Official Paper

RRB PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 29 September 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight boxes which are A, J, K, M, P, R, T and X contains different chocolates such as Cadbury, Bournville, Chocobar, Kitkat, Dairymilk, Munch, Perk and 5stars but not necessarily in same order. They are stacked from top to bottom one below another. Box J does not contain Perk and Chocobar. The box contains Munch placed three boxes above Box T. Box R contains neither Dairymilk nor Kitkat. Box T and Box P are not placed adjacent to each other and box T does not contain 5stars and Chocobar. As many boxes are placed between box X and box M as many between box M and box T. Neither Bournville nor Kitkat contained in box A. The box contains Dairymilk is immediately below the box contains Cadbury. The Box contains Chocobar placed at least three boxes below Box R which is not placed at top position. Box P contains neither 5stars nor Dairymilk. Box K placed one of the boxes below the box of Munch. The box contains 5 stars and Box M do not placed adjacent to each other. R contains neither Bournville nor Munch. Box T placed neither at bottom position nor after A. There are only two boxes placed between the box contains Perk and R. The box contains Munch is not placed at top position. The box contains Dairymilk is placed before the box contains Bournville. Box X conatins neither Dairymilk nor 5stars. Box X placed before the box of Munch. Neither Box P nor Box J placed before box X. Box P and Box R are not adjacent to each other. The box contains 5stars placed above the box of Bournville.

1

Which of the following statement(s) is / are incorrect ?

A) The box which contains Munch placed below the box which contains Kitkat.

B) More than two boxes are placed between Box T and Box J.

C) Box K does not place below the box of Munch.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Both A and C

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    All are correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

2

Which of the following statement is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    The box which contains Kitkat placed at top position.

  2. ((b))

    Box P contains Munch.

  3. ((c))

    Box A does not contains Perk.

  4. ((d))

    Box which contains Chocobar placed two places above box A.

  5. ((e))

    More than one option.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The box which contains Kitkat placed at top position.

3

Which of the following combination is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    X - Cadbury

  2. ((b))

    J - Munch

  3. ((c))

    M - 5stars

  4. ((d))

    K - Bournville

  5. ((e))

    All are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X - Cadbury

4

How many boxes are placed above the box which contains Perk ?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Six

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

5

Which box contains Kitkat chocolates?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

6

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Seven persons B, H, I, L, M, R and S live on seven floor building such that bottom floor is floor 1 and top floor is floor 7. Who among them lives on floor 2?

I. Only three persons sit between M and I who lives who lives below M. There is only one person live between B and L who lives three floors above I.

II. S lives on odd floor but neither on top nor on bottom floor. Two persons live between R and L. H doesn’t live above M.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

7

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Six persons A, H, I, L, M, and O  went to visit temple starting from Monday to Saturday. Only one person visits on a particular day. M visits temple on Thursday. Who among them visits temple on Saturday?

I. Not less than two persons visit before I. Neither A nor H visits temple on Saturday. One person went to visit temple between I and O.

II. Neither I nor O went on Tuesday. Either A or L visits on Saturday. One person went to visit the temple between M and L. A did not go after M.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

8

A set of letters are given in each column, you have to first arrange each alphabet according to alphabetical series from left to right in each row and  then club the letters of each column and check in which column alphabets are alphabetically arranged?

IIIIIIIVV
FTMLP
XQDHO
WRKGS
  1. ((a))

    Only I and III

  2. ((b))

    Only II, III and V

  3. ((c))

    Only I, II and IV

  4. ((d))

    Only III and IV

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and III

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, %, & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not greater than or equal to B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is neither smaller nor greater than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions given below is/are definitely true?

9

Statements:

R @ U # I & L, S @ K X X % G, U & T @ A # O, I K % M @ A

Conclusions:

I. U @ A $ K

II. R % M @ L

III. L % T @ O

  1. ((a))

    Both Conclusions I and III are true

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion I is true

  4. ((d))

    None of the Conclusions are true

  5. ((e))

    Only Conclusion III is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Conclusions I and III are true

10

Statements:

J $ M & T @ P, O # K # U & X, U $ T $ F & X, P # V # H $ K

Conclusions:

I. P @ H $ O

II. P & H $ O

III. T @ P $ F

  1. ((a))

    Both Conclusions II and III are true

  2. ((b))

    Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusions I and III are true

  4. ((d))

    None of the Conclusions are true 

  5. ((e))

    Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II and Conclusion III are true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Conclusions II and III are true

11

Statements:

I & T X X U, Z @ J @ A & U, M @ K @ R # T, X # S @ B $ H

Conclusions:

I. J @ U @ S

II. M % X @ B

III. I R R J

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion II is true

  2. ((b))

    Both Conclusions I and III are true 

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion I is true

  4. ((d))

    All the Conclusions are true

  5. ((e))

    Either Conclusion II or Conclusion III is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion II is true

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

An uncertain number of person sit on horizontal row faces in north direction and each person likes different colour. Only two persons sit between T and the person who likes Pink colour. M sits three places away from the person who likes Grey colour. As many persons sit between J and X as many persons between S and the person who likes Yellow colour. The person who likes Green colour sits fifth to the left of Y. Q sits four places away from the person who likes Grey colour. R sits second to the left of the person who likes Black colour. Nine persons sit between B and the person who likes Pink colour. J sits seventh from right end. No one sits to the left of the person who likes Red colour. S sits to the right of J. Only three persons sit between the person who likes Blue colour and J. Neither B nor X like Violet or Yellow colour.  As many persons sit Y and S as many between the person who likes Red colour and T. The person who likes White colour sits two places away from J. The person who likes Blue colour sits fifth to the right of B. T sits fourth right of the person who likes Black colour. R sits two places away from Q. Q sits fourth from left end. No one sits to the left of R. The number of person sit between Q and T is one less than the number of person sit between B and Y. J does not sit to the left of the person who likes Blue colour. More than six persons sit between Y and the person who likes Pink colour. More than six persons sit between M and the person who likes Green colour and M does not sit to the left of T.

12

Which of the following statements is / are the correct ?

A) B likes Green colour.

B) No one sits to the right of the person who likes White colour.

C) S sits second to the right of the person who likes Yellow colour.

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    Only C

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    All are correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B

13

Find odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    S - Yellow

  2. ((b))

    J - Violet

  3. ((c))

    M - Pink

  4. ((d))

    Q - Grey

  5. ((e))

    B - White

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S - Yellow

14

Which of the following statement is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    M likes Violet colour.

  2. ((b))

    The person who likes Green sits to the right of X.

  3. ((c))

    T and the person who likes green is same.

  4. ((d))

    X sits to the right of J.

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M likes Violet colour.

15

How many persons sit between Y and the person who likes Pink colour ?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Seven

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Eight

  5. ((e))

    More than seven

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

16

What is the strength of the row?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    46

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    36

  5. ((e))

    49

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Input: 376824   943875   584762   758493   843642   395648

Step I: 386925   842865   594863   657483    742632   405749

Step II: 387006   842929   594944   657547    742681    405830

Step III: 180080  721842   203694   423554    71248   4003

Step IV: 248   400   424   2064    2842    80080     

Step V:  128    160    124    464    6042    64080

Step VI:  33     21       21       42      48     90

Step VI is the last step of the arrangement, based on the above logic rearrange the given input.

Input: 478269    835264     712386    384561      532649        784678

17

What is sum of first two number in step VI?

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    32

  5. ((e))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55

18

Find the odd one out in step V ?

  1. ((a))

    42

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    28

  5. ((e))

    3622

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

19

Which of the following is the correct arrangement of last step ?

  1. ((a))

    0  10  12  10  52  20

  2. ((b))

    52   20   12    10   0   10

  3. ((c))

    12   10   10   20   0   52

  4. ((d))

    0   10   20  12   52  10

  5. ((e))

    10  0   20   12   10   52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0  10  12  10  52  20

20

What comes first to the left of the number which is third from right end in step III ?

  1. ((a))

    2776

  2. ((b))

    561217

  3. ((c))

    272070

  4. ((d))

    561022

  5. ((e))

    101221

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2776

21

What is the position of number 26 with respect to number 68 in step IV ?

  1. ((a))

    Second to the right 

  2. ((b))

    Immediate left

  3. ((c))

    Third to the left

  4. ((d))

    Second to the left

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second to the right 

22

One sweet shop owner thinks to start customizing the sweets with respect to the need of customers. In this way, they can get more customers. But by doing this, their production capacity will reduce because they have to customize sweets and because of different customers have different demand, so they can't sell all of their sweets in a day which they used to sell earlier.

What can be inferred from the above situation?

A) Sweet shop can't make more profit by customizing sweets.

B) Their market demand will increase by doing this.

C) All of their sweets will sell out in one day.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Both B and C

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    None can be inferred.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

23

A company observed that seven out of ten houses uses furniture of customized house set which was made by company X. However production cost of furniture of company X is more than all other available furniture in the market. Also company X is earning 70% of his annual income in city of US in comparison to other companies.

Which of the following statement can be inferred from above passage?

A) Company will focus on less on making other costlier product.

B) People of that city like to purchase the customized set of furniture of company X.

C) People would not buy furniture because prices are very high.

D) Company X is using best quality material.

  1. ((a))

    Only A and D can be inferred.

  2. ((b))

    Only A, B, and C can be inferred.

  3. ((c))

    Only B, C, and D can be inferred.

  4. ((d))

    All of them can be inferred.

  5. ((e))

    Only B can be inferred.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A and D can be inferred.

24

School A is planning to expand a new building for their classes. There are two sections for each class already but they want extra rooms so that new students can enroll for the courses.

Which of the following statement weaken the above decision? 

A) By building new rooms, area of school playground will be decreased. 

B) There is another school in the area where students are taking admission.

C) Many students wanted to take admission in this school last year but could not have taken due to less seating capacity.

D) Parents of the students already complaining about the less attention towards their children.

  1. ((a))

    Only B and C.

  2. ((b))

    Only A, C, and D.

  3. ((c))

    Only A and D.

  4. ((d))

    Only A, B, and C.

  5. ((e))

    Only C, B, and D.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B and C.

25

A hospital has launched a policy where any individual can apply and reserve his slot for medical checkup 24 hours before and he will be provided 10% discount on their medical cost.

Which of the following might not be the reason why people not use and avail discount given by the hospital?

A) Maximum number of people are old people who do not know how to use technology. They do not want to take discount and want to book slot on the same day.

B) Company did not pay much attention towards advertisement by thinking that it will automatically reach out to consumers.

C) People are rich and they want to pay more.

  1. ((a))

    Only B.

  2. ((b))

    Only A and C.

  3. ((c))

    Only C and B.

  4. ((d))

    Only C.

  5. ((e))

    None.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B.

26

"Mega Resort", which signed an MoU with an organization Y, with which they have been saving endangered turtles since two years. But this year, they did not partner with this organisation. Rather, they partnered with another organization X.

Which of the following weakens the decision taken by the resort?

A) Organisation is focusing on tribal flora and fauna of the region. 

B) Mega Resort wants the best economic outcomes.

C) Organisation Y is a much more established and stable organisation as compared to Organisation X.

  1. ((a))

    Only B and C. 

  2. ((b))

    Only A and B.

  3. ((c))

    Only C. 

  4. ((d))

    Only A and C.

  5. ((e))

    None of them.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B and C. 

27

In the given words, all the consonants are changed to its next letter and all the vowels are changed to its previous letter as per the alphabetical series then all the repeated letters and those come after P are eliminated separately. How many letters remain after this?

EXCURSION

MANIFEST

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Seven persons A, B,G, M, P, Q and U born on same date and same month but different years viz, 1983, 1987, 1992, 1994, 2000, 2007 and 2011 and different cities such as Delhi, Goa, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kolkata, Pune and Ranchi but not necessarily in same order. A born in the year which is divisible by 3 but before leap century. The person who was born in Pune does not born in leap year. Q born in a prime number year. The person who born in Kolkata born before M who does not born in both Delhi and Kanpur. Neither M nor B born in Goa or Jaipur. The difference between birth year of U and M is half of the difference of B and G. P born either in Pune or in Delhi. Neither Kolkata nor Kanpur is the birth city of Q. Either U or P born in Ranchi. Neither Q nor B born in Delhi. P is not older than M. The person who born in Jaipur born after B.

28

Who among them born in 1983 and which city?

  1. ((a))

    A, Goa

  2. ((b))

    Q, Delhi

  3. ((c))

    M, Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    U, Ranchi

  5. ((e))

    A, Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, Goa

29

Which of the following statement is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    A is youngest among all.

  2. ((b))

    The person who born in Ranchi is second youngest.

  3. ((c))

    M born in leap year.

  4. ((d))

    P born in a leap year in Pune.

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A is youngest among all.

30

Find odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    Q - Goa

  2. ((b))

    M - Pune 

  3. ((c))

    G - Jaipur

  4. ((d))

    A - Kanpur

  5. ((e))

    P - Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q - Goa

31

Which of the following statement is correct ?

A) P is older than only two persons.

B) G born in Jaipur.

C) A born in Kolkata.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    All are correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

32

Who among them born in Kanpur ?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons B, D, G, K, L, P, M and U sit on a row and each person like different fruits viz, Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi, Litchi, Mango and Orange but not necessarily in same order. They sit on two different rows such that four persons sit on row 1 and faces in South direction and rest four persons on row 2 and faces in North direction such that each person on row 2 faces the person on row 1.The person who likes Litchi sits second to the left of D. G sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right to the person who likes Mango. U and the person who likes Guava sit on same row. Neither B nor M likes Apple. K sits to the right of the person who sits second right of the person who sits opposite to the person who likes Grapes. The person who likes Banana and the person who likes Kiwi do not sit on same row. P does not sit at any extreme end. The person who sits immediate right to the person who like Guava does not face in North direction. P and G face in opposite direction. The person who likes Kiwi and M sit on same row but different to U. G sits two places away from the person who likes Grapes. B sits second to the left of M. D and B does not sit on same row. The person who likes Banana is an immediate neighbour of U. Neither M nor G likes Kiwi. L faces the person who likes Apple.

33

Who among them sits opposite to the person who likes Apple?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    The person who likes Litchi.

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    The person who likes Orange.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

34

Which of the following statement is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    G and the person who likes Orange sit on same row.

  2. ((b))

    M faces south direction.

  3. ((c))

    K and the person who likes Litchi faces each other.

  4. ((d))

    P sits immediate left to M.

  5. ((e))

    More than one option.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G and the person who likes Orange sit on same row.

35

Find odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    UD

  2. ((b))

    MK

  3. ((c))

    BP

  4. ((d))

    LD

  5. ((e))

    BG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UD

36

Who among them likes Kiwi ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

37

Which of the following combination is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    D - Grapes

  2. ((b))

    U - Litchi

  3. ((c))

    M - Orange

  4. ((d))

    K - Mango

  5. ((e))

    L - Guava

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D - Grapes

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

In a family of ten members of three generations, there are three married couple and no single parent. Q is the father – in – law of U who has only one child. M is the aunt of P who is cousin of S. R is the spouse of A’s child. H is the aunt of K who is grandchild of I’s sister – in – law. S is niece of U. A has no sibling. K is not daughter of R. M is the mother of K. The number of females in a family is more than the number of males. I and P have same gender.

38

How is R related to M?

  1. ((a))

    Father

  2. ((b))

    Wife

  3. ((c))

    Husband

  4. ((d))

    Mother

  5. ((e))

    Sibling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father

39

Which of the following statement is true?

  1. ((a))

    R is the daughter of Q.

  2. ((b))

    I is the sister of M.

  3. ((c))

    S is daughter of M.

  4. ((d))

    P is daughter of A.

  5. ((e))

    All are correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R is the daughter of Q.

40

In some way U is related to H, then in the same manner Q is related to whom?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

41

In which year was IPv6 launched? 

  1. ((a))

    1995 

  2. ((b))

    1998 

  3. ((c))

    2000 

  4. ((d))

    2012

  5. ((e))

    2003

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1995 

42

What is the main purpose of using Microsoft Access?

  1. ((a))

    Word processing

  2. ((b))

    Spreadsheet calculations

  3. ((c))

    Data analysis

  4. ((d))

    Database management

  5. ((e))

    Graphic design

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Word processing

43

Which device primarily uses optical discs to store data?

  1. ((a))

    Solid State Drive (SSD)

  2. ((b))

    Blu-ray

  3. ((c))

    Flash Drive

  4. ((d))

    Hard Drive

  5. ((e))

    Magnetic Tape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solid State Drive (SSD)

44

Which symbol is commonly used to mark an email as important?

  1. ((a))

    At Symbol (@)

  2. ((b))

    Hash Tag (#) 

  3. ((c))

    Asterisk (*)

  4. ((d))

     Exclamation Mark (!)

  5. ((e))

    Dollar Sign ($)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At Symbol (@)

45

Which of the following is an operating system?

  1. ((a))

    Linux

  2. ((b))

    Microsoft Windows

  3. ((c))

    Mac OS X

  4. ((d))

    VMS

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Linux

46

What is the function of the control unit in the CPU? 

  1. ((a))

    To transfer data to primary storage

  2. ((b))

    To perform logic functions

  3. ((c))

    To decode program instructions

  4. ((d))

    To store program instructions

  5. ((e))

    Storage of data

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To transfer data to primary storage

47

Ransomware is classified as:

  1. ((a))

    Spyware

  2. ((b))

    Decrypting malware

  3. ((c))

    Encrypting malware

  4. ((d))

    Rootkit

  5. ((e))

    Adware 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spyware

48

Which one of the sequences is in smallest to largest?

  1. ((a))

    Gigabytes, Megabytes. Terabytes

  2. ((b))

    Megabytes Gigabytes. Terabytes

  3. ((c))

    Terabytes, Megabytes, Gigabytes

  4. ((d))

    Terabytes, Gigabytes Megabytes,

  5. ((e))

    Megabytes, Terabytes, Gigabytes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gigabytes, Megabytes. Terabytes

49

_____is a record and playback tool that simply records your Excel steps and help to play it back as many times as you want.

  1. ((a))

    Arrange call

  2. ((b))

    New window

  3. ((c))

    Print brek preview

  4. ((d))

    Macros

  5. ((e))

    Save window.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arrange call

50

What technology is bitcoin built on?

  1. ((a))

    Data mining

  2. ((b))

    Enterprise resource planning

  3. ((c))

    Blockchain

  4. ((d))

    Data warehousing

  5. ((e))

    None of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data mining

51

What does VMX stand for in computing?

  1. ((a))

    Virtual Machine Extension 

  2. ((b))

    Video Memory Exchange

  3. ((c))

    Vector Machine eXecution

  4. ((d))

    Virtual Memory eXchange

  5. ((e))

    Virtual Model eXecutor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virtual Machine Extension 

52

Which protocol is used for sending email?

  1. ((a))

    HTTP

  2. ((b))

    ARP

  3. ((c))

    ICMP 

  4. ((d))

    POP3

  5. ((e))

    SMTP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HTTP

53

Which of the following best describes a factory reset?

  1. ((a))

    It's a process that upgrades all software to the latest version.

  2. ((b))

    It's a procedure that restores a device to its original manufacturer settings.

  3. ((c))

    It's a method to selectively delete files without affecting settings.

  4. ((d))

    It's an action that optimizes device performance without data loss.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It's a process that upgrades all software to the latest version.

54

Which of the following option correctly describes use of firewall?

  1. ((a))

    Preventing unauthorized access

  2. ((b))

    Data sharing between different servers

  3. ((c))

    Fast web browsing

  4. ((d))

    Preventing computer hardware from any damage

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Preventing unauthorized access

55

Which two sorts of booting methods are there?

  1. ((a))

    Total booting

  2. ((b))

    In Depth booting

  3. ((c))

    Cold and warm booting

  4. ((d))

    Complete and partial booting

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Total booting

56

Which one of the following is the basic unit of information in quantum computing?

  1. ((a))

    OCTABYTE

  2. ((b))

    QUBIT

  3. ((c))

    QUBYTE

  4. ((d))

    GIGABIT

  5. ((e))

    BIT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OCTABYTE

57

In Excel, which function is used to verify if a specific data value is entered in a cell?

  1. ((a))

    MATCH()

  2. ((b))

    ISBLANK()

  3. ((c))

    COUNTIF()

  4. ((d))

    ISNUMBER()

  5. ((e))

    IF()

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MATCH()

58

Which of the following is latest version of Windows?

  1. ((a))

    Windows Vista

  2. ((b))

    Windows XP

  3. ((c))

    Windows 8

  4. ((d))

    Windows 10

  5. ((e))

    Windows 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Windows Vista

59

What kind of memory is both static and non volatile?

  1. ((a))

    Register

  2. ((b))

    CACHE

  3. ((c))

    RAM

  4. ((d))

    ROM

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Register

60

What is the meaning of encryption? 

  1. ((a))

    The process of converting plaintext into unreadable code 

  2. ((b))

    The process of compressing data to save space

  3. ((c))

    The method of creating backups of data

  4. ((d))

    The technique of organizing data into tables

  5. ((e))

    The protocol for accessing remote servers securely

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The process of converting plaintext into unreadable code 

61

What is the decimal value of the binary number (101010)?

  1. ((a))

    42

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    26

  5. ((e))

    43

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

62

Which of the following is not an antivirus software?

  1. ((a))

    iOS

  2. ((b))

    Kaspersky

  3. ((c))

    AVG

  4. ((d))

    McAfee

  5. ((e))

    Norton

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

iOS

63

Which statement is true about temporary data storage memory? 

  1. ((a))

    It retains data even when the power is off. 

  2. ((b))

    It is used for permanent data storage.

  3. ((c))

    It is used for archival purposes.

  4. ((d))

     It is typically faster than hard drive storage.

  5. ((e))

    It has a larger capacity than permanent storage.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It retains data even when the power is off. 

64

In Excel, which symbol is used to concatenate text?

  1. ((a))

    %

  2. ((b))
  3. ((c))

    &

  4. ((d))

  5. ((e))

    $

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

%

65

Vacuum Tubes were used by_______ Generation of Computers.

  1. ((a))

    First

  2. ((b))

    Second

  3. ((c))

    Third

  4. ((d))

    Fourth

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

First

66

Which of the following is termed as software of the computer and not hardware?

  1. ((a))

    Monitor

  2. ((b))

    Key board

  3. ((c))

    Operating system

  4. ((d))

    Hard Drive

  5. ((e))

    Printer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Monitor

67

In Word, you can force a page break by:

  1. ((a))

    Positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key

  2. ((b))

    Positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter

  3. ((c))

    Using the Insert/Section break on the Insert tab

  4. ((d))

    Changing the font size of your document

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key

68

Is it required to provide an initial name when saving a new document?

  1. ((a))

    Yes, you must always provide an initial name.

  2. ((b))

    No, a default name will be assigned automatically.

  3. ((c))

    Yes, but only in certain software applications.

  4. ((d))

    No, the document cannot be saved without an initial name.

  5. ((e))

    not required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yes, you must always provide an initial name.

69

What is the quickest method to insert a table in Microsoft Word?

  1. ((a))

    Go to the "Insert" tab and click on "Table"

  2. ((b))

    Press Ctrl + T

  3. ((c))

    Use the "Table" command in the "Home" tab

  4. ((d))

    Right-click and choose "Insert Table"

  5. ((e))

    Drag and drop a table from Excel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Go to the "Insert" tab and click on "Table"

70

Which storage device is used for storing Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)?

  1. ((a))

    Random Access Memory (RAM)

  2. ((b))

    Read Only Memory (ROM)

  3. ((c))

    Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

  4. ((d))

    Solid State Drive (SSD)

  5. ((e))

    Random only Memory 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Random Access Memory (RAM)

71

What is the name of the parent company of Facebook and Instagram?

  1. ((a))

    Meta Platforms, Inc. 

  2. ((b))

    Amazon

  3. ((c))

    Google

  4. ((d))

    Twitter

  5. ((e))

    Microsoft

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Meta Platforms, Inc. 

72

Which interface is typically used for connecting internal hard drives in modern desktop computers?

  1. ((a))

    SATA

  2. ((b))

    USB

  3. ((c))

    HDMI

  4. ((d))

    FireWire

  5. ((e))

    Display Port

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SATA

73

What is a Trojan horse in computer security?

  1. ((a))

    Software used for data recovery

  2. ((b))

    A type of malware that replicates itself 

  3. ((c))

    A program that seems legitimate but damages the system

  4. ((d))

    Antivirus software

  5. ((e))

    A network attack method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Software used for data recovery

74

Which type of memory stores data currently being processed by the CPU?

  1. ((a))

    Hard Drive

  2. ((b))

    ROM (Read-Only Memory)

  3. ((c))

    RAM (Random Access Memory) 

  4. ((d))

    Cache Memory

  5. ((e))

    External Storage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hard Drive

75

Which component is often added to a computer to enhance its performance? 

  1. ((a))

    Additional RAM

  2. ((b))

    External Hard Drive

  3. ((c))

    Standard Keyboard

  4. ((d))

    Optical Mouse

  5. ((e))

    USB Hub

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Additional RAM

76

Which register stores the results produced by Arithmetic and Logic Units?

  1. ((a))

    Memory Data

  2. ((b))

    Program counter

  3. ((c))

    Accumulator

  4. ((d))

    Logical

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Memory Data

77

Which memory unit has the fastest access time?

  1. ((a))

    Cache Memory

  2. ((b))

    Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

  3. ((c))

    Random Access Memory (RAM)

  4. ((d))

    Solid State Drive (SSD)

  5. ((e))

    Optical Disc

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cache Memory

78

Which symptom represents a self-replicating program?

  1. ((a))

    Mobile phone virus

  2. ((b))

    Worm

  3. ((c))

    Macro virus

  4. ((d))

    Anti-virus

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mobile phone virus

79

What is the default orientation of slides in MS PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    Portrait

  2. ((b))

    Landscape

  3. ((c))

    Center

  4. ((d))

    1024 x 720 Px

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Portrait

80

Which type of network is a USB commonly associated with?

  1. ((a))

    Local Area Network (LAN)

  2. ((b))

    Personal Area Network (PAN)

  3. ((c))

    Wide Area Network (WAN)

  4. ((d))

    Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

  5. ((e))

    Storage Area Network (SAN)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Local Area Network (LAN)

General Awareness (40 questions)

81

Which bank is receiving up to US$500 million financing from IFC to support microloans for women in semi-urban and rural areas?

  1. ((a))

    HDFC Bank

  2. ((b))

    ICICI Bank

  3. ((c))

    Axis Bank

  4. ((d))

    State Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Kotak Mahindra Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HDFC Bank

82

Which companies from India have been placed under the "Titans" category in TIME's 2024 list of the 100 Most Influential Companies?

  1. ((a))

    Reliance Industries and Tata Group

  2. ((b))

    Serum Institute of India and Reliance Industries

  3. ((c))

    Tata Group and Adar Poonawalla's Serum Institute

  4. ((d))

    Reliance Industries and Serum Institute of India

  5. ((e))

    Tata Group and Mukesh Ambani's Reliance Industries

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reliance Industries and Tata Group

83

What is the name of the portal to track unclaimed deposits, unveiled by the RBI?

  1. ((a))

    UDGAM

  2. ((b))

    RUPIYA

  3. ((c))

    JANM

  4. ((d))

    UDAY

  5. ((e))

    ANTARDRISHTI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UDGAM

84

In May 2024, Which company signed the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Airbus Helicopters for financing the purchase of helicopters in India?

  1. ((a))

    HDFC Bank

  2. ((b))

    SIDBI 

  3. ((c))

    ICICI Bank

  4. ((d))

    Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    State Bank of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HDFC Bank

85

Which country became the first in South America to adopt the UPI technology for its payment system?

  1. ((a))

    Brazil

  2. ((b))

    Peru

  3. ((c))

    Argentina

  4. ((d))

    Colombia

  5. ((e))

    Chile

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brazil

86

When is World Bee Day observed annually across the globe?

  1. ((a))

    19 May

  2. ((b))

    20 May

  3. ((c))

    21 May

  4. ((d))

    22 May

  5. ((e))

    25 May

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19 May

87

Which of the following statements regarding the MGNREGA wage hike for FY25 is/are correct?

  1. Wage rates in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand saw a 3% increase for FY25.
  2. Goa experienced the highest wage hike at 10.6% for FY25.
  3. The wage increase for FY25 is between 5-8% across all states.
  1. ((a))

    1 only 

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 2 only

  5. ((e))

    1 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only 

88

Which anniversary does NATO celebrates in 2024?

  1. ((a))

    75th

  2. ((b))

    76th

  3. ((c))

    89th

  4. ((d))

    90th

  5. ((e))

    72nd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75th

89

What is the tenure after which a Savings Fund or Current Account is treated as an "Inoperative Account" if there are no customer-induced transactions?

  1. ((a))

    12 months

  2. ((b))

    24 months

  3. ((c))

    36 months 

  4. ((d))

    48 months

  5. ((e))

    60 months

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 months

90

Which country will take over the leadership of the G20 in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Philippines

  2. ((b))

    Australia

  3. ((c))

    Japan

  4. ((d))

    South Africa

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Philippines

91

RBI has set eligibility criteria for which type of banks to transition into Universal Banks under on-tap licensing?

  1. ((a))

    Public Sector Banks (PSBs)

  2. ((b))

    Small Finance Banks (SFBs)

  3. ((c))

    Private Sector Banks

  4. ((d))

    Cooperative Banks

  5. ((e))

    Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Public Sector Banks (PSBs)

92

With the help of which organization did GalaxEye test its home-built synthetic aperture radar (SAR) on a high-flying drone?

  1. ((a))

    ISRO

  2. ((b))

    DRDO

  3. ((c))

    CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratory

  4. ((d))

    BHEL

  5. ((e))

    IISC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ISRO

93

Which of the following countries was not elected to the UN Security Council as a non-permanent member for the 2024-2025 term?

  1. ((a))

    Pakistan

  2. ((b))

    Somalia

  3. ((c))

    Panama

  4. ((d))

    Italy

  5. ((e))

    Denmark

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pakistan

94

Which of the following statements about Priority Sector Lending (PSL) are correct?

  1. PSL mandates banks to allocate a portion of their lending to sectors like agriculture, MSMEs, education, housing, and microfinance.
  2. Only public sector banks are required to meet PSL targets, while private and foreign banks are exempt.
  3. PSL helps in financial inclusion by ensuring affordable credit to underprivileged sectors and encourages balanced economic development.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 2 only

  5. ((e))

    1 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

95

What is the name of the app launched by the Election Commission of India to facilitate voting for persons with disabilities?

  1. ((a))

    VoterAssist

  2. ((b))

    Saksham App

  3. ((c))

    AccessibleVote

  4. ((d))

    PwD Connect

  5. ((e))

    EasyVote

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VoterAssist

96

Recently which company changed its name to Meta?

  1. ((a))

    Yahoo

  2. ((b))

    Oracle

  3. ((c))

    Apple

  4. ((d))

    Facebook

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yahoo

97

As per the recent news reports, What is the projected growth rate of India's gig workforce by 2030?

  1. ((a))

    3.5 million

  2. ((b))

    15%

  3. ((c))

    23.5 million

  4. ((d))

    4.1%

  5. ((e))

    7 million

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.5 million

98

Under which project will the financial support of Rs. 1 lakh be provided for the UPSC Mains Scholarship for students?

  1. ((a))

    Mission Karmayogi

  2. ((b))

    NIRMAN

  3. ((c))

    Atmanirbhar Bharat

  4. ((d))

    Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

  5. ((e))

    Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mission Karmayogi

99

Which of the following statements about Geographical Indications (GI) tags in India are correct?

  1. The target set by the Union Minister of Commerce & Industry is to reach 10,000 GI tags by 2030.
  2. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of GI-tagged products in India, followed by Tamil Nadu.
  3. GI Tag is valid for 10 Years.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 2 only

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

100

Which is the largest coal company in India?

  1. ((a))

    Singareni Collieries

  2. ((b))

    Bharat Coking Coal Limited

  3. ((c))

    Coal India Limited (CIL)

  4. ((d))

    Tata Steel

  5. ((e))

    Western Coalfields Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Singareni Collieries

101

What is the revised bulk deposit limit for scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) according to the RBI's new proposal?

  1. ((a))

    ₹1 crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹2 crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹3 crore

  4. ((d))

     ₹5 crore

  5. ((e))

    ₹10 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹1 crore

102

Which abbreviation is not related to banking but related to loans & advances?

  1. ((a))

    CVV

  2. ((b))

    LTV

  3. ((c))

    KCC

  4. ((d))

    EMI 

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CVV

103

What is the name of the mission aimed at building a competent civil service in India, with a focus on enhancing government-citizen interactions?

  1. ((a))

    Mission Bharat

  2. ((b))

    Mission Karmayogi

  3. ((c))

    Mission New India

  4. ((d))

    Mission Civil Service Reform

  5. ((e))

    Mission Empower India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mission Bharat

104

Nobel prize awardee Peter Higgs, passed away recently. He works on the theory of “Higgs Boson” also known as which particle?

  1. ((a))

    God Particle.

  2. ((b))

    Bosons

  3. ((c))

    Atom

  4. ((d))

    Electron

  5. ((e))

    Black Particle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

God Particle.

105

Which of the following statements about the SWAMIH Investment Fund is correct?

  1. The SWAMIH Investment Fund was set up by the Ministry of Finance in 2019 to complete stressed and stalled residential projects in India.
  2. The SWAMIH Investment Fund has completed 20,557 homes so far and aims to complete 81,000 homes in the next three years across 30 cities.
  3. The SWAMIH Investment Fund provides financing only to residential projects that are RERA-registered and have been stalled due to lack of funds.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 2 only

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

106

 What is the name of the ship-mounted defence system deployed by Israel, which is a naval version of the Iron Dome?

  1. ((a))

    C-Dome

  2. ((b))

    Sea Shield

  3. ((c))

    Iron Shield

  4. ((d))

    Dome Guard

  5. ((e))

    Sea Dome

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C-Dome

107

What is the maximum compensation that can be awarded by the Banking Ombudsman, including for mental agony and harassment?

  1. ((a))

    20 Lakhs

  2. ((b))

    21 Lakhs

  3. ((c))

    22 Lakhs

  4. ((d))

    25 Lakhs

  5. ((e))

    28 Lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 Lakhs

108

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Namo Drone Didi scheme?

  1. The Namo Drone Didi scheme was launched to provide drones to 15,000 Women Self Help Groups (SHGs) for agricultural purposes.
  2. The scheme offers a Central Financial Assistance of 50% of the cost of drones, up to ₹5 lakh.
  3. The scheme aims to generate additional income of at least ₹1 lakh per annum for each SHG.
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    Only 2

  5. ((e))

    Only 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2

109

Blue Origin is a space technology company founded by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Elon Musk

  2. ((b))

    Jeff Bezos

  3. ((c))

    Richard Branson

  4. ((d))

    Bill Gates

  5. ((e))

    Mark Zuckerberg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elon Musk

110

Which city is known as the "perfume capital of India"?

  1. ((a))

    Kannauj

  2. ((b))

    Lucknow

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    Kanpur

  5. ((e))

    Latur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kannauj

111

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding SVAMITVA Scheme?

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme. 2. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Panchayat Raj. 3. It aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only 

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only 

112

The Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India is based on the recommendations of __________.

  1. ((a))

    NITI Aayog

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

  3. ((c))

    Food Corporation of India

  4. ((d))

    Reserve Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NITI Aayog

113

Which of the following statements about the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is correct?

  1. TReDS platforms were introduced by the RBI to facilitate financing of trade receivables for MSMEs, and they process an estimated annual worth of Rs 60,000 crore in transactions.
  2. The RBI has expanded TReDS by allowing insurance companies to participate as stakeholders, providing an insurance facility to hedge against default risks.
  3. The participants in TReDS platforms include MSME sellers, buyers, financiers, and insurance companies as the “fourth participant,” with financiers evaluating bids based on the credit rating of buyers.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 3 only

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

114

What is the revised minimum age for senior citizens to avail the postal ballot voting facility in India?

  1. ((a))

    80 years

  2. ((b))

    85 years

  3. ((c))

    90 years

  4. ((d))

    78 years

  5. ((e))

    75 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80 years

115

Which port in India achieved the highest cargo throughput in FY 2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port (Kandla)?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai Port

  2. ((b))

    Paradip Port

  3. ((c))

    Chennai Port

  4. ((d))

    Jawaharlal Nehru Port

  5. ((e))

    Kolkata Port

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai Port

116

Evaluate the accuracy of the following statements about the QS World University Rankings 2025 and the performance of Indian universities:

  1. IIT Bombay was ranked 118th globally, moving up 31 ranks from the previous year.
  2. IIT Delhi ascended 47 ranks to reach the 150th position globally.
  3. Majority of the Indian universities in the QS World University Rankings 2025 saw a decline in their rankings.
  4. University of Delhi jumped 79 ranks to place 328th globally.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  3. ((c))

    Only 3 is correct

  4. ((d))

    Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct

  5. ((e))

    All of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct

117

Where was the 9th edition of the Raisina Dialogue inaugurated?

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    Pune

  5. ((e))

    Lucknow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Delhi

118

What type of company typically provides a surety bond?

  1. ((a))

    Bank

  2. ((b))

    Insurance Company

  3. ((c))

    Real Estate Company

  4. ((d))

    Government Agency

  5. ((e))

    Consultancy Firm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bank

119

As per the Union Budget 2021-22, SVAMITVA Scheme is to be extended to all States/UTs. This scheme is related to which among the following?

  1. ((a))

    Property

  2. ((b))

    Education

  3. ((c))

    Farming

  4. ((d))

    Fisheries

  5. ((e))

    Nutrition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Property

120

Consider the following statements about Alternative Investment Funds (AIF):

  1. AIFs are private funds which do not come under the jurisdiction of any regulatory agency in India.
  2. It is an investment fund from Indian sources only.
  3. Hedge fund is an example of Alternative Investment Fund.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

English Language (40 questions)

121

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

  1. As a founding member of the NGO it was unexpected of her to ______ the donated funds for the orphans.
  2. The manager was prosecuted for helping the guilty ______ the insurance claims of many.
  1. ((a))

    Occupy

  2. ((b))

    Engross

  3. ((c))

    Engage

  4. ((d))

    Embezzle

  5. ((e))

    Rivet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Occupy

122

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

  1. The gang was held for making _______ notes of the Indian currency.
  2. There are many hawkers who sell ______  branded watches and sunglasses on the streets of Connaught place.
  1. ((a))

    counterfeit

  2. ((b))

    authentic

  3. ((c))

    modest

  4. ((d))

    credible

  5. ((e))

    misused

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

counterfeit

123

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

  1. The views in Switzerland were something out of a fairytale and we couldn't help but ______ at them.
  2. The fantasy world of Harry Potter is something that fills everyone with ______.
  1. ((a))

    Disregard

  2. ((b))

    Revulsion

  3. ((c))

    Disrelish

  4. ((d))

    Repugnance

  5. ((e))

    Marvel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Disregard

124

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions. 

Hearing that you have cancer is always _________ news.

He had suffered a _________ wound that he would never recover from.

  1. ((a))

    trivial

  2. ((b))

    grievous

  3. ((c))

    venial

  4. ((d))

    idle

  5. ((e))

    petty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

trivial

125

(I) Democracies allow citizens to vote for their leaders.

(II) Some countries still have strict authoritarian rule.

Out of the three options given below, which of them can be used to connect sentence (I) and sentence (II)?

(i) Whereas ……..

(ii) In contrast ……..

(iii) Similarly ……..

  1. ((a))

    Only (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Both (i) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (i)

  4. ((d))

    Only (iii)

  5. ((e))

    Both (ii) and (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (ii)

126

Direction: In this question, there are two statements that can be combined into a single statement in a number of different ways without changing their meaning. Below them are given three probable starters (A), (B), and (C) of such a combined sentence. One, two, three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any, and mark the option which denotes your answer. If none of the three starters is suitable mark none as your answer

The need for rural electrification was recognised in the 1950s. The first major initiative was the establishment of the Rural Electric Corporation in 1969. 

A. Although the need for....

B. While the need for...

C. Even though the need for...

  1. ((a))

    Only (A) & (C)

  2. ((b))

    Only (A) & (B)

  3. ((c))

    All (A), (B) & (C)

  4. ((d))

    Only (C)

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (A) & (C)

127

Direction: In this question, there are two/three statements that can be combined into a single statement in a number of ways without changing the meaning. Below these two/three sentences are given three probable starters (A), (B), and (C) for such a combined sentence. One, two, three, or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/ are correct, if any, and choose the option which denotes your answer. If None of the three starters is suitable mark 'none' as your answer.

The expectation of the buyer is different in different geographies. Companies must understand the psyche of the buyer and then come up with a product based on what they need.

A. Even if buyers understand the psyche of

B. Since the expectation of the buyer is different

C. As the expectation of the buyer is

  1. ((a))

    Both B and C

  2. ((b))

    Both A and C

  3. ((c))

    Both A & B

  4. ((d))

    Only B

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both B and C

128

Direction: In this question, there are two/three statements that can be combined into a single statement in a number of ways without changing the meaning. Below these two/three sentences are given three probable starters (A), (B) and (C) for such a combined sentence. One, two, three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/ are correct, if any, and choose the option which denotes your answer. If None of the three starters is suitable mark 'none' as your answer.

Last year was supposed to bring faster economic growth and a good monsoon that would end the miseries of two back-to-back years of drought. That complacency gave way to the sober realisation that optimism doesn't wait for facts.

A. Optimism will wait for facts is established

B. Despite last year being successful

C. It was believed that last year

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A & C

  3. ((c))

    Both A & B

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

In recent years, cell biology has made significant progress in understanding the roles of various cells in the human body. One of the most intriguing discoveries is related to a specific type of cell found predominantly in females. This cell, known as the follicular cell, plays a critical role in the reproductive system. Follicular cells surround and nourish the developing oocyte, providing the necessary signals and nutrients for its growth. As a result, these cells are essential for (A) _________ fertility.

Scientists are also exploring the potential of follicular cells in vaccine development. Given their unique properties, researchers believe that these cells can be (B) _________ to produce specific immune responses. This approach could lead to the creation of more efficient and targeted vaccines.

Recent studies have shown that follicular cells can be engineered to express (C) _________ that are part of a pathogen, thereby training the immune system to recognise and combat the real pathogen more effectively. This method is (D) _________ from traditional vaccine development techniques, which often rely on weakened or inactivated forms of the virus.

One of the primary challenges in this area of research is ensuring the long-term stability and safety of the engineered cells. Scientists are employing advanced techniques, such as CRISPR, to (E) _________ the genetic modifications precisely. The success of these modifications is crucial for the cells to function as intended without causing unintended side effects.

Moreover, the regulatory aspects of utilising genetically modified cells in humans present another layer of complexity. Scientists must ensure that their research complies with (F) _________ guidelines and ethical standards to gain approval from regulatory bodies.

129

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (A)?

  1. ((a))

    ensuring

  2. ((b))

    preventing

  3. ((c))

    predicting

  4. ((d))

    analysing

  5. ((e))

    questioning

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ensuring

130

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (B)?

  1. ((a))

    destroyed

  2. ((b))

    ignored

  3. ((c))

    stimulated

  4. ((d))

    examined

  5. ((e))

    hindered

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

destroyed

131

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (C)?​

  1. ((a))

    hormones

  2. ((b))

    lipids

  3. ((c))

    antigens

  4. ((d))

    enzymes

  5. ((e))

    antibodies

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

hormones

132

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (D)?​​

  1. ((a))

    indistinguishable

  2. ((b))

    derived

  3. ((c))

    separated

  4. ((d))

    different

  5. ((e))

    removed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

indistinguishable

133

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (E)?​​​

  1. ((a))

    initiate

  2. ((b))

    verify

  3. ((c))

    prevent

  4. ((d))

    compel

  5. ((e))

    insert

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

initiate

134

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (F)?​​​​

  1. ((a))

    fictional

  2. ((b))

    arbitrary

  3. ((c))

    governmental

  4. ((d))

    historical

  5. ((e))

    urban

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fictional

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Aarav: Hey Sneha, did you hear about the new digital lending policy that the bank is rolling out next quarter?

Sneha: Oh yes, I just read about it in the internal circular. It seems like a strategic move, especially in the post-pandemic era where digital is the way forward. What’s your take on it?

Aarav: I agree. With increasing smartphone penetration and UPI adoption in rural areas, this move might just be the push we need. But I’m curious—do you think it’ll benefit the underbanked segments, or is it more of a tech-savvy urban play?

Sneha: Good question. While urban clients will definitely adapt quicker, the bank is planning to introduce vernacular language support and biometric verification to ensure inclusivity. It’s not going to be a cakewalk, but the intent is there.

Aarav: That’s reassuring. You know, sometimes we launch these initiatives with a lot of pomp, but the ground reality remains unchanged.

Sneha: True, but this time, I believe the top brass has done its homework. They’ve even partnered with local fintech startups to ensure smoother onboarding and customer education.

Aarav: Sounds like we’re finally walking the talk. I just hope we don’t end up putting the cart before the horse again.

Sneha: Exactly. If the execution matches the vision, this could be a game changer for financial inclusion.

135

What is the primary focus of the new policy discussed in the conversation?

  1. ((a))

    Increasing ATM networks in rural areas

  2. ((b))

    Enhancing customer grievance redressal systems

  3. ((c))

    Introducing digital lending with inclusive features

  4. ((d))

    Launching a new mobile banking app for urban users

  5. ((e))

    Partnering only with urban tech firms for loan disbursement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increasing ATM networks in rural areas

136

According to Sneha, what specific measures are being taken to ensure inclusivity in the new initiative?

  1. ((a))

    Collaborations with international banks and MNCs

  2. ((b))

    Providing biometric verification and local language support

  3. ((c))

    Only offering services in English to maintain consistency

  4. ((d))

    Reducing interest rates for urban digital borrowers

  5. ((e))

    Introducing AI-based credit scoring only in metros

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Collaborations with international banks and MNCs

137

What does Aarav most likely mean when he says, “putting the cart before the horse”?

  1. ((a))

    Prioritising rural areas over urban development

  2. ((b))

    Addressing customer complaints before policy implementation

  3. ((c))

    Buying advanced tech before training employees

  4. ((d))

    Offering loans before establishing repayment systems

  5. ((e))

    Launching projects without sufficient groundwork

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prioritising rural areas over urban development

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Fashion is not merely an aesthetic choice; it reflects the socio-cultural currents of an era. In ancient civilisations like Egypt, Mesopotamia, and the Indus Valley, clothing served both practical and symbolic functions. Egyptians wore linen garments suited to their climate, while Mesopotamians draped woollen robes. In India, traditional attire such as the dhoti, sari, and angavastra symbolised not only identity but also regional craftsmanship.

One fascinating aspect of fashion history is the evolution of sleeves. Initially, ancient garments were sleeveless or featured minimal coverage due to climate and weaving limitations. As societies evolved, so did tailoring techniques. During the Mughal era in India, intricate sleeve designs became popular, with long, fitted sleeves and sometimes dramatic bell shapes at the cuffs. In Europe, puff sleeves came into prominence in the Renaissance period, symbolising nobility and grandeur. These oversized sleeves were both cumbersome and symbolic of high social standing, requiring a level of leisure to wear such impractical designs.

Another often-overlooked area in the study of fashion is its link to systems of labour, including slavery. The fabrics, dyes, and embroidery that defined traditional outfits were historically tied to hierarchical labour systems. Globally, slavery evolved through centuries—from chattel slavery to bonded labour and indentured servitude. After the formal abolition of slavery in the British Empire in 1833, new forms of exploitative labour emerged.

In the Indian context, a significant shift occurred post-1907 with the entry of global plantation economies, especially in tea, sugar, and cotton. Though slavery was officially outlawed, the indenture system functioned in many ways as a disguised form of bondage. Workers from rural India were sent to colonies like Fiji, Mauritius, and the Caribbean under exploitative contracts. Their traditional outfits—loose cotton garments suited for tropical climates—became markers of both cultural identity and social displacement in foreign lands.

Thus, the story of fashion is incomplete without understanding the intersection of style, structure, and servitude. Whether it’s the extravagant puff sleeve or the humble homespun cotton, clothing narrates not just taste, but also toil.

138

What was one primary reason ancient garments were mostly sleeveless?

  1. ((a))

    Fashion preferences of the elite

  2. ((b))

    Cultural bans on full-sleeved clothes

  3. ((c))

    Limitations in climate and weaving techniques

  4. ((d))

    Influence from Roman fashion

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fashion preferences of the elite

139

According to the passage, how did puff sleeves symbolise social status during the Renaissance period?

  1. ((a))

    They required wealth due to the cost of fabric

  2. ((b))

    They were associated with academic scholars

  3. ((c))

    They were worn only by married women

  4. ((d))

    They indicated military ranking

  5. ((e))

    They served religious functions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They required wealth due to the cost of fabric

140

What does the passage suggest about the link between traditional fashion and systems of labour?

  1. ((a))

    Traditional fashion evolved independently of labour structures

  2. ((b))

    The production of traditional attire often relied on exploitative labour

  3. ((c))

    Slave labour had no influence on fashion trends

  4. ((d))

    Labour systems dictated only the colours used in clothes

  5. ((e))

    Fashion was entirely determined by religious orders

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Traditional fashion evolved independently of labour structures

141

How did the post-1907 global economy affect Indian workers, as per the passage?

  1. ((a))

    It led to the industrialization of cotton farming in India

  2. ((b))

    It allowed Indian workers to access royal wardrobes

  3. ((c))

    It enabled voluntary migration to foreign countries

  4. ((d))

    It improved working conditions through better clothing options

  5. ((e))

    It created exploitative contracts under the indenture system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It led to the industrialization of cotton farming in India

142

Complete the sentence using the most appropriate word:

The passage emphasises that fashion is a __________ reflection of social and economic realities.

  1. ((a))

    superficial

  2. ((b))

    passive

  3. ((c))

    fragmented

  4. ((d))

    dynamic

  5. ((e))

    uniform

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

superficial

143

Directions: Below is a paragraph containing one or more errors. Read the paragraph carefully and identify the errors. Choose the correct option indicating the number of errors in the paragraph.

The DRAMMA model, based on Ed Diener's work, highlights six key psychological needs for well-being. Detachment underscores the importance of mentally disengaging from demanding tasks, followed to relaxation through enjoyable activities. Autonomy emphasizes control over one's time without selfishness. Mastery involve using skills for achievement and growth, while meaning comes from contributing to the greater good. Affiliation, and building warm relationships, complete this framework for a more fulfilled life.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

144

Directions: Below is a paragraph containing one or more errors. Read the paragraph carefully and identify the errors. Choose the correct option indicating the number of errors in the paragraph.

MBA students must cultivating emotional intelligence, encompassing self-awareness, emotional control, and empathy, to navigate negotiations successfully. Active listening, a foundational trait, aids and helps in building rapport by understanding the other party's perspectives. The BATNA technique stresses assessing alternative courses of actions for mutually beneficial agreements. B-Schools should adopting an interdisciplinary approach, integrating negotiation concepts, case studies, and exercises. Exposure in diverse business decision-making, coupled with experiential learning through live projects, ensures practical application and the development of essential soft skills for the corporate world.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

145

Directions: Below is a paragraph containing one or more errors. Read the paragraph carefully and identify the errors. Choose the correct option indicating the number of errors in the paragraph.

Amidst India's diabetes concerns, the 'STAR' survey explores the impact of a high-fibre supplement on 3,042 individuals with Type 2 diabetes. Published in the Indian Journal of Clinical Practice, the results reveal that those taking the supplement experienced reduced HbA1C levels, increased weight loss, and greater satiety. The survey, supported by Hindustan Unilever, aligns with global studies highlighting fibre's role in blood glucose control, cholesterol reduction, and digestive health. This underscores its potential as a valuable addition to diabetes management, reinforcing the significant of dietary interventions in addressing the country's diabetes burden.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

146

Directions: Below is a paragraph containing one or more errors. Read the paragraph carefully and identify the errors. Choose the correct option indicating the number of errors in the paragraph.

Journalists grappling with climate-related disasters face the paradox of convey urgency without inducing alarmism or reader fatigue. Reporting on recurrent events like Cyclone Vardah necessitates a delicate balance, as the risk of repetitive narratives could lead to public disinterested. The dilemma highlights the responsibility of journalists to navigating the thin line between informative reporting and avoiding narrative fatigue. However, the challenge of finding fresh perspectives amid the annual yearly cycle of disasters demands substantial resources. Ultimately, effective climate communication requires an nuanced approach to sustain public engagement and understanding.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

147

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. by helping her struggling teacher 

B. exemplifies true empathy and kindness 

C. Nandini, a 13-year-old girl, 

D. without being asked, a quality desperately 

E. needed in various aspects of life

  1. ((a))

    CBADE

  2. ((b))

    AEDCB

  3. ((c))

    BCEDA

  4. ((d))

    CABED

  5. ((e))

    DBEAC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CBADE

148

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. consideration, reflecting a societal 

B. displaying impatience and lack of 

C. with people in queues and on flights 

D. public rudeness is becoming prevalent, 

E. decline in innate kindness

  1. ((a))

    ACEDB

  2. ((b))

    BDCEA

  3. ((c))

    EADBC

  4. ((d))

    CDAEB

  5. ((e))

    DCBAE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACEDB

149

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. has seen a significant shift, 

B. India's toy industry, though small, 

C. becoming a net exporter with 

D. a 239% increase in exports 

E. and a 52% decline in imports

  1. ((a))

    ACBED

  2. ((b))

    BACDE

  3. ((c))

    CEDAB

  4. ((d))

    DBEAC

  5. ((e))

    ECBDA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACBED

150

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. financial constraints in schools 

B. sometimes lead to neglecting 

C.  perpetuating the misconception that 

D. only special educators can support them

E. the needs of children with disabilities,

  1. ((a))

    BACDE

  2. ((b))

    ABECD

  3. ((c))

    CADBE

  4. ((d))

    EBCAD

  5. ((e))

    DCBAE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BACDE

151

Replace the highlighted words in the sentence with the most appropriate set of words that best fit the context of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it stands, select “No improvement required”.

The professor’s (A) salad explanation of the theory left the students (B) evaporated, and they (C) applauded to ask several (D) trapezoids during the discussion.

  1. ((a))

    (A) detailed, (B) confused, (C) hesitated, (D) questions

  2. ((b))

    (A) logical, (B) inspired, (C) attempted, (D) experiments

  3. ((c))

    (A) vague, (B) distracted, (C) avoided, (D) observations

  4. ((d))

    (A) scientific, (B) delighted, (C) volunteered, (D) essays

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) detailed, (B) confused, (C) hesitated, (D) questions

152

Replace the highlighted words in the sentence with the most appropriate set of words that best fit the context of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it stands, select “No improvement required”.

The committee's (A) umbrellas on the policy were (B) chandelier, leaving no room for (C) pumpkins or any (D) calculators in the document.

  1. ((a))

    (A) ideas, (B) decisive, (C) support, (D) arguments

  2. ((b))

    (A) remarks, (B) unclear, (C) ambiguity, (D) revisions

  3. ((c))

    (A) conclusions, (B) conclusive, (C) availability, (D) modifications

  4. ((d))

    (A) comments, (B) explicit, (C) deviation, (D) interpretations

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) ideas, (B) decisive, (C) support, (D) arguments

153

Replace the highlighted words in the sentence with the most appropriate set of words that best fit the context of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it stands, select “No improvement required”.

The student’s (A) parachute attitude during the presentation made the teacher (B) blender and the class (C) telephoned at the lack of (D) radiators.

  1. ((a))

    (A) humorous, (B) nervous, (C) giggled, (D) seriousness

  2. ((b))

    (A) careless, (B) frustrated, (C) reacted, (D) effort

  3. ((c))

    (A) indifferent, (B) annoyed, (C) laughed, (D) preparation

  4. ((d))

    (A) confident, (B) amused, (C) murmured, (D) discipline

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) humorous, (B) nervous, (C) giggled, (D) seriousness

154

Replace the highlighted words in the sentence with the most appropriate set of words that best fit the context of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it stands, select “No improvement required”.

The CEO’s (A) thunderstorm was meant to (B) spaghetti the team, but it only led to (C) doorknobs and reduced overall (D) paperclips.

  1. ((a))

    (A) meeting, (B) discipline, (C) chaos, (D) morale

  2. ((b))

    (A) memo, (B) encourage, (C) resentment, (D) focus

  3. ((c))

    (A) announcement, (B) empower, (C) uncertainty, (D) energy

  4. ((d))

    (A) speech, (B) motivate, (C) confusion, (D) productivity

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) meeting, (B) discipline, (C) chaos, (D) morale

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In a recent conference, two renowned scientists, Dr. Meera Sharma and Prof. Rahul Desai, presented groundbreaking research on the economic impacts of rising global temperatures and the benefits of strategic environmental investments. Dr. Sharma emphasised that even a marginal increase in average temperature could lead to significant disruptions in agricultural productivity, thereby affecting food security and leading to higher commodity prices worldwide. Her analysis suggests that regions heavily dependent on farming are the most vulnerable, with potential GDP losses reaching up to 5% in some developing economies.

Prof. Desai, on the other hand, highlighted the positive outcomes of investing in green technologies and sustainable infrastructure. He argued that such investments not only help mitigate the adverse effects of temperature changes but also generate new employment opportunities in emerging sectors. According to his data, every dollar invested in environmental projects can yield up to three dollars in economic returns over the next decade. This multiplier effect, he asserted, is crucial for countries aiming to balance economic growth with ecological responsibility.

Both scientists agreed that policy frameworks need to integrate climate risks into economic planning to foster resilience. They recommended increased funding for climate adaptation measures, such as improved irrigation systems and renewable energy adoption. As Dr. Sharma put it, “Ignoring the economic impact of climate change is no longer an option. Proactive investments today can secure prosperity tomorrow.”

The conference concluded with a call to action for governments and private sectors to collaborate on sustainable development initiatives. It was clear from the discussions that addressing temperature fluctuations is not only an environmental imperative but also a sound economic strategy. In this context, the role of science-based policy-making becomes indispensable in shaping a future where economic stability and climate resilience go hand in hand.

155

According to Dr. Sharma’s research, what is the primary economic consequence of a marginal increase in average temperature?

  1. ((a))

    Increased employment in urban sectors

  2. ((b))

    Disruption in agricultural productivity leading to food insecurity

  3. ((c))

    Growth in renewable energy markets

  4. ((d))

    Decrease in commodity prices globally

  5. ((e))

    Expansion of industrial manufacturing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased employment in urban sectors

156

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Dr. Sharma states that small temperature increases can severely affect agricultural productivity and food security.

B) Prof. Desai claims that every dollar invested in environmental projects returns only the same amount in economic benefits.

C) Both scientists agree that integrating climate risks into economic planning is essential for resilience.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and C

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

157

Which of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The passage explains the scientific mechanisms behind climate change and its effects on the atmosphere.

  2. ((b))

    The passage focuses on the history of environmental policies worldwide and their implementation challenges.

  3. ((c))

    The passage highlights the negative effects of industrialisation on natural resources without suggesting solutions.

  4. ((d))

    The passage discusses the economic impact of temperature changes and the benefits of investing in environmental sustainability.

  5. ((e))

    The passage debates the political controversies surrounding climate change legislation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The passage explains the scientific mechanisms behind climate change and its effects on the atmosphere.

158

How does Prof. Desai quantify the economic benefit of investing in environmental projects?

  1. ((a))

    A loss of one dollar for every two dollars invested

  2. ((b))

    A return of two dollars for every dollar invested

  3. ((c))

    A return of three dollars for every dollar invested

  4. ((d))

    No significant economic return

  5. ((e))

    Equal amount invested and returned

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A loss of one dollar for every two dollars invested

159

What was the key message conveyed by both scientists regarding economic planning?

  1. ((a))

    Economic growth should precede environmental concerns

  2. ((b))

    Climate risks should be integrated into economic planning

  3. ((c))

    Investments in fossil fuels should be increased

  4. ((d))

    Environmental concerns have minimal impact on the economy

  5. ((e))

    Private sectors should avoid involvement in environmental projects

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Economic growth should precede environmental concerns

160

According to the passage, investing in green technologies can create new ________ in emerging sectors.

  1. ((a))

    challenges

  2. ((b))

    opportunities

  3. ((c))

    regulations

  4. ((d))

    restrictions

  5. ((e))

    uncertainties

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

challenges

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

Three individuals — P, Q, and R — each bought the same article, but at different prices. P bought the article for Rs. Y. Q purchased it at 50% more than P’s cost. R bought it at double the price P paid. P applied a discount of d% on the article, and still made a profit of Rs. 40. He had marked up the price by Rs. 100 above the cost price before giving the discount. Additionally, the cost price of the article for Q is five times the value of the discount P gave on the article.

161

Q gets the profit double than that of R on the article they bought. Now R and Q get into a partnership by investing their profits that they get from the article they bought for X months and 12 months and received a profit share in the ratio of 1 : 6 respectively. Find the value of X.

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

162

If R marked the article 30% above the cost price and gives a discount of Rs 49, then find the selling price of article P is how much more/less than the selling price of R.

  1. ((a))

    231

  2. ((b))

    221

  3. ((c))

    241

  4. ((d))

    281

  5. ((e))

    261

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

231

163

If P invested 40 times of profit he received from the article in a scheme which offers a simple interest of 15% for 5 years, then find the interest received by P.

  1. ((a))

    1650

  2. ((b))

    1250

  3. ((c))

    1750

  4. ((d))

    1200

  5. ((e))

    1900

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1650

164

Find the value of Y.

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    300

  4. ((d))

    400

  5. ((e))

    650

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

165

Find the value of d?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    22

  5. ((e))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

166

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

6, 10.5, 23, 59.5, 183, 644, 2580

  1. ((a))

    183

  2. ((b))

    59.5

  3. ((c))

    10.5

  4. ((d))

    644

  5. ((e))

    2540

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

183

167

In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given, find out that number.

2, 13, 27, 113, 561,  3369, 23581

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    113

  4. ((d))

    3369

  5. ((e))

    561

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13

168

Find the wrong term in the following number series.

11, 75, 365, 1464, 4395, 8792

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    4395

  3. ((c))

    8792

  4. ((d))

    365

  5. ((e))

    75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

169

Find the wrong term in the following number series.

567, 81, 486, 99.2, 388.8, 129.6, 259.2

  1. ((a))

    81

  2. ((b))

    259.2

  3. ((c))

    129.6

  4. ((d))

    99.2

  5. ((e))

    388.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

81

170

Train P, which is ‘d’ meters long, takes the same time to pass a 300-meter-long platform as Train Q, which is (d + 200) meters long, takes to pass a 500-meter-long platform. If the ratio of their speeds (Train P to Train Q) is 5:9, then what is the value of d?

  1. ((a))

    240

  2. ((b))

    220

  3. ((c))

    280

  4. ((d))

    200

  5. ((e))

    250

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

240

171

A, B, and C together have 60 toffees. A has 25 toffees, and C has 5 fewer toffees than B. How many toffees must be added to C so that the final number of toffees with A, B, and C is in the ratio 5 : 4 : 6, respectively?

  1. ((a))

    29

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    11

  5. ((e))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29

172

P invests Rs (X − 5000) at a compound interest rate of R% per annum for 2 years, while Q invests Rs (X + 2000) at 2R% per annum for the same period. The ratio of their investments is given to be 5 : 7. Find the difference in the compound interest earned by P and Q after 2 years.

  1. ((a))

    2400

  2. ((b))

    12400

  3. ((c))

    5600

  4. ((d))

    Can’t be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2400

The bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years.

The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years.

YearsPercentage of A type ore extraction by company XQuantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y
201640%30
201750%135
201860%75
201975%90
173

In 2020, Company X extracted 25% more D-type ore than the average A-type ore extracted by Company Y over 2016, 2017, and 2018. Also, Company Y extracted D-type ore in 2020 equal to two-fifths of the A-type ore extracted by Company X in 2017. Find the combined D-type ore extracted by Companies X and Y in 2020.

  1. ((a))

    222

  2. ((b))

    333

  3. ((c))

    444

  4. ((d))

    121

  5. ((e))

    111

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

222

174

Find the difference between the total B-type ore extracted by Company X in 2017 and 2019, and the sum of A-type ore extracted by Company X in 2016 and Company Y in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    99

  4. ((d))

    96

  5. ((e))

    77

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

64

175

In 2022, Company Y's A-type ore extraction increased by 66⅔% compared to 2016. Company Y's B-type ore extraction is half of the A-type ore extracted by Company X in 2019. Find how much more or less the total ore extracted by Company Y in 2022 is compared to the total ore extracted by Company X in 2016.

  1. ((a))

    66

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    44

  4. ((d))

    49

  5. ((e))

    77

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66

176

The B-type ore extracted by Company X in 2017 and 2015 is in the ratio 18:13. Also, the A-type ore extracted by Company X in 2019 is 20% more than what was extracted in 2015. Find the ratio of the total ore extracted by Company X in 2015 to that by Company Y in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    77:43

  2. ((b))

    43:24

  3. ((c))

    47:51

  4. ((d))

    55:59

  5. ((e))

    57:59

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

77:43

177

The average A-type ore extracted by Company X in 2016, 2017, and 2021 is 73. The total ore extracted by Company X in 2021 is 1.5 times the total ore extracted by Company Y in 2019. Find the B-type ore extracted by Company X in 2021.

  1. ((a))

    147

  2. ((b))

    171

  3. ((c))

    159

  4. ((d))

    164

  5. ((e))

    134

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

147

178

The combined A-type ore extracted by Company Y in 2016 and 2018 is what percentage of the combined B-type ore extracted by Company X in 2018 and 2019?

  1. ((a))

    87.5%

  2. ((b))

    52.5%

  3. ((c))

    63.5%

  4. ((d))

    22.5%

  5. ((e))

    62.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

87.5%

179

R and V started a business together. R invested Rs. X, while V invested Rs. 7000. After 5 months, R increased his investment by 50%. Two months later, V reduced his investment by 30%. At the end of 12 months, the total profit was Rs. 3020, out of which R received Rs. 1550 as his share. What was the initial investment made by R?

  1. ((a))

    5600

  2. ((b))

    5000

  3. ((c))

    4400

  4. ((d))

    4800

  5. ((e))

    5400

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5600

180

An article has a cost price of ₹ a and is sold at ₹ 2a. The marked price is ₹ 700 more than the cost price. Now, if both the cost price and selling price are increased by ₹ 100, but the marked price remains unchanged, then what is the difference between the new discount and the new profit on the article?

(Given: a=252−125)

  1. ((a))

    440

  2. ((b))

    460

  3. ((c))

    480

  4. ((d))

    400

  5. ((e))

    450

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

440

181

The height of a cone is equal to the height of a cylinder. The curved surface area of the cylinder is 616 cm2 and the height of the cylinder is two times of the its radius. The radius of the cone is 50% of the radius of the cylinder.

Quantity I: Find the difference between total surface area and curved surface area of the cylinder.

Quantity II: Find the curved surface area of the cone.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

182

The speed of train P is 180 km/hr and the train can cross a pole in 4 seconds. Train P can cross a man who sitting in train Q in 10 seconds, while both trains running in same direction.

Quantity I: Speed of train Q (in m/sec.).

Quantity II: If speed of train P is decrease by 20 m/sec., then find the new speed of train P (in m/sec.)

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. ((c))

     Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

183

The age of P after four years and the present age of Q is in the ratio 5:6 respectively. Q is 12 years younger than R and the average of the present ages of P, Q and R is 65.

Quantity I. 840

Quantity II. 6 times the sum of the present ages of Q and R.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

184

The one root of equation 𝐏2−𝟏𝟎𝐏 + 𝟐𝟓 = 𝟎 is x and [x/𝟓 = 𝟏𝟏/ [𝒛 +𝟏].

Quantity I. 10z

Quantity II. 100

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I < Quantity II

In Society A, the number of sold flats is 3.5 times more than the number of unsold flats. In Society C, all flats are sold. Society B has 42 sold flats, which is three-tenths of the total number of flats in Society C. If the total number of flats (sold + unsold) in Society A is doubled, then the combined total number of flats in Societies A, B, and C becomes 612. Also, Society B has 78 unsold flats.

185

If total unsold flats in society A are [x + 2], Find the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    34

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48

186

If total number of sold flats in society D are 1/4th of total flats (sold + unsold) in society A, then find the difference between total sold flats in society in D and C?

  1. ((a))

    76

  2. ((b))

    96

  3. ((c))

    98

  4. ((d))

    84

  5. ((e))

    88

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

76

187

Out of total unsold flats from society B, 28 were sold, then find the ratio of total unsold flats in society B now to total sold flats in society B now & C together?

  1. ((a))

    7 : 19

  2. ((b))

    6 : 19

  3. ((c))

    5 : 21

  4. ((d))

    7 : 23

  5. ((e))

    4 : 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 : 19

188

A person earns Rs 30,000 every month. He spends a% of his income on rent and (a + 5) % on EMI. After these expenses, he uses 45% of his remaining income for education. If the money spent on education is the same as the money spent on rent, find the amount spent on EMI (in rupees)?

  1. ((a))

    8890

  2. ((b))

    8250

  3. ((c))

    8450

  4. ((d))

    8960

  5. ((e))

    8740

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8890

189

A principal amount is invested at 12% per annum simple interest for a period of 4 years, 11 months, and 28 days in a scheme. The total amount received from this scheme is then invested for 2 years and 2 days in another scheme at 20% per annum compound interest. The compound interest earned from the second scheme is Rs. 1056.4. Find the approximate amount initially invested in the first scheme?

  1. ((a))

    1950

  2. ((b))

    1850

  3. ((c))

    1450

  4. ((d))

    1650

  5. ((e))

    1500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1950

190

A boat covers a distance of [3x/5] km downstream and [2x/5]​ km upstream. The speed of the boat in still water is 12 km/hr, and the speed of the stream is 8 km/hr. It is given that the time taken to travel upstream is 14 hours more than the time taken to travel downstream. What is the total downstream distance travelled by the boat?

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    140

  3. ((c))

    160

  4. ((d))

    180

  5. ((e))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120

191

The current ages of P and Q are in the ratio 1 : 3. One year ago, R’s age was twice that of P’s age at that time. It is also given that Q is 21 years older than R at present. What is the ratio of Q's present age to R’s age three years from now?

  1. ((a))

    13:5

  2. ((b))

    10:7

  3. ((c))

    11:5

  4. ((d))

    17:8

  5. ((e))

    11:6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13:5

The pie shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured in five different companies [P, Q, R, S and T] in 2022.  

The pie shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by Same five companies in 2022.

Note – Value first pie chart is 20000 and value of 2nd pie chart is 12000

192

What is the combined total of unsold products from companies P, Q, and R?

  1. ((a))

    7860

  2. ((b))

    4560

  3. ((c))

    4440

  4. ((d))

    4220

  5. ((e))

    3620

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7860

193

The average number of products manufactured by Q, S, and V is 2500. Also, V sold only 33⅓% of the total products sold by P.

Find the number of unsold products by V.

  1. ((a))

    1050

  2. ((b))

    1960

  3. ((c))

    1100

  4. ((d))

    1900

  5. ((e))

    1324

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1050

194

In 2023, the number of products manufactured by P increased by 37.5% compared to 2022. If the unsold quantity remained the same in both years, find the percentage increase in products sold by P in 2023 compared to 2022?

  1. ((a))

    83.33%

  2. ((b))

    32.5%

  3. ((c))

    37.5%

  4. ((d))

    88%

  5. ((e))

    45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

83.33%

195

Find the difference between the total number of products sold by S and T together, and the total number of unsold products by R and P together.

  1. ((a))

    840

  2. ((b))

    880

  3. ((c))

    860

  4. ((d))

    960

  5. ((e))

    220

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

840

196

Company M manufactured 40% fewer products than T. The ratio of unsold products for M and Q is 11:7. Find what percentage of R’s manufactured products were sold by M.

  1. ((a))

    32.5%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    22%

  4. ((d))

    28.6%

  5. ((e))

    45.6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32.5%

197

Out of the products manufactured by T, 75% are non-defective and 25% are defective. If 2/5 of the defective products are unsold, Find the ratio of non-defective products sold to non-defective products unsold for company T​?

  1. ((a))

    29 : 27

  2. ((b))

    2 : 1

  3. ((c))

    37 : 38

  4. ((d))

    3 : 4

  5. ((e))

    3 : 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29 : 27

198

The combined perimeter of the top and bottom circular faces of a right circular cylinder is 176 cm. The volume of the cylinder is given as 3528π cm³. If the height of the cylinder is three-fourths the length of a side of a square, what is the area of the square (in cm²)?

  1. ((a))

    400

  2. ((b))

    784

  3. ((c))

    476

  4. ((d))

    576

  5. ((e))

    625

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400

199

X, Y, and Z together can finish a piece of work in [P/13] days, while X and Y together can do it in [P/10] days. Y alone can complete the same work in [P/4] days. Z takes 20 days more than X to complete the work alone. What is the value of P?

  1. ((a))

    240

  2. ((b))

    120

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    220

  5. ((e))

    160

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

240

200

A three-digit number has the property that its units digit is 2 more than its tens digit. If 311 is subtracted from this number, the result is 13. What is the sum of all the digits of the original number?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt