density of the liquid is

  1. ((a))

    WaWaWwW_a\over W_a-W_w

  2. ((b))

    WaWaWlW_a\over W_a-W_l

  3. ((c))

    WlWwW_l\over W_w

  4. ((d))

    WaWlWaWwW_a-W_l\over W_a-W_w

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

WaWlWaWwW_a-W_l\over W_a-W_w

Concept:

Density:

  • It is defined as the mass per unit volume.
  • Formula, Density, ρ=mVρ=\frac{m}{V}, where m = mass, V = volume
  • The SI unit of density is kg/m3.

Relative density:

  • The difference between the specific gravity and density is that at room temperature and pressure, 1gram per 1 cubic cm is the density of water this density is treated as a standard and the density of any other material (usual liquids) is calculated relative to this is called relative density or specific gravity.
  • Formula, R.D=ρlρwR.D=\frac{ρ_l}{ρ_w}, where, R.D = relative density, ρl = density of water, ρw = density of water

Calculation:

Given, the weight of an object in air = Wa

When an object is immersed in water, then Ww = Wa - ρw gV

ρw gV  = Wa - Ww . . . . . . . . .(1)

When an object is immersed in liquid, then, Wl = Wa - ρl gV 

ρl gV = Wa -  Wl  . . . . . . . . . .(2)

Divide equation (2) by equation (1), we get the relative density

ρlρw=WaWlWaWw\frac{ρ_l}{ρ _w}=\frac{W_a-W_l}{W_a-W_w}

70

Consider the following units :

A. kilowatt hour

B. joule

C. newton metre

D. pascal metre2

The units of energy are

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C

Concept:

Energy:

  • It is defined as energy as the ability of something to do work.
  • Energy can exist in many forms.
  • All forms of energy are either kinetic or potential.
  • The International System of Units of measurement of energy is the joule.
  • The unit of energy is named after James Prescott Joule. Joule is a derived unit equal to the energy expended in applying a force of one newton through a distance of one meter.
  • However, energy is also expressed in many other units not part of the SI, such as ergs, calories, British Thermal Units, kilowatt-hours, and kilocalories, which require a conversion factor when expressed in SI units.

​Energy in terms of power:

  • Power is defined as the energy per unit of time.
  • Formula, Power, P=EtP =\frac{E}{t}, where E = energy, t = time
  • Hence, E = Pt

Explanation:

The SI unit of energy is Joule.

We can derive the SI unit of the energy from the formula of potential energy.

P.E = mgh =(mg) h

Hence, the SI unit is Nm.

Energy, E = Pt, where, P = power, t = time, 

So, the SI unit of power is the watt. Therefore, the SI unit of energy is Watt hour or kilowatt hour. Here kilo means 1000.

71

The kinetic energy of an object of mass 1 kg is 72 J. The momentum of the object is

  1. ((a))

    6 kg m/s

  2. ((b))

    12 kg m/s

  3. ((c))

    9 kg m/s

  4. ((d))

    24 kg m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12 kg m/s

Concept:

  • The relation between kinetic energy and momentum is given as, K.E=P22mK.E =\frac{P^2}{2m} where P = momentum, m = mass

Kinetic energy:

  • The energy possessed due to the motion of an object is called kinetic energy.
  • Formula, Kinetic energy, K.E=12mv2K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 where m = mass, v = velocity
  • The SI unit of kinetic energy is Joules (J).

Momentum:

  • It is defined as the product of mass and velocity.
  • Formula, P = mv, where m = mass, v = velocity, P = momentum
  • The SI unit of the momentum is kg m/s.The

Calculation:

Given,

The momentum of an object, K.E = 72 J

The mass of the object, m = 1 kg

The kinetic energy of the bullet is calculated as,

K.E=P22mK.E= \frac{P^2}{2m}

P=2m(K.E)P=\sqrt{2m(K.E)}

P=2×1×72=12 kg,m/sP=\sqrt{2\times 1 \times 72}= 12 ~kg, m/s

Hence, the momentum of an object is 12 kg m/s.

72

The given displacement-time (d-t) graph represents a disturbance traveling with a speed of 1200 m/s. The wavelength of the disturbance is

  1. ((a))

    1.2 × 10-4 m

  2. ((b))

    2.4 × 10-4 m

  3. ((c))

    1.2 × 10-3 m

  4. ((d))

    2.4 × 10-3 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2.4 × 10-3 m

Concept:

Frequency:

  • The frequency (f) of a wave is the number of full waveforms generated per second.
  • This is the same as the number of repetitions per second or the number of oscillations per second.

Time period:

  • ​Time Period (T) is the number of seconds per waveform or the number of seconds per oscillation.
  • It is clear that frequency and period are reciprocals.

Wavelength: 

  • Wavelength (λ) is the distance between two successive points on a wave that is in the same state of oscillation.
  • The wavelength of the wave can be calculated as, λ = vT, where, v = velocity, T = time period

Calculation:

Given, speed, v = 1200 m/s

The time period of the one wave, T = 2 μs

The wavelength of the wave can be calculated as, λ = vT

 λ = 1200 × 2 × 10-6

λ  = 2.4 × 10-3 m

Hence, the wavelength of the wave is 2.4 × 10-3 m.

73

People living in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated house are likely to suffer from

  1. ((a))

    Airborne diseases

  2. ((b))

    AIDS

  3. ((c))

    Cancer

  4. ((d))

    Cholera

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Airborne diseases

Correct answer: 1)

Concept:

  • A disease that is simply by breathing is called airborne disease.
  • The airborne disease can spread when people sneeze, or talk and cough spewing nasal and throat secretions into the air.
  • Some viruses or bacteria take flight and hang in the air on other people or surfaces.

Explanation:

  • Airborne diseases spread through the medium of air in the form of sneeze and cough droplets, which when inhaled by a healthy person may cause the disease.
  • These can be transmitted easily in an overcrowded room.
  • Thus, overcrowding should be avoided to prevent air-borne diseases.

Conclusion:

Thus, people living in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated houses are likely to suffer from Airborne diseases.

74

Producing antiviral drugs (for example producing vaccine for Covid-19) was a much harder task than making anti-bacterial drugs/medicines because the

  1. ((a))

    viruses have a protein coat

  2. ((b))

    viruses are on the borderline of living and non-living

  3. ((c))

    viruses make use of the host machinery for their life processes

  4. ((d))

    viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own

Important Points

  • Viruses are very minute infectious agents.
  • Viruses  consists of a single molecule of nucleic acid that is surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid.
  • They lack the protoplasm.
  • Therefore they are considered dead outside.
  • They transform into living organisms once they enter a host body.
  • Viruses depend on the host cell machinery for their replication.
  • They do not possess the required ribosomes and so, cannot independently form proteins from molecules of messenger RNA.
  • Due of these reasons, viruses can replicate only within a living host cell.

Explanation:

  • Most of the antibacterial drugs target by commonly blocking the biochemical pathways important for bacteria.
  • But in viruses this is not possible because viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own.
  • Viruses lack cellular machinery and hence do not show any characteristics of life until they enter a living body/host and use the host cell to multiply.
  • Thus, any it becomes very difficult to prepare an antiviral drug having particular mode of action.
75

The meaning of ‛‛Ozone hole’’ is

  1. ((a))

    Creation of a large sized hole in the ozone layer

  2. ((b))

    Small holes scattered in the ozone layer

  3. ((c))

    Thinning of ozone layer in the upper reaches of the atmosphere

  4. ((d))

    Hinderance in the production of ozone from molecular oxygen in the higher level of the atmosphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Thinning of ozone layer in the upper reaches of the atmosphere

Important Points

  • Ozone is an odorless and colorless gas that is is a natural part of the environment.
  • It is made up of three oxygen molecules (O3).
  • Most ozone (about 90%) is found in the stratosphere.
  • In the upper atmosphere, the layer of ozone gas helps in protecting the earth from the sun's UV radiation.
  • But, on ground level, ozone acts as a harmful air pollutant.
  • It is harmful if a person inhales it, may lead to lung and throat irritation, coughing, and worsened asthma symptoms.

Explanation:

  • Ozone hole is the region where ozone is depleted.
  • It is actually a region of exceptionally depleted ozone in the stratosphere (mainly over the Antarctica).
  • Usage of gases like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in spray cans and refrigerants, leads to breakdown of ozone molecules in the upper atmosphere.
  • This causes thinning of the ozone layer.
  • The chlorine and bromine gases produced from CFCs and halons are responsible for the destruction of ozone molecules.
  • Ozone depletion may lead to increased amounts of UV radiation to reach the Earth.
  • This can lead to more cases of skin cancer, cataracts, and impaired immune systems.

Additional Information

Montreal Protocol - 

  • It was signed in 1987 in Montreal, Canada for the protection of Ozone layer in the atmosphere.
  • Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities under this protocol.
  • The Kigali Amendment, an amendment to the Protocol, has helped reduce HFC emissions.
76

Select from the following a species of honey bee which has high honey collection capacity and is commonly used for commercial honey production: 

  1. ((a))

    Apis cerana indica

  2. ((b))

    Apis dorsata

  3. ((c))

    Apis florae

  4. ((d))

    Apis mellifera

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Apis mellifera

Important Points

  • Apiculture - the scientific method of rearing honeybees in order to obtain bee products such as beeswax, honey, royal jelly, flower pollen, and bee pollen.
  • Apiculture or bee-keeping is the practice of scientific maintenance of honeybee colonies, commonly in hives, by humans.
  • And then collection of these bee products and marketing them professionally
  • Bees are economically important, social and colonial insects.
  • They are used majorly for production of honey and wax commercially.

Explanation:

  • Apis mellifera is a species of honey bee that is commonly used for commercial honey production.
  • They are reared because of the high amount of honey production.
  • It is an Italian bee species.
  • In India, Apis indica is widely used for rearing.

Additional Information

  • A honey bee colony consists of three kinds of adult bees:
  • workers
  • drones
  • queen
  • The workers and the queen are female, while the drones are male.
  • Honey bee colonies only have a single queen and its primary duty is to lay eggs.
77

A student burns a magnesium ribbon on a bunsen flame and collects the ash formed on a watch-glass. Which of the following statements depicts the correct observation made by the student?

  1. ((a))

    The colour of the ash formed is brown

  2. ((b))

    The ribbon burns with a brilliant white light

  3. ((c))

    Reddish-brown gas with a pungent smell evolves during burning

  4. ((d))

    The gas evolved burns with a pop sound

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The ribbon burns with a brilliant white light

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • When magnesium strip is burnt, then ash obtained is MgO which is when dissolved in water then Mg(OH)2 is formed.
  • Mg(OH)2 is basic in nature as it turns red litmus to blue.
  • The burning magnesium ribbon in air is a direct combination reaction.
  • The formation of magnesium oxide is a chemical change.

Explanation:

  • The magnesium ribbon reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
  • This is an example of oxidation reaction.
  • Magnesium ribbon bums with a dazzling white light and produces a white powder which is magnesium oxide.
  • The reaction can be represented as
  • 2Mg + O2 →2MgO

Conclusion:

Thus, when a student burns a magnesium ribbon on a bunsen flame and collects the ash formed on a watch-glass and the ribbon burns with a brilliant white light.

78

What is observed when you place a shining copper plate in a beaker containing aqueous ferrous sulphate solution for about 30 minutes?

  1. ((a))

    The solution turns blue and a grey layer is formed on the copper plate.

  2. ((b))

    The solution becomes colourless and a grey layer is formed on the plate.

  3. ((c))

    The solution remains green and no change takes place in the copper plate.

  4. ((d))

    The solution turns blue and the copper plate becomes thinner.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The solution remains green and no change takes place in the copper plate.

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • The type of reaction in which part of one reactant is displaced by another reactant is called displacement reaction.
  • It is also called a  replacement reaction.
  • As replacement of one ion of reactant takes place by another ion of reactant.

Explanation:

  • Copper can not displace iron from ferrous sulphate solution.
  • So no change will take place.
  • Copper being less reactive than iron is placed at the bottom of the reactivity series, below the iron.
  • Therefore, a displacement reaction does not take place as copper cannot displace iron from an iron sulphate solution.
  • Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq)→ No reaction.

Conclusion:

Thus, the solution remains green and no change takes place in the copper plate.

79

Consider the following chemical reaction :

MnO2 + 4 HCl → MnCl2 + 2 H2O + Cl2

In this reaction

  1. ((a))

    HCl is oxidised to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2

  2. ((b))

    HCl is oxidised to H2O and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2

  3. ((c))

    HCl is reduced to Cl2 and MnO2 is oxidised to MnCl2

  4. ((d))

    HCl is reduced to H2O and MnO2 is oxidised to MnCl2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HCl is oxidised to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2

Correct answer: 1)

Concept:

  • Oxidation is the loss of electrons while reduction is the gain of electrons.
  • The substance which helps other species to get reduced and itself get oxidized is known as a reducing agent.
  • While substance that helps other species to get oxidized and itself get reduced is known as oxidizing agent

Explanation:

  • In this reaction, HCl is oxidized to Cl2, and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2
  • Reactant side, the oxidation number of Mn is +4
  • Oxidation number of O is -2
  • Oxidation number of H is +1
  • Oxidation number of Cl is -1
  • Product side, the oxidation number of Mn is +2
  • Oxidation number of O is -2
  • Oxidation number of H is +1
  • Oxidation number of Cl is 0.
  • So, HCl is oxidised to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2

Conclusion:

Thus, HCl is oxidised to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2

80

Two gases which can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time are

  1. ((a))

    Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide

  2. ((b))

    Nitrogen and Helium

  3. ((c))

    Helium and Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    Nitrogen and Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nitrogen and Helium

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • Oxygen cannot be used as it is an oxidizing agent. Helium can be used as it is an inert gas.
  • Nitrogen is less reactive and it is cheaper than Helium.
  • In most cases, nitrogen is used in packets to prevent rancidity.
  • Rancidity is the oxidative degradation of oil. We can avoid the rancidity of oil if we can avoid contact between oil and air.
  • Due to the rancidification process of oils and fats, you will observe change in colour, smell, and test.
  • For example, if you expose a packet of chips to air, we will observe a change in smell and taste.
  • During rancidification, oils and fats undergo complete oxidation or hydrolysis.

Explanation:

  • Helium, as well as nitrogen, can be used for storage of a fresh sample of oil for a long time because they abstain from the oil from rancidity.
  • The contact of air and oil is prevented by using nitrogen or helium as blanketing gas.
  • Both are non-reactive at standard temperature and pressure.
  • There is no oxygen (or air ) to cause its oxidation and make it rancid.

Conclusion:

Thus, the gases which can be used for the storage of fresh samples of oil for a long time are nitrogen and helium.

81

Two miscible liquids having boiling points 132°C and 150°C can be separated by

  1. ((a))

    Centrifugation

  2. ((b))

    Distillation

  3. ((c))

    Separating funnel

  4. ((d))

    Fractional distillation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fractional distillation

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • The boiling point is the point when the substance starts to boil.
  • The miscible liquids are those which are completely mixed with each other and form a homogeneous solution but the liquids have sufficient boiling point difference.

Explanation:

  • In option (1), Centrifugation is the process that uses centrifugal force for the separation of two liquids in a mixture.
  • In this process, the denser component of the mixture migrates away from the axis and the lighter component migrates toward the axis.
  • In option (2), Distillation is the process that occurs when a liquid sample is volatilized to produce a vapor that is subsequently condensed to a liquid richer in the more volatile components of the original sample.
  • In option (3), A separating funnel is a funnel that is used to separate immiscible liquids.
  • Liquids that do not mix with each other are said to be immiscible.
  • In option (4), the term fractional distillation is a method to separate two completely mixed liquids having a temperature difference of more than 25K.
  • So the given liquids have a boiling point difference of less than 25K and are separated by fractional distillation.

 

Conclusion:

Thus, the two miscible liquids having boiling points of 132°C and 150°C can be separated by fractional distillation.

82

Aqueous solution of which one of the following carbon compounds would have the maximum concentration of hydrogen ions?

  1. ((a))

    C3H7OH

  2. ((b))

    C2H5CHO

  3. ((c))

    CH3COCH3

  4. ((d))

    C2H5COOH

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C2H5COOH

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • The meaning of hydrogen ion concentration is the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, usually in moles per liter or in pH units.
  • Hydrogen ion concentration is more conveniently expressed as pH, which is the logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration in gram moles per liter.

Explanation:

  • Acidity is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions (H) present when a substance is dissolved in a liquid.
  • Propionic acid is more acidic than all others because the anion of  acid is resonance stabilized
  • Propionic acid (C2H5COOH ​) is the most acidic substance among the following.
  • Thus, it has the highest amount of hydrogen ions.

Conclusion:

Thus, C2H5COOH would have the maximum concentration of hydrogen ions.

83

Which of the following is a thermite reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) →  FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)

  2. ((b))

    3 MnO2 (s) + 4 Al (s) → 3 Mn (l) + 2 Al2O3 (s) + heat

  3. ((c))

    Fe2O3 (s) + 2 Al (s) → 2 Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + heat

  4. ((d))

    Cu2O + Cu2Heat\underrightarrow{Heat} 6 Cu (s) + SO2 (g)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fe2O3 (s) + 2 Al (s) → 2 Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + heat

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • A thermite reaction is a broad term describing an exothermic reaction between ferrous oxides and aluminum.
  • The thermite process is the reduction of metal oxides with aluminum powder in which a huge amount of heat is liberated is called thermite process.
  • This aluminum-iron oxide combination, often known as thermite, is well recognized for its capacity to create high heat upon burning.

Explanation:

  • When highly reactive metals such as Sodium (Na), Calcium(Ca), Aluminium(Al), etc., are used as reducing agents they displace metals of lower reactivity from the compound.
  • Fe2O3 (s) + 2 Al (s) → 2 Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + heat
  • These are exothermic reactions.
  • The amount of heat evolved is so large that the metals are produced in the molten state.
  • Iron oxide reacts with aluminum to join the railing of railway tracks or cracked machine parts.
  • This reaction is known as the thermite reaction.

Conclusion:

Thus, Fe2O3 (s) + 2 Al (s) → 2 Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + heat, is a thermite reaction.

84

A metal reacts with water to form an alkaline solution. If the aqueous solution of the chloride of this metal is known as brine, the period and group to which this metal belongs to in the Modern Periodic Table is

  1. ((a))

    Second period, Third group

  2. ((b))

    Third period, Second group

  3. ((c))

    Second period, First group

  4. ((d))

    Third period, First group

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Third period, First group

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • Group 1 elements are Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, and Fr.
  • The third period contains eight elements: sodium, magnesium, aluminum, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine, and argon.
  • Solutions in which water is the solvent are called aqueous solutions.
  • Sodium chloride (NaCl) and water (H2O) solution are brine solutions.
  • The brine is used in electrolysis.

Explanation:

  • Group 1 elements like lithium, sodium, and potassium all react vigorously with water.
  • Alkali metals need to be stored under oil to prevent them from reacting with the oxygen and water vapor in the air.
  • Sodium and chlorine combine to form sodium chloride.
  • 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl
  • Brine is an aqueous solution of NaCl (Sodium Chloride).
  • sodium (Na), the chemical element of the periodic table's alkali metal (Group 1 and third period).

Conclusion:

Thus, this metal belongs to the third period and the first group in the Modern Periodic Table.

85

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid

B. Some non-metal oxides react with water to form acids

C. Some of the metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas

D. All metal carbonates react with acids to give salt, carbon dioxide and water

  1. ((a))

    B and C

  2. ((b))

    C and D

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B, C and D

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • Metal oxides are basic in nature hence they give an alkaline solution when dissolved in water.
  • During these reactions, a large amount of energy gets released.
  • Gold generally does not react with oxygen, water, and acid.

Explanation:

  • All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid is the incorrect statement.
  • As all metal oxides react with water to give a base.
  • CaO + H2O→ Ca(OH)2
  • Some non-metal oxides react with water to form acids.
  • CO2 + H2O→ H2CO3
  • Some of the metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas.
  • Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 +H2
  • All metal carbonates react with acids to give salt, carbon dioxide, and water.
  • Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2

Conclusion:

Thus, B, C, and D are the correct statements.

86

Which of the following sets of compounds depict same molecular formula but different structural formula?

A. 

 and 

B. CH3CH2CH2CH3 and 

C. CH3CH2CH2CH3 and 

D. CH3CH2CH2CH3 and 

  1. ((a))

    B and D

  2. ((b))

    A, B and D

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D

  4. ((d))

    A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and B

Correct answer: 4

Concept:

  • Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different chemical structures are called isomers.
  • That excludes any different arrangements which are simply due to the molecule rotating as a whole, or rotating about particular bonds.

Explanation:

  • An isomer contains the same number of atoms of each element but has different arrangements of their atoms.
  • Isomers contain the same number of atoms of each element but have different arrangements of their atoms.
  • Isomers do not necessarily share similar properties unless they also have the same functional groups.
  • In compound A, the molecular formula is C6H12 but have a different structure. So they are isomers.
  • In compound B, the molecular formula is C4H10 but has a different structure. So they are isomers.
  • In compound C, the molecular formula is C4H10 but its structure has only 8 hydrogens. So they are not isomers.
  • In compound D, the diffrent molecular formula is C5H12 but have a different structure. So they are isomers.

Conclusion:

Thus, options A, B, and D depict the same molecular formula but different structural formulas.

87

A group of three metals which can be obtained by the electrolysis of their molten chloride is

  1. ((a))

    Aluminium, Zinc, Sodium

  2. ((b))

    Calcium, Magnesium, Sodium

  3. ((c))

    Sodium, Manganese, Magnesium

  4. ((d))

    Potassium, Sodium, Nickel

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Calcium, Magnesium, Sodium

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • Electrolysis is the process of breaking chemical bonds in compounds and producing elemental substances.
  • This process is carried out by passing an electric current at a specific voltage between two electrodes, through an electrolyte.
  • The electrolytes are composed of cations (positively charged) and anions (negatively charged).
  • A positively charged anode attracts anions.
  • Anions, on reaching the anode, release their electrons to it and get reduced to neutral atoms.
  • Negatively charge cations, attract cations and discharge their positive charge to neutral atoms.

Explanation:

  • Sodium magnesium and calcium are very reactive metals and are placed toward the top of the reactivity series.
  • They are not easily reduced by carbon and aluminum.
  • These are produced by the electrolysis of their molten chlorides.
  • The metal ions are deposited at the negatively charged cathode and chlorine is deposited at the positively charged anode.

Conclusion:

Thus, a group of three metals that can be obtained by the electrolysis of their molten chloride is calcium, magnesium, and sodium.

88

Select a covalent compound from the following :

  1. ((a))

    NaCl

  2. ((b))

    KNO3

  3. ((c))

    CCl

  4. ((d))

    CaSO4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CCl

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • Ionic and covalent are two types of bonds formed between the atoms in a molecule.
  • Ionic and covalent bonds depend on the nature of the atoms, i.e., metal element or non-metal element.
  • If one is metal and the other is non-metal, then it is an ionic bond, and if both of them are non-metals, then it is a covalent bond.

Explanation:

  • Since sodium chloride is formed by the transfer of electrons between the elements, therefore, it is an ionic compound.
  • Potassium nitrate is a salt with the formula KNO3. It is an ionic compound consisting of potassium ions K+ and nitrate ions NO3NO_{3}^{-}.
  • Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is a nonpolar covalent compound because the electrons shared by the carbon and chlorine atoms are nearly at the center of the bond.
  • Calcium sulfate is a compound with the chemical formula of CaSO4. It is made up of a calcium cation (Ca2+) and a sulfate anion (SO42SO_{4}^{2-}).
  • When a compound is made up of a metal cation and a polyatomic anion, the compound is considered to be ionic.

Conclusion:

Thus, CCl4 is a covalent compound among the given options.

89

The molecular formula of cyclopentane is C5H10. In its structure there are

  1. ((a))

    13 single and 1 double bond.

  2. ((b))

    12 single and 1 double bond.

  3. ((c))

    15 single bonds only.

  4. ((d))

    10 single and 2 double bonds.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15 single bonds only.

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • Cyclopentane is an alicyclic compound with formula C5H10
  • Cyclopentane is a highly flammable alicyclic hydrocarbon that consists of a ring of five carbon atoms each bonded with two hydrogen atoms above and below the plane.

Explanation:

  • As it is clear from the name, cyclopentane is the cyclic form of hydrocarbons (alkane ).
  • To make cyclopentane from an n-pentane, two hydrogen atoms are removed in order to form a ring or cyclic form.
  • CH3-CH2-CH2- CH2-CH3 (n-pentane)
  • -pentane (n means normal)
  • Now for making a ring or cyclopentane we will remove the 2-  hydrogen atoms of CH3 on either side of the straight chain of n-pentane to bent both sides to make a ring structure as:

                   

  • Now from this structure, it is clear that in cyclopentane, there are 5 carbon, and 10 hydrogens and each carbon is connected with other carbon by a single bond.
  • Thus, in total there are 15 single bonds.

Conclusion:

Thus, in cyclopentane, there are 15 single bonds only.

90

Consider the four carbon compounds A, B, C and D given below :

 

Select the correct statement about their compounds from the following :

  1. ((a))

    Addition of KMnO4 changes D to C

  2. ((b))

    B cannot be obtained from C

  3. ((c))

    A and C are saturated hydrocarbons

  4. ((d))

    Addition of hydrogen in the presence of catalysts such as palladium converts B to A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Addition of hydrogen in the presence of catalysts such as palladium converts B to A

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • The process of adding hydrogen to an unsaturated compound is called hydrogenation.
  • The conversion of ethene into ethane is an example of (hydration, hydrogenation).
  • The catalyst used in the Hydrogenation process is Platinum, Palladium, and Nickel.

Explanation:

  • Compound B is an unsaturated alkene with molecular formula C2H4 and ethane (compound A) is a saturated hydrocarbon with formula C2H6.
  • The conversion of ethene to ethane takes place by hydrogenation process which is carried out by the following catalyst:
  • Raney nickel at room temperature
  • Pd/Pt at ordinary temperature and pressure.
  • H2C=CH2PdCH3CH3H_{2}C=CH_{2}\overset{Pd}{\rightarrow}CH_{3}-CH_{3}

Conclusion:

Thus, the addition of hydrogen in the presence of catalysts such as palladium converts B to A is only the correct statement.

91

The formula of a carbon compound X is C2H6O which is used as an antifreeze in car fuels. This compound on oxidation produces compound Y which on being treated with baking soda solution gives effervescence. X and Y respectively are

  1. ((a))

    methanol and methanoic acid

  2. ((b))

    ethanol and ethanal

  3. ((c))

    ethanol and ethanoic acid

  4. ((d))

    ethanone and ethanoic acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ethanol and ethanoic acid

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • Alcohol which is used as an anti-freeze compound is ethylene glycol where the temperature is very low.
  • In this condition, it decreases the freezing point of the substance.
  • Mixing baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) and vinegar (acetic acid) cause a chemical reaction that produces salt (sodium acetate) and water, as well as carbon dioxide gas.

Explanation:

  • When carboxylic acid reacts with baking soda solution(NaHCO3), gives effervescence.
  • As from the question, compound Y gives effervescence, so it must be a carboxylic acid.
  • Thus, X must be alcohol because alcohols on oxidation give acid.
  • So, X, C2H6O is alcohol with formula C2H5OH (ethanol).

C2H5OHEthanol,X+2[O]KMnO4AlkalineCH3COOHAceticacid,Y+H2O\underset{Ethanol, X}{C_{2}H_{5}OH} + 2[O]\xrightarrow[KMnO_{4}]{Alkaline}\underset{Acetic acid,Y}{CH_{3}COOH} + H_{2}O

  • Acetic acid reacts with baking soda to give effervescence due to the evolution of CO2 gas.

CH3COOH+NaHCO3CH3COONa+H2O+CO2CH_{3}COOH + NaHCO_{3}\rightarrow CH_{3}COONa +H_{2}O +CO_{2}

Conclusion:

Thus, X and Y respectively are ethanol and ethanoic acid.

92

Which of these statements is not true for Mendeleev’s Periodic Table?

  1. ((a))

    Elements were arranged on the basis of increasing atomic mass.

  2. ((b))

    Anomalies regarding atomic mass were removed.

  3. ((c))

    No place for elements yet to be discovered.

  4. ((d))

    No proper place for Hydrogen.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

No place for elements yet to be discovered.

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • Mendeleev created his periodic table on the basis of periodic law which states that the physical and chemical properties of any element are a periodic function of their atomic weights.
  • The use of atomic weights also helped Mendeleev in correcting the atomic weights of a few elements.
  • Mendeleev could not explain the position of isotopes in his periodic table and hence, their positions were uncertain.

Explanation:

  • Mendeleev arranged the elements in order of their atomic masses while taking chemical properties into consideration.
  • It was also observed that there occurs a periodic recurrence of elements with similar physical and chemical properties.
  • He left some gaps predicting that some elements will be discovered later.
  • When inert gases were discovered, they could be placed in a new group without disturbing the existing table.
  • Hydrogen had no fixed position in Mendeleev's Periodic Table because it resembles alkali metals by forming positive ions and resembles halogens by forming a diatomic molecule.

Conclusion:

 Thus, option 3 is not true for Mendeleev’s Periodic Table.

93

The part of alimentary canal which receives bile from the liver is

  1. ((a))

    Oesophagus

  2. ((b))

    Stomach

  3. ((c))

    Large intestine

  4. ((d))

    Small intestine

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Small intestine

Concept:

Parts of Human Alimentary Canal

  • Mouth
  • It is the part where the food is ingested.
  • The buccal cavity of mouth consists of the tongue and the teeth.
  • Pharynx
  • It forms the common passage for food and air.
  • Oesophagus
  • It is a muscular tube through which the food in the form of small bolus passes from the mouth to the stomach.
  • The movement of food into the stomach is controlled by the gastro-oesophageal sphincter.
  • Stomach
  • Stomach is the J shaped muscular bag which is located at the upper left part of the abdominal cavity.
  • It has four parts - cardiac, fundus, body and pyloric portion.
  • Small intestine
  • It is the longest part of the alimentary ,that can be divided into three parts - Duodenum, Jejunum and Ileum.
  • The opening of stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the pyloric sphincter.
  • Large Intestine
  • The small intestine opens into the large intestine.
  • It has three parts - Caecum, Colon and Rectum.

Important Points

  • Liver is the largest gland of the body
  • The cells of the liver are called the hepatic cells and arranged in the form of cords in the hepatic lobule.
  • Hepatic lobules form the structural and functional unit of liver.
  • The bile is secreted by the hepatic cells.
  • This bile passes through the hepatic ducts and is then stored and concentrated in the gall bladder.
  • The duct of gall bladder along with the hepatic duct form the common bile duct
  • The bile duct joins the pancreatic duct and forms the hepato-pancreatic duct.
  • The common hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum of the small intestine.
  • This common duct is guarded by **sphincter of Oddi.**​
94

Consider the following statements :

A. Energy is essential for life processes

B. Organisms grow with time

C. There is no movement of molecules among cells

D. Organisms repair and maintain their body structure

The correct statements are :

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and D

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and D

Key Points

Statement A: CORRECT

  • Energy is the the strength and vitality required for carrying out physical or mental activity.
  • This required energy is obtained from the metabolism of the food (carbohydrates, lipids and proteins) that is taken in.
  • Energy is the major factor for all the life processes to occur in an organism.

Statement B: CORRECT

  • Increase in mass and increase in the number, both are the characteristic of growth.
  • With time, all the living organisms either grow in size or else unicellular organisms increase in number by division

Statement C: INCORRECT

  • Different molecules are transported from one cell to another in the living organism.
  • This movement of molecules also help in proper functioning of the tissues and ultimately the whole body
  • The molecules move in and out of the cell through different transport proteins present in the plasma membrane, based on which transportation can be of two types:
  • Active transport
  • Passive transport
  • The movement of molecules such as gases can also occur through the process of simple diffusion.

Statement D: CORRECT

  • All the living organisms always try to repair the damaged cells and tissues.
  • The body always tries to keep the organs and tissues intact and maintain the body structure.
  • New cells and tissues are continuously formed to replace the older, or damaged cells.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

95

Consider the following statements about the events that occur during photosynthesis :

A. Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates

B. Oxidation of carbon to CO2

C. Absorption of photons (light energy) by chlorophyll

D. Conversion of light energy to chemical energy

The correct statements are :

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, C and D

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, C and D

Concept:

  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms convert light energy into chemical energy is known as Photosynthesis.
  • The process of photosynthesis takes in the presence of chlorophyll which is green color pigment present in the chloroplasts.
  • It takes place inside the organelle chloroplast.
  • Photosynthesis plays two major roles that are-
  • It is the primary source of food on this earth
  • It is responsible for the release of oxygen into the atmosphere.
  • The different phases of photosynthesis are:
  • Absorption of light
  • Transfer Of electrons
  • Production Of ATP
  • Carbon Fixation

Important Points The events that occur during photosynthesis are -

  • Chlorophyll present in the leaves absorb the light energy.
  • This breaks down water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen, oxygen is released out into the atmosphere.
  • The Light energy absorbed is converted into chemical energy.
  • Plants absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through the stomata, then enter the photosynthetic Calvin cycle.
  • This absorbed carbon dioxide is reduced and it leads to the formation of carbohydrates.
  • Therefore from the above explanation we can conclude that Statements A, C and D denote the events that occur during photosynthesis, while Statement B does not occur.

​Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

96

In human beings the posture and balance of the body is controlled by

  1. ((a))

    cerebellum

  2. ((b))

    cerebrum

  3. ((c))

    pons

  4. ((d))

    medulla

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

cerebellum

Key Points

  • The brain is a complex organ that controls all functions of the body.
  • Together, the brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system, or CNS.
  • The brain can be divided into three basic parts: forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
  • The forebrain consists of:
  • Cerebrum
  • Hypothalamus
  • Thalamus
  • The hindbrain consists of:
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Pons
  • Cerebellum

Explanation:

  • In human beings the posture and balance of the body is controlled by cerebellum.
  • It controls balance, coordination, movement, and motor skills.
  • It also plays a major role in cognition and language processing.
  • Cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain.
  • The superficial layer of cerebellum is called cerebellar cortex, which consists of the grey matter.

97

The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules within stylar tissue is due to

  1. ((a))

    chemotropism

  2. ((b))

    geotropism

  3. ((c))

    hydrotropism

  4. ((d))

    phototropism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

chemotropism

Important Points

  • The flower is the main reproductive organ of the angiosperms.
  • The parts of the flower.- Petals, sepals, stamens and carpels.
  • The main reproductive parts of the flower are Stamens and carpels.
  • They contain germ cells and are the parts responsible for gamete formation.

Stamen - 

  • It is the male reproductive organ
  • It consists of a stalk or filament and an anther at the tip.
  • Pollen grains are produced in the anther which is yellowish in colour.
  • These pollen grains are the ones which contain the male gamete inside them.

Carpel - 

  • The carpel forms the female reproductive organ.
  • It consists of three parts stigma, style and ovary.
  • The basal swollen part is called the ovary, which contains the ovules.
  • The middle elongated part extending from the top of the ovary is style.
  • The style ends to form a sticky terminal part called a stigma.
  • The ovule in the ovary contains the egg cell which is the female gamete.

Explanation:

  • The pollen grains are transferred from the stamen to the stigma through pollination.
  • The male gamete present inside the pollen grain or the germs cell reaches the ovary by passing through the pollen tube
  • The pollen tube is the one which provides the path for the male gamete to pass through and then fuses with the female gamete present in the ovary.
  • Growth of pollen tubes is a directional movement which takes place in response to the chemical secretions of the ovule.
  • Therefore the growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to chemotropism.
  • It is observed that Calcium plays a major role in the growth of the pollen tube in invitro conditions.

98

Consider the following statements :

A. Thyroxin regulates carbohydrates, proteins and fat metabolism of the body

B. Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin

C. Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone

D. Thyroid glands require iodine for the synthesis of thyroxin

The correct statements are :

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, C and D

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, C and D

Concept:

  • A complex network of glands and organs form the endocrine system of our body
  • Endocrine glands are ductless glands and they pour their secretions directly into the blood.
  • These secretions are known as Hormones.
  • Hormones are chemical messengers that coordinate different functions in our body by carrying messages through the blood to different organs.
  • These hormones are produced in trace amounts.
  • The major glands that make up the endocrine system are:
  • hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid gland, adrenals, pineal body, pancreas, the ovaries and the testes.
  • These major glands produce different hormones which are responsible for different functions.

Important PointsThyroid gland and its hormones

  • The thyroid gland is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
  • The follicle tissue secrete two hormones-
  • Tetraiodothyronine or thyroxine (T4)
  • Triiodothyronine (T3)
  • Iodine is very essential for the thyroid gland to produce hormone at a normal rate.
  • Thyroid hormones play a very important role in regulating the body’s basal metabolic rate, heart and digestive functions, muscle control, brain development and maintenance of bones.
  • It controls the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
  • They also play a role in the process of red blood cell formation.
  • Therefore, from the above explanation we can conclude that Statements A, C and D are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

99

Two pea plants, one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce plants of F1 generation that have round yellow (RrYy) seeds. When the plants of F1 generation were self-pollinated, the two new combinations of characters obtained in the plants of F2 generation were

  1. ((a))

    (Round, yellow) and (Round, green)

  2. ((b))

    (Round, yellow) and (Wrinkled, green)

  3. ((c))

    (Wrinkled, yellow) and (Round, green)

  4. ((d))

    (Wrinkled, yellow) and (Wrinkled, green)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(Round, yellow) and (Wrinkled, green)

Concept:

  • Mendel proposed some laws to explain his understanding of inheritance.
  • Today, these are called the Principles or Laws of Inheritance.
  1. ​Law of Dominance - 
  • It is used to explain the expression of only the dominant character in a monohybrid cross in the F1 generation and the expression of both dominant and recessive in the F2 generation.
  1. Law of segregation - 
  • ​It states that the alleles do not show any blending.
  • During gamete formation, the alleles segregate and pass equally and both the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation.
  1. Law of Independent Assortment - 
  • It states that during gamete formation, one pair of traits segregates from another pair of traits independently.

Important Points

  • In pea plants:
  • The yellow color (Y) seed is dominant over the green color seed (y)
  • The round seed (R) is dominant over the wrinkled seed (r).

Therefore:

  • Wrinkled yellow seeded pea plant can be denoted as - rrYY
  • Round green seeded pea plant can be denoted as - RRyy
  • So, the gametes produced will be rY and Ry.
  • When these are crossed the F1 progeny would be RrYy (Round Yellow).

When the plants of F1 generation were self-pollinated:

  • The gametes produced by the F1 generation plants can be- RY, rY, Ry, ry.

Schematic representation of mendelian dihybrid cross - Brainly.in

  • The phenotypic ratio produced is 9: 3: 3: 1.
  • Here - 
  • 9 - Round yellow
  • 3 - Round green
  • 3 - Wrinkled yellow
  • 1 - Wrinkled green
  • Therefore, in F2 generation two new combination of seeds Round yellow and wrinkled green seeds would be produced that differ from the parent type.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

100

Consider the following statements :

A. Variation is minimum in sexual reproduction

B. Change in genetic composition results in variation

C. All variations in a species have equal chance of survival

D. Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes

The correct statements are

  1. ((a))

    A and C only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A and D only

  4. ((d))

    B and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B and D only

Key Points

Statement A: INCORRECT

  • In sexual reproduction, as the offspring inherit one set of chromosomes from each parent recombination of the genetic material of both the parents take place.
  • This results in genetic variations.
  • In asexual reproduction, as only one parent is involved, the offspring are almost identical to their parents and they do not show much variations.

Statement B: CORRECT

  • Genetic variations can arise from mutations or through genetic recombination.
  • Genetic recombination takes place during sexual reproduction in an organism.
  • A mutation is a sudden change in the DNA sequence of an organism.

Statement C: INCORRECT

  • According to Charles Darwin, the survival of the fittest is the best mechanism by which natural selection occurs.
  • Organisms having genes better suited to the environment survive better and reproduce better.
  • This leads to their selection by nature.
  • Thus, all variations do not have equal chance of survival.

Statement D: CORRECT

  • Organisms having genes better suited to the environment survive better and reproduce better.
  • These variations are then passed on to the next generation, leading to evolution.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

101

Select from the following, a medium having mass density and optical density, both lesser than those of water.

  1. ((a))

    Alcohol

  2. ((b))

    Benzene

  3. ((c))

    Kerosene

  4. ((d))

    Ice

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ice

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • Physical density would be the ratio of mass to volume, and optical density measures the speed of light while passing through an optically dense medium.
  • Optical density is a property of a transparent material that measures the speed of light through the material.

Explanation:

  • Ice is less denser than water because in ice the molecules arrange themselves in a rigid tetrahedral structure due to which cage-like spaces remain in their bonding.
  • But water molecules remain in linear bonding form. As the volume of ice becomes greater, it is less denser.
  • Ice has a density of 0.917 g/cm³ at 0 °C, whereas water has a density of 0.9998 g/cm³ at the same temperature.
  • So, ice has a lower optical density than water.

Conclusion:

 Thus, ice has mass density and optical density, both lesser than those of water.

102

A ray of light propagating through medium A enters another medium B such that the angle of incidence and angle of refraction are α and β. Given that sin α = (1x)({1\over x}) and sin β = (1y)({1\over y}), the refractive index of medium A with respect to medium B is

  1. ((a))

    xyx\over y

  2. ((b))

    yxy\over x

  3. ((c))

    xy

  4. ((d))

    1xy1\over xy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

xyx\over y

Concept:

Refractive index:

  • It is the ratio between the speed of light in air to the speed in a medium.
  • Formula, refractive index, μ=cvμ =\frac{c}{v}
  • In terms of the wavelength, it is equal to the ratio of the wavelength of light in air to the wavelength of light in the medium.
  • Formula, μ=λ0λμ =\frac{λ_0}{λ} where, λ0 = wavelength in the air, λ = wavelength in the medium.

Snell's law:

  • Snell’s law gives the degree of refraction and the relation between the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction, and the refractive indices of a given pair of media.
  • Snell’s law is defined as “The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a constant, for the light of a given color and for the given pair of media”. Snell’s law formula is expressed as:

  • Formula, n1sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2

Calculation:

Given,

sin α = (1x)({1\over x}) and sin β = (1y)({1\over y})

α = angle of incidence, β = angle of refraction

Snell's law, n1sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2  

The refractive index of medium A with respect to medium B is,

n=n1n2=sinβsinαn=\frac{n_1}{n_2}=\frac{sin β }{sin\alpha}

n=1/y1/x=xyn=\frac{1/y }{1/x}=\frac{x}{y}

103

In case of human eye, when light rays falls on the eye, most of the refraction for the light rays occurs at the

  1. ((a))

    crystalline lens

  2. ((b))

    iris

  3. ((c))

    pupil

  4. ((d))

    outer surface of the cornea

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

outer surface of the cornea

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • The cornea is a thin membrane through which light is entered.
  • The incident light rays are bent due to the cornea and are converged which results in image formation at the retina.
  • The eye's natural (crystalline) lens also bends light rays.

Explanation:

  • Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea.
  • It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the eyeball most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea, the crystalline lens merely provides the linear adjustment of the focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina.
  • Iris which is behind the cornea controls the size of the pupil.
  • The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.

Conclusion:

Thus, in the case of the human eye, when light rays fall on the eye, most of the refraction for the light rays occurs at the outer surface of the cornea.

104

A student-focused the image of a candle flame on a screen using a convex lens. He noted down the positions of the candle, screen, and lens on the scale as under :

Position of candle = 10.0 cm

Position of lens = 50.0 cm

Position of screen = 90.0 cm

The power of the lens is

  1. ((a))

    2.5 D

  2. ((b))

    5.0 D

  3. ((c))

    10.0 D

  4. ((d))

    20.0 D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5.0 D

Concept:

Lens:

  • A lens is a transmissive optical device that focuses or disperse light beam using refraction.
  • Two types of lenses: Concave lens and convex lens
  • Concave lens: It is flat in the middle and thicker at the edge. It is also known as a diverging lens because it bends the parallel light rays outwards and diverges them at the focal point.

  • Convex lens: It is thick in the middle and thinner in the edge. This lens is also known as a converging lens because it converges all light at a point called the focus.

  • The working principle of the lens is the law of refraction.
  • The total power of the two lenses when placed in contact, P = P+ P2
  • The power of the lens is inversely proportional to its focal length, P=1fP=\frac {1}{f}

​Lens Formula: 1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u} where, f = focal length, v = image distance, u = object distance

Calculation:

Given,

Position of candle = 10.0 cm, Position of lens = 50.0 cm, Position of screen = 90.0 cm

Object distance, u = 50 - 10 = - 40 cm (-ve sign is there because the given lens is Convex)

Image distance, v = 90 - 50  = 40 cm

From the lens formula,

1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}

Power, P=1fP=\frac{1}{f}

P=140140=10020=5 DP=\frac{1}{40}-\frac{1}{-40}=\frac{100}{20}=5~D

Hence, the power of the lens is +5 D.

105

A person is using lenses of power +2 D in his spectacles for both his eyes. It means the person is suffering from

  1. ((a))

    myopia and the focal length of the lenses used is 50 cm

  2. ((b))

    myopia and the focal length of the lenses used is 5.0 m

  3. ((c))

    hypermetropia and the focal length of the lenses used is 5.0 m

  4. ((d))

    hypermetropia and the focal length of the lenses used is 50 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

hypermetropia and the focal length of the lenses used is 50 cm

Concept:

  • The power of the lens, P=1fP=\frac{1}{f} where, f = focal length of the lens

Hypermetropia:

  • Hypermetropia is also referred to as hyperopia or long-sightedness, or far-sightedness.
  • Hypermetropia is the condition of the eyes where the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina.
  • Here, the light is focused behind the retina instead of focusing on the retina.

  • Hypermetropia is mainly caused due to certain structural defects in the retina. Structural defects include:
  • Small-sized eye-ball
  • Non-circular lenses
  • The cornea is flatter than usual
  • A convex lens is used for the correction of hypermetropia

Explanation:

Given,

power, P = +2 D,

So, focal length, f=1Pf=\frac{1}{P}

f=1002=50 cmf=\frac{100}{2}= 50~cm

<br>

​Therefore, the focal length is positive which is for a convex lens and a convex lens is used for the correction of hypermetropia. So, the person is suffering from hypermetropia.

Additional Information 

Myopia:

  • Myopia or Nearsightedness occurs when the eye loses its ability to focus on far-off objects as the lenses do not possess a long focal length.
  • Objects that are near are clearly visible to patients with this defect.
  • As we know, from the reference for countless ray diagrams describing the functioning of the eye, when the light suffers higher refraction than usual, the eye would not be able to form an image for faraway objects.

  • This eye defect is corrected with a concave lens.
106

In the filament of an electric bulb a current of 1 ampere flows for 16 seconds. The number of electrons that pass through a cross-section of the filament during this period is close to (charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb)

  1. ((a))

    1016

  2. ((b))

    1018

  3. ((c))

    1020

  4. ((d))

    1022

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1020

Concept:

​​Electric charge:

  • The property of subatomic particles that causes them to experience a force when placed in an electric and magnetic field.
  • Electric charges are of two types: Positive and Negative, commonly carried by charge carriers protons and electrons.
  • Quantisation of charge, q = ne, where q = charge, n = number of electron, e = electronic charge
  • The SI unit of charge is Coulomb (C).

Electric current:

  • It is defined as the charge per unit of time.
  • Formula, current, i=qti=\frac{q}{t}, where q = charge, t = time
  • The SI unit of current is Ampere (A).

Calculation:

Given,

Current, i = 1 A, time, t = 16 s

Charge, q = it

ne = it

n=iten=\frac{it}{e}

n=1×161.6×1019=1020 electronn=\frac{1\times 16}{1.6\times 10^{-19}}=10^{20} ~electron

Hence, the number of electrons is 1020 electron.

107

The potential difference between two points A and B is 6 V. The amount of work done in moving a charge of 3.0 coulombs from A to B is

  1. ((a))

    0.5 joules

  2. ((b))

    2.0 joules

  3. ((c))

    18.0 joules

  4. ((d))

    54.0 joules

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

18.0 joules

Concept:

  • The work per unit of charge is defined by moving a negligible test charge between two points and is expressed as the difference in electric potential at those points.
  • Formula,  work done, W = P.d × q where p.d = potential difference, q = charge
  • The SI unit of work done is Joule.

Calculation:

Given,

The potential difference between two points A and B, P.d = 6 V

Charge, q = 3.0 C

The work done in a moving charge, W = P.d × q

W = 6 × 3 = 18 Joule

Hence, the amount of work done in moving a charge is 18 Joule.

108

Select the correct statement about the circuit diagram given below :

  1. ((a))

    This circuit can not be used to study the relation between the potential difference and current

  2. ((b))

    The resistor, voltmeter and key are connected in series

  3. ((c))

    No deflection will be observed in voltmeter and ammeter

  4. ((d))

    The voltmeter is connected in parallel to the resistor whereas battery and ammeter are connected in series

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The voltmeter is connected in parallel to the resistor whereas battery and ammeter are connected in series

Concept:

Voltmeter:

  • Voltmeter which is also known as a voltage meter is an instrument that measures the voltage or potential difference between two points of an electronic or electrical circuit.
  • Usually, the voltmeter is used for Alternating Current (AC) circuits or Direct Current (DC) circuits.

  • For the measurement of voltage, the voltmeter should be connected in parallel.

Ammeter:

  • To measure the current, generally, the ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
  • This device is mainly used for measuring a small amount of current, and the current is measured in the milliampere or microampere range.

  • The device which is used to measure the current in milliamperes is known as a milliammeter, and the device for measuring extremely small electric currents, calibrated in microamperes is called a microammeter. In a circuit, the ammeter is represented by the letter “A”.

Explanation:

In the circuit diagram, the voltmeter is connected in parallel to the resistance, whereas the ammeter is connected in series.

109

Assuming that the change in temperature of a conductor is negligible during a change in current flowing through it, if the current flowing through the conductor is increased accidentally by 100%, the increase in the power dissipated in the conductor would be

  1. ((a))

    100%

  2. ((b))

    300%

  3. ((c))

    400%

  4. ((d))

    800%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

300%

Concept:

Power dissipation:

  • It is the process of loss of power in the form of heat due to primary action.
  • It is a naturally occurring process.
  • All the resistors that are part of the circuit and have a voltage drop across them will dissipate power.
  • The electrical power gets converted to heat energy, and therefore all the resistors will have a power rating.
  • The power rating is the maximum power that can be dissipated from a resistor without burning out.
  • Across the resistors, the power dissipation is, P = VI
  • Or, P = I2 R, where R = resistance, I = current

Calculation:

The current I through a resistor is increased by 100%.

Power is calculated as the product of voltage and current, which can further lead to, P = I2R

When the current through the resistor is increased by 100%, the new value of the circuit's current, indicated by I′, can be calculated as,

I' = I + 100% of I

I' =  2I

Then the power dissipated across the resistor can be calculated as,

P' = I'2 R

 P' = 4I2R

P' = 4P

When the current is increased by 100%, the power change is calculated as follows:

PPP=4PPP=3P\frac{P'-P}{P}=\frac{4P-P}{P} = 3P

Percentage, 3 × 100 = 300%

110

From the given V - I graphs for three resistors R1, R2 and R3 it may be concluded that

  1. ((a))

    R1 > R2 > R3

  2. ((b))

    R1 < R2 < R3

  3. ((c))

    R1 = R2 = R3

  4. ((d))

    R2 > R1 > R3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

R1 < R2 < R3

Concept:

Ohm's Law:

  • It states that the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided all physical conditions and temperature, remain constant.
  • Mathematically, current-voltage can be written as V = IR, where V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance

Explanation:

From Ohm's law, V = IR

Slope, R=VIR=\frac{V}{I}

So, V - I graph gives the value of resistance.

Therefore, the slope for R3 is maximum and the slope for R1 is minimum.

Hence, R> R> R1

111

In an electric circuit, two resistors of 4 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in series to a 12 V battery. The heat dissipated by an 8 Ω resistor in 10 s is

  1. ((a))

    160 J

  2. ((b))

    120 J

  3. ((c))

    80 J

  4. ((d))

    40 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

80 J

Concept:

  • Ohm's law: It states that the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided all physical conditions and temperature, remain constant.
  • Mathematically, current-voltage can be written as V = IR, where V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance
  • For equivalent resistance in series combinations
  • Req = R1 + R2 + - -
  • The heat dissipated by a resistor in a given time t is, H = I2 Rt, where I = current, R = Resistance, t = time

Calculation:

Given, Resistance, R1 = 4 Ω , R2 = 8 Ω,

Battery, V = 12 volt

The resistor is connected in series,

 

In series combination, Req = 4 + 8 = 12 Ω 

Current in the circuit, I=VR=1212=1 AI=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{12}{12}=1~A

The heat dissipated by 8 Ω resistor in 10 s is,

H = I2Rt

H = (1)2 × 8 × 10 = 80 J

Hence, the heat dissipated is 80 J.

112

In the circuit shown, the ratio of current I1 to current I, (I1I)({I_1\over I}) is

  1. ((a))

    151\over 5

  2. ((b))

    252\over5

  3. ((c))

    353\over5

  4. ((d))

    454\over5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

353\over5

Concept:

Resistance:

  • Resistance is the property of the substance to resist the flow of electric current through it.
  • The unit of resistance is Ohm.
  • Resistance, R=VIR = \frac VI

There are two types of combinations of resistance. 

  1. Series combination- In this type of combination, resistors are usually connected in a sequential manner one after another. The current through each resistor is the same.
  • Req = R1 + R2 + R3 + - - -
  • ΔR = ΔR1 + ΔR2 + - -

  1. Parallel combination - In this type of connection, the resistors are usually connected on parallel wires originating from a common point. In this case, the voltage through each resistor is the same.
  • 1Req=1R1+1R2+1R3+\frac {1}{R_{eq}}=\frac 1{R_1}+\frac 1{R_2}+\frac 1{R_3} +-- +....
  • ΔR=Req2(ΔR1R12+ΔR2R22+..)\Delta R = R^2_{eq} (\frac{\Delta R_1}{R^2_1} + \frac{\Delta R_2}{R^2_2}+..)

Calculation:

Three resistors are connected in parallel,

1Rp=1R1+1R2+1R3\frac 1R_p=\frac 1{R_1}+\frac 1{R_2}+\frac 1{R_3}

1RP=110+120+160\frac 1{R_P}=\frac 1{10}+\frac 1{20}+\frac 1{60}

RP = 6 Ω 

The equivalent resistance of the circuit, R = 6 + 24 = 30 Ω 

Current, I=1230=0.4 AI=\frac{12}{30}=0.4~A

The voltage drop across the resistance 24 Ω is 

V24 = 0.4 × 24 = 9.6 V

The current, I1=129.610=0.24 AI_1=\frac{12-9.6}{10}=0.24 ~A

the ratio of current I1 to current I, (I1I)({I_1\over I}) is,

=0.240.4=35 A=\frac{0.24}{0.4}=\frac{3}{5}~A

113

The circuit diagram in which the ammeter and voltmeter are connected properly is

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Concept:

Voltmeter:

  • Voltmeter which is also known as a voltage meter is an instrument that measures the voltage or potential difference between two points of an electronic or electrical circuit.
  • Usually, the voltmeter is used for Alternating Current (AC) circuits or Direct Current (DC) circuits.

  • For the measurement of voltage, the voltmeter should be connected in parallel.

Ammeter:

  • To measure the current, generally, the ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
  • This device is mainly used for measuring a small amount of current, and the current is measured in the milliampere or microampere range.

  • The device which is used to measure the current in milliamperes is known as a milliammeter, and the device for measuring extremely small electric currents, calibrated in microamperes is called a microammeter. In a circuit, the ammeter is represented by the letter “A”.

Explanation:

In the circuit diagram, the voltmeter is connected in parallel to the resistance, whereas the ammeter is connected in series.

114

A constant current of 2 A is flowing through a long thick copper wire held horizontally in east-west direction. If the direction of current in the wire is from west to east, the direction of the magnetic field produced would be from north to south directly

  1. ((a))

    above only at the mid-point of the wire

  2. ((b))

    below only at the mid-point of the wire

  3. ((c))

    above at all points of the wire

  4. ((d))

    below at all points of the wire

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

above at all points of the wire

**Concept:**​

  • Where i = current, r = distance from the wire, μ0 = permeability of vacuum, dl = length of wire and direction is in direction of the current.r\overrightarrow r is the position vector.
  • The direction of the magnetic field at a point P due to a long, straight wire can be found by a slight variation in the right- hand thumb rule.
  • If we stretch the thumb of the right hand along the long current and curl our fingers to pass through the point P, the direction of the fingers at P gives the direction of the magnetic field there.
  • A tangent to a magnetic field line gives the direction of magnetic field existing at that point.

  • A tangent

Explanation:

  • In the above question, the direction of current in the wire is from west to east, so right- hand thumb rule,
  • If we stretch the thumb of the right hand along the current and curl our fingers to pass through the point above at all points of the wire the direction of the magnetic field produced are from north to south directly.
  • For a long straight wire, the field lines are circles with their centers on the wire.
115

The magnetic field inside a long current-carrying solenoid

  1. ((a))

    decreases as we move towards the ends of the solenoid.

  2. ((b))

    increases as we move towards the ends of the solenoid.

  3. ((c))

    is zero along the axis of the solenoid.

  4. ((d))

    is the same at all points inside the solenoid.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

is the same at all points inside the solenoid.

Concept:

Solenoid:

  • The solenoid is a type of electromagnet, the purpose of which is to generate a controlled magnetic field through a coil wound into a tightly packed helix.
  • The magnetic field is formed around the coil when an electric current passes through it and draws the plunger in.

  • The magnetic field at the center of the solenoid, B = μ0 nI, where, n = number of turns per unit length, I = current

Explanation:

  • The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current is the same at all points.
  • It is because the magnetic field in the solenoid is constant because the lines are completely parallel to each other.
116

An electron enters a uniform magnetic field at right angles to it as shown. The direction of force acting on the electron is (consider the plane of the page to be horizontal)

  1. ((a))

    vertically upward

  2. ((b))

    vertically downward

  3. ((c))

    to the right

  4. ((d))

    to the left

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

vertically downward

Concept:

  • Magnetic fields exert forces on moving charges, and so they exert forces on other magnets,
  • The magnitude of the magnetic force on a moving charge is given by F=qvBsinθ\overrightarrow F =q v B sin θ
  • Where, q is the magnitude of the electric charge, in C, V is the magnitude of the velocity of the charge, in m/s, B is the magnitude of the external magnetic field (T) in which the charge is moving, θ is the angle between v and B.

The direction of the magnetic force on a moving charge is determined by using the Right-Hand-Rule

  • Place your right hand in the direction of v. Next, close your hand in the direction of B.
  • Your thumb points in the direction of the force on a positive charge.
  • The direction of the force on a negative charge is opposite to the direction of the force on a positive charge.

Explanation:

  • The direction of the magnetic force on a moving charge is determined by using the Right-Hand-Rule,
  • When we place our right hand in the direction of v. and close our hand in the direction of B.
  • Our thumb points in the direction vertically upward.
  • But the direction of the force on a negative charge is opposite to the direction of the force on a positive charge. and electron is a negative charge, so the direction of the magnetic force is vertically downward.

​ OR

<br>

From the palm rule, we can also calculate the force direction. If we point out the thumb direction in the direction of electron movement and the fingers in the direction of field direction, then the direction of palm gives the direction of force on the electron.

117

Consider the following statements :

A. Fleming’s left hand rule is used to determine the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field

B. The right-hand thumb rule determines the direction of magnetic field due to a straight current carrying conductor

C. In our country the direction of alternative current changes after every 0·02 second

D. Advantage of DC over AC is that the electric power can be transmitted to distant places without appreciable loss of energy

The correct statements are

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and D only

  4. ((d))

    A, B and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B only

Explanation:

Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule:

  • A current-carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field will experience a force by this conductor.
  • The direction of force acting on this conductor will depend upon the direction of the magnetic field and the current flowing through the conductor.
  • Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule can be used to find the direction of this current flow.

So, statement A is correct.

The direction of the magnetic field at a point P due to a long, straight wire can be found by a slight variation in the right- hand thumb rule.

  • If we stretch the thumb of the right hand along the long current and curl our fingers to pass through the point P, the direction of the fingers at P gives the direction of the magnetic field there.
  • A tangent to a magnetic field line gives the direction of magnetic field existing at that point.

So, statement B is correct.

The frequency of Alternating Current in India is 50 Hz. Since the current reverses every half revolution, current in India reverses every 1/100th or 0.01th of a second.

So, statement C is incorrect.

D: Long-distance transmission is generally more efficient with AC because transformers can step voltage up/down with low loss ⇒ lower current for a given power reduces I2R losses. (Note: modern HVDC has advantages for very long submarine/overhead links and interconnecting asynchronous grids, but that doesn’t overturn the basic AC advantage in conventional networks.)

So, statement D is incorrect.

118

In our country the major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is of

  1. ((a))

    converting nuclear energy into electrical energy

  2. ((b))

    establishing nuclear reactors

  3. ((c))

    splitting of nuclei

  4. ((d))

    safe disposal of the spent ‘fuel’ of the reactor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

safe disposal of the spent ‘fuel’ of the reactor

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • A nuclear reactor is driven by the splitting of atoms.
  • This process is called fission.
  • When a high-speed particle (generally the neutron) is fired into an atom. After this, the atom fissions into two smaller or low-mass atoms and a few neutrons.
  • These neutrons are also highspeed neutrons which in turn collide with other atoms making a chain reaction of fission.
  • With the help of a nuclear chain reaction, electricity is generated.

Explanation:

  • A major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is, how to dispose of its residue which is highly radioactive in nature.
  • The nuclear reactor is used to harness the nuclear energy released in the fission process.
  • The only problem with nuclear reactors is that we cannot just dispose of nuclear waste anywhere.
  • These nuclear wastes can do permanent damage to any living organism and the environment which are in direct contact with the waste.
  • Nuclear reactors produce high-level wastes or dangerous by-products which remain radioactive for a longer period of time.
  • It requires a proper waste disposal mechanism.

Conclusion:

Thus, in our country, the major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is of safe disposal of the spent ‘fuel’ of the reactor.

119

In the following food chain if the energy available to the organisms of the fourth trophic level is 15 J, the energy made available by the producer for the organisms of the immediate next trophic level is

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

  1. ((a))

    150000 J

  2. ((b))

    15000 J

  3. ((c))

    1500 J

  4. ((d))

    150 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1500 J

Important Points

  • The ten percent law is the law of energy transfer in a food chain.
  • It was given by Raymond Lindemann.
  • According to ten per cent law only 10 per cent of the energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.
  • Which means in a food chain, only 10 per cent of energy is transferred to the next trophic level.

Explanation:

Given: Energy at the fourth trophic level is = 15 J.

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

  • The energy at a third level trophic level is 10 times greater than the previous level i.e., 15 × 10 = 150 J.
  • Therefore the second trophic level will have 150 × 10 = 1500 J energy.
  • The first trophic level (producer) will have the energy of 15000 J.
  • There is decrease of energy flow in an ecosystem along with the food chain.
  • Only 10 percent of the energy present at each trophic stage is carried onto the next trophic level.

Confusion Points

  • The question is asking about the energy made available for the second trophic level (grasshopper), and NOT the first (producer - grass).
120

The pH of water sample collected from a river was found to be acidic in the range of 3.4 to 4.6. On the bank of the river were several factories that were discharging effluents into the river. The effluents polluting the river and disturbing the pH of water are most likely to be of 

  1. ((a))

    Soap and detergent manufacturing factory

  2. ((b))

    Lead battery manufacturing factory

  3. ((c))

    Alcohol distillery

  4. ((d))

    Plastic toys manufacturing factory

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lead battery manufacturing factory

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • The standard pH of river water before releasing any effluent to it is 5 to 8.5.
  • Lead is a major constituent of lead-acid batteries used extensively in car batteries.
  • The discharge of lead from battery manufacturing factories can lower the pH of river water by making it acidic.
  • An increase in the pH of river water is harmful to aquatic animals and plants.
  • Sulfuric acid is one of the major electrolytes used in lead industries that are highly acidic.

Explanation:

  • Lead battery manufacturing factory use acids in lead batteries which has lower pH and when discharged into nearby water bodies are more likely to lower the pH value of water.
  • The effluents from the lead industry are released into the river water and turn more acidic hence pH of river water reaches a value in the range of 3.4 to 4.6
  • Soap and detergent manufacturing factories release effluent in a permissible range of pH between 5.5 to 8.
  • Plastic toy manufacturing factories produce alkaline or basic effluent.
  • Alcohol distillery releases effluents that have a pH between the range of  5.5 to 6.5

Conclusion:

Thus, the effluents polluting the river and disturbing the pH of the water are most likely to be from Lead battery manufacturing factories.

General English & Hindi (20 questions)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options.

This was the kind of jail where we were to pass the rest of our life. The stout white man whom we had seen was the head of this establishment and had been in-charge of it from the time the new jail had been built. His name was Mr. Barry. He was a model jailor. He had spent the greater part of his life among the most notorious criminals of India, and had so much experience of their criminal tendencies that there was no place in his intellect for any of the ordinary human qualities.

Except the convicts, he could not mix with any other person, English or Indian; he did not like to go to them, nor did they like his society. The other petty officers selected from among the convicts — jamadars — cringed to him so much that he had come to regard himself almost as an emperor, and would say that within the jail he was the Great Lord. His twenty-five years’ life among the convicts had shaped his thoughts to resemble theirs. Day and night he would talk or crack jokes with them or hear their complaints about one another.

121

What was special about this jail?

  1. ((a))

    The jailor was a kind-hearted man.

  2. ((b))

    He was a worshipper of the Great Lord.

  3. ((c))

    This jail was built 25 years ago.

  4. ((d))

    It was built on the top of a hill.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

This jail was built 25 years ago.

The correct answer is: Option 3

Key Points

  • Explanation: The passage mentions that Mr. Barry had been in charge of the jail "from the time the new jail had been built" and further states that he had spent "twenty-five years’ life among the convicts."
  • This implies that the jail was built 25 years ago.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The jailor was a kind-hearted man: The passage does not describe Mr. Barry as a kind-hearted man. Instead, it emphasizes that he had no place in his intellect for ordinary human qualities due to his long experience with notorious criminals.
  • Option 2: He was a worshipper of the Great Lord: This option is incorrect because the passage only mentions Mr. Barry referring to himself as the "Great Lord" within the jail, not that he was a worshipper of the Great Lord.
  • Option 4: It was built on the top of a hill: The passage does not provide any information about the jail being built on the top of a hill.
122

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Mr. Barry was very popular among the criminals.

  2. ((b))

    He himself had once been a criminal.

  3. ((c))

    Living among the criminals had hardened him emotionally.

  4. ((d))

    His jamadars obeyed him very affectionately.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mr. Barry was very popular among the criminals.

The correct answer is 'Mr. Barry was very popular among the criminals'.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, Mr. Barry was very popular among the criminals.
  • It is mentioned in the second paragraph of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

123

Study the following statements:

A. Mr. Barry liked to visit other white men outside the jail.

B. He and his prisoners thought alike.

  1. ((a))

    A is correct and B is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    B is correct and A is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B are correct

  4. ((d))

    Both A and B are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B is correct and A is incorrect

The correct answer is 'B is correct and A is incorrect'.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, Jailor's twenty-five years’ life among the convicts had shaped his thoughts to resemble theirs.
  • So, we can say he and his prisoners thought alike.
  • This is mentioned in the last lines of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

124

Study the following statements:

A. The jailor was responsible for the congenial atmosphere in the jail.

B. He loved to crack jokes with the criminals.

C. Some of the convicts acted as officials too.

  1. ((a))

    A and B are correct, but C is incorrect.

  2. ((b))

    B and C are correct, but A is incorrect.

  3. ((c))

    A and C are correct, but B is incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    A and B are incorrect, but C is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B and C are correct, but A is incorrect.

The correct answer is 'B and C are correct, but A is incorrect'.

Key Points

  • The jailor was responsible for the congenial atmosphere in the jail is not mentioned in the passage.
  • He loved to crack jokes with the criminals and some of the convicts acted as officials too is mentioned in the second paragraph of the passage.
  • So, the statement B and C are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

125

‘The stout white man ....’. The underlined word does not mean the same as

  1. ((a))

    frail 

    ×

    duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 1,2

  2. ((b))

    unyielding

  3. ((c))

    hardy

  4. ((d))

    sturdy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

frail 

×

duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 1,2

The correct answer is 'Frail'.

Key Points

  • Stout means strong and thick. (मज़बूत और मोटा)
  • ​For example- He is tall, stout and black hair man.
  • Unyielding, Hardy, Sturdy are synonyms of Stout except Frail.
  • Frail means weak or not healthy. (दुर्बल या अस्‍वस्‍थ)
  • For example- Ram lay in bed looking particularly frail.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'. 

Additional Information

  • Unyielding means not giving way to pressure, hard or solid. (अडिग,अटल)
  • Hardy means strong and able to survive difficult conditions and bad weather.(शक्तिशाली और कठिन हालात तथा ख़राब मौसम को झेल लेने वाला)
  • Sturdy means strong and healthy.(हृष्‍ट-पुष्‍ट और स्‍वस्‍थ)
126

Which part of the following sentence has an error?

If you care (a) /  for geology (b) /  there is work for you (c) /  in the Himalayas to Ceylon (d) .

  1. ((a))

    (a)

  2. ((b))

    (b)

  3. ((c))

    (c)

  4. ((d))

    (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(d)

The correct answer is 'D'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is of Present Tense.
  • Preposition From is used to show when something starts.
  • In the given sentence  From will be used in place of in.
  • So, the sentence will be- If you care for geology there are work for you from the Himalayas to Ceylon.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

  • Preposition are words or phrases that are used before a noun or pronoun to show place, time, direction, etc.
  • For example- In, at, on, among, between etc.
127

Complete the sentence given below with the help of options that follow :

A working party has been set up to ______ the problem.

  1. ((a))

    look back

  2. ((b))

    look into

  3. ((c))

    look in

  4. ((d))

    look around

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

look into

The correct answer is 'Look into'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is of Present tense.
  • Look into is a phrasal verb which means investigate something. (पता लगाना)
  • ​**For example-**They set up a working party to look into the issue.
  • From the above option, the look into is appropriate fill up.
  • So, the sentence will be-A working party has been set up to look into the problem.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

  • Look back means to think about something in the past. (अतीत में कुछ के बारे में सोचने के लिए)
  • Look in means to visit a person for short time.(किसी व्यक्ति के पास थोड़े समय के लिए जाना)
  • Look around means walk round a place or building in order to view any interesting features.(खोज में रहना)
128

He could not write even a simple report.

In which of the following options has the VOICE in the above sentence been correctly changed?

  1. ((a))

    Even a simple report had not been written by him.

  2. ((b))

    A simple report was not written by him.

  3. ((c))

    A simple report can be written by him.

  4. ((d))

    Even a simple report could not be written by him.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Even a simple report could not be written by him.

The correct answer is 'Even a simple report could not be written by him'.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence modal verb is used.
  • The structure of modal verbs-
  • ​Active Voice- Subject + Modal verb + verb 1st form + Object.
  • Passive Voice- Object (subjective form) + Modal verb + be + Verb 3rd form + Subjective (objective form).
  • The passive voice of sentence will be-  'Even a simple report could not be written by him'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

  • Common rules of Voices are-
  • First, interchange the object and subject with each other.
  • Always third form of verb is used in passive voice.
  • Preposition by is used in passive voice.
  • For example- Active voice- She knits sweater. (Subject – She, Verb – Knits, Object – Sweater)
  • Passive voice- The sweater is knitted by her. (Object sweater is interchanged with the subject She).
129

He could not pull out with any other person.

In which of the following sentences has the above sentence been correctly improved?

  1. ((a))

    He could not pull into with any other person.

  2. ((b))

    He could not pull on with any other person.

  3. ((c))

    He could not pull for with any other person.

  4. ((d))

    He could not pull up with any other person.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

He could not pull up with any other person.

The correct answer is 'He could not pull up with any other person'.

Key Points

 

  • Correct Usage of "Pull Up": The verb "pull up" is correctly used in this sentence to mean "to stop or arrive at a place."
  • Context of Traveling or Moving: "Pull up" is often used in the context of traveling or moving with someone, which is appropriate in this sentence.

 

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "He could not pull into with any other person" is incorrect because "pull into" typically means to enter a place, not to move or travel with someone.
  • Option 2: "He could not pull on with any other person" is incorrect because "pull on" typically means to put on clothing or to exert force on something, not to move or travel with someone.
  • Option 3: "He could not pull for with any other person" is incorrect because "pull for" typically means to support or root for someone, not to move or travel with them.
130

Restructure the following parts into a correct sentence.

A. that has impressed

B. is the Indian people’s

C. one Indian virtue

D. me greatly and deeply

E. freedom from rancour

  1. ((a))

    C D A E B

  2. ((b))

    C A D B E

  3. ((c))

    B A D C E

  4. ((d))

    E B C D A

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C A D B E

The correct answer is 'CADBE'.

 Key Points

  • First statement is C because it is introductory statement.
  • Second statement is A because it is taking about the virtue.
  • Third statement is D because impressed will be followed by me.
  • Fourth statement is B because greatly and deeply is used for the virtue of Indian people.
  • Fifth statement is E lastly.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The correct sequence is - One Indian virtue that has impressed me greatly and deeply is the Indian people's freedom and rancour.

131

‘माता-पिता’ में समास है-

  1. ((a))

    तत्पुरुष

  2. ((b))

    कर्मधारय 

  3. ((c))

    द्वन्द्व

  4. ((d))

    बहुव्रीहि

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

द्वन्द्व

‘माता-पिता’ में समास है- द्वन्द्व 

  • ‘माता-पिता’ का समास विग्रह होगा - माता और पिता
  • जिस समास में समस्तपद के दोनों पद प्रधान हों या दोनों पद सामान हों एवं
  • दोंनों पदों को मिलाते समय ‘और’, ‘अथवा’, ‘या’, ‘एवं’ आदि योजक लुप्त हो जाएँ, वह समास द्वंद्व समास कहलाता है।
  • उदाहरण -
  • सुख-दुख = सुख या दुःख
  • गौरीशंकर = गौरी और शंकर
  • गुण-दोष = गुण अथवा दोष

Key Points 

तत्‍पुरूष:- - वह समास जिसमें उत्तरपद प्रधान होता है, अर्थात प्रथम पद गौण होता है एवं उत्तर पद की प्रधानता होती है व समास करते वक़्त बीच की विभक्ति का लोप हो जाता है। - इस समास में आने वाले कारक चिन्हों को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि का लोप होता है। उदाहरण- - शोकाकुल = शौक से आकुल - रसोईघर = रसोई के लिए घर - राष्ट्रगौरव = राष्ट्र का गौरव कर्मधारय:- - वह समास जिसका पहला पद विशेषण एवं दूसरा पद विशेष्य होता है अथवा पूर्वपद एवं उत्तरपद में उपमान - उपमेय का सम्बन्ध माना जाता है कर्मधारय समास कहलाता है। - समास विग्रह करते समय दोनों पदों के बीच में ‘के सामान’, ‘है जो’, ‘रुपी’ में से किसी एक शब्द का प्रयोग होता है। उदाहरण- - चरणकमल = कमल के समान चरण - नीलगगन = नीला है जो गगन - देहलता = देह रूपी लता बहुव्रीहि:- - वह समास जिसके समस्त पदों में से कोई भी पद प्रधान नहीं होता एवं दोनों पद मिलकर किसी तीसरे पद की ओर संकेत करते हैं वह समास बहुव्रीहि समास कहलाता है। उदाहरण- - त्रिलोचन = तीन आँखों वाला (शिव) - दशानन = दस हैं आनन जिसके (रावण) - चतुर्मुख = चार हैं मुख जिसके (ब्रह्म)

Confusion Points कर्मधारय और बहुव्रीहि समास में अंतर-

  • कर्मधारय समास में एक पद विशेषण या उपमान होता है और दूसरा पद विशेष्य या उपमेय होता है।
  • जैसे- नीलकंठ = नीला है जो कंठ- (कर्मधारय)
  • (‘नीलकंठ’ में ‘नीला**’** विशेषण है तथा कंठ विशेष्य है।)
  • बहुव्रीहि समास में समस्त पद ही किसी संज्ञा के विशेषण का कार्य करता है।
  • जैसे- ‘नीलकंठ’- नीला है कंठ जिसका अर्थात शिव (बहुव्रीहि)।
132

निम्नलिखित में व्यंजन संधि का उदाहरण है :

  1. ((a))

    रवीन्द्र

  2. ((b))

    देवर्षि

  3. ((c))

    पित्राज्ञा

  4. ((d))

    जगन्नाथ

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

जगन्नाथ

व्यंजन संधि का उदाहरण है - 'जगन्नाथ' 

  • संधि विच्छेद - जगत् + नाथ = जगन्नाथ (त् + न = न्न)
  • जगन्नाथ- संसार का स्वामी, ईश्वर।
  • जब संधि करते समय व्यंजन के साथ स्वर या कोई व्यंजन के मिलने से जो रूप में परिवर्तन होता है, उसे ही व्यंजन संधि कहते हैं।

उदाहरण-

  • दिक् + अम्बर = दिगम्बर
  • अभी + सेक = अभिषेक
  • दिक् + गज = दिग्गज
  • जगत् + ईश = जगदीश

Confusion Points व्यंजन संधि का नियम-

  • यदि किसी वर्ग के पहले वर्ण (क्, च्, ट्, त्, प्) का मेल न् या म् वर्ण से हो
  • तो उसके स्थान पर उसी वर्ग का पाँचवाँ वर्ण हो जाता है।

जैसे-

  • उत् + नयन = उन्नयन (त् + न = न्न)
  • षट् + मास = षण्मास (ट् + म = ण्म)

Key Points

रवीन्द्र- - रवि + इंद्र = रवीन्द्र (इ + इ = ई) - रवीन्द्र शब्द में दीर्घ संधि है। देवर्षि- - देव + ऋषि = देवर्षि (अ + ऋ = अर्) - देवर्षि शब्द में गुण संधि है। पित्राज्ञा- - पितृ + आज्ञा = पित्राज्ञा (ऋ + आ = र् + आ) - पित्राज्ञा शब्द में यण संधि है।

Additional Information

दीर्घ संधि:- - जब दो शब्दों की संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (अ, आ) हो तो ‘आ‘ बनता है, - जब (इ, ई) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ई‘ बनता है, जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ऊ‘ बनता है, तो उसे दीर्घ संधि कहते है। उदाहरण- - विद्या + अभ्यास = विद्याभ्यास (आ + अ = आ) - कवि + ईश्वर = कवीश्वर (इ + ई = ई) - वधु + उत्सव = वधूत्सव (उ + उ = ऊ) गुण संधि:- - जब संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ए‘ बनता है, जब (अ, आ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो - तो ‘ओ‘ बनता है, जब (अ, आ) के साथ (ऋ) हो तो ‘अर्‘ बनता है तो यह गुण संधि कहलाती है। उदाहरण- - महा + ईश = महेश (आ + ई = ए) - ज्ञान + उपदेश = ज्ञानोपदेश (अ + उ = ओ) - सप्‍त + ऋषि = सप्‍तर्षि (अ + ऋ = अर्) यण संधि:- - जब संधि करते समय (इ, ई) के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ‘य‘ बन जाता है, - जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ‘व‘ बन जाता है, जब (ऋ) के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ‘र्‘ बनता है, तो उसे यण संधि कहते है। उदाहरण- - अधि + अयन = अध्ययन (इ + अ = ) - अनु + एषण = अन्वेषण (उ + ए = वे) - मातृ + आज्ञा = मात्राज्ञा (ऋ + आ = र्)
133

निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा विलोमार्थी शब्द-युग्म सही नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    कर्म – सुकर्म

  2. ((b))

    गुरु – लघु

  3. ((c))

    गुप्त – प्रकट

  4. ((d))

    धूप – छाँह

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कर्म – सुकर्म

विलोमार्थी शब्द-युग्म सही नहीं है- 'कर्म – सुकर्म'

कर्म:-

  • अर्थ: काम, क्रिया, आचरण। ​
  • विलोम शब्द - 'अकर्म, निष्कर्म'
  • अर्थ: जो कोई कर्म न करता हो, निष्क्रिय।

सुकर्म:-

  • अर्थ: श्रेष्ठ या उत्तम काम, पवित्र कर्म।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'कुकर्म'
  • अर्थ: बुरा काम, निंदनीय और अशोभनीय कार्य।

Key Pointsगुरु:-

  • अर्थ: वज़नदार, दीर्घ, भारी।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'लघु'
  • अर्थ: छोटा, निम्न, कम, थोड़ा।

गुप्त:-

  • अर्थ: छिपाकर रखने वाला।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'प्रकट'
  • अर्थ: जो सामने हो, प्रत्यक्ष।

धूप:-

  • अर्थ: घाम, सूर्य का प्रकाश।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'छाँह'
  • अर्थ: ऊपर से छाया हुआ स्थान।
134

निम्नलिखित में ‘गगन’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    व्योम

  2. ((b))

    नभ

  3. ((c))

    अंबर

  4. ((d))

    नीरद

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

नीरद

‘गगन’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है- नीरद

  • 'बादल' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द - अभ्र, मेघ, धर, नीरद, जलधर, वारिधर, जलद, घन, पयोद, अम्बुद।
  • ‘गगन’ शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द - व्योम, शून्य, गगन, आकाश, अम्बर, आसमान, अंतरिक्ष, नभ, अनंत।

Key Points

  • जो शब्द समान अर्थ के कारण किसी दूसरे शब्द की जगह ले लेते हैं उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते है।

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

  • गृह - घर, निकेतन, भवन, आलय,निवास, गेह, सदन, आगार, आयतन, आवास, निलय, धाम।
  • जल - वारि, पानी, नीर, सलिल, तोय, उदक, अंबु, जीवन, पय, अमृत, मेघपुष्प।
  • नदी - सरिता, तटिनी, तरंगिणी, निर्झरिणी, आपगा, निम्नगा, कूलंकषा।
  • असुर - राक्षस, दैत्य, दानव, निशाचर, दनुज, यातुधान, निशिचर, रजनीचर।
  • हवा - पवन, वायु, समीर, अनिल, वात, मरुत्, पवमान, बयार, प्रकंपन।
  • साँप - सर्प, नाग, विषधर, व्याल, भुजंग, उरग, अहि पन्नग।
  • जंगल - वन, कानन, बीहड़, विटप, विपिन।
135

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में शुद्ध वाक्य है :

  1. ((a))

    वह खाना खा लिया क्योंकि भूखा था।

  2. ((b))

    तुम सारा दोष अपने सिर पर क्यों लेते हो?

  3. ((c))

    तुम सारा दोष अपने सिर क्यों लेते हो?

  4. ((d))

    तुम दोष सारा अपने सिर पर क्यों लेते हो?

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

तुम सारा दोष अपने सिर क्यों लेते हो?

शुद्ध वाक्य है**- 'तुम सारा दोष अपने सिर क्यों लेते हो?'**

  • यहाँ पर कर्ता, फिर कर्म और अंत में क्रिया का प्रयोग किया गया है।
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्य में लिंग, वर्तनी, वचन, कारक, सर्वनाम और क्रिया आदि का प्रयोग सही रुप में हुआ है।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प व्याकरण की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है

Key Points

  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - वह खाना खा लिया क्योंकि भूखा था।
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - उसने खाना खा लिया क्योंकि वह भूखा था। (सर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ)
  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - तुम सारा दोष अपने सिर पर क्यों लेते हो? (कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि)
  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - तुम दोष सारा अपने सिर पर क्यों लेते हो? (पदक्रम और कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि)

Additional Information

सर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ:- - हिंदी में कभी-कभी सर्वनामों के अशुद्ध रूप तथा अनुपयुक्त स्थान प्रयोग भी होते हैं। उदाहरण - - अशुद्ध वाक्य - तुम तो तुम्हारा काम करो। - शुद्ध वाक्य - तुम तो अपना काम करो। कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि:- - वाक्यों में कारक संबंधी गलत प्रयोग भी किए जाते हैं, जिस कारण वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है। - इन अशुद्धियों को कारक संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ कहा जाता है। उदाहरण - - अशुद्ध वाक्य - लड़की झूले पर से गिर गई। - शुद्ध वाक्य - लड़की झूले से गिर गई। पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धि:- - वाक्य में व्याकरण के अनुसार पदों का क्रमबद्ध होना बहुत अधिक आवश्यक है। - पदों के उचित क्रम में न होने पर उसके भाव या अर्थ में स्पष्टता नहीं रहती - और इसे वाक्य की पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ कहा जाता है। उदाहरण - - अशुद्ध वाक्य - भीड़ में चार पटना के व्यक्ति भी थे। 
अशुद्ध वाक्य - भीड़ में पटना के चार व्यक्ति भी थे।
136

‘जो कल्पना से बाहर की वस्तु हो’ के लिए एक शब्द है :

  1. ((a))

    अकल्पनीय

  2. ((b))

    अविवेच्य

  3. ((c))

    कल्पनातीत

  4. ((d))

    यथार्थ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

कल्पनातीत

‘जो कल्पना से बाहर की वस्तु हो’ के लिए एक शब्द है - 'कल्पनातीत'

Mistake Points

  • जिसकी कल्पना न की जा सके- ���कल्पनीय
  • सका विवेचन न किया जा सके - अविवेच्य
  • जैसा होना चाहिए, ठीक वैसा- यथार्थ

Key Points

  • अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द:-​

  • ऐसी जमीन जो अच्छी उत्पादक हो - उर्वरा
  • जो केवल एक आंख वाला हो - एकाक्ष
  • जिसकी बुद्धि बहुत तेज हो - कुशाग्र
  • आकाश को स्पर्श करने वाला - गगनचुम्बी
  • परंपरा से चली आ रही कथा - अनुश्रुति
  • जो दूसरे की उन्नति देखकर जलता हो - ईर्ष्यालु
  • जो ईश्वर में विश्वास रखता हो - आस्तिक
  • जिसका विभाजन नहीं किया जा सके - अविभाज्य
137

निम्नलिखित में ‘अपने पैरों पर खड़े होना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है :

  1. ((a))

    नौकरी करना

  2. ((b))

    स्वस्थ होना

  3. ((c))

    स्वावलंबी होना

  4. ((d))

    बहुत धन कमाना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

स्वावलंबी होना

‘अपने पैरों पर खड़े होना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है- स्वावलंबी होना

  • वाक्य प्रयोग - आकाश के माता पिता बहुत खुश हैं क्योंकि वह "अपने पैरों पर खड़ा हो गया है"।

Mistake Points

  • निन्यानबे के फेर में पड़ना - अत्यधिक धन कमाने में व्यस्त होना

           वाक्य प्रयोग- आजकल रामू सब कुछ भूलकर "निन्यानबे के फेर में पड़ा हुआ है"।

  • अन्न लगना - स्वस्थ होना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - उसे ससुराल का ही "अन्न लगता है"। इसलिए तो वह वहीं का हो गया।

Key Points

  • मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्य होता है
  • जो वाक्य की रचना करने पर अपना एक अलग अर्थ या विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करता है
  • इनका प्रयोग करने से भाषा,आकर्षक, प्रभावपूर्ण तथा रोचक बन जाती है।

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरा, अर्थ और उनके वाक्य प्रयोग:- 

  • कोढ़ में खाज होना- संकट पर संकट होना

          वाक्य प्रयोग- रामू को तो "कोढ़ में खाज हो गई है"- पहले वह फेल हो गया, फिर बीमार पड़ गया।

  • अंगारों पर लोटना - ईर्ष्या और जलन से कुढ़ना।

           वाक्य प्रयोग- सीमा के प्रमोशन की बात सुनकर उसका दोस्त राहुल "अंगारों पर लोटने लगा"।

  • गढ़ फतह करना- कठिन काम करना

          वाक्य प्रयोग - आई.पी.एस पास करके दीक्षा ने सचमुच "गढ़ फतह कर लिया"।

  • ईंट से ईंट बजाना- पूरी तरह से समाप्त कर देना

          वाक्य प्रयोग- यदि पकिस्तान भारत पर आक्रमण करने की कोशिश भी करेगा तो भारत की बहादुर सेना उनकी "ईंट से ईंट बजा देगी"।​

  • डूबते को तिनके का सहारा- थोड़ी-सी मदद

           वाक्य प्रयोग- मैंने मोहित की जब सौ रुपए की मदद की तो उसने कहा कि "डूबते को तिनके का सहारा" बहुत होता है।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उसके आधार पर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए :

कष्ट या हानि के भेद के अनुसार उत्साह के भी भेद हो जाते हैं। साहित्य-मीमांसकों ने इसी दृष्टि से युद्ध-वीर, दान-वीर, दया-वीर भेद किए हैं। इनमें सबसे प्राचीन और प्रधान युद्ध वीरता है, जिसमें आघात, पीड़ा क्या, मृत्यु तक की परवा नहीं रहती । इस प्रकार की वीरता का प्रयोजन अत्यंत प्राचीन काल से पड़ता चला आ रहा है, जिसमें साहस और प्रयत्न दोनों चरम उत्कर्ष पर पहुँचते हैं। पर केवल कष्ट या पीड़ा सहन करने के साहस में ही उत्साह का स्वरूप स्फुरित नहीं होता। उसके साथ आनन्द-पूर्ण प्रयत्न या उसकी उत्कंठा का योग चाहिए। बिना बेहोश हुए भारी फोड़ा चिराने को तैयार होना साहस कहा जाएगा, पर उत्साह नहीं।

138

गद्यांश के अनुसार निम्नलिखित में सबसे प्राचीन भेद है :

  1. ((a))

    दया वीरता

  2. ((b))

    दान वीरता

  3. ((c))

    युद्ध वीरता

  4. ((d))

    सहनशीलता

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

युद्ध वीरता

गद्यांश के अनुसार सबसे प्राचीन भेद है- युद्ध वीरता 

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:- 
  • साहित्य-मीमांसकों ने इसी दृष्टि से युद्ध-वीर, दान-वीर, दया-वीर भेद किए हैं।
  • इनमें सबसे प्राचीन और प्रधान युद्ध वीरता है, जिसमें आघात, पीड़ा क्या, मृत्यु तक की परवा नहीं रहती ।

Key Points

  • युद्ध- रण, जंग, समर, लड़ाई, संग्राम रण, द्वंद्व।
  • वीरता- वीर होने का भाव, शूरता, बहादुरी।

Additional Informationदया:-

  • अर्थ: सहानुभूति, अनुकंपा, कृपा, रहम, कोमल व्यवहार।

दान:-

  • अर्थ: किसी को कुछ देने की क्रिया या भाव

सहनशीलता:-

  • अर्थ: सहनशील होने की अवस्था, भाव या गुण, संतोष, सब्र।
139

गद्यांश के अनुसार साहित्य मीमांसकों ने उत्साह के निम्नलिखित में से कितने भेद किए हैं?

  1. ((a))

    दो

  2. ((b))

    तीन

  3. ((c))

    चार

  4. ((d))

    पाँच

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

तीन

गद्यांश के अनुसार साहित्य मीमांसकों ने उत्साह के भेद किए हैं- तीन 

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:- 
  • कष्ट या हानि के भेद के अनुसार उत्साह के भी भेद हो जाते हैं।
  • साहित्य-मीमांसकों ने इसी दृष्टि से युद्ध-वीर, दान-वीर, दया-वीर भेद किए हैं।
  • इनमें सबसे प्राचीन और प्रधान युद्ध वीरता है, जिसमें आघात, पीड़ा क्या, मृत्यु तक की परवा नहीं रहती।

Key Pointsमीमांसा:-

  • वह गम्भीर मनन और विचार जो किसी विषय के मूल तत्त्व या तत्त्वों का ज्ञान प्राप्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।

मीमांसक:-

  • वह जो मीमांसाशास्त्र का जानकार हो और किसी बात की मीमांसा या विवेचन करता हो।
  • जैसे- रामानुज एक प्रसिद्ध मीमांसक थे।
140

साहस और प्रयत्न निम्नलिखित में से कहाँ चरमोत्कर्ष पर पहुँचते हैं?

  1. ((a))

    दान वीरता में

  2. ((b))

    दया वीरता में

  3. ((c))

    युद्ध वीरता में

  4. ((d))

    बिना बेहोशी के ऑपरेशन कराने में

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

युद्ध वीरता में

साहस और प्रयत्न चरमोत्कर्ष पर पहुँचते हैं- युद्ध वीरता में

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:- 
  • इनमें सबसे प्राचीन और प्रधान युद्ध वीरता है, जिसमें आघात, पीड़ा क्या, मृत्यु तक की परवा नहीं रहती।
  • इस प्रकार की वीरता का प्रयोजन अत्यंत प्राचीन काल से पड़ता चला आ रहा है,
  • जिसमें साहस और प्रयत्न दोनों चरम उत्कर्ष पर पहुँचते हैं।

Key Points

  • युद्ध- रण, जंग, समर, लड़ाई, संग्राम रण, द्वंद्व।
  • वीरता- वीर होने का भाव, शूरता, बहादुरी।

Additional Informationदया:-

  • अर्थ: सहानुभूति, अनुकंपा, कृपा, रहम, कोमल व्यवहार।

दान:-

  • अर्थ: किसी को कुछ देने की क्रिया या भाव

बेहोशी:-

  • अर्थ: जो होश में न हो,अवचेतन की अवस्था, अवचेतनता, मूर्छा।

ऑपरेशन-

  • अर्थ: चीरफाड़ करके इलाज करना।

English (10 questions)

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.

In the 1970s, India had just a few brands of two-wheelers and cars. The general feeling was that the blessed are the ones who own, ride or even travel as pillion riders on a scooter. I was so thrilled to travel as a pillion rider on my friend’s scooter that I requested him to teach me to drive one. Though it was a new scooter, he instantly agreed to teach me. In fact, I got tensed up about how I was going to learn without falling down or damaging the scooter or hitting anybody.

Believe me, I learnt driving within two days of a two-hour session with my friend. It’s because of his encouragement that I learnt it so fast. I was extremely thrilled that I was going to Chennai with a newly acquired skill.

It so happened that within a few days of my arrival in Chennai, my brother bought a new scooter and I became an expert driver from day one. My brother was happy with my newly acquired skill and encouraged me to go places solo or with him to help in his business.

Subsequently it so happened that I decided to pursue a sales career as my profession and the driving skill of both two- and four-wheelers helped me a lot in that profession. Starting point for all these developments was the first driving lesson by my dear friend.

141

Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. ((a))

    About 50 years ago only the rich owned a vehicle.

  2. ((b))

    You were lucky if a friend of yours had a scooter.

  3. ((c))

    The writer’s friend was very close to him.

  4. ((d))

    During those years imported scooters were freely available.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

During those years imported scooters were freely available.

The correct answer is 'During those years imported scooters were freely available'.

Key Points

  • The whole passage is based on the story of two wheelers during 1970s.
  • First three statements are mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage.
  • During those years imported scooters were freely available, this statement is not mentioned in the passage.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

142

Choose the option which is not true.

  1. ((a))

    The friend was hesitant to teach the writer how to drive a scooter.

  2. ((b))

    He allowed him to be a pillion rider.

  3. ((c))

    The writer was afraid he might damage the scooter.

  4. ((d))

    He was worried even about hitting somebody.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The friend was hesitant to teach the writer how to drive a scooter.

The correct answer is 'The friend was hesitant to teach the writer how to drive a scooter'.

Key Points

  • The friend was hesitant to teach the writer how to drive a scooter, this statement is not mentioned in the passage.
  • Other 3 statements or options are mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

143

Study the following statements :

A. Within a couple of weeks the writer learnt how to drive.

B. It was all due to the encouragement of his friend.

  1. ((a))

    A is right and B is wrong.

  2. ((b))

    B is right and A is wrong.

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B are right.

  4. ((d))

    Both A and B are wrong.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B is right and A is wrong.

The correct answer is 'B is right and A is wrong'.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, writer learnt driving within two days of a two-hour session by his friend.
  • And it was all due to the encouragement of his friend are mentioned in the second paragraph of the passage.
  • So, the first statement is wrong.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

144

Study the following statements :

A. The writer’s brother was financially well-to-do.

B. The writer helped him in his business.

C. After some time the writer purchased a four-wheeler.

  1. ((a))

    A and B are right but C is wrong.

  2. ((b))

    B and C are right but A is wrong.

  3. ((c))

    C and A are right but B is wrong.

  4. ((d))

    A and B are wrong but C is right.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B are right but C is wrong.

The correct answer is 'A and B are right but C is wrong'. 

Key Points

  • According to the passage, writer's brother bought a scooter in Chennai because his brother was financially well-to-do.
  • Both statement A and B is mentioned in the third paragraph of the passage.
  • Statement C is not mentioned in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

145

‘Subsequently it so happened .......’

The underlined word means the same as :

  1. ((a))

    thereafter

  2. ((b))

    formerly

  3. ((c))

    consequently

  4. ((d))

    actually

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

thereafter

The correct answer is 'Thereafter'.

Key Points

  • Subsequently means afterwards, after etc.(बाद में)
  • For example - The monk was subsequently venerated as a saint.
  • Thereafter means later on, afterwards etc. (तत्पश्चात)
  • For example- Thereafter, Rahul Gandhi did not speak.
  • From the above options, thereafter is similar to the word subsequently.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • Formerly means in the past. (अतीत में)
  • Consequently means that is why. (फलस्वरूप)
  • Actually means in fact , virtually etc. (वास्तव में)
146

Rearrange the following to form a meaningful and correct sentence.

A. that the election

B. the heat is

C. week away

D. on now

E. is only a

  1. ((a))

    A B D E C

  2. ((b))

    B D A E C

  3. ((c))

    A D B C E

  4. ((d))

    A E C B D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B D A E C

The correct answer is 'BDAEC'.

Key Points

  • First statement is B because it is the introductory statement.
  • Second statement is D because on now is used for heat.
  • Third statement is A because above phrase the heat is on now is used about the election.
  • Fourth statement is E because it is talking about the time of election.
  • Fifth statement is C lastly.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'BDAEC'.

The correct sequence is - The heat is on now that the election is only a week away.

147

‘He knocked at the door continuously.’

Choose the option in which VOICE in the above sentence has been correctly changed into Passive voice.

  1. ((a))

    The door was knocked at continuously by him.

  2. ((b))

    The door was continuously knocked by him.

  3. ((c))

    The door had been knocked continuously.

  4. ((d))

    The door has been knocked at.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The door was knocked at continuously by him.

The correct answer is 'The door was knocked at continuously by him'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is of Past Indefinite tense.
  • The structure of Past Indefinite tense-
  • Active voice- Subject + Verb 2nd form + Object.
  • Passive voice - Object (subjective form) + was/were + Verb 3rd form + by + Subject (objective form)
  • The passive voice of sentence will be -The door was knocked at continuously by him.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • Common rules of Voices are-
  • First, interchange the object and subject with each other.
  • Always third form of verb is used in passive voice.
  • Preposition by is used in passive voice.
  • For example- Active voice- She knits sweater. (Subject – She, Verb – Knits, Object – Sweater)
  • Passive voice- The sweater is knitted by her. (Object sweater is interchanged with the subject She).
148

Which part of the following sentence has an error in it?

There is a / (a) new Thai restaurant / (b) opened up / (c) in the city. (d)

  1. ((a))

    (a)

  2. ((b))

    (b)

  3. ((c))

    (c)

  4. ((d))

    (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(c)

The correct answer is 'C'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is of Present tense.
  • Open up means to talk about what you feel and think.
  • In the given sentence up will not be used with open.
  • So, the correct sentence will be- There is a new Thai restaurant opened in the city.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

149

Complete the following sentence with the help of given options.

He considers himself an expert ______ the subject.

  1. ((a))

    into

  2. ((b))

    in

  3. ((c))

    onto

  4. ((d))

    for

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

in

The correct answer is 'In'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is of Present tense.
  • Expert takes preposition in which means a person who has a lot of special knowledge or skill.(विषय का विशेषज्ञ)
  • Preposition In is used to indicate location or position within or inside something.
  • For example- R.K. Narayan was an expert in novel writing.
  • So, the sentence will be- He considers himself an expert in the subject.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'..

Additional Information

  • Into is used to indicate position in or inside something.
  • Onto is used with verbs to express movement on or to a particular place or position.
  • For is used to show who is intended to have or use something or where something is intended to be put.
150

Invective

Which of the following words does not mean the same as the one above?

  1. ((a))

    Adulation

  2. ((b))

    Profanity

  3. ((c))

    Curse

  4. ((d))

    Vilification

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adulation

The correct answer is  'Adulation'.

Key Points

  • Invective is a noun which means insulting, abusive or highly critical language. (गाली,भर्त्सना)
  • For example- He retorted the invective on her.
  • ​Adulation is a noun which means extreme admiration. (अत्‍यधिक प्रशंसा और आदर)
  • For example- The book was received with adulation by critics.
  • ​From the above options, adulation is appropriate antonym of Invective.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • Profanity means words that are offensive because of not respecting religion. (गालियां बकने की क्रिया)
  • Curse means a word used for expressing anger. (क्रोधव्‍यंजक शब्‍द)
  • Vilification means to criticize someone. (निंदा)

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