Official Paper

RRB PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 29 September 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons G, L, M, O, P, T, V and X sit on a rectangular table in such a way four persons sit on corner of the table and faces away from the centre and four persons sit on the middle of the side of the table faces towards the centre and each person has a different profession which are Architect, Chef, Chartered Accountant (CA), Designer, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer and Teacher but not necessarily in same order. M sits second to the left of the person who is an Engineer. The person who is Chef faces the one who is Doctor. O and the one who is an Architect sit immediate right to each other. Neither V nor T is an Engineer. V sits second to the left of the person who sits immediate right to G. X and L sit opposite to each other. G faces the one who is Designer. The person who is Teacher sits immediate right to T. L is not the neighbour of M. Neither X nor L is Chartered Accountant. V does not sit at the middle of the table. The person who is a Doctor does not sit adjacent to the one who is an Engineer. Neither O nor X is Doctor. Not more than one person can sit between T and the one who is Chef when counted from left side of T.

Who sits second to the left of the person who is a Lawyer?

((a))
O
((b))
T
((c))
V
((d))
M
((e))
P

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Who among them is the Chartered Accountant?

((a))
T
((b))
V
((c))
M
((d))
G
((e))
P

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Who sits immediate right to the person who sits third to the left of P?

((a))
L
((b))
O
((c))
V
((d))
T
((e))
M

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Find the odd one out.

((a))
V
((b))
L
((c))
P
((d))
M
((e))
X

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct?

A) T and V sits immediate left to each other.

B) O sits opposite to T.

C) The person who is Teacher sits opposite to the one who is Chartered Accountant.

((a))
Both B and C
((b))
Only B
((c))
Both A and C
((d))
Only A
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both B and C

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons A, E, H, L, N, O, R and X have a different height are standing in a line in ascending order that is from shortest to tallest but not necessarily in same order. E is taller than A but shorter than O. N is taller than both X and E. As many person taller than O as many person shorter than L. R is taller than X and H but not shorter than N. H is just taller than L. X is the fourth shortest person. The height of second shortest person is 150 cm and the height of tallest person is 178 cm.

Who among them is third tallest person?

((a))
O
((b))
R
((c))
E
((d))
X
((e))
N

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

((a))
H is second shortest person.
((b))
A is taller than L.
((c))
O is shorter than R.
((d))
N is just taller than E.
((e))
All are correct

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

H is second shortest person.

What could be possible height of the L?

((a))
158
((b))
160
((c))
155
((d))
146
((e))
164

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

158

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language:

‘Winters comes after Monsoon’ is written as ‘ntxp awkf rmil vcgn’.

‘Summer brings holiday’ is written as ‘qnlj hebd yeau’.

‘Monsoon comes after Summer’ is written as ‘hebd ntxp rmil vcgn’.

‘Summer is hot’ is written as ‘fhqp mtop hebd’.

What can be the possible code for the word 'Winters'?

((a))
ntxp
((b))
awkf
((c))
rmil
((d))
vcgn
((e))
Can not be determine.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

ntxp

In a nine digit number 964582735, if each odd place digit is subtracted by one and even place digit is added by two then remove all the repeated digits and arrange in descending order then what is the sum of second digit from left end and third digit from the right end ?

((a))
13
((b))
9
((c))
15
((d))
7
((e))
11

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Seven persons B, G, J, M, Q, R and T sit on a horizontal row and facing towards north direction but not necessarily in same order. Who sits immediate right to Q?

Statement I. Q sits second to the left of M who sits fourth to the right of G. Only one person sits between B and R who does not sit to the right of Q. B and M are not immediate neighbour to each other. J sits second to the right of R.

Statement II. Only two persons sit between Q and B who sits at one of the extreme end. J sits adjacent to Q. R sits immediate right to G who sits adjacent to B.

((a))
Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((b))
Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the given question.
((c))
Both statement I and statement II are required to answer the given question.
((d))
Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((e))
Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Seven persons D, F, H, K, O, P and S are sit on horizontal row according to their seniority in decreasing order. Who among them is the junior most person?

Statement I. O is senior to H but junior to K. F is senior to both S and D, who is junior to H. P is senior to F but not the senior most person.

Statement II. As many person senior to H as many junior to him. P is senior to F who is senior to D. S is not junior among all.

((a))
Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the given question.
((b))
Both the statement I and statement II are required to answer the given question.
((c))
Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((d))
Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((e))
Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the given question.

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. In a family of eight members H, K, L, M, S, R, V and Y, there are two married couples and no child has a single parent. How is L related to V?

Statement I. Y is the only granddaughter of sister – in – law of K. L is the uncle of Y. R has no sibling. M is the mother – in – law of S.

Statement II. V is the only son of R who is the nephew of K. M is the spouse of H. Both S and K have same gender.

((a))
Both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.
((b))
Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((c))
Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
((d))
Both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the given question.
((e))
Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Seven persons H, K, M, Q, R, T and W lives on seven floor apartment but not necessarily in same order such that floor 1 is bottom floor just above floor 1 is floor 2 and so on floor 7 is the top most floor. Who lives on first floor?

Statement I. K lives on prime number floor but neither on top floor nor on even number floor. Only two persons live between the floor of T and the floor of K. W lives just below the floor of T. H lives above the floor of W but not above the floor of K.

Statement II. R lives two floors above the floor of W. Only two persons live between the floor of M and H. Not more than two person live above the floor of Q. M lives one of the floor above the floor of T but not on even number floor. W lives just below the floor of T.

((a))
Both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the given question.
((b))
Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((c))
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
((d))
Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((e))
Both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the given question.

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Six persons H, K, M, R, S and V sit around a circular table and face towards the center but not necessarily in same order. Who sits immediate right to M?

Statement I. Only two persons sit between S and R who does not sit adjacent to H and M. H sits second to the right of M.

Statement II. V sits second to the right of K who sits opposite to M. Either S or H sits adjacent to M. H is not an immediate neighbour of V and R.

((a))
Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((b))
Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
((c))
Both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the given question.
((d))
Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question
((e))
Both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the given question

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Directions: In each question four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV have been given. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements. Give answer.

Statements:

I. Some Europeans are French.

II. Some Russians are Europeans.

III. All Americans are Indians.

IV. Some Russians are American.

Conclusions:

I. Some Indians are American.

II. Some Europeans are Indians.

III. Some French are Russians.

IV. Some French are American.

((a))
Only conclusions I and II.
((b))
Only conclusions II, III and IV
((c))
Only conclusions III
((d))
Only conclusions I, III and IV
((e))
Only conclusions II and IV

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only conclusions I and II.

Directions: In each question four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV have been given. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements. Give answer.

Statements:

I. Some Bags are Bottles.

II. All Cans are Steels.

III. Some Bags are Cans.

IV. Some Bottles are Plastics.

Conclusions:

I. Some Steels are Bags.

II. Some Bottles are Steels.

III. Some Plastics are Bags.

IV. Some Cans are Plastics.

((a))
Only conclusions II and III.
((b))
Either conclusion I or conclusion IV
((c))
Only conclusion I, II and III
((d))
All the conclusions follow
((e))
Only conclusion II, III and IV.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only conclusions II and III.

Directions: In each question four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV have been given. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements. Give answer.

Statements:

I. Some Mango are Apples.

II. Some Kiwi are Mango.

III. Some Apples are Grapes.

IV. Some Grapes are Lemon.

Conclusions:

I. Some Apples can be Lemon.

II. Some Kiwi can be Grapes.

III. At least some Mango are Lemon is a possibility.

IV. At least some Grapes are Kiwi is a possibility.

((a))
Only conclusion IV
((b))
Either conclusion I or conclusion III.
((c))
All the conclusions
((d))
Only conclusions III and IV.
((e))
None of the conclusions

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion IV

Directions: In each question four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV have been given. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements. Give answer.

Statements:

I. Some TV are Fridges.

II. All Fridges are Cooler.

III. Some Cooler are AC.

IV. No AC is TV.

Conclusions:

I. Some AC are Fridges.

II. Some AC can be Fridges.

III. Some TV are Cooler.

IV. No Cooler is TV.

((a))
Only conclusion II.
((b))
Either conclusion III or conclusion IV .
((c))
Only conclusions II and III.
((d))
Only conclusions I and IV.
((e))
None of the conclusions.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II.

In the given word 'MUNIFICENT, the vowels are replaced from the next letter comes in the alphabetical series and the consonants are replaced by the second previous letter comes in the alphabetical series after performing the operations the resultant word will be rearrange as per the alphabetical series from left to the right end, then which letter comes fourth to the right of the letter which is at the third position from left end ?

((a))
A
((b))
L
((c))
V
((d))
F
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Input: 74653 49231 85729 15786 57368 97342

Step I: 74662 49232 85733 15787 57377 97346

Step II: 49262 74632 15733 85787 97377 57346

Step III: 9268 46314 5733 57856 73763 73430

Step IV: 5834 9369 47324 58866 74440 74773

Step V: 80 108 100 165 95 140

Step VI: 196 144 81 64 25 1

Step VI is the last step of the arrangement, based on the above logic rearrange the given input.

Input: 85632 54836 32859 47621 95372 68437

Which number comes second to the left of the number 47663 in Step II?

((a))
32822
((b))
95346
((c))
54836
((d))
85645
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

32822

In a certain way number 77622 related with 54464 in step IV then which number is related to the number 76612 in Step III in the same way?

((a))
48330
((b))
56440
((c))
2826
((d))
84736
((e))
53454

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

48330

What is step IV of given input after rearrangement?

((a))
2927 49340 54464 57450 77622 85756
((b))
2927 49340 54464 57450 77622 85746
((c))
2927 49340 57450 54464 77622 85746
((d))
77622 85746 57450 54464 49340 2927
((e))
2927 49349 54464 57450 77622 85746

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

2927 49340 54464 57450 77622 85756

How many numbers come between the number 64 and 1 in Step VI?

((a))
One
((b))
None
((c))
Four
((d))
Three
((e))
Two

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

One

Which number comes to the immediate right of the number which is third from the right end in Step V?

((a))
80
((b))
115
((c))
105
((d))
120
((e))
150

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Five boxes containing different colours Black, Green, Pink, Red and Yellow having different weights 5, 9, 12, 18 and 25 are stacked from bottom to top such that bottom most box is number 1 above this box number 2 and so on the top most box is number 5 are arranged but not necessarily in same order. The box of Red colour has the weight in the multiple of the weight of the box of Green colour. The Pink colour box placed two boxes below the Black colour box which is placed at prime number position. The Yellow colour box has a weight more than Green colour box but less than the weight of Black colour box which is not the heaviest box. The Pink colour box has weight of perfect square. The Green colour box placed at one of the position below the Yellow colour box. The Red colour box is placed above the box of Pink colour but below the box of Black colour. The Yellow colour box is not placed at top position.

Which of the following box has a weight of prime number?

((a))
Pink colour box
((b))
Red colour box
((c))
Green colour box
((d))
Black colour box
((e))
Yellow colour box

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Pink colour box

What is the weight of Pink colour box?

((a))
5
((b))
9
((c))
12
((d))
18
((e))
25

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following statement is correct?

((a))
The box of Black colour placed at third position.
((b))
The weight of Yellow colour box is 9.
((c))
No box is placed above the box of Green colour.
((d))
Only two boxes are placed between the box which has a weight of 25 and that of 5.
((e))
All are incorrect.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The box of Black colour placed at third position.

As many boxes placed above the box of Red colour as many box(es) below the _?

((a))
The box of Pink colour.
((b))
The box of Yellow colour.
((c))
The box having weight of 18.
((d))
The box having weight of 12.
((e))
More than one option

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The box of Pink colour.

Which colour box has weight of perfect square number?

((a))
The box of Black colour.
((b))
The box of Red colour.
((c))
The box of Pink colour.
((d))
The box of Yellow colour.
((e))
Both 2 and 3.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The box of Black colour.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons K to R likes to play different sports which are Badminton, Basketball, Chess, Cricket, Hockey, Polo, Squash and Tennis and appointed at different designation which are Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Chief Operating Officer (COO), Chief Financial Officer (CFO), Chief Technical Officer (CTO), Chief Marketing Officer (CMO), Chief Human Resource Officer (CHRO), Vice President (VP) and Director in a company but not necessarily in same order. The Chief Executive Officer is the senior most designation, Chief Operating Officer is second senior most designation and so on and Director is the junior most designation. Q is just senior to the person who likes to play Hockey. Only two persons are designated between R and L who is just senior to the person who likes to play Basketball. Not more than one person is designated between N and the one who likes to play Basketball. M is senior to P who is not junior to L. The person who is CFO likes to play Chess. O is senior to the person who likes to play Hockey. L likes to play either Cricket or Chess. Q is designated at one of the position below CTO. The one who likes to play Squash designated at either CEO or Director. K is not the Director. N does not like to play Hockey. As many person designated between the person who likes Chess and the one likes to play Tennis as many between the one who likes to play Cricket and the one who likes to play Chess. Either M or L likes to play Tennis or Cricket. R is senior to the person who likes to play Chess. Neither O nor K likes to play Badminton and Chess.

Which of the following games likes by the person who is two post senior to Q?

((a))
Tennis
((b))
Badminton
((c))
Polo
((d))
Cricket
((e))
Basketball

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Tennis

Who is the director of the company?

((a))
O
((b))
L
((c))
P
((d))
K
((e))
N

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following person is just junior to the one who likes to play Badminton?

((a))
M
((b))
The one who likes to play Polo.
((c))
P
((d))
The one who likes to play Chess.
((e))
More than one option.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Find the odd one out.

((a))
RP
((b))
LQ
((c))
KN
((d))
MO
((e))
OL

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

((a))
M is CEO of the company.
((b))
The one who likes to play Polo is just junior to P.
((c))
As many senior to R as many person junior to Q.
((d))
K is the second most junior person.
((e))
All are correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

M is CEO of the company.

Direction: A statement is given followed by two inferences I, II and III. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

India faces a significant challenge in balancing its energy demands with the urgent need for climate action. With a heavy reliance on coal for power generation, India's energy policies must navigate between reducing reducing emissions to mitigate climate change and ensuring affordable, reliable energy for its growing population.

Inferences:

I. Coal accounts for India's primary energy demand.

II. Coal contributes to majority of India's electricity generation making it indispensable to the country's energy security.

III. Coal sector significantly contributes to government revenue through taxes and royalties etc.

((a))
All the inferences implicit.
((b))
Only inference I and inference II implicit.
((c))
Only inference III implicit.
((d))
Only inference I implicit.
((e))
None of the inference implicit.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

All the inferences implicit.

Silicosis remains a significant occupational health challenge in India, predominantly affecting workers exposed to silica dust across a wide range of industries. For example, silicosis prevalence among stone mine workers. Despite affecting millions of workers across industries, silicosis remains underdiagnosed and mismanaged, exacerbating India's tuberculosis burden and threatening occupational health.

Inferences:

I. Silicosis only occurs on the industrial workers working in the mines.

II. Doctors are not able to diagnose the disease properly at first instance.

III. Silicosis is a preventable disease if diagnosed earlier.

((a))
Only inference I and III are implicit.
((b))
Only inference II is implicit.
((c))
Neither inference I nor inference II is implicit but inference III is implicit.
((d))
Only inference I and inference II are implicit.
((e))
Only inference II and III are implicit.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only inference I and III are implicit.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A man starts walking from his house 6 Km towards west direction and reaches at point K. From here he takes a left turn walks for 4 Km to reach at point O then he takes another left turn and walks for 3 Km to reach at point J. From here, he takes a left turn and walks for 2 Km to reach at point N. Then he takes another right turn and walks for 2 Km to reach at point P. From the point P, he takes a left turn and walks for 4 Km to reach at the school.

Which of the following statement is correct?

((a))
His school is in the North direction to his house.
((b))
Point K is in west direction of Point P.
((c))
The shortest distance between K and J is 5 Km.
((d))
None of these.
((e))
Point N is in east direction to point P.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

His school is in the North direction to his house.

What is the total distance traveled by the man from point K to point P?

((a))
7 Km
((b))
11 Km
((c))
15 Km
((d))
13 Km
((e))
10 Km

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

7 Km

What is the direction of point O with respect to his school?

((a))
South
((b))
Northwest
((c))
East
((d))
Southwest
((e))
Northeast

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

South

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

((a))
One automatically gets one's mail everyday
((b))
One has to be connected to the server to read or write one's mail
((c))
One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive e-mail
((d))
One does not need any telephone lines
((e))
Emails are stored locally after downloading

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

One automatically gets one's mail everyday

Which among the following is not a type of Non-impact printers?

((a))
LED printer
((b))
Inkjet
((c))
Laser
((d))
Dot Matrix
((e))
Solid Ink

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

LED printer

____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.

((a))
Servers
((b))
Embedded computers
((c))
Robotic computers
((d))
Mainframes
((e))
Microcontrollers

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Servers

_______ is used to protect data and password.

((a))
Encryption
((b))
Authentication
((c))
Verification
((d))
Computer
((e))
Hashing

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Encryption

_______ has the shortest access time.

((a))
Virtual memory
((b))
Secondary memory
((c))
Cache memory
((d))
Register Memory
((e))
Main Memory (RAM)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Virtual memory

What is URL?

((a))
A computer software program
((b))
A type of programming object
((c))
The address of a document or ‘page’ on the world wide web
((d))
An acronym for unlimited resource for learning
((e))
A piece of hardware

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A computer software program

Which one of the following denotes a sequential electronic circuit that is used to store 1-bit of information?

((a))
Register
((b))
Transistor
((c))
Flip-flop
((d))
Capacitor
((e))
Latch

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following contains one or more programs and controls the operation and/or enhances the processing capability of a computer system?

((a))
Anti Virus
((b))
Application Software
((c))
System Software
((d))
Firmware
((e))
Utility Software

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Anti Virus

Which of the following is/are the examples of Utility Software?

((a))
Antivirus software
((b))
Backup tools
((c))
File management tools
((d))
Disk management tools
((e))
All of These.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Antivirus software

Which of the following is not a function of the control unit?

((a))
Reading instructions
((b))
Executing instructions
((c))
Direct operations
((d))
Interpret instructions
((e))
Storing Data Permanently

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Reading instructions

In the context of computers, WORM is an acronym of:

((a))
Write Once, Read Many
((b))
Word On, RAM Memory
((c))
Word Optical, Recognition Malware
((d))
Wireless Operating, Read Module
((e))
Write-Only, Read-Once Memory

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Write Once, Read Many

___________ is a type of malware that displays advertisements on your computer.

((a))
Adware
((b))
Back
((c))
Rootkit
((d))
Bots
((e))
Virus

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Adware

Bitcoin is a ______ based digital cryptocurrency.

((a))
Client server
((b))
Peer-to-peer
((c))
Layered architecture
((d))
Component
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Client server

What part of the computer provides only temporary storage of files?

((a))
ROM memory
((b))
RAM memory
((c))
Hard drive
((d))
Mother board
((e))
Processor

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

ROM memory

A register that contains the result of an operation is called a

((a))
action register
((b))
program counter
((c))
accumulator
((d))
stack pointer
((e))
data register

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

action register

Cache memory is a small amount of extremely fast static _____ and is located close to the ______.

((a))
RAM, CPU
((b))
ROM, Motherboard
((c))
RAM, Hard disk
((d))
Register, Core
((e))
SRAM, ALU

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

RAM, CPU

Which is the name of the parent Company of the social media platform, Facebook?

((a))
Singer
((b))
Alphabet
((c))
Facebook Services
((d))
Meta
((e))
Facebook Technologies

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Singer

Which is the database management system (DBMS) from Microsoft which is part of the Microsoft Office Suite?

((a))
MySQL
((b))
MS Access
((c))
SQL Server
((d))
NoSQL
((e))
Microsoft FoxPro

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

MySQL

Google Parental Control is not used for which of the following purposes?

((a))
Limiting screen time
((b))
Blocking or allowing certain apps or websites
((c))
Locking devices for relaxation, studying, or sleeping
((d))
Changing the games a child sees in the Play Games app
((e))
Restricting what can be downloaded

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Limiting screen time

Which protocol in internet is used for transferring the mail?

((a))
HTTP
((b))
FTP
((c))
SMTP
((d))
IP
((e))
POP3

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

HTTP

Which Control Panel category enables you to optimize the visual display on your desktop?

((a))
Hardware and Sound
((b))
System and Security
((c))
Network and Sharing Center
((d))
Ease of Access
((e))
Appearance and Personalization

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Hardware and Sound

A computer in a network that cannot be accessed outside of the local network unless given permission is called __________.

((a))
Intranet
((b))
Internet
((c))
Middleware
((d))
Modern
((e))
ARPANET

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Intranet

The technique used to extract confidential information’s such as user name and password is ______.

((a))
Phishing
((b))
Firewall
((c))
Plagiarism
((d))
Encryption
((e))
Decryption

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Phishing

Apple Inc.'s IOS virtual assistant is named _____.

((a))
Cortana
((b))
Siri
((c))
Natasha
((d))
Alexa
((e))
Google Assistant

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Cortana

Which one of the following is a system software?

((a))
Database Programs
((b))
Word Processor
((c))
Spreadsheet
((d))
Compiler
((e))
File Management System

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Database Programs

____________ monitors user activity on internet and transmits that information in the background to someone else.

((a))
Malware
((b))
Adware
((c))
Spyware
((d))
Spam
((e))
Worm

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Malware

Which of the following use the laser technology to detect the movement of mouse?

((a))
Optical
((b))
Rubber ball
((c))
Electrical
((d))
Mechanical
((e))
Infrared (IR) Mouse

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Optical

_______ is a program that convert low level language into machine level.

((a))
Assembler
((b))
Interpreter
((c))
Decoder
((d))
Compiler
((e))
Coder

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Assembler

Which of the following input device is used to convert the scanned images of typed or handwritten text into digital format?

((a))
Light pen
((b))
OCR
((c))
Digitizer
((d))
Barcode Reader
((e))
MICR

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Light pen

For sending and receiving date from and to other computers around the world through telephone lines we need:-

((a))
Fax
((b))
Modem
((c))
Hub
((d))
Scanner
((e))
Router

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Fax

The first generation computers had?

((a))
Vacuum tubes and magnetic drum
((b))
Magnetic tape and transistors
((c))
ICs
((d))
All of the above
((e))
Vacuum tubes and transistors

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Vacuum tubes and magnetic drum

Solaris is a proprietary of which operating system?

((a))
Mobile OS
((b))
Linux
((c))
Unix
((d))
Real OS
((e))
Windows OS

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Mobile OS

Which of the following is NOT a part of auxiliary memories in a Computer system?

((a))
PROM
((b))
Floppy
((c))
CD-ROM
((d))
Magnetic tapes
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

PROM

Which of the following is not an example of a nonvolatile memory?

((a))
EEPROM
((b))
Flash memory
((c))
SDRAM
((d))
Hard disk
((e))
CD-ROM

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

EEPROM

Which of the following is NOT antivirus software?

((a))
Norton
((b))
McAfee
((c))
Burn
((d))
Kaspersky
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Norton

Which of the following is false about Trojan horse?

((a))
Trojan horse can inject themselves into other files or otherwise propagate themselves.
((b))
Trojan horse is a software that is designed to be spread from one computer to another, often sent as an email attachment.
((c))
Trojan horse refers to tricking someone into inviting an attacker into a securely protected area.
((d))
Trojan horse is a malicious bit of attacking code or software that tricks users into running it willingly, by hiding behind a legitimate program.
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Trojan horse can inject themselves into other files or otherwise propagate themselves.

The secondary storage device that follows the sequential mode of access is:

((a))
Optical Disk
((b))
Magnetic Disk
((c))
Magnetic Tape
((d))
Punched Cards
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Optical Disk

In computing terms, what is a 'spider'?

((a))
Apps for viewing websites
((b))
Search Engine
((c))
a hacker who breaks into a corporate computer system
((d))
A program that creates a catalog of websites.
((e))
Web Crawler

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Apps for viewing websites

Which of the following is NOT a computer hardware?

((a))
Mouse
((b))
Monitor
((c))
Keyboard
((d))
Antivirus
((e))
Scanner

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Mouse

What is the computer related term/jargon used for an error in a software or a hardware?

((a))
Leech
((b))
Squid
((c))
Slug
((d))
Glitch
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Leech

General Awareness (40 questions)

The RBI on June 23 amended its Banking Ombudsman Scheme. As per the new rule the Banking Ombudsman can pass an award of Rs. ________ lakh for its non-adherence to RBI instructions.

((a))
10
((b))
15
((c))
20
((d))
25
((e))
30

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility (INRF) Scheme under the NEFT ecosystem?

The INRF Scheme allows remittances only from Nepal to India.
Non-customers can remit up to ₹50,000 per transaction under the INRF Scheme.
The INRF Scheme includes bilateral arrangements between banks in India and Nepal outside the NEFT ecosystem.

((a))
1 and 2 only
((b))
1 only
((c))
2 only
((d))
1 and 3 only
((e))
All are correct

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

What is the maximum limit of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) in India?

((a))
40%
((b))
50%
((c))
70%
((d))
80%
((e))
90%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

40%

Consider the following statements regarding the Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY):

The urban component of the scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, while the rural component is handled by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
The scheme provides an interest subsidy of 5%-7% on loans up to ₹2 lakh for individual micro-enterprises and ₹10 lakh for group enterprises.
DAY-NULM provides full central funding for the construction of shelters for urban homeless.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

((a))
1 only
((b))
2 only
((c))
1 and 2 only
((d))
1 and 3 only
((e))
2 and 3 only

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1 only

As per Budget 2024-25 Under the government's new employment support initiatives, what is the maximum amount per month that the government will reimburse to employers towards EPFO contributions for new hires?

((a))
1000
((b))
3000
((c))
5000
((d))
6000
((e))
8000

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1000

Consider the following statements regarding the ASPIRE scheme:

The ASPIRE scheme aims to support the establishment of Livelihood Business Incubation (LBI) centres to promote startups in agro-industry.
IIE Guwahati received 20 applications under ASPIRE during FY 2022–2023, out of which three were approved by the Ministry.
One of the LBIs approved in FY 2023–24 under the ASPIRE scheme is located at GKCIT, Malda, and focuses on textile design.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

((a))
Only 1 and 2
((b))
Only 2 and 3
((c))
Only 1 and 3
((d))
Only 1
((e))
1, 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2

What is the name of India’s first private launch pad, from which Agnikul Cosmos launched the Agnibaan SOrTeD mission?

((a))
Vikram Sarabhai Launch Pad
((b))
Gaganyaan Platform
((c))
Dhanush
((d))
Pushpak
((e))
Skyroot Alpha Pad

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Vikram Sarabhai Launch Pad

Which two countries were India’s top export destinations by value in May 2024?

((a))
China and Saudi Arabia
((b))
U.K. and Germany
((c))
U.S.A. and U.A.E.
((d))
France and Netherlands
((e))
Singapore and Bangladesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

China and Saudi Arabia

Which of the following is NOT a Navratna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) as per recent news in August 2024?

((a))
Railtel Corporation of India
((b))
Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
((c))
Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN)
((d))
National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO)
((e))
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Railtel Corporation of India

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) scheme?

RAMP was launched on 30th June 2022 by the Hon'ble Prime Minister.
The scheme provides grants to States/UTs for implementing Strategic Investment Plans (SIPs).
The scheme is focused only on promoting green initiatives within the MSME sector.

((a))
1 and 2
((b))
2 and 3
((c))
Only 1
((d))
Only 2
((e))
Only 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1 and 2

How many rings are there in the olympic logo?

((a))
5
((b))
4
((c))
3
((d))
8
((e))
6

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Who has been awarded the Shaw Prize in Astronomy for 2024 for his groundbreaking contributions to time-domain astronomy?

((a))
Peter Sarnak
((b))
Swee Lay Thein
((c))
Shrinivas R. Kulkarni
((d))
Stuart Orkin
((e))
George Ellery Hale

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Peter Sarnak

To which company did Shriram Finance sell its housing finance subsidiary Shriram Housing Finance Limited in 2024?

((a))
Blackstone Group
((b))
Bain Capital
((c))
Warburg Pincus
((d))
Temasek Holdings
((e))
Carlyle Group

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Blackstone Group

What was the cumulative net profit earned by Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in India during FY24?

((a))
₹1.04 lakh crore
((b))
₹1.2 lakh crore
((c))
₹1.3 lakh crore
((d))
₹1.41 lakh crore
((e))
₹1.5 lakh crore

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

₹1.04 lakh crore

Which of the following does not work under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)?

((a))
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
((b))
National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
((c))
Coir Board
((d))
SIDBI
((e))
Mahatma Gandhi Institute for Rural Industrialization (MGIRI)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) third Bi-Monthly Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) review in August 2024:

The RBI maintained the repo rate at 6.5% for the 9th consecutive time.
The RBI increased the UPI limit for tax payments from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 5 lakh.
The RBI projected the real GDP growth for FY25 at 6.5%.

Which of the above statements are correct?

((a))
1 and 2 only
((b))
1 and 3 only
((c))
2 and 3 only
((d))
1, 2, and 3
((e))
1 only

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

Which of the following states recorded the highest GST collection in April 2024?

((a))
Maharashtra
((b))
Uttar Pradesh
((c))
Karnataka
((d))
Tami Nadu
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

What is the validity period of a Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) from the date of its registration?

((a))
1 year
((b))
5 years
((c))
3 years
((d))
4 years
((e))
7 years

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1 year

Which of the following comes under the Payments and Settlements System in India?

((a))
RTGS
((b))
IMPS
((c))
NEFT
((d))
All of the above
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

RTGS

100

Which of the following penalties has been recently imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on financial institutions for non-compliance with its directions?

Rs 1.27 crore on Bank of Maharashtra for non-compliance with 'Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit' and 'Cyber Security Framework in Banks.'
Rs 4.90 lakh on Hinduja Leyland Finance Ltd for non-compliance with 'Know Your Customer (KYC) Directions, 2016.'
Rs 10 lakh on Poonawalla Fincorp Ltd for non-compliance with 'Non-Banking Financial Company - Systemically Important Non-Deposit taking Company and Deposit taking Company Directions, 2016.'

((a))
Only 1 and 2
((b))
Only 2 and 3
((c))
Only 1 and 3
((d))
All 1, 2, and 3
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2

101

What is the interest rate paid by a bond issuer to the bondholder called?

((a))
Discount Rate
((b))
Repo Rate
((c))
Base Rate
((d))
Coupon Rate
((e))
Reverse Repo Rate

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Discount Rate

102

How many depositories are registered with SEBI in India?

((a))
1
((b))
2
((c))
5
((d))
6
((e))
8

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

103

Which country’s central bank imposed a penalty on SBI for violating anti-money laundering laws?(May 2024)

((a))
China
((b))
South Africa
((c))
Bahrin
((d))
Qatar
((e))
Sri Lanka

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

China

104

What is the target year by which India aims to achieve net zero carbon emissions according to COP21 commitments?

((a))
2050
((b))
2070
((c))
2080
((d))
2035
((e))
2060

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

2050

105

As per the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, what is the maximum compensation amount that can be awarded for loss of time, expenses incurred, and mental agony?

((a))
5 Lakhs
((b))
1 Lakhs
((c))
3 Lakhs
((d))
4 Lakhs
((e))
8 Lakhs

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

5 Lakhs

106

What is the name of India's first government-owned OTT platform that was launched in Kerala?

((a))
KStream
((b))
Kovalam A67
((c))
CSpace
((d))
Kerala View
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

KStream

107

Which of the following IT companies is the largest in India according to market capitalization and clientele base?

((a))
TCS
((b))
Wipro
((c))
LTI Mindtree
((d))
Tech Mahindra
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

TCS

108

Who issues the Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) in India?

((a))
NABARD
((b))
Ministry of Finance
((c))
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
((d))
Scheduled Commercial Banks
((e))
SIDBI

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

NABARD

109

In August 2024, which private sector bank announced the launch of its new “Green Deposit” scheme aimed at financing environmental sustainability projects?

((a))
HDFC Bank
((b))
ICICI Bank
((c))
Axis Bank
((d))
Kotak Mahindra Bank
((e))
Yes Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

HDFC Bank

110

Which African country's central bank has signed a pact with NPCI to develop a UPI-like instant payment system?

((a))
Nigeria
((b))
South Africa
((c))
Kenya
((d))
Angola
((e))
Namibia

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Nigeria

111

Which bank's South Africa branch was fined 10 million rand by the Prudential Authority of the South African Reserve Bank?

((a))
Punjab National Bank
((b))
Bank of Baroda
((c))
State Bank of India
((d))
Canara Bank
((e))
Union Bank of India

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Punjab National Bank

112

In August 2024, which Indian insurance company launched a health insurance plan specifically designed to cover mental health treatments and therapies?

((a))
LIC
((b))
ICICI Lombard
((c))
New India Assurance
((d))
HDFC ERGO
((e))
Bajaj Allianz

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

LIC

113

In July 2024, Who has been appointed as Interim MD and CEO of Bandhan Bank?

((a))
P.C. Mody
((b))
Saurav Sinha
((c))
Ratan Kumar Kesh
((d))
N.S. Vishwanathan
((e))
Sanjeev Sanyal

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

P.C. Mody

114

"Sambhav Home Loans" launched by which of the following ?

((a))
Piramal Finance
((b))
HDFC ERGO
((c))
Bajaj Housing Finance
((d))
HDFC
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Piramal Finance

115

In August 2024, Which mutual fund company has launched India's 1st “Nifty Top 10 Equal Weight Index Fund and Exchange Traded Fund (ETF)”?

((a))
ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund
((b))
HDFC Mutual Fund
((c))
DSP Mutual Fund
((d))
SBI Mutual Fund
((e))
Axis Mutual Fund

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund

116

The headquarters of SBI General Insurance is located in which city?

((a))
New Delhi
((b))
Bengaluru
((c))
Kolkata
((d))
Mumbai
((e))
Hyderabad

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

New Delhi

117

Which bank has launched the “ANTAH DRISHTI Braille Debit Card” specifically designed for visually impaired customers?

((a))
State Bank of India
((b))
ICICI Bank
((c))
Punjab National Bank
((d))
HDFC Bank
((e))
Axis Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

State Bank of India

118

In August 2024, Which company has launched the "Reignite" initiative designed to support women professionals as they return to the workforce after a career break?

((a))
Paytm
((b))
Razorpay
((c))
CARD91
((d))
PhonePe
((e))
Amazon

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Paytm

119

The PM-JANMAN mission focuses on how many critical interventions across key Ministries/Departments?

((a))
8
((b))
9
((c))
10
((d))
11
((e))
12

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

120

International Mother Earth Day is celebrated on:

((a))
3^rdMarch
((b))
22^nd April
((c))
5^th June
((d))
23^rd June
((e))
29th July

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3^rdMarch

English Language (40 questions)

121

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

((a))
The documentary, which explores climate change, has won several awards.
((b))
The child, along with his friends, were playing in the garden.
((c))
The company, in spite of economic downturns, continues to expand globally.
((d))
The musician, talented and dedicated, practices for hours every day.
((e))
The referee, confident in his decision, signalled the start of the game.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The documentary, which explores climate change, has won several awards.

122

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

((a))
The proposal was rejected, because its flaws was obvious.
((b))
The committee have made their decision regarding the event.
((c))
The manager, who has a lot of experience, is leading the project.
((d))
Either the teacher or the students has misunderstood the instructions.
((e))
She would rather prefers tea than coffee.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The proposal was rejected, because its flaws was obvious.

123

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

((a))
The politician, despite numerous scandals, manages to maintain public support.
((b))
The team of surgeons, specializing in cardiac procedures, were commended for their success.
((c))
The painting, admired by critics, hangs in the national gallery.
((d))
The play, written in the 16th century, remains relevant even today.
((e))
The playwright, whose works have been translated widely, is celebrated internationally.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The politician, despite numerous scandals, manages to maintain public support.

124

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

((a))
Scarcely had the concert ended when the audience began to applaud.
((b))
We discussed about the plan for several hours.
((c))
The children was playing in the park when it started to rain.
((d))
The shipment of goods arrive yesterday afternoon.
((e))
He was succeeded in passing the exam with distinction.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Scarcely had the concert ended when the audience began to applaud.

125

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

((a))
The engineer, together with her colleagues, was awarded the prestigious prize.
((b))
The lake, surrounded by mountains, offer breathtaking views at sunset.
((c))
The new policy, introduced last month, aims to reduce environmental pollution.
((d))
The students, eager to learn, participated actively in the discussion.
((e))
The violinist, known for her virtuosity, performed a difficult piece flawlessly.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The engineer, together with her colleagues, was awarded the prestigious prize.

A passage is given below with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, five options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

The idea of militarizing the Andaman Islands isn’t new. Since the 1980s, Indian commentators have advocated (A) strategic muscle at the ANI. What has often seemed like a straightforward choice for Indian policymakers, however, has never been an easy (B) to make. On the matter of the strategic development of the Andamans, India’s defence and foreign policy (C) have not always been on the same page. A section of India’s diplomatic community has opposed militarising the ANI, arguing that turning the islands into a strategic-military garrison would militarise the littorals — an outcome that would not (D) with countries in South and Southeast Asia. When India first began (E) the ANI in the mid-1980s, observers say Malaysia and Indonesia had been wary.

126

Which of the following words would most appropriately fit in the blank (A)?

((a))
Manufacturing
((b))
Building
((c))
Cooking
((d))
Uplifting
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Manufacturing

127

Which of the following words would most appropriately fit in the blank (B)?

((a))
Decision
((b))
Fault
((c))
Panacea
((d))
Compilation
((e))
Blunder

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Decision

128

Which of the following words would most appropriately fit in the blank (C)?

((a))
Eulogy
((b))
Memorial
((c))
Pilgrimage
((d))
Establishments
((e))
Periphery

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Eulogy

129

Which of the following words would most appropriately fit in the blank (D)?

((a))
Turn up
((b))
Come clean
((c))
Sit well
((d))
Go beyond
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Turn up

130

Which of the following words would most appropriately fit in the blank (E)?

((a))
Terrifying
((b))
Developing
((c))
Pacifying
((d))
Jolting
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Terrifying

131

Directions: Read the following five sentences, each containing a word highlighted in bold. Determine which sentence(s) correctly use(s) its highlighted word and mark it as your answer.

A. The scientist’s theory was supported by extensive experimental evidence.

B. The manager decided to refute the proposal by giving it a promotion.

C. Her altruism was evident when she donated her entire inheritance to charity.

D. The painting’s aesthetic was unpleasant, leaving viewers disturbed.

E. He tried to simulate the accident by apologizing sincerely.

((a))
A and C
((b))
A, C, and D
((c))
Only A
((d))
B, C, and E
((e))
All A, B, C, D, and E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A and C

132

Directions: Read the following five sentences, each containing a word highlighted in bold. Determine which sentence(s) correctly use(s) its highlighted word and mark it as your answer.

A. The lawyer made a compelling argument in court, persuading the jury.

B. The ancient ruins were pristine after centuries of neglect.

C. The hike was arduous, requiring stamina and determination.

D. His concise explanation took over an hour to deliver.

E. The company’s revenue plummeted after the successful product launch.

((a))
A and C
((b))
A, C, and D
((c))
Only A
((d))
B, C, and E
((e))
All A, B, C, D, and E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A and C

133

Directions: Read the following five sentences, each containing a word highlighted in bold. Determine which sentence(s) correctly use(s) its highlighted word and mark it as your answer.

A. The ephemeral rainbow vanished within minutes.

B. She was a paragon of honesty, setting an example for others.

C. His mundane stories about space travel fascinated the audience.

D. The mountain’s precipice provided a safe and flat picnic area.

E. The cacophony of birdsong was soothing and melodic.

((a))
B and E
((b))
A, C, and D
((c))
C and D
((d))
A, B, C, and E
((e))
A and B

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

B and E

134

Directions: Read the following five sentences, each containing a word highlighted in bold. Determine which sentence(s) correctly use(s) its highlighted word and mark it as your answer.

A. The doctor’s prognosis gave the patient hope for recovery.

B. The lake’s turbid waters were crystal clear and inviting.

C. Her eloquence was admired during the debate competition.

D. The novel invention was an outdated technology.

E. The venerable professor was only twenty-five years old.

((a))
B and E
((b))
C and D
((c))
A, B, C, and E
((d))
A and C
((e))
A, C, and D

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

B and E

135

In the given question, a sentence is given with a part of it missing and represented by a blank. Choose the phrase that can be placed in the given blank to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

The Wrights’ accomplishment _______ because it challenges the 21st-century conviction.

((a))
has to be accompanied
((b))
has been assured
((c))
is worth revisiting
((d))
is damaging
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

has to be accompanied

136

Researchers experiment with ways to create artificial intelligence (AI) _______ that will help it better interact with people.

((a))
with predictive social skills
((b))
giving enthusiasm
((c))
by anonymous skills
((d))
creating interaction
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

with predictive social skills

137

And the uncooperative galaxies sometimes relocate _______ the scientists looking for them.

((a))
compensating for
((b))
without bothering to tell
((c))
without initiating
((d))
without being told
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

compensating for

138

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. where genetic predispositions interact with

B. the challenge in defining mental health disorders precisely

C. lies in their deeply layered etiology

D. environmental triggers in a poorly understood feedback mechanism

E. making simple, single-cause explanations inadequate

((a))
BCADE
((b))
ACDBE
((c))
CBADE
((d))
CBEAD
((e))
DEBAC

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

BCADE

139

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. to the pervasive, yet often invisible, biases

B. the concept of structural inequality draws attention

C. embedded within societal institutions

D. and systemic processes that reinforce disparate outcomes

E. rather than solely focusing on individual prejudice

((a))
BAECD
((b))
CBEAD
((c))
CADBE
((d))
BDACE
((e))
BCAED

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

BAECD

140

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. requiring them to navigate a delicate balance

B. the role of central banks has expanded significantly

C. to maintain price stability

D. between stimulating economic growth

E. while simultaneously managing inflation expectations

((a))
BCEAD
((b))
CABDE
((c))
BACDE
((d))
DCBAE
((e))
DABCE

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

BCEAD

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

India has long been recognised as one of the fastest-growing economies in the world. Over the past two decades, the nation has undergone a significant transformation, driven by a blend of strategic economic policies, technological advancements, and demographic dividends. As of 2025, India's economic landscape presents a blend of optimism and challenges that weigh heavily on its future prospects. One of the chief drivers of India's economic growth has been its burgeoning information technology sector. Cities like Bengaluru, Hyderabad, and Pune have become global IT hubs, attracting multinational companies and fostering a robust start-up culture. This sector alone accounts for about 8% of the nation’s GDP and employs over four million people directly. The government's initiatives like Digital India and Startup India have further propelled this growth, aiming to leverage technology to enhance governance and generate employment. Manufacturing has also seen a substantial upswing, particularly with the "Make in India" initiative that seeks to make India a global manufacturing hub. This initiative focuses on 25 sectors, spanning from automobiles to electronics, with an ambition to raise the manufacturing sector's contribution to the GDP to 25% by 2025. As a part of this strategy, special emphasis has been placed on developing industrial corridors and improving infrastructure to facilitate smoother logistics and attract foreign investments. However, the path to sustained economic growth is not without challenges. The Indian economy faces hurdles such as income disparity, underemployment, and a significant portion of the population still reliant on agriculture, which remains vulnerable to monsoon volatility. While the services sector accounts for more than half of the GDP, the agricultural sector supports nearly half of the workforce, creating an economic imbalance that needs addressing. Moreover, inflation remains a persistent concern, hovering around 5-6% annually, in part due to fluctuating global oil prices and domestic supply chain inefficiencies. The Reserve Bank of India continues to play a crucial role in balancing inflation control with growth stimulation, using monetary policy as a tool to navigate these dynamics. Environmental sustainability also emerges as a critical issue, given the rapid urbanisation and industrialisation. India participated in the Paris Agreement, committing to reductions in carbon emissions and increased use of renewable energy. The country's target is to achieve 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2022, a significant step towards a greener economy. As India strides forward, human capital development remains paramount. Investing in education and healthcare is critical to creating a workforce capable of sustaining long-term economic growth. The New Education Policy (NEP) 2020 has laid the foundation for significant reforms aimed at enhancing the quality and accessibility of education across all levels. In summary, India's economic renaissance holds immense potential, backed by a youthful population, ambitious policy initiatives, and a growing prominence on the global stage. Nonetheless, addressing structural challenges and ensuring inclusive growth will be key to realising its aspirations of becoming a $5 trillion economy by the end of this decade.

141

According to the passage, which of the following cities is NOT mentioned as a global IT hub in India?

((a))
Bengaluru
((b))
Hyderabad
((c))
Chennai
((d))
Pune
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Bengaluru

142

What percentage of India's GDP does the information technology sector account for, as of 2025?

((a))
10%
((b))
12%
((c))
8%
((d))
6%
((e))
4%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

10%

143

Based on the passage, it can be inferred that India’s "Make in India" initiative is primarily aimed at:

((a))
Reducing the nation's reliance on agricultural exports.
((b))
Increasing the service sector’s contribution to the GDP.
((c))
Enhancing the manufacturing sector's share in the GDP.
((d))
Promoting foreign tourism in India.
((e))
Supporting the IT sector's dominance in the economy.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Reducing the nation's reliance on agricultural exports.

144

From the passage, it can be inferred that the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020 focuses on:

((a))
Prioritizing rural infrastructure development.
((b))
Enhancing the quality and accessibility of education.
((c))
Increasing foreign direct investment in technology start-ups.
((d))
Providing subsidies to agricultural sectors.
((e))
Reducing inflation rates.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Prioritizing rural infrastructure development.

145

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The agricultural sector in India supports nearly half of the workforce.

B) The information technology sector employs over five million people directly.

C) Inflation in India is estimated to be around 3-4% annually.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Only C
((d))
A and B
((e))
A and C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

146

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Digital India and Startup India initiatives are aimed at enhancing governance and employment generation.

B) India aims to become a $5 trillion economy by 2025.

C) Underemployment is one of the challenges faced by the Indian economy.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Only C
((d))
A and C
((e))
B and C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

147

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "burgeoning" in the context of the passage?

((a))
Declining
((b))
Expanding
((c))
Stagnant
((d))
Regressive
((e))
Withering

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Declining

148

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "propelled" in the context of the passage?

((a))
Hindered
((b))
Promoted
((c))
Inhibited
((d))
Relaxed
((e))
Prevented

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Hindered

149

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "optimism" as used in the passage?

((a))
Hope
((b))
Pessimism
((c))
Enthusiasm
((d))
Aspiration
((e))
Expectation

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Hope

150

Which of the following phrases best describes "economic imbalance" as mentioned in the passage?

((a))
A stable economic growth
((b))
An even distribution of wealth
((c))
A discrepancy in economic development
((d))
A balanced financial system
((e))
A uniform employment rate

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A stable economic growth

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The stock market is often viewed as a reflection of a country's economic health. It presents a complex world where corporations, investors, financial analysts, and regulatory bodies interact in a multifaceted network. Understanding the dynamics of the stock market can be challenging, but it is crucial for those involved in financial decision-making. One of the primary factors influencing stock market fluctuations is corporate performance. When a company announces positive earnings reports, it usually signals to the market that the company is doing well, potentially leading to an increase in its stock price. Conversely, reports of declining profits or missed earnings targets often result in a drop in stock price as investor confidence wanes. In addition to corporate performance, macroeconomic indicators play a significant role in stock market movements. Inflation rates, interest rates, and GDP growth trends are critical parameters that investors closely monitor. For instance, high inflation typically leads to higher interest rates as central banks adjust __________. Elevated interest rates can result in higher borrowing costs for companies, thus impacting their profitability and stock prices. Moreover, a growing GDP generally indicates a healthy economy, often driving stock prices upwards as investors anticipate higher corporate earnings in the future. Investor sentiment and behavior also significantly impact the stock market. Market psychology, marked by fear and greed, can lead to substantial price swings. During times of optimism, when investors believe that markets will continue to soar, stock prices can be driven up, sometimes beyond fundamental values. Conversely, during periods of pessimism, stock prices can plummet, occasionally resulting in market corrections or crashes. Additionally, global events such as geopolitical tensions, natural disasters, and pandemics can dramatically affect stock markets. For example, the COVID-19 pandemic led to unprecedented market volatility across the globe. In response to the pandemic, many countries implemented lockdown measures, which disrupted supply chains, closed businesses, and led to significant economic uncertainty. Stock markets responded sharply, with indexes around the world experiencing severe drops and subsequent recoveries. Lastly, the role of technology in the stock market cannot be underestimated. Advanced trading algorithms, high-frequency trading, and automated trading systems contribute to the complexity and velocity of market transactions. While these technologies can enhance market liquidity and efficiency, they can also amplify market volatility under certain conditions. In conclusion, the stock market is influenced by a diverse range of factors, from individual corporate performance to broader economic indicators and global events, with technology adding another layer to the dynamics. For investors and professionals involved in financial markets, staying informed and understanding these various elements is crucial for making strategic decisions and navigating through the complexities of the stock market.

151

According to the passage, which of the following statements about corporate performance in relation to stock prices is true?

((a))
Positive earnings reports lead to a decrease in stock prices.
((b))
Missed earnings targets result in an increase in investor confidence.
((c))
Positive earnings reports usually signal to the market that the company is doing well.
((d))
Declining profits increase stock prices.
((e))
Corporate performance does not affect stock prices.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Positive earnings reports lead to a decrease in stock prices.

152

Which factor has not been cited as influencing stock market fluctuations according to the passage?

((a))
Corporate performance
((b))
Inflation rates
((c))
Natural disasters
((d))
Currency exchange rates
((e))
Investor sentiment

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Corporate performance

153

According to the passage, which macroeconomic indicator typically leads to higher borrowing costs for companies?

((a))
GDP growth
((b))
Unemployment rates
((c))
Inflation rates
((d))
Currency exchange rates
((e))
Consumer confidence levels

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

GDP growth

154

Which of the following is described in the passage as contributing to the complexity and velocity of market transactions?

((a))
Advanced trading algorithms
((b))
Regulatory bodies
((c))
Investor behaviour
((d))
Macroeconomic indicators
((e))
Corporate mergers

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Advanced trading algorithms

155

Which of the following can be inferred about the relationship between GDP growth trends and stock prices?

((a))
High GDP growth always leads to lower stock prices.
((b))
A growing GDP generally indicates a healthy economy, often driving stock prices upwards.
((c))
GDP growth trends do not impact stock prices at all.
((d))
Declining GDP growth leads to increased corporate earnings.
((e))
Stock prices are unaffected by changes in GDP growth trends.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

High GDP growth always leads to lower stock prices.

156

Which of the following sentences can be inferred from the passage?

A. High-frequency trading can reduce market volatility.

B. Investor pessimism can lead to substantial price swings.

C. Geopolitical tensions have a minimal impact on stock markets.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Only C
((d))
Both A and B
((e))
All A, B, and C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

157

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: "For instance, high inflation typically leads to higher interest rates as central banks adjust __________."

((a))
fiscal policies to increase spending
((b))
monetary policies to control inflation
((c))
corporate taxes to boost revenue
((d))
regulatory measures to strengthen the market
((e))
trade policies to balance imports and exports

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

fiscal policies to increase spending

158

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Advanced trading algorithms can reduce market volatility.

B. Investor sentiment is marked by fear and greed.

C. The COVID-19 pandemic had no impact on stock markets.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Only C
((d))
A and B
((e))
B and C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

159

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Natural disasters can dramatically affect stock markets.

B. Advanced trading algorithms decrease the complexity of market transactions.

C. Positive earnings reports usually lead to an increase in stock price.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Only C
((d))
A and B
((e))
B and C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

160

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "fluctuations" in the context of the passage?

((a))
stability
((b))
variations
((c))
resistance
((d))
inertia
((e))
uniformity

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

stability

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

Directions: Study the following pie charts carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The two pie charts show the percentage distribution of the total number of students (Boys + Girls) and the percentage distribution of the total number of boys in five different colleges (A, B, C, D, E) in the year 2023.

Total Number of Students (Boys + Girls) = 400

Total Number of Boys = 250

161

In a new college F, the number of boys is 25% more than the number of boys in college A, and the number of girls in F is 40% less than the number of girls in college B. What is the ratio of the total number of students in college F to the total number of students in college C?

((a))
37:20
((b))
11:6
((c))
12:7
((d))
37:25
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

37:20

162

In college D, x% of boys and (x-10)% of girls play on a sports team, and the total number of students playing on a sports team in college D is 43. In college A, (x/2)% of boys and (x+10)% of girls play on a sports team. Find the total number of students in college A who do not play on a sports team.

((a))
22
((b))
58
((c))
47
((d))
54
((e))
62

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

163

In college C, the fee for boys is ₹6,000 and the fee for girls is 20% less than that for boys. In college D, the fee for boys is ₹5,000 and the fee for girls is ₹4,000. What is the absolute difference between the total revenue collected from fees in college C and the total revenue collected from fees in college D?

((a))
₹215,000
((b))
₹202,000
((c))
₹198,000
((d))
₹205,000
((e))
₹192,000

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

₹215,000

164

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

I. The number of girls in college C is exactly 25% of the number of boys in college B.

II. The average number of boys in colleges B, C, and E is equal to the number of boys in college B.

Only I and II III. The total number of students in A and E combined is equal to the total number of students in D.

((a))
Only I and II
((b))
Only II and III
((c))
Only I and III
((d))
All I, II, and III
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only I and II

165

If p% of the girls from college D are transferred to college A, the number of girls in college A increases to 40. Subsequently, p% of the boys from college C are transferred to college E. Find the new number of boys in college E.

((a))
40
((b))
50
((c))
45
((d))
55
((e))
35

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

166

The number of girls in college B is increased by 20%, and the number of boys in college D is decreased by 10%. After these changes, find the percentage change in the total number of students in the college that had the highest initial number of girls, compared to its original total student count.

((a))
7% decrease
((b))
10% decrease
((c))
10% increase
((d))
12% decrease
((e))
12% increase

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

7% decrease

167

Two trains, the Rajdhani and the Shatabdi, are running on parallel tracks in the same direction. The Rajdhani is 180m long, and the Shatabdi is 220m long. The Shatabdi is chasing the Rajdhani. The front of the Shatabdi is 200m behind the back of the Rajdhani, and it completely crosses the Rajdhani in 60 seconds. Find the speed of the Shatabdi (in m/s).

Statement I: The Rajdhani can cross a 420m long platform in 30 seconds.

Statement II: A third train, the Duronto, is 200m long and running in the same direction, 400m behind the Shatabdi. The speed of the Duronto is 5 m/s less than the speed of the Shatabdi. The Duronto is crossed by the Shatabdi (i.e., the Shatabdi overtakes the Duronto) in 164 seconds.

Statement III: If the Rajdhani and Shatabdi were running in opposite directions (towards each other), they would completely cross each other in 10 seconds, assuming there was no initial gap between them.

((a))
Only Statement I alone is sufficient.
((b))
Only Statement II alone is sufficient.
((c))
Only Statement III alone is sufficient.
((d))
Either Statement I alone or Statement III alone is sufficient.
((e))
All three statements I, II, and III together are sufficient.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only Statement I alone is sufficient.

168

A shopkeeper has two items, X and Y. The cost price of item X is ₹300 less than the cost price of item Y. Item X is marked up by 40% and item Y is marked up by 20%. Item X is sold at a 10% discount on its marked price.

What is the cost price of item Y?

Statement I: If item Y is sold at a 10% discount, the total profit from selling both items is ₹262.

Statement II: The profit received on selling item X is ₹182.

Statement III: The marked price of item X is ₹280 less than the marked price of item Y.

((a))
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((b))
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((c))
Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((d))
Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((e))
Any one of the three statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

169

A person's monthly expenditure is ₹2500 more than his monthly savings. He spends 20% of his monthly expenditure on rent. What is his monthly salary?

Statement I: The person's monthly expenditure on groceries is ₹1500, which is 50% more than his monthly expenditure on entertainment. His expenditure on rent is 60% of his remaining monthly expenditure after groceries and entertainment are paid.

Statement II: If the person invests his monthly savings in a scheme offering 10% p.a. interest, the compound interest (compounded annually) he earns in the 2nd year is ₹715.

Statement III: The person's monthly savings are 150% more than his monthly expenditure on rent.

((a))
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((b))
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((c))
Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((d))
Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
((e))
Either of the three statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

170

Four workers A, B, C, and D are hired to complete a work. Wages are paid in the ratio of their efficiencies. A and B together can complete the work in 24 hours, while C and D together can complete the work in 30 hours. In what time can A and C together complete the work?

Statement I: The efficiency of A is 25% more than the efficiency of B.

Statement II: A, B, and D together can complete the work in 15 hours.

Statement III: The efficiency of B is 250% of the efficiency of C.

((a))
Only Statement I and II together are sufficient.
((b))
Only Statement I and III together are sufficient.
((c))
Only Statement II and III together are sufficient.
((d))
Any two of the three statements together are sufficient.
((e))
All three statements together are necessary.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only Statement I and II together are sufficient.

171

Two series I and II are given with one wrong term in each series and each series follows a different pattern:

I: 50, 52, 57, 67, 85, 110

II: 12, 13, 27, 87, 352, 1765

If P and Q are the numbers that will come in place of the wrong terms in series I and II respectively, then find which of the following is/are true?

((a))
Ratio of P to Q is 3 : 1.
((b))
Sum of P and Q is divisible by 16.
((c))
Difference between P and Q is a multiple of 9.
((d))
Both (a) and (b)
((e))
Both (a) and (c)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ratio of P to Q is 3 : 1.

172

Three series I, II, and III are given below with one missing term in each series, and each series follows a different pattern:

I: 5, 6, 14, ?, 184, 925

II: 12, 13, 21, 48, ?, 237

III: 29, 37, 45, ?, 61, 69

Find the average of the missing term of each series.

((a))
68
((b))
70
((c))
72
((d))
65
((e))
75

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

173

Two series I and II are given below with a missing term P in series I and a missing term Q in series II. Each series follows a different pattern.

I: 10, 28, 76, P, 356, 650

II: 12, 7, 8, 13, Q, 68.5

Find out which of the following statements is/are true?

A: P > 6 × Q

B: (P - Q) is divisible by 7.

C: (Q + P / 11) is a prime number.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Both B and C
((d))
Both A and C
((e))
All A, B, and C are true

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

174

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

1601, 2501, 3601, 4901, 6401, ?, 10001

((a))
6801
((b))
7501
((c))
8101
((d))
9001
((e))
10001

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

6801

175

What will come in the place of question mark in the following number series ?

98 , 28 , 87 , ? , 65 , 83 , 32 , 94

((a))
62
((b))
65
((c))
66
((d))
61
((e))
60

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Directions: Study the following table and notes carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The table below shows the distribution of the total number of deliveries made by three companies (Zomato, Tondo, Wigo) in four different months of 2024. The table provides the total deliveries, the percentage share of Zomato, and the ratio of deliveries for Tondo and Wigo from the remaining amount.

Month	Total Deliveries	Zomato (% of Total)	Tondo : Wigo (Ratio)
Jan	8,000	25%	5:7
Feb	x	40%	3:5
Mar	12,000	y%	2:1
Apr	7,500	20%	8:7

Notes:

The average number of deliveries for Zomato in January and February is 4,400.
The number of deliveries by Wigo in March is 200 less than the number of deliveries by Tondo in January.

176

In May 2024, the total number of deliveries increased by (x/170)% over the total deliveries in April. Zomato's market share in May was (y+7.5)%. The remaining deliveries were split between Tondo and Wigo in a 3:2 ratio. What is the average number of deliveries for Wigo in March, April, and May?

((a))
2700
((b))
2650
((c))
2800
((d))
2750
((e))
3000

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

2700

177

The delivery charge per order for Tondo in January and February was ₹30 and ₹25, respectively. The delivery charge per order for Wigo in January and February was ₹20 and ₹30, respectively. The total revenue generated by Tondo from deliveries in January and February combined is what approximate percentage of the total revenue generated by Wigo in the same period?

((a))
55.3%
((b))
58.1%
((c))
61.5%
((d))
65.3%
((e))
68.9%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

55.3%

178

Let P be the total number of deliveries by Tondo in February and April combined. Let Q be the total number of deliveries by Zomato in January and March combined. Let R be the total number of deliveries by Wigo in February and March combined. Which of the following expressions represents the ratio (Q - P) : (R - Q + 100)?

((a))
3:67
((b))
4:71
((c))
3:64
((d))
5:67
((e))
4:63

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3:67

179

The number of deliveries by Wigo in February is A. A new incentive scheme is launched where for every 200 completed deliveries, a bonus of ₹(y - 40) is paid. What is the total incentive bonus (in ₹) paid to Wigo for its February operations?

((a))
₹80
((b))
₹77.50
((c))
₹158.75
((d))
₹80.50
((e))
₹75

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

₹80

180

In April, if 20% of Zomato's deliveries were cancelled due to an outage and 10% of Wigo's deliveries were cancelled for the same reason, the new total of non-cancelled deliveries for Zomato and Wigo in April is what percentage of the total deliveries by all three companies in January?

((a))
42.5%
((b))
45%
((c))
46.5%
((d))
48%
((e))
50.5%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

42.5%

181

There is a non-uniform path around a rectangular field. The path is 2 meters wide along the length of the field and 3 meters wide along the width of the field. The cost of paving this path is ₹1620 at a rate of ₹10 per square meter. If the diagonal of the field measures 25 meters, find the cost of fencing the field at a rate of ₹50 per meter.

((a))
₹2800
((b))
₹3000
((c))
₹3100
((d))
₹3500
((e))
₹3600

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

₹2800

182

A tank is connected to 4 pipes (2 inlets, P and Q, and 2 outlets, R and S). When P, Q, and R work together, they fill the tank in 22(2/9) minutes. When P, Q, and S work together (with S acting as an inlet pipe with its original efficiency), they fill the tank in 11(1/9) minutes. A new pipe, T, is introduced. When T, R, and S (R and S working as outlets) work together, they can fill the same tank in 18(2/11) minutes. Find the time taken by pipe T to fill the tank alone.

((a))
15 min
((b))
20 min
((c))
12 min
((d))
10 min
((e))
12.5 min

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

15 min

183

The difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and simple interest on a certain sum of money at a 10% rate of interest for 3 years is ₹930. If the same sum is invested for 5 years in a new scheme that offers a 15% rate of simple interest for the first three years and a 20% annual rate of compound interest for the last two years (compounded on the amount after 3 years), find the difference between the total amount of simple interest received and the total amount of compound interest received from this scheme.

((a))
₹4,620
((b))
₹5,130
((c))
₹4,860
((d))
₹5,640
((e))
₹4,950

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

₹4,620

184

Three cars, P, Q, and R start from the same city to travel to the same destination. The cars leave one by one in the same direction.

Car P starts at 9:00 AM with a speed of 'x' km/h.
Car Q starts at 9:30 AM with a speed of 'y' km/h.
Car R starts at 10:00 AM with a speed of 'y + 10' km/h.

Car Q overtakes car P at 10:30 AM. Car R overtakes car P at 11:00 AM. At what time will car R overtake car Q?

((a))
11:15 AM
((b))
11:30 AM
((c))
11:45 AM
((d))
12:00 PM
((e))
12:15 PM

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

11:15 AM

185

The present ages of P and Q are in the ratio 3:4. R is 5 years younger than Q. After 10 years, P's age will be 5 years less than R's age at that time. The difference between the present ages of Q and P is

k. Find which of the following relations is true.

((a))
k³ − k² + 2k + 5 = 915
((b))
k³ − 2k² + 3k + 5 = 845
((c))
k³ + 3k² − 5k + 8 = 1268
((d))
k³ − 3k² + 5k + 6 = 756
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

k³ − k² + 2k + 5 = 915

Directions: Read the following caselet carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The total number of employees working in five different departments (A, B, C, D, and E) of a company is 5,000. All employees are classified into two categories: Regular and Contractual. Each employee is also classified as either Male or Female.

The number of employees in department A is 20% of the total employees in the company. The number of employees in department C is 800. The number of employees in department B is 1.5 times the number of employees in department C. The remaining employees are in departments D and E, in a ratio of 3:2, respectively. The total number of Contractual employees in all five departments combined is 2,200. In department A, the number of Regular employees is 100 more than Contractual employees. In department C, Contractual employees are 60% of the total employees in that department. The number of Regular employees in department D is equal to the number of Contractual employees in department C. The number of Contractual employees in department B is 90 more than in department E.

The total number of Regular Male employees in all departments is 1,600. The total number of Contractual Female employees in all departments is 940. In department A, Regular Male employees are 150 more than Regular Female employees. The number of Contractual Female employees in department A is 50. In department C, Regular Male employees are 60% of the total Regular employees. The number of Contractual Male employees is 120 more than the Regular Female employees in the same department. In department D, 25% of the Contractual employees are female. The number of Regular Female employees is 50% of the number of Regular Male employees. In department B, the number of Regular Male employees is 480. Let the number of Contractual Female employees in department E be z.

186

If the number of Contractual Male employees in department E is 40, what is the ratio of the total number of female employees in department B to the total number of male employees in department B?

((a))
39:29
((b))
43:32
((c))
41:31
((d))
45:34
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

39:29

187

The total number of female employees in departments B and E combined is what percentage of the total employees in departments C and E combined?

((a))
74.375%
((b))
68.225%
((c))
78.125%
((d))
72.152%
((e))
80.625%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

74.375%

188

Given that the number of Contractual Male employees in department B must be a non-negative integer, what is the maximum possible number of Contractual Female employees in department B?

((a))
319
((b))
320
((c))
310
((d))
341
((e))
297

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

319

189

Find the difference between the average number of Contractual employees in departments A, C, and D and the average number of Regular employees in departments B, C, and D.

((a))
10
((b))
15
((c))
20
((d))
25
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

190

Which of the following statements is/are always true, given the constraints on z (which must be a non-negative integer)?

I. The total number of female employees in department B is greater than the total number of male employees in department A.

II. The total number of male employees in department B is less than the total number of female employees in department D.

III. The total number of male employees in department B is greater than the total number of female employees in department E.

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only III
((c))
Only I and II
((d))
Only I and III
((e))
All I, II, and III

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only I

191

Anil and Ruhi started a business with an initial investment of 5 : 8. After four months Anil doubled his investment and Ruhi reduced to 60% of initial investment and Sujeet joined them with the investment of the sum of Ruhi’s initial and Anil’s current investment. After 8 more months they distributed the profit in which Sujeet receives 18,000 then find the initial investment of Ruhi?

((a))
1000
((b))
9900
((c))
8500
((d))
4000
((e))
8420

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1000

192

A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 5:3. 20% of the mixture is taken out. After this, a quantity of pure milk is added, which is equal to 25% of the volume of the mixture that was taken out. If the final quantity of milk in the vessel is 88 L, find the final ratio of milk to water.

((a))
11:6
((b))
11:5
((c))
11:8
((d))
10:7
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

11:6

193

A boat covers D+40 km downstream in 5 hours. In the same amount of time, it covers D-20 km upstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 4:1. Find the total time taken by the boat to cover (D-20) km downstream and (D-2) km upstream.

((a))
8 hours
((b))
9 hours
((c))
10 hours
((d))
11 hours
((e))
7 hours

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

8 hours

194

The average of number of items sold by the company on first 4 days of the week is 375. The average of the item sold on first four days of week exceeds the average items sold on last four days of week by 32.5. If the sales on day four is 370, then find the average number of items sold in the whole week (approx. to two decimal places).

((a))
256.75
((b))
357.14
((c))
125.79
((d))
354.23
((e))
425.85

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

256.75

195

Compare the two quantities and choose the correct option:

Quantity I: The curved surface area of a cylinder is 880 cm², and its height is 14 cm. Find the volume of the cylinder. (Use π = 22/7)

Quantity II: The perimeter of a square is 112 cm. A cone is formed such that its radius is 25% of the side of the square, and its height is 48 cm. Find the volume of the cone. (Use π = 22/7)

((a))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((d))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can't be established

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

196

Three drones (A, B, and C) are flown across a 360-meter-long testing course. The time taken by drone A is 't' seconds, by drone B is '(t + 4)' seconds, and by drone C is '(t - 2)' seconds. The speed of drone A is 20% more than that of drone B. The speed of drone C is 2 m/s more than that of drone A.

Quantity I: If the speed of drone B were ___% of its original speed, it would have crossed the course in 30 seconds.

Quantity II: If the speed of drone C were ___% of its original speed, it would have crossed the course in 24 seconds.

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can't be established

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

197

The average of the present ages of P, Q, and R is 30 years. Five years ago, the ratio of P’s age to Q’s age was 5:7. R's present age is 50% of Q’s present age. The sum of the present ages of P and S is 80 years. Q’s present age is ___% of S's present age.

Quantity I: The value to fill in the blank.

Quantity II: R’s present age is what percent of P’s present age?

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be established
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

198

A boat can cover ___ m upstream in 30 seconds and ___ m downstream in 20 seconds. The time taken by the boat to go 600 m downstream is 25% less than that taken by the boat to go 360 m upstream. If the speed of the stream were 50% more, then the boat's new upstream speed would be 6 m/s.

Quantity I: Find the value (in metres) that will be filled in the 1st blank.

Quantity II: Find the value (in metres) that will be filled in the 2nd blank.

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can't be established

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

199

Jyoti decided to renovate her room, she spends a total amount of Rs.15,000. She spends 30% of the total amount in painting and polishing, 40% of the remaining in electric wiring, 60% of the remaining on granite flooring and the rest in buying miscellaneous materials. What is the sum of the amount she spend on electric wiring and buying miscellaneous materials?

((a))
Rs.6720
((b))
Rs,7850
((c))
Rs.10,200
((d))
Rs.5600
((e))
Rs.7000

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs.6720

200

The cost price of an article is Rs. 500. The article is marked up by 50% above its cost price. It is then sold at two successive discounts of d% and (d + 10)%, resulting in a final loss of 16%. What would be the selling price if the article were sold at a single discount of (d + 5)%?

((a))
Rs. 550
((b))
Rs. 562.5
((c))
Rs. 575
((d))
Rs. 606.5
((e))
Rs. 525

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs. 550

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