Official Paper

IBPS Specialist Officer (SO) 2023 Previous Year Paper Shift 1

150 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

English Language (50 questions)

Edit/Improve Phrases

Direction: Which of the following phrases (1), (2), and (3) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of the phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'No Improvement' as the answer.

1

People with obstructive sleep apnoea may be at significant higher risk of suffering long Covid, according to a study.

  1. from excessive increased risk of suffering
  2. at significantly higher risk of suffering
  3. at comparatively increased risk of suffering
  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C) Only 2 and 3

2

These high temperatures play a very definitely role in the diversification of cyclonic storms as they infuse more convection.

  1. A much importance for the formation
  2. An extremely crucial role in the intensification
  3. A very important role in the intensification
  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 3

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) Only 2 and 3

3

The Supreme Court on May 12, in a judgment, said there are meritorious promises and uncertainty in the processing of the Protection of Women from Sexual Harassment Act, leaving many working women no choice but to leave their jobs.

1.serious blunders and unreliability in the execution

2.serious lapses and uncertainty in the implementation

3.severe problems and ramifications in the develop

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) Only 1 and 2

4

With its decades of experience in conducting human clinical trials, it makes eminent sense to rope down the ICMR to design and conduct this trials.

1.talk the ICMR into designing and conducting these

2.engage the ICMR for design and conduction of this

3.rope in the ICMR to design and conduct these

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1,2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C) Only 1 and 3

5

Unless the US takes substantive steps to addressal the persisting green card backlog, it risks losing a significant pool of skilled professionals to its northern neighbours and other countries.

  1. Implements significant measures to deal with the

  2. Introduces effective initiatives to suggest the

  3. takes substantive steps to address the

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) Only 1 and 3

6

Considering the strong technology ecosystem that exists in India, the country is placed well to playing a crucial role in shaping the global Al regulatory framework.

  1. excelling in the sphere of

  2. well placed to play a crucial role in

  3. ready to take a significant role in

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C) Only 2 and 3

7

In a global economic landscape characterised by growing competition between the US and China, especially in the realm of artificial intelligence, there is a significant concern between executives to major US tech companies that they are hamstrung by the obstacles put in place by the country's immigration system in recruiting top-notch international talent.

  1. A significant concern among executives of

  2. An important issue among executives of

  3. A substantial worry between executives of

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) Only 1 and 2

8

India's triumphant moon land underscore the significance of blending basic scientific expertise with ingenuity and pursuing ambitious objectives despite prior setbacks.

  1. Landing underscores the significance of

  2. Landing undermines the essence of

  3. Landing highlights the importance of

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) Only 1 and 3

9

Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences amongst the five choices given to construct a paragraph.

A. Judicial observations are published out of context just to provide good headline copy, and sometimes, there is outright misquotation. B. Perhaps more importantly, however, there is a more straightforward way of dealing with the spectre of misreporting: to make written transcripts and audio or video recordings of court proceedings available to the public.

C. It is often argued that the media reports court proceedings inaccurately;

D. In fact, this was precisely the reason cited by the Allahabad High Court to justify the gag order, although the court did not provide any examples of "misquotation".

E. There are, however, laws to deal with inaccurate reporting, especially the Contempt of Courts Act, which the judiciary has never shied away from invoking.

  1. ((a))

    (A) ACDEB

  2. ((b))

    (B) CADEB

  3. ((c))

    (C) ADCEB

  4. ((d))

    (D) CDEAB

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) CADEB

10

(A)Besides, a campus is the natural home of the ISC, for scientists should not transact their business in an ivory tower beyond the reach of the student body.

(B)It is the crucible of future politics, and politicians should engage with student protesters rather than seek insulation from them.

(C)But a campus is where feelings and arguments can and should run high.

(D)Indian science has been seen to be faltering for some time - with the significant exception of the space effort - and it is important to inspire the student body.

(E)It would be like holding a business meeting in a football field.

(F)Indeed, that would indicate a failure to take the student body along with them.

(G)The proposal to relocate the meet to a trade fair facility is completely inappropriate.

  1. ((a))

    (A) BDAFGEC

  2. ((b))

    (B) CBFADGE

  3. ((c))

    (C) ABDGECF

  4. ((d))

    (D) CBDAEFG

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) CBFADGE

11

(A)All men by nature desire to know. A man is what he knows.

(B)The more you know, the less you need to show.

(C)The greater our knowledge increases the more our ignorance make known.

(D)There are no possessions like knowledge, and no poverty like ignorance.

(E)Our greatest enemy today is ignorance.

(F)What we don't know is killing us; or at least depriving us of a full and abundant life.

  1. ((a))

    (A) BADCFE

  2. ((b))

    (B) DBCAFE

  3. ((c))

    (C) ABCDEF

  4. ((d))

    (D) ABDCEF

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(D) ABDCEF

12

(A)Such systems should have been the basis not only of higher education but of new and viable professions and forging an informed agreement within society.

(B)While there is a great demand for development services, there are few empirical systems to measure it at the granular level that is required.

(C)How long can such a corrosive system last?

(D)Instead, we have chosen to continue an elaborate, expensive and divisive system of two realities, of rewards and rents for a chosen few and a sullen acceptance for the others.

  1. ((a))

    (A) BADC

  2. ((b))

    (B) BCAD

  3. ((c))

    (C) ABCD

  4. ((d))

    (D) DCAB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) BADC

13

(A) But nowadays, the most promising sign of the improving conditions of Indian women lies in declining inequality in education.

(B) Abigail Adams, wife of the second President of the U.S. and mother of the sixth President, wrote to her husband, "If particular care and attention is not paid to the ladies, we are determined to foment a rebellion."

(C) In all villages and towns, mornings and afternoons are brightened by the smiling faces of girls and young women, dressed in their uniforms, walking to school.

(D)What fuels these movements? Could it be that the very success of India's economic transformation brings with it a stark realisation that it has not paid particular care and attention to women?

(E) As last year's #MeToo movement and Sabarimala protests showed, perhaps Indian women are echoing her and are ready to foment a rebellion.

(F) Almost all girls go to primary school and, according to the India Human Development Survey (IHDS) of 2011-12, 70% of girls aged 15 to 18 are still studying, only five percentage points less than boys.

  1. ((a))

    (A) BEDACF

  2. ((b))

    (B) EDCFBA

  3. ((c))

    (C) BCEADF

  4. ((d))

    (D) EBADCF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) BEDACF

Short Fill-in Blanks

Directions: In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space. Below each sentence, there are four words given. Choose the most appropriate word (s) that must fill the blank and make the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. If none of the given words fill the blank correctly, choose (e), i.e., none of these as your answer choice.

14

The of the new technology has revolutionised the way we communicate.

(A) implementation

(B) obsolescence

(C) adaptation

(D) proliferation

(A) only (A)

(B) only (B) and (C)

(C) only (C) and (D)

(D) only (D)

(E) None of these

  1. ((a))

    (A) only (A)

  2. ((b))

    (B) only (B) and (C)

  3. ((c))

    (C) only (C) and (D)

  4. ((d))

    (D) only (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(D) only (D)

15

The manager's leadership style inspired and motivated the team to achieve exceptional results.

(A) autocratic

(B) lenient

(C) perceptive

(D) indecisive

(A) only (A)

(B) only (B)

(C) only (A) and (C)

(D) only (A) and (D)

(E) None of these.

  1. ((a))

    (A) only (A)

  2. ((b))

    (B) only (B)

  3. ((c))

    (C) only (A) and (C)

  4. ((d))

    (D) only (A) and (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C) only (A) and (C)

16

Despite facing numerous setbacks and obstacles, she remained and

persevered until she achieved her goal.

(A) determined

(B) apathetic

(C) fickle

(D) indifferent

(A) only (A)

(B) only (B)

(C) only (A) and (C)

(D) only (A) and (D)

(E) None of these.

  1. ((a))

    (A) only (A)

  2. ((b))

    (B) only (B)

  3. ((c))

    (C) only (A) and (C)

  4. ((d))

    (D) only (A) and (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) only (A)

17

The educational institution's commitment to fostering creativity and innovation has produced graduates who excel in their respective fields.

(A) mediocre

(B) unambitious

(C) exemplary

(D) stagnant

(A) only (A)

(B) only (C)

(C) only (A) and (B)

(D) only (B) and (D)

(E) None of these.

  1. ((a))

    (A) only (A)

  2. ((b))

    (B) only (C)

  3. ((c))

    (C) only (A) and (B)

  4. ((d))

    (D) only (B) and (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) only (C)

Women's Reservation Bill Passage

Directions (18-25) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Directions: Read the question passage thoroughly and answer the questions that follow. For decades, India has prided itself on being the world's largest democracy, a nation that embraces diversity and equality. Yet, within the hallowed halls of political power, a stark gender imbalance persists. The approval of the Women's Reservation Bill by the Union Cabinet, for likely passage during Parliament's ongoing special session, highlights a glaring truth. Political parties have had ample opportunities to rectify this imbalance but chose not to. The statistics speak volumes. According to a recent Inter-Parliamentary Union study, India ranks a disheartening 149th out of 193 countries in terms of female representation in the lower house of Parliament. In a country where women make up half the population, they hold a mere 14 per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha and 11 per cent in the Rajya Sabha. These figures are inexcusable and paint a gloomy picture of gender inequality in our political landscape. One might wonder why, in a democratic system, where the power to change rests with the people, such a disparity persists. The answer lies in the choices made by political parties themselves. Over the years, parties have failed to take the initiative to correct the imbalance voluntarily. They could have easily fielded women candidates in a third of the constituencies they contested in Lok Sabha and state assembly elections. It was a simple step that could have made a profound impact on women's representation in politics. However, they chose not to, merely offering lip service to the cause of gender equality. The Women's Reservation Bill, which seeks to reserve one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for women, now stands as a legislative remedy for this imbalance. While some may argue that such a measure is heavy- handed, it is important to re- member that it arises from a vacuum in voluntary action. It is the result of decades of unfulfilled promises and persistent gender bias within political parties. The reluctance of political parties to address this imbalance voluntarily has been nothing short of disappointing. Women's representation in the Lok Sabha has grown at a snail's pace since Independence, from a mere 4.4 per cent in 1952 to just 12.15 per cent after the 2014 Lok Sabha elections. (A) The progress has been lethargic and it's a stark reminder that democracy Opposition to the Women's Reservation Bill, brought forward 27 years ago, centred on concerns of fairness and the democratic right to compete based on merit rather than gender. (B)

18

What is the main purpose of the Women's Reservation Bill as mentioned in the passage?

(A) To discriminate against men in politics

(B) To reserve all political seats for women

(C) To address the gender imbalance in political representation

(D) To eliminate all competition among politicians

(E) None of the options are correct

  1. ((a))

    (A) To discriminate against men in politics

  2. ((b))

    (B) To reserve all political seats for women

  3. ((c))

    (C) To address the gender imbalance in political representation

  4. ((d))

    (D) To eliminate all competition among politicians

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C) To address the gender imbalance in political representation

19

What can be a suitable filler for the sentence marked as (A) in the passage?

(A) "inherently flawed and biased"

(B) "promotes gender equality effectively"

(C) "strives for equal representation"

(D) "values diversity in political leadership"

(E) "has not given women the voice they deserve"

  1. ((a))

    (A) "inherently flawed and biased"

  2. ((b))

    (B) "promotes gender equality effectively"

  3. ((c))

    (C) "strives for equal representation"

  4. ((d))

    (D) "values diversity in political leadership"

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) "inherently flawed and biased"

20

What is the tone of the author in the passage?

(A) Informative (B) Concerned

(C) Optimistic

(D) Analytical

(E) Indifferent

  1. ((a))

    (A) Informative

  2. ((b))

    (B) Concerned

  3. ((c))

    (C) Optimistic

  4. ((d))

    (D) Analytical

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) Concerned

21

How would you describe the author's attitude towards the Women's Reservation Bill in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Enthusiastic

  2. ((b))

    Sceptical

  3. ((c))

    Indifferent

  4. ((d))

    Ambivalent

  5. ((e))

    Supportive

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Supportive

22

What is the primary argument against the Women's Reservation Bill as mentioned in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    It promotes fairness and merit-based competition.

  2. ((b))

    It discriminates against women.

  3. ((c))

    It lacks support from the majority of politicians.

  4. ((d))

    It is a heavy-handed approach.

  5. ((e))

    None of the options are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It promotes fairness and merit-based competition.

23

What can be a suitable title for the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Gender Disparity in Politics

  2. ((b))

    The Success of Women's Reservation Bill

  3. ((c))

    The Decline of Female Representation

  4. ((d))

    India's Political Landscape

  5. ((e))

    None of the options are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gender Disparity in Politics

24

What impact does the passage suggest increased female representation in elected bodies can have?

  1. ((a))

    It can lead to the exclusion of men from politics.

  2. ((b))

    It can promote social inclusion, gender equality, and societal development.

  3. ((c))

    It can eliminate competition among politicians.

  4. ((d))

    It can increase gender bias in decision-making.

  5. ((e))

    None of the options are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It can promote social inclusion, gender equality, and societal development.

25

About discriminating against men (A)/ in the context of the systemic exclusion and (B)/ the injustices women have historically faced.(C)/ Gender-based seat reservation is not (D)/However, this argument is untenable when viewed (E)/. Arrange parts in the sentence marked in italics to form a meaningful sentence which makes sense.

  1. ((a))

    ACDBE

  2. ((b))

    BACDE

  3. ((c))

    DCBEA

  4. ((d))

    CDEBA

  5. ((e))

    EBCDA

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

EBCDA

26

Direction: In the following question, three sentences are given revolving around the same theme or idea. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically and meaningfully correct and mark the answer accordingly.

  1. As the world emerges from the pandemic and the travel bug is revived, the world stands at an opportune crossroads with the chance to make tourism more resilient and inclusive than before.

  2. A capital-intensive and multi-sector industry, tourism and travel is an important economical multiplier under-recognised in its ability to support all segments of the economy.

  3. The Ministry of Tourism launched the Visit India Year 2023 initiative to advertise India as an all-year-round destination.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 3

  4. ((d))

    Both 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    Only 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both 1 and 3

27

Direction: In the following question, three sentences are given revolving around the same theme or idea. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically and meaningfully correct and mark the answer accordingly.

  1. According to a study, air pollution, heat, high levels of carbon dioxide, and ambient noise may all adversely affect our ability to get a good night's sleep.

  2. The sleep of inadequate duration or efficiency due to frequent disruption affects work productivity and quality of life.

  3. The research, published in the journal Sleep Health, is one of the first to measure multiple environmental variables in the bedroom and analyse their associates with sleep efficiency.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Only 3

  5. ((e))

    Both 1 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both 1 and 2

28

Direction: In the following question, three sentences are given revolving around the same theme or idea. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically and meaningfully correct and mark the answer accordingly.

  1. CFCs are potent greenhouse gases that trap heat up to 10,000 times more efficiently than carbon dioxide, the biggest cause of global warming drives climate change.

  2. After the Montreal Protocol entered into force, global concentrations of CFCs declined steadily.

  3. The protocol curbs the release of ozone- depleting substances that could disperse but does not ban their use in the product of other chemicals as raw materials or by-products.

  1. ((a))

    Only 3

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 2

  4. ((d))

    Both 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    Only 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only 2

29

Direction: In the following question, three sentences are given revolving around the same theme or idea. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically and meaningfully correct and mark the answer accordingly.

  1. The seasonal rains in March caused a slight loss in output in Punjab and Haryana, but the low temperatures following the rains helped the crops in other unaffected areas.

  2. Harvesting of the cereal, which usually commences by April 1, started late this year due to the unseasonal rains in March when farmers decided to let the moisture in the crop dry up in the fields.

  3. The wheat stocks had fall to 8.3 MT on April 1, as the government's procurement had plunged to a record low due to a drop in production and increased private buying this year.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 3

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    Only 2

  5. ((e))

    Both 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only 2

30

Directions: In the following question, three sentences are given revolving around the same theme or idea. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically and meaningfully correct and mark the answer accordingly.

  1. The government has announced new rules for the distribution of COVID-19 vaccines, with priority given to healthcare workers and vulnerable populations after the pandemic.

  2. After being closed for nearly a year due to the pandemic, the popular tourist attraction will be reopening its doors next week.

  3. Profits of the companies making covid 19 vaccines have seen insignificant increases this quarter after the government announced the distribution rules.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2

  3. ((c))

    Only 2

  4. ((d))

    Both 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both 1 and 2

ICRA Report on India Inc. Credit Quality

Directions (31-37) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In a promising development for India's corporate landscape, the credit quality of businesses across the country exhibited significant strength and resilience during the first half of the financial year 2024 (H1 FY2024). A recent report by ICRA, a leading credit rating agency, revealed that India Inc.'s credit profiles have been bolstered by robust domestic consumption and investments in various sectors. The ICRA report, released on Tuesday, in

the credit quality of both investment-grade and non-investment-grade categories. Although the pace of this improvement moderated in comparison with the previous two fiscal years, it marks a positive trajectory for India's economic recovery.

Six key sectors played a pivotal role in driving the credit quality improvements observed in H1 FY2024: hospitality, auto components, power, realty, roads, and financials. Together, these sectors accounted for nearly half of the total instances of credit upgrades during this period. Hospitality Sector Rebounds: The hospitality sector has been on a remarkable rebound trajectory, rebounding from the significant adverse impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic experienced in 2020 and 2021. Critical operating metrics such as occupancy rates and average room rates have seen a sharp recovery, prompting several upgrades over the past 18 months. The sector's resilience signifies

a promising revival of India's tourism and hospitality industry.

Auto Components Thrive: The increasing demand from end-user industries, especially in the passenger vehicle and commercial vehicle segments, has significantly contributed to the upgrades of auto component manufacturers and automobile dealers. This surge reflects the buoyant automotive sector, which continues to be a key driver of economic growth.

Realty's Resilience: The realty sector has shown resilience with healthy sales and collections in the residential segment, along with improved leasing activity in the commercial and retail segments. These factors have contributed to a reduction in leverage levels for several real estate entities, supporting their credit upgrades. Realty's performance is indicative of renewed confidence in the Indian real estate market.

Power Sector Reforms: In the power sector, several entities were upgraded following the realization of their long-pending receivables from power distribution companies. These dues were cleared under the Late Payment Surcharge (LPS) scheme, highlighting the positive impact of policy reforms on India's power sector.

Roads Sector Driven by Risk Mitigation: Several Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) in the roads sector experienced upgrades in H1 FY2024, largely due to entity-specific factors focused on mitigating project execution risks. The achievement of final or provisional dates of completion for projects, coupled with the receipt of initial semi-annual payments without significant deductions, underscored the sector's progress.

Financial Sector's Strong Fundamentals: The financial sector witnessed improvements in credit profiles due to steady credit growth, stable asset quality indicators, and equity capital mobilization. This trend was particularly prominent in the microfinance segment, highlighting the sector's robust fundamentals. There are broader economic implications. The strengthening of India Inc's credit quality is a positive signal for the broader Indian economy.

A healthier credit environment can catalyze further investments, job creation, and economic growth. Here are some of the broader economic implications:

Investment Climate: Improved credit quality is likely to boost investor confidence, encouraging both domestic and foreign investments. Businesses with stronger credit profiles may find it easier to secure funding for expansion and capital expenditure projects.

Job Creation: As businesses thrive and expand, they are more likely to hire new employees. A robust job market can stimulate consumer spending and drive economic growth.

Economic Recovery: India's post-pandemic recovery has been a central focus, and the credit quality surge in H1 FY2024 contributes to this narrative. It indicates that businesses have been able to adapt and recover from the pandemic's impact, laying the foundation for sustained economic growth.

Sectoral Resilience: The sectoral diversity in credit quality improvements suggests that multiple segments of the Indian economy are regaining strength. This resilience can help buffer against economic shocks in the future.

Credit Access: Businesses with improved credit profiles are better positioned to access credit at favorable terms, enabling them to invest in innovation and expansion, ultimately driving economic development.

While the credit quality improvements are encouraging, it's essential to recognize that economic challenges persist. India faces hurdles such as inflationary pressures, supply chain disruptions, and global economic uncertainties that could impact the trajectory of credit quality improvement. Looking ahead, sustained efforts to address these challenges, coupled with continued policy support, will be crucial for India Inc's credit quality to maintain its upward trajectory. Additionally, the emphasis on sustainability, digital transformation, and innovation will play a pivotal role in shaping the long-term competitiveness of Indian businesses. In conclusion, the ICRA report's findings paint an optimistic picture of India Inc's resilience and adaptability in the face of economic

challenges. The credit quality improvements observed across various sectors in H1 FY2024 provide a solid foundation for India's economic recovery and future growth prospects. As India continues to navigate the evolving global landscape, these improvements are a testament to the nation's ability to overcome adversity and emerge stronger.

31

What were the key drivers of credit quality improvements in India Inc. during H1 FY2024, according to the ICRA report?

  1. ((a))

    Foreign investments and exports

  2. ((b))

    Government stimulus packages

  3. ((c))

    Robust domestic consumption and investments in specific sectors

  4. ((d))

    Decreased competition in the market

  5. ((e))

    Expansion of India's manufacturing sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Robust domestic consumption and investments in specific sectors

32

Which sector experienced a significant rebound in H1 FY2024, with sharp recoveries in occupancy rates and average room rates, leading to several credit upgrades?

  1. ((a))

    Auto components

  2. ((b))

    Realty

  3. ((c))

    Power

  4. ((d))

    Hospitality

  5. ((e))

    Roads

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hospitality

33

According to the passage, what led to credit upgrades in the power sector during H1 FY2024?

  1. ((a))

    Increased electricity consumption

  2. ((b))

    Implementation of renewable energy projects

  3. ((c))

    Clearing of long-pending receivables under the Late Payment Surcharge (LPS) scheme

  4. ((d))

    Government subsidies for power distribution companies

  5. ((e))

    Improved power generation technologies

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Clearing of long-pending receivables under the Late Payment Surcharge (LPS) scheme

34

According to the passage, what are the broader economic implications of India Inc's improved credit quality in H1 FY2024?

  1. ((a))

    Decreased investment climate

  2. ((b))

    Reduced job creation

  3. ((c))

    Slower economic recovery

  4. ((d))

    Enhanced sectoral resilience

  5. ((e))

    Limited credit access for businesses

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Enhanced sectoral resilience

35

What is the primary theme of the passage discussing India Inc's credit quality improvements in H1 FY2024?

  1. ((a))

    The challenges faced by India Inc during the pandemic

  2. ((b))

    The impact of government policies on the Indian economy

  3. ((c))

    The diverse sectors contributing to India Inc's improved credit quality

  4. ((d))

    The decline in foreign investments in India

  5. ((e))

    The need for digital transformation in Indian businesses

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The diverse sectors contributing to India Inc's improved credit quality

36

Which among the following will correctly explain the tone of the author in the passage given above?

  1. ((a))

    Critical and skeptical

  2. ((b))

    Optimistic and encouraging

  3. ((c))

    Indifferent and disinterested

  4. ((d))

    Pessimistic and cautious

  5. ((e))

    Biased and subjective

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Optimistic and encouraging

37

Which of the following can fit in the blank given in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    underscores the overall improvement

  2. ((b))

    criticized the lack of progress

  3. ((c))

    ignored the changes

  4. ((d))

    reported a decline

  5. ((e))

    questioned the reliability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

underscores the overall improvement

38

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (A)?

  1. ((a))

    Budget

  2. ((b))

    Strategy

  3. ((c))

    Threshold

  4. ((d))

    Expectations

  5. ((e))

    Reliance

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Expectations

39

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (B)?

  1. ((a))

    Foundation

  2. ((b))

    Credibility

  3. ((c))

    Profitability

  4. ((d))

    Probability

  5. ((e))

    Conformity

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Credibility

40

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (C)?

  1. ((a))

    Sustained

  2. ((b))

    Confirmed

  3. ((c))

    Issued

  4. ((d))

    Noticed

  5. ((e))

    Achieved

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Achieved

41

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (D)?

  1. ((a))

    Ceiling

  2. ((b))

    Threshold

  3. ((c))

    Bound

  4. ((d))

    Adjustment

  5. ((e))

    Band

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Threshold

42

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (E)?

  1. ((a))

    Stagflation

  2. ((b))

    Recession

  3. ((c))

    Inflation

  4. ((d))

    Economy

  5. ((e))

    Funding

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Inflation

43

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (F)?

  1. ((a))

    Geared

  2. ((b))

    Framed

  3. ((c))

    Tightened

  4. ((d))

    Availed

  5. ((e))

    Prevented

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Geared

44

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (G)?

  1. ((a))

    Developed

  2. ((b))

    Complied

  3. ((c))

    Explained

  4. ((d))

    Assessed

  5. ((e))

    Introduced

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Introduced

45

Which of the following given words will make the sentence meaningful by filling in the blank (H)?

  1. ((a))

    Campaign

  2. ((b))

    Assurance

  3. ((c))

    Assertion

  4. ((d))

    Attestation

  5. ((e))

    Endeavour

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Endeavour

46

In the given sentences, a blank is given indicating that a word is missing. Among the four given options, a combination of words would fit the blank thereby making it grammatically and contextually correct. Choose that option as your response.

The electrons in the neutral plasma were not

by

vibrations

in

the atomic lattice either.

  1. ((a))

    AD

  2. ((b))

    BC

  3. ((c))

    BD

  4. ((d))

    CD

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BC

47

In the given sentences, a blank is given indicating that a word is missing. Among the four given options, a combination of words would fit the blank thereby making it grammatically and contextually correct. Choose that option as your response.

Reporting on crime can be hard, but talking to victims of

crimes is the greater challenge.

  1. ((a))

    BD

  2. ((b))

    BC

  3. ((c))

    AD

  4. ((d))

    CD

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CD

48

Directions: In the following question, two sentences are given followed by three phrases. Select the phrase/phrases (starter) which can be used in the beginning to form a single sentence from the given two sentences, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

I.The poles of the planet were not pointed towards Earth.

II. But since 2014, Scientists have had a better view of Uranus's pole and therefore have been able to look deeper into the polar atmosphere.

(a)Over several decades, the poles of the planet were not pointed towards Earth

(b)Because the last five years, the poles of the

(c)For many decades, the poles of the

  1. ((a))

    Only (a) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    Only (a)

  3. ((c))

    Only (b) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    Only (c)

  5. ((e))

    All (a), (b), and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (a) and (c)

49

Directions: In the following question, two sentences are given followed by three phrases. Select the phrase/phrases (starter) which can be used in the beginning to form a single sentence from the given two sentences, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

I. The loss and damage framework developed at COP27, is aimed at supporting most impacted countries which is viewed as an integral part of climate justice, concerns remain on

II.Whether wealthy countries would be willing to pay any liabilities or reparations

(a)Fortunately, the loss and damage.

(b)Although the loss and damage.

(c)Besides the loss and damage.

  1. ((a))

    Only (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    Only (a)

  3. ((c))

    Only (b) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    Only (b)

  5. ((e))

    All (a), (b), and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only (b)

50

Directions: In the following question, two sentences are given followed by three phrases. Select the phrase/phrases (starter) which can be used in the beginning to form a single sentence from the given two sentences, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

I. The Centre may set goals, and use carrots and sticks to help achieve them

II.The realisation of these goals often depends on how they are aligned with State priorities and capabilities

(a)Though the Centre may set ......

(b)While the Centre may set ..

(c)Whereas, the Centre may set

  1. ((a))

    Only (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    Only (a)

  3. ((c))

    Only (b) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    Only (c)

  5. ((e))

    All (a), (b), and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All (a), (b), and (c)

Reasoning Ability (50 questions)

Approximate Value / Quantitative

Directions (51-55) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Directions: What approximate value comes in the place of the question mark (?) In the following question? Q51

51
  • of 1445 - 25.998 + 20. 023% of 1650.02 =?
  1. ((a))

    510

  2. ((b))

    450

  3. ((c))

    550

  4. ((d))

    620

  5. ((e))

    750

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

510

52

2156.21 + 1245 : 5.99 =? + 154.99

  1. ((a))

    1980

  2. ((b))

    2040

  3. ((c))

    2208

  4. ((d))

    2450

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2208

53

11445 × 24.99 - 2 of 400 =?

  1. ((a))

    817

  2. ((b))

    780

  3. ((c))

    710

  4. ((d))

    920

  5. ((e))

    1080

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

817

54

124% of 9107.99 - 245.04 : 3.024 =?

  1. ((a))

    880

  2. ((b))

    1021

  3. ((c))

    1200

  4. ((d))

    1320

  5. ((e))

    1450

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1021

55

99.99 × 4.024 + 3215.021 -124.895 × 25.01 = ?

  1. ((a))

    440

  2. ((b))

    490

  3. ((c))

    520

  4. ((d))

    550

  5. ((e))

    575

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

490

56

Find the wrong term in the following series: 20, 24.5, 33.5, 46, 65, 87.5

  1. ((a))

    24.5

  2. ((b))

    33.5

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    65

  5. ((e))

    87.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

46

57

Find the wrong term in the following series: 12, 16, 36, 68, 132, 232

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    68

  5. ((e))

    132

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

36

58

Find the wrong term in the following series: 145, 152, 162, 173, 196, 201

  1. ((a))

    145

  2. ((b))

    152

  3. ((c))

    161

  4. ((d))

    172

  5. ((e))

    196

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

196

59

Find the wrong term in the following series: 24, 25, 27, 30, 35, 39, 45

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    39

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

35

60

Find the wrong term in the following series: 15, 51, 95, 383, 1919, 11519

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    51

  3. ((c))

    383

  4. ((d))

    1919

  5. ((e))

    11519

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

51

Train Passengers Line Graph

Directions (61-65) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Direction: Study the given line graph carefully and answer the following questions.

The line graph below shows the total number of people traveling from Delhi to Lucknow in 2 different Trains from Monday to Friday.

61

What is the average no. of people traveling in Train A?

  1. ((a))

    654

  2. ((b))

    600

  3. ((c))

    700

  4. ((d))

    720

  5. ((e))

    714

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

654

62

2 What is the ratio of people traveled on Wednesday and Friday together by train B to the people travelled on Monday and Tuesday together by train A?

  1. ((a))

    49: 43

  2. ((b))

    77:78

  3. ((c))

    77: 71

  4. ((d))

    55: 49

  5. ((e))

    30: 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

77: 71

63

If no. of people traveling on Saturday by train A from the previous day is increased by 00% and people travelling on Saturday by train B decreased by 11.11% from the previous day, then find the ratio of people traveling on Saturday by train A to people travelling on Saturday by train B.

  1. ((a))

    7: 8

  2. ((b))

    3: 4

  3. ((c))

    5: 8

  4. ((d))

    3: 7

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7: 8

64

People traveling on Tuesday and Thursday together by train B is how much percent more/less than people traveling on Wednesday and Friday together by train A?

  1. ((a))

    25 %

  2. ((b))

    19금%

  3. ((c))

    202%

  4. ((d))

    182 %

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 %

65

Find the total no. of people traveling from train B?

  1. ((a))

    3500

  2. ((b))

    3300

  3. ((c))

    3400

  4. ((d))

    4400

  5. ((e))

    3600

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3400

Shoes Manufacture/Sales Table

Directions (66-70) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Direction: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In the below table, the number of shoes manufactured and the percentage of shoes sold by two companies Nike and Adidas in five different months January, February, March, April, and May is given.

66

What is the difference between the number of shoes manufactured by Nike and Adidas in March together and the number of shoes manufactured by Nike and Adidas in May?

  1. ((a))

    230

  2. ((b))

    300

  3. ((c))

    350

  4. ((d))

    400

  5. ((e))

    325

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

230

67

What is the ratio of 20% of the total number of shoes sold by Adidas in February and 40% of the total number of shoes sold by Nike in April?

  1. ((a))

    7: 18

  2. ((b))

    27: 80

  3. ((c))

    8: 15

  4. ((d))

    9: 20

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

27: 80

68

The number of shoes sold by Nike in January is what percent of the number of shoes manufactured by Adidas in February?

  1. ((a))

    45%

  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))

    56%

  4. ((d))

    80%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

56%

69

What is the ratio of the number of shoes sold by Nike in January and March together to the number of shoes manufactured by Adidas in May and January together?

  1. ((a))

    49: 127

  2. ((b))

    51: 98

  3. ((c))

    57: 107

  4. ((d))

    7: 17

  5. ((e))

    77: 170

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

77: 170

70

If the total number of shoes manufactured by Nike in June is 750 and the ratio of the number of shoes sold by Nike in April to June is 8:9, the number of shoes sold by Nike in June is what percent of the number of shoes manufactured by Nike in June?

  1. ((a))

    80%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    72%

  5. ((e))

    77%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

72%

Applications Pie & Table

Directions (71-75) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Directions: The pie chart given below shows the total number of candidates who had applied for executive posts in five different MNCs. The table shows the percentage of applications rejected and the percentage of candidates who appeared for MNC interviews out of the total number of applications accepted. Read the data carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Total number of candidates - 24000

MNC data table: % of application Rejected and % of candidates appeared in interview (table appears above in source).

71

If 40% and 20% of the total number of appeared candidates for MNC R and T for executive posts respectively get the desired post, then the total number of candidates that get the desired post in both MNCs is what percentage of the total number of candidates appeared in MNC S for interview of executive post?

  1. ((a))

    84%

  2. ((b))

    80%

  3. ((c))

    74%

  4. ((d))

    60%

  5. ((e))

    90%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84%

72

If 20% of the total appeared candidates in the interview for the executive post in MNC P and &thof the total appeared candidates in the interview for the executive post in MNC S, get the desired post, find the ratio between the number of candidates who get the desired post in MNC P to the number of candidates who get the desired post in MNC S.

  1. ((a))

    5: 6

  2. ((b))

    6: 11

  3. ((c))

    5: 10

  4. ((d))

    9: 10

  5. ((e))

    9: 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9: 10

73

25% of the total number of candidates who appeared in the interview for MNC Q got the desired post and out of the total number of candidates who got the desired post, the ratio between the number of girls to that of boys is 4:5. If out of the total number of candidates applied for executive post for MNC Q, two fifth are girls, then what percentage of total number of applied girls get the desired post?

  1. ((a))

    34%

  2. ((b))

    62%

  3. ((c))

    134%

  4. ((d))

    92%

  5. ((e))

    82%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34%

74

Find the difference between the total number of candidates who appeared in interviews for executive posts in MNC P and S.

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    9

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

75

If 20% of the total number of appeared candidates in the interview for the executive post for MNC P, then find the desired post for MNC P?

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    140

  4. ((d))

    150

  5. ((e))

    180

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

180

76

Mahesh invested Rs 'a' in a bank offering 10% compound interest for three years. Dinesh invested Rs 2000 more than Mahesh in another bank offering 11% simple interest for three years. Find the value of 'a' if the interest earned by Dinesh is Rs 625 more than the interest earned by Mahesh.

  1. ((a))

    Rs 33000

  2. ((b))

    Rs 25000

  3. ((c))

    Rs 27000

  4. ((d))

    Rs 35000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs 35000

77

Ranjeet drove from home to his office at 75 miles per hour and reached the office in 6 hours. While returning home he drove one-third way along the same route at a speed of 30 miles per hour and the remaining distance he covered in 2 hours. Find the average speed of returning.

  1. ((a))

    108.56 miles/hr

  2. ((b))

    128.57 miles/hr

  3. ((c))

    124.27 miles/hr

  4. ((d))

    90.75 miles/hr

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

128.57 miles/hr

78

Umesh and Ramesh together can do a piece of work in 36 days and Ramesh alone can do the 25% of the work in 12 days. What fraction of work done by Umesh alone in 20 days?

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    36

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

36

79

10 men can do a piece of work in 5 days working 6 hours a day. If the efficiency of a man and a boy is 3:1, then in how many days same work done by 6 men and 21 boys together when men work per day 12 hours and boys work per day 4 hours?

  1. ((a))

    1 days

  2. ((b))

    2 days

  3. ((c))

    3 days

  4. ((d))

    4 days

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3 days

80

A class has 26 students. If the top scorer's score is not considered, the average score of the remaining class falls by 1 mark. Instead, if the lowest scorer's score is not considered, the average score of the remaining student increases by 2 marks. If the top scorer's score and the lowest scorer's score are in the ratio of 17: 2, what is the score of the top scorer?

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    85

  4. ((d))

    90

  5. ((e))

    95

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

85

81

A lady bought 90 liters mixture of milk and water in which the ratio of milk and water is 2:3. How much water be evaporated so that the percentage of water becomes 25%?

  1. ((a))

    42 liters

  2. ((b))

    45 liters

  3. ((c))

    60 liters

  4. ((d))

    50 liters

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42 liters

82

The number of boys appearing for an Entrance test is 80% of the number of girls. If 45% of the girls and 40% of the boys get admission, the percentage of candidates who do not get admission is:

  1. ((a))

    50.50%

  2. ((b))

    57.22%

  3. ((c))

    62.50

  4. ((d))

    72.56

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

57.22%

83

In an election between two candidates A and B, 80% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 25% of the votes were declared invalid. If candidate A got 56% of the valid votes and won by 360 votes, then find the total number of voters.

  1. ((a))

    4500

  2. ((b))

    5000

  3. ((c))

    6000

  4. ((d))

    5400

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5000

84

The marked price is 40% more than the selling price of an article A and the profit earned on selling is 25%. If the difference between profit and the difference between cost price and marked price is Rs. 400, then find the profit on article A?

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    240

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200

85

Pawan sold a book at 44% profit. If the same book was sold at 22% loss then Pawan would have earned Rs. 396 less. What was the marked price of the book if Pawan marked the book 45% above the cost price?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 640

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 770

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 870

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 920

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 870

86

The length of two trains (A and B) is 270 m and 720 m, respectively. If they are going in the same direction, train B takes 55 seconds to pass train A completely and if they are going in opposite directions, they pass each other completely in 9 seconds. Find the speed of train A?

  1. ((a))

    48 m/s

  2. ((b))

    51 m/s

  3. ((c))

    55 m/s

  4. ((d))

    60 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

55 m/s

87

P and Q enter into a partnership and invested Rs. 42000 and Rs. 54000 respectively. If they split half of the profit equally for their efforts and the remaining balance in the ratio of their investments, then Q got Rs. 510 more than P. What was the profit made in the partnership ?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 6480

  2. ((b))

    Rs 7280

  3. ((c))

    Rs 8160

  4. ((d))

    Rs 5496

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs 8160

88

Ravi and Ramya got married 9 years ago when the age of Ramya was 20% less than Ravi. 4 years from now, the age of Ramya will be only 10% less than Ravi. Now, they have six children including a single, twins and triplets; the ratio of their ages is 2 : 3 : 4, respectively. What can be the maximum possible value for the present age of his family?

  1. ((a))

    80.6 years

  2. ((b))

    83.4 years

  3. ((c))

    88.8 years

  4. ((d))

    86.6 years

  5. ((e))

    81.4 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

81.4 years

89

A path of width 4 m has been made inside along the boundary of a rectangular field. The length of the field is 48 m and the area of the field is 1440 m2. How many tiles of dimension 80 × 56 cm2 will be required to pave the path?

  1. ((a))

    1100

  2. ((b))

    1180

  3. ((c))

    1250

  4. ((d))

    1340

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1250

90

A box contains 4 blue pens, and 5 green pens, and 6 red pens. Two pens are drawn at random from the box. What is the probability that the ball drawn is either red or green?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

21

Quantities Comparison

Directions (91-93) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Direction: In the following question two Quantity are given in variables Quantity I and Quantity II. You have to solve this Quantity and determine the relation between Quantity I and Quantity II Q91

91

Quantity I: Area of circle in (cm2) having a circumference of 132 cm.

Quantity II: Area of square in (cm2) having side 25 cm.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity II > Quantity I

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

92

Quantity I: A boat crosses the river 500m long runs the speeds of 30m/s upstream 50 m/s on downstream, then the speed of the stream is

Quantity II: A boat crosses the river 500m long run the speeds of 30m/s upstream 50 m/s on downstream, then the speed of the boat in still water is

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity II > Quantity I

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Quantity II > Quantity I

93

Quantity I: In how many ways can a committee of 4 boys and 4 girls be selected from 9 boys and 9 girls respectively? Quantity II: In how many ways can a committee of 6 boys and 5 girls be selected from 9 boys and 9 girls respectively?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity II > Quantity I

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity | > Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

Data Sufficiency (Two Statements)

Directions (94-95) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer. Q94

94

The ratio between the length and breadth of a rectangular park 'A' is 7: 6. Find the area of a square field 'B'.

I. The length of the rectangular park 'A' is 50% more than the radius of a circle whose area is 2464 m2.

II. The perimeter of rectangular park 'A' is 28 m more than the perimeter of square field 'B'.

  1. ((a))

    if statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II alone is not sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    if both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question

  4. ((d))

    if either the statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    if you cannot get the answer from statements I and II together but need even more data.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

if both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question

95

Pranav sold a mobile cover to Ritesh at 25% profit. If Ritesh purchased cover from Pranav in Rs. 250, then find the profit percentage of Nitin if Pranav bought this mobile cover from Nitin. I. Nitin sold the cover for Rs. 50 more than its cost price to Pranav. II. If Nitin sold the article to Ritesh at the same price as Pranav sold it to Ritesh, then he made an overall profit of 162%.

  1. ((a))

    if statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II alone is not sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    if both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question

  4. ((d))

    if either the statement I alone or statement Il alone is sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    if you cannot get the answer from statements I and II together but need even more data.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

if either the statement I alone or statement Il alone is sufficient to answer the question

Three Friends Marks (Aman, Baman, Chaman)

Directions (96-100) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below.

Three friends Aman, Baman, and Chaman are studying in the same class. Each of them takes five subjects English, Hindi, Science, History and Art. The college conducted the half yearly examination and the college decided the maximum marks for each subject is 150. The average marks obtained by Aman in all subjects is 100. The percentage of marks obtained by Aman in English, Hindi, Science and History are 60%, 80%, 90% and 50% respectively. Baman scored average marks in all subjects 95. The marks obtained by Baman in Hindi, Science, History and Art are 115, 125, 80, and 70 respectively. The marks obtain in science by Chaman is 80. The average marks obtained by Chaman in the first three subjects English, Hindi, and Sciences is 60 and the last three subjects Science, history and Art is 110.

96

What is the ratio of marks obtained by Aman in Art to the marks obtained by Baman in English?

  1. ((a))

    15: 17

  2. ((b))

    16: 17

  3. ((c))

    8: 9

  4. ((d))

    11: 12

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16: 17

97

If Chaman scored in history 40 marks more than the marks scored by Baman in History, then find the percentage of marks obtained by Chaman in History.

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    80%

  3. ((c))

    90%

  4. ((d))

    100%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

80%

98

If Chaman scored in history 40 marks more than the marks scored by Baman in History then what is the ratio of marks obtained by Baman in Hindi to the marks obtained by Chaman in Art?

  1. ((a))

    23: 26

  2. ((b))

    21: 23

  3. ((c))

    22: 27

  4. ((d))

    12: 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

23: 26

99

If Marks obtained by Chaman in Hindi is 60, then what is the ratio of marks obtained by Chaman and Aman in English?

  1. ((a))

    4: 7

  2. ((b))

    3: 5

  3. ((c))

    2: 7

  4. ((d))

    4: 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4: 9

100

What is the average marks obtained by Aman, Baman, and Chaman in Science?

  1. ((a))

    120.15

  2. ((b))

    124.25

  3. ((c))

    128.56

  4. ((d))

    113.33

  5. ((e))

    141.23

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

113.33

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

101

Read both of the following conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Statements:

Only a few potions are edible.

Some bubbles are edible.

All bubbles are gum.

Conclusions:

I. Some gum is edible.

II. No gum is edible.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

102

Read both of the following conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Statements:

Only a few arms are orbis.

Some armours are orbis.

No arm is an armour.

Conclusions:

I. All orbis can never be arms.

Il. Some armours are definitely not orbis.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion Il follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or Il follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

103

Read both of the following conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Statements: All nails are jaws.

No jaw is a item.

All items are knees.

Conclusions:

I. Some knees are items

II. No item is nail.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both conclusions I and II follow

104

Read both of the following conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Statements:

Some D are H.

All H are J.

Only few D are J.

Conclusions:

  1. ((a))

    If only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    If only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    If either conclusion I or II follows.

  4. ((d))

    If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    If both conclusions I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Week Schedule Puzzle (J K L M N O P)

Directions (105-109) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend the classes in a week starting from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. No two people attend the same class on the same day.

Number of people attend the class after J is same as the number of people attend the class before J. L attend the class before K. Three people attend the class between N and M, who attend the class after Friday. Number of people attend the class between L and P is same as the number of people attend the class between K and O. M attend the class immediately after O. K does not attend the class on Wednesday. Two people attend the class between L and J, who attend the class after L. P does not attend the class on Tuesday. K and L are not adjacent to each other.

105

Who attend the class on Friday?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    O

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

O

106

How many persons attend the class between O and K?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

One

107

Who attends the class immediately above J ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    O

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    M

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

108

If all the people are arranged in the increasing alphabetical order from Monday to Sunday, then how many people remain same as before.

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    None

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

None

109

Four of the five options are related to each other in some manner. Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    L-P

  2. ((b))

    O-K

  3. ((c))

    J-M

  4. ((d))

    N-J

  5. ((e))

    P-M

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

P-M

Riddhi Walking Directions

Directions (110-112) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Riddhi starts walking from her home to the tuition classes. She walks 4m from her home in the south direction and reaches the stationary shop. She buys a notebook, takes a left turn and walk for 6m in the same direction to reach an ice-cream shop. She buys an ice-cream and takes a right turn. She walks 8m in the same direction till MG Road and takes a right turn. She walks for 10m in the same direction to reach her tuition.

110

What is the shortest distance between stationary shop and MG Road?

  1. ((a))

    8m

  2. ((b))

    10m

  3. ((c))

    15m

  4. ((d))

    18m

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10m

111

What is the direction of tuition with respect to Ice-cream shop?

  1. ((a))

    Noth

  2. ((b))

    South east

  3. ((c))

    South West

  4. ((d))

    West

  5. ((e))

    North west

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

South West

112

What is the direction of tuition with respect to Ice-cream shop?

  1. ((a))

    Noth

  2. ((b))

    South east

  3. ((c))

    South West

  4. ((d))

    West

  5. ((e))

    North west

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

South West

113

If a four-letter meaningful word can be formed by using the first, fourth, fifth, and sixth letters from the word "EVERYDAY", then what is the last letter from the left end of the newly formed word? Mark X as your answer, if more than one word is formed. Mark Z, if no meaningful word can be formed.

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    Z

  5. ((e))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

X

Linear Seating with Colors (8 persons)

Directions (114-118) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting in the linear row such that all are facing the north direction but not necessarily in the same order. All persons have gift boxes of different colours viz., Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, White, Black, Pink, and Violet but not necessarily in the same order.

The one who has a yellow colour gift box sits two places away from the one who has a violet colour box. W has a violet colour box and sits on any one of the extreme ends of the row. V sits immediate left of Q. Only one person sits between T and S, who has a black colour box. R sits at the end of the row and has a blue colour box. U has the pink colour box and sits in the middle of S and T. T has the red colour box and sits on the right of U. The one who has a green colour box sits adjacent to W. P is an immediate neighbour of S. At least 3 persons sit between the one who has a violet colour box and the one who has a black colour box. Q does not have a green colour box. P does not have a yellow colour box and is not an immediate neighbour of R. S is not an immediate neighbour of R.

114

Who among the following has a white colour box?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

P

115

Who among the following sits second to the left of the one who has a black colour box?

  1. ((a))

    The one who has yellow colour box

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    Both A and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both A and C

116

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one which doesn't belong to the group.

  1. ((a))

    T - Red

  2. ((b))

    P - White

  3. ((c))

    Q- Yellow

  4. ((d))

    V - Green

  5. ((e))

    R - violet

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

R - violet

117

How many persons sit between Q and the one who has a red colour box?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

118

Who among the following person is an immediate neighbour of W?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    T

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

V

Coding-Decoding

Directions (119-123) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Study the following directions and answer the questions given below. In a certain code language: "Wonder am sun moon" is coded as "kf xt tp kg" "Dull moon of space" is coded as "rl kg po nm" "Sun dull am room" is coded as "xt tp pm rl" "Dull fill the wonder" is coded as "rl dv qp kf" Q119

119

What is the code for "dull" in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    xt

  2. ((b))

    rl

  3. ((c))

    pm

  4. ((d))

    tp

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

rl

120

What is the code for 'room wonder' in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    qp po

  2. ((b))

    dv pm

  3. ((c))

    nm dv

  4. ((d))

    pm kf

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

pm kf

121

What is the code for 'moon' in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    rl

  2. ((b))

    dv

  3. ((c))

    kg

  4. ((d))

    tp

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

kg

122

The code for 'xt' stands for?

  1. ((a))

    Am

  2. ((b))

    of

  3. ((c))

    Sun

  4. ((d))

    Either (a) or (c)

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Either (a) or (c)

123

What is the code for 'space' in the given code langauge?

  1. ((a))

    qp

  2. ((b))

    nm

  3. ((c))

    rl

  4. ((d))

    po

  5. ((e))

    Either (b) or (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Either (b) or (d)

124

How many such pairs of letters are in the word "COUNTER" which has as many letters between them as there are in the English alphabetical series (both forward and backward)?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

Square Table Seating (12 persons)

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly. Twelve persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a square table with a perimeter of 60m. One person sits at each corner and two persons sit at each side of the table with equal distances between each other. All are facing the centre. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. M sits 10m away from W who sits at the corner of the table. Q sits 15m right of M. The distance between Q and O is 5m. The distance between M and O is the same as the distance between M and T. The distance between T and U is 5m more than the distance between W and Q(counted right of W). The one who sits opposite to U sits second to the right of L. R sits second to the left of the one who sits immediately left of U. The distance between R and T is the same as between T and S. V neither sits adjacent to S nor T. The distance from the left of V to N is 5m more than the distance from the left of N to P. Neither P nor T sits adjacent to R and O. Q125

125

Who among the following person sits immediate right of V?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    The one who sits immediate right of T

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    The one who sits second to the left of O

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The one who sits immediate right of T

126

Who among the following person sits exactly between P and V when counted from the left of P?

  1. ((a))

    The one who sits second to the left of L

  2. ((b))

    O

  3. ((c))

    The one who sits immediate right of U

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

127

Which of the following statement is/are False?

  1. ((a))

    P and R sit opposite to each other

  2. ((b))

    The distance from the right of W to V is 15m

  3. ((c))

    T sits 10m away from the right of P

  4. ((d))

    V and T are immediate neighbors

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

V and T are immediate neighbors

128

In which of the following statements 1st person does not sit exactly between the 2nd and 3rd person in the final arrangement?

I. MRV

II. WNR

III. QOS

  1. ((a))

    Only II

  2. ((b))

    Only I and III

  3. ((c))

    Only III

  4. ((d))

    All I, II, and III

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only III

129

What is the distance between W and P when counted to the left of W?

  1. ((a))

    10m

  2. ((b))

    30m

  3. ((c))

    25m

  4. ((d))

    15m

  5. ((e))

    20m

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

20m

130

In the given questions, assuming the given statements to be true. Find which of the given two conclusions number I and II is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

Statements:

1>2≥3;4≤5<6=3;7≤8≤9=4

Conclusions:

I. 1 > 4

II. 5 ≥7

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion Il true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion Il true

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il true

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and conclusion Il true

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both conclusion I and conclusion Il true

131

In the given questions, assuming the given statements to be true. Find which of the given two conclusions number I and II is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

Statements:

|> Z ≥K <J ; ISH =G; X <Y>G

Conclusions:

I. J ≥ H

II. K < Y

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion Il true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II true

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and conclusion II true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion Il true

132

In the given questions, assuming the given statements to be true. Find which of the given two conclusions number I and II is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

Statements:

B<R=K;Q>A≤Y<Z;Q<S≤F≤K

Conclusions:

I. S≤R II. F > A

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II true

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and conclusion II true

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both conclusion I and conclusion II true

133

In the given questions, assuming the given statements to be true. Find which of the given two conclusions number I and II is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Statements: B < N, N = U > R, O < T ≥ R Conclusions: I. T ≥ B II. B > T

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion Il true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion Il true

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il true

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion I and conclusion Il true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Either conclusion I or conclusion Il true

134

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and Il given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

Six boxes namely - X, U, V, D, K and L are kept one above other, each box contains different colour balls viz. Pink, green, blue, Violet, Maroon and White. Box U is kept third from top at a gap of one box from one that contains Violet colour ball. Box D contains Maroon colour ball, which is neither kept adjacent to box U nor adjacent to the one that contain Violet colour ball, is kept just above one that contains green colour ball. How many boxes are kept below one contains white colour ball?

I. Box which contains Blue and violet colour balls are kept together. Box L, which neither contains Blue nor contains violet colour ball, is kept at a gap of two from box X. Box which contains Blue colour ball is kept at a gap of three from box K.

II. L which contains Pink colour ball is kept at a gap of two from box X, which neither contains Blue colour ball nor kept adjacent to box D.

Only two boxes are kept between box K and box which contains white colour ball.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

135

Directions:Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and Il given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

What is the position of Rahul with respect to Vivek ?

I. In a row of 27 students, Rahul is sitting 13th from right end of the row and Vivek is sitting 21st from the left end of the row.

Il. Rahul is sitting 8th from right end and Vivek is sitting 10th from left end in a row.

  1. ((a))

    If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  2. ((b))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

136

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

How is ' Enjoy ' written in code language ? I. In same code 'done enjoy strike' is written as ' pl eh xz ' and 'pain done enjoy is written as ' eh ku pľ'

Il. In same code ' Strike into account' is written as ' xz na aq' and ' 'use pain enjoy' is written as ' ku kv eh '

  1. ((a))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

  2. ((b))

    If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

  4. ((d))

    If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement Il alone is sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    If the data in Statement Il alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

137

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

Salary of eight people L, P, R, T, X, A, D and F are given differently. How many peoples salary is more than P?

I. Salary of X is more than T and D, but not as much as R and A. Salary of R is more than P and T, but not as much as L and A. Salary of only two persons are less than T. Salary of A is highest among all the people. Salary of F is lowest among all.

II. Salary of P is more than D and F, but not as much as L and X. Salary of R is more than T and D, but not as much as P and A. F's salary is lowest and the A's salary is highest . Salary of only Three people are more than X.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

  2. ((b))

    If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  3. ((c))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

  4. ((d))

    If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement Il alone is not sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Meeting Dates Puzzle (8 persons)

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly. Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are attending the meeting the different dates viz- either 16 or 27 of four different months viz- September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order. U attending the meeting on an odd date but not in the month which has less than 31 days. Only two persons were attending the meeting between U and P. Only one person attending the meeting between S and P. P attending before S. At most two persons are attending the meeting after Q. V attending the meeting immediately before W. R attending the meeting an odd numbered date. Only two persons are attending the meeting between R and T. V attending the meeting two person after T. R is attending the meeting before T. Q138

138

How many person are attending the meeting between S and V?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

139

Which of the following person attending the meeting two person after Q?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    U

  5. ((e))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W

140

Which of the following person attending the meeting immediately before V?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

141

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following one does not belong to that group?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    W

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

W

142

In a certain way, If W related to Q, T related to S then who among the following person is related to R?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

Assumptions / Arguments / Reasoning

In each question a statement is given, followed by two assumptions, numbered I and II. An assumption is supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

143

Statement: The IMF has advised China to address its high corporate debt levels that have resulted from the easy monetary policy put in place during the coronavirus pandemic.

Assumptions:

I. An easy monetary policy can help a country to overcome an economic crisis caused due to a pandemic.

Il. An easy monetary policy makes it easier for businesses to get loans.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only Il is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Both (I) and (II) are implicit

  4. ((d))

    Neither (I) nor (II) are implicit

  5. ((e))

    Either (I) or (II) are implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both (I) and (II) are implicit

144

Statement: When China, one of the world's largest steel producing nations, seems to be facing a real estate crisis, it is bound to upset or even topple the prospects of steelmakers worldwide.

Assumptions:

I. The real estate sector of China consumes a significant proportion of steel produced globally.

II. The real estate sector accounts for a considerable portion of China's GDP growth.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only II is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are implicit

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is implicit

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II is implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is implicit

145

Statement:

My son really doesn't want to wear boy clothes. He prefers to wear girl clothes. The fashion world has divided children into pink and blue. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument?

  1. ((a))

    There is a growing demand for different clothing for babies and toddlers too.

  2. ((b))

    People are differentiated on the idea that you have very masculine and very feminine things.

  3. ((c))

    There is a whole community out there of parents and kids who are struggling with pink and blue.

  4. ((d))

    The preference for neutral clothing is unstirred irrespective of gender, age and category.

  5. ((e))

    I'm really keen on the gender binary and the gender roles.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The preference for neutral clothing is unstirred irrespective of gender, age and category.

146

Statement: Should the Indian securities market regulator SEBI allow the European securities market regulator to inspect Indian clearing corporations under a new pact?

Arguments:

I. No, because inspection by overseas market regulators may result in the Indian regulator ceding regulatory ground to an authority that is exercising extraterritorial jurisdiction over Indian companies.

II. No, because this could set a precedent for other countries to follow suit and demand the right to inspect Indian companies.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is strong

  2. ((b))

    Only ll is strong

  3. ((c))

    Either I and II are strong

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor Il are Strong

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II are strong

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both I and II are strong

147

Statement: Eating protein makes up around half of the animal byproducts (hair, skin, horns, etc.). 45 per cent of these proteins can be isolated using a technique created by American Chemist. To digest the soy protein, they employed an enzyme created in Japan.

Conclusions:

I. Enzyme development has not been successful in Americans.

II. The composition of animal byproduct proteins is identical to that of soy protein.

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Only II

  3. ((c))

    Both follow

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Neither I nor II

Family Tree (Tony etc.)

Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly. Eight members - Tony, Srikant, Raman, Love, Chitra, Preeti, Koyal and Juhi consists of a family of three generations such that there are two married couples and four males. Love's brother is the father of both Chitra and Srikant and both are unmarried. Juhi is the maternal aunt of Chitra. Raman is the father- in-law of Koyal who is a female. Preeti is the paternal grandmother of both Chitra and Srikant. Raman has only two sons. Srikant is a male member. Q148

148

How is Chitra related to Tony?

  1. ((a))

    Son

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Father

  4. ((d))

    Mother

  5. ((e))

    Wife

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Daughter

149

How many daughters does Tony have?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

150

Who is the unmarried child of Preeti?

  1. ((a))

    Love

  2. ((b))

    Tony

  3. ((c))

    Koyal

  4. ((d))

    Chitra

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chitra

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