Official Paper

IDBI Executive Memory based Paper (Held on: (9th July 2022, Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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Logical Reasoning, Data Analysis & Interpretation (60 questions)

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Nine persons Polomi, Rachel, Mathew, Manushi, Trisha, Lisa, Rudra, Charles and Drishti live in a building with nine floors not necessarily in the same order. No two persons live on the same floor. The topmost floor is numbered one; the floor below the floor number 1 is numbered two and so on till the lowermost floor is numbered nine.

Polomi lives three floors below Lisa. Lisa and Rachel lives at the lowermost and topmost floor but not necessarily in the same order. Trisha does not live on a floor which is immediately above or below the floor on which Rachel lives. Mathew lives on the floor which is immediately above the floor on which Rudra lives. Drishti lives on an odd numbered floor below Polomi. Rudra lives on an odd numbered floor. Manushi lives immediately below Drishti. Charles lives on a floor above the floor on which Trisha lives.

1

Who live on the floors between the floors on which Rudra and Trisha live?

  1. ((a))

    Charles and Polomi

  2. ((b))

    Lisa and Polomi

  3. ((c))

    Drishti and Rachel

  4. ((d))

    Manushi and Trisha

  5. ((e))

    Mathew and Charles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Charles and Polomi

2

Four of the following belong to a group. Find the member who does not belong to the group.

  1. ((a))

    Mathew

  2. ((b))

    Manushi

  3. ((c))

    Trisha

  4. ((d))

    Drishti

  5. ((e))

    Polomi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mathew

3

Who lives on floor number 6?

  1. ((a))

    Mathew

  2. ((b))

    Trisha

  3. ((c))

    Drishti

  4. ((d))

    Rachel

  5. ((e))

    Rudra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mathew

4

Polomi lives on which floor?

  1. ((a))

    Floor no. 4

  2. ((b))

    Floor no. 3

  3. ((c))

    Floor no. 1

  4. ((d))

    Floor no. 6

  5. ((e))

    Floor no. 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Floor no. 4

5

How many persons live between the floors on which Lisa and Manushi?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

6

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Some table are chairs.

Some chairs are bench.

Some bench are desk.

Conclusions:

I. All table are desk.

II. Some chairs are bench.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

7

Direction: In the question below, there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Pen are Paper.

Some Marker are Maps.

No Paper is Marker.

Conclusions:

I. Some Maps are not Paper

II. Some Paper are Pen.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

8

Directions: In the questions three statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statements:

 I. Only bat is rat

II. No rat is bird

III. Only few birds are pet

Conclusions

I. Some rats being pet is a possibility

II. Only few birds are bat

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follow

9

Direction: In the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few A are B 

A few B are C 

All C are D 

Conclusion:

I. All A being C is a possibility

II. No D is A is a possibility

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

10

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All cupboards are furniture

Only a few furniture is new

No new is old

Conclusions:

 I. Few furniture is not old.

 II. Some cupboards are not new.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

Directions: Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Eight people U, W, X, Y, Z, A, B and C live on four different floors of a building. Two people live on each floor but not necessary in the same order. Ground floor is numbered 1, floor above it is numbered 2 and so on till topmost floor which is numbered as 4. There are two flats on each floor- flat – 1 and flat – 2 from west to east such that flat – 1 is west of flat – 2. Flat – 1 of second floor is exactly above flat – 1 of first floor and exactly below the flat – 1 if third floor, other flats are placed in the same way.

  1. U lives west of A.

  2. A & Z live in an even flat but not on even floor.

  3. C doesn’t live immediate of A.

  4. X lives in a flat that is just above the flat in which Y live.

  5. Z lives on the floor between the floors of W and X, but both live in flat – 1.

11

The person B lives which of the flat and floor?

  1. ((a))

    First flat and fourth floor

  2. ((b))

    First flat and first floor

  3. ((c))

    Second floor and second flat

  4. ((d))

    Second floor and first flat

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

First flat and fourth floor

12

How many people live above the person A in the same flat number in which A lives?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

13

Which of the following person live in third floor?

  1. ((a))

    X, Y

  2. ((b))

    A, B

  3. ((c))

    Z, A

  4. ((d))

    Y, B

  5. ((e))

    Y, Z

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X, Y

14

Who is the left of person B?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    Y

  4. ((d))

    U

  5. ((e))

    X

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

15

Who among the person live on the first flat of the third floor?

  1. ((a))

    Y

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    Z

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Y

Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below.

Seven persons, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. These people are from seven different cities namely, Jaipur, Nasik, Patna, Agra, Surat, Shimla, and Ranchi, but not necessarily in the same order.

V is sitting fourth to the left of the person from Ranchi who is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. Only one person is sitting between T and V. T and V are from Patna and Jaipur but not necessarily in the same order. R is sitting fourth to the right of P who is an immediate neighbour of T. One person is sitting between P and S. S is not an immediate neighbour of the person from Ranchi. The person from Nasik is sitting third to the left of the person from Jaipur. The person from Agra is sitting third to the left of Q. The person from Shimla is not sitting on any of the extreme ends.

16

Who is from Surat?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    U

  5. ((e))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

17

How many people are sitting between P and Q?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

18

Who is sitting second to the left of the person who is from Shimla?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

19

Which of the following is correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    R – Shimla

  2. ((b))

    Q – Nasik

  3. ((c))

    P – Agra

  4. ((d))

    S – Surat

  5. ((e))

    V – Jaipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R – Shimla

20

Which of the following is true regarding U?

  1. ((a))

    He is sitting third to the left of V.

  2. ((b))

    He is from Agra.

  3. ((c))

    He is sitting to the immediate left of the person who is from Ranchi.

  4. ((d))

    Two persons are sitting between S and U.

  5. ((e))

    He is sitting on one of the extreme ends.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He is sitting third to the left of V.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A certain number of people are sitting in a row and the names of some of them are given. All are facing towards the north. P sits third to the left of Q. Not more than one person sits between Q and R. S sits second to the right of R. S does not sit to the immediate right of Q. P doesn't sit sixth to the left of S.The number of people sitting to the right of S is one more than the number of people sitting between P and Q. The number of persons sitting between U and Q is the same as the number of persons sitting to the right of Q. Only one person sits to the left of T. More than eight persons sit between T and S. The same number of persons sit between U and T as the number of persons who sit between R and Q.

21

How many persons are sitting in the row?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    22

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

22

Who among the following sit fourth to the left of S?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    T

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

23

How many person sits between T and P?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

24

What is position of S with respect to P?

  1. ((a))

    Fifth to the right

  2. ((b))

    Sixth to the right

  3. ((c))

    Seventh to the right

  4. ((d))

    Seventh to the left

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fifth to the right

25

Who among the following sit fifth to the right of U?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement device when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step.The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: run 144 small 256 is 169 number 225 road 196

Step I: is 144 run small 256 169 number 225 road 196

Step II: is 144 run 169 small 256 number 225 road 196

Step III: is 144 run 169 road 196 small 256 number 225

Step IV: is 144 run 169 road 196 small 225 256 number

Step V: is 144 run 169 road 196 small 225 number 256

And Step V is the last step of the above input. As per the pattern followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input

Input: dip 625 round 484 pistol 441 in 529 null 576

26

Which letter/word will be eight from the right end in the step II?

  1. ((a))

    441

  2. ((b))

    625

  3. ((c))

    round

  4. ((d))

    dip

  5. ((e))

    484

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

441

27

Which letter/word will be sixth from left end in the second last step?

  1. ((a))

    625

  2. ((b))

    pistol

  3. ((c))

    dip

  4. ((d))

    null

  5. ((e))

    529

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

625

28

Which step number is the given output ?

in 441 dip 484 null 529 625 round pistol 576

  1. ((a))

    Step I

  2. ((b))

    Step II

  3. ((c))

    Step III

  4. ((d))

    Step IV

  5. ((e))

    Step V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Step I

29

What is the difference between the second element from left in step IV and the fourth element from the right in step III?

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    43

  3. ((c))

    153

  4. ((d))

    184

  5. ((e))

    197

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

96

30

How many elements are there between '441' and 'null' as they appear in the step I?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

31

Direction: Below problem contains a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to select the correct answer depending on the sufficiency of the data given in the statements to answer the question.

What is the distance from City M to City O in kms?

I. City M is 90 kms from City P.

II. City P is 30 kms from City O.

  1. ((a))

    Only Statement I alone is sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    Only Statement II alone is sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Both Statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.

  4. ((d))

    Either of the Statements I and II is sufficient.

  5. ((e))

    Both Statements I and II together are not sufficient.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Statement I alone is sufficient.

32

Six friends, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a row facing north. What is the position of Q with respect to the position of P?

I. L is sitting fourth to the right of M whose only neighbour is Q.

II. O is sitting second to the right of P.

  1. ((a))

    Both statement I and statement II are required.

  2. ((b))

    Only statement I is sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Only statement II is sufficient.

  4. ((d))

    If statement I alone and statement II alone is sufficient.

  5. ((e))

    Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statement I and statement II are required.

33

Directions: Question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain Information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements is sufficient for answering the problem.

Is Arun heavier than Tolstoy?

I. Darwin is of the same weight as Arun and Tolstoy.

II. Tolstoy is not heavier than Darwin

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data in both the statements is needed to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question.

34

Directions: One statement is given, followed by two assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions be definitely drawn from the given statement and indicate your answer accordingly.

Statement:

Many scientists and engineers are leaving their country and going abroad for further studies.

Assumptions:

 I. They are getting better opportunities in other countries.

 II. They are not getting the required opportunities in their own country.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only II is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are implicit

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is implicit

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is implicit

35

Directions: One statement is given, followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follows from the given statement.

Statement: 

Daily Vitamin C requirement of a human body can be met by consuming one gooseberry.

Inferences:

I. Gooseberry is the only source of Vitamin C.

II. Human body requires Vitamin-C daily.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

36

Directions: The question consists of  statement and two conclusions. The student must first determine whether each statement is true. Choose the appropriate option after reading the three statements carefully.

Statements: The best evidence of India's glorious past is the growing popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in the West.

Conclusions:

I. Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in India.

II. Allopathic medicines are more popular in India.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

37

How many pairs of letters are there in the word "POWERFUL" each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (Including Both forward and reverse Direction)

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    More than three 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

38

Direction: In the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given them is/are definitely follow.

Statement: S > M = Z > T < Q > V

Conclusions:

I. V = S

II. Q > M

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II is true

  2. ((b))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

  5. ((e))

    Only conclusion I is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II is true

39

Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: M ≥ Q ≥ G = R ≥ N = B

Conclusions:

I. B > M

II. M = B

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows.

Directions: These questions are based on the following information.

X is the father of Z but Z is not his son. U is the daughter of Z. Y is the spouse of X. L is the brother of Z. W is the son of L. K is the spouse of L. V is the father of K.

40

Who is the granddaughter of X?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    L

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

41

Who is the son-in-law of V?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    L

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

42

What is the difference (take absolute difference) between the number of male and female members in the given family?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Salman walked 30 km south from his home and took a left turn and walks 9 km, then he turns to right and walks 30 km to reach at point Y. From point Y, he turns to his right and walks 9 km to reach at point Z.

43

What is the total distance covered by Salman from his starting point to point Z?

  1. ((a))

    76 km

  2. ((b))

    72 km

  3. ((c))

    78 km

  4. ((d))

    70 km

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

76 km

44

Point Y is in which direction with respect to the starting Point of Salman?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    North – West

  3. ((c))

    South – East

  4. ((d))

    South

  5. ((e))

    North – East

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North

45

What is the distance between the starting point of Salman and point Z?

  1. ((a))

    60 km

  2. ((b))

    65 km

  3. ((c))

    62 km

  4. ((d))

    61 km

  5. ((e))

    69 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 km

Direction: Read the pie charts carefully and answer the following questions:

The pie chart below shows the degree of the total number of students (boys + girls) in five schools- A, B, C, D and E.

 

The pie chart below shows the degree of the total number of girls in five schools- A, B, C, D and E.

46

Find the ratio of the total number of girls in schools A and C together to the total number of boys in schools B and C together.

  1. ((a))

    135 : 161

  2. ((b))

    161 : 135

  3. ((c))

    135 : 151

  4. ((d))

    153 : 161

  5. ((e))

    27 : 161

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

135 : 161

47

Find the difference between the total number of boys in schools C, D and E together and the total number of students in schools C and E together.

  1. ((a))

    300

  2. ((b))

    330

  3. ((c))

    400

  4. ((d))

    450

  5. ((e))

    550

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300

48

The number of girls in which school is equal to the average number of girls in schools B, C and D together?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

49

The total number of boys in schools A, B and E together is what percent of the total number of girls in all the schools together?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    45%

  3. ((c))

    55%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    40%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

50

The total number of students in schools A, C and E together is how much more than half of the total number of students in all the schools together?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    300

  4. ((d))

    400

  5. ((e))

    500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

Direction - Study the line graph and answer the following question carefully

The given line graph shows the number of bigger animals ( Elephant, Giraffe, Tiger, and Rhino) and the number of smaller animals found in four different national parks of India. 

51

Total animals in Panna National park is approximately what percent more or less than the number of smaller animals in Sariska National park?

  1. ((a))

    31%

  2. ((b))

    25.75%

  3. ((c))

    30% 

  4. ((d))

    28.75%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31%

52

The number of elephants, giraffes,  Rhino and  tigers in Manas National Park is in arithmetic progression. The ratio of the number of elephants to Tiger in Manas National Park is 5 ∶ 6, then find the number of tigers in Manas national park is approximately what percent of bigger animal in Gir National Park?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    53%

  4. ((d))

    60%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

53

The number of Deer in Panna National Park is 30% out of the total smaller animals in this national park. Then, find the ratio between smaller animals except for deer in Panna National Park to bigger animals in Sariska National Park?

  1. ((a))

    5 : 3

  2. ((b))

    3 : 5

  3. ((c))

    10 : 7

  4. ((d))

    7 : 10 

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 : 3

54

Find average of number of animals in Manas and Gir National Park.

  1. ((a))

    1840

  2. ((b))

    1940

  3. ((c))

    2040

  4. ((d))

    2140

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1840

55

Total smaller animals in Gir and Sariska National Park together are how much more or less than total bigger animals in Manas and Gir National Parks together?

  1. ((a))

    500

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    550

  4. ((d))

    600

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

500

In a mining company, 5 new employees are hired to complete a project in the least time possible. Below mentioned is a number of days taken by them and work completed.

56

All of them work together for 2 days and everyone except for 105 leaves then in how many days will 105 complete the remaining task (Approximate the answer)

  1. ((a))

    20 days

  2. ((b))

    18 days

  3. ((c))

    32 days

  4. ((d))

    26 days

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 days

57

The old employees having ID number 97 and 98 are 20% and 25% more efficient then 101 and 104 respectively. In how many days would they complete the work if both of them are working together (97 and 98)

  1. ((a))

    91/13 days

  2. ((b))

    23/7 days

  3. ((c))

    3200/317 days

  4. ((d))

    32/9 days

  5. ((e))

    51/11 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

91/13 days

58

If 101, 102, 104 and 105 have to complete whole work and are required to divide the work equally then in how many days will it need to complete the work?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    25.5

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    40

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

59

104 only works for days as much as 101 does and remaining is finished by 102 then find number of days taken by 102 to finish the remaining job.

  1. ((a))

    12.5 days

  2. ((b))

    15 days

  3. ((c))

    7.5 days

  4. ((d))

    8 days

  5. ((e))

    10 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12.5 days

60

Employee 101 and 103 works for 5 days and then were quarantined because of COVID- 19 symptoms. Employee 105 finished his part of work and handed over the remaining job to 102. How much amount of work was handed over to 102?

  1. ((a))

    48/102

  2. ((b))

    1/4

  3. ((c))

    1/10

  4. ((d))

    1/89

  5. ((e))

    58/120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48/102

English Language (40 questions)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

The landslide that occurred last week in the Tupul area in Manipur’s Noney district will go down as one of the severest natural disasters in the State, with the death toll reaching 37 and 28 people remaining trapped below the debris even as rescue efforts were on. The tragic disaster has been compounded by the debris of the landslide blocking the Ijei river, creating a significant welling up of water that could inundate low-lying areas if the “dam”-like structure is breached. While the administration has sought to ease the water outflow from the stored water, inclement weather has hampered the pace of the efforts, and the government and disaster management officials must now take precautions to ensure that the consequences of the disaster do not snowball even further. The fact that such a disaster occurred on a railway construction site in a landslide-prone area should give development planners and government officials in the State pause. While the Himalayan States in northern India and other States with hill/ghat terrain such as Kerala have registered the bulk of landslides in the last decade or so according to government data, the number of such incidents in Manipur (20 between 2014 and 2020) is not insignificant. The relatively high number of casualties accompanying these landslides and the fact that the Environment Ministry has itself acknowledged that the disasters were “anthropogenically” induced are a matter of serious concern for the State. The Ministry identified the causes of landslides in Manipur as “a result of modification of slopes for construction, widening of the road, quarrying for construction materials, fragile lithography, complex geological structures, and heavy rainfall”.

As a post-facto exercise, the State government must look at whether sufficient soil and stability tests were done before choosing the site for railway construction work in the Tupul area. Researchers have corroborated the fact that the areas in western Manipur abutting the national highways fall under very high, high, or moderate hazard zones. The severe landslide occurred in the Tupul area despite the government identifying susceptible areas in the State through the National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping project. The uncertain nature _______ rains, with the monsoon being more intense this year compared to predictions, has added to the problem. An early warning system for landslides is still being developed and refined by the Geological Survey of India and this could help reduce the scale of such disasters, once deployed across vulnerable States. While it is understandable that States in the Northeast are keen on accelerating connectivity projects to uplift a relatively economically backward region, disasters such as the landslide in Tupul point to the dangers of not taking ecological challenges related to deforestation seriously enough. This is a wake-up call for governments in States that is prone to landslides regularly.

61

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Go down

  1. ((a))

    To descend to a lower measurement.

  2. ((b))

    To fall or drop down, as when struck or injured.

  3. ((c))

    Be recorded or remembered.

  4. ((d))

    To experience defeat or ruin.

  5. ((e))

    Be sent to prison.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To descend to a lower measurement.

62

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Fall under

  1. ((a))

    To drop down towards the ground.

  2. ((b))

    To be classified or considered as something.

  3. ((c))

    To be defeated.

  4. ((d))

    In or to a position that is below something.

  5. ((e))

    To be governed or controlled by somebody or something.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To drop down towards the ground.

63

Choose the synonym of the word 'Rescue'.

  1. ((a))

    Endanger

  2. ((b))

    Imperil

  3. ((c))

    Peril

  4. ((d))

    Jeopardize

  5. ((e))

    Extricate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Endanger

64

Choose the antonym of the word 'Hampered'.

  1. ((a))

    Impeded

  2. ((b))

    Fettered

  3. ((c))

    Encumbered

  4. ((d))

    Facilitated

  5. ((e))

    Inhibited

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Impeded

65

Select the word from the passage that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

To cover an area of land with water

  1. ((a))

    Inundate

  2. ((b))

    Inclement

  3. ((c))

    Snowball

  4. ((d))

    Prone

  5. ((e))

    Anthropogenically

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inundate

66

In this question, a sentence (in bold) from the passage has been divided into five parts (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error, the answer is 'No error'. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

This is a wake-up (A)/ call for governments (B)/ in States that is prone (C)/ to landslides regularly (D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

67

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ''The uncertain nature _______ rains, with the monsoon being more intense this year compared to predictions, has added to the problem.''

  1. ((a))

    For

  2. ((b))

    In

  3. ((c))

    At

  4. ((d))

    Of

  5. ((e))

    On

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

For

68

Which of the following is/are incorrect according to the given passage?

A. Manipur has registered the bulk of landslides in the last decade or so according to government data.

B. 28 people died due to the landslide in Manipur’s Noney district.

C. The areas in western Manipur near the national highways are considered very high, high, or moderate hazard zones.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

  5. ((e))

    Only C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

69

According to the passage, the disaster occurred in the Tupul area in Manipur’s Noney district on a:

  1. ((a))

    Railway construction site.

  2. ((b))

    Highway construction site.

  3. ((c))

    Dam construction site.

  4. ((d))

    Bridge construction site.

  5. ((e))

    Tunnel construction site.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Railway construction site.

70

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The highest dam construction in Manipur.

  2. ((b))

    Manipur has registered the bulk of landslides in the last decade or so according to government data.

  3. ((c))

    The railway construction work in the Tupul area is in progress despite the landslide.

  4. ((d))

    The longest and widest highway construction in Manipur.

  5. ((e))

    Landslides in Manipur are related to avoidable, man-made actions.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The highest dam construction in Manipur.

71

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

I had (A)/ a little money, (B)/ no insurance, and no one to (C)/ look after her at home. (D)/ No Error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

72

Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.

The teacher instructed (1) the class to look into the dictionary (2) for the difficult words (3) in the passage (4) No error (5)

  1. ((a))

    the teacher instructed

  2. ((b))

    the class to look into the dictionary

  3. ((c))

    for the difficult words

  4. ((d))

    in the passage 

  5. ((e))

    No error 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the teacher instructed

73

The following question has four different sentences. Select the most preferable sentence with respect to grammar, meaning, and usage. If all four sentences are correct or all of them are incorrect, mark "option 5" as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    He was dressed in black, and had a very pleasant face.

  2. ((b))

    He, therefore, put the finances in the best order he could, and set himself to mitigate the evil effects to the war by obtaining an early peace.

  3. ((c))

     I've have a miserable cold for the past week.

  4. ((d))

    They're afraid which we might aggravate an already bad situation. 

  5. ((e))

    All are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He was dressed in black, and had a very pleasant face.

74

Direction: In the given alternatives, different ways of writing a sentence are shown. Out of given four sentences, choose the sentence that is/are correct with respect to the grammar, meaning, and usage, and then mark your answer accordingly.

  1. ((a))

    All are correct

  2. ((b))

    New research shows this change is substantial enough causes for concern

  3. ((c))

    New research shows which change is substantial enough to be a cause for concern

  4. ((d))

    New research shows those change are substantially enough to be a causes for concern

  5. ((e))

    New research shows the changes substantial enough that’s cause of concern

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All are correct

75

Direction: In the given alternatives, different ways of writing a sentence are shown. Out of given four sentences, choose the sentence that is/are correct with respect to the grammar, meaning, and usage, and then mark your answer accordingly.

  1. ((a))

    Average annual rainfall can be so low that it is a millimetre or two a year in a certain parts.

  2. ((b))

    All are correct

  3. ((c))

    On an average, annual rainfall in certain parts can be as low a millimetre or two a year

  4. ((d))

    In certain parts, average annual rainfall can drop to a millimetre or two a year.

  5. ((e))

    Average annual rainfall in certain parts can fell to a millimetre or two a year.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Average annual rainfall can be so low that it is a millimetre or two a year in a certain parts.

Direction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blanks out of the given alternatives.

The UEFA Champions League (abbreviated as UCL) is an          1          club football competition organized by the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA)           2           contested by top-division European clubs, deciding the competition winners through a round-robin group stage to          3         for a double-legged knockout format and a single-leg final.         4        is one of the most prestigious football tournaments in the world and the most prestigious club competition in European football, played          5        the national league champions (and, for some nations, one or more runners-up) of their national associations.

Introduced in 1955 as the Coupe des Clubs Champions Européens (French for European Champion Clubs' Cup), and         6         known as the European Cup, it was initially a straight knockout tournament open only to the champions of Europe's domestic leagues, with its winner reckoned as the European club champion. The          7        took on its current name in 1992, adding a round-robin group stage in 1991 and allowing multiple entrants from certain countries since 1997. It has since been expanded, and while most of Europe's national leagues can still only enter their champion, the strongest leagues now provide up to four teams. Clubs that finish next-in-line in their national league, having not qualified for the Champions League, are eligible for the second-tier UEFA Europa League competition, and from 2021, teams not eligible for the UEFA Europa League will qualify for a new third-tier competition         8        the UEFA Europa Conference League.

76

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 1?

  1. ((a))

    annually

  2. ((b))

    annul

  3. ((c))

    annuity

  4. ((d))

    annual 

  5. ((e))

    austere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

annually

77

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 2?

  1. ((a))

    although

  2. ((b))

    and 

  3. ((c))

    hard

  4. ((d))

    minorly

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

although

78

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 3?

  1. ((a))

    qualification

  2. ((b))

    qualified

  3. ((c))

    qualifying

  4. ((d))

    qualifier

  5. ((e))

    qualify 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

qualification

79

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 4?

  1. ((a))

    It 

  2. ((b))

    Here

  3. ((c))

    Its

  4. ((d))

    He

  5. ((e))

    They

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It 

80

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 5?

  1. ((a))

    to

  2. ((b))

    from

  3. ((c))

    in

  4. ((d))

    by 

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to

81

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 6?

  1. ((a))

    common

  2. ((b))

    commoner

  3. ((c))

    hardly

  4. ((d))

    commonly 

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

common

82

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 7?

  1. ((a))

    compete

  2. ((b))

    competition 

  3. ((c))

    competence

  4. ((d))

    competent

  5. ((e))

    competitor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

compete

83

Which of the following words fits the blank labelled as 8?

  1. ((a))

    called 

  2. ((b))

    calling

  3. ((c))

    calls

  4. ((d))

    caller

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

called 

84

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

After appraisal**(A)** a low receiving**(B)** on my diamond ring, I realized the suspicious(C) looking jeweller had sold me a spurious(D) jewel.

  1. ((a))

    A - D

  2. ((b))

    C - D

  3. ((c))

    A - B

  4. ((d))

    B - C

  5. ((e))

    No arrangements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - D

85

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

During the hanging(A), the rope had been strangled(B) on the neck of the supposed(C) “witch” and she was placed(D) to death.

  1. ((a))

    C - D

  2. ((b))

    B - D

  3. ((c))

    A - B

  4. ((d))

    B - C

  5. ((e))

    No arrangements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C - D

86

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

According to the lawsuit(A), the officers broke**(B)** the suspect with unnecessary(C) force and subdued**(D)** his arm.

  1. ((a))

    A - C

  2. ((b))

    C - D

  3. ((c))

    B - D

  4. ((d))

    A - B

  5. ((e))

    No arrangements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - C

87

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

He did not sultry**(A)** if he could survive(B) in this know**(C)** desert for much longer(D).

  1. ((a))

    A - C

  2. ((b))

    B - C

  3. ((c))

    A - B

  4. ((d))

    C - D

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - C

88

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

Because of low surge**(A)** and high demand(B), there is a sudden supply**(C)** in the price(D) of natural oil.

  1. ((a))

    C - D

  2. ((b))

    A - C

  3. ((c))

    B - D

  4. ((d))

    D - A

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C - D

89

Directions: Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom:

Brownie points

  1. ((a))

    Criticize.

  2. ((b))

    Lack of gratitude.

  3. ((c))

    Non-recognition.

  4. ((d))

    Praise or appreciation.

  5. ((e))

    Condemn.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Criticize.

90

Directions: Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom:

White elephant

  1. ((a))

    An cheap item.

  2. ((b))

    The Asian elephant.

  3. ((c))

    Of little worth.

  4. ((d))

    The African elephant.

  5. ((e))

    An expensive item with no use or purpose.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An cheap item.

Directions: Five sentences A,B,C,D and E are given below, you need to rearrange the sentences so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.

A. This day is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

B. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first education minister of independent India.

C. Schools across the country will observe National Education Day by organising various seminars, workshops and rallies.

D. National Education Day is celebrated every year on 11th November in India.

E. He was not merely a scholar but committed to building the nation through education.

91

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

92

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

93

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

94

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

95

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

96

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. providing basic healthcare facilities

B. the government has not taken 

C. stretched even when it comes to

D. this issue seriously

E. because it is

  1. ((a))

    BDECA

  2. ((b))

    ABDCE

  3. ((c))

    EACDB

  4. ((d))

    CDEAB

  5. ((e))

    DEACB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BDECA

97

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. the truth is that

B. is no better time to

C. be happy than now

D. for happiness and there

E. no preconditions are necessary

  1. ((a))

    BCDEA

  2. ((b))

    DEABC

  3. ((c))

    CADEB

  4. ((d))

    DBCEA

  5. ((e))

    AEDBC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BCDEA

98

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. makes up for the

B. papain in raw banana 

C. deficiency of gastric juice

D. and fights excess of unhealthy mucus

E. in the stomach and intestinal irritation

  1. ((a))

    ADCBE

  2. ((b))

    BACDE

  3. ((c))

    DEBAC

  4. ((d))

    EADCB

  5. ((e))

    CADBE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ADCBE

99

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. than low performers 

B. because they tend to expect

C. more from their jobs

D. vulnerable to job dissatisfaction

E. high performers are more

  1. ((a))

    ABDEC

  2. ((b))

    EDBCA

  3. ((c))

    BCDEA

  4. ((d))

    CDEAB

  5. ((e))

    DEABC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ABDEC

100

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. in 1990, is turning out to be a goldmine for the 

B. archaeologists from the Glasgow University 

C. a 500-year-old ancient  

D. drain in Scotland, which

E. lay undisturbed until its discovery

  1. ((a))

    DEACB

  2. ((b))

    ABCED

  3. ((c))

    BCDEA

  4. ((d))

    EDCAB

  5. ((e))

    CDEAB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DEACB

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

101

When an express train crosses a platform of 300m long in one minute, a passenger standing there watches a stray dog running at a speed of 15 m/s running in opposite direction. The dog crosses the train in 1/3 minutes. What is the speed of the train?

  1. ((a))

    1200 m/s

  2. ((b))

    600 m/s

  3. ((c))

    15 m/s

  4. ((d))

    30 m/s

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1200 m/s

102

Of the five numbers, the first number is five more than second number , the second number is half of the third number, the third number is 2/3rd of the forth number and the fourth number is twice of the fifth number. The average of the five numbers is 18. Find the average of smallest and largest number.

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    35

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

103

In a company, only 20% of the female employees and 70% of the male employees can get a promotion. If the ratio of female and male employees in the company is 2 : 3, then find the percentage of employees who are not getting a promotion?

  1. ((a))

    32%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    30%

  5. ((e))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32%

104

In an election there were 25,000 voters, later 34% votes were declared invalid out of valid votes A and C received votes in the ratio 16 ∶ 7 and B received 37.5% less votes than A. Calculate the votes received by B is what percentage of valid votes.

  1. ((a))

    66.66%

  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))

    30.30%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    48%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66.66%

105

The sum of squares of four numbers is 370, and the sum of the second and third term is 17. Four of these numbers are in proportion. The ratio of first two terms is 5 : 7. Find the average of the four numbers.

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

106

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

10, 9, 17, 50, ?, 994

  1. ((a))

    199

  2. ((b))

    229

  3. ((c))

    219

  4. ((d))

    209

  5. ((e))

    189

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

199

107

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

4, 5, 12, 39, 160, ?

  1. ((a))

    840

  2. ((b))

    700

  3. ((c))

    900

  4. ((d))

    750

  5. ((e))

    805

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

840

108

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

40, 20, 19.5, 19.5, ?, 27.75

  1. ((a))

    18.25

  2. ((b))

    18.5

  3. ((c))

    18.75

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    17.75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18.25

109

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

2.5, 3.5, 5, 18, 68, ?

  1. ((a))

    335

  2. ((b))

    325

  3. ((c))

    345

  4. ((d))

    355

  5. ((e))

    375

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

335

110

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

16, 17, 36, 111, ?, 2245

  1. ((a))

    624

  2. ((b))

    562

  3. ((c))

    396

  4. ((d))

    502

  5. ((e))

    448

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

624

Directions: In 2016, Mahesh invested 10000 rupees in stock market in ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 in three companies Honda, Reliance and HP. He earned 10% profit on Honda, 25% on Reliance and 33% on HP. Next year, 2017 rather investing in three company he invested in four companies and fourth companies was Nokia in which he invested three times then he invested in reliance in 2016. In 2017 he earned 50% more profit than he earned in 2016 in totality and on Nokia he earned 20% profit. In 2018 he earned 25% more profit than 2016 in Reliance, 30% more profit than 2016 in HP, 10% more profit than 2016 in Honda and for Nokia profit was same as in 2017.

111

Find the total profit earn by Mahesh in 2016.

  1. ((a))

    1100

  2. ((b))

    2600

  3. ((c))

    3300

  4. ((d))

    1000

  5. ((e))

    2211

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1100

112

Find the total profit earn by Mahesh on Honda, Reliance and HP in 2017.

  1. ((a))

    1000

  2. ((b))

    2188

  3. ((c))

    2145

  4. ((d))

    2200

  5. ((e))

    2100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000

113

Find the ratio of profit earned by Mahesh on HP in 2016 and in 2017.

  1. ((a))

    1 : 2

  2. ((b))

    3 : 4

  3. ((c))

    1 : 8

  4. ((d))

    22 : 8

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 : 2

114

Find average profit earn by Mahesh in all three years.

  1. ((a))

    4110

  2. ((b))

    3867.5

  3. ((c))

    3200

  4. ((d))

    1100

  5. ((e))

    1120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4110

115

Find the total profit earn by Mahesh in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    1100

  2. ((b))

    5102.5

  3. ((c))

    5500

  4. ((d))

    6000

  5. ((e))

    1200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1100

116

Divide Rs. 8000 into two parts so that simple interest on first part for 3 years at 5% p.a. may be equal to simple interest on the second part for 5 years at 9% p.a.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5000, Rs. 3000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 6500, Rs. 1500

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6000, Rs. 2000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4500, Rs. 3500

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 5000, Rs. 3000

117

Direction∶ In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equation and given answer.

I. 3x2 - 11x - 4 = 0

II. 3y2 + 8y - 16 = 0

  1. ((a))

    If x > y

  2. ((b))

    If x < y

  3. ((c))

    If x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    If x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    If x = y or no relation can be established. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If x > y

118

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer-

I. x2 – 143x + 1080 = 0

II. y2 + 130y – 675 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y 

  5. ((e))

    x = y or no relation can be obtained

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

119

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer-

I. 9x2 + 51x + 52 = 0

II. 4y2 + 48y + 143 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y 

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y 

  5. ((e))

    x = y or no relation can be obtained

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y 

120

In the following question two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between a and b.

I. a2 - 3a - 700 = 0

II. b2 + 58b + 825 = 0

  1. ((a))

    a < b

  2. ((b))

    a > b

  3. ((c))

    a ≤ b

  4. ((d))

    a ≥ b

  5. ((e))

    a = b or the relationship cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a < b

121

In the following question two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between a and b.

I. a2 + 63a + 972 = 0

II. b2 - 2b - 783 = 0

  1. ((a))

    a < b

  2. ((b))

    a > b

  3. ((c))

    a ≤ b

  4. ((d))

    a ≥ b

  5. ((e))

    a = b or the relationship cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a < b

122

One sixth of a cistern is filled by pipe at the rate of 6 lit/h, 4/6th of a cistern is filled by pipe at the rate of 8 lit/h and rest at the rate of 4 lit/h. Find the average rate of pipe at which tank will completely get filled.

  1. ((a))

    6.54 lit/hr

  2. ((b))

    2.35 lit/hr

  3. ((c))

    22.36 lit/hr

  4. ((d))

    20.36 lit/hr

  5. ((e))

    12.63 lit/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.54 lit/hr

123

What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

? % of 4000 + 30% of 5000 + 45% of 8000 = 6350

  1. ((a))

    34.25

  2. ((b))

    30.25

  3. ((c))

    33.25

  4. ((d))

    32.25

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34.25

124

What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

812 × 215 ÷ 810.6 = 8?

  1. ((a))

    8.3

  2. ((b))

    6.4

  3. ((c))

    4.8

  4. ((d))

    10.2

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.3

125

What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

128 ÷ 6.4 × 1.5 + 3 - ? = 21

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    21

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

126

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

66% of 546 - 43% of 439 = ?

  1. ((a))

    240.65

  2. ((b))

    171.59

  3. ((c))

    211.86

  4. ((d))

    181.56

  5. ((e))

    189.56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

240.65

127

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

11.023 - 6.953 - 4.973 = ?

  1. ((a))

    832

  2. ((b))

    1343

  3. ((c))

    863

  4. ((d))

    843

  5. ((e))

    741

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

832

128

What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? (You do not have to calculate the exact value.)

12.5 + 12.52 + 12.53 = ?

  1. ((a))

    1953

  2. ((b))

    2212

  3. ((c))

    2221

  4. ((d))

    2122

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1953

129

What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

16% of ? - 25% of (15% of 2400) = 64% of 2500

  1. ((a))

    10245.5

  2. ((b))

    10372.5

  3. ((c))

    10468.5

  4. ((d))

    10562.5

  5. ((e))

    10660.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10245.5

130

What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

6 + 4 – 8 + [(4 × 3) + (2 – 5 × 3)] – 2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    -1

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    -2

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

131

What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

47\frac{4}{7} × {165 + 126 - 546 ÷ 7} of 2427\frac{{24}}{{27}} = ?

  1. ((a))

    220.97

  2. ((b))

    240.76

  3. ((c))

    168.66

  4. ((d))

    108.20

  5. ((e))

    167.81

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220.97

132

What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

14.9% of 240 + 29.8% of 300 - 75.06% of 200 = ?

  1. ((a))

    -29

  2. ((b))

    -16

  3. ((c))

    -18

  4. ((d))

    -32

  5. ((e))

    -24

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-29

133

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

{(12)2 × (3)2} ÷ (6)3 + ? = 5 × 3.4

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

134

What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

3/4 of (470 + 18) + 5/6 of 360 = 111 × √?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    49

  4. ((d))

    36

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

135

In the following question, two quantities I and II are given. Compare both quantities and choose the correct option and give the answer accordingly.

Quantity I: In a stream running at 2 kmph, a motorboat goes 6 km upstream and back again to the starting point in 33 minutes. Find the speed of the motorboat in still water.

Quantity II: A man can row 18 kmph in still water. It takes him thrice as long to row up as to row down the river. Find the rate of stream.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can’t be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

136

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: A is 20% more efficient than B, B is 30% more efficient than C, C is 40% less efficient than E, E is 12.5% more efficient than D. Find the efficiency of A, if efficiency of D is 80 units per day.

Quantity II: If 122.22% of a number x is added to the same number, then the sum becomes 2380, and 26.66% of a number y is subtracted from the same number, difference becomes 1331. Find the difference between x and y.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

137

Quantity 1: The compound interest is Rs.1430 for 2 years at 20 percent rate of interest then find the principal amount?

Quantity 2: If the difference between compound interest and simple interest for 2 years is 12 at the rate of 5 percent then find the principal amount?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2 

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 2 > Quantity 1

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 2 ≥ Quantity 1

  5. ((e))

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or Relation cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

138

Mohit can go on a motorboat at a speed of 15 km/hour in still water to a certain upstream point and comes back to the starting point in a river which flows at a speed of 5 km/hour. Find the average speed of the motorboat for the whole journey.

  1. ((a))

    1113;km/h11\frac{1}{3};km/h

  2. ((b))

    1313;km/h13\frac{1}{3};km/h

  3. ((c))

    1123;km/h11\frac{2}{3};km/h

  4. ((d))

    1323;km/h13\frac{2}{3};km/h

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1113;km/h11\frac{1}{3};km/h

139

A dealer sold a product to a customer at 40% discount and the another piece of the same product at 60% discount. The marked price of the product was what percent of the cost price of the product, if he earned 10% profit on the whole transaction.

  1. ((a))

    220%

  2. ((b))

    200%

  3. ((c))

    210%

  4. ((d))

    230%

  5. ((e))

    225%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220%

140

The perimeter of a rectangular box is 60 cm. The length of the rectangular box is twice the breadth of the box. When we reduce the size of a rectangular box is by 5cm from all sides. Find the percentage change in the area of the box.

  1. ((a))

    65.5%

  2. ((b))

    60.3%

  3. ((c))

    62.5%

  4. ((d))

    70.5%

  5. ((e))

    71.3%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65.5%

General/Economy/Banking Awareness (60 questions)

141

 What is the total number of Ramsar sites present in India?

  1. ((a))

    44

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    49

  5. ((e))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44

142

Daisy wheel printer is what type a printer?

  1. ((a))

    Non impact

  2. ((b))

    Impact

  3. ((c))

    Laser

  4. ((d))

    Line printer

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Non impact

143

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has Launched the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Scheme under which how much amount amount will be provided per year to small and marginal farmer families?

  1. ((a))

    5000

  2. ((b))

    6000

  3. ((c))

    4000

  4. ((d))

    3000

  5. ((e))

    8000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5000

144

What is meant by “VIRUS” in computer parlance?

  1. ((a))

    Variable Integrated Risks under Surveillance

  2. ((b))

    Vital Information Resource under Siege

  3. ((c))

    Very Independent Resource under Seizure

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Variable Integrated Risks under Surveillance

145

Which of the following is the target group for the scheme named PM SVANidhi?

  1. ((a))

    Street vendors

  2. ((b))

    Landless agricultural labour

  3. ((c))

    Marginal farmers

  4. ((d))

    Dairy farmers

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Street vendors

146

Which of the following is false about Trojan horse?

  1. ((a))

    Trojan horse can inject themselves into other files or otherwise propagate themselves.

  2. ((b))

    Trojan horse is a software that is designed to be spread from one computer to another, often sent as an email attachment.

  3. ((c))

    Trojan horse refers to tricking someone into inviting an attacker into a securely protected area.

  4. ((d))

    Trojan horse is a malicious bit of attacking code or software that tricks users into running it willingly, by hiding behind a legitimate program.

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Trojan horse can inject themselves into other files or otherwise propagate themselves.

147

TRIPS is an agreement of WTO. Which of the following is the correct full form of TRIPS ?

  1. ((a))

    Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

  2. ((b))

    Trade Related Aspects of International Property Rights

  3. ((c))

    Trade Related Aspects of Intelligence Property Rights

  4. ((d))

    Trading Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

  5. ((e))

    Trading Related Aspects of International Property Rights

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

148

Which virus makes changes to a disk's file system?

  1. ((a))

    Cluster virus

  2. ((b))

    Macro virus

  3. ((c))

    Stealth virus

  4. ((d))

    Polymorphic virus

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cluster virus

149

Which union minister has launched environmental awareness mascot ‘Prakriti’ in April 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Bhupender Yadav

  2. ((b))

    Dharmendra Pradhan

  3. ((c))

    Nitin Gadkari

  4. ((d))

    Hardeep Singh Puri

  5. ((e))

    Rajnath Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhupender Yadav

150

Which ministry has launched the SMILE scheme for the welfare of transgenders and beggars?

  1. ((a))

    Department of Social Justice and Empowerment

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Defence

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Housing and Urban Affair

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Department of Social Justice and Empowerment

151

What is the use of Shift + F3 shortcut key in MS- Excel 2010?

  1. ((a))

    To insert an image

  2. ((b))

    To open a new sheet

  3. ((c))

    To save the existing sheet

  4. ((d))

    To insert a function

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To insert an image

152

______ is a global address used to locate resources on the internet.

  1. ((a))

    HTTP

  2. ((b))

    URL

  3. ((c))

    HTML

  4. ((d))

    XML

  5. ((e))

    CSS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HTTP

153

Which data analysis tools are used to summarize and reorganize complicated data and drilled down in details?

  1. ((a))

    Pivot table

  2. ((b))

    Insert table

  3. ((c))

    C-table

  4. ((d))

    Slicer

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pivot table

154

The Shahi litchi of which state has got the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Madhya Pradesh

155

Which of the following is a standard internet protocol used for transmitting the files from one computer to another computer connected to the internet?

  1. ((a))

    SMTP

  2. ((b))

    FTP

  3. ((c))

    TELNET

  4. ((d))

    HTTP

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SMTP

156

Which device supplies Power to various system components of the computer, such as the motherboard and device drivers?

  1. ((a))

    Router

  2. ((b))

    Hub

  3. ((c))

    SMTP

  4. ((d))

    SMPS

  5. ((e))

    Switch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Router

157

Which state topped the 4th State Food Safety Index (SFSI) in June 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Tripura

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pardesh

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

158

Recently, the Union Government of India has announced to launch a portal, _________ to improve the ease of living for the common man.

  1. ((a))

    Jan Samarth

  2. ((b))

    Jan Aadhar

  3. ((c))

    Jan Manthan

  4. ((d))

    Jan Upyog

  5. ((e))

    Jan Seva

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jan Samarth

159

Which function key is used for opening help ?

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    F2

  3. ((c))

    F4

  4. ((d))

    F3

  5. ((e))

    F5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F1

160

Which country has denied permission to an Indian wheat consignment over phytosanitary concerns in June 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Egypt

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    Turkey 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Egypt

161

Which of the following is not an output device?

  1. ((a))

    Plotter

  2. ((b))

    Printer

  3. ((c))

    Scanner

  4. ((d))

    Monitor

  5. ((e))

    Projector

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plotter

162

State the full form of SMPS:

  1. ((a))

    Simple Mode Power Supply

  2. ((b))

    Switched Mode Power Supply

  3. ((c))

    Simple Multiple Power Supply

  4. ((d))

    Switched Multiple Power Supply

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simple Mode Power Supply

163

Which of the following is an example of an input device?

  1. ((a))

    Webcam

  2. ((b))

    Monitor

  3. ((c))

    Headphones

  4. ((d))

    Plotter

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Webcam

164

The first National Handloom Day was first observed in _______.

  1. ((a))

    2014

  2. ((b))

    2016

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2015

  5. ((e))

    2013

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2014

165

Which software has the exclusive feature SHELL?

  1. ((a))

    DOS

  2. ((b))

    System software

  3. ((c))

    Application software

  4. ((d))

    UNIX

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DOS

166

How much money has been allocated in Union Budget 2022-23 for MSP (Minimum Support Price) on wheat and paddy farmers for fiscal year 2022-23?

  1. ((a))

    2.47 lakh crore

  2. ((b))

    2.37 lakh crore

  3. ((c))

    2.13 lakh crore

  4. ((d))

    2.07 lakh crore

  5. ((e))

    2.57 lakh crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.47 lakh crore

167

What is the shortcut key to create subscript in MS-Word?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + Shift + D

  2. ((b))

    Alt + =

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + S

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + =

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl +Alt + =

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alt + Shift + D

168

In September 2021, the cabinet approved the continuation of the National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) scheme by providing how much amount as Grant-in-aid?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,000 Crores

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,250 Crores

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,450 Crores

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,650 Crores

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 2,000 Crores

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1,000 Crores

169

In NEFT, Unique transaction Reference (UTR) is a ______ character number?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    26

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

170

The process used to remove magnetism from a cathoderay tube (CRT) computer monitor is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    Deworm

  2. ((b))

    Dope

  3. ((c))

    Degauss

  4. ((d))

    Bounce

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deworm

171

Which of the following term is used for illegal copying and distribution of software?

  1. ((a))

    Software Copying

  2. ((b))

    Software Phishing

  3. ((c))

    Digital Piracy

  4. ((d))

    Software piracy

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Software Copying

172

Device having the largest storage capacity is:-

  1. ((a))

    DVD

  2. ((b))

    Hard Disk

  3. ((c))

    CDROM

  4. ((d))

    ALU

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DVD

173

JSP file extension stands for :

  1. ((a))

    Java standard files

  2. ((b))

    Java server pages

  3. ((c))

    Java server pipes

  4. ((d))

    Java server pop ups

  5. ((e))

    Java server protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Java standard files

174

RBI in April 2021 announced the constitution of a committee under the chairmanship of Sudarshan Sen to undertake a comprehensive review of the legal & regulatory framework applicable to Asset Reconstruction Companies(ARC). Under which of the following Act ARC is established?

  1. ((a))

    The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007

  2. ((b))

    The Industrial Finance Corporation (Transfer of Undertakings and Repeal) Act, 1993

  3. ((c))

    The Factoring Regulation Act, 2011

  4. ((d))

    The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961

  5. ((e))

    Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act 2002

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007

175

Which of the following Indian Cities will hold the 44th World Chess Olympiad 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    New Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Pune

  4. ((d))

    Kolkata

  5. ((e))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai

176

A _______ module is a device that converts spoken words into information that the computer can recognize and process.

  1. ((a))

    Microphone

  2. ((b))

    Voice recognition

  3. ((c))

    Optical Scanner 

  4. ((d))

    Video Graphic adapter

  5. ((e))

    Scanner

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microphone

177

As per the report of National Family Health Survey, India’s total fertility rate (TFR) has declined from 2.2 children in 2015-16 to _________ children per woman in 2022.

  1. ((a))

    1.5

  2. ((b))

    1.8

  3. ((c))

    2.0

  4. ((d))

    0.8

  5. ((e))

    2.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.5

178

Windows explorer is a program used to:

  1. ((a))

    Browse the internet

  2. ((b))

    Navigate the files or folders in windows operating system

  3. ((c))

    Discover the number of windows running in PC

  4. ((d))

    Calculate how many application is running

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Browse the internet

179

The corporate and retail sector subscriber base under the National Pension System (NPS) has crossed over 30 lakh, and the corpus under these is about to reach a landmark Rs. 1 lakh crore mark. NPS subscriber base data has how many categories?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

180

The symbol that indicates the computer is working to retrieve or send data or locate a webpage is called________.

  1. ((a))

    Hyperlink

  2. ((b))

    Cursor

  3. ((c))

    Hourglass

  4. ((d))

    Hand Pointer

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hyperlink

181

An initial allocation of how many rupees will be made for the Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North-East, PM-DevINE  scheme?

  1. ((a))

    1,000

  2. ((b))

    1,500

  3. ((c))

    2,000

  4. ((d))

    2,500

  5. ((e))

    3000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1,000

182

Which country has won the Uber Cup champions trophy, held at the Impact Arena, Bangkok, Thailand in May 2022?

  1. ((a))

    China

  2. ((b))

    Malaysia

  3. ((c))

    India

  4. ((d))

    South Korea

  5. ((e))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

China

183

Fraudsters often use a device that can be installed at gas pumps or ATM machines to collect card data. What is the name of the device?

  1. ((a))

    Skimming

  2. ((b))

    Phisinhg

  3. ((c))

    Spoofing

  4. ((d))

    Smishing

  5. ((e))

    SIM Swap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Skimming

184

Which section of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 prohibits banks from granting any loan or advance to any of its directors?

  1. ((a))

    Section 20

  2. ((b))

    Section 22

  3. ((c))

    Section 23

  4. ((d))

    Section 26

  5. ((e))

    Section 21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Section 20

185

Alluvial soil covers almost what percentage of India?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    17%

  4. ((d))

    40%

  5. ((e))

    23%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

186

What is the market capitalization of Reliance Industries Ltd in April 2022?

  1. ((a))

    18 lakh crores

  2. ((b))

    17 lakh crores

  3. ((c))

    19 lakh crores

  4. ((d))

    15 lakh crores

  5. ((e))

    16 lakh crores

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18 lakh crores

187

SEBI issued guidelines for individual investors applying in public issues of equity shares and convertibles. Up to what amount individuals can use UPI for application amount?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 6 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4 lakhs

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2 lakhs

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 7 lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 6 lakh

188

India is home to 103 unicorns with a total valuation of $ 335.80 Billion till June 2022. Who gained 101st unicorn status in June 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Physics Wallah

  2. ((b))

    LeadSquared

  3. ((c))

    NeoBank

  4. ((d))

    Fractal

  5. ((e))

    Uniphore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Physics Wallah

189

In which year did R.D Banerjee discover Mohenjo-Daro?

  1. ((a))

    1920

  2. ((b))

    1921

  3. ((c))

    1922

  4. ((d))

    1924

  5. ((e))

    1928

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1920

190

Australian tennis player Ashleigh Barty has won how many grand slams?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

191

The World Trade Organization(WTO's) 12th Ministerial Conference (MC12) which took place from 12 to 17 June 2022 was co-hosted by Geneva and which country?

  1. ((a))

    Argentina

  2. ((b))

    Kenya

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    Kazakhstan

  5. ((e))

    Kyrgyzstan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Argentina

192

Tata Motors has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which company for exploring Joint Development projects?

  1. ((a))

    Hyundai

  2. ((b))

    Toyota

  3. ((c))

    Ford Motors

  4. ((d))

    Volkswagen Group and Skoda

  5. ((e))

    Mahindra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hyundai

193

What is the wheat procurement target for the current financial year 2022-23 (in lakh tonnes)? 

  1. ((a))

    444

  2. ((b))

    278

  3. ((c))

    378

  4. ((d))

    195

  5. ((e))

    540

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

444

194

The Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme has increased the maximum project cost for manufacturing units from Rs. 25 lakh to ______(in Rs lakh).

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    200

  5. ((e))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

195

As per the Agriculture Census, what should be the size of the land of a small farmer? (in hectare)

  1. ((a))

    Below 1

  2. ((b))

    2-4

  3. ((c))

    1-2

  4. ((d))

    10 and above

  5. ((e))

    4-10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Below 1

196

Who is the author of the book 'Who Moved My Interest Rate?'?

  1. ((a))

    Duvvuri Subbarao

  2. ((b))

    Viral Acharya

  3. ((c))

    Raghuram Rajan

  4. ((d))

    Urijit Patel

  5. ((e))

    Y V Reddy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Duvvuri Subbarao

197

Which of the following has merged with PVR to form the largest multiplex chain in India?

  1. ((a))

    Big Cinemas

  2. ((b))

    Carnival Cinemas

  3. ((c))

    Wave Cinemas

  4. ((d))

    Inox Leisure

  5. ((e))

    Cinepolis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Big Cinemas

198

How many digits are there in a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN)?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    16

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

199

Atal Pension Yojana matures at the age of _____ years.

  1. ((a))

    62

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    58

  5. ((e))

    75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

62

200

Data becomes ________ when it is presented in a format that people can understand.

  1. ((a))

    Presentation

  2. ((b))

    Information

  3. ((c))

    Graphs

  4. ((d))

    Processed

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Presentation

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