Official Paper

IDBI Executive Memory based Paper (Held on: (9th July 2022, Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Logical Reasoning, Data Analysis & Interpretation (60 questions)

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are nine-person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X who lives in a nine-story building. Having floor numbers 1 to 9, the ground floor is floor no 1, the floor above it floor no 2 and so on and the topmost floor is floor no 9.

R lives on the 7th floor. There is only one person live between R and X. There are two persons live between X and T. T does not live immediately above the floor on which R lives. S lives above the floor of R. There are three persons live between S and W. U lives immediately below P but not on the ground floor. Q lives above the floor on which V lives.

1

Who live immediately below Q?

  1. ((a))

    X

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X

2

How many persons live between X and P?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    More than four

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

3

Who lives on the bottommost floor?

  1. ((a))

    X

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X

4

If P interchange his floor with X who lives immediately below P?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

5

Who lives two floors above W?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

6

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All burgers are noodles.

All noodles are pizzas.

All pizzas are chickens.

Conclusions:

I. All noodles are chickens.

II. All pizzas are burgers.

III. All burgers are chickens.

  1. ((a))

    Both I and III follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only I follows.

  3. ((c))

    Only III follows.

  4. ((d))

    Only II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Both II and III follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both I and III follow.

7

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I, II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All computers are phone.

Only a few phones are idea.

Some airtel are phone.

Conclusions:

I. At least some phones are not computer.

II. At least some ideas are computer.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follow

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

8

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II  .You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

Many Tea are Coffee 

All Coffee are Juice 

Several Juice are Shake

Conclusions

I. Some Shake are Coffee

II. All Shake being tea is a possibility

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

9

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I, II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few songs are classical.

Some classical is old.

All old are new.

Conclusions:

I. Some songs are not classical.

II. Some new is classical.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion (I) follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion (I) and (II) follows

  4. ((d))

    Either conclusion (I) or (II) follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion (I) follows

10

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Bottles are Shampoo.

Only a few Shampoo are Days.

No Days are Keys.

Conclusions:

I. Some Shampoo are not Keys.

II. No Bottles are Keys.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follow

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follow

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons, A, B, C, D, E F, G, and H are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing south and four are facing north. No three consecutive persons are facing the same direction.

A is not an immediate neighbour of D. E, an immediate neighbour of B, is facing north. H is sitting fourth to the right of B. Both the immediate neighbours of D are facing opposite directions. H is sitting second to the left of C and they are facing the same direction. Both H and B are facing the same direction. Both the immediate neighbours of B are facing the same direction. D is sitting fourth to the right of F. E is sitting at the right end of the row.

11

Who is sitting second to the left of D?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

12

Who is sitting on the extreme ends of the row?

  1. ((a))

    AE

  2. ((b))

    FB

  3. ((c))

    CE

  4. ((d))

    CD

  5. ((e))

    HE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AE

13

How many people are sitting to the right of G?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

14

Who are the immediate neighbours of A?

  1. ((a))

    CD

  2. ((b))

    FD

  3. ((c))

    CG

  4. ((d))

    GH

  5. ((e))

    CE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CD

15

Which of the following set of letters represent the people facing south?

  1. ((a))

    CDHG

  2. ((b))

    HCAB

  3. ((c))

    AEDB

  4. ((d))

    FHAG

  5. ((e))

    HAGD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CDHG

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are living in a Four-story building but not necessarily in the same order such that the ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 then the top floor is numbered as 4. Each of the floors has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way, flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-1 is in the west of flat-2.

Q lives in the flat-2, But not on the even-number floor. P lives in the West direction on floor 3. W and T live on the same floor. T doesn’t live in the West direction on the floor. U lives just above P. R lives above Q but not on odd number floor. S lives west to the flat of Q.

16

'V' lives on which floor?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    Either 1 or 2 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

17

Find odd-one ?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

18

What is the flat number of 'R'?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    Either 1 or 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

19

What is the right combination for 'W'?

  1. ((a))

    Floor 1, Flat-1

  2. ((b))

    Floor 1, Flat-2

  3. ((c))

    Floor 2, Flat-1

  4. ((d))

    Floor 3, Flat-1

  5. ((e))

    Floor 4, Flat-1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Floor 1, Flat-1

20

Who lives in Flat-2 of floor 2?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing North. Three persons are sitting between A and P. Five persons sit between S and U who sit at one of the ends. T sits second from the left end. R sits at equal distance from A and T. Q is equidistant from S and J. S sits to the right of P and A but not to the immediate right of any of the two. Not more than one person sits between P and S. Eleven persons sit between J and R. Six persons sit between T and L who sits to the left of P and to the right of A. Even number of persons are sitting in the row.

21

How many persons are sitting in the row?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

22

Who is sitting fourth to the left of U?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

23

How many persons are sitting between A and S?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

24

What is the position of L with respect to P?

  1. ((a))

    Second to the left

  2. ((b))

    Immediate left

  3. ((c))

    Third to the left

  4. ((d))

    Fourth to the left

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second to the left

25

How many persons are sitting between A and R?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    None

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions

Input: 87 often 33 defined 11 historical 48 with 61 infatuation

Step I: with 87 often 33 defined historical 48 61 infatuation 11

Step II: often with 87 33 defined historical 48 infatuation 11 61

Step III: defined often with 87 historical 48 infatuation 11 61 33

Step IV: historical defined often with 87 infatuation 11 61 33 48

Step V: infatuation historical defined often with 11 61 33 48 87

As per the rule followed in the above steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input and answer the questions.

Input: 47 aware 25 beautiful 23 dusky 39 talent 18 antique

26

What will be the output of the step II?

  1. ((a))

    talent dusky 47 aware 25 beautiful 18 antique 23 39

  2. ((b))

    talent dusky aware 25 beautiful 39 18 antique 23 47

  3. ((c))

    dusky aware 25 beautiful 39 talent 18 antique 23 47

  4. ((d))

    dusky talent 47 aware beautiful 39 18 antique 23 25

  5. ((e))

    None of the given options is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

talent dusky 47 aware 25 beautiful 18 antique 23 39

27

18 is related to 23 in step I in the same way 25 is related to 39 in the step II then 47 is related to which of the following in step IV in the same way?

  1. ((a))

    39

  2. ((b))

    dusky

  3. ((c))

    beautiful

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    talent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

39

28

What is the sum of the numbers which is fourth from the left end in step II and forth from the right in the last step?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    64

  3. ((c))

    62

  4. ((d))

    48

  5. ((e))

    41

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

29

How many terms are there between ‘talent’ and ‘antique’ in step IV?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    One

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

30

Which of the following term is exactly between the term which is first from the left and which is fourth from the right in the last step?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    antique

  3. ((c))

    talent

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    dusky

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:

Shivani started walking from point A towards south and walked for 10 m to reach point B. She takes two consecutive right turns from point B, walked 5 m and 6 m respectively. Finally, she took left turn and walked 2 m to reach point E. She again starts walking and takes a left turn and walk 12 m and then takes a right turn and walks 5 m to reach point D.

31

What is the shortest distance between point D and E?

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    √29

  3. ((c))

    √17

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13

32

Point B in which direction of D?

  1. ((a))

    South west

  2. ((b))

    East

  3. ((c))

    West

  4. ((d))

    North east

  5. ((e))

    South

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South west

33

If a person starts walking from point D in north direction, then how far and in which direction he from point B?

  1. ((a))

    12 m, North west

  2. ((b))

    10 m, South east

  3. ((c))

    14 m, West

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 m, North west

Direction: Study the following information and answer the given question.

P, Q, R, S and T are comparing their height. P is shorter then only S. Q is taller than R and T both but not as tall as S. R is not the shortest.

34

Who among them will be in the middle if they stand in the order of their height?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

Directions: Five Books – Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and History are kept one above another. Zoology book is not kept on the extreme top and extreme bottom. Botany book is kept above History book but not immediately at the top. Chemistry is 2nd from the top. There are only two books below the Botany book.

35

How many books are kept above the Zoology book?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

36

In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?

  1. ((a))

    25th

  2. ((b))

    26th

  3. ((c))

    27th

  4. ((d))

    28th

  5. ((e))

    29th

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25th

37

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: U ≥ T ≥ M = W ≤ E ≥ L = H

Conclusions: 

I. U ≥ E

II. E > U

  1. ((a))

    Only I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II follow

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follow

38

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P ≤ Q > W = K; K < X; X = P > L; N < L

Conclusions:

I. Q = P

II. Q > P

  1. ((a))

    None is true

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II are true

  3. ((c))

    Only II is true

  4. ((d))

    Only I is true

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None is true

39

Directions: In each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusions among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: H < B > U ≥ W = T ≥ Y > I < A ≥ Y

Conclusions:

I. B > I

II. A > W

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either Conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I follows

40

Directions: In question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statements and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: If you have any problems in studies, consult the teacher.

Assumptions:

I. You have some problems.

II. The teacher can solve any problem.

  1. ((a))

    Only assumption I is implicit.

  2. ((b))

    Only assumption II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    Either assumption I or II is implicit.

  4. ((d))

    Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

  5. ((e))

    Both the assumptions I and II are implicit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only assumption I is implicit.

41

In the questions below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically followed beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: Supreme Court has suspended the sale of firecrackers in a few states.

Conclusions:

I. The emission of poisonous gases will be brought down.

II. There would be an increase in unemployment.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows.

42

A statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: Dense smog covered sky of Delhi.

Inferences:

I. People should try to stay indoors.

II. People going out of their house should wear masks.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows.

Direction: These questions are based on the following arrangement of letters, numbers and symbols.

T 5 S # R 2 1 * A & Z 7 C ? 4 P 6 E 8 K Y @ 3 F $

43

If every symbol is deleted from the arrangement, then which of the following elements will be the 8th to the right of the 15th element from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

44

How many such letters are there in the arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    More than five

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

45

If every number is deleted from the arrangement, then which element will be the 4th to the left of the 12th element from the left end?

  1. ((a))

    Z

  2. ((b))

    Y

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    &

  5. ((e))

    @

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Z

46

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DECISION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

47

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the 3rd, 7th, 11th and 12th letters of the word CONCENTRATION, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made give ‘Y’ as the answer.

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

Directions: Read carefully the information give below and answer the following questions.

There are eight members in a three generation family i.e. Rishu, Rohan, Preeti, Priya, Manas, Prince, Suraj, and Manoj. There are two married couple in the family. Manas is the brother of Rishu. Rohan is the husband of Preeti. Priya is married to Prince and Priya is the daughter of Rohan. Suraj is the sister of Manoj and Manoj is the brother of Manas. Manas is the son of Prince.

48

How Suraj is related to Prince?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Son

  3. ((c))

    Mother

  4. ((d))

    Mother-in-law

  5. ((e))

    Data inadequate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Daughter

49

How Rishu is related to Priya?

  1. ((a))

    Son

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Sister

  4. ((d))

    Daughter-in-law

  5. ((e))

    Data inadequate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Son

50

If Rishu is Wife of Puja, then How Rishu is related to Manoj?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Sister

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother

Direction: Study the following Pie charts carefully and answer the questions given bellow it.

Given pie chart shows the percentage confirmed cases and deaths due to COVID – 19 in different States of India till December 2020.

Total Cases = 10 lakhs

Total deaths = 1.8 lakhs

 

51

What percentage of patient died from COVID – 19 from Karnataka out of total case registered from the same state?

  1. ((a))

    38%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    16%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38%

52

The number of deaths from other states exceeds the number of deaths from Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu together by

  1. ((a))

    34200

  2. ((b))

    25000

  3. ((c))

    35000

  4. ((d))

    35200

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34200

53

What is the fraction of patients died to the patients registered for states Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu together?

  1. ((a))

    119/950

  2. ((b))

    119/850

  3. ((c))

    117/950

  4. ((d))

    117/850

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

119/950

54

What is the ratio of Patients died to the Patients confirmed from Maharashtra?

  1. ((a))

    116 : 389

  2. ((b))

    123 : 419

  3. ((c))

    115 : 397

  4. ((d))

    117 : 400

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

116 : 389

55

Find the central angle of confirmed deaths in Andhra Pradesh.

  1. ((a))

    36° 

  2. ((b))

    15° 

  3. ((c))

    20° 

  4. ((d))

    18° 

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36° 

Direction: Go through the bar graph given below and answer the question based on it.

The bar graph given below represents the weight (In kg) and height (In cm) of five students (viz. A, B, C, D, and E). 

 

Note:

  1. The unit of height is cm and weight is in kg
  2. Formula for calculating BMI (Body mass index) = ((Weight/(height)2) × 10000 (consider values up to two decimal places)
56

Who amongst the following have the highest BMI?

  1. ((a))

    A and E

  2. ((b))

    A, D and E

  3. ((c))

    B and D

  4. ((d))

    C and D

  5. ((e))

    D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and E

57

What is the ratio of BMI of A and B if approximate values of BMI is considered?

  1. ((a))

    13 ∶ 18

  2. ((b))

    18 ∶ 13

  3. ((c))

    39 ∶ 37

  4. ((d))

    37 ∶ 39

  5. ((e))

    9 ∶ 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 ∶ 18

58

If the BMI is more than 52 then the student is considered as overweight. Who amongst the following is/are overweight?

  1. ((a))

    B and C

  2. ((b))

    C and D

  3. ((c))

    D and E

  4. ((d))

    D only

  5. ((e))

    C, D and E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B and C

59

The approximate BMI of C is how much parentage more than the approximate BMI of E ?

  1. ((a))

    9.08%

  2. ((b))

    10.2%

  3. ((c))

    11.5%

  4. ((d))

    9.80%

  5. ((e))

    12.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9.08%

60

what is average BMI of all five students if only approximate value is considered?

  1. ((a))

    49.5

  2. ((b))

    50.8

  3. ((c))

    51.7

  4. ((d))

    52.5

  5. ((e))

    55.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49.5

English Language (40 questions)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

For a leader who led the Conservative party to an 80-seat majority three years ago with a Thatcher-like charisma, Boris Johnson’s fall from grace was so steep that a host of his Ministers, including those who were appointed days earlier, publicly called for his resignation on Wednesday. Mr. Johnson, a journalist-turned-politician who rose to the pinnacles of power riding the Brexit wave, tried to cling to his position till the last minute. But despite Downing Street’s fightback, the intra-party rebellion spread like wildfire, engulfing even the loyalist inner circle. Faced with no other choice, he agreed on Thursday to stand down as the Conservative Party leader immediately and resign as Prime Minister in October when the party chooses a new leader. His position within the party became untenable in June when 41% of lawmakers expressed no confidence in his leadership in a vote. Signs of the rebellion had emerged much earlier as his government were rocked by the “partygate” scandal — the Prime Minister was fined by police for attending a birthday gathering at Downing Street in the midst of a nationwide COVID-19 lockdown. The resignation of Chris Pincher as Deputy Chief Whip last week over allegations of sexual misconduct came as the final straw. As chaos prevailed, two of his senior Ministers — Chancellor Rishi Sunak and Health Secretary Sajid Javid — announced their resignations, triggering the disintegration of the government.

Mr. Johnson won the 2019 elections promising a quick, orderly Brexit. But the best he could deliver was a chaotic, painful divorce with the EU whose economic pains continue to haunt ordinary Britons and businesses. There is still no clarity on the post-Brexit trade relations _______ the EU and the Northern Ireland protocol remains a mess. As scandals began to hit his government, his moral authority within the party started slipping. Mr. Johnson could still argue that he got a colossal mandate and that he remained a vote-getter for the Conservatives. But even that position became untenable as a serious economic crunch began to bite. Last month, the Conservatives suffered humiliating defeats in two by-elections — Wakefield and Tiverton and Honiton — which practically sealed Mr. Johnson’s fate. The rest was only a matter of time. His successor will inherit a crisis-ridden economy and polity. Inflation rose to 9.1% in May, the highest in 40 years, which, according to the Bank of England, could hit 11% this year. Some economists predict a recession. Brexit remains an unfinished business, which, if not resolved properly, could threaten peace in Northern Ireland. And the government in Scotland is demanding another referendum on independence. Mr. Johnson, who came to power offering a new post-Brexit future for the U.K., is leaving the country in economic pain and political disarray.

61

Which of the following is/are incorrect according to the given passage?

A. Sajid Javid served as Secretary of State for Health and Social Care.

B. Inflation in the UK in the month of May was the lowest in 40 years.

C. The Conservatives won elections in Wakefield and Tiverton and Honiton with a huge margin.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

  5. ((e))

    Only C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

62

According to the passage, what has practically sealed Mr. Johnson’s fate?

  1. ((a))

    The Conservative's win in two by-elections.

  2. ((b))

    The Conservative's defeat in two by-elections.

  3. ((c))

    The loyalty of Mr. Boris Johnson toward his party.

  4. ((d))

    Not supporting Russia in the Ukraine war.

  5. ((e))

    The deteriorating health of Mr. Boris Johnson.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Conservative's win in two by-elections.

63

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The resistance of UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson.

  2. ((b))

    The UK Prime Minister joined hands with the rival party.

  3. ((c))

    The resignation of UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson.

  4. ((d))

    The fake “partygate” scandal.

  5. ((e))

    Boris Johnson to remain as the Prime Minister of UK.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The resistance of UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson.

64

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ''There is still no clarity on the post-Brexit trade relations _______ the EU and the Northern Ireland protocol remains a mess.''

  1. ((a))

    Of

  2. ((b))

    For

  3. ((c))

    From

  4. ((d))

    On

  5. ((e))

    With

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Of

65

In this question, a sentence (in bold) from the passage has been divided into five parts (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error, the answer is 'No error'. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

Signs of the rebellion had emerged much earlier (A)/ as his government were rocked by the “partygate” scandal — the Prime Minister (B)/ was fined by police for attending a birthday gathering at (C)/ Downing Street in the midst of a nationwide COVID-19 lockdown (D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

66

Select the word from the passage that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A claim or assertion that someone has done something illegal or wrong

  1. ((a))

    Rebellion

  2. ((b))

    Resignation

  3. ((c))

    Allegations

  4. ((d))

    Prevailed

  5. ((e))

    Disintegration

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rebellion

67

Choose the synonym of the word 'Chaos'.

  1. ((a))

    Order

  2. ((b))

    Tidiness

  3. ((c))

    Tranquility

  4. ((d))

    Mayhem

  5. ((e))

    Repose

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Order

68

Choose the antonym of the word 'Untenable'.

  1. ((a))

    Flimsy

  2. ((b))

    Implausible

  3. ((c))

    Specious

  4. ((d))

    Weak

  5. ((e))

    Defensible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flimsy

69

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Stand down

  1. ((a))

    To withdraw or resign.

  2. ((b))

    To allow someone to relax after being ready or alert.

  3. ((c))

    To rise to one's feet.

  4. ((d))

    To remain valid or unaltered.

  5. ((e))

    To adopt a particular attitude towards a matter or issue.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To withdraw or resign.

70

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Fall from grace

  1. ((a))

    To drop down towards the ground.

  2. ((b))

    To lose one's balance and collapse.

  3. ((c))

    To lose status, respect or prestige.

  4. ((d))

    The drop in temperature.

  5. ((e))

    The gradual decrement of resources.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To drop down towards the ground.

71

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

As I go (A)/ near I (B)/ saw a very (C)/ curious sight. (D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

72

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is Error-free select No Error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

We were prevented(A)/ from see(B)/ him in prison(C)/ without the official papers.(D)/ No Error(E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

73

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select No Option or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

The climate of the (A)/ cities of Himachal Pradesh(B)/ is like those of (C)/ the cities of Uttarakhand. (D)/ No Error(E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

74

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

She, You (A)/ and I will (B)/ be traveling(C)/ by my car.(D) No Error(E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

75

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

Anger do not (A)/ help mend (B)/ matters but(C)/ complicates things.(D)/ No error(E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

76

The given sentences have an error, find the sentences with error, if both the sentences are correct select 'Neither 1 nor 2 have an error'. Ignore any punctuation errors.

1. On my way home yesterday, I missed the final train, which I usually catch, and have to linger at the station. 2. I recall my childhood days when I was used to go to the farm with my father and assist him with his chores.

  1. ((a))

    1 has an error

  2. ((b))

    2 has an error

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 have an error

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 have an error

  5. ((e))

    There is more than one error in either of the sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 has an error

77

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence(s) in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A)GoI is contemplating a complete exit from banking through amendments enabling legislation(P) to change, involved in the government's effort to pull out of banking.
(B)The delay in altering the legal framework to actualise this intent provides an indication of the resistance(Q)for its stake to fall below 51% in public sector banks (PSBs).
(C)Privatisation has reached the legislative agenda after a painful decade for state-owned banks(R)that saw their activities frozen by regulations due to mounting bad debts.
  1. ((a))

    A-Q, B-P, C-R

  2. ((b))

    A-P, B-R, C-Q

  3. ((c))

    A-R, B-Q, C-P

  4. ((d))

    B-P, C-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q, B-P, C-R

78

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence(s) in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A) Goa, Nainital, Rishikesh, Gangtok and Mount Abu emerged as the top five favoured family summer holiday destinatons for Indians this year,(P)41 per cent chose Goa as the most sought-after destination for family vacations with kids.
(B)According to the survey conducted in the first two weeks of June taking response from 1,072 respondents,(Q)while 42 percent preferred hotels with kids' play areas, followed by proximity to water parks, big television in the room, among others.
(C)When it comes to the choice of hotels, 58 percent of the respondents said they would prefer a stay with a swimming pool for kids,(R)according to a survey by travel and hospitality technology platform OYO.
  1. ((a))

    A-Q, B-P, C-R

  2. ((b))

    B-P. C-R

  3. ((c))

    A-R, B-P, C-Q

  4. ((d))

    A-P, B-Q, C-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q, B-P, C-R

79

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If one of the options makes it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A) Abhay Agarwal, small case manager, founder, and MD, Piper Serica Advisors, said that(P)  the markets have struggled to form a bottom in the first half faced by multiple headwinds.
(B)As many as 16 companies made their debut on the bourses with half of them trading below their issue prices,(Q)with an average return of 11.25 per cent on a year-to-date (YTD) basis till June 28.
(C)The 16 listings in the current calendar so far have raised close Rs 40,950 crore through their initial stake sales,(R)whereas the second half delivering positive response with two multibaggers.
  1. ((a))

    A-Q, B-P, C-R

  2. ((b))

    A-R, B-P, C-Q

  3. ((c))

    B-P, C-R

  4. ((d))

    A-P, B-R, C-Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q, B-P, C-R

80

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If one of the options makes it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A) Gasoline imports rose to about 13,000 barrels a day in the first half of June, a seven-month high(P) which is also a key shipper of diesel and gasoline, has been cutting back.
(B)The heightened import activity from India is shrinking Asia’s pool of fuel supplies at a time when China,(Q)have been reduced following refinery maintenance this month, according to industry consultant OilChem.
(C)India’s rush to buy gasoline and diesel has already driven a surge in regional refining margins for both fuels(R)that state processors are now rushing to address with extra imports.
  1. ((a))

    A-Q

  2. ((b))

    A-R

  3. ((c))

    B-P

  4. ((d))

    C-P

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q

81

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A)Paucity of housing means that owners stand to make more from the land than the building(P)this neglect is deliberate and commonplace in many cities and towns with strict rent control regulations in force.
(B)Neglect in the upkeep of buildings by the owner is among the main reasons for structural collapses,(Q) despite repeated reminders, people continued to live in the building, with the authorities looking away after it became inconvenient.
(C)Officials guilty of failure to implement the laws and property owners must be punished.(R)is yet another cruel reminder of the absolute need for robust and progressive regulations
  1. ((a))

    A-R

  2. ((b))

    B-P

  3. ((c))

    C-Q

  4. ((d))

    C-P

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-R

82

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A)From more resource-efficient factories, resilient supply chains, and smarter buildings and grids, to cleaner and more comfortable transportation,(P)as well as transmission and generation of electrical power.
(B)Siemens Ltd is a technology company focused on industry, infrastructure, transport(Q)and markets to transform the every day for people.
(C)By combining the real and the digital worlds, Siemens empowers its customers to transform their industries(R) the company creates technology with purpose, adding real value for customers.
  1. ((a))

    A-Q, C-R

  2. ((b))

    A-Q, B-R, C-P

  3. ((c))

    A-R, B-Q, C-P

  4. ((d))

    A-R, B-P, C-Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q, C-R

83

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

Some areas were badly affected and were aquatic under 5-8 feet of water even though there was no fresh rain in the city.

  1. ((a))

    abysmal

  2. ((b))

    abyssal

  3. ((c))

    flushed

  4. ((d))

    submerged

  5. ((e))

    parched

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

abysmal

84

Those looking for savings earned over a long period of time can choose detrimental schemes where the accumulated interest is paid on maturity.

  1. ((a))

    degressive

  2. ((b))

    gradual

  3. ((c))

    cumulative

  4. ((d))

    incremental

  5. ((e))

    increscent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

degressive

85

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, specially in a equable market.

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Fixed Deposits (FD) are the safest option for investments, e ..

 

Read more at:

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/92337653.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

  1. ((a))

    certain

  2. ((b))

    volatile

  3. ((c))

    steady

  4. ((d))

    immutable

  5. ((e))

    abiding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

certain

86

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

The UAE is already India’s third-largest trading partner with exclusive trade in 2019-20 valued at $59 billion.

  1. ((a))

    solitary

  2. ((b))

    unilateral

  3. ((c))

    special

  4. ((d))

    private

  5. ((e))

    bilateral

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

solitary

87

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

He forged a/an convention with socialists, communists and greens, trying to avoid a split among voters in the left of the centre spectrum.

  1. ((a))

    alliance

  2. ((b))

    discord

  3. ((c))

    disunity

  4. ((d))

    rebellion

  5. ((e))

    dissent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

alliance

88

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

Nearly 30% of Russia's refining capacity was drudged in May, resulting in a worldwide oil-refining crunch, sources told Reuters.

  1. ((a))

    grubbed

  2. ((b))

    plowed

  3. ((c))

    idled

  4. ((d))

    slaved

  5. ((e))

    exerted

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

grubbed

89

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Parties constantly adapt new modes to _______ and find success for themselves.

  1. ((a))

    Sustain

  2. ((b))

    Abstain

  3. ((c))

    Detain

  4. ((d))

    Pertain

  5. ((e))

    Uncertain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sustain

90

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The looming _______ of action by central agencies such as the Enforcement Directorate (ED) seems to be a key reason for many within the Sena to jump ship when they got an opportunity.

  1. ((a))

    Threat

  2. ((b))

    Repeat

  3. ((c))

    Defeat

  4. ((d))

    Engulf

  5. ((e))

    Upbeat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Threat

91

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

During the recent celebration of Pride month (June) globally and in India, we witnessed an _______ social media presence filled with striking images and stories.

  1. ((a))

    Discernible

  2. ((b))

    Avoidable

  3. ((c))

    Fable

  4. ((d))

    Incredible

  5. ((e))

    Responsible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Discernible

92

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The direct message was that NATO would no longer _______ Russian sensitivities on the subject of NATO expansion.

  1. ((a))

    Hinder

  2. ((b))

    Alter

  3. ((c))

    Deliquesce

  4. ((d))

    Dissipate

  5. ((e))

    Consider

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hinder

93

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Therefore, in absence of the required infrastructure, the blame for non-compliance cannot be _______ only to the police officer.

  1. ((a))

    Gifted

  2. ((b))

    Rifted

  3. ((c))

    Shifted

  4. ((d))

    Lifted

  5. ((e))

    Hefted

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gifted

94

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

There is a pressing need to revisit the system spearheading POSHAN 2.0 and overhaul it to remove any flaws in its _______.

  1. ((a))

    Intervention

  2. ((b))

    Abomination

  3. ((c))

    Abdication

  4. ((d))

    Caution

  5. ((e))

    Implementation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Intervention

Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, you need to rearrange the sentences so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.

A. The mind performs its best when it is in good order.

B. There is not enough time in this running life.

C. A healthy body keeps a healthy mind.

D. We don't have enough time for yoga and taking exercise.

E. For this, it is necessary to have a physically healthy body.

95

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

96

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

97

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

98

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

99

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

100

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. malnourished of the world

B. undernourished and the

C. world food day is meant  

D. to highlight the plight

E. of the hungry, the

  1. ((a))

    ABDEC

  2. ((b))

    CDEBA

  3. ((c))

    DEABC

  4. ((d))

    EDACB

  5. ((e))

    BEACD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ABDEC

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

101

In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 9x2 – 39x + 36 = 0

II. 4y2 – 7y – 36 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or no relation found between x and y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

102

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 8x2 – 6x – 35 = 0

II. 4y2 + 28y + 49 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

103

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 + 33x + 272 = 0

II. y2 + 29y + 210 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

104

In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer

I. x2 + 38x + 361 = 0

II. y2 – 3y - 180 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x < y

  2. ((b))

    x > y

  3. ((c))

    x ≤ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≥ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x < y

105

Two equations I and II are given below in question. You have to solve these equations and give the answer.

I. x2 - 75x + 350 = 0

II. y2 + 75y + 1250 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x < y

  2. ((b))

    x > y

  3. ((c))

    x ≤ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≥ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x < y

106

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

126   56   ?   12   10   2   3

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    44

  4. ((d))

    28

  5. ((e))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

107

Find the wrong number in the given series.

4320, 2160, 1440, 1080, 960, 720

  1. ((a))

    1080

  2. ((b))

    2160

  3. ((c))

    720

  4. ((d))

    1440

  5. ((e))

    960

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1080

108

Find the wrong number in the given series.

84, 42, 63, 157.5, 551.75, 2480.625

  1. ((a))

    551.75

  2. ((b))

    63

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    2480.625

  5. ((e))

    157.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

551.75

109

Find the wrong number in the given series.

3750, 1500, 600, 240, 80, 38.4

  1. ((a))

    600

  2. ((b))

    1500

  3. ((c))

    240

  4. ((d))

    80

  5. ((e))

    38.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600

110

Find the wrong number in the given series.

2116, 2304, 2500, 2724, 2916, 3136

  1. ((a))

    2500

  2. ((b))

    3136

  3. ((c))

    2724

  4. ((d))

    2916

  5. ((e))

    2304

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2500

111

What will come in the place of ‘x’ in the following question?

0.87 × 9 + ∛2.744 – (5/8) of 5.12 = x% of (33.84 – 9.72)

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    19

  5. ((e))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

112

What should come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(2 × √891 – 21) + (√11 – 9)² = (?)² - 73

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    8√9

  3. ((c))

    9√16

  4. ((d))

    4√9

  5. ((e))

    3√8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

113

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

(44.5 × 4 ÷ 2 + 23.45) = ? - 34 .55

  1. ((a))

    136

  2. ((b))

    147

  3. ((c))

    123

  4. ((d))

    150

  5. ((e))

    154

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

136

114

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

28 × 42 + (42 ÷ 4) of 200% + √961 = ? × 4

  1. ((a))

    285

  2. ((b))

    295

  3. ((c))

    307

  4. ((d))

    314

  5. ((e))

    321

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

285

115

What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

1252 - 1152 + 99 - 196 × 50% = ?2

  1. ((a))

    52

  2. ((b))

    47

  3. ((c))

    55

  4. ((d))

    42

  5. ((e))

    49

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

52

116

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

√263 × 64 ÷ 165 × √4000 = 4? × 256

  1. ((a))

    -1

  2. ((b))

    -6

  3. ((c))

    -10

  4. ((d))

    -14

  5. ((e))

    -19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-1

Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions

The total number of bags (paper + fabric) in three different shops i.e. A, B and C is 2160 and the total number of bags in A is 25% more than that of B and the ratio of the number of paper and fabric bags of A is 4 : 5 respectively. The number of paper bags of B is 30 less than the number of fabric bags B and the total number of bags of C is 25% less than that of B. The ratio of the number of paper and fabric bags of C is 3 : 2 respectively.

Note : fabric or cloth bag is same in the questions

117

If the average number of paper, fabric and plastic bags in B is equal to the number of paper bags in A, then the number of plastic bags in B is what percentage more/less than the number of fabric bags in A

  1. ((a))

    8%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    4% 

  4. ((d))

    6% 

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8%

118

Find the sum of the average number of paper and fabric bags in A and the average number of paper and fabric bags in B?

  1. ((a))

    800

  2. ((b))

    810

  3. ((c))

    795

  4. ((d))

    785

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

800

119

If the total number of bags in D is two-third of the total number of bags in A and the number of paper bags in D is 60 more than the number of fabric bags in D, then find the number of fabric bags in D?

  1. ((a))

    330

  2. ((b))

    270

  3. ((c))

    290

  4. ((d))

    250

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

330

120

The number of paper bags in A and C together is how much more/less than the number of fabric bags in A

  1. ((a))

    200 less

  2. ((b))

    150 more

  3. ((c))

    199 less

  4. ((d))

    224 more

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 less

121

Out of the total number of bags in A, 75% and 50% of the paper and fabric bags are sold. Then find the ratio of the number of paper and fabric bags in A are unsold?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 5

  2. ((b))

    5 : 2

  3. ((c))

    3 : 4

  4. ((d))

    8 : 5

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 : 5

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

Statement I- There are 220 students studying in college A and college B. Students from 3 cities i.e Patna, Delhi and Mumbai study in these 2 colleges.

Statement II- Ratio of total number of students in college A and total number of students in college B is 6 : 5. Number of students of Mumbai who studies in college B is 30% of total number of students of college B.

Statement III- Number of students of Mumbai who studies in college B is 75% of number of students of Patna who studies in college A.

Statement IV- Number of students from Delhi who studies in college B is 62.5% of the number of students from Patna who studies in college A. Ratio of students from Patna in college B and number of students from Mumbai who studies in college A is 9 : 10.

122

Find the total number of students studying in college A from Delhi and Mumbai.

  1. ((a))

    85

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    80

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

85

123

Which city has the most number of students studying in both colleges?

  1. ((a))

    Patna

  2. ((b))

    Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Both Patna and Mumbai

  5. ((e))

    Both Delhi and Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Patna

124

Number of students from Patna in college A is what % of total number of students in college B?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    45%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    60%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

125

Find the difference between total number of students from Patna to that of Delhi.

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

126

Find the ratio of number of students from Delhi in college A to that of number of students from Delhi college B.

  1. ((a))

    4 : 5

  2. ((b))

    3 : 4

  3. ((c))

    6 : 5

  4. ((d))

    5 : 3

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 : 5

127

The largest and second largest angles of triangle are in the ratio of 7 ∶ 5. The smallest angle is 1/3rd of the sum of other two angles. Twice the difference between largest and smallest angle is _______

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    46.5

  4. ((d))

    67.5

  5. ((e))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

128

9 litre of milk is taken out from a container and replaced by water. This process is repeated once more, the ratio of quantity in container (M : W) is 16 : 9. Now find the initial quantity of milk in the container?

  1. ((a))

    45 litre

  2. ((b))

    55 litre

  3. ((c))

    20 litre

  4. ((d))

    30 litre

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45 litre

129

A goods manufacturing factory makes a product with 15% Aluminium, 25% steel and 60% of copper. 5kg of Aluminium and ___ kg of copper can be used in a mixture to get the object into proper proportion?

  1. ((a))

    15 kg

  2. ((b))

    25 kg

  3. ((c))

    18 kg

  4. ((d))

    20 kg

  5. ((e))

    22 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 kg

130

Kahna deposited Rs. 20,000 on simple interest in 2 years at 12.5% per annum after 2 years he deposits the total amount at 10% per annum for 1 year if the interest is compounded semi-annually then find the total interest which is gained by him.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 7,562.5

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 7435.5

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 7498.5

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 7242.5

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 7,562.5

131

Two boats P and Q start towards each other from two places, 300 km apart. The speed of the boat P and Q in still water is 32 km/h and 28 km/h respectively. If P goes downwards and Q up the stream, they will meet after how many hours?

  1. ((a))

    6 hours

  2. ((b))

    5 hours

  3. ((c))

    8 hours

  4. ((d))

    10 hours

  5. ((e))

    12 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 hours

132

Java, Pascal, Dos planned to purchase a piece of land for construction. Java invest Rs. 72000 at the starting. Pascal and Dos joined him with some investments after 3 and 6 months. The profit is divided in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 5 at the end of the year. Find the total investment made by Pascal and Dos in the business?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2,04,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 3,04,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4,04,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 5,04,000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 2,04,000

133

Karan and Kamal started a business by investing Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 40,000 respectively. Karan reinvests his profit share of first-year into the business, if the total profit of the first year is Rs. 7,000. Find the second year ratio of profit share.

  1. ((a))

    23 : 15

  2. ((b))

    23 : 160

  3. ((c))

    14 : 19

  4. ((d))

    33 : 40

  5. ((e))

    15 : 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

23 : 15

134

If a circle of radius 8 cm is cut out from a rectangle whose length is 18cm and breadth is 16 cm, then express the area of the circle as a percentage of area left in the rectangle rounded off to nearest hundred.

  1. ((a))

    300%

  2. ((b))

    700%

  3. ((c))

    1100%

  4. ((d))

    229%

  5. ((e))

    900%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300%

135

In how many days will Robert alone complete 3/5th of the work?

I: James alone can do the work in 40 days. John is 300% more efficient than James. The ratio of efficiency between Michael and James is 8 : 3. Robert is 25% less efficient than Michael.

II: John and Robert together can finish the work in 623;6\frac{2}{3};days, Robert and Michael in 847;8\frac{4}{7};days, Michael in  and John can do the same work in 6 days.

  1. ((a))

    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I above are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

136

A dishonest shopkeeper uses a false weight of 800 gm instead of 1000 gm at the time of selling goods. Also he marks up his goods by 40% above cost price and gives 10% discount to the customer. In this whole process, find his overall profit percentage.

  1. ((a))

    57.5%

  2. ((b))

    52%

  3. ((c))

    48.5%

  4. ((d))

    62.5%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

57.5%

137

The marked price of one bottle of cold drink is Rs. 140. A salesman gives one dozen bottles for free and 25% discount on order of 12 dozen bottles. What will be the minimum cost price of one bottle so that the salesman does not have any loss?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 98.86

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 86.42

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 96.92

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 84.46

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 98.86

138

Sunita alone can complete 58th;\frac{5}{8}{\rm{th;}}of work in 25 days, Babita alone can complete 38th\frac{3}{8}{\rm{th}} of the work in 9 days while Sunita, Babita and Kavita together can complete the whole work in 12 days. Then, time taken by Kavita alone to complete 512th\frac{5}{{12}}{\rm{th}} of the total work is –

  1. ((a))

    25 days

  2. ((b))

    24 days

  3. ((c))

    30 days

  4. ((d))

    20 days

  5. ((e))

    22 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 days

139

In the following question, two statements are numbered as A and B. On solving these statements, we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: Pipe A alone can fill the tank in 15 hours while pipe B alone can empty the tank in 5 hours. There is a leakage at the bottom which also alone can empty the tank in 4 hours. When pipe A and Pipe B are open simultaneously then in how many hours the tank gets empty?

Quantity II: 25 men can complete the work in 20 hours and 30 women can complete the work in 15 hours. If 15 men work for 10 hours then stopped working then remaining work gets completed by all 30 women. In what time total works get completed?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

140

Given below are quantities named A,B and C. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose among the possible answer.

A milkman has 132 litres mixture of milk and water in a container which contains milk and water in the ratio 7 : 5. The milk man sold 48 litres of the mixture and added 6 litres of pure milk and 20 litres of water to the remaining mixture. The milkman again sold 42 litres of the mixture.

Quantity A: Find the quantity of milk left in the container.

Quantity B: Find the quantity of water left in the container.

Quantity C: 35 litres.

  1. ((a))

    <,>

  2. ((b))

    >,<

  3. ((c))

    =,<

  4. ((d))

    =,>

  5. ((e))

    =,=

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

<,>

General/Economy/Banking Awareness (60 questions)

141

What is the name of the device that converts a digital signal into an analog signal?

  1. ((a))

    Microprocessor

  2. ((b))

    Router

  3. ((c))

    Switch

  4. ((d))

    Modem

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microprocessor

142

Storage capacity of a dual layered Blue ray Disk

  1. ((a))

    50 GB

  2. ((b))

    100 GB

  3. ((c))

    10 GB

  4. ((d))

    25 GB

  5. ((e))

    200 GB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 GB

143

Which of the following are some common file operations performed by system calls?

  1. ((a))

    Create

  2. ((b))

    Open

  3. ((c))

    Read and Write

  4. ((d))

    Close

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Create

144

As per the JLL’s Global Real Estate Transparency Index (GRETI) 2022, what was the rank of India based on its composite transparency score?

  1. ((a))

    11th

  2. ((b))

    28th 

  3. ((c))

    36th 

  4. ((d))

    40th

  5. ((e))

    53rd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11th

145

Which of the following states has recently topped the report of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)-5 with 90.5 percent of full immunization coverage?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

  5. ((e))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

146

A virtual keyboard is diplayed on computer screen while using internet banking to avoid passwords captured by and other similar softwares

  1. ((a))

    Worm

  2. ((b))

    Cookie

  3. ((c))

    Trojan

  4. ((d))

    Keylogger

  5. ((e))

    Phishing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Worm

147

Which union minister launched ‘Dak Karmayogi’, an e-learning portal of the Department of Posts on 28 June 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Anurag Thakur

  2. ((b))

    Nitin Gadkari

  3. ((c))

    Amit Shah

  4. ((d))

    Ashwini Vaishnaw

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anurag Thakur

148

Which ministry has formulated the Sagarmala Young Professional scheme to engage talented, forward-thinking, and dynamic young professionals?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Mines

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Panchayati Raj

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Home

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Mines

149

Which among the following uses registers to hold data that is being processed?

  1. ((a))

    Central processing unit

  2. ((b))

    Control unit

  3. ((c))

    Memory unit

  4. ((d))

    Arithmetic Logic Unit

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Central processing unit

150

Computer Network _____ is a type of device that acts as the central point among computers & other devices that are a part of the network

  1. ((a))

    Distributor

  2. ((b))

    USB

  3. ((c))

    Router

  4. ((d))

    Network Card

  5. ((e))

    Network Cable

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Distributor

151

The memory management technique that used RAM and hard disk space to provide dedicated memory space for each program is known as

  1. ((a))

    Cache memory

  2. ((b))

    Virtual memory

  3. ((c))

    Read only memory

  4. ((d))

    Flash memory

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cache memory

152

The first page that you normally view at a website is its

  1. ((a))

    Home Page

  2. ((b))

    Master Page

  3. ((c))

    First Page

  4. ((d))

    Banner Page

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home Page

153

Which printer uses a combination of laser beam and electro photographic technique?

  1. ((a))

    Laser Printer

  2. ((b))

    Dot Matrix Printer

  3. ((c))

    Inkjet Printer

  4. ((d))

    Daisy Wheel Printer

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Laser Printer

154

Which of the following is NOT an instrument of the monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. ((a))

    Goods and Services Tax (GST)

  2. ((b))

    Bank Rate

  3. ((c))

    Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

  4. ((d))

    Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Goods and Services Tax (GST)

155

Unique Transaction Reference number is a ______ character code used to uniquely identify a transaction in the RTGS system.

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    17

  5. ((e))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

156

_______ type of column chart in MS-Excel 2013 is like a stacked column in that it uses a single bar for each category and subdivides that bar to show the proportion from each series?

  1. ((a))

    3-D column

  2. ((b))

    Clustered

  3. ((c))

    3-D clustered

  4. ((d))

    100 % Stacked

  5. ((e))

    Histogram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3-D column

157

What is the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of Paddy(common) for 2021-22?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1940 per quintal

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2125 per quintal

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2025 per quintal

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1960 per quintal

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1940 per quintal

158

Which of the following is a system software?

  1. ((a))

    Device driver

  2. ((b))

    Tally

  3. ((c))

    Spreadsheet

  4. ((d))

    Text editor

  5. ((e))

    Google Docs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Device driver

159

Which state leads India in implementing the crucial National Food Security Act (NFSA), as per the state ranking index 2021 by the Department of Food & Public Distribution (DFPD)?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

  5. ((e))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

160

As per the Ministry of Finance, what was India's real gross domestic product (GDP) growth in 2021-22?

  1. ((a))

    8.1 percent

  2. ((b))

    8.2 percent

  3. ((c))

    8.5 percent

  4. ((d))

    8.7 percent

  5. ((e))

    8.9 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.1 percent

161

Which country will be the first foreign country to adopt India's UPI system?

  1. ((a))

    Bhutan

  2. ((b))

    Nepal 

  3. ((c))

    Bangladesh

  4. ((d))

    Sri Lanka

  5. ((e))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhutan

162

What is the Share percentage of Reliance Industries limited in Jio Payment bank?

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    70%

  4. ((d))

    50%

  5. ((e))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10%

163

The Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has been implementing the Central Sector Umbrella Scheme 'Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana' (PMKSY). Component schemes of PMKSY are ____.

  1. ((a))

    Creation/Expansion of Food Processing & Preservation Capacities

  2. ((b))

    Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure

  3. ((c))

    Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure

  4. ((d))

    Infrastructure for Agro-Processing Clusters

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Creation/Expansion of Food Processing & Preservation Capacities

164

Which of the following will be observing 1st October 2021 as the National Pension System Diwas (NPS Diwas)?

  1. ((a))

    National Securities Depository Limited

  2. ((b))

    Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority 

  3. ((c))

    Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

  4. ((d))

    Employees' Provident Fund Organisation of India

  5. ((e))

    Unique Identification Authority of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Securities Depository Limited

165

Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) Scheme was formulated in the year:

  1. ((a))

    1996-97

  2. ((b))

    1997-98

  3. ((c))

    1998-99

  4. ((d))

    2000-01

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1996-97

166

A host computer that wants to communicate with another host computer on the Internet requires the following to identify itself:

  1. ((a))

    MAC address

  2. ((b))

    IP address

  3. ((c))

    Port

  4. ((d))

    Socket

  5. ((e))

    Router

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MAC address

167

Which of the following holdings characterize a small farmer?

  1. ((a))

    below one hectare

  2. ((b))

    one to two hectare

  3. ((c))

    two to three hectare

  4. ((d))

    three to four hectare

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

below one hectare

168

What is a network of computers and other devices confined to a relatively small area called?

  1. ((a))

    peer-to-peer network

  2. ((b))

    metropolitan area network

  3. ((c))

    wide area network

  4. ((d))

    global network

  5. ((e))

    local area network

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

peer-to-peer network

169

OS process management, difference between arrival time and time at which process first gets the CPU is called _______ time

  1. ((a))

    Event 

  2. ((b))

    Burst

  3. ((c))

    Response

  4. ((d))

    Waist

  5. ((e))

    Turnaround

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Event 

170

In the context of computers, tracker balls is a/an _______ device.

  1. ((a))

    output

  2. ((b))

    input

  3. ((c))

    storage

  4. ((d))

    processing

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

output

171

Recently in June 2022, Rumeli Dhar announced her retirement from international career. She is related to which sports?

  1. ((a))

    Hockey

  2. ((b))

    Football

  3. ((c))

    Cricket

  4. ((d))

    Wrestling

  5. ((e))

    Archery

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hockey

172

Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is designated as the Lead Agency, to roll out the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) scheme in partnership with a Strategic Partner (SP). E-NAM has completed its six years on April 14, 2022. How many farmers are registered with the e-NAM portal?

  1. ((a))

    1.72 Crore farmers

  2. ((b))

    1.69 Crore farmers

  3. ((c))

    1.78Crore farmers

  4. ((d))

    1.65 Crore farmers

  5. ((e))

    1.90 Crore farmers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.72 Crore farmers

173

Recently in June 2022, Khuvsul Lake National Park has been added to the World Network of Biosphere Reserve of UNESCO. It is situated in which Country?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    Nepal

  4. ((d))

    Mangolia

  5. ((e))

    Bhutan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bangladesh

174

Under the Centre's flagship PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi Schemev which of the following states was ranked first in the country?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

  5. ((e))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

175

How many sub-Indices are there in the recently released Financial Inclusion Index report released by RBI?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

176

Recently in June 2022, ____________ Government has launched Fisheries and animal resources mapping system, a 5T initiative.

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arunachal Pradesh

177

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended liquidity window for emergency healthcare services till_____________.

  1. ((a))

    February 20, 2022

  2. ((b))

    June 30, 2022

  3. ((c))

    March 30, 2022

  4. ((d))

    April, 2025

  5. ((e))

    August 30, 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

February 20, 2022

178

Atal Pension Yojana is applicable for the citizen between the age of ?

  1. ((a))

    18-60 years

  2. ((b))

    16-55 years

  3. ((c))

    18-65 years

  4. ((d))

    18-50 years

  5. ((e))

    18-40 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18-60 years

179

In May 2022, which of the following companies has retail its spot of the most valuable brand in India?

  1. ((a))

    Infosys

  2. ((b))

    TATA Group

  3. ((c))

    Reliance Industries

  4. ((d))

    Wipro

  5. ((e))

    Adani Group

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infosys

180

The percentage of decadal growth of population during 2001-2011 as per Census 2011 is:

  1. ((a))

    21.54

  2. ((b))

    17.64

  3. ((c))

    15.89

  4. ((d))

    19.21

  5. ((e))

    11.64

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21.54

181

______ is found just above the file tab option in MS Word purpose is to provide convenient access to most commonly used commands.

  1. ((a))

    Document area

  2. ((b))

    Quick Access Toolbar

  3. ((c))

    Title Bar

  4. ((d))

    Ribbon

  5. ((e))

    Ruler

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Document area

182

When you connect to this service your computer is communicating with a server at your Internet Service Provider (ISP) What does this refer ?

  1. ((a))

    Modem

  2. ((b))

    Internet

  3. ((c))

    Intranet

  4. ((d))

    Server

  5. ((e))

    None of Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Modem

183

Recently in June 2022, India and ___________ have signed a Joint Vision Statement on defence partnership towards 2030 to enhance the scope and scale of existing defence cooperation.

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    China

  3. ((c))

    Vietnam

  4. ((d))

    Oman

  5. ((e))

    Sri Lanka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Japan

184

Set of wires used to transmit signals to control the operation of various units of a computer is known as

  1. ((a))

    Address bus

  2. ((b))

    Control bus

  3. ((c))

    Data bus

  4. ((d))

    System bus

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Address bus

185

What is the function of the control unit in the CPU?

  1. ((a))

    To transfer data to primary storage

  2. ((b))

    To store program instructions

  3. ((c))

    To controls the sequence of operations

  4. ((d))

    To decode program instructions

  5. ((e))

    All of above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To transfer data to primary storage

186

Who launched a "Nationwide AHDF KCC Campaign" in November 2021, in hybrid mode?

  1. ((a))

    Narendra Modi 

  2. ((b))

    Amit Shah 

  3. ((c))

    Parshottam Rupala

  4. ((d))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

  5. ((e))

    S.Jaishankar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Narendra Modi 

187

Recently in June 2022, what is India’s revised GDP growth rate forecasted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for FY23? 

  1. ((a))

    7.1 percent

  2. ((b))

    7.2 percent

  3. ((c))

    7.3 percent

  4. ((d))

    7.4 percent

  5. ((e))

    7.5 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.1 percent

188

Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a credit-linked subsidy programme, was launched in 2008 for the generation of employment opportunities through establishment of microenterprises in rural and urban areas. Which of the following is not a feature of PMEGP?

  1. ((a))

    It allows entrepreneurs to set up factories or units. 

  2. ((b))

    Any individual above 21 years of age is eligible under this scheme.

  3. ((c))

    Only new projects/units are considered for sanction of loans.

  4. ((d))

    Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible for Manufacturing Sector is Rs. 25 lakh.

  5. ((e))

    Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible for  Service Sector is Rs. 10 lakh.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It allows entrepreneurs to set up factories or units. 

189

In March 2022, who launched UPI for feature phones called UPI123Pay and a 24x7 helpline for digital payments – DigiSaathi?

  1. ((a))

    Shaktikanta Das

  2. ((b))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

  3. ((c))

    Amit Shah

  4. ((d))

    Narendra Modi

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shaktikanta Das

190

In MS Word, with which view can you see how text and graphics will appear on the printed page?

  1. ((a))

    Print Layout

  2. ((b))

    Outline

  3. ((c))

    Web Layout

  4. ((d))

    Both i and ii

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Print Layout

191

For transmitting data between electronic devices, ______ is a set of rules and procedures.

  1. ((a))

    Domain

  2. ((b))

    Protocol

  3. ((c))

    IP Address

  4. ((d))

    Gateway

  5. ((e))

    Host

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Domain

192

Which of the following is a type of linear data structure?

  1. ((a))

    Tree

  2. ((b))

    Graph

  3. ((c))

    Stack

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tree

193

Recently in June 2022, INS Talwar was deployed for which operation during the 3rd continuous year in the Gulf for protection of India’s Maritime Interests?

  1. ((a))

    Op YUDHA

  2. ((b))

    Op SANKALP

  3. ((c))

    Op PRAHAR

  4. ((d))

    Op RAKSHA

  5. ((e))

    Op SEVA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Op YUDHA

194

Which of the following is the correct full form of JPEG?

  1. ((a))

    Joint Photography Exports Group

  2. ((b))

    Joint Pixel Experts Group

  3. ((c))

    Joint Photographic Experts Group

  4. ((d))

    Joint Pixel Exports Group

  5. ((e))

    Joint Photographic Exports Group

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Joint Photography Exports Group

195

As per the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, the unemployment rate has dipped to _________ in July 2020-June 2021.

  1. ((a))

    4.1 percent

  2. ((b))

    4.2 percent

  3. ((c))

    4.3 percent

  4. ((d))

    4.4 percent

  5. ((e))

    4.5 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.1 percent

196

Union Minister for Culture, Tourism & DONER Shri G Kishan Reddy inaugurates the three-day North-East festival 'Ishan Manthan'at ____________on 25 March 2022.

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Hyderabad

  3. ((c))

    New Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Bangalore

  5. ((e))

    Indore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kolkata

197

Which of the following is not a storage device?

  1. ((a))

    Hard Disk Drives

  2. ((b))

    CD Drives

  3. ((c))

    Printer

  4. ((d))

    Floppy Disk Drives

  5. ((e))

    USB Flash Drive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hard Disk Drives

198

The second phase of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) is to be implemented during which time period?

  1. ((a))

    2020-21 to 2022-23

  2. ((b))

    2020-21 to 2023-24

  3. ((c))

    2020-21 to 2024-25

  4. ((d))

    2020-21 to 2025-26

  5. ((e))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2020-21 to 2022-23

199

What is the function of the F4 key in a spreadsheet?

  1. ((a))

    change font

  2. ((b))

    repeat last action

  3. ((c))

    choose save command

  4. ((d))

    choose open command

  5. ((e))

    edit bookmarks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

change font

200

Fino Payments bank has been granted the status of which among the following types of bank by the RBI?

  1. ((a))

    Scheduled Commercial Bank

  2. ((b))

    Scheduled Regional Rural Bank

  3. ((c))

    Scheduled Foreign Bank

  4. ((d))

    Scheduled Small Finance Bank

  5. ((e))

    Scheduled Private Sector Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Scheduled Commercial Bank

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