Official Paper

NVS TGT Science held on 28th Nov 2022 shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness (10 questions)

1

In 2022 India will be conducting military exercises 'Yudh Abhyas' with which of the following country ?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Pakistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

USA

The correct answer is USA

Key Points

  • Exercise Yudh Abhyas, conducted annually between India and USA with the aim of exchanging best practices, tactics, techniques and procedures between the Armies of the two nations.
  • Indian and US militaries to conduct the battalion-level “Yudh Abhyas” exercise between 15th November 2022 to 2nd December 2022.
  • The Yudh Abhyas will be held at Auli in Uttarakhand which from just 100 km from the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
  • In August, the US and Indian forces conducted the “Vajra Prahar” exercise at Bakloh in Himachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

CountriesExercises
JapanDharma Guardian, JIMEX
ChinaHand in Hand
2

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Vice President of India ?

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. He must be a member of Parliament.

B. He is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

C. He should not hold any other office of profit.

  1. ((a))

    A only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A and B only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B and C only

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

  • The constitution of India says that the Vice-President should not be a member of either the House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature.
  • Vice President shall be elected by an Electoral college through a system of Proportional Representation by means of a Single Transferable Vote and the voting should be by secret ballot.
  • He should not hold any other office of profit.

Additional Information

Vice President(VP)

  • VP is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
  • The Vice President shall act as President in case of any occurrence of vacancy due to death, resignation or removal.
  • Vice President can also act as President when the President is unable to discharge his function due to absence or illness.
  • In such a period Vice President will be entitled with all the immunities, powers and privileges of the President.

Election

  • Vice President shall be elected by an Electoral college through a system of Proportional Representation by means of a Single Transferable Vote and the voting should be by secret ballot.
  • The electoral college consists of members of both houses of the Parliament.
  • The Vice President shall not be a member of any house of the Parliament.

Qualification

  • He must be a citizen of India.
  • Completed the age of 35 years.
  • qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
  • must not hold the office of profit.

Term

  • Vice President can hold the office for a term of 5 years.
  • He can resign addressed to President.
  • He can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of states passed by the Majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People for which 14 day's notice period is required.
  • Vice President continue to hold his office until his successor comes.
  • The election for Vice President must be conducted before the expiration of the Term.
  • In case of death, resignation or removal it should be conducted as soon as possible.
3

When is National Milk Day celebrated in India ?

  1. ((a))

    26th November, 2022

  2. ((b))

    26th December, 2022

  3. ((c))

    26th October, 2022

  4. ((d))

    26th September, 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26th November, 2022

The correct answer is 26th November, 2022.

Key Points

  • Every year, National Milk Day is celebrated on November 26 across India.
  • The largest milk-producing country celebrates this day to demonstrate the importance of milk in everyone's life.
  • It is celebrated to commemorate the birthday of the father of India’s White Revolution, Dr. Verghese Kurien (also nicknamed Milkman of India).

Additional Information

  • World Milk Day is observed on 1 June every year by the United Nations.
  • The theme of World Milk Day is Drink Milk: Today & Everyday.
  • The first National Milk Day was celebrated on 26 November 2014 where various milk producers from 22 states participated.
4

Which of the following organisation is going to coordinate research funding with other funding agencies and work with scientists, engineers and other academics, to ensure the synergy of purpose and avoid duplication of efforts as per the NEP 2020 ?

  1. ((a))

    University Grants Commission

  2. ((b))

    National Department of Science and Technology

  3. ((c))

    National Research Foundation

  4. ((d))

    Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

National Research Foundation

The correct answer is National Research Foundation

Key Points

 National Research Foundation

  • The NRF is an independent statutory body established through the National Research Foundation Act (Act No 23 of 1998), following a system-wide review conducted for the Department of Arts, Culture, Science and Technology (DACST).
  • The new entity incorporated the functions of the research funding agencies that were previously servicing various sections of the research community, namely the former Centre for Science Development (CSD) of the Human Sciences Research Council (HSRC) and the former Foundation for Research Development (FRD) that included several National Research Facilities.

Indian Council of Agricultural Research

  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare , Government of India.
  • Formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
  • The ICAR has its headquarters at New Delhi.
  • The Council is the apex body for co-ordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country.
  • With 111 ICAR institutes and 71 agricultural universities spread across the country this is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world.
5

Who among the following won the gold medal in the women's flyweight (50-52 Kilogram) category at the Women's World Boxing Championship 2022 held in Turkey ?

  1. ((a))

    Mary Kom

  2. ((b))

    Jenny R.L.

  3. ((c))

    Sarita Devi

  4. ((d))

    Nikhat Zareen

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nikhat Zareen

The correct answer is Nikhat Zareen.

Key Points

  • India's Nikhat Zareen has won the gold medal in the 52kg category at the Women's World Boxing Championships.
  • She defeated Thailand's Jitpong Jutamas in the fly-weight final in Istanbul, Turkey on May 19.
  • With this win, Nikhat becomes only the fifth Indian women's boxer after Mary Kom, Sarita Devi, Jenny RL and Lekha KC to win a gold at the World Championships.

Additional Information

  • ​Women's World Boxing Championships is organised by the International Boxing Association.
  • The International Boxing Association is an independent sport organization.
  • It sanctions amateur boxing matches and awards world and subordinate championships.
  • The International Boxing Association:
  • Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
  • President: Umar Kremlyov
  • Founded: 1946
6

Which of the following ministries took the initiative of Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) ?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Education

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Science and Technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Education

The correct answer is Ministry of Education.

Key Points

  • Ministry of Education  took the initiative of Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA).
  • Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) is an initiative of Ministry of Education (MoE), Govt. of India to systematically rank all major higher educational institutions and universities in India on indicators related to “Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development” amongst students and faculties.
  • Major Indicators for consideration
  • Budget & Funding Support.
  • Infrastructure & Facilities.
  • Awareness, Promotions & support for Idea Generation & Innovation.
  • Promotion & Support for Entrepreneurship Development.
  • Innovative Learning Methods & Courses.
  • Intellectual Property Generation, Technology Transfer & Commercialization.
  • Innovation in Governance of the Institution.
7

Which of the following country was the world's largest exporter of major arms in 2017-21, as per 'Trends in International Arms Transfers, 2021' the latest fact sheet of the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute ?

  1. ((a))

    China

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    Russia

  4. ((d))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

USA

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

  • USA  was the world's largest exporter of major arms in 2017-21, as per 'Trends in International Arms Transfers, 2021' the latest fact sheet of the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute.
  • The volume of international transfers of major arms in 2017–21 was 4.6  per  cent lower than in 2012–16, but was 3.9  per  cent higher than in 2007–11.
  • The five largest arms exporters in 2017–21 were the United States, Russia, France, China and Germany.
  • The five largest arms importers were India, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Australia and China.
  • Between 2012–16 and 2017–21 there were increases in arms transfers to Europe (19 per cent) and to the Middle East (2.8 per cent), while there were decreases in the transfers to the Americas (–36 per cent), Africa (–34 per cent), and Asia and Oceania (–4.7 per cent).

Additional Information SIPRI

  • SIPRI provides data, analysis and recommendations for armed conflict, military expenditure and arms trade as well as disarmament and arms control.
  • Following are the important details about SIPRI.              1. SIPRI Headquarters: Oslo, Norway.
                 2. SIPRI Founded: 6 May 1966.
                 3. SIPRI​ Director: Dan Smith.
8

Which of the following is the aim of the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 ?

  1. ((a))

    To hasten green transition

  2. ((b))

    To conserve groundwater level

  3. ((c))

    To enhance usage of fossil resources

  4. ((d))

    To prohibit carbon emission

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

To prohibit carbon emission

The correct answer is To prohibit carbon emission.

 In News

  • The aim of the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022  is to prohibit carbon emission.
  • It provides for the regulation of energy consumption by equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries.
  • The Electricity conservation act, 2001 which was last amended in 2010 is now being reformed in order to introduce changes inculcating clean energy as a major source of energy production.

Highlights of the Bills

  • Obligation to use non-fossil sources of energy: Bill states that the government may require the consumers to meet a minimum share of energy consumption from non-fossil sources.
  • Carbon trading: Bill empowers the central government to specify a carbon credit trading scheme.
  • Energy conservation code for buildings: Bill provides for an ‘energy conservation and sustainable building code’ for green buildings.
  • Applicability to residential buildings: Bill provides the new energy conservation and sustainable building code which will apply to the office and residential buildings.
  • Under earlier Act, the energy conservation code applies to commercial buildings with certain criteria.
  • Standards for vehicles and vessels: Bill expands the scope to include vehicles (as defined under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988) and vessels including ships and boats.
  • Increase members in Governing Council of Bureau of Energy Efficiency.

Additional Information Significance of the bill

  • The bill facilitates in achieving Panchamrit principles initiated by India in COP-26 at the Glasgow summit, 2021.
  • It will help in promoting renewable energy and development of domestic Carbon market to fight climate change.
  • The changes will succor in reducing about 550 tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent by 2030.
  • It will pave way for introduction of new concepts such as Carbon trading and will help in adopting clean technologies.

Provisions in the Energy conservation act, 2001

  • The act led to the establishment of Bureau of Energy efficiency(BEE) which can specify qualifications required for energy auditors.
  • It empowers the Centre to specify norms and standards of energy efficiency for appliances, industrial equipment and buildings.
  • Consumers who consume excess energy can be penalized for the excess consumption.
  • The act allows centre to issue energy certificates to industries that consume less than their maximum allotted energy.
9

Who among the following won the Men's Singles title in the French Open held in June 2022 ?

  1. ((a))

    Novak Djokovic

  2. ((b))

    Rafael Nadal

  3. ((c))

    Casper Ruud

  4. ((d))

    Nicolas Mahut

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rafael Nadal

The correct answer is Rafael Nadal.

Key Points

  • Spaniard Rafael Nadal on 5 June 2022 won the 14th singles title of the French open beating Casper Ruud of Norway 6-3, 6-3, 6-0 in the final.
  • With this victory, 36-year-old Nadal has become the oldest champion of the French Open.
  • It is his 22nd Grand Slam title.
  • In women's singles, World Number One Iga Swiatek of Poland won the 2022 title by beating Coco Gauf in Paris on 4 June 2022.
  • | Grand Slam Title 2022 | Male Winner | Female Winner | | --- | --- | --- | | U.S. Open | Carlos Alcaraz | Iga Swiatek | | Wimbledon | Novak Djokovic | Elena Rybakina | | French Open | Rafael Nadal | Iga Swiatek | | Australian Open | Rafael Nadal | Ashleigh Barty
    |

Additional Informations

  • The French Open, also known as Roland-Garros, is a major tennis tournament.
  • It is held over two weeks at the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France, beginning in late May each year.
  • The tournament and venue are named after the French aviator Roland Garros.
  • ​The French Open:
  • Founded: 1891
  • Location: Paris, France
  • Surface: Clay – outdoors (1908–present); Sand – outdoors (1891–1907)
  • Japan's Ena Shibahara and Wesley Koolhof of the Netherlands won the French Open mixed doubles title on 2 June 2022.
10

Among the following physicists who was conferred the Templeton Prize in 2022 ?

  1. ((a))

    Andre Jim

  2. ((b))

    Frank Wilczek

  3. ((c))

    Vera Rubin

  4. ((d))

    Stephen Hawking

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Frank Wilczek

The correct answer is Frank Wilczek.

Key Points

  • Dr. Frank Wilczek, a Nobel Prize-winner theoretical physicist and author, receives the 2022 Templeton Prize.
  • The Templeton Prize, valued at more than $1.3 million, is one of the world’s largest annual individual awards.
  • Established by the late global investor and philanthropist Sir John Templeton, it is given to honor those who harness the power of the sciences.

Additional Information

  • The Templeton Prize was established in 1972 by John Marks Templeton, an American-born financial entrepreneur who sought to advance human knowledge of the universe through a broad set of intellectual approaches and an ecumenical perspective on spiritual progress.
  • Though the prize is considered by some to be the equivalent of a Nobel Prize for religion, recipients may be of any profession, and emphasis is often placed on work that explores the intersections between spirituality and science.

Reasoning Ability (10 questions)

11

Two statements are labelled below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the correct answer with the help of code.

Assertion (A) : Plaster of Paris is used for setting fractured bones by doctors.

Reason (R) : If Plaster of Paris is mixed with water and used around the fractured limb, it sets into a hard mass.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

The logic followed here is: 

Assertion (A) : Plaster of Paris is used for setting fractured bones by doctors.

→ True, Plaster of Paris is mixed with water and used around the fractured limb, it sets into a hard mass and keeps the bone joints in a fixed position, and is used for setting fractured bones.

Reason (R) : If Plaster of Paris is mixed with water and used around the fractured limb, it sets into a hard mass.

→  The Reason is the correct explanation of A, as Plaster of Paris is used for setting fractured bones.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A".

12

Three statements have been given, which are followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which of the conclusions is/are definitely true.

Statements: 

Q < W, 

D < Q, 

W = L

Conclusions:

I. D < W

II. L ≥ Q

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Given statement: 

Q < W, 

D < Q, 

W = L

On Combining: D < Q < W = L

Conclusions :

i) D < W →  FALSE (as D < Q < W = L gives; D < W → so it is definitely false).

ii) L ≥ Q →  FALSE (as D < Q < W = L gives; Q < L →so it is definitely false).

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II is true".

13

Find the missing term of the given series.

24, 96, 48, 192, ? , 384, 192

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    96

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    144

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

96

Given: 24, 96, 48, 192, ? , 384, 192

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "96".

14

Find the next term of the given series.

T, Y, D, I, ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

N

The logic follows here is:

Each letter is increased by +5.

Thus, the next term of the given series is 'N'.

Hence, the correct answer is "N".

15

A statement is given followed by two conclusions - I and II. Consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statement:

Indians prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer.

Conclusions:

I. Cotton clothes are more comfortable during summer.

II. India is a hot country.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion 1 follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion 1 follows

Statement:

Indians prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer.

Conclusions:

I. Cotton clothes are more comfortable during summer.

→ True, because cotton is a highly absorbent fabric and can easily absorb sweat from the skin during summer. Thus, cotton clothes are more comfortable during summer.

Thus, conclusion I follows.

II. India is a hot country.

→ False, because we cannot conclude that India is a hot country only because Indians prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer.

Thus, conclusion II does not follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

16

If North-West becomes South, South-West becomes East and so on, then South-East becomes

  1. ((a))

    East

  2. ((b))

    West

  3. ((c))

    North

  4. ((d))

    South

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

North

According to the given information:

If North-West becomes South, South-West becomes East and so on, then the new arrangement is:

Thus, South-East becomes 'North'.

Hence, the correct answer is "North".

17

Identify the Venn Diagram that best represents the relationship among three groups of people - Fathers, Sons, and Men.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Asper the given information:

The Venn Diagram that best represents the relationship among three groups of people - Fathers, Sons, and Men is as follows:

  • Fathers and Sons both are Men
  • Some Fathers are son and some sons are also fathers.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

18

A is the brother of B; C is the mother of A; B is the granddaughter of D; and F is the son of A. How is F related to D ?

  1. ((a))

    Grandson

  2. ((b))

    Great Grandson

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Son

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Great Grandson

As per the question,

  • A is the brother of B; C is the mother of A; and F is the son of A.

  • B is the granddaughter of D

Thus, F is 'Great Grandson' of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Great Grandson".

19

Four friends A, B, C and D compared their height. It was found that A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is shorter than C but taller than A. Which of the following is true?

  1. ((a))

    A is taller than D.

  2. ((b))

    C is the tallest.

  3. ((c))

    B and C are taller than A.

  4. ((d))

    C is shorter than B.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C is the tallest.

As per the question,

Four friends A, B, C and D compared their height.

A is taller than B but shorter than C.

  • C > A > B   ---------------(1)

D is shorter than C but taller than A.

  • C > D > A   ---------------(2)

​Thus, the final arrangement after combining both (1) and (2) is:

  • C > D > A > B

Clearly, 'C is the tallest' is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "C is the tallest".

20

Given below is a question followed by two statements - I and II. Decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

What is used for 'good' ?

I. 'Ya Na Sa' means 'I am good' and 'Sa Na Ke' means 'I am hungry'.

II. 'Pi Ya Se' means 'She is good' and 'Ya Su To' means 'You are good'.

  1. ((a))

    I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

  2. ((b))

    II alone is sufficient while I alone is not Sufficient

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II is sufficient

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Either I or II is sufficient

The logic follows here is:

I. 'Ya Na Sa' means 'I am good' and 'Sa Na Ke' means 'I am hungry'.

Here, the code for 'good' is Ya.

So, I alone is sufficient to answer.

II. 'Pi Ya Se' means 'She is good' and 'Ya Su To' means 'You are good'.

Here, the code for 'good' is Ya.

So, II alone is also sufficient to answer.

Therefore, either of the statements is sufficient to find the code for 'good'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Either I or II is sufficient".

Knowledge of ICT (10 questions)

21

Which of following device can not be used as input device in a computer system ?

  1. ((a))

    Joystick

  2. ((b))

    Touch Pad

  3. ((c))

    Keyboard

  4. ((d))

    Plotter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Plotter

​Input devices are electromagnetic devices that receive information or a set of instructions from the outside world. 

Key Points

  • It converts that information into a format that is accessible and intelligible by machines.
  • Computer input devices act as an interface for the computer's proper communication with the outside environment.
  • Users can save the data they enter via a variety of input devices in the computer's memory for later processing and preparation.
  • A computer can be communicated with and controlled using an input device, which transmits data to the computer.
  • The most common input devices are Keyboard, Mouse, Joy Stick, Light Pen, Microphone, Scanner, and Barcode Reader.

Thus, a Plotter is a device that can not be used as an input device in a computer system. 

Additional Information

  • A plotter is an output device that produces vector graphics drawings.
22

Which of the following is not an effective practice to secure our passwords ?

  1. ((a))

    Use password managers

  2. ((b))

    Passwords should contain memorable data for easy recall

  3. ((c))

    Passwords should be changed frequently

  4. ((d))

    Passwords should not be written down in a file

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Passwords should contain memorable data for easy recall

Password security is a set of regulations, procedures, and technological advancements that increase the security of passwords and authentication procedures. 

Key Points

  • The first line of security against unwanted access to computers and personal information is provided by passwords.
  • The computer will be more secure from hackers and bad malware.
  • The effective practice to secure our passwords are: 
  • Never reveal passwords to others.
  • Use multi-factor authentication (MFA)
  • Use password managers
  • Length trumps complexity
  • Change it frequently
  • Don't write down any in a file.

Thus, Passwords should contain memorable data for the easy recall is not an effective practice to secure our passwords.

23

I can be a hardware device or a software program or a combination of both and I am used to filter out data that comes through a network or the Internet. Who am I ?

  1. ((a))

    Malware

  2. ((b))

    Cookies

  3. ((c))

    Antivirus

  4. ((d))

    Firewall

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Firewall

A firewall creates a wall between a trustworthy network and an unreliable network. 

Key Points

  • A firewall is a network security device used in computing that monitors and regulates incoming and outgoing network traffic.
  • A firewall is essentially the barrier that stands between a private internal network and the open Internet at its most basic level.
  • Firewalls can stop harmful software from connecting to a computer or network over the internet.
  • It sets security policies that are used to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic through a firewall.

Thus,  I am Firewall. 

Additional Information

  • Cookies are short data packets created by a web server while a user is accessing a website.
  • Malware is a programme or file that purposefully hurts a computer, network, or server.
  • Antivirus software is a computer programme intended to stop, find, and get rid of the malware.
24

Radhika wants to maintain the test scores of all her students in a tabular format to perform mathematical calculations and prepare result sheets. Which of the following software of the Microsoft Office package is the best suited for this purpose ?

  1. ((a))

    MS Word

  2. ((b))

    MS PowerPoint

  3. ((c))

    MS Access

  4. ((d))

    MS Excel

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

MS Excel

Microsoft produced Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet for Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS. 

Key Points

  • The fundamental capabilities of all spreadsheets are present in Microsoft Excel.
  • It organises data manipulations like arithmetic operations using a grid of cells arranged in numbered rows and letter-named columns.
  • It has a variety of built-in functionalities to address financial, engineering, and statistical requirements.
  • It has a very limited three-dimensional graphical display and can present data as line graphs, histograms, and charts.

Therefore, MS Excel software of the Microsoft Office package is the best suited for this purpose. 

Additional Information

  • MS PowerPoint is created to provide graphics for group presentations.
  • Microsoft Access is a database management system (DBMS) that combines a graphical user interface.
  • MS Word is a word processor that may be used to create papers, letters, reports, and other types of writing.
25

Which of the following is not an example of a web browser ?

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft Edge

  2. ((b))

    Google Chrome

  3. ((c))

    Safari

  4. ((d))

    Unix

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Unix

Unix is not an example of a web browser.

Key PointsBrowser:

  • A web browser is a software application for accessing the information on the World Wide Web.
  • When a user requests a web page from a particular website, the web browser retrieves the necessary content from a web server and then displays the page on the user's device.
  • It is an application used to access and view websites.
  • Microsoft Internet Explorer, Maxthon 6 Cloud Browser, Google Chrome, Opera, Mozilla Firefox, Apple Safari, etc. are some of examples of web browser
  • A web browser is a computer program you use to view web pages
  • A web browser helps in receiving the web-page matter through the internet.

Important PointsUnix operating system:

  • The Unix operating system is generally known as Multi-user operating system
  • UNIX is a multitasking, multi-user operating system that exists in many variants.
26

Services available on the Internet include :

a. Locating people using social networking sites

b. Downloading and uploading files from or to remote sites

c. Playing community games

d. Maintaining journals

e. Forming groups and sharing views with like-minded people

  1. ((a))

    a, c, d, e

  2. ((b))

    a, b, c, e

  3. ((c))

    a, b, c, d

  4. ((d))

    a, b, c, d, e

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a, b, c, d, e

The Internet is a system of worldwide connected computer networks that communicate with one another using the Internet protocol suite. 

Key Points

  • It is made up of a vast array of electrical, wireless, and optical networking technologies.
  • ​Internet each of its constituent networks establishes its own rules for access and usage.
  • Services available on the Internet include: 
  • Locating people using social networking sites
  • Downloading and uploading files from or to remote sites
  • Playing community games
  • Maintaining journals
  • Forming groups and sharing views with like-minded people

Therefore, Statements a, b, c, d, e are correct.

27

I am a friendly software created specifically to prevent, detect, scan and remove malicious software from files or computer systems. Who am I ?

  1. ((a))

    Firewall

  2. ((b))

    Cookies

  3. ((c))

    Antivirus

  4. ((d))

    Malware

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Antivirus

Antivirus software is a programme or set of programmes. 

Key Points

  • It is designed to look for, identify, stop, and get rid of computer viruses that can harm the system.
  • Antivirus software may also find and get rid of other unwanted programmes like worms, adware, and other threats.
  • Antivirus software operates by comparing the files and programmes on your computer to a database of known malware types.
  • It will also check systems for the presence of fresh or undiscovered malware threats
  • The antivirus searches its database for matches by comparing files, programmes, and applications entering and leaving the computer.

Therefore, I am Antivirus. 

Additional Information

  • A firewall is a network security device used in computing that monitors and regulates incoming and outgoing network traffic.
  • Cookies are short data packets created by a web server while a user is accessing a website.
  • Malware is a programme or file that purposefully hurts a computer, network, or server.
28

What is the expansion of CU ?

  1. ((a))

    Central Unit

  2. ((b))

    Control Unit

  3. ((c))

    Compress Unit

  4. ((d))

    Creative Unit

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Control Unit

CU or Control Unit is a part of the Central Processing Unit.

Key Points

Control Unit in ALU:

  • A control unit (CU) is an integrated circuit in a processor that controls the input and output.
  • It receives instructions from a program, then passes them to the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU).
  • ​This unit enables the sequential flow of data between the different parts of the Central Processing Unit.
  • It can interpret instructions and perform the necessary actions.
29

I am unsolicited and unwanted email that has not received permission from a recipient to enter his/her inbox. Who am I ?

  1. ((a))

    Virus

  2. ((b))

    Hacker

  3. ((c))

    Spam

  4. ((d))

    Spyware

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Spam

Spam is not an abbreviation for a computer threat. 

Key Points

  • Spam is unwanted, uninvited digital communication transmitted in bulk.
  • Spam is frequently transmitted by email, but it can also be sent through social media, text messages, and phone calls.
  • Spammers transmit their unwanted messages in mass through a variety of communication channels.
  • There are different types of Spam such as Phishing emails, Email spoofing, Tech support scams, Current event scams, Advance-fee scams, and Malspam.

Therefore, I am Spam. 

Additional Information

  • A virus is a form of malware that accompanies another programme and has the ability to multiply and propagate once it has been run on a machine.
  • Hacker is an expert who employs non-standard methods to accomplish a goal or get around a challenge within a computerised system.
  • Spyware is malicious software such as spyware placed on a computer without the end user's knowledge.
30

I am a shortcut key which is used to undo your last action while working on MS Word. Who am I ?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + Z

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Z

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + X

  4. ((d))

    Alt + X

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + Z

The correct answer is Ctrl + Z.

Key Points 

  • To undo an action press Ctrl+Z.
  • If you prefer your mouse, click Undo on the Quick Access Toolbar.
  • You can press Undo (or CTRL+Z) repeatedly if you want to undo multiple steps.
  • Undo means to destroy the effect of something that has already happened.

Additional Information 

Important Shortcut keys used in MS Word:

  • Cut the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+X
  • Copy the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+C
  • Paste the contents of the Clipboard -Ctrl+V
  • Increase the font size by 1 point.- Ctrl+]
  • Center the text - Ctrl+E
  • Align the text to the left - Ctrl+L

Teaching Aptitude (10 questions)

31

For good teaching in the class, first of all, a teacher should be well aware

  1. ((a))

    of motivational techniques to be used in the class.

  2. ((b))

    of response which he is looking for in the class.

  3. ((c))

    of teaching-learning material to be used in the class.

  4. ((d))

    about what does he want to teach in the class.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

of response which he is looking for in the class.

Teachers are individuals who have elaborate systems of knowledge for understanding problems in teaching and learning. They have the necessary awareness of the theoretical and practical aspects related to teaching and learning. 

Key Points Teachers not only plan and teach but also evaluate the performance of the learners and take up necessary remedial measures to help them improve their learning.

  • For good teaching in the class, first of all, a teacher should be well aware of the response that he is looking for in the class.
  • Sensing that learners are bored, a teacher decides to stop teaching.
  • Realizing that a learner has not understood a point fully, a teacher decides to simplify the explanation with more examples.
  • In order to make a lesson more interesting, a teacher decides to narrate a related story.
  • As learners start making too much noise and can not be managed by a teacher, she decides to let them go out and play.
  • As the prepared plan does not prove effective to make learners understand the point, a teacher decides to deviate from the plan and tries out another sequencing of learning experiences.
  • Recognizing a learner’s attention behavior, managing deviant behavior, recognizing learner needs, etc. that occur along with teaching are all part of the management process while teaching.

Thus, it is concluded that for good teaching in the class, first of all, a teacher should be well aware of the response that he is looking for in the class.

32

Interaction inside the classroom, in the teaching-learning scenario, should generate

  1. ((a))

    information

  2. ((b))

    arguments

  3. ((c))

    ideas

  4. ((d))

    debate

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ideas

Interaction (or interactivity) between the teacher and student is an important aspect of the teaching-learning process. Teaching-learning should not be a one-sided activity of presenting information to the students.

Key Points

  • Effective interaction in the classroom should ideally generate a flow of ideas.
  • By actively participating in discussions and exchanging ideas, students learn to analyze information, question assumptions, and come up with creative solutions.
  • Discussing different viewpoints and perspectives on a topic helps students develop a deeper understanding of the material and consider multiple angles.
  • A classroom that encourages open sharing of ideas fosters a safe and supportive environment for students to explore their creativity and generate innovative solutions.

Hence, we can conclude that effective interaction in the classroom should generate a flow of ideas.

33

The frustration of one's motive always results in

  1. ((a))

    increased motivation

  2. ((b))

    personality distortion

  3. ((c))

    increased tension

  4. ((d))

    downgrading self-concept

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

downgrading self-concept

Frustration results from the blocking of needs and motives by something or someone that hinders us from achieving the desired goal. There could be a number of causes of frustration such as social discrimination, interpersonal hurt, low grades in school, etc. 

Key Points The term frustration refers to the blocking of behavior directed towards a goal. If motives are frustrated or blocked, emotional feelings and behavior often result.

  • People who cannot achieve their important goals, feel depressed, fearful, anxious, guilty, or angry.
  • Often they are simply unable to drive ordinary pleasure for living.
  • Frustration creates uncomfortable emotional tensions that operate as insistent drives influencing the individual to change in various tension-reducing activities.
  • The frustration of one's motive always results in downgrading self-concept.
  • Self-concept is the self-knowledge we have about ourselves in various aspects such as physical characteristics, social roles, personality traits, interests, skills, etc.
  • Self-concept is multi-dimensional.

Thus, it is concluded that the frustration of one's motive always results in downgrading self-concept.

34

Sunita, aged 5, tends to repeat a particular 'act' over and over; then moves on to another 'act', which in turn she repeats again. Her behavior indicates

  1. ((a))

    She is probably mentally retarded

  2. ((b))

    Nothing unusual, this is normal process of development

  3. ((c))

    She feels insecure and is suffering from tunnel vision

  4. ((d))

    She seems to have persistence and will power

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nothing unusual, this is normal process of development

Human growth and development is an orderly, predictable process beginning with conception and continuing until death. It involves many complex changes in all dimensions of a person through the life span.

Key Points Sunita, aged 5, tends to repeat a particular 'act' over and over; then moves on to another 'act', which in turn she repeats again. Her behavior indicates nothing unusual, this is a normal process of development.

  • Each person progresses through definite phases of growth and development, but the pace and progression of this development are highly individual.
  • Development refers to a progressive increase in skill and capacity to function which causes the qualitative change from a lower to a more advanced stage of complexity.
  • Development is orderly and reasonably enduring.
  • The development also refers to intellectual, moral, emotional, sexual, social, language, speech, and spiritual developments.
  • It is a set of skills and competencies peculiar to each stage of development that must be accomplished by the children to deal effectively with their environment.

Thus, it is concluded that Sunita, aged 5, tends to repeat a particular 'act' over and over; then moves on to another 'act', which in turn she repeats again. Her behavior indicates nothing unusual, this is a normal process of development.

35

For developing creative thinking among the students, which type of questions should be asked by the teacher?

  1. ((a))

    Open-ended and subjective questions

  2. ((b))

    Multiple choice questions

  3. ((c))

    Short answer type questions

  4. ((d))

    Closed-ended questions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Open-ended and subjective questions

Critical thinking aims at simplification/ generalization on the one hand and truth and accuracy on the other. It scrupulously adheres to establish canons of logic. 

Key Points Teaching is the process of facilitating learning by leading discussions, asking open-ended questions, and acquiring knowledge by active participation. For developing creative thinking among the students,  Open-ended and subjective questions type of questions should be asked the teacher.

  • Open-end questions consist of questions that require short or lengthy answers by the respondents.
  • An open-ended question permits the respondents to answer in their own words.
  • Open-ended questions give liberty to the respondents to express their views.
  • It gives tremendous freedom to the respondents to answer according to their interpretation.
  • Unanticipated answers can be obtained from the respondents.
  • The researcher can get the real views of the respondents.
  • The respondent needs more time to answer.
  • Respondents may use different terms for the same concept.

Thus, it is concluded that for developing creative thinking among the students,  Open-ended and subjective questions type of questions should be asked the teacher.

Additional Information

Multiple choice questions- Multiple-choice questions are free of all types of biases and subjectivity in scoring. - In each multiple-choice question, there is one and only one right answer. - The student has to select the right answer from among the given options.
Short answer type questions- Short-answer type questions are easy to construct. - It can cover a wide sample of course materials.
Closed-ended questions- Close-ended questions are best suited for large-scale surveys. - They are easier and quicker for the respondents as well as for the researcher.
36

Which of the following is not a projected teaching aid?

  1. ((a))

    OHP

  2. ((b))

    Epidiascope

  3. ((c))

    Blackboard

  4. ((d))

    Slide projector

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Blackboard

Any visual aid which is used for the magnification of an image on a screen in dark or semi-dark conditions can be called a projected visual aid. 

Key Points Projected aids are “projected” onto a wall or screen using machines. On projection, the message on a slide or transparency gets magnified several times and hence can be seen by a large group of students.

Examples of Projected Aids are Overhead Projectors,  Epidiascope, Slide projectors, Films, video, Compact discs or CDs, and Computer and PowerPoint Presentations.

Overhead Projector (OHP)- The teacher can always face the class. - Small objects may be shown on the machine simply by placing them on the projection stage. - Materials are more clearly visible to large classes than if the materials were on a blackboard. - The instructor may prepare an entire course which is time-saving.
Epidiascope- Easy to handle. - Projects a wide variety of materials. - Enlarges material many can see and learn. - The teacher can allow time for class discussion. - Photographs and pictures can be projected (these are difficult to draw).
Slide and film projector- A film strip is really a collection of visuals in a sequence. - Each visual is a frame that can be handmade or photographed. - The presentation can be stopped at any stage without breaking the sequence.

Thus, it is concluded that the Blackboard is not a projected teaching aid.      

Additional Information 

Blackboard- The blackboard is probably the simplest, cheapest, most convenient, and most widely used non-projected visual aid in extension teaching. - Non-projected visual aids are those aids that are used without projection. - Examples are bulletin boards, pictures, photographs, flannel boards, etc.
37

Read the following statements (a) to (f) about the nature and objectives of teaching:

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure social transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Select the correct options from statements (a) to (f) that best describe the nature and objectives of teaching.

  1. ((a))

    (a), (c) and (f) are correct

  2. ((b))

    (d), (e) and (f) are correct

  3. ((c))

    (b), (c) and (e) are correct

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (c) and (f) are correct

The term teaching refers to the actions of someone who is trying to assist others to reach their fullest potential in all aspects of development.

Key PointsThe nature and objectives of teaching are:

  • (a) Teaching and learning are integrally related. - Correct. Teaching and learning are two sides of the same coin. They are connected processes. Effective teaching leads to effective learning.​
  • (c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure social transformation in students. - Correct. While not the only objective, teaching does play a significant role in facilitating social transformation by imparting knowledge, fostering critical thinking, and promoting social values.
  • (f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act. - Correct. Teaching is a social act as it often involves interaction, communication, and collaboration, while learning, although it can occur in social contexts, is ultimately a personal act as it is up to the individual to absorb and process the information.

Hint

  • (b) There is no difference between teaching and training. - Incorrect. Teaching often refers to acquiring knowledge and understanding, while training is about acquiring a specific skill.
  • (d) All good teaching is formal in nature. - Incorrect. Good teaching can happen in both formal (schools, colleges) and informal (home, social interactions) settings.
  • (e) A teacher is a senior person. - Incorrect. A teacher can be of any age and experience often comes with age.

Thus, it is concluded that (a), (c) and (f) are correct

38

During curriculum development, the evaluation used to improve content learning is called

  1. ((a))

    formative evaluation

  2. ((b))

    summative evaluation

  3. ((c))

    diagnostic evaluation

  4. ((d))

    critical evaluation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

formative evaluation

Evaluation is the systematic process of determining the extent to which the specified instructional objectives previously identified and defined have been achieved. The process of evaluation is based on the relationship between the objectives of the content and its actual outcome. 

Key Points Evaluation is both qualitative and quantitative, it may be 'formative' (during the process of development) or 'summative' (at the end of the total program or each phase thereof).

 During curriculum development, the evaluation used to improve content learning is called formative evaluation.

  • Formative evaluation is used to monitor the learning progress of students during the period of instruction.
  • Its main objective is to provide continuous feedback to both teacher and student concerning learning successes and failures while instruction is in process.
  • Feedback to students provides reinforcement of successful learning and identifies the specific learning errors that need correction.
  • Feedback to teachers provides information for modifying instruction and for prescribing group and individual remedial work.
  • The formative evaluation depends on tests, quizzes, homework, classwork, and oral questions prepared for each segment of instruction.

Thus, it is concluded that during curriculum development, the evaluation used to improve content learning is called formative evaluation.

Additional Information 

Summative Evaluation- It is designed to find out the extent to which the instructional objectives have been achieved usually at the end of a terminal period. - It is used primarily for assigning course grades or for certifying student mastery of the intended learning outcomes at the end of a particular course program.
Diagnostic Evaluation- Diagnostic evaluation is concerned with the pupils' persistent or recurring learning difficulties that are left unresolved during the course of classroom teaching and formative evaluation.
39

Which one of the following is not a nature of "teaching" profession?

  1. ((a))

    Learner oriented

  2. ((b))

    Helping in being obedient to the Governments

  3. ((c))

    Dynamism

  4. ((d))

    Humane

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Helping in being obedient to the Governments

The term teaching refers to the actions of someone who is trying to assist others to reach their fullest potential in all aspects of development. Teaching results when the teacher does any activity with the intention that his/her learners would learn something as a result of it.

Key Points

 The nature of the "teaching" profession are:

  • The teacher should not only facilitate learning but should promote citizenship training and active integration with society, developing curiosity, critical thinking, creativity, initiative, and self-determination.
  • The profession of teaching is learner-oriented, dynamic, and humane.
  • The teacher should help in coordinating and enriching the efforts of students and other resources engaged in the task of teaching-learning.
  • To acquire knowledge and understanding of instructional planning, preparation, transaction, and evaluation.
  • To apply knowledge and understanding to new and unfamiliar teaching situations.
  • To develop proper interests, attitudes, and values relating to the teaching profession and procedures.
  • To develop the abilities for effective classroom management.

Thus, it is concluded that helping in being obedient to the Government is not the nature of the "teaching" profession.

40

In classrooms, learning proceeds most effectively if there is ______ by the teacher.

Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

  1. ((a))

    exclusive motivation

  2. ((b))

    rapid feedback

  3. ((c))

    frequent questioning

  4. ((d))

    immediate recapitulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

rapid feedback

In classrooms, learning often proceeds most effectively when there is rapid feedback provided by the teacher.

Key Points

  • Feedback allows students to understand how well they are grasping the material, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to their learning strategies.
  • This reinforces learning and helps them understand concepts more deeply.
  • Timely feedback helps students gauge their progress and identify areas for improvement. It keeps them engaged and motivated in the learning process.
  • Addressing errors and providing clarification early on prevents misconceptions and fosters a better understanding of the material.

Hence, we can conclude that in classrooms, learning proceeds most effectively if there is rapid feedback from the teacher.

Domain Knowledge (80 questions)

41

Which of the following situations is depicted by the given graph?

  1. ((a))

    The object is moving with non-uniform acceleration

  2. ((b))

    The object is moving with non-uniform retardation

  3. ((c))

    The object is moving with uniform acceleration

  4. ((d))

    The object is moving with uniform retardation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The object is moving with uniform retardation

Explanation:

  • Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity per unit of time.
  • a=dvdta = \frac{dv}{dt}
  • Where, dv = change in velocity, dt = change in time

Uniform acceleration

  • If the velocity of object changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time, then it is called uniform acceleration or constant acceleration
  • The graph of uniform acceleration is a straight line with a positive slope.

  • Acceleration increases the velocity per second

Non-uniform acceleration -

  • If the velocity of object changes by unequal amounts in equal intervals of time, then it is called non-uniform acceleration.
  • The graph for non-uniform acceleration is not a straight line.

Retardation

  • It is just the reverse of acceleration and is defined as a decrease in velocity per unit of time.
  • a=dvdta' = - \frac{dv}{dt}

Uniform Retardation -

  • If the velocity of an object decreases by equal amounts in equal intervals of time, then it is called uniform retardation or constant retardation
  • The graph of uniform retardation is a straight line with a negative slope

  • Retardation decreases the velocity per second
  • Non-uniform retardation - if the velocity of an object decreases by unequal amounts in equal intervals of time, then it is called non-uniform retardation.
  • The graph for non-uniform acceleration is not a straight line.

 

Additional Information

  • Instantaneous acceleration is the acceleration of the object at a specific instant during the motion.
42

A particle moves along a semicircular path of radius 20 m in 10 seconds. The average speeds of the particle is

  1. ((a))

    2 m/s

  2. ((b))

    4 m/s

  3. ((c))

    2π m/s

  4. ((d))

    4π m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2π m/s

Concept:

Average speed:

  • It is defined as the distance per unit of time.
  • Formula, Average,,speed=DistanceTimeAverage , , speed=\frac{Distance}{Time}
  • The SI unit of average speed is m/s.

Calculation:

Given,

The radius of the circle, r = 20m

Time, t = 10s

The average speed of the particle is defined as the distance per unit of time.

va=πrtv_{a}=\frac{\pi r}{t}

va=π×2010=2π m/sv_{a}=\frac{ \pi \times 20}{10}=2\pi ~m/s

Hence, the average speed of the particle is 2π m/s2\pi ~m/s

43

An object travels from point A to point B as shown in the figure. The distance and the magnitude of displacement for the motion are respectively

  1. ((a))

    2\sqrt2 m, 2\sqrt2 m

  2. ((b))

    1.5 π m, 2\sqrt2 m

  3. ((c))

    1.5 π m, 1.5 π m

  4. ((d))

    2\sqrt2 m, 1.5 π m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1.5 π m, 2\sqrt2 m

Concept:

Distance:

  • The complete length of the path between any two points.
  • It is a scalar quantity because it has only magnitude.
  • To calculate distance, the direction is not considered.

Displacement:

  • The direct length between any two points when measured along the minimum path between them.
  • It is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction.
  • To calculate displacement, the direction is taken into consideration.

Calculation:

Given,

The radius of the circle, r = 1m

The distance (Displacement) of AB can be calculated from the Pythagotous theorem,

AB2 = AC2 + CB2

AB=12+12=2 mAB=\sqrt{1^2+1^2}= \sqrt{2} ~m

AB=2 mAB=\sqrt{2} ~m

Distance = 3/4(2πr) = 1.5 πr

Distance = 1.5 π

44

In which of the following situations, the velocity of an object may be zero at some instant, but its acceleration is not zero at that instant?

A. An object released from a certain height

B. A ball thrown up

C. An object moving in a uniform circular motion

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    A and C

  4. ((d))

    A only 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B

Concept:

  • Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time
  • a=dvdta = \frac {dv}{dt}
  • Where dv is the change in velocity and dt is the change in time.
  • Acceleration is a vector quantity.
  • When a body is falling freely then an acceleration is acting on it, which is the acceleration due to gravity.

In Circular Motion there are two types of acceleration

  1. Tangential acceleration, which is responsible for the change in magnitude given by a=dvdta = \frac {dv}{dt}
  2. Centripetal acceleration, which is responsible for the change in the direction given by a=v2ra=\frac{v^2}r

Explanation:

In statement A - An object released from a certain height, then

  • its initial velocity is zero,
  • Also, it is falling freely, then it has acceleration due to gravity.

​In statement B - A ball is thrown up, then

  • Its velocity becomes Zero when it reaches to a maximum height
  • Also, it is the case of the free-falling body, so it has acceleration due to gravity.

​​In statement C - An object moving in a uniform circular motion

  • Now in a uniform circular motion, the magnitude of velocity is constant, but the direction varies, which means the angular velocity or speed is constant, hence the tangential acceleration is zero.
  • But the centripetal acceleration is always present which is responsible for the circular path as it is always directed towards the center.

So, in cases, A and B, the velocity of an object may be zero at some instant, but its acceleration is not zero at that instant

45

Which of the following graphs can possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Concept:

One-dimensional motion:

  • Motion along a straight line or motion in one particular direction.
  • Examples:
  • Consider a car or a person driving down a straight road or jogging on a straight track.
  • Think of an object being tossed vertically into the air and then watching it fall.

Two-dimensional motion:

  • Two-dimensional (2D) motion means motion that takes place in two different directions (or coordinates) at the same time.
  • The simplest motion would be an object moving linearly in one dimension.
  • An example of linear movement would be a car moving along a straight road or a ball thrown straight up from the ground.

Explanation:

  • In (1), at the same time particle has two positions which are not possible.
  • In (2), the particle again has two positions at the same time.
  • In (3), this graph represents the one-dimensional motion of a particle.
  • In (4), speed is negative which is not possible for motion in one dimension.
46

Two spheres of mass m1 and m2 have gravitational force F acting between them, when placed in air at a distance d. On placing the same spheres at the same distance in a liquid medium of relative density 4, the gravitational force between them will

  1. ((a))

    become 4 F

  2. ((b))

    become F4\frac{F}{4}

  3. ((c))

    be F

  4. ((d))

    become zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

be F

Concept:

Newton's universal law of gravitation: 

  • The force of attraction between any two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
  • Formula, Force, F=Gm1m2r2F =G\frac{m_1m_2}{r^2},
  • Where, m1, m2 are the masses of the body, r = distance between the two bodies, G = universal gravitational constant
  • The SI unit of the force is Newton (N).
  • The gravitational forces do not depend on the medium.

Explanation:

The gravitational force does not depend on the medium, so the gravitational force is the same when it is placed in a liquid medium of relative density 4.

Hence, the correct option is 3,

47

Three blocks of mass 3 kg, 2 kg, and 1 kg respectively are placed in contact with each other on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure. A horizontal force of 18 N is applied on the 3 kg block. Find the net force on the 2 kg block.

  1. ((a))

    18 N

  2. ((b))

    6 N

  3. ((c))

    9 N

  4. ((d))

    0 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6 N

Concept:

Force:

  • It is defined as the product of mass and acceleration.
  • Formula, F = ma, where m = mass, a = acceleration
  • The SI unit of force is Newton.

Acceleration:

  • It is defined as the rate of change of velocity.
  • Formula, a=dvdta=\frac{dv}{dt}
  • The SI unit of acceleration is m/s2.

Calculation:

The total mass, M = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6 kg

The total force applied, F = 18 N

Acceleration, a=Fma =\frac{F}{m}

a=186=3 m/s2a =\frac{18}{6}=3~m/s^2

The net force on the 2 kg is, F = 2 × 3 = 6 N

48

Two balls A and B of the same size are dropped from the top of a building. The mass of A is greater than the mass of B. Assuming that air resistance acting on the balls is the same, which ball reaches the ground first?

  1. ((a))

    Ball A

  2. ((b))

    Ball B

  3. ((c))

    Both reach at the same time

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be concluded

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both reach at the same time

Concept:

Force:

  • The force is defined as the product of mass and acceleration.
  • The dimensional formula of the force is given as, [F] = [M L T-2]
  • 1 kg-wt = 9.8 N= 9.8 kg m/s2
  • The force is directly proportional to the mass and acceleration.

Explanation:

Let the air resistance force acting on the balls be F.

  • In the absence of air resistance, all objects fall at the same rate regardless of their mass. This is one of the fundamental principles of free fall and was famously demonstrated by Galileo.
  • Therefore, assuming that air resistance acting on the balls is the same, both ball A and ball B will reach the ground at the same time, assuming no other forces are acting on them.
49

Rahul raises a ball of mass 1 kg through a height of 2 m. The work done by Rahul and the force of gravity are respectively (g = 10 m/s2)

  1. ((a))

    20 J, 20 J

  2. ((b))

    -20 J, -20 J

  3. ((c))

    20 J, -20 J

  4. ((d))

    -20 J, 20 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20 J, -20 J

Concept:

  • This quantity of energy transferred by the force to move an object is termed work done.
  • The work done by gravity is equal to the change in potential energy.
  • The potential energy is equal to the product of mass, and acceleration due to gravity and height.
  • Formula, W = mgh, where m = mass, g = acceleration due to gravity, h = height

Calculation:

The work done by Rahul is, W = mgh

W = mgh 

W = 1 × 10 × 2

W = 20 J (upward, as the ball moves up)

Force applied by Rahul and displacement of the body in the same direction, Hence the workdone will be positive.

The work done by gravity is equal to the change in potential energy.

Gravity acts downward, opposite to the direction of motion, so the work done by gravity is negative.

Work done  = Force × displacement = mgh = 1 × 10 × 2 = - 20 J  (downward, as gravity opposes the motion)

 Note- 

  1. The work done by gravity will be negative when moving away from the source of gravity. 

2.The work done by gravity will be positive when moving towards from the source of gravity.

50

The velocity-time graph of a ball of mass 50 g moving along a straight line on a table is depicted in the following figure.

Calculate the force exerted on the ball by the table to bring it to rest. 

  1. ((a))

    15 N

  2. ((b))

    0·015 N

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    1·5 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0·015 N

Concept:

Force:

  • It is defined as the product of mass and acceleration.
  • Formula, F = ma, where m = mass, a = acceleration
  • The SI unit of the force is Newton.

Equation of motion:

  • The first equation of motion: v = u + at
  • The second equation of motion: s = ut +0.5 at2
  • Third equation of motion: 2as = v2 - u2
  • Here, v = final velocity, u = initial velocity, a  = acceleration, t = time

Calculation:

Given,

The mass of the ball, m = 50g

From the graph, 

The initial velocity, u = 3 m/s

The final velocity, v = 0m/s

Time, t = 10s

From the first equation of motion,

v = u + at

a=vuta=\frac{v-u}{t}

a=0310=0.3m/s2a=\frac{0-3}{10}=-0.3 m/s^2

The force exerted on the table, 

F = ma

F = 50 × 10-3 × (-0.3) = - 0.015 N

Here, the negative sign indicates that the direction of force is opposite.

51

A bullet of mass 25 g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 120 m/s from a pistol of 2·5 kg. The recoil velocity of the pistol is

  1. ((a))
    • 0·6 m/s
  2. ((b))

    0·6 m/s

  3. ((c))
    • 1·2 m/s
  4. ((d))

    1·2 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))
  • 1·2 m/s

Concept:

Momentum:

  • It is defined as the product of mass and velocity.
  • Formula, P = mv, where m = mass, v = velocity
  • Its SI unit is kg m/s.

Conservation of linear momentum:

  • It states that if two objects collide, then the total momentum before and after the collision will be the same if there is no external force acting on the colliding objects.
  • Formula, m1u+ m2u2 = m1v1 + m2 v2

Calculation:

Given, 

The mass of the bullet, m = 25g

The velocity of the bullet, v = 120 m/s

The mass of the pistol, M = 2.5 kg

From the conservation of the momentum,

mv +  MV= 0

V=mvMV=-\frac{mv}{M}

V=25×103×1202.5=1.2m/sV=-\frac{25\times 10^{-3}\times 120}{2.5}=-1.2 m/s

Hence, the recoil velocity is -1.2 m/s.

52

Two solid objects X and Y float in water such that X floats with (12)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) of its body immersed in water whereas Y floats with (14)\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) of its volume above the water level. The ratio of the density of X to that of Y is

  1. ((a))

    4 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    3 ∶ 4

  3. ((c))

    2 ∶ 3

  4. ((d))

    1 ∶ 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2 ∶ 3

Concept:

  • Buoyant force or upthrust is the upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of an object immersed partially or fully in a fluid.
  • Its magnitude of buoyant force is equal to the weight of fluid displaced.
  • FB = ρ'gV'
  • Where, ρ'= density of the fluid, V' = volume submerged in the liquid, g = acceleration due to gravity.
  • ​The buoyant force acts vertically upward, in opposition to the gravitational force that causes it.
  • FB = Fg = ρgV
  • Where, ρ = density of the object, V = volume of the object, g = acceleration due to gravity.

Calculation:

Let the density of object X is ρX and the object Y is ρY

The density of water is ρ 

Given, for object X, volume submerged in water, V=V2V' = \frac V2

Then, FBX=ρgV=ρgV2F_{BX} = ρgV' = ρg\frac V2

This will balance the weight of body X

Then FBX = Fg 

ρgV2=ρxgV\Rightarrow ρg\frac V2 = \rho _xgV

ρx=ρ2\Rightarrow \rho _x = \frac ρ2 --- (1)

Now, for objects Y, volume submerged in water,V=VV4=3V4V' = V - \frac V4 = \frac {3V}4

This will balance the weight of body Y

Then FBY = F 

ρg3V4=ρygV\Rightarrow ρg\frac {3V}4 = \rho _ygV

ρy=3ρ4\Rightarrow \rho _y = \frac {3ρ}4 --- (2)

From equation 1 and 2 the ratio of density of X to that of Y is

ρxρy=23\frac{\rho _x}{\rho _y} = \frac 23

53

The lower half of a concave mirror is made opaque. What can you say about the nature of the image formed when an object is placed infront of it?

  1. ((a))

    Intensity of image increases 

  2. ((b))

    The image will show half of the object

  3. ((c))

    Intensity of image decreases

  4. ((d))

    No change in image

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Intensity of image decreases

Concept:

Concave mirror:

  • ​A mirror has a reflective surface that is curved inward and away from the light source.

  • Light converges at a point when it strikes and reflects back from the reflecting surface of the concave mirror. Hence, it is also known as a converging mirror.
  • When the concave mirror is placed very close to the object, a magnified, erect, and virtual image is obtained.
  • However, if we increase the distance between the object and the mirror then the size of the image reduces and a real and inverted image is formed.
  • The image formed by the concave mirror can be small or large and can be real or virtual.

Explanation:

If a part of the mirror is covered with an opaque object then the intensity of the image formed will decrease as the image will be formed by less number of light rays.

54

Two lenses L1 (10 D) and L2 (12·5 D) are arranged parallel to each other coaxially at a separation of 44 cm, in vertical planes. An object is placed to the left of L1, at a distance of 20 cm from L1, at its principal axis. The distance between the object and its final image formed is

  1. ((a))

    66 cm

  2. ((b))

    76 cm

  3. ((c))

    86 cm

  4. ((d))

    96 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

76 cm

Concept:

  • lens is a transmissive optical device that focuses or disperse light beam using refraction.
  • Two types of lenses: Concave lens and convex lens

Concave lens: 

  • It is flat in the middle and thicker at the edge.
  • It is also known as a diverging lens because it bends the parallel light rays outwards and diverges them at the focal point.

Convex lens: 

  • It is thick in the middle and thinner on the edge.
  • This lens is also known as a converging lens because it converges all light at a point called the focus.

  • The working principle of the lens is the law of refraction.
  • The total power of the two lenses when placed in contact, P = P1 + P2
  • The power of the lens is inversely proportional to its focal length, P=1fP=\frac {1}{f}

Lens formula1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u} where v = image distance, u = image distance, f = focal length

Explanation:

Explanation:

Given, Power, P1(L1) = 10D , P2 (L2) = 12.5 D

The distance between the two lenses, d = 44 cm

For the first convex lens L1, f = 1/P =100/10 = 10 cm

Given, u = - 20 cm, f = 10 cm

Lens formula, 1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}

110=1v120\frac{1}{10}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{-20}

v = +20 cm

For the second convex lens L2, f = 1/P =100/12.5 = 8 cm

Object distance, u = - 44 - (-20) = - 24 cm, focal length, f = 8 cm

Lens formula, 18=1v124\frac{1}{8}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{-24}

v = 12 cm

The distance between the original object and the final image is 

= 20 + 44 + 12 = 76 cm

55

A ray of light passes from a block of ice (n = 1.31) to kerosene (n = 1.44). In kerosene it bends ______ the normal and _____. 

  1. ((a))

    away from, slows down

  2. ((b))

    towards, slows down

  3. ((c))

    away from, speeds up

  4. ((d))

    towards, speeds up

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

towards, slows down

Concept:

Refraction of light:

  • It is the bending of light (it also happens with sound, water, and other waves) as it passes from one transparent substance into another.
  • This bending by refraction makes it possible for us to have lenses, magnifying glasses, prisms, and rainbows.
  • Even our eyes depend upon this bending of light.

  • When light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.
  • When light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it bends toward the normal,

Refractive index:

  • It is the ratio between the speed of light in air to the speed in a medium.
  • Formula, refractive index, μ=cv\mu =\frac{c}{v}  where c = speed of light in air, v = speed of light in the medium

Explanation:

  • A ray of light passes from a block of ice (n = 1.31) to kerosene (n = 1.44).
  • In kerosene, it bends towards the normal and the speed of light in this medium is reduced.
56

The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light whose wavelength in a vacuum is 6000 Å. The wavelength of this light when it passes through glass is

  1. ((a))

    4000 Å

  2. ((b))

    6000 Å

  3. ((c))

    9000 Å

  4. ((d))

    15000 Å

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4000 Å

Concept:

Refractive index:

  • It is the ratio between the speed of light in air to the speed in a medium.
  • Formula, refractive index, μ=cvμ =\frac{c}{v}
  • In terms of the wavelength, it is equal to the ratio of the wavelength of light in air to the wavelength of light in the medium.
  • Formula, μ=λ0λμ =\frac{λ_0}{λ} where, λ0 = wavelength in the air, λ = wavelength in the medium.

Calculation:

Given, 

The refractive index, μ = 1.5

The wavelength in the vacuum, λ0 = 6000 Å

We  know that, μ=λ0λμ =\frac{λ_0}{λ}

λ=λ0μ\lambda =\frac{λ_0}{\mu}

 λ=60001.5\lambda =\frac{6000}{1.5}

λ = 4000 Å

57

A ball of mass 200 g is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 40 m/s at t = 0 s. At t = 1·0 s, the ratio of its potential energy (P) to its kinetic energy (K), (PK)\left(\frac{P}{K}\right) is (g = 10 m/s2)

  1. ((a))

    57\frac{5}{7}

  2. ((b))

    67\frac{6}{7}

  3. ((c))

    79\frac{7}{9}

  4. ((d))

    89\frac{8}{9}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

79\frac{7}{9}

Concept:

Kinetic energy:

  • Kinetic energy is defined as the energy possessed by a body by a virtue of its motion.
  • The formula of kinetic energyK=12mv2K=\frac{1}{2} mv^2, where m= mass of the body, v= velocity of the body

Potential energy

  • It is the energy possessed due to the position of the object is called potential energy
  • The potential energy due to gravitation, P.E = mgh, where m = mass, g = acceleration due to gravity, h = height
  • The second equation of motion under the influence of gravity,

           h = ut - 0.5 gt2

  • From the first equation of motion under the influence of gravity, v = u - gt

Calculation:

Given,

The mass of the body, m = 200 g

The initial velocity of the body, u = 40 m/s

The time, t = 1.0 s

From the second equation of motion under the influence of gravity,

h = ut - 0.5 gt2

h = 40 × 1 - 0.5 × 10 × 12

h = 35 m

From the first equation of motion under the influence of gravity,

v = u - gt

v = 40 - 10 × 1

v = 30 m/s

The ratio of the potential energy and kinetic energy is,

PK=mgh0.5mv2=gh0.5v2\frac{P}{K}=\frac{mgh}{0.5 mv^2}=\frac{gh}{0.5v^2}

PK=10×350.5×302\frac{P}{K}=\frac{10\times 35}{0.5\times 30^2}

PK=79\frac{P}{K}=\frac{7}{9}

58

Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option :

Assertion (A) : The resistance of a metal increases with increasing temperature.

Reason (R) : The number of conduction electrons increases with temperature.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are false.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A is true but R is false.

Concept:

Heat transfer:

  • Heat can travel from one place to another in several ways: Conduction, radiation, and convection.
  • The resistance also depends on the temperature.
  • In metal, due to an increase in temperature, the thermal velocities of free electrons also increase.
  • Therefore, the number of collisions between free electrons and atoms increases. This increases the opposition to the movement of electrons and hence the resistance of the conductor.
  • But this is not true for every material i.e., all materials do not have the same dependence on temperature.

Explanation:

  • The number of conduction electrons is largely determined by the material's electronic configuration and does not significantly increase with temperature. Most metals have a vast 'sea' of delocalized electrons that exist regardless of a change in temperature. When a metal is heated, the thermal energy increases the kinetic energy of these existing electrons and causes them to collide more frequently with atomic cores, leading to increased resistance. It doesn't generate significantly more conduction electrons.
  • Here's how it works: In metals, the conduction band (the energy band that conducts electricity) overlaps with the valence band (the band containing the outermost, or valence, electrons). Because of this overlap, the valence electrons can move freely between atoms. That's why metals are good conductors.
  • If you heat a metal, you don't cause more electrons to jump into the conduction band because the bands overlap - the valence electrons are already conduction electrons.
  • On the other hand, in semiconductors and insulators, there is an energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band. Heating can promote electrons across this gap, creating more conduction electrons and decreasing the resistance.
  • To clarify, for a typical metal under standard conditions, Reason R: "The number of conduction electrons increases with temperature" is generally considered as not true. But for semiconductors and insulators at extremely high temperatures or under specific circumstances where more electrons can be promoted to conduction bands, the statement can be true.

 

Important Points

In metal, due to an increase in temperature, the thermal velocities of free electrons also increase.Most metals have a vast 'sea' of delocalized electrons that exist regardless of a change in temperature. 

Confusion Points

In metals, the conduction band (the energy band that conducts electricity) overlaps with the valence band (the band containing the outermost, or valence, electrons). Because of this overlap, the valence electrons can move freely between atoms. That's why metals are good conductors.​

If you heat a metal, you don't cause more electrons to jump into the conduction band because the bands overlap - the valence electrons are already conduction electrons.

59

In the following circuit, find the value of I2.

  1. ((a))

    1.2 A

  2. ((b))

    0.4 A

  3. ((c))

    0.6 A

  4. ((d))

    0.2 A 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.4 A

Concept:

Resistance:

  • It is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
  • Resistance is measured in ohms, symbolized by the Greek letter omega (Ω).

In parallel combination of resistors: 

  • Resistors are in parallel if their terminals are connected to the same two nodes.
  • The equivalent overall resistance is smaller than the smallest parallel resistor.

  • Formula, 1Req=1R1+1R2\frac{1}{R_{eq}}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}

Calculation:

The total current, I = 1.2 A

The equivalent resistance of the circuit, 1Req=110+115+130\frac{1}{R_{eq}}=\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{30}

Req = 5 Ω 

The current I2 can be calculated as,

I2=ReqR2×II_2=\frac{R_{eq}}{R_2}\times I

I2=515×1.2=0.4AI_2=\frac{5}{15}\times 1.2=0.4A

Additional Information

​In series combination of resistors:

  • ​Two or more resistors are said to be connected in series when the same amount of current flows through all the resistors.
  • In such circuits, the voltage across each resistor is different. In a series connection, if any resistor is broken or a fault occurs, then the entire circuit is turned off.

  • Formula, Req = R1 + R2
60

A bar magnet is dropped and it passes through a copper ring as shown in the diagram. The acceleration of the falling magnet while passing through the ring is

 

  1. ((a))

    equal to acceleration due to gravity

  2. ((b))

    more than the acceleration due to gravity

  3. ((c))

    less than the acceleration due to gravity

  4. ((d))

    zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

less than the acceleration due to gravity

Concept:

Bar magnet:

  • It is a rectangular piece of an object that shows permanent magnetic properties and is made from a ferromagnetic substance.

Magnetic flux:

  • Magnetic flux is a measurement of the total magnetic field which passes through a given area.

Lenz law:

  • Lenz’s law depends on the principle of conservation of energy and Newton’s third law.
  • It is the most convenient method to determine the direction of the induced current.
  • It states that the direction of an induced current is always such to oppose the change in the circuit or the magnetic field that produces it.

Explanation:

  • ​As the magnet falls the flux through the ring changes.
  • Regardless of whether the flux increases or decreases, by Lenz's law a current is induced in the ring that opposes the change in flux.
  • This induced current induced a magnetic field that interacts with the falling magnet and decreases the acceleration of fall below g.
  • Hence, the acceleration of the falling magnet while passing through the ring is less than the acceleration due to gravity.
61

If the length and radius of a wire are doubled, then

  1. ((a))

    the resistance is doubled and the electric resistivity is halved

  2. ((b))

    the resistance is halved and electric resistivity remains the same

  3. ((c))

    the resistance is halved and the electric resistivity is doubled

  4. ((d))

    the resistance is doubled and the electric resistivity remains the same

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

the resistance is halved and electric resistivity remains the same

Concept:

Resistance:

  • It is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
  • It is measured in ohms, symbolized by the Greek letter omega (Ω).
  • In the conducting wire, the resistance depends on the wire's length, cross-sectional area, and the material's resistivity.
  • Formula, Resistance, R=ρlAR=ρ \frac{l}{A}, where ρ = resistivity of the material, A = cross-sectional area, l = length of the wire

Electrical Resistivity:

  • It is a fundamental property of a material that measures how strongly it resists electric current.
  • The SI unit of electrical resistivity is an ohm meter.

Calculation:

Let's consider the length of the wire is l and the radius of the wire is r.

The formula for the resistance of the conductor wire is given by,

R=ρlA=ρlπr2R=ρ \frac{l}{A}=ρ \frac{l}{\pi r^2} . . . . . . . . .  . . . . (1)

Now, the new length, l' = 2l

New radius, r' = 2r

So, R=ρ2l4πr2=ρl2πr2R'=ρ \frac{2l}{4\pi r^2}=ρ \frac{l}{2\pi r^2} . . . . . . .(2)

From equations (1) and (2), we get

R=R2R'=\frac{R}{2}

The electric resistivity of the wire remains the same.

62

The alloy constantan is used to the make standard resistance because of

A. low resistivity

B. high resistivity

C. low-temperature coefficient of resistivity

D. high-temperature coefficient of resistivity

  1. ((a))

    A and C

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    A and D

  4. ((d))

    B and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B and C

Concept:

​Alloy Constantan:

  • an alloy of 55 percent copper and 45 percent nickel.
  • It is used in resistors, thermocouples, and rheostats.

Resistivity:

  • The electrical resistance of a conductor of unit cross-sectional area and unit length.
  • A characteristic property of each material, resistivity is useful in comparing various materials on the basis of their ability to conduct electric currents.
  • High resistivity designates poor conductors.
  • Low resistivity designates high conductors.

Temperature coefficient of resistivity:

  • It is defined as the change in electrical resistance of a substance with respect to a per-degree change in temperature.
  • The change in electrical resistance of any substance due to temperature depends mainly on three factors –
  • The value of resistance at an initial temperature.
  • The rise in temperature.
  • The temperature coefficient of resistance α.
  • The relation between the temperature and the resistance, R =  R0 (1+α Δ T)

Explanation:

  • The alloys manganin and constantan are used for making standard resistance coils as they have high resistivity, low-temperature coefficient of resistance, and the ability to attain good resistance values in small sizes.
  • Their resistance value would change very little with temperature
63

Medha (mass 40 kg) climbs through 24 stairs, each of 20 cm in one minute. The power expended by her is (g = 10 m/s2)

  1. ((a))

    16 W

  2. ((b))

    24 W

  3. ((c))

    32 W

  4. ((d))

    48 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

32 W

Concept:

Gravitational potential energy:

  • It is the energy possessed or acquired by an object due to a change in its position when it is present in a gravitational field.
  • In simple terms, it can be said that gravitational potential energy is an energy that is related to gravitational force or to gravity.
  • Formula, U = mgh, where m = mass, g = acceleration due to gravity, h = height
  • The SI unit of the gravitational potential energy is Joule.

Power:

  • It is defined as the work per unit of time.
  • Formula, Power, P=WtP=\frac{W}{t} where W = work done, t = time
  • The SI unit of power is watt.

Calculation:

Given,

The mass of the Medha, m = 40 kg

The total vertical height, h = 24 × 20 = 480 cm = 4.8 m

Time, t = 1 min = 60 s

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms-2

Work done, W = mgh

W = 40 × 10 × 4.8 = 1920 J

Power, p=Wtp=\frac{W}{t}

p=192060=32,Wattp=\frac{1920}{60}=32 , Watt

Hence, the power expended by her is 32 watt.

64

In a hearing aid, which of the following sound wave is changed?

  1. ((a))

    Amplitude

  2. ((b))

    Frequency

  3. ((c))

    Velocity

  4. ((d))

    Wavelength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amplitude

Concept:

Hearing aid:

  • Hearing aids are sound-amplifying devices designed to help people who have hearing loss.
  • A hearing aid has three basic parts: a microphone, an amplifier, and a speaker.
  • The hearing aid receives sound through a microphone, which converts the sound waves to electrical signals and sends them to an amplifier.
  • The amplifier increases the power of the signals and then sends them to the ear through a speaker.
  • In a hearing aid, the amplitude of the sound wave is changed.

Explanation:

  • A sound wave's amplitude relates to the change in pressure caused by the wave measured at a specific location.
  • The sound is perceived as louder if the amplitude increases, and softer if the amplitude decreases.
  • So, in hearing aid, the amplitude of the sound wave changes and play an important role.
65

A man standing on a cliff hears the echo of his shout after 1 s. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, what is the distance between the man and the mountain from which his voice is reflected?

  1. ((a))

    340 m

  2. ((b))

    170 m

  3. ((c))

    680 m

  4. ((d))

    85 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

170 m

Concept:

  • Echo: An echo is a sound caused by the reflection of sound waves from a surface back to the listener.
  • It reflects sound, arriving at the listener sometime after the direct sound.

  • The velocity formula for the echo is given as, v=2dtv=\frac{2d}{t} where d = distance between the source and reflectors, t = time taken to reflect back the echo.

Calculation:

Given,

Time, t = 1 s

The velocity of the sound in air, v = 340 ms-1

Let's consider d is the distance between the man and the mountain.

The sound wave travels two times between the mountain and the man. 

So, v=2dtv=\frac{2d}{t}

2d = vt

d=vt2d=\frac{vt}{2}

d=340×12=170 md=\frac{340\times 1}{2}=170 ~m

Hence, the distance between the man and the mountain is 170m.

66

Two substances A and B react to form C. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    A and B are elements whereas C may be an element or a compound

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C are all elements

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C are all elements 

  4. ((d))

    A and B may be elements or compounds and C is a compound

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and B may be elements or compounds and C is a compound

Concept:

Differences between elements and compounds - 

Sr no.ElementsCompounds
1.Contain only one kind of atoms.Contain more than one kind of atoms.
2.Elements are pure substances.They are not pure substances.
3.They cannot be broken further into simpler substances by chemical methodsThey can be broken into simpler substances by chemical means.
4.Ex- N2, O2, etc.Ex - NaOH, NaCl, etc.

 

Explanation:

According to the given condition, two substances A and B react to form C,

A + B → C

→ In this reaction A and B reacts in a fixed proportion and  form another compound C

  • A and can be either elements or compounds, which combine to give C.
  • C is a compound as two different atoms combine to give C, it contains more than two different kinds of atoms.
  • C is the result of a combination reaction.

Therefore, statement IV is correct.

Conclusion:

 Statement IV, " A and B may be elements or compounds and C is a compound" is correct only.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

67

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

A. A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements only.

B. A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by physical methods.

C. A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    A and C

  3. ((c))

    B and C

  4. ((d))

    C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C only

Explanation:

Molecule and Compound -

Sr No.MoleculeCompound
1.Group of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds.A compound is a substance that is formed by two or more different types of elements that are bonded chemically in a fixed proportion.
2.It can contain atoms of the same or different elements.They contain atoms of different chemical elements.
3.It can be homonuclear or heteronuclearThey are heteronuclear
4.All molecules are not compoundall compounds are molecule
5.Ex- N2, O3,CO2Ex- NaCl

Explanation:

→ A compound is,

  • A substance is formed by two or more different types of elements that are bonded chemically in a fixed proportion.
  • All compounds are molecules.
  • They contain atoms of different chemical elements.
  • A compound cannot be separated into its constituents by any physical means.
  • A compound does not retain the physical properties of its constituent elements.
  • Ex- NaOH (NaOH does not have individual physical characteristics of either Na or O or H).

∴ Statement I and statement II are correct.

Conclusion:

Therefore, statement III " A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements" is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

68

Which of the following is a correct formula for sodium carbonate?

  1. ((a))

    NaCO3

  2. ((b))

    Na2CO3

  3. ((c))

    NaHCO3

  4. ((d))

    Na3CO3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Na2CO3

Concept:

Sodium carbonate -

  • Sodium carbonate is a salt of carbonic acid with the chemical formula Na2CO3.
  • Sodium carbonate is also known as soda ash.
  • It is a white powder and an odorless compound in pure form.
  • Sodium carbonate is majorly produced by the Solvay process.
  • It is a weak acid and a strong base.
  • Its pH is 11.
  • It is commonly known as washing soda and is used in cleaning products, glass production as a food additive, and more.

Explanation:

→ The valency of sodium (Na) is +1.

→ The valency or charge on carbonate ion (CO32-)is -2.

To make a chemical formula, the valency of both should be balanced, so, for every carbonate ion there should be two sodium cation.

This can be shown as -

 

Conclusion:

The correct molecular formula for sodium carbonate is Na2CO3.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

69

What is the mass of 0·5 mole of nitrogen gas?

  1. ((a))

    7 g

  2. ((b))

    14 g

  3. ((c))

    28 g

  4. ((d))

    6·02 × 1023 g

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

14 g

Concept:

Number of moles - 

  1. A mole is a SI unit defined for the amount of substance.
  2. It is the mass that a substance contains the same number of fundamental units such as atoms in 12g of C-12.
  3. One mole of a substance is having NA particles or atoms or molecules, where NA is Avogadro's number.

Formula to calculate the number of moles,

Number of moles = Given;weight;or;mass;of;the;compoundmolecular;mass;of;the;compound\frac{Given; weight; or;mass; of; the ; compound}{molecular ; mass ; of; the; compound} 

Calculation:

Number of moles = Given;weight;or;mass;of;the;compoundmolecular;mass;of;the;compound\frac{Given; weight; or;mass; of; the ; compound}{molecular ; mass ; of; the; compound} ---------(1)

Nitrogen gas is having molecular formula N2.

Its molecular mass is 28g\mole.

Given, a mole of N2 = 0.5 mole 

Put all the values in equation (1),

∴ 0.5 = weight;or;mass;of;the;compound28\frac{ weight; or;mass; of; the ; compound}{28}

Weight of the compound = 0.5 × 28 = 14g

Conclusion:

Hence, 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas is having 14g of nitrogen.

∴ the correct answer is option 2.

70

A bivalent metal ‘X’ has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the nitrate salt of this metal ‘X’ would be

  1. ((a))

    182

  2. ((b))

    192

  3. ((c))

    188

  4. ((d))

    168

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

188

Concept:

​Equivalent weight -

Equivalent weight can be calculated as,

 Equivalent mass/wt. = molecular;massvalency\frac{molecular; mass}{valency} 

Valency factor -

  • Valency of an acid = basicity of the acid or no. of H+ ion
  • Valency of a base = acidity of the base or the no. of OHions
  • Valency of a salt = charge on the ions

Calculation:

Equivalent mass/wt. = molecular;massvalency\frac{molecular; mass}{valency}

or molecular mass = Equivalent mass/wt. × valency ----------(1)

To calculate the molecular mass of X,

  • If 'X" is a bivalent metal, its valency is 2.
  • Given that it has an equivalent mass of 32.

Put all the values in equation (1), we get

the molecular mass of 'X' = Equivalent mass/wt. × valency = 32 × 2 = 64

∴ the molecular mass of 'X' = 64 g

The nitrate salt of metal X should be X(NO3)2 as X is bivalent and NO3is a unipositive ion.

Molecular mass of X(NO3)2 = 64 + (14 +16 × 3)× 2 = 64 + (14+48)× 2 = 64 + 124 = 188

Conclusion:

∴ The molecular mass of the nitrate salt of this metal ‘X’ would be 188.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

71

Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

  1. ((a))

    Na2O

  2. ((b))

    CaO

  3. ((c))

    CuO

  4. ((d))

    Al2O3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Al2O3

Concept:

Oxides - 

Oxides are the compound of oxygen with other elements in which the oxidation state of 'O' is -2.

  • Oxide is generally an anion of oxygen with oxidation number -2 or simply it is O2-.
  • For example; NO, MgO. Na2O, etc.

Oxides are classified into four categories based on their acid-base characteristics. These are - 

  1. Acidic oxides -
  • Generally, the oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature and are called acidic oxides.
  • In these oxides, atoms are held together by a covalent bond.
  • For example; CO2, SO2, etc.
  1. Basic oxides -
  • ​​The metal reacts with oxygen to give basic oxides.
  • Atoms of metal and oxygen are held by ionic bonds because of the large electronegativity difference.
  • For example; MgO, Na2O, etc.
  1. Amphoteric oxides -
  • ​​Amphoteric oxides are those which can behave as acid and base.
  • They can react with acid and base or they have the characteristics of both types of oxides acidic and basic.
  • Al2O3 is amphoteric oxide.
  1. Neutral oxides -
  • ​​Neutral oxides are neither acidic nor basic.
  • They neither show acidic characteristics nor show basic characteristics, simply they are neutral in nature.
  • NO, and CO is examples of neutral oxides of oxygen.

Explanation:

Oxides can be acidic or basic or both or they can be neutral also, based on the characteristics they are showing in the solution.

Out of the given oxides,

→ Na2O

  • Sodium is alkaline earth metal.
  • Hence, its oxides of it are basic in nature.
  • So, Na2O = Basic oxide

→ CaO

  • CaO is a metal oxide.
  • On reacting with water it produced a strong base.
  • Its oxides are neutral in nature.
  • So, CaO = Basic oxide

→CuO

  • Cu(II) dissolved in water and produced hydroxide ions or forms Cu(OH)2.
  • It is a metallic oxide which is basic in nature
  • So, CuO = Basic oxide

→ Al2O3

  • Al can react with both acid as well as the base.
  • Its oxides are amphoteric in nature.
  • So, Al2O3 = Amphoteric oxide

Conclusion:

Therefore, Al2O3 is an Amphoteric oxide.

Hence the correct answer is option 4.

72

Which of the following is not a chemical change?

  1. ((a))

    Burning of magnesium in air

  2. ((b))

    Tarnishing of silver spoon

  3. ((c))

    Electrolysis of water

  4. ((d))

    Sublimation of iodine

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sublimation of iodine

Concept:

Chemical and Physical change -

Physical ChangeChemical Change
1.In physical change composition of the substance remain same.In a chemical change, the molecular composition of a substance is changed entirely.
2.It is a temporary changeIt is a permanent change.
3.It affects only the physical properties like shape, size, etc.It affects both the physical and chemical properties of the substance.
4.It generally does not involve the production of energyChemical change involves the production of energy.
5.No new substance is formed in a physical changeThe chemical change is accompanied by the formation of new products
6.It is reversible in natureChemical changes are irreversible.

Explanation:

  1. Burning of magnesium in the air is a chemical change as magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
  2. Tarnishing of the silver spoon is a chemical change as silver forms a layer of silver sulphide.
  3. The electrolysis of water is a chemical change as water breaks into ions.
  4. Sublimation of iodine is only a physical change as only the state of iodine is changed from solid to gas without altering its composition.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the Sublimation of iodine is not a chemical change.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

73

Which of the following statements is true in context of the following reaction :

H2S + Cl2 → 2 HCl + S

  1. ((a))

    H2S is oxidised and Cl2 is reduced

  2. ((b))

    H2S is reduced and Cl2 is oxidised

  3. ((c))

    This is an example of double displacement reaction

  4. ((d))

    This is an example of combination reaction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H2S is oxidised and Cl2 is reduced

Concept:

Redox reactions - These are reduction-oxidation chemical reactions.

  • In these reactions, reactants undergo a change in their chemical oxidation states.
  • These reactions are always accompanied by the reduction and oxidation of the reactants simultaneously.
  • In oxidation, the Removal of hydrogen from a molecule or the addition of oxygen to a molecule takes place.
  • In reduction, the Addition of hydrogen and removal of oxygen from a molecule takes place.
  • Example of redox reaction, CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

Explanation:

In oxidation, the Removal of hydrogen from a molecule or the addition of oxygen to a molecule takes place.

In reduction, the Addition of hydrogen and removal of oxygen from a molecule takes place.

This can be done by using an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent.

In the given reaction**,** H2S + Cl2 → 2 HCl + S

  • H2S  H2\xrightarrow {-H_2}   S (removal of hydrogen hence oxidation or H2S is oxidized to S)
  • Cl2 +H2\xrightarrow {+H2}  2HCl (addition of hydrogen hence reduction or Cl2 is reduced to HCl)

Conclusion:

Therefore, In the reaction H2S + Cl2 → 2 HCl + S, H2S is oxidized and Cl2 is reduced.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

74

Which of the following methodology should be adopted for diluting acids?

  1. ((a))

    Acid should be added to water slowly.

  2. ((b))

    Water should be added to acid slowly.

  3. ((c))

    Water and acid should be mixed simultaneously.

  4. ((d))

    Alcohol should be added to acid before adding water to it.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acid should be added to water slowly.

Concept:

Exothermic process - 

  • Exothermic reactions are those in which energy is released in form of heat or light.
  • ΔH i.e enthalpy change for exothermic reactions is always negative.
  • Burning of wood and dilution of an acid is the examples of exothermic reactions or processes.

Explanation:

The correct method for diluting an acid is adding acid to water with the following instructions -

  1. Acid should be added dropwise.
  2. acid should be added slowly.
  3. A continuous and constant stirring is provided to the solution while adding the acid.

The precaution must be followed while mixing acid with water because the reaction of mixing acid to water is an exothermic process,

  • Exothermic reactions are accompanied by releasing heat.
  • The heat released in the reaction is very large.
  • If water is added to acid, the heat released is such large that the flask can be broken and you will also suffer a serious injury.

Conclusion:

Thus, while diluting an acid, acid should be added slowly with constant stirring.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

75

Which of the following statements are correct and can be inferred from the following table :

SubstancepH scale
A1·5
B7·2
C4·5
D12·5
E9·2

I. A is more acidic than C

II. B is more basic than D

III. D is the most basic substance

IV. C is more basic than E

  1. ((a))

    I and III

  2. ((b))

    II and III

  3. ((c))

    III and IV

  4. ((d))

    I and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III

Concept:

pH of a solution - 

  • The pH of a solution indicates whether the solution is acidic or basic.
  • It is the measure of hydrogen ion concentration in the solution.
  • It ranges from 0 to 14.
  • An acidic solution will have a higher concentration of hydrogen ions and a basic solution will have a higher concentration of OH- ions.
  • The pH of the acidic solution lies between 1-7 on the pH scale and that of basic solutions lies between 7-14 on the pH scale.
  • The more acidic the solution is lower is the pH of the solution.
  • It is measured by using the formula, pH = -log[H+].

Explanation:

→ The higher the pH value for an acid, the weaker is the acid.

→ The higher the pH value for a base the stronger is the base.

The given table is 

SubstancepH scale
A1·5
B7·2
C4·5
D12·5
E9·2
  • The pH of A is 1.5 and that of C is 4.5, pH of A is lower than that of C, hence A is a strong acid than C.
  • The pH of B is 7.2 and that of D is 12.5, pH of D is higher than that of B, hence D is more basic than B.
  • The highest pH is of D i.e. 12.5, hence from the given table, D is the most basic.
  • The pH of C is 4.5 i.e <7 and that of E is 9.2 i.e >7, pH of C is lower than that of E and hence E is more basic than C.

Conclusion:

Therefore, statement I and statement III are correct only.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

76

Match the chemical formula of the compound correctly with its use :

CompoundUse
a.CaOCl2i.Soap and detergent
b.NaHCO3ii.Putting casts on bones
c.Na2CO3iii.Disinfecting water
d.CaSO412\frac{1}{2} H2Oiv.Used in antacids
e.NaOHv.Removing permanent hardness of water
  1. ((a))

    a - ii, b - i, c - v, d - iii, e - iv

  2. ((b))

    a - iii, b - iv, c - v, d - ii, e - i

  3. ((c))

    a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - ii

  4. ((d))

    a - iii, b - v, c - iv, d - ii, e - i

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a - iii, b - iv, c - v, d - ii, e - i

Concept:

  • Soaps and detergents - Soap is a sodium or potassium salt of long-chain fatty acids, known for their cleansing action.
  • A detergent is a surfactant having cleansing properties even in hard water.
  • Plaster of Paris - It is Gypsum plaster. The chemical formula for the plaster of pairs is CaSO4. 12\frac{1}{2} H2O.
  • Disinfectants - a disinfectant is an antimicrobial agent usually applied on surfaces of objects to kill or destroy microorganisms.
  • Antacids - Antacids are chemical substances used to neutralize the excess acid released in the stomach.
  • Hardness of water - The hardness of water is due to the presence of Magnesium or calcium ions in water which restricts the cleansing action of soap.

Explanation:

Soaps and detergents -

  • Soap is a sodium or potassium salt of long-chain fatty acids, known for their cleansing action.
  • A detergent is a surfactant having cleansing properties even in hard water.
  • Soap is manufactured by saponification reaction.
  • NaOH is used in saponification reaction for the manufacturing of soaps and detergents.

Plaster of pairs(POP)-

  • Plaster or Paris is a white powdered Chemical compound.
  • It is hydrated calcium sulfate or calcium sulphate hemi-hydrate.
  • It has the chemical formula CaSO4. 12\frac{1}{2} H2O.
  • It is used in putting casts on fractured bones in hospitals.

Disinfectants -

  • A disinfectant is an antimicrobial agent usually applied on surfaces of objects to kill or destroy microorganisms.
  • It is applied on non-living objects.
  • We can use the same chemical as a disinfectant and an antiseptic by changing the concentration.
  • Ex- Bleaching powder is used as water disinfectant having formula CaOCl2.

Antacids -

  • Antacids are the chemical substances used to neutralize the excess acid release in stomach.
  • It is generally a base that neutralises the excess acid in the stomach.
  • Ex- sodium bicarbonate, magnesium hydroxide, etc.

Hardness of water -

  • Hardness of water is due to the presence of Magnesium or calcium ions in water which restricts the cleansing action of soap.
  • Hardness of water is of two types -
  • Permanent
  • Temporary
  • Permanent hardness can be removed by adding sodium carbonate or washing soda because it dissolves the insoluble carbonate that can be removed by filtration.

Conclusion:

Matching them accordingly, we get -

 

CompoundUse
a.CaOCl2iii.Disinfecting water
b.NaHCO3iv.Used in antacids
c.Na2CO3v.Removing permanent hardness of water
d.CaSO4. 12\frac{1}{2} H2Oii.Putting casts on bones
e.NaOHi.Soap and detergent

 

or a - iii, b - iv, c - v, d - ii, e - i.

Hence the correct t answer is option 2.

77

Which of the following chemical reactionts represents the following statement?

‛‛Limestone decomposes on heating to give quick lime.’’

  1. ((a))

    CaCO3 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} Ca(OH)2 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2 (g)

  2. ((b))

    CaCO3 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

  3. ((c))

    Ca(OH)2 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} CaO (s) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)

  4. ((d))

    Ca(OH)2 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CaCO3 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Concept:

​Decomposition reaction - 

  • The reaction in which a single compound is broken down into two or more products is known as the decomposition reaction.
  • The major application of decomposition reaction is obtaining the mineral from its ore.
  • When decomposition is done with the help of heat, the reaction is known as the thermal decomposition reaction.

A common example of a decomposition reaction is an electrolytic breakdown of water into H2& O2

2H2O → 2H2 +O2

Explanation:

 Limestone is Calcium carbonate(CaCO3).

→ Quick lime is Calcium oxide(CaO).

According to the given statement-‛‛Limestone decomposes on heating to give quick lime’’.

The decomposition of limestone CaCO3 gives Calcium oxide(CaO) and carbon dioxide gas is released.

This is done by means of heat, thus the reaction is also called as thermal decomposition of limestone.

The chemical reaction is -

 CaCO3 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Conclusion:

The exact chemical reaction for the thermal decomposition of limestone to produce quick lime is -

CaCO3 (s) Heat\xrightarrow{Heat} CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

78

Identify the following metals on the basis of their reaction with water :

A. Reacts violently with cold water

B. Floats on water on reacting with water

C. Reacts with hot water only

D. Reacts with steam only

E. Does not react with water at all

A, B, C, D, E respectively are

  1. ((a))

    Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium, Copper, Silver

  2. ((b))

    Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium, Copper

  3. ((c))

    Sodium, Magnesium, Aluminium, Zinc, Silver

  4. ((d))

    Magnesium, Calcium, Copper, Zinc, Silver

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium, Copper

Concept:

How metal reacts with water -

  1. Metals react with water to give metal oxide and hydrogen gas.
  2. Metal oxide soluble in water dissolves in water and produce hydroxides.
  3. All metals do not react with water.
  4. Sodium and potassium metals react vigorously with cold water.

General chemical reaction for the reaction of metals with water can be shown as - 

Metal + Water → Metal oxide + Hydrogen gas

Metal oxide + Water → Metal hydroxide 

Explanation:

→Metals react with water to give metal oxide and hydrogen gas.

Metal + Water → Metal oxide + Hydrogen gas 

Metal oxide + Water → Metal hydroxide 

All metals do not react with water in same way, as-

  1. Metal that reacts violently with cold water - Sodium and Potassium
  2. Metal that  floats on the water on reacting with water - Calcium (As bubbles due to hydrogen gas get stuck on the metal surface)
  3. Metal that reacts with hot water only - Magnesium reacts with hot water only
  4. Metal that reacts with steam only - Aluminium, Iron, and Zinc react with steam only and produce their oxides and hydrogen gas.
  5. Metal that does not react with water at all - Lead, Copper, Silver and Gold

As per the options, A, B, C, D, E respectively are Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium, and Copper.

Conclusion:

 A, B, C, D, E respectively are Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium, Copper.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

79

Which of the following is an olfactory indicator?

  1. ((a))

    Phenolphthalein

  2. ((b))

    Litmus solution

  3. ((c))

    Vanilla essence

  4. ((d))

    Methyl orange

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vanilla essence

Concept:

Chemical indicator - 

  1. The chemical indicator is the substance that provides us an indication of whether the given solution has acidic or basic composition.
  2. indicators generally change their colour or odour with a change in pH of the solution they are mixed with.
  3. The most common application of indicators is in titrations, to note down the endpoint of the situations.
  4. Ex-  methyl orange

Types of chemical indicators-

  1. Natural indicators - These are obtained directly from nature. Ex- Turmeric
  2. Synthetic indicators - They are made from synthetic chemicals in laboratories. Ex- Litmus indicator
  3. Olfactory indicators- are those whose odour or smell changes according to the change in pH. Ex - Onion extract and vanilla extract

Explanation:

 Olfactory indicators are those whose odour or smell changes according to the change in pH or according to acidic or basic medium.

Vanilla extract or essence changes its smell when mixed with acid or base.

  • It is an olfactory indicator.
  • It changes its smell according to how it reacts with acid or base.
  • It has a pungent smell in an acidic medium and it is odourless in a basic medium.

Therefore, Vanilla essence is used as a chemical olfactory indicator to describe whether a given mixture is acidic or basic.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

80

Which of the following reaction produces ‛Ethene’?

  1. ((a))

    CH3 CH2 OH + Na →

  2. ((b))

    CH3 CH2 OH 

  3. ((c))

    CHCH2 OH + CH3 COOH acid\xrightarrow{acid}

  4. ((d))

    CH3 CH2 OH 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CH3 CH2 OH 

Concept:

Dehydration of alcohol - 

  • The dehydration of alcohol is done in presence of hot concn. sulphuric acid.
  • Dehydration of alcohol in presence of hot concn. sulphuric acid gives the corresponding alkene.
  • As the name dehydration indicates, the water molecule is removed from the alcohol.

The reaction mechanism can be shown as- 

 

Explanation:

1) CH3 CH2 OH + Na → CH3 CH2 O- Na+ (sodium ethoxide)+ H+

  • When ethanol is heated with sodium the ethoxide ion is formed.

2) CH3 CH2 OH 

CH2=CH2 (ethene) + H2O

  • This is dehydration of alcohol in presence of hot concn. sulphuric acid.
  • Dehydration of alcohol in presence of hot concn. sulphuric acid gives the corresponding alkene.
  • In the above reaction ethanol is dehydrated with hot concn. sulphuric acid and thus the product formed is ethene.

3)CH3 CH2 OH + CH3 COOH acid\xrightarrow{acid} CH3 COO CH2 CH3 (ethyl acetate) + H2O

  • The reaction is called the Esterification reaction.
  • Ethanol and ethanoic acid react in presence of an acid to give ethyl acetate.
  • The product thus formed is an ester, that's why the creation is named as an esterification reaction.

4)CH3 CH2 OH 

CH3 COOH (acetic acid)

  • KMnO4 is a strong oxidising agent.
  • It oxidised ethanol to ethanoic acid.

Conclusion:

Therefore, ethanol when dehydrated with hot concn. sulphuric acid the product formed is ethene.

CH3 CH2 OH 

CH2=CH2 (ethene) + H2O

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

81

The name of the compound represented by the following formula is :

  1. ((a))

    Propanol

  2. ((b))

    Propanone

  3. ((c))

    Propanal

  4. ((d))

    Propanoic acid 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Propanal

Concept:

IUPAC Nomenclature-

  • IUPAC stands for International Union for Pure and Applied Chemistry.
  • It gives a systematic method for naming organic compounds.
  • The rule decides the naming of an organic compound is known as the IUPAC rules.

Explanation:

IUPAC Nomenclature-

  1. The total number of carbon present in the structure is 3 so, it has given a rootword 'prop'.
  2. -CHO group is used a functional group, so, 'al' is used as 2°  suffix.
  3. The given structure is having only C-C single bonds, therefore, it is a saturated alkane, thus using 'ane' as 1° suffix.

Thus, Prop + ane + al = Propanal

Conclusion:

 

The name of the compound represented by the formula 

is propanal.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

82

Which of the following hydrocarbons will undergo addition reaction?

C2H6, C3H8, C3H6, C2H2, CH4

  1. ((a))

    C2H6, C3H8, C2H2 only

  2. ((b))

    C3H8, CH4, C2H6 only

  3. ((c))

    C3H6, C2H2 only

  4. ((d))

    C2H6, C2H2, CHonly

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C3H6, C2H2 only

Concept:**

Addition reactions -

  1. Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reaction with hydrogen in presence of catalysts such as Ni or Palladium to give a saturated hydrocarbon.
  2. The reaction is also known as the hydrogenation reaction.
  3. Hydrogenation is used to convert unsaturated oils and fats to saturated oils and fats.

The reaction can be shown as -

C2H4   H2,;Ni;or;Pd\xrightarrow{H_2, ;Ni ;or; Pd}   C2H6  

Explanation:

Only unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reaction.

Classification of given hydrocarbons as saturated or unsaturated hydrocarbon -

  1. C2H6 (CnH2n+2) - Alkane (saturated)
  2. C3H8 (CnH2n+2) - Alkane (saturated)
  3. C3H6(CnH2n) - Alkene (Unsaturated)
  4. C2H2(CnH2n-2) - Alkyne (Unsaturated)
  5. CH4 - Methane - Alkane (Saturated)

Only C3H6, C2H2 are unsaturated hydrocarbons and hence only they will show addition reaction.

Conclusion:

Only C3H6, C2H2 are unsaturated hydrocarbons and hence only they will show addition reaction.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

83

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding properties of elements from left to right across the periods of Periodic Table?

  1. ((a))

    The elements become less metallic

  2. ((b))

    The number of valence electrons increases

  3. ((c))

    The atoms lose their electrons more easily

  4. ((d))

    The oxides become more acidic

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The atoms lose their electrons more easily

Concept:

On moving left to right in a period,

  • The principal shell remain same but atomic number is increasing as we move left to right in period.
  • With increase in atomic number nuclear charge is increasing.
  • With increase in atomic number, electrons  in the valence shell is also increasing.
  • Therefore effective nuclear charge is increasing.
  • Due to increased effective nuclear charge, the valence electrons or valence shell feels more pull to the nucleus.
  • and atomic size reduces at every step in a period (general trend).

Explanation:

→  Metallic character in a period,

  • Metallic character decreases as we move left to right in a period as the tendency to lose electrons decreases from left to left.
  • Thus the elements become less metallic from left to right in a period.

→ Valence electrons in a period,

  • With an increase in atomic number, electrons in the valence shell are also increasing.
  • Therefore effective nuclear charge is increasing.

→ Atomic size in a period, 

  • Due to increased effective nuclear charge, the valence electrons or valence shell feels more pull to the nucleus.
  • and atomic size reduces at every step in a period (general trend).
  • It becomes difficult to lose electrons by an atom as size is reduced in a period.

→ Nature of oxides,

  • Oxides of alkali and alkaline earth metals are more basic as they are present on the left side of the periodic table.
  • basic nature of the oxides decreases as we move left to right in a period.
  • Therefore, the acidic nature of oxides increases in a period from left to right.

Conclusion:

Statement III, " The atoms lose their electrons more easily" is incorrect as it becomes difficult to lose electrons by an atom as atomic size is decreasing over a period.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

84

According to Modern Periodic Table, an Element A is present in Group 1, Period 3 and Element B is present in Group 17, Period 3. A reacts with B to form compound C. The chemical formula of compound C is

  1. ((a))

    A2 B

  2. ((b))

    A B

  3. ((c))

    A2 B3

  4. ((d))

    A B3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A B

Concept:

Ionic compound - 

  • Ionic compounds are usually formed when a metal reacts with a non-metal.
  • Ionic compounds are held together by ionic bonds.
  • NaCl is an example of an ionic compound.

Explanation:

Element 'A' belong to group 1, period 3 indicates

  • 'A'  is an alkali metal.
  • It belongs to group 3 i.e. it must be Na.
  • An element belonging to group 1 is having valency 1.

→ Element 'B' belongs to group 17 and period 3 indicates - 

  • Element 'B' must be a halide, especially chlorine (Cl).
  • Its valency is also 1.

To make a chemical formula, the valency of both should be balanced.

Na and Cl react to give NaCl as -

Conclusion:

As both A and B have the same valency, they must form a compound C which can be represented by the formula AB. 

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

85

Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option :

Assertion (A) :

Atomic radius decreases on moving from left to right along a period.

Reason (R) :

Increase in nuclear charge tends to pull the electrons closer.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are false.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Concept:

Atomic radius - It is the distance from the center of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing electrons. Atomic size is measured in terms of atomic radius.

Atomic radius basically is of three types -

  1. Covalent radius
  2. Van der Waal's radius
  3. Metallic radius

Variation of atomic radius in a period - In a period generally atomic radius decreases with an increase in atomic number or atomic radius decreases as we move left to right in a period.

Variation of atomic radius in a period - in a group, generally atomic radius increases as we move down in a group from top to bottom.

Explanation:

According to the variation of atomic radius in a period, the atomic radius decreases as we move left to right in a period.

Reason - 

In a period,

  • The principal shell remains the same.
  • As we move left to right, the atomic number increases.
  • With an increase in atomic number, the number of valence electrons increases.
  • so, effective nuclear charge also increases.
  • Due to increased effective nuclear charge, the valence electrons or valence shell feels more pull to the nucleus.

Therefore, the atomic radius decreases in a period because effective nuclear charge increases with the addition of each electron in the valence shell.

Conclusion:

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

86

Identify ‘A’ in the following reaction :

  1. ((a))

    CH3CHO

  2. ((b))

    CH3COOH

  3. ((c))

    C2H5COOH

  4. ((d))

    OCH3CCH3\rm \begin{matrix} \rm O\\ \rm || \\ CH_3-C-CH_3\\ \end{matrix}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CH3COOH

Concept:

Esterification reaction - 

  • It is a reaction between an organic acid (RCOOH) with a primary alcohol(ROH) in presence of an acid to give an ester.
  • The reaction is named as esterification as an ester is formed as a result of the reaction.
  • It can be represented as - RCOOH + R'OH Acid\xrightarrow {Acid}   RCOOR' (Ester)+ H2O
  • The esterification reaction is widely used in the manufacturing of ester for medicinal purposes.
  • The esterification reaction is the reverse of the saponification reaction.

Explanation:

Identify ‘A’ in the following reaction :

A + C2H5OH Acid\xrightarrow{Acid} CH3COC2H5O \rm \begin{matrix}\rm CH_3-C-O-C_2H_5 \\ ||\rm \\ \rm O\\ \rm \\\ \end{matrix}

The given reaction is an Esterification reaction.

→Esterification reaction of carboxylic acid and alcohol yields in the formation of an ester.

In the given reaction, the product is ethyl ethanoate or ethyl acetate, which is formed when acetic acid and ethanol react in the presence of an acid.

∴ 'A' in the given reaction must be acetic acid.

The complete reaction can be shown as  -

CH3COOH (acetic acid )+ C2H5OH (ethanol) Acid\xrightarrow{Acid}CH3COOC2H5(ethyl acetate)

Conclusion:

Therefore,  'A' in the given reaction must be acetic acid or CH3COOH.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

87

Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air. This is due to formation of

  1. ((a))

    Silver carbonate

  2. ((b))

    Silver oxide

  3. ((c))

    Silver sulphide

  4. ((d))

    Silver nitrate 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Silver sulphide

Concept:

Tarnishing of silver - 

  • Tarnishing means the fine layer of corrosion on a metal surface.
  • Silver tarnishing happens due to the formation of silver sulphide on the surface of the silver.
  • Due to the layer of silver sulphide on the silver surface, the colour of the silver turns dark or black.
  • The reason of silver tarnishing is the exposure of the silver to the air.
  • To avoid silver tarnishing, silver items should be cleaned with soap water and ammonia solution.

Explanation:

Silver items become black after some time when exposed to air.

→ The reason behind the black colour of silver is the formation of silver sulphide on the silver surface.

  • Silver reacts with sulphur compounds present in the air such as H2S and silver sulphide is formed.

The reaction can be shown as -

2Ag  + H2S → Ag2S ↓  + H2

Conclusion:

Thus, the black colour substance formed is due to silver sulphide.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

88

A\underline{A} ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the B\underline{B} of air. This process is known as C\underline{C}.

A, B, C respectively are

  1. ((a))

    Carbonate, absence, roasting

  2. ((b))

    Carbonate, absence, calcination

  3. ((c))

    Sulphide, absence, roasting

  4. ((d))

    Sulphide, presence, calcination

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Carbonate, absence, calcination

Concept:

Metallurgy - 

The process which involved the extraction of pure metal from naturally occurring ores is called metallurgy.

To extract the metal in its pure form a number of steps are done. These include -

  • Crushing and grinding of the ore.
  • The concentration of the ore.
  • Extraction of crude metal.
  • Purification of the metal

There are some common terms used in metallurgy like minerals, ores, gangue\matrix, etc.

Explanation: 

Concentrated ores can be converted into their oxides by the process of calcination or roasting. 

→ Calcination is the process of conversion of carbonate ores into metal oxide by strongly heating in the limited supply or absence of air.

  • Siderite is the carbonate ore of iron and thus can be converted it into its oxide by calcination.
  • In this process, FeCO3 is heated strongly below its melting point in the absence of air.
  • The chemical reaction is -  FeCO3  → FeO + CO2

→ Roasting is the process of conversion of sulfide ores into metal oxide by heating strongly in presence of air.

Conclusion: Carbonated ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the absence of air. This process is known as Calcination.

Therefore, A, B, and C are carbonated, absent and calcination respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

89

x MnO2 + y Al → x Mn + z Al2O3

For the above reaction to be balanced, the values of x, y, z are respectively

  1. ((a))

    4, 2, 2

  2. ((b))

    3, 4, 2

  3. ((c))

    2, 3, 2

  4. ((d))

    2, 2, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3, 4, 2

Concept:

Balance a redox reaction -

  1. Write down the chemical equation.
  2. Write the oxidation number for each element.
  3. Write the half-reactions for elements of interest.
  4. Balanced each half-reaction on both sides according to the -
  5. Balance the element of interest
  6. Balance O atoms by adding H2O
  7. Balance H atoms by adding H+
  8. Balance electronic charge by adding electrons
  9. Balance the overall equation for electrons.
  10. Add half-reactions and simplify

Explanation:

For the above reaction to balance follow the steps - 

  1. Write down the chemical equation.
  2. Write the oxidation number for each element.

3. Write the half-reactions for elements of interest. 4. Balanced each half-reaction on both sides according to the -

  1. Balance the element of interest
  2. Balance O atoms by adding H2O
  3. Balance H atoms by adding H+

Balance electronic charge by adding electrons

                    Oxidation half

                     2 × [2AI + 3H2O] → 2 × [Al2O3 + 6H+ + 6e]

                     4Al + 6H2O → 2Al2O3 + 12 H+ 12e-

                    Reduction half

                    3 × [ Mno+ 4H+ 4e-] → 3 × [ Mn + 2H2O]

                   3MnO2 + 12H+ + 12e- → 3Mn+6H2O

  1. Balance the overall equation for electrons.

2. Overall:- 4Al + 6H2O + 3MnO2 + 12 H+ + 12e- → 2AI2O3 + 12H+ + 12e- + 3Mn + 6H2O 3. Add half-reactions and simplify

Conclusion:

For the above reaction to be balanced, the values of x, y, z are 3, 4, and 2 respectively.

Therefore the correct answer is option  2.

90

Isotopes differ in their

  1. ((a))

    Chemical structure

  2. ((b))

    Atomic number

  3. ((c))

    Number of neutrons

  4. ((d))

    Physical and chemical properties

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Number of neutrons

Concept:

Isotopes - Elements with the same atomic number and different mass numbers are called "Isotopes".

For Example - Hydrogen exists in three isotopic forms i.e protium, deuterium, and tritium.

1H(Protium)1H2 (Deuterium)1H3 (Tritium)
Atomic number111
Mass number123
Number of protons111
Number of neutrons012

 

Explanation:

Elements having the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called isotopes.

  • Isotopes differ in their masses.
  • Due to differences in the masses, no. of neutrons carried by the isotopes are different.
  • So, isotopes are having same no. of protons but the different numbers of neutrons.

→ Due to differences in their masses, there is a difference in the physical properties like density, melting point etc. because physical properties depend upon the mass.

Chemical properties of isotopes are almost same but in case of hydrogen isotopes there is an exception due to the effect of the neutrons on the size of nucleus.

Thus, Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons.

Ex- 6C126C13, and 6C14, are isotopes having the same no. of protons(6) but 6, 7, and 8 neutrons respectively.

Conclusion:

Therefore, Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

91

A plant cell is likely to swell up on putting it in a solution which is ______ to it. 

  1. ((a))

    hypotonic

  2. ((b))

    isotonic

  3. ((c))

    hypertonic

  4. ((d))

    saturated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

hypotonic

Key Points

  • Osmosis - is the movement of water molecules from a solution with a high concentration of water molecules to a solution with a lower concentration of water molecules, through a cell's partially permeable membrane.

Hypotonic solution - 

  • Hypotonic solution is that which contains a lower amount of solute in comparison to the solute concentration in other solutions, across a semipermeable membrane.

Isotonic solution

  • Isotonic Solutions are that which contain the same concentration of water and solutes as the cell cytoplasm

Hypertonic solution

  • Hypertonic solution is that which contains a higher amount of solute in comparison to the solute concentration in other solutions, across a semipermeable membrane.

Saturated solution

  • A saturated solution is a solution in which there is so much of solute dissolved  that if there was any more solute added, it would not dissolve.

Explanation:

  • When a cell is kept in a hypotonic medium, i.e. medium containing less solutes, then the cells tend to take up water from the surrounding medium.
  • This happens due to the osmosis phenomena.
  • As a result of this, the cell swells up and becomes turgid.
  • This process is known as deplasmolysis.
92

The main reason for viruses not showing any charecterstics of life until they enter a living body is absence of

  1. ((a))

    protoplast

  2. ((b))

    nucleic acids

  3. ((c))

    organized structure

  4. ((d))

    mutations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

protoplast

CONCEPT:

  • An organism is said to be as living when it performs the different life processes.
  • Different characteristics present in an organism which can define an organism as living are-
  • Reproduction
  • Metabolism
  • Cellular organization of the body
  • Consciousness
  • So, living organisms are self replicating, evolving and self- regulating interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli.

Important Points

  • Viruses are very minute infectious agents.
  • Viruses  consists of a single molecule of nucleic acid that is surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid.
  • They lack the protoplasm.
  • Viruses lack cellular machinery and hence do not show any characteristics of life until they enter a living body/host and use the host cell to multiply.
  • Therefore they are considered dead outside.
  • They transform into living organisms once they enter a host body.
  • Viruses depend on the host cell machinery for their replication.
  • They do not possess the required ribosomes and so, cannot independently form proteins from molecules of messenger RNA.
  • Due of these reasons, viruses can replicate only within a living host cell.
93

Which of the following cell organelle helps in waste disposal in an animal cell?

  1. ((a))

    Vacuoles

  2. ((b))

    Lysosomes

  3. ((c))

    Plastids

  4. ((d))

    Golgi bodies

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lysosomes

Important Points

  • A lysosome is a single membrane-bound cell organelle.
  • These contain hydrolytic enzymes that have the ability to break down different types of biomolecules.
  • The hydrolytic enzymes present destroy any foreign material inside the cell such as bacteria or may also digest poorly working cell organelles.
  • They are also known as "suicidal bags".

Additional Information

Vacuole

  • A vacuole is a membrane-bound cell organelle
  • The term “vacuole” means “empty space”.
  • They help in the storage and disposal of various waste products.

Plastids

  • Plastids are double-membrane cell organelles that are found in plants and algae.
  • They contain pigments that are used in photosynthesis and also many other different types of pigments.

Golgi bodies

  • It is a cell organelle that helps process and package proteins and lipid molecules, especially proteins destined to be exported from the cell.
94

Which type of Epithelial tissue is present in respiratory tract of human beings?

  1. ((a))

    Simple squamous

  2. ((b))

    Columnar

  3. ((c))

    Stratified squamous

  4. ((d))

    Cuboidal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Columnar

Concept:

  • Epithelial cells cover the external surface of the body and lining of internal organs. The epithelial cells can be classified as 
  • squamous epithelium
  • columnar epithelium
  • cuboidal epithelium
  • Based on the arrangement of the epithelial cells it can be devided into -
  • Simple: A simple epithelium means that there’s only one layer of cells.
  • Stratified: A stratified epithelium is made up of more than one layer of cells.

Important Points

Squamous epithelium: 

  • Squamous epithelial cells are flat and sheet-like in appearance.
  • They are found in walls of blood vessels.

Cuboidal epithelium:

  • Cuboidal epithelial cells have a cube-like appearance.
  • It is found in the ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephron and kidney.

Columnar epithelium:

  • Columnar epithelial cells are column-like in appearance.
  • They are tall and slender cells.

Explanation:

  • Respiratory epithelium is ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium found lining most of the respiratory tract.
  • These cells are columnar in shape.
  • The cilia help in the movement of mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.
95

A, B, C, D, E, F respectively are

  1. ((a))

    Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Phanerogams, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms

  2. ((b))

    Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Phanerogams, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms

  3. ((c))

    Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Thallophyta, Gymnosperms, Phanerogams, Angiosperms,

  4. ((d))

    Pteridophyta, Bryophyta, Thallophyta, Phanerogams, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Phanerogams, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms

CONCEPT:

  • The five kingdom classification was given by RH Whittaker in the year 1969.
  • According to the classification, the living organisms can be divided into 5 kingdoms- Monera, Protista, Fungi, Animalia and Plantae
  • Kingdom Plantae includes all the plants.

Important Points

Thallophyta - 

  • They are a group of plants or plantlike organisms such as algae and fungi.
  • They lack differentiated stems, leaves, and roots.

Bryophyta - 

  • They are nonvascular and seedless plants.
  • They include mosses, liverworts and hornworts

Pteridophytes - 

  • Pteridophytes are vascular plants
  • They do not produce flowers and seeds

Phanerogams - 

  • These plants have well-differentiated reproductive tissues
  • These plants produce seeds to reproduce.

Gymnosperms -

  • The gymnosperms are a group of seed-producing plants
  • The seeds produced are naked
  • The seeds are not enclosed in an ovary or fruit

Angiosperms -

  • These are flower bearing and fruit bearing plants
  • They possess vascular tissues like xylem and phloem.
  • The plant body is divided into roots, stems and leaves
  • The seeds are enclosed in an ovary or fruit.

Classification in Plants - CBSE SCIENCE

96

(A) is an exocrine as well as an endocrine gland in human beings. It secretes( B) which contains enzymes to aid digestion of food in the small intestine.

A and B respectively are

  1. ((a))

    Liver, Bile Juice

  2. ((b))

    Pancreas, Bile Juice

  3. ((c))

    Pancreas, Pancreatic Juice

  4. ((d))

    Liver, Pancreatic Juice

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pancreas, Pancreatic Juice

Concept:

  • A gland is an organ that produce one or more substances, such as hormones, digestive juices, sweat, tears, saliva, or milk.

Endocrine glands

  • They are ductless glands.
  • Endocrine glands secrete their substances directly into your bloodstream.

Exocrine glands

  • Exocrine glands secretes their products through ducts.
  • Exocrine glands secrete their substances through ducts and they reach the target organs.

Key Points 

  • Pancreas act as both exocrine and endocrine glands.
  • It secretes the pancreatic juice which contains enzymes to aid digestion of food in the small intestine.
  • The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes such as are amylases, lipases, nucleases chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase and trypsinogen etc.
  • The endocrine secretions include the secretion of hormones like Glucagon and Insulin.
  • Pancreas consists of Islets of Langerhans.
  • Two types of cells are there in Islets of Langerhans-
  • α-cells -secretes glucagon
  • ß-cells - secretes insulin
  • Glucagon helps in maintaining normal blood glucose levels.
  • Insulin plays a major role in regulation of glucose metabolism.
97

Fraternal twins in human beings are formed when

  1. ((a))

    One egg is fertilized by two sperms

  2. ((b))

    Two eggs are fertilized by one sperm

  3. ((c))

    Two eggs are fertilized by two sperms

  4. ((d))

    One egg is fertilized by one sperm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Two eggs are fertilized by two sperms

Concept:

  • The process of combining the male gamete (sperm) with the female gamete (ovum) is known as fertilization.
  • Fertilization of the ovum by sperm normally occurs in the fallopian tubes in humans.
  • The product of fertilization is a zygote.
  • The zygote becomes an embryo which then develops into a fetus.

Key Points

  • There are two types of twins –
  • identical (monozygotic)
  • fraternal (dizygotic)

Identical twins

  • Identical twins develop from a single fertilised egg.
  • Fertilization of a single egg takes place by a single sperm.
  • This fertilized egg then splits into two and develops as two embryos.
  • Identical twins share the same genomes and are always of the same sex.

Fraternal twins

  • Fraternal twins are also called dizygotic twins.
  • They result from the fertilization of two separate eggs with two different sperm during the same pregnancy.
  • Fraternal twins may or may not be of the same sex or have similar appearances.
98

Which of the following statements is true regarding the cells in a dog and an elephant?

  1. ((a))

    The size of cells in an elephant are larger than that in a dog

  2. ((b))

    The number of cells in an elephant are more than that in a dog

  3. ((c))

    The shape of cells in an elephant are different than that in a dog

  4. ((d))

    The variety of cells in an elephant are different than that in a dog

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The number of cells in an elephant are more than that in a dog

Concept:

  • The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all life forms.
  • They are a building block of any living organism.
  • Anything less than a cell, cannot be considered as a living organism.
  • Unicellular organisms are ones that are made up of only one cell that carries out all of the functions needed by the organism.
  • Multicellular organisms are composed of more than one cell, with groups of cells differentiating to take on specialized functions.

Key Points

  • The size of an organism does not alter the size of the cell.
  • The size of a particular cell type remains same in all type of animals.
  • Animals which are larger in size can have a larger number of cells compared to the smaller animals.
  • For example - the number of cells in elephant would be more when compared to the dog.
99

Which of the following are characteristic features of group Arthropoda?

A. Bilateral symmetry

B. Open circulatory system

C. Spiny skin

D. Backbone

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    B and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B only

Concept:

  • According to the R.H Whittaker's five kingdom classification the organisms can be classified into Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
  • Animals are classified on the basis of arrangement of cells, body symmetry, nature of coelom, patterns of digestive, circulatory or reproductive system, presence of notochord etc.
  • Kingdom Animalia has been classified into 11 different phyla:
  • Porifera
  • Coelenterata (Cnidaria)
  • Ctenophora
  • Platyhelminthes
  • Aschelminthes
  • Annelida
  • Arthropoda
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Hemichordata
  • Chordata

Key Points

Arthropoda

  • This is the largest phylum of Kingdom Animalia.
  • This phylum includes insects.
  • They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented and have coelom.
  • The body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
  • The body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
  • They have jointed appendages.
  • They have open circulatory system.
  • Excretion takes place through Malpighian tubules.
  • Examples - Mosquitoes, Limulus, prawn, butterfly etc.

Therefore, only A and B are characteristic features of Arthropoda.

100

Which set from the following is the odd one on the basis of classification of animals?

  1. ((a))

    Frogs, Toad, Salamander

  2. ((b))

    Snake, Turtle, Lizard

  3. ((c))

    Frog, Lizard, Crocodile

  4. ((d))

    Butterfly, Spider, Scorpion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Frog, Lizard, Crocodile

Important Points

  • According to the R.H Whittaker's five kingdom classification the organisms can be classified into Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
  • Animals are classified on the basis of arrangement of cells, body symmetry, nature of coelom, patterns of digestive, circulatory or reproductive system, presence of notochord etc.
  • Kingdom Animalia has been classified into 11 different phyla:
  • Porifera
  • Coelenterata (Cnidaria)
  • Ctenophora
  • Platyhelminthes
  • Aschelminthes
  • Annelida
  • Arthropoda
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Hemichordata
  • Chordata​

Explanation:

Option 1 - INCORRECT

  • All animals belong to class Amphibia.

Amphibia

  • These can live both on land and in water.
  • They have three-chambered heart
  • Amphibians breath through their skin, as well as their lungs in some cases.
  • Amphibians are cold-blooded.
  • They lay eggs in water.

Option 2 - INCORRECT

  • All animals belong to class Reptilia.

Reptilia

  • Reptiles are the creeping and burrowing cold blooded animals.
  • They have creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
  • Their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, have scales or scutes.
  • They have tympanum which represents their ear.

Option 3 - CORRECT

  • Frog belong to class Amphibians.
  • Lizard and crocodile belongs to Reptilia.
  • As all the animals do not belong to the same class therefore this option is incorrect.
  • All reptiles have three chambered heart except crocodiles.
  • Crocodiles have four chambered heart.

Option 4 - INCORRECT

  • All animals belong to phylum Arthropoda.

Arthropoda

  • This is the largest phylum of Kingdom Animalia.
  • This phylum includes insects.
  • The body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
  • The body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
  • They have jointed appendages.
101

Identify the group of animals that

A. have three-chambered heart

B. respire through gills or lungs

C. lay eggs in water

  1. ((a))

    Pisces

  2. ((b))

    Amphibia

  3. ((c))

    Reptilia

  4. ((d))

    Aves

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Amphibia

Important Points

  • Kingdom Animalia includes all the Animals.
  • Animals are classified on the basis of arrangement of cells, body symmetry, nature of coelom, patterns of digestive, circulatory or reproductive system, presence of notochord etc.
  • Kingdom Animalia has been classified into 11 different phylum:
  • Porifera
  • Coelenterata (Cnidaria)
  • Ctenophora
  • Platyhelminthes
  • Aschelminthes
  • Annelida
  • Arthropoda
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Hemichordata
  • Chordata

Explanation:Amphibia

  • These can live both on land and in water.
  • They have three-chambered heart.
  • Amphibians breath through their skin, as well as their lungs in some cases.

Amphibians are cold-blooded.

  • They lay eggs in water.

Additional Information

Reptilia

  • Reptiles are the creeping and burrowing cold blooded animals.
  • They have creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
  • Their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, have scales or scutes.
  • They have tympanum which represents their ear.

Pisces

  • Pisces are the true jawed vertebrates.
  • They are exclusively aquatic organisms and they bear fins.
  • They can have a bony or cartilaginous skeleton.
  • The body is covered by scales.

Aves

  • Aves is a class of vertebrates that includes birds.
  • They have wings and their forelimbs are modified into wings.
  • The body is covered with feathers.
102

Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern is called

  1. ((a))

    Mixed cropping

  2. ((b))

    Inter-cropping

  3. ((c))

    Crop rotation

  4. ((d))

    Field fallow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inter-cropping

Concept:

  • Cropping Pattern refers to the proportion of area under different crops at a point of time.
  • The traditionally used cropping systems are monoculture, intercropping, crop rotations, fallows systems/shifting cultivation, strip cropping, multiple cropping, contour strip cropping, and cover crops.
  • Cropping pattern in India is determined by factors like rainfall, climate, temperature and soil type.

Key PointsMixed cropping - 

  • This is a method in which seeds of two crops are distributed or dibbled on the land without any row arrangement.
  • This method is easy for sowing but makes weeding, fertilization and harvesting difficult.

Inter-cropping - 

  • Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern is called intercropping.
  • For example - Planting alternating rows of maize and beans.

Crop rotation - 

  • This is a method in which the type of crops grown in the field is changed each season or each year.
  • For Example: Maize is planted in the first year and beans in the second year.

Field fallow - 

  • It is type of practice in which farmer plows but does not cultivate for one or more seasons to allow the field to become more fertile again.

Therefore, the correct answer is inter-cropping.

103

Which of the following does not sublimate?

  1. ((a))

    Camphor

  2. ((b))

    Dry ice

  3. ((c))

    Ammonium acetate

  4. ((d))

    Ammonium chloride

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ammonium acetate

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • In sublimation, a substance changes from a solid to a gas without even passing through a liquid phase.
  • There are many substances that are converted into gas from solid when heated and converted from gas to solid when cooled without converting into liquid. Such substances are known as sublime.
  • Sublimation occurs at temperatures and pressures below a substance’s triple point in its phase diagram, which means it is an endothermic process.
  • Sublimation may be a chemical change where a solid turns into a gas without probing a liquid stage.

Explanation:

  • The transition of a substance directly from a solid state to a gaseous state without passing through the liquid state is known as Sublimation.
  • Ammonium chloride on heating directly converts into vapour.
  • Camphor molecules are held together by a weak force, even weaker than ice molecules, and simply vapourize on heating without melting.
  • At room temperature and normal pressure (atmospheric pressure), carbon dioxide is usually a gas. So when you take dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) and expose it to this temperature and pressure, it will try to return to the gas phase.
  • Ammonium acetate does not sublimate ordinary due to the presence of strong bonding within the molecule.

Conclusion:

Thus, Ammonium acetate does not sublimate.

104

Transpiration helps in absorbtion of water and minerals by the roots through

  1. ((a))

    creating suction

  2. ((b))

    temperature regulation

  3. ((c))

    evaporation

  4. ((d))

    osmosis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

creating suction

Important Points

  • Transpiration is the biological process by which water is lost in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plants
  • Transpiration assists in pulling water up from roots to leaves and this is known as the transpiration pull.
  • As the water evaporates from the leaves, it creates an upward pull of water in the xylem vessels.
  • This causes the roots to absorb water from the surroundings through suction and pass the water to other parts of the plant.
  • This upward movement of water and minerals from the root to the aerial parts of the plant is known as Ascent of Sap.
  • This ascent of sap was explained using the Cohesion tension theory.
  • The theory states that transpiration pull or tension, cohesion property of water, and hydration of the cell walls (i.e., adhesion) are collectively responsible for the ascent of sap.
  • Water movement through the xylem is caused by the pressure difference between one end of the system and the other.

Advantages of transpiration - 

  • The loss of water vapour through evaporation from the plant cools the plant down when the weather is very hot.
  • Water from the stem and roots moves upwards or is 'pulled' into the leaves through suction.
  • Creates the transpiration pull which helps in absorption of water and minerals and also helps in their transportation.
  • Supplies the water for photosynthesis.
  • Helps in maintaining the shape and structure of the plants by keeping the cells rigid.

Additional Information

Factors affecting transpiration -

  • Temperature
  • Higher the temperature, more is the evaporation of water.
  • This leads to an increase in transpiration.
  • Humidity
  • High humidity decreases the rate of transpiration.
  • Air movement
  • When the air movement around the leaves is faster, it leads to increase in the evaporation rate.
  • Ultimately leading to increase in rate of evaporation.
  • Light intensity
  • Light stimulates the opening of stomata which results in water vapour to diffuse faster.
  • This results in increase in rate of transpiration.
105

Choose the correct sequence that represents a human excretory system :

  1. ((a))

    Kidneys → Ureter → Urethra → Urinary bladder

  2. ((b))

    Ureter → Kidneys → Urinary bladder → Urethra

  3. ((c))

    Kidneys → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra

  4. ((d))

    Ureter → Urinary bladder → Kidneys → Urethra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kidneys → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra

Concept:

  • The main excretory parts in humans  include kidney, ureter, urinary bladder and urethra.
  • Kidneys filter the blood and the filtrate obtained is called the urine.
  • Urine passes to the urinary bladder via ureter and is expelled out of the body through the urethra.

Key PointsKidneys - 

  • Kidneys are reddish brown, bean-shaped structures located on either side of the backbone
  • They are situated at the levels of last thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae.
  • Nephron is the functional unit of the kidney .
  • The nephron consists of different parts like glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, Henle's loop, PCT and DCT.
  • The whole nephron structure help in efficient filtration and absorption of the fluid.

Ureters - 

  • A pair of ureters are present attached to the hilum notch of each kidney.
  • The filtrate formed in the kidneys is passed through the ureters to the urinary bladder.

Urinary Bladder - 

  • The urine formed by the kidneys is stored in the urinary bladder and it is passed out through the urethra.
  • The relaxation of the urethral sphincter causes the release of urine from the urinary bladder.

Therefore the sequence of urine flow that occurs in human excretory system:

Kidneys → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra

106

Which of the following statements are true regarding arteries in a human circulatory system?

A. All arteries carry pure blood

B. Arteries have valves

C. Arteries have thick walls

D. Arteries carry blood from heart to other organs

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C and D only

Concept:

  • Blood circulate throughout your body through the blood vessels.
  • The three major kinds of blood vessels are -
  • arteries
  • veins
  • capillaries
  • They majorly help in delivering oxygen to vital organs and tissues, and also help in removal of waste products.
  • Arteries and veins are tubes of muscle that our blood flows through.
  • Arteries are the ones which carry blood away from the heart.
  • Veins are the ones which carry blood towards the heart
  • Except the pulmonary blood vessels, arteries carry oxygenated blood and veins carry deoxygenated blood.
  • Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels that connect arteries and veins.

Key Points

Arteries

  • Arteries are blood vessels that distribute oxygen-rich blood to the whole body.
  • It carries blood from the heart to all other parts of the body.
  • Except the pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
  • Arteries have thicker walls with muscle tissue when compared to veins.
  • They don’t have valves.
  • The force of the blood coming from the heart helps the blood to flow in one direction.

Veins

  • Veins bring back the oxygen-poor blood or deoxygenated blood from body’s cells and tissues to the heart.
  • Veins have thinner walls.
  • They have valves to keep the blood flowing and prevent the blood to move in wrong direction.
  • Types of Veins
  • Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.
  • Systemic veins return oxygen-depleted blood from the rest of the body to the right atrium of the heart.

Therefore, the statements C and D are only true regarding arteries in a human circulatory system.

107

Match the following correctly :

Plant HormoneFunction
a.Auxinsi.Growth of stem
b.Gibberellinsii.Promotes cell division
c.Cytokininsiii.Inhibits growth
d,Abscisic acidiv.Movement of shoot
  1. ((a))

    a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i

  2. ((b))

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

  3. ((c))

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  4. ((d))

    a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Concept:

  • Plant hormones are small and simple chemical substances that control growth and differentiation of different plant cells.
  • Plant hormones or phytohormones are also called as plant growth regulators.
  • Plant hormones regulate plant development and plant responses to their environment.
  • five major types of plant hormones are - auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene and abscisic acid.

Key Points

Auxin

  • Auxin is a plant growth promoting hormone.
  • Auxins is majorly produced in the apices of stem and root and help in their elongation.
  • It plays an important role in cell division and differentiation by enhancing them.
  • Auxins are responsible for the phototropic movement in plants in response to light.
  • Auxins are also play a role in promoting flowering.
  • Auxins are responsible in the maintenance of apical dominance
  • It inhibits the growth of lateral (axillary) buds and promotes the growth of the apical buds.

Gibberellins

  • Gibberellins is a plant growth promoting hormone.
  • This hormone is responsible for the increase in length of the  stem axis.
  • This property is used to increase the length of the grape stalks in agriculture.
  • They also delay senescence.

Cytokinins

  • These are the hormones which promote cell division activity.
  • Cytokinins are naturally synthesized in the regions where rapid cell division occurs like root apices, developing shoot buds etc.

Abscisic acid (ABA)

  • Abscisic acid is a plant growth inhibitor.
  • Abscisic acid plays a major role in abscission and dormancy.
  • It inhibits seed germination.
  • It is the hormone which is responsible for the closure of the stomata during stressful conditions. and also helps in preventing the seeds from getting desiccated.
  • Thus, it is known as the stress hormone.
108

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Asexual reproduction takes place only in plants

  2. ((b))

    Angiosperms reproduce both by sexual and asexual reproduction

  3. ((c))

    Sexual reproduction takes place only in bisexual flowers

  4. ((d))

    Asexual reproduction takes place only in unicellular animals

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Angiosperms reproduce both by sexual and asexual reproduction

Concept:

  • Angiosperms are knowns as flowering plants.
  • Angiosperms generally reproduce sexually.
  • The male gametophyte (pollen grains) and the female gametophyte (the ovules) are developed in the special structures called the flowers.
  • They are vascular plants possessing vascular tissues like xylem and phloem

Key Points

Sexual reproduction - 

  • Male and female gametes are produced in the flower.
  • Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of the flower containing the germ cells.
  • The flowers can be classified as unisexual and bisexual based on the reproductive organs present-
  • Unisexual flowers - The flowers that contain either pistil or stamen.
  • Bisexual flowers - The flower that possess both male and female reproductive parts.
  • Pollen grains (from a suitable plant) containing the male gamete settles down on the stigma and the male gamete passes through the pollen tube, reaching the ovule, after which fertilization takes place.
  • Therefore sexual reproduction can occur both on monosexual and bisexual flowers.

Asexual reproduction - 

  • Asexual reproduction is a mode of reproduction in which a new offspring is produced by a single parent.
  • In plants asexual reproduction occurs by a method known as Apomixis.
  • Apomixis is the process of formation of the plant from a seed without fertilization or normal sexual reproduction.
  • Apomixis in flowering plants is considered as the asexual formation of a seed from the maternal tissues of the ovule.

Therefore, angiosperms reproduce both by sexual and asexual reproduction.

109

Which of the following statements is/are true?

Statement A :

Variations arising during the process of reproduction can be inherited.

Statement B :

Changes in the non-reproductive tissues caused by environmental factors are not inheritable.

  1. ((a))

    Statement A is true and Statement B is false

  2. ((b))

    Statement B is true and Statement A is false

  3. ((c))

    Both Statement A and Statement B are true

  4. ((d))

    Both Statement A and Statement B are false

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both Statement A and Statement B are true

Concept:

  • A mutation is a sudden change in the DNA sequence of an organism.
  • Hugo De Vries was the first one to study mutations in Oenothera Lamarckiana.
  • Mutations can be harmful, beneficial, or have no effect.
  • Two major categories of mutations are
  • germline mutations
  • somatic mutations.
  • Mutations that occur in the germ cells i.e., Germline mutations (that occur in eggs and sperm), are inheritable and can be passed on to offspring.
  • The somatic mutations (that occur in body cells) are not inheritable and are not passed on to the next generations.

Important Points

Statement A - 

  • The variations that occur during the reproduction, they occur in the germ cells.
  • This is known as germ line mutation.
  • A gene change in a body's reproductive cell (egg or sperm) can become incorporated into the DNA of every cell in the body of the offspring.
  • The variations occurring in the germ cells can be inherited.
  • Therefore statement A is true.

Statement B - 

  • Changes in the non-reproductive tissues caused by environmental factors occur in the somatic cells.
  • This is known as somatic mutation.
  • These changes are not heritable.
  • Somatic mutations can occur in any of the body cells except the germ cells (sperm and egg).
  • Therefore statement B is true.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

110

An electron enters a magnetic field at right angles as shown in the figure.

The direction of force acting on the electron will be

  1. ((a))

    to the right

  2. ((b))

    to the left

  3. ((c))

    out of the page

  4. ((d))

    into the page

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

into the page

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • Fleming's left-hand rule can be stated as stretching the forefinger, middle finger, and thumb of the right hand such that they are mutually perpendicular to each other.
  • Here, the forefinger indicates the direction of the magnetic field, and The middle finger indicates the direction of the current in the conductor.

Explanation:

  • The left-hand rule of Fleming explains that – the conductor feels a force perpendicular to both the field and the direction of current flow when a current-carrying conductor is put in an external magnetic field.
  • The direction of force acting on the electron is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field and current as given by Fleming’s left-hand rule.
  • The direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of motion of electrons.
  • The force is therefore directed into the page.

Conclusion:

Thus, the direction of force acting on the electron will be into the page.

111

A piece of wire of resistance R1 is cut into four equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R2, then ratio (R1R2)\left(\frac{R_1}{R_2}\right) is

  1. ((a))

    116\frac{1}{16}

  2. ((b))

    14\frac{1}{4}

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
  • Equivalent resistance:  If a single resistance can replace the combination of resistances in such a manner that the current in the circuit remains unchanged, then that single resistance is called the equivalent resistance.

Explanation:

The resistance of a wire is R1.

This wire is cut into four equal pieces, so the resistance of each piece of the wire will be R1/4.

Now, four pieces of wire, each piece of wire having a resistance of R1/4 are connected in parallel to give the equivalent resistance R2.

So,

\(\frac{1}{R_{2}}=\frac{1}{R'{1}} + \frac{1}{R'{2}} + \frac{1}{R'{3}} + \frac{1}{R'{4}}\)

1R2=4R1+4R1+4R1+4R1\frac{1}{R_{2}}=\frac{4}{R_{1}} + \frac{4}{R_{1}} + \frac{4}{R_{1}} + \frac{4}{R_{1}}

1R2=16R1\frac{1}{R_{2}}=\frac{16}{R_{1}}

So, R1R2=16\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}=16

Conclusion:

Thus, the ratio (R1R2)\left(\frac{R_1}{R_2}\right) is 16.

112

Oxidation of ethanol in the presence of hot alkaline KMnO4 yields

  1. ((a))

    Ethane

  2. ((b))

    Ethanoic acid

  3. ((c))

    Ethyne

  4. ((d))

    Ethene

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ethanoic acid

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • Alkaline KMnO4 is known to be a strong oxidizing agent and hence will first oxidize ethanol.
  • KMnO4 is dark purple in colour. It changes its colour to brown when used in a redox titration.
  • An oxidizing agent (also called an oxidant) is a reactant that brings about the oxidation of the other reactant in a chemical reaction and itself undergoes reduction.
  • A reducing agent is a reactant that brings about the reduction of the other reactant and itself undergoes oxidation.

Explanation:

  • When a solution of ethanol is heated with potassium permanganate, the pink color of the solution disappears because of the strong oxidizing agent as KMnO4, which oxidizes ethanol to ethanoic acid by donating nascent oxygen.
  • CH3CH2OHKMnO4Hot,alkalineCH3COOHCH_{3}CH_{2}-OH\xrightarrow[KMnO_{4}]{Hot, alkaline}CH_{3}COOH
  • Due to the acidic nature of ethanoic acid, the dark purple colour of KMnO4 disappears.

Conclusion:

Thus, the Oxidation of ethanol in the presence of hot alkaline KMnO4 yields ethanoic acid.

113

Which of the following statements is/are true for alloys?

A. It is a homogenous mixture of metals or metal and non-metal.

B. These are better conductors of electricity than pure metals.

C. These are always harder than pure metals.

D. Alloys are made by first melting the primary metal and then reacting it with other elements.

  1. ((a))

    A and D

  2. ((b))

    C and D

  3. ((c))

    A only

  4. ((d))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A only

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • The composition of alloys is uniform throughout.
  • Thus, they are homogeneous mixtures.
  • Alloys do not fit perfectly in the definition of pure substances as they resemble the property of their constituents and cannot be separated by common physical methods.
  • Alloys are more resistant to corrosion.
  • Alloys usually have lower melting points than constituent metals.
  • Alloys have lower electrical conductivity than pure metals.

Explanation:

  • Alloys are a homogenous mixture of metals or metal and non-metal.
  • Steel is an alloy of iron primarily with carbon.
  • An alloy is created by mixing metal with another component, either another metal or a nonmetal substance.
  • Metal alloys are generally made by melting the substances, mixing them together, and then letting them cool to room temperature, resulting in a solid material.
  • Metals in alloys don't react with each other.
  • Alloys are stronger than the metals from which they are made.
  • Alloys may be harder than their constituent metals but not always.

Conclusion:

Thus, statement A is true for alloys.

114

Which of the following set represents diseases caused by bacteria?

  1. ((a))

    Tuberculosis, Measles, Pneumonia

  2. ((b))

    Measles, Chicken pox, AIDS

  3. ((c))

    Pneumonia, Tuberculosis, Typhoid

  4. ((d))

    Hepatitis, Measles, Diphtheria

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pneumonia, Tuberculosis, Typhoid

Concept:

  • A disease is a condition where deterioration of normal functioning of the cells, tissues, and organs occur and this leads to illness or sickness characterized by specific signs or symptoms.
  • Diseases can be broadly classified as:
  • Infectious diseases - are transmitted from person-to-person
  • Non-infectious diseases - cannot be transmitted
  • Diseases can be caused by  several organisms like bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa , helminths etc.
  • These disease causing organisms are called pathogens.

Key Points

Pneumonia

  • Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae cause the disease Pneumonia.
  • These bacteria causes infection in the alveoli of lungs leading to severe respiratory problems.
  • The alveoli gets filled with fluid, causes fever, cough, headache etc.

Tuberculosis

  • Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • It is a bacterial disease that usually attacks the lungs.

Typhoid

  • It is caused by Salmonella Typhi bacteria.
  • Typhoid causes high fever, diarrhea, and vomiting etc.

Therefore, Pneumonia, Tuberculosis, Typhoid are caused by bacteria.

Additional InformationMeasles

  • Symptoms: fever, tiredness ,severe cough, red eyes (conjunctivitis), runny nose, white spots in the mouth (known as Koplik spots), and rashes appear later.
  • Measles is caused by virus called a paramyxovirus.

Chicken pox

  • Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
  • It causes an itchy, blister-like rashes.

AIDS

  • Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Diphtheria

  • Diphtheria infection caused by bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make toxins.

Hepatitis 

  • Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver.
  • It is often caused by a virus.
  • Most common types of viral hepatitis are hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C.
115

In human females fertilisation of egg and sperm takes place in

  1. ((a))

    ovary

  2. ((b))

    fallopian tube

  3. ((c))

    uterus

  4. ((d))

    cervix

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

fallopian tube

Important Points

  • The major female reproductive organs include the external genitalia, vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries.
  • Ovaries are the primary female sex organs, which produces the female gamete i.e. the ovum.
  • Ovaries also produce several hormones (e.g. - estrogen)
  • The fallopian tubes, uterus and vagina together constitute the female accessory ducts.
  • The fallopian tubes connect the uterus to the ovaries.
  • The fallopian tubes can be divided into three parts-
  1. Infundibulum - 
  • The part closer to the ovary is infundibulum.
  • It is funnel shaped and has finger like projections called fimbriae.
  • These help in collection of  the ovum after ovulation.
  1. Ampulla - Infundibulum leads to a wider part called ampulla.
  2. Isthmus - 
  • It is the last part of the fallopian tube.
  • It is the part which joins with the uterus.
  • The uterus is a pear shaped organ which holds the foetus.
  • It opens into vagina through cervix.

Explanation:

  • Fertilization of the ovum by sperm normally occurs in the fallopian tubes
  • It occurs at the junction of isthmus and ampulla (ampullary-isthmic junction) of the fallopian tube.
  • Fertilization can occur only when the sperm and the ovum both reach the ampullary - isthmic junction.

116

Rate of evaporation

  1. ((a))

    increases with humidity 

  2. ((b))

    decreases with humidity

  3. ((c))

    is not dependent on humidity

  4. ((d))

    may increase or decrease with humidity as per the place

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

decreases with humidity

Correct answer: 2)

Concept:

  • The evaporation rate is the ratio of the time required to evaporate a test solvent to the time required to evaporate the reference solvent under identical conditions.
  • Factors which affect the rate of evaporation are - wind speed, temperature humidity and surface area.

Explanation:

  • Evaporation is the natural process where the molecules of a liquid absorb the residual heat present in the liquid and escape in the form of vapour.
  • Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in the air.
  • For a given temperature, the air can only hold a particular amount of water vapour.
  • So if the humidity is high, the amount of water vapour is high and hence the further conversion of a liquid into a vapour state is difficult or not favourable.
  • Hence, the rate of evaporation decreases.

Conclusion:

Thus, the Rate of evaporation decreases with humidity.

117

Fill in the gaps in the following table :

Dispersed PhaseDispersing MediumType of ColloidsExample
LiquidLiquidAMilk
BSolidCSponge
DSolidGelE
  1. ((a))

    A = Gel, B = Liquid, C = Emulsion, D = Liquid, E = Mist

  2. ((b))

    A = Foam, B = Liquid, C = Emulsion, D = Liquid, E = Cheese 

  3. ((c))

    A = Emulsion, B = Gas, C = Foam, D = Solid, E = Brass

  4. ((d))

    A = Emulsion, B = Gas, C = Foam, D = Liquid, E = Butter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A = Emulsion, B = Gas, C = Foam, D = Liquid, E = Butter

Correct answer: 4)

Concept:

  • A dispersion is a system in which particles of one phase are dispersed throughout a medium that is in a different phase.
  • Therefore a dispersion is a two-phased system.
  • It is composed of a dispersion medium and a dispersed phase.
  • A dispersion medium is a continuous medium in which the dispersed phase is distributed throughout.
  • The dispersed phase is the phase that is composed of particles that are distributed through another phase.
  • The main difference between the dispersed phase and dispersed medium is that the dispersed phase is a discontinuous phase whereas the dispersion medium is a continuous phase.

Explanation:

  • When the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is also liquid then the type of colloid is an emulsion. For example, milk.
  • The sponge is an example of colloidal foam in which the dispersed phase is air (gas) and the dispersion medium is the sponge which is solid.
  • When the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is solid then the type of colloid is gel. For example, butter.
  • Thus, here A is an emulsion, B is gas, C is foam and D is liquid and E is butter.

Conclusion:

Thus, option 4: A = Emulsion, B = Gas, C = Foam, D = Liquid, E = Butter, is correct.

118

Element X has atomic number 8 and element Y has atomic number 15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding valency of X and Y?

  1. ((a))

    Valency of X is 6 and that of Y is 3

  2. ((b))

    Valency of X is 6 and that of Y is 5

  3. ((c))

    Valency of X is 2 and that of Y is 3 or 5

  4. ((d))

    Valency of X is 2 and that of Y is 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Valency of X is 2 and that of Y is 3 or 5

Correct answer: 3)

Concept:

  • Valency is defined as the number of hydrogen atoms that combine directly or indirectly with one atom of an element.
  • Valency is a measure of the combining power of an atom.
  • The valency of an element is determined by the number of electrons in its outermost shell.
  • The valency of an element can be increased either by gaining or losing electrons.

Explanation:

  • The atomic number of element X is 8
  • The atomic number of element Y is 15
  • Electronic configuration of 8 (element X)= 2, 6
  • So, its needs 2 more electrons to complete its valency.
  • Thus, the valency of X is 2.
  • Electronic configuration of 15 (element Y)= 2, 8, 5
  • So, it needs 3 more electrons to complete its valency or it can share its 5 electrons with another element.
  • Thus, the valency of Y is 3 or 5.

Conclusion:

Thus, the Valency of X is 2 and that of Y is 3 or 5.

119

In isobars

A. the number of electrons are different

B. the number of nucleons is the same

C. the number of neutrons is the same

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    A and C

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B

Correct answer: 1)

Concept:

  • Atoms having the same number of neutrons are called isotones.
  • The number of nucleons is the sum of neutrons and the number of electrons or protons.
  • The number of nucleons defines the mass number of an atom.

Explanation:

  • Two elements are said to be isobars of one another if they have different sets of electrons and the same number of nucleons.
  • The number of protons and neutrons alone will vary but the number of nucleons or the sum of protons and neutrons in isobars will always be the same.
  • Isobars always have different atomic structures because of the difference in atomic numbers.

Conclusion:

Thus, In isobars A. the number of electrons are different and B. the number of nucleons is the same.

120

A\underline{A} is called as master gland in human beings. B\underline{B}C\underline{C} secrete hormones when they receive orders from A. A also secretes D\underline{D} hormone.

A, B, C, D respectively are

  1. ((a))

    Pancreas, ovaries, testes, insulin

  2. ((b))

    Pituitary, ovaries, testes, growth

  3. ((c))

    Pancreas, thyroid, adrenal, insulin

  4. ((d))

    Pituitary, adrenal, pancreas, growth

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pituitary, ovaries, testes, growth

Important Points

  • The endocrine system of our body is a complex network of glands and organs.
  • Endocrine glands are ductless glans and they pour their secretions directly into the blood.
  • These secretions are known as Hormones.
  • Hormones are chemical messengers that coordinate different functions in our body by carrying messages through the blood to different organs.
  • These hormones are produced in trace amounts.
  • The major glands that make up the endocrine system are hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid gland, adrenals, pineal body, pancreas, the ovaries and the testes.

Explanation:

A- Pituitary

  • The pituitary gland is called the "master" gland of the endocrine system.
  • It is because it controls the functions of many of the other endocrine glands
  • The pituitary gland can be divided into 2 parts-
  • Adenohypophysis (Anterior pituitary)
  • Neurohypophysis (Posterior pituitary)
  • The hormones produced by the Anterior pituitary-
  • Human growth hormone (HGH or GH)
  • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • Adrenocorticotrophin hormone (ATCH)
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • Prolactin
  • The hormones produced by the Posterior pituitary-
  • Oxytocin
  • Vasopressin

B and C- Ovaries and testis

  • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormones (LH)  produced by the pituitary gland are collectively known as gonadotrophins,
  • These hormones in turn stimulate the ovary to release estrogen and progesterone and the testes to release testosterone.

D- Growth hormone (GH)

  • Growth hormone (GH) secreted by pituitary stimulates growth.
  • growth hormone (GH )is also called somatotropin.
  • Its plays a major role in bone growth.

Therefore, A, B, C and D can be identified as Pituitary, ovaries, testes, growth.

General English (10 questions)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options.

The old woman prodded him once more. 'I'll look after the customers. Take the lamp. Go to the railway tracks. Who knows... who knows...'

The old man explained, 'I've gone almost blind and this woman wants me to go in the dark looking for the boy. The other day I fell down near the railway tracks when I went searching for him and my knees are still aching and bruised. My chest hurts too.... Listen daughter, we weren't always like this. It's the floods. It's a pity that we have had to take shelter by the highway and wait for customers day after day! We were respectable people. We had two granaries full of paddy. Even strangers were sure of a meal with scented rice and kaoi fish. We come from a Borbarua family who had the power to punish criminals by crushing their kneecaps. But my father was kind-hearted.... But our paddy fields, which were as dear to me as my own flesh and blood, producing gold and pearls, are no more.

The old woman was furious. 'Why are you digging up those old graves? I'll myself go to the railway tracks to see....'

'Shut up, old woman. How many times have we heard this talk of his coming back? But nothing! He didn't come back or show his face to us.'

121

'Digging up old graves' means

  1. ((a))

    revealing past that can only harm oneself

  2. ((b))

    digging and clearing old graves

  3. ((c))

    disregarding the past

  4. ((d))

    learning from the past

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

revealing past that can only harm oneself

The correct answer is 'revealing past that can only harm oneself'.

Key Points

  • The idiomatic phrase 'Digging up old graves' means pulling out something from the past that can only harm oneself (अतीत से कुछ बाहर निकालना जो केवल खुद को नुकसान पहुंचा सकता है)
  • In the given passage the given idiomatic phrase is used to imply that the old woman was asking not to reveal past.
  • Thus, the appropriate answer is 'revealing past that can only harm oneself'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

122

What does the old man say about their past ?

  1. ((a))

    that they were as poor as they are today

  2. ((b))

    that they were well-to-do farmers

  3. ((c))

    that he doesn't care about his past

  4. ((d))

    that he doesn't remember his past

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

that they were well-to-do farmers

The correct answer is 'that they were well-to-do farmers'.

Key Points

  • Refer to the lines from the passage: Listen daughter, we weren't always like this. It's the floods. It's a pity that we have had to take shelter by the highway and wait for customers day after day! We were respectable people. We had two granaries full of paddy.
  • It is evident from the above lines that they used to be respected people and well-to-do farmers with two granaries full of paddy.
  • Thus, the appropriate answer is 'that they were well-to-do farmers'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

123

The word 'prodding' means

  1. ((a))

    sermonising

  2. ((b))

    torturing

  3. ((c))

    urging

  4. ((d))

    loving

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

urging

The correct answer is 'urging'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Prodding' means stimulate or persuade (someone who is reluctant or slow) to do something (किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति को उत्तेजित या राजी करना जो कुछ करने के लिए अनिच्छुक या धीमा हो)
  • Example - They attempted to prod the central bank into cutting interest rates.
  • The word 'Urging' means the act of strongly advising or encouraging someone to do a particular thing (किसी को किसी विशेष कार्य को करने के लिए दृढ़ता से सलाह देने या प्रोत्साहित करने की क्रिया)
  • Example - With their dad's urging, the girls started playing football.
  • Thus, the word 'prodding' means 'urging'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the meaning of other words:
  • sermonising: deliver an opinionated and dogmatic talk to someone (किसी से एक राय और हठधर्मिता की बात करें)
  • Example - She's a teacher who can talk to her students about serious subjects without sermonizing.
  • torturing: cause great mental suffering or anxiety to (बड़ी मानसिक पीड़ा या चिंता का कारण)
  • Example - She was tortured by grief.
124

Who are the old couple desperately looking for ?

  1. ((a))

    Their son

  2. ((b))

    The customers

  3. ((c))

    Their daughter

  4. ((d))

    Their neighbour

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Their son

The correct answer is 'Their son'.

Key Points

  • Refer to the lines from the passage: The old man explained, 'I've gone almost blind and this woman wants me to go in the dark looking for the boy. The other day I fell down near the railway tracks when I went searching for him and my knees are still aching and bruised.
  • It is evident from the above lines that the old couple were desperately looking for the boy i.e., their son.
  • Thus, the appropriate answer is 'Their son'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

125

Which figure of speech is used here ?

'Paddy fields producing gold and pearls!' ?

  1. ((a))

    Alliteration

  2. ((b))

    Paradox

  3. ((c))

    Simile

  4. ((d))

    Metaphor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Metaphor

The correct answer is 'Metaphor'.

Key Points

  • Metaphor a figure of speech in which a word or phrase literally denoting one kind of object or idea is used in place of another to suggest a likeness or analogy between them.
  • Example - The camel is the ship of the desert.
  • A metaphor is an implied simile. It does not, like the simile state that one thing is like another or acts as another, but takes that for granted and proceeds as if the two things were one.
  • The given sentence suggest a likeness between gold and pearls with rice grains.
  • Thus, the figure of speech is Metaphor.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Additional Information

  • Alliteration: a figure of speech in which the same sound repeats in a group of words.
  • Example - Bob brought the box of bricks to the basement.
  • Paradox: a figure of speech in which a statement appears to contradict itself. This type of statement can be described as paradoxical.
  • Example - Save money by spending it.
  • Simile: a figure of speech that is mainly used to compare two or more things that possess a similar quality. It uses words such as 'like' or 'as' to make the comparison.
  • Example - As slow as a sloth.
126

In the following sentence, choose the option in which the VOICE has been changed correctly:

A big cat is chasing a puny rat.

  1. ((a))

    A puny rat is chased by a big cat.

  2. ((b))

    A puny rat is being chased by a big cat.

  3. ((c))

    A puny rat was being chased by a big cat.

  4. ((d))

    A puny rat is chasing a big cat.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A puny rat is being chased by a big cat.

The correct answer is 'A puny rat is being chased by a big cat.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Active voice and in Present Continuous tense.
  • The rules for changing the voice in Present Continuous tense are as follow:
  • Active: Subject + is/am/are + ing form of the verb + object.
  • Passive: Object + is/am/are + being + V3 + Subject.
  • Example - Active: She is playing football.

                  Passive: Football is being played by her.

  • Thus, the correct passive sentence is 'A puny rat is being chased by a big rat.'
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

127

The following sentence has been divided into four parts (a), (b), (c) and (d), one of which has an error. Choose the part which contains the error.

Geetanjali Shree's 'Ret Samadhi' is (a) / one of the few novels in Hindi (b) / that has received (c) / international recognition (d).

  1. ((a))

    (a)

  2. ((b))

    (b)

  3. ((c))

    (c)

  4. ((d))

    (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(c)

The correct answer is '(c)'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in part (c) of the sentence in the usage of the verb 'has'.
  • When the subject of a verb is a relative pronoun care should be taken to see that the verb agrees in number and person with the antecedent of the relative pronoun.
  • Example - This is one of the most interesting novels that have (not has) appeared this year.
  • In the given sentence, the antecedent of that is novels.
  • Thus, the verb 'has' should be replaced by the plural form 'have'.
  • Correct sentence: Geetanjali Shree's 'Ret Samadhi' is one of the few novels in Hindi that have received international recognition.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

128

Choose the appropriate verb form to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

The other day I met a person who ______ me in getting my first job years ago.

  1. ((a))

    was helping

  2. ((b))

    helped

  3. ((c))

    had helped

  4. ((d))

    had been helping

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

had helped

The correct answer is 'had helped'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Past Perfect tense.
  • The Past perfect describes an action completed before a certain moment in the past.
  • Structure of the Past perfect tense: Subject + had + V3 + Object.
  • Example - I didn't know who he was. I had never seen him before.
  • If two actions happened in the past, it may be necessary to show which happened earlier than the other. The Past perfect is mainly used in such situations.
  • The simple past is used in one clause and the Past perfect in the other.
  • In the given sentence, two actions happened in the past and the action of helping him in getting in job.
  • Thus, the appropriate verb form to fill in the blank is 'had helped'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

129

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given below :

Aversion

  1. ((a))

    Antipathy

  2. ((b))

    Liking

  3. ((c))

    Sympathy

  4. ((d))

    Lucky

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Liking

The correct answer is 'liking'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Aversion' means a strong dislike or disinclination (तीव्र अरुचि या अनिच्छा)
  • Example - She had a deep-seated aversion to most forms of exercise.
  • The word 'Liking' means a feeling of regard or fondness (सम्मान या स्नेह की भावना)
  • Example - She'd taken an instant liking to Arnie's new girlfriend.
  • Thus, the word 'liking' is opposite in meaning to the word 'aversion'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Additional Information

  • Antipathy: a deep-seated feeling of aversion (घृणा की गहरी बैठी हुई भावना)
  • Example - He is a private man with a deep antipathy towards the press.
  • Sympathy: feelings of pity and sorrow for someone else's misfortune (किसी और के दुर्भाग्य के लिए दया और दुख की भावना)
  • Example - They had great sympathy for the flood victims.
130

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given below :

Cursory

  1. ((a))

    Thorough

  2. ((b))

    Rare

  3. ((c))

    Deep

  4. ((d))

    Superficial

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Superficial

The correct answer is 'Superficial'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Cursory' means hasty and therefore not thorough or detailed (जल्दबाजी और इसलिए संपूर्ण या विस्तृत नहीं)
  • Example - Only a cursory inspection of the building's electrical wiring was done.
  • The word 'Superficial' means marked by lack of attention or consideration or forethought or thoroughness (ध्यान या विचार या पूर्वविचार या संपूर्णता की कमी से चिह्नित)
  • Example - On a superficial level, his theory works, but the facts don't support it.
  • Thus, the word 'Superficial' is nearest in meaning to the word 'Cursory'.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Additional Information

  • Thorough: performed or written with great care and completeness (बड़ी सावधानी और पूर्णता के साथ किया या लिखा गया)
  • Example - Officers have made a thorough examination of the wreckage.

General Hindi (10 questions)

131

निम्नलिखित में शुद्ध शब्द नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    वनस्पति

  2. ((b))

    वाणी

  3. ((c))

    वाह्य

  4. ((d))

    बाण

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

वाह्य

शुद्ध शब्द नहीं है - '​वाह्य'

  • '​वाह्य' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है - 'बाह्य'
  • बाह्य - किसी प्रकार के क्षेत्र, परिधि, सीमा आदि के बाहर रहने या होने वाला।
  • अन्य सभी शब्द वर्तनी की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है।

Mistake Points

  • वनस्पति - ज़मीन से उगनेवाले पेड़, पौधे, लताएँ आदि।
  • वाणी - वचन, बात, ध्वनि।
  • बाण - तीर, शर, सायक, शिलीमुख।

Key Points

  • किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओ सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
  • वर्तनी का सम्बन्ध का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है ।
  • यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध से शुद्ध शब्द:-

  • अशुद्ध - शुद्ध
  • ग्रहस्थ - गृहस्थ
  • संग्रहीत - संगृहीत
  • अक्षोहिणी - अक्षौहिणी
  • मान्यनीय - माननीय
  • अनाधिकार - अनधिकार
  • व्यवहारिक - व्यावहारिक
132

निम्नलिखित में स्वर संधि का उदाहरण है :

  1. ((a))

    निराशा

  2. ((b))

    अधोगति

  3. ((c))

    सतीश

  4. ((d))

    सदानंद

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सतीश

स्वर संधि का उदाहरण है - 'सतीश'

  • सतीश का संधि विच्छेद 'सती + ईश' होता है।
  • सतीश में दीर्घ संधि है।
  • जब दो शब्दों की संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (अ, आ) हो तो ‘आ‘ बनता है,
  • जब (इ, ई) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ई‘ बनता है,
  • जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ऊ‘ बनता है, तो उसे दीर्घ संधि कहते है।
  • उदाहरण-
  • विद्या + अभ्यास = विद्याभ्यास (आ + अ = आ)
  • मही + इंद्र = महींद्र (ई + इ = ई)
  • भानु + उदय = भानूदय (उ + उ = ऊ)

Key Points

  • अधोगति का संधि विच्छेद - अधः + गति होता है।
  • अधोगति में विसर्ग संधि है।
  • निराशा का संधि विच्छेद - निः + आशा होता है।
  • निराशा में विसर्ग संधि है।
  • सदानन्द का सन्धि विच्छेद - सत् + आनन्द होता है।
  • सदानन्द में व्यंजन संधि हैं।

Additional Information

विसर्ग:- - जब संधि करते समय विसर्ग के बाद स्वर या व्यंजन वर्ण के आने से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) उत्पन्न होता है, हम उसे विसर्ग संधि कहते हैं। उदाहरण- - यशः + दा = यशोदा - दु: + शासन = दुश्शासन - दु: + उपयोग = दुरूपयोग - अंतः + राष्ट्रीय = अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यंजन संधि:- - जब संधि करते समय व्यंजन के साथ स्वर या कोई व्यंजन के मिलने से जो रूप में परिवर्तन होता है, उसे ही व्यंजन संधि कहते हैं। उदाहरण - - दिक् + अम्बर = दिगम्बर - अभी + सेक = अभिषेक - उत् + मूलन = उन्मूलन - उत् + चारण = उच्चारण
133

'अंगारों पर पैर रखना' मुहावरे का उचित अर्थ है :

  1. ((a))

    जानबूझकर मुसीबत में पड़ना

  2. ((b))

    जान जोखिम में डालना

  3. ((c))

    कठिन काम करना

  4. ((d))

    बहुत साहसी होना

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

जान जोखिम में डालना

'अंगारों पर पैर रखना' मुहावरे का उचित अर्थ है - 'जान जोखिम में डालना'

  • वाक्य प्रयोग - भारतीय सेना के जवान "अंगारों पर पैर रखकर" भारत की सेवा करते हैं।

Key Points

  • मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्य होता है
  • जो वाक्य की रचना करने पर अपना एक अलग अर्थ या विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करता है
  • इनका प्रयोग करने से भाषा,आकर्षक, प्रभावपूर्ण तथा रोचक बन जाती है।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरा, अर्थ और उनके वाक्य प्रयोग:-  

  • गढ़ फतह करना - कठिन काम करना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - आई.ए.एस. पास करके शंकर ने सचमुच **"गढ़ फतह कर लिया"।**​

  • आग से खेलना - जानबूझकर मुसीबत में पड़ना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - भाई, इस गाँव में किसी की बहन बेटी पर गलत नजर डालना **"आग से खेलने के बराबर है"।**​

  • गला पकड़ना - किसी को जिम्मेदार ठहराना, दोषी ठहरना

          वाक्य प्रयोग - गलती चाहे किसी की हो, पिताजी मेरा ही "गला पकड़ते हैं"।

  • नाक में दम करना - बहुत तंग करना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - आतंकवादियों ने सरकार की "नाक में दम कर रखा है"।​​

  • उन्नीस बीस होना - दो वस्तुओं में थोड़ा बहुत अन्तर होना

          वाक्य प्रयोग - दुकानदार ने बताया कि दोनों कपड़ों में "उन्नीस बीस का अन्तर है"।​​

134

पूर्वपद संख्यावाची वाला समास है :

  1. ((a))

    अव्ययी भाव

  2. ((b))

    द्वन्द्व समास

  3. ((c))

    द्विगु समास

  4. ((d))

    कर्मधारय समास

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

द्विगु समास

पूर्वपद संख्यावाची वाला समास है - 'द्विगु समास'

  • वह समास जिसमें पहला पद संख्यावाचक विशेषण हो और अन्य सभी पद
  • किसी समूह या किसी समाहार का बोध करवाते हो, उन वाक्यों को द्विगु समास कहा जाता है।
  • उदाहरण -
  • दोपहर = दो पहरों का समाहार
  • शताब्दी = सौ सालों का समूह

Key Points

अव्‍ययीभाव:- - इस समास में पहला या पूर्वपद अव्यय होता है और उसका अर्थ प्रधान होता है। अव्यय के संयोग से समस्तपद भी अव्यय बन जाता है। इसमें पूर्वपद प्रधान होता है। - अव्ययीभाव समास के पहले पद में अनु, आ, प्रति, यथा, भर, हर आदि आते है। उदाहरण - - यथारुचि = रूचि के अनुसार - प्रतिवर्ष = प्रत्येक वर्ष द्वंद्व:- - जिस समास में समस्तपद के दोनों पद प्रधान हों या दोनों पद सामान हों एवं - दोंनों पदों को मिलाते समय ‘और’, ‘अथवा’, ‘या’, ‘एवं’ आदि योजक लुप्त हो जाएँ, वह समास द्वंद्व समास कहलाता है। उदाहरण - - सुख-दुख = सुख या दुःख - गौरीशंकर = गौरी और शंकर कर्मधारय:- - वह समास जिसका पहला पद विशेषण एवं दूसरा पद विशेष्य होता है अथवा पूर्वपद एवं उत्तरपद में उपमान - उपमेय का सम्बन्ध माना जाता है कर्मधारय समास कहलाता है। - समास विग्रह करते समय दोनों पदों के बीच में ‘के सामान’, ‘है जो’, ‘रुपी’ में से किसी एक शब्द का प्रयोग होता है। उदाहरण - - चरणकमल = कमल के समान चरण - नीलगगन = नीला है जो गगन - देहलता = देह रूपी लता
135

'जिसके आर-पार न देखा जा सके' के लिए एक शब्द है

  1. ((a))

    निराकार

  2. ((b))

    अलौकिक

  3. ((c))

    पारदर्शी

  4. ((d))

    अपारदर्शक

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

अपारदर्शक

'जिसके आर-पार न देखा जा सके' के लिए एक शब्द है - 'अपारदर्शक'

  • जिसका कोई आकार न हो - निराकार
  • जिसका सम्बन्ध इस लोक से परे हो - अलौकिक
  • जिसके आर-पार देखा जा सके - पारदर्शी

Key Points

  • अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द:-

  • जो जल से उत्पन्न होता हो - जलज
  • जिसने इन्द्रियों को वश में कर लिया हो - जितेन्द्रिय
  • जो ग्रहण करने योग्य हो - ग्राह्म
  • जिसके सिर पर चन्द्रकला हो - चन्द्रचूड़
  • जहां सैनिक निवास करते हो - छावनी
  • जो किसी भी गुट में नहीं हो - तटस्थ
  • बाणों को रखने का पात्र - तुणीर
  • जिसे कठिनाई से लाँघा जा सके - दुर्लंघ्य
136

निम्नलिखित में ‘सोना' का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    सुवर्ण

  2. ((b))

    कनक

  3. ((c))

    हेम

  4. ((d))

    हिम

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

हिम

‘सोना' का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है - 

  • ‘सोना' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है - स्वर्ण, कंचन, कनक, सुवर्ण, हाटक, हिरण्य, जातरूप, हेम
  • 'बर्फी' का पर्यायवाची शब्द  है - तुषार, हिम, तुहिन, नीहार।

Key Points

  • जो शब्द समान अर्थ के कारण किसी दूसरे शब्द की जगह ले लेते हैं उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते है।

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

  • गृह - घर, निकेतन, भवन, आलय,निवास, गेह, सदन, आगार, आयतन, आवास, निलय, धाम।
  • जल - वारि, पानी, नीर, सलिल, तोय, उदक, अंबु, जीवन, पय, अमृत, मेघपुष्प।
  • नदी - सरिता, तटिनी, तरंगिणी, निर्झरिणी, आपगा, निम्नगा, कूलंकषा।
  • असुर - राक्षस, दैत्य, दानव, निशाचर, दनुज, यातुधान, निशिचर, रजनीचर।
  • आकाश - व्योम, शून्य, गगन, अम्बर, आसमान, अंतरिक्ष, नभ, धौ, अनंत।
  • हवा - पवन, वायु, समीर, अनिल, वात, मरुत्, पवमान, बयार, प्रकंपन।
  • साँप - सर्प, नाग, विषधर, व्याल, भुजंग, उरग, अहि पन्नग।
  • जंगल - वन, कानन, बीहड़, विटप, विपिन।
137

'अनुकूल' शब्द का विलोमार्थी है :

  1. ((a))

    दुकूल

  2. ((b))

    सुकूल

  3. ((c))

    प्रतिकूल

  4. ((d))

    विरोधी

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

प्रतिकूल

'अनुकूल' शब्द का विलोमार्थी है - 'प्रतिकूल'

  • अनुकूल - जो इच्��ा, रुचि या समय के अनुरूप या उपयुक्त हो।
  • प्रतिकूल - जो अनुकूल न हो, विपरीत, विरुद्ध।

Key Pointsदुकूल:-

  • अर्थ: बढ़िया और महीन कपड़ा।

विरोधी:-

  • अर्थ: विपक्षी, शत्रु, वैरी, प्रतिस्पर्धी, झगड़ालू।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'समर्थक, अविरोधी'
  • अर्थ: जो समर्थन करता हो।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उसके आधार पर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए :

किसी मनुष्य के घर का कोई प्राणी बीमार है। वह वैद्यों के यहाँ से जब तक औषधि ला- लाकर रोगी को देता जाता है और इधर-उधर दौड़-धूप करता जाता है तब-तब उसके चित्त में जो संतोष रहता है - प्रत्येक नए उपचार के साथ जो आनंद का उन्मेष होता रहता है - यह उसे कदापि न प्राप्त होता, यदि वह रोता हुआ बैठा रहता। प्रयत्न की अवस्था में उसके जीवन का जितना अंश संतोष, आशा और उत्साह में बीता अप्रयत्न की दशा में उतना ही अंश केवल शोक और दुःख में बँटता। इसके अतिरिक्त रोगी के न अच्छे होने की दशा में भी वह आत्मग्लानि के उस कठोर दुःख से बचा रहेगा जो उसे जीवन भर यह सोच-सोचकर होता कि मैंने पूरा प्रयत्न नहीं किया।

कर्म में आनंद अनुभव करनेवालों ही का नाम कर्मण्य है। धर्म और उदारता के उच्च कर्मों के विधान में ही एक ऐसा दिव्य आनंद भरा रहता है कि कर्ता को वे कर्म ही फल-स्वरूप लगते हैं। अत्याचार का दमन और क्लेश का शमन करते हुए चित्त में जो उल्लास और तुष्टि होती है, वही लोकोपकारी कर्म-वीर का सच्चा सुख है। उसके लिए सुख तब तक के लिए रुका नहीं रहता जब तक कि फल प्राप्त न हो जाए; बल्कि उसी समय से थोड़ा-थोड़ा करके मिलने लगा है, जब से वह कर्म की ओर हाथ बढ़ाता है।

138

निम्नलिखित में 'कर्मण्य' का विलोमार्थी है :

  1. ((a))

    आलसी

  2. ((b))

    कामचोर

  3. ((c))

    अकर्मण्य

  4. ((d))

    कर्मशील

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अकर्मण्य

'कर्मण्य' का विलोमार्थी है - 'अकर्मण्य'

  • कर्मण्य - अच्छी तरह या पूरा काम करने में कुशल या दक्ष (व्यक्ति), कर्मशील।
  • अकर्मण्य - आलसी, निठल्ला, निकम्मा, कामचोर।

Key Points

  • जो  शब्द किसी दूसरे शब्द का उल्टा अर्थ बताते हैं, उन्हें विलोम शब्द या विलोमार्थी शब्द कहते है।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द:-

  • शब्द - विलोम
  • नूतन - पुरातन
  • जागरण - शयन
  • विधि - निषेध
  • मूक - वाचाल
  • सगुण - निर्गुण
  • उपकार - अपकार
  • शाश्वत - क्षणिक
  • अकाल - सुकाल
  • सक्रिय - निष्क्रय
  • आसक्त - अनाशक्त
139

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है ?

  1. ((a))

    कर्म में आनंद अनुभव करने वालों का नाम कर्मण्य है।

  2. ((b))

    लोकोपकार कर्मवीर का सच्चा सुख है।

  3. ((c))

    अत्याचार का दमन और क्लेश का शमन करने से चित्त को तुष्टि नहीं मिलती है।

  4. ((d))

    धर्म और उदारता के उच्च कर्मों के विधान में ही दिव्य आनंद भरा रहता है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अत्याचार का दमन और क्लेश का शमन करने से चित्त को तुष्टि नहीं मिलती है।

कथन सही नहीं है - अत्याचार का दमन और क्लेश का शमन करने से चित्त को तुष्टि नहीं मिलती है।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • कर्म में आनंद अनुभव करनेवालों ही का नाम कर्मण्य है।
  • धर्म और उदारता के उच्च कर्मों के विधान में ही एक ऐसा दिव्य आनंद भरा रहता है कि कर्ता को वे कर्म ही फल-स्वरूप लगते हैं।
  • **अत्याचार का दमन और क्लेश का शमन करते हुए **चित्त में जो उल्लास और तुष्टि होती है, वही लोकोपकारी कर्म-वीर का सच्चा सुख है।

Key Points

  • अत्याचार - किसी के प्रति बलपूर्वक किया जाने वाला अनुचित व्यवहार।
  • दमन - कठोरतापूर्वक दबाना या कुचलना, विद्रोह, शमन।
  • क्लेश - पीड़ा, दर्द, तकलीफ, कष्ट, दुःख, संकट, विपत्ति, मुसीबत।
  • तुष्टि - किसी काम के ठीक तरह से होने पर मन में होने वाली प्रसन्नता।

Additional Informationकर्मण्य:- 

  • अर्थ: अच्छी तरह या पूरा काम करने में कुशल या दक्ष (व्यक्ति), कर्मशील, कर्मवीर।

अनुभव:-

  • अर्थ: व्यवहार से उपलब्ध संज्ञान, तज़ुर्बा, अहसास, (एक्सपीरिएंस)।

लोकोपकार:-

  • अर्थ: जनसाधारण के हित का काम, लोगों के उपकार का काम।

उदारता:-

  • अर्थ: उदार होने की अवस्था, गुण या भाव, उदार स्वभाव।

विधान:-

  • अर्थ: किसी प्रकार का आयोजन और उसकी व्यवस्था।
140

घर में बीमार व्यक्ति के विविध उपचार के साथ जो आनंद का उन्मेष व्यक्ति को हुआ वह उसे कदापि न होता यदि वह

  1. ((a))

    वैद्यों के यहाँ से औषधि लाकर न देता

  2. ((b))

    इधर-उधर दौड़-धूप न करता

  3. ((c))

    रोता हुआ बैठा रहता

  4. ((d))

    रोता हुआ बैठा न रहता

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

रोता हुआ बैठा रहता

घर में बीमार व्यक्ति के विविध उपचार के साथ जो आनंद का उन्मेष व्यक्ति को हुआ वह उसे कदापि न होता यदि वह रोता हुआ बैठा रहता

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • किसी मनुष्य के घर का कोई प्राणी बीमार है।
  • वह वैद्यों के यहाँ से जब तक औषधि ला- लाकर रोगी को देता जाता है
  • और इधर-उधर दौड़-धूप करता जाता है तब-तब उसके चित्त में
  • जो संतोष रहता है - प्रत्येक नए उपचार के साथ जो आनंद का
  • उन्मेष होता रहता है - यह उसे कदापि न प्राप्त होता, यदि वह **रोता हुआ बैठा रहता।**​

Key Pointsवैद्य:-

  • अर्थ: आयुर्वेद चिकित्सा पद्धति द्वारा इलाज करना।

औषधि:-

  • अर्थ: चिकित्सा के काम आने वाली जड़ी-बूटी या वनस्पति।

उन्मेष:-

  • अर्थ: (फूल का) खिलना, (आँख का) खुलना, प्रकट होना।

Regional Language Hindi (10 questions)

141

'कलई खुलना' मुहावरे का निम्नलिखित में से सटीक अर्थ है :

  1. ((a))

    जानकारी मिल जाना

  2. ((b))

    बदरंग हो जाना

  3. ((c))

    भेद खुल जाना

  4. ((d))

    काम बिगड़ जाना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

भेद खुल जाना

'कलई खुलना' मुहावरे का सटीक अर्थ है - 'भेद खुल जाना'

  • वाक्य प्रयोग - झूठ कितना भी संभल कर बोला जाए एक दिन "कलई खुल" ही जाती है।

Key Points

  • मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्य होता है
  • जो वाक्य की रचना करने पर अपना एक अलग अर्थ या विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करता है
  • इनका प्रयोग करने से भाषा,आकर्षक, प्रभावपूर्ण तथा रोचक बन जाती है।

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरा, अर्थ और उनके वाक्य प्रयोग:- 

  • पानी फिर जाना - काम बिगड़ जाना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - मैं तो बड़े होकर डॉक्टर बनना चाहता था पर मेरी उस उम्मीद पर "पानी फिर गया"। 

  • अपना उल्लू सीधा करना - स्वार्थ सिद्ध करना।

           वाक्य प्रयोग- अर्चना ने हमेशा अपने काम को लेकर "अपना उल्लू सीधा करने" का प्रयास किया लेकिन उसे सफलता नहीं मिली।

  • ईंट से ईंट बजाना - पूरी तरह से समाप्त कर देना।

          वाक्य प्रयोग- यदि पकिस्तान भारत पर आक्रमण करने की कोशिश भी करेगा तो भारत की बहादुर सेना उनकी "ईंट से ईंट बजा देगी"।

  • कान पर जूँ न रेंगना - किसी भी बात का असर न होना।

           वाक्य प्रयोग- सीमा को कितना भी समझा लो पर उसकी "कान पर जूं तक नहीं रेंगती"।

  • डूबते को तिनके का सहारा - थोड़ी-सी मदद।

           वाक्य प्रयोग - मैंने मोहित की जब सौ रुपए की मदद की तो उसने कहा कि "डूबते को तिनके का सहारा" बहुत होता है।

  • खून के आँसू रुलाना - बहुत सताना या परेशान करना।

          वाक्य प्रयोग - रामू कलियुगी पुत्र हैं, वह अपने माता-पिता को "खून के आँसू रुला" रहा हैं।

142

निम्नलिखित में 'बादल' का पर्यायवाची नही है :

  1. ((a))

    जलधर

  2. ((b))

    नीरद

  3. ((c))

    वारिज

  4. ((d))

    पयोधर

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

वारिज

'बादल' का पर्यायवाची नही है - 'वारिज'

  • 'बादल' का पर्यायवाची है - अमेघ, जलद, जलधर, मेघ, नीरद, अंबुद, अंबुधर, पयोधर, अब्र, अभ्र, घटा।
  • 'कमल' का पर्यायवाची है - पंकज, नीरज, सरोज, जलज, अंबुज, अब्ज, अरविंद, वारिज, इंदीवर।

Key Points

  • जो शब्द समान अर्थ के कारण किसी दूसरे शब्द की जगह ले लेते हैं उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते है।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

  • पृथ्वी - धरा, धरती, वसुधा, भूमि, वसुंधरा, भू, इला, धरा, धरत्री, धरणी।
  • पर्वत - शैल, नग, भूधर, पहाड़, अंचल, महीधर, गिरि, भूमिधर, तुंग, अद्रि।
  • बिजली - चपला, चंचला, दामिनी, सौदामनी, विधुत्, तड़ित, बीजुरी, क्षणप्रभा।
  • मेघ - बादल, जलधर, पयोद, पयोधर, घन।
  • राजा - नृप, नृपति, भूपति, नरपति, भूप, महीप, महीपति, नरेश।
  • सर्प - साँप, अहि, भुजंग, विषधर, व्याल, फणी, उरग, पन्नग, नाग।
  • सागर - समुद्र, उदधि, जलधि, वारिधि, पारावार, सिंधु, नीरनिधि, नदीश।
  • सिंह - शेर, वनराज, शार्दूल, मृगराज, व्याघ्र, पंचमुख, मृगेंद्र, केशरी, महावीर।
143

निम्नलिखित में समास की दृष्टि से असंगत युग्म है :

  1. ((a))

    गिरिधर - कर्मधारय समास

  2. ((b))

    ध्यानमग्न - तत्पुरुष समास

  3. ((c))

    दोपहर - द्विगु समास

  4. ((d))

    यथाशक्ति - अव्ययीभाव समास

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

गिरिधर - कर्मधारय समास

समास की दृष्टि से असंगत युग्म है - 'गिरिधर - कर्मधारय समास'

  • 'गिरिधर' शब्‍द में बहुव्रीहि समास है।
  • 'गिरिधर' का समास विग्रह होगा - 'गिरि को धारण करने वाला है जो अर्थात् कृष्ण'। 
  • जिस समास में कोई पद प्रधान न होकर (दिए गए पदों में) किसी अन्य पद की प्रधानता होती है।
  • यह अपने पदों से भिन्न किसी विशेष संज्ञा का विशेषण है, उनको बहुव्रीहि समास कहा जाता है।
  • उदाहरण -
  • चंद्रमौली = चंद्र है मौली पर जिसके वह (शिव जी)
  • लम्बोदर = लम्बा है उदर जिसका वह (गणेश)

Key Points

  • ध्यानमग्न - तत्पुरुष समास
  • ध्यानमग्न का समास विग्रह होगा - 'ध्यान में मग्न'
  • दोपहर = दो पहरों का समाहार
  • यथाशक्ति - अव्ययीभाव समास
  • यथाशक्ति समास विग्रह होगा - 'शक्ति के अनुसार'

Additional Information

कर्मधारय:- - वह समास जिसका पहला पद विशेषण एवं दूसरा पद विशेष्य होता है अथवा पूर्वपद एवं उत्तरपद में उपमान - उपमेय का सम्बन्ध माना जाता है कर्मधारय समास कहलाता है। - समास विग्रह करते समय दोनों पदों के बीच में ‘के सामान’, ‘है जो’, ‘रुपी’ में से किसी एक शब्द का प्रयोग होता है। उदाहरण - - चरणकमल = कमल के समान चरण - नीलगगन = नीला है जो गगन - देहलता = देह रूपी लता तत्पुरुष:- - तत्पुरुष समास वह होता है, जिसमें उत्तरपद प्रधान होता है, अर्थात प्रथम पद गौण होता है। - एवं उत्तर पद की प्रधानता होती है व समास करते वक़्त बीच की विभक्ति का लोप हो जाता है।इस समास में आने वाले कारक चिन्हों को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि का लोप होता है। उदाहरण - - आपबीती = आप पर बीती। - गगनचुम्बी = गगन को चूमने वाला। द्विगु:- - वह समास जिसका पहला पद संख्यावाचक विशेषण होता है तथा समस्तपद किसी समूह या फिर किसी समाहार का बोध करता है तो वह द्विगु समास कहलाता है। उदाहरण - - दोपहर = दो पहरों का समाहार - चौराहा = चार राहों का समूह अव्‍ययीभाव:- - जहाँ प्रथम पद या पूर्व पद प्रधान हो तथा समस्त पद क्रिया विशेषण अव्यय हो, उसे अव्ययीभाव समास कहते हैं। - अव्ययीभाव समास के पहले पद में अनु, आ, प्रति, यथा, भर, हर आदि आते है। उदाहरण - - यथामति = मति के अनुसार - प्रतिदिन = दिन-दिन
144

'परमेश्वर' में कौन-सी संधि है ?

  1. ((a))

    दीर्घ संधि

  2. ((b))

    गुण संधि

  3. ((c))

    वृद्धि संधि

  4. ((d))

    यण् संधि

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

गुण संधि

'परमेश्वर' में संधि है - 'गुण संधि'

  • परमेश्वर का संधि विच्छेद = परम + ईश्वर, (अ + ई= ) गुण संधि
  • परमेश्वर - सगुण ब्रह्म जो संपूर्ण सृष्टि का रचयिता एवं संचालक है।
  • जब संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ए‘ बनता है,
  • जब (अ, आ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ओ‘ बनता है,
  • जब (अ, आ) के साथ (ऋ) हो तो ‘अर्‘ बनता है तो यह गुण संधि कहलाती है।
  • उदाहरण-
  • नर + ईश = नरेश (अ + ई = )
  • ज्ञान + उपदेश = ज्ञानोपदेश (अ + उ = )
  • देव + ऋषि = देवर्षि (अ + ऋ = अर्)

Key Points

दीर्घ संधि:- - जब दो शब्दों की संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (अ, आ) हो तो ‘आ‘ बनता है, - जब (इ, ई) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ई‘ बनता है, जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ऊ‘ बनता है, तो उसे दीर्घ संधि कहते है। उदाहरण- - विद्या + अभ्यास = विद्याभ्यास (आ + अ = आ) - कवि + ईश्वर = कवीश्वर (इ + ई = ई) - वधु + उत्सव = वधूत्सव (उ + उ = ऊ) वृद्धि स्वर संधि:- - जब संधि करते समय जब (अ, आ)  के साथ (ए, ऐ)  हो तो ‘ऐ‘ बनता है, - और जब (अ, आ)  के साथ (ओ, औ) हो तो ‘औ‘ बनता है। उसे वृद्धि संधि कहते हैं। उदाहरण - - महा + ऐश्वर्य = महैश्वर्य (आ + ऐ = ऐ) - महा + ओजस्वी = महौजस्वी (आ + ओ = औ) यण स्वर संधि:- - जब संधि करते समय (इ, ई) के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ‘य‘ बन जाता है, - जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ‘व्‘ बन जाता है, - जब (ऋ) के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ‘र‘ बन जाता है। उसे वृद्धि संधि कहते हैं। उदाहरण - - अधि + अयन = अध्ययन (इ + अ = य) - अनु + एषण = अन्वेषण (उ + ए = व) - पितृ + आदेश = पित्रादेश (ऋ + आ= रा)
145

निम्नलिखित में वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध शब्द है :

  1. ((a))

    कनिष्ट

  2. ((b))

    झूठ

  3. ((c))

    मिष्टान्न

  4. ((d))

    दक्खिन

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कनिष्ट

वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध शब्द है - 'कनिष्ट'

  • कनिष्ट शब्द का शुद्ध रूप कनिष्ठ है।
  • कनिष्ठ - वय या उम्र में छोटा, पद, मर्यादा आदि में छोटा।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही है।

Mistake Points 

  • झूठ - असत्य, मिथ्या, मृषा, अनृत।
  • मिष्टान्न - मिठाई, मीठा अन्न, मीठा पकवान।
  • दक्खिन - दक्षिण दिशा में पड़ने वाला प्रदेश।

Key Points 

  • किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओ सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
  • वर्तनी का सम्बन्ध का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।
  • यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध से शुद्ध शब्द:-

  • अशुद्ध -  शुद्ध
  • उद्दत - उद्यत
  • ज्योत्सना - ज्योत्स्ना
  • पूज्यनीय - पूजनीय
  • कृत्यकृत्य - कृतकृत्य
  • स्थायीत्व - स्थायित्व
  • कवियित्री - कवयित्री
  • ग्रहकार्य - गृहकार्य
146

निम्नलिखित में असंगत युग्म है :

  1. ((a))

    जहाँ बहुत कठिनाई से जाया जा सके - दुर्गम स्थल

  2. ((b))

    जिसकी कोई उपमा न दी जा सके - उपमाहीन

  3. ((c))

    जिसकी तुलना की जा सके - तुलनीय

  4. ((d))

    जिसका कोई आकार न हो - निराकार

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

जिसकी कोई उपमा न दी जा सके - उपमाहीन

असंगत युग्म है - 'जिसकी कोई उपमा न दी जा सके - उपमाहीन'

  • जिसकी उपमा न दी जा सके - निरुपम

संगत युग्म है -

  • जहाँ बहुत कठिनाई से जाया जा सके - दुर्गम स्थल
  • जिसकी तुलना की जा सके - तुलनीय
  • जिसका कोई आकार न हो - निराकार

Key Points

  • अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द:-

  • जो क्षमा नहीं किया जा सके - अक्षम्य
  • जिसे कठिनाई से लाँघा जा सके - दुर्लंघ्य
  • किसी के पास रखी हुई दूसरे की वस्तु - धरोहर
  • जो किनारे से सटे हुए हो - तटवर्ती
  • जहां सिक्कों की ढलाई होती है - टकसाल
  • जो गुप्त रूप से निवास कर रहा हो - छद्मवासी
  • चिर निद्रा को प्राप्त हुआ - चिरनिद्रित
  • जहां धरती और आकाश मिलते हुए दिखाई देते हैं - क्षितिज
147

निम्नलिखित में असंगत विलोमार्थी शब्द-युग्म है :

  1. ((a))

    अल्पज्ञ - बहुज्ञ

  2. ((b))

    जटिल - सरल

  3. ((c))

    ग्राह्य - त्याज्य

  4. ((d))

    तीव्र - तरल

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

तीव्र - तरल

असंगत विलोमार्थी शब्द-युग्म है - 'तीव्र - तरल'

  • तीव्र - तेज़, तीक्ष्ण, अत्यधिक, अत्यंत।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'मन्द'
  • अर्थ: धीमा, सुस्त।
  • तरल - बहनेवाला पदार्थ, द्रव
  • विलोम शब्द - 'ठोस'
  • अर्थ: जो दबाने से न दबता हो, पक्का।

Key Pointsअल्पज्ञ:-

  • अर्थ: कम जानने वाला, कम ज्ञान रखने वाला, अबोध।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'बहुज्ञ'
  • अर्थ: बहुत-सी बातों का ज्ञान रखने वाला।

जटिल:-

  • अर्थ: कठिन, दुर्बोध, जो आसानी से सुलझ न सके।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'सरल'
  • अर्थ: सीधा, ऋजु, जो टेढ़ा न हो।

ग्राह्य:-

  • अर्थ: जो देखा सुना और पहचाना जा सकता हो।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'त्याज्य'
  • अर्थ: जो त्यागने या छोड़ने योग्य हो।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उसके आधार पर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए :

पर्यावरण हमारा रक्षा कवच है जो प्रकृति से हमें विरासत में मिला है। यह हम सबका पालनहार और जीवनाधार है। पर्यावरण मूलतः प्रकृति की देन है। यह भूमि वन पर्वतों, नद-निर्झरों, मरुस्थलों-मैदानों, घास के जंगलों, रंग-बिरंगे पशु-पक्षियों, स्वच्छ जल से भरी लहलहाती झीलों और सरोवरों से भरी है। इस पर बहती शीतल मंद सुगंध वायु तथा उमड़ते और अमृतधार बरसाते बादल - ये सभी धरती पर बसने वाले मनुष्यों के विकास और सुख-समृद्धि के लिए एक संतुलित पर्यावरण का निर्माण करते हैं किंतु पर्यावरण का यह प्राकृतिक संतुलन बड़ी तेज़ी से बिगड़ता जा रहा है। आश्चर्य होता है कि मनुष्य धरती के इन स्रोतों को कितना अंधाधुंध दूहे जा रहा है, वह इसके वरदानों का इस प्रकार अविवेकपूर्ण दुरुपयोग कर रहा है कि सारा प्रकृति-तंत्र गड़बड़ा गया है। अब वह दिन दूर नहीं लगता जब धरती पर हज़ारों शताब्दियों पुराना हिमयुग लौट आए अथवा ध्रुवों पर जमी बर्फ की मोटी पर्त पिघल जाने से समुद्र की प्रलयंकारी लहरें, नगरों, वन-पर्वतों और जीव-जन्तुओं को निगल जाएँ।

148

गद्यांश के आधार पर पर्यावरण निम्नलिखित में से क्या नहीं है ?

  1. ((a))

    रक्षा कवच

  2. ((b))

    पालनहार

  3. ((c))

    जीवनाधार

  4. ((d))

    जीवनाहार

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

जीवनाहार

गद्यांश के आधार पर पर्यावरण नहीं है - जीवनाहार

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • पर्यावरण हमारा रक्षा कवच है जो प्रकृति से हमें विरासत में मिला है।
  • यह हम सबका पालनहार और जीवनाधार है। ​
  • पर्यावरण मूलतः प्रकृति की देन है।

Key Points​कवच:- 

  • अर्थ: बाह्य आक्रमण से सुरक्षा हेतु बना पहनावा।

पालनहार:-

  • अर्थ: पालन करने वाला।

जीवनाधार:-

  • अर्थ: जीवन का अवलंब या सहारा।
149

निम्नलिखित में 'संतुलित' शब्द का विलोमार्थी है :

  1. ((a))

    नियंत्रित

  2. ((b))

    अनियंत्रित

  3. ((c))

    असमान

  4. ((d))

    असंतुलित

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

असंतुलित

'संतुलित' शब्द का विलोमार्थी है - 'असंतुलित'

  • संतुलित - जिसका भार, फैलाव, बल आदि बराबर रखा गया हो।
  • असंतुलित - जिसमें संतुलन न हो, अस्थिर, लड़खड़ाया हुआ।

Key Pointsनियंत्रित:-

  • अर्थ: नियम से बँधा हुआ, प्रतिबद्ध।
  • विलोम शब्द - 'अनियंत्रित'
  • अर्थ: नियंत्रणविहीन, बेकाबू, स्वतंत्र, उन्मुक्त।

असमान:-

  • अर्थ: समान या बराबर न होने का भाव, गैरबराबरी।
  • विलोम शब्द **- '**समान'
  • अर्थ: सदृश, तुल्य, एक–सा।
150

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा पर्यावरण को नुकसान पहुँचा रहा है ?

  1. ((a))

    वन पर्वत और नदी निर्झर

  2. ((b))

    नदी निर्झर और घास के जंगल

  3. ((c))

    स्वच्छ जल से भरी लहलहाती झीलें

  4. ((d))

    धरती के स्रोतों का अंधाधुंध दोहन

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

धरती के स्रोतों का अंधाधुंध दोहन

पर्यावरण को नुकसान पहुँचा रहा है - धरती के स्रोतों का अंधाधुंध दोहन

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
  • सभी धरती पर बसने वाले मनुष्यों के विकास और सुख-समृद्धि के लिए एक संतुलित पर्यावरण का निर्माण करते हैं
  • किंतु पर्यावरण का यह प्राकृतिक संतुलन बड़ी तेज़ी से बिगड़ता जा रहा है।
  • आश्चर्य होता है कि मनुष्य धरती के इन स्रोतों को कितना अंधाधुंध दूहे जा रहा है,
  • वह इसके वरदानों का इस प्रकार अविवेकपूर्ण दुरुपयोग कर रहा है कि सारा प्रकृति-तंत्र गड़बड़ा गया है।

Key Points

  • धरती - धरा, धरती, पृथ्वी, भू, भूमि, धरणी, वसुंधरा, अचला, मही, वसुधा, ज़मीन।
  • अंधाधुंध - बिना सोचे समझे।
  • दोहन - किसी का शोषण करना, लूटपाट।

Additional Informationवन:-

  • अर्थ: जंगल, कानन, बीहड़, विटप, विपिन।

पर्वत:-

  • अर्थ: पहाड़, गिरि, अचल, भूमिधर, तुंग आद्रि, शैल, नग, भूधर, महीधर , नगपति, शिखर।

नदी:-

  • अर्थ: सरिता, तटिनी, वाहिनी, तरंगिणी, निर्झरिणी, शैलजा, जलमाला, नद, शैवालिनी।

जल:-

  • अर्थ: वारि, पानी, नीर, सलिल, तोय, उदक, अंबु, जीवन, पय, अमृत, मेघपुष्प।

निर्झर:-

  • अर्थ: सोता, श्रोत, झरना, प्रपात, उत्स।

झील:-

  • अर्थ: तालाब, ताल, तलैया, सरोवर, जलाशय, पुष्कर, गड़ही, जोहड़, पोखर।

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