Official Paper

RRB PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 25 September 2021) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven persons are working in the same company on different designations. The person who is working on that designation is named A, B, C, D, E, F, and G but not necessarily in the same order. They have different designations starting from the clerk, officer, Assistant Manager, manager, Assistant General manager, General manager, Director. Director is the topmost post of the company and the clerk is the lowermost post of the company. Only four persons sit between A and B. A is not working at a position of officer nor as a clerk. There are two designations between C and D. C is senior to D. C is a General manager or Director. More than two designations are there between E and F. F is working as a designation of clerk in the company.

1

Which of the following person working as a Officer?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

2

Whose designation is just above the D's designation?  

  1. ((a))

    Manager

  2. ((b))

    Officer

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    Both Option 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    Both option 1 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manager

3

Which of the following statement is correct regarding G?

I) G is a manager.

II) The position which is just above G is E's position.

III) Two designation between A and G.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only II is correct

  3. ((c))

    Only III is correct

  4. ((d))

    Any II statement is correct

  5. ((e))

    All are correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is correct

4

How many designation between A and G?

  1. ((a))

    One 

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    More than three

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One 

5

On which position does C is working?

  1. ((a))

    Director

  2. ((b))

    General manager

  3. ((c))

    Assistant General manager

  4. ((d))

    manager

  5. ((e))

    Assistant manager

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Director

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

6

Statements:

Only a few cats are dogs.

No dogs are monkey.

Only horses are monkeys.

Conclusions:

I. Some cats being monkey is a possibility.

II. Only few dogs are cats.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

7

Statement:

Some boxes are jars.

All spoons are boxes.

Only few jars are lid.

Conclusion:

I. Some spoons are lid.

II. No spoons being jars is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II follow

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follow

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusion numbered I and II.You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

8

Statements:

Some players are energetic

No player is short

At least some short are man

Conclusion:

I. All short can never be energetic.

II. All players are energetic.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Niether I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

There are certain numbers of persons sitting in a row, facing north direction. Four of them likes different colours i.e. Green, Pink, White and Yellow.

Two persons sit between the one, who likes White colour and the one, who likes Pink colour. Person, who likes White colour is adjacent to A. Position of H is exactly between position of B and position of C, who sits immediate left of E. Number of persons to the right of one, who likes Yellow, is equal to number of persons to the left of one, who likes White colour. H and F are not adjacent to each other. A sits third to the left of H, who is two places away from the one, who like Yellow colour. F is third person from right end. At most two persons sit between F and the one, who likes Yellow colour. Person, who likes Yellow is to the left of F. Number of persons to the left of D is half of number of persons to the right of E. B sits immediate right of A and does not like White colour. G sits immediate left of one, who likes Pink. Person, who likes Green is exactly between B and H.

9

Who sits second to the left of C?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

10

Total number of seats in the row?

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    17

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13

11

D likes ______ colour.

  1. ((a))

    White

  2. ((b))

    Green

  3. ((c))

    Yellow

  4. ((d))

    Pink

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

White

12

How many persons sit between A and F?

  1. ((a))

    Seven

  2. ((b))

    Six

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seven

13

Who sits immediate left of D?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

Directions: These questions are based on the following information.

There are seven members in the family in three generations namely, Kavish, Lavanya, Mahipal, Prinshu, Ritika, Tanveer and Ushu in which there are 3 married couples. Kavish has only two children. Ushu is the unmarried sister in law of Ritika. Tanveer is the only son of Prinshu. Lavanya is the wife of Mahipal. Kavish is the paternal grandfather of Mahipal. Both Kavish and Prinshu are in the same generation.

14

How many male members are there in the family?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Data inadequate

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

15

How is Tanveer related to Lavanya?

  1. ((a))

    Father

  2. ((b))

    Son

  3. ((c))

    Father – in - law

  4. ((d))

    Data inadequate

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father

16

How many persons are there in youngest generation?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Data inadequate

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in different months of the year such as January, February, March, April, May, June, July and August but not necessarily in the same order. They like different types of soup i.e. Tomato, Corn, Spinach, Garlic, Ginger, Bean, Mushroom and Chickpea though not in the same order.

V does not like Tomato soup. S is born immediate before P. At the most three people are scheduled between R and the person who likes Chickpea soup. T is born in April. R, who likes Garlic soup, was born in the first quarter of the year in the month having maximum number of days. U, who likes Spinach soup is born in the second quarter of the year in a month having least number of days. The person who likes Tomato soup is born before R in a month having maximum number of days. Q, who likes Mushroom, is born before T. T does not like Corn soup. The person who likes Ginger soup is born before Bean soup. The person who likes Chickpea soup is born after the person who likes Corn soup.

17

The person who likes Ginger soup?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

18

The person born in the month of June likes which soup?

  1. ((a))

    Chickpea

  2. ((b))

    Mushroom

  3. ((c))

    Garlic

  4. ((d))

    Spinach

  5. ((e))

    Bean

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chickpea

19

The person ‘R’ is born in which month?

  1. ((a))

    April

  2. ((b))

    February

  3. ((c))

    March

  4. ((d))

    June

  5. ((e))

    August

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

April

20

The person born in the month of April likes which soup?

  1. ((a))

    Corn

  2. ((b))

    Garlic

  3. ((c))

    Tomato

  4. ((d))

    Bean

  5. ((e))

    Ginger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Corn

21

Identify the incorrect statement among the following statements-

  1. ((a))

    W is born in January.

  2. ((b))

    V likes Corn soup.

  3. ((c))

    The person who likes Bean soup is born in August.

  4. ((d))

    V is born in the second quarter of the year.

  5. ((e))

    S likes Mushroom soup.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W is born in January.

22

In a word "BANKING", if all letters are arranged in the alphabetical order, and then the consonants are changed to the previous letter and the vowels are changed to the next letter as per the English alphabetical series, then how many letters do not repeat more than once?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Six

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

23

If in the given number 86352876, every even digit is replaced with the digit immediately preceding it and every odd digit is replaced with the digit immediately following it in natural number series, then what will be the product of 2nd digit from the left end and 5th digit from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

24

Directions: Question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

There are seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a row.  All are facing towards north direction. Who sits in the middle of the row?

I. Three friends sit between O and N. None of them sits at the extreme ends.

II. N sits second to the left of S. Q sits third to the right of S.

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

25

Directions: Question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Six boys Amrit, Ankit, Abhinav, Abhay, Ashu and Anirudh are sitting around a circular table. All are facing towards the center. Who among the following sits immediate right of Abhinav?

I. Abhay sits third to the right of Abhinav. Amrit is second to the left of Abhay.

II. Ashu sits third to the right of Anirudh, who sits to the immediate right of Amrit.

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

26

Directions: Question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

How A is related to B?             

I. C is the mother of A. B is the sister of A.

II. A is the son of D. D has two children A and B.

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

27

Direction: The following question consists of two statements numbered I and II. Decide if data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions below.

What is Arjun’s position from the left and also find total no of persons in the row?

Statements:

I. Arjun is 9th from the right and Rahul is 9th from the left.

II. When Arjun and Rahul interchanges their position, Rahul will be 27th from the left.

  1. ((a))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data either in statement I alone or in statement II are sufficient to answer the question.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Zb, Fc, Eb, Cs, Gv, and Um are six employees working in a company. Zb is the most experienced among the employees. Gv is more experienced than only Eb. Three persons have experience more than Fc. More than three persons have less experience than Cs who has experience of 28 years.

28

How many persons are more experienced than Um?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

29

Who is fourth most experienced person?

  1. ((a))

    Cs

  2. ((b))

    Fc

  3. ((c))

    Eb

  4. ((d))

    Gv

  5. ((e))

    Um

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cs

30

If the third least experienced person have experience of 21 years what may be the experience of Um?

  1. ((a))

    29 years

  2. ((b))

    20 years

  3. ((c))

    25 years

  4. ((d))

    30 years

  5. ((e))

    31 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29 years

31

Directions: In the question given below, there is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Statement: 'This book has been written for everyone and does not require readers to have any experience in handling computers'. -- An author of a book on computers.

Assumption:

I. It is possible to learn computers with the help of a book only.

II. It is possible to learn to handle computers only after reading the book.

  1. ((a))

    If only Assumption I is implicit.

  2. ((b))

    If only Assumption II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    If either Assumption I or II is implicit.

  4. ((d))

    If neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

  5. ((e))

    Both assumption follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If only Assumption I is implicit.

32

Directions: One statement is given followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statement:

In order to bring about a major growth in commercial transactions with India and encourage bilateral trade relations, France has announced a bilateral treaty related to multi-purpose projects.

Conclusions: 

I. India is also willing to strengthen its dealings and trade with France.

II. Every country should develop commercial relations with others.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both the Conclusions I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Either Conclusion I or II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I follows.

In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

33

I: The co-founders of Instagram have announced they are quitting the social media company.

II: Instagram has largely escaped Facebook's high-profile problems with privacy, foreign election interference and fake news and has been able to maintain a younger user base than its parent company.

  1. ((a))

    If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

  2. ((b))

    If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

  3. ((c))

    If both the statements I and II are independent causes.

  4. ((d))

    If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  5. ((e))

    If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are living in a four-storey building such that the ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 then the top floor is numbered as 4. Each of the floors has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way, flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-1 is to the west of flat-2. T lives to the east of V. There is a gap of one floor between P and Q and they both live in the same flat. U does not live in flat-1. Q lives in flat-2 of an even-numbered floor. Only two floors are there between V and R. S and P lives on the same floor.

34

Who among the following lives in the flat-1 on the third floor?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    T

  5. ((e))

    O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

35

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which among the following does not belong to that group?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T

36

Directions: In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those, which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those, which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a Strong argument is and which a weak argument is.

Statement:

Shall we introduce state financing of elections in India?

Arguments:

I: Yes, it will eliminate the role of money power which many candidates use to win elections.

II: No, people might use this money in different illegal business.

  1. ((a))

    If only argument I is strong.

  2. ((b))

    If only argument II is strong.

  3. ((c))

    If either I or II is strong.

  4. ((d))

    If neither I nor II is strong.

  5. ((e))

    If both I and II are strong.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If only argument I is strong.

37

Directions: In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action regarding the problem, policy, etc. Based on the information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement:

Floods have wreaked great havoc on the coasts of City A. There has been a great loss of life and property in City A. The people in the city are grieving. There are people stranded in their homes with floodwater surrounding them from all sides with no food supply or freshwater. Epidemic has broken out across the city because of the foul flood water and no medical attention. The people have been crying for aid and support in the city.

Course of Actions:

I. The Military drops food packages and freshwater to the stranded people from choppers.

II. NGOs rally for collecting monetary funds and other kinds of aid for the flood victims.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows.

Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

W is 12 m to the North of U.V is 5 m West of W. X is 7 m to the South of V. X is 4 m East of Z. Y is 9 m South of Z. A is 9 m East of Y.

38

If point O is 5 m west of U. Find out the distance and direction of X with respect to O?

  1. ((a))

    5 m, North

  2. ((b))

    5 m, South

  3. ((c))

    7 m, North

  4. ((d))

    4 m, South

  5. ((e))

    4 m, North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 m, North

39

U is in which direction with respect to Y?

  1. ((a))

    South

  2. ((b))

    South West

  3. ((c))

    North West

  4. ((d))

    North East

  5. ((e))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South

40

What is the distance between A and U

  1. ((a))

    6 m

  2. ((b))

    4 m

  3. ((c))

    7 m

  4. ((d))

    9 m

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 m

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

41

A virtual keyboard is diplayed on computer screen while using internet banking to avoid passwords captured by and other similar softwares

  1. ((a))

    Worm

  2. ((b))

    Cookie

  3. ((c))

    Trojan

  4. ((d))

    Keylogger

  5. ((e))

    Phishing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Worm

42

Which of the following is not a programming language?

  1. ((a))

    Pascal

  2. ((b))

    Microsoft Office

  3. ((c))

    Java

  4. ((d))

    C++

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pascal

43

________ is defined as the storing of the same data in multiple locations.

  1. ((a))

    Data availability constraints

  2. ((b))

    Data inconsistency

  3. ((c))

    Security constraints

  4. ((d))

    Unauthorized access

  5. ((e))

    Data redundancy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data availability constraints

44

Which of the following is a server side scripting language?

  1. ((a))

    Java Script

  2. ((b))

    HTML

  3. ((c))

    DHTML

  4. ((d))

    C++

  5. ((e))

    C language

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Java Script

45

Match the following generation of computers with the technology used in that generation.

GenerationsTechnology used
1.1st  GenerationI.Microprocessors
2.2nd GenerationII.Vaccum Tubes
3.3rd GenerationIII.Integrated Circuits
4.4th GenerationIV.Transistors
  1. ((a))

    1.II  2.IV  3.I  4.III

  2. ((b))

    1.II  2.IV  3.III  4.I

  3. ((c))

    1.II  2.I   3.IV  4.III

  4. ((d))

    1.I  2.II  3.III  4.IV

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.II  2.IV  3.I  4.III

46

Which layer is responsible for translation, encryption and compression of data?

  1. ((a))

    Network layer

  2. ((b))

    Application layer

  3. ((c))

    Data-link layer

  4. ((d))

    Transport layer

  5. ((e))

    Presentation layer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Network layer

47

In windows, SHIFT, CTRL (control), and ALT (alternate) keys are called ___________.

  1. ((a))

    Special keys

  2. ((b))

    Lock keys

  3. ((c))

    Window keys

  4. ((d))

    Modifier keys

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Special keys

48

Which is the example of Half-duplex system?

  1. ((a))

    Walkies-talkies

  2. ((b))

    Keyboard

  3. ((c))

    Monitor

  4. ((d))

    Telephone

  5. ((e))

    Television

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Walkies-talkies

49

CD-R stands for ________ and can be written to only ________.

  1. ((a))

    Compact Disc - Recordable; once

  2. ((b))

    Concurrent Disc - Recordable; once

  3. ((c))

    Compact Disc - Recordable; twice

  4. ((d))

    Concurrent Disc - Recordable; twice

  5. ((e))

    Compact Disc - Readable; once

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compact Disc - Recordable; once

50

Firewall is used in communication network/system for protection from

  1. ((a))

    Unauthorized attack

  2. ((b))

    Data driven attack

  3. ((c))

    Fire attack

  4. ((d))

    Virus attack

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unauthorized attack

51

Checking of different hardware parts of computer is done by?

  1. ((a))

    BIOS

  2. ((b))

    Hard disk

  3. ((c))

    Processor

  4. ((d))

    C.D.

  5. ((e))

    Monitor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BIOS

52

Many email systems use ______ protocol to send messages from one server to another server. 

  1. ((a))

    HTTP

  2. ((b))

    ARP

  3. ((c))

    ICMP 

  4. ((d))

    SMTP 

  5. ((e))

    POP3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HTTP

53

The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:

  1. ((a))

    Digital divide

  2. ((b))

    Internet divide

  3. ((c))

    Web divide

  4. ((d))

    Cyber divide

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Digital divide

54

Which key can be used to start presentation from beginning in PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    F2

  3. ((c))

    F3

  4. ((d))

    F4

  5. ((e))

    F5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F1

55

Which of the following malicious program do not replicate automatically?

  1. ((a))

    Trojan Horse

  2. ((b))

    Virus

  3. ((c))

    Worm

  4. ((d))

    Zombie

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Trojan Horse

56

An________________ is used to an adapter to Motherboard. It is also known as bus slot which provide an installation point for a hardware to connect through it.

  1. ((a))

    Control Unit

  2. ((b))

    Memory Unit

  3. ((c))

    Expansion slot

  4. ((d))

    Circuit

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Control Unit

57

Which of the following statements about RAM is 'false'?

  1. ((a))

    The running components of the application software and files are temporarily stored on the RAM for the processor so that they can be accessed while performing the operation.

  2. ((b))

    It is one of the primary memories of a computer.

  3. ((c))

    RAM means Random Access Memory.

  4. ((d))

    Content of RAM is not lost when the computer is turned off.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The running components of the application software and files are temporarily stored on the RAM for the processor so that they can be accessed while performing the operation.

58

Which among the following is the Application software?

  1. ((a))

    Linux

  2. ((b))

    Unix

  3. ((c))

    Microsoft Power Point

  4. ((d))

    macros 

  5. ((e))

    None of These

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Linux

59

A modem

  1. ((a))

    Translates analog signals from a computer into digital signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.

  2. ((b))

    Translates digitals signals from a computer into analog signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.

  3. ((c))

    Demodulates digital signals from a computer.

  4. ((d))

    Modulates signals from an analog telephone life.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Translates analog signals from a computer into digital signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.

60

To add a transition to the current slide in PowerPoint, which tool do you have to select?

  1. ((a))

    Insert

  2. ((b))

    Animations

  3. ((c))

    Design

  4. ((d))

    Slideshow

  5. ((e))

    Review

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Insert

61

Which of the following refers to an ethical computer hacker, or a computer security expert?

  1. ((a))

    White Hat Hacker

  2. ((b))

    Black Hat Hacker

  3. ((c))

    Grey Hat Hacker

  4. ((d))

    Blue Hat Hacker

  5. ((e))

    Red Hat Hacker

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

White Hat Hacker

62

Which of the following CD technologies is also WORM technology?

  1. ((a))

    CD-RW

  2. ((b))

    CD-ROM

  3. ((c))

    CD-R 

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CD-RW

63

What is the term used for the time during which a job is processed by the system?

  1. ((a))

    Delay times

  2. ((b))

    Real times

  3. ((c))

    Execution time

  4. ((d))

    Down time

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delay times

64

Which of the following can be a cell reference that starts in cell B1, column G and selects row 10?

  1. ((a))

    B1-G10

  2. ((b))

    B1.G10

  3. ((c))

    B1;G10

  4. ((d))

    B1:G10

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B1-G10

65

Related to computers registers, which register holds address of instructions

  1. ((a))

    Temporary register

  2. ((b))

    Program counter

  3. ((c))

    Accumulator

  4. ((d))

    Address register 

  5. ((e))

    Data register

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Temporary register

66

The delivery of computing services such as data storage, servers and databases over the internet is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Smart Computing

  2. ((b))

    Advance Computing

  3. ((c))

    Cloud Computing

  4. ((d))

    Seed Computing

  5. ((e))

    Both i and ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Smart Computing

67

The IP address 123.225.225.14 belongs to:

  1. ((a))

    Class A

  2. ((b))

    Class B

  3. ((c))

    Class C

  4. ((d))

    Class D

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Class A

68

Which of the following statements is not true about cache memory?

  1. ((a))

    Cache memory is a form of Read Only Memory (ROM).

  2. ((b))

    It is directly associated with the microprocessor.

  3. ((c))

    Cache memory can be accessed much faster by a microprocessor in comparison to a RAM.

  4. ((d))

    Cache memory is sometimes called CPU memory.

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cache memory is a form of Read Only Memory (ROM).

69

Which among the following is not a type of Read Only Memory (ROM)?

  1. ((a))

    EPROM

  2. ((b))

    EEPROM

  3. ((c))

    PROM

  4. ((d))

    DROM

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EPROM

70

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts opens the FIND and REPLACE (or REPLACE) dialogue box in MS Word? 

  1. ((a))

    CTRL + R 

  2. ((b))

    CTRL + H

  3. ((c))

    ALT + H 

  4. ((d))

    ALT + R 

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl+U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CTRL + R 

71

What is the full form of EEPROM?

  1. ((a))

    Electronically Erasable Programmed Read-Only Memory

  2. ((b))

    Easily Erasable Programmed Read-Only Memory

  3. ((c))

    Electronically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory

  4. ((d))

    Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Electronically Erasable Programmed Read-Only Memory

72

Convert the Hexadecimal number 5A to Binary :

  1. ((a))

    01011001

  2. ((b))

    01001010

  3. ((c))

    01011010

  4. ((d))

    01000100

  5. ((e))

    00000000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

01011001

73

Convert binary (111100101011110.000101)2 into Octal.

  1. ((a))

    74536.05

  2. ((b))

    75463.50

  3. ((c))

    75354.50

  4. ((d))

    76354.05

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

74536.05

74

What is the size of IPv4?

  1. ((a))

    8-bit

  2. ((b))

    16-bit

  3. ((c))

    32-bit

  4. ((d))

    64-bit

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8-bit

75

 When a user try to access a resource on a web server (usually a web page) that doesn't exist, which type of Error exist that time?

  1. ((a))

    HTTP Error 404

  2. ((b))

    HTTP Error 403

  3. ((c))

    HTTP Error 500

  4. ((d))

    HTTP Error 400

  5. ((e))

    HTTP Error 401

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HTTP Error 404

76

What kind of printers are Inkjet printers and laser printers?

  1. ((a))

    Nonimpact

  2. ((b))

    Impact

  3. ((c))

    Dot-matrix

  4. ((d))

    Thermal

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nonimpact

77

Which view displays the slides on a presentation as miniature representations of the slides in PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    Slide show

  2. ((b))

    Slide sorter view

  3. ((c))

    Notes page view

  4. ((d))

    Outline view

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Slide show

78

Which of the following programming languages are considered as low level language?

  1. ((a))

    Basic, Cobol, Fortran

  2. ((b))

    C, C++

  3. ((c))

    Assembly language

  4. ((d))

    Prolog

  5. ((e))

    All of above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Basic, Cobol, Fortran

79

In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation, to select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation, the following keyboard key is pressed

  1. ((a))

    Tab

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + K

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + H

  4. ((d))

    F1

  5. ((e))

    Alt+K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tab

80

Flash memory is made up of

  1. ((a))

    RDRAM

  2. ((b))

    MROM

  3. ((c))

    SRAM

  4. ((d))

    EEPROM

  5. ((e))

    PROM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RDRAM

General Awareness (40 questions)

81

In the following sentence, some parts of the sentence have been printed in bold. One of the bold parts is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there is no error in the bold parts, mark (5) i.e. ‘No error’ as the answer.

It is for the online websites that learning any applied skill has become so easy today; they elucidate all the minute points with such finesse that even an amateur can learn in no time.

  1. ((a))

    Online

  2. ((b))

    Elucidate

  3. ((c))

    Finesse

  4. ((d))

    Amateur

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Online

82

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these' as your answer.

Column(1)Column(2)
(A) Calamity is man’s(D) in a bunk bed.
(B) The country was plunged(E) was discovered by police.
(C) There is water in the(F) interior of the cave.
  1. ((a))

    A-E

  2. ((b))

    C-F

  3. ((c))

    B-D

  4. ((d))

    A-E and B-C

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-E

83

Directions: In the following sentence, 4 words are given in bold. Two or more of these words are incorrectly placed and need to be interchanged. If there is no need for interchanging then ‘No Error’ can be selected.

There is rapid coalition (A) of the Taliban towards Kabul and its mounting atrocities (B) on civilians, after the US-led headway (C) forces withdrawal and the pusillanimous (D) retreat of the Afghan government security forces from Kandahar.

  1. ((a))

    DACB

  2. ((b))

    ABDC

  3. ((c))

    BDAC

  4. ((d))

    CBAD

  5. ((e))

    No Error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DACB

84

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
A.The campaigners claimed carbon offsetting was not the best way to tackleD. that it was best to prioritise the reduction of carbon emissions.
B. A rapid transition to the adoption of alternative technologies requires progressive regulationE. lest a great deal left to understand about this specific species of singing bat.
C. While the latest study has identified a pattern that could be important for many mammals to communicate vocallyF. to decrease the cooling, and in the short term at least, this will equate to rising costs for businesses.
  1. ((a))

    A-F, C-D

  2. ((b))

    B-E

  3. ((c))

    B-D, C-E

  4. ((d))

    A-D

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-F, C-D

85

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
A. Scientists who systematically eavesdropped on bat roosts in Costa Rica have discoveredD. they do not act on their climate promises, and it now seems the UK is in her sights.
B. The team has spent six years developing a completely new way of collecting the signalE. combine all the data into images that are not only of enormous scientific interest and also of great beauty.
C. The Swedish activist has a reputation for calling out world leaders whenF. that baby-bat babbling bears a striking resemblance to that of human infants.
  1. ((a))

    A-F, C-D

  2. ((b))

    B-F, C-E

  3. ((c))

    B-E, C-F

  4. ((d))

    A-F, B-E, C-D

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-F, C-D

86

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'None of these' as your answer.

Column (1)Column (2)
(A) They proposed to conscript both(D) flooded with contraband goods.
(B) An honest judge cannot be(E) capital and labour.
(C) Most of the city markets were(F) servile to public opinion.
  1. ((a))

    A-E

  2. ((b))

    A-D

  3. ((c))

    B-D

  4. ((d))

    C-E

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-E

87

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these' as your answer.

Column(1)Column(2)
(A) Our business is far from immune(D) one to disillusion him.
(B) He has a visual impairment(E) to economic conditions.
(C) We have had incessant snowfall(F) in the right eye.
  1. ((a))

    B-E

  2. ((b))

    A-E and B-F

  3. ((c))

    C-D

  4. ((d))

    C-F and A-F

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B-E

88

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these' as your answer.

Column(1)Column(2)
(A) She was negligent(D) step forward.
(B) The momentous news(E) was that the war had begun.
(C)Governments should endeavour(F) lovable toys.
  1. ((a))

    C-D

  2. ((b))

    B-E

  3. ((c))

    A-F

  4. ((d))

    A-E

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C-D

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

Last week, I spent two days at an “eco-friendly” homestay near Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand. On day one, the owner, a nature enthusiast who has done ________ work in regenerating large tracts of forests, gave me a list of dos and don’ts. But what alarmed me was the fact that he did not have a plastic waste collection/recycling plan in place. When I asked what they do with their plastic waste, the staff said that they either burn or bury it. Both are terrible practices. Burning plastic in open air releases carcinogenic gases (dioxin and furan), and burying it means it stays in the environment for years. And when it breaks down, plastics release toxic chemicals, polluting the soil and groundwater. This practice of burning/burying plastics is common because of three reasons — the lack of awareness, lax governance and inspection, and non-existent waste collection-and-disposal/recycling systems.

India’s plastic challenge is enormous. The country generates approximately 25,940 tonnes per day (TPD) of plastic waste. Of this, around 15,600 TPD gets recycled. On World Environment Day (June 5), 2018, the then environment minister Harsh Vardhan announced that SUP will be phased out by 2020 — a deadline subsequently revised to 2022. In his August 15 speech, Prime Minister Narendra Modi asked citizens to free the country from SUP and hinted at an announcement on October 2. However, this did not happen. Analysts believe the government is under pressure from the industry to refrain from banning plastics because the measure would be too disruptive at a time when India is coping with an economic slowdown and job losses. A representative of the All India Plastic Manufacturers Association told The Print that there are over 50,000 plastic manufacturing industrial units, employing four to five million people. This number was compelling (1)/, and even in good times (2)/, a government will think (3)/ twice before imposing a ban. (4)/

There is another problem too. Despite the burgeoning plastic menace, there is still no clear definition of SUP. Simply put, SUP means products that are used once and then discarded. the Centre will ask states (1) / using some SUP products (2)/ such as polythene bags and styrofoam (3)/ to enforce existing rules against storing, manufacturing and (4)/ according to a report, for now (5). Unfortunately, the track record of states in implementing this has been patchy.

Instead of a no-ban on SUPs, the least the Centre could have done was ban six SUPs — plastic bags, cups, plates, small bottles, straws, and certain types of sachets — and then others in a phased manner. By opting for short-term relief, we have only aggravated our long-term problems. Of the total plastic generated, 19% are of chips and confectionery packets, 12% bottle caps, and lids, 10% are PET bottles and 7% are straws. Around 60 countries have already banned single-use plastic fully or partially.

What is most troubling is not the plastic challenge in cities because they would still have the first access to information, technology, funds, and expertise to tackle the problem. The real challenge lies in smaller towns and kasbahs, especially those tucked away in pristine areas, and ecotourism and adventure tourism destinations, especially when the government is opening up newer areas for tourism.

With a spike in tourists going to these places, who will ensure that plastic poison doesn’t enter the ______of the ecosystem, pollute the oceans, the streams, and the mountains?

89

Fill the blank in the following sentence with the most appropriate word.

On day one, the owner, a nature enthusiast who has done ________ work in regenerating large tracts of forests, gave me a list of dos and don’ts.

  1. ((a))

    Admonitory

  2. ((b))

    Culpable

  3. ((c))

    Astute

  4. ((d))

    Exemplary

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Admonitory

90

What is the most appropriate meaning of the word ''carcinogenic''?

  1. ((a))

    Can be spread easily from person to another

  2. ((b))

    Having the potential to cause cancer

  3. ((c))

    Affects the immune system of a person

  4. ((d))

    Can be fatal

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Can be spread easily from person to another

91

Which announcement was expected on October 2?

  1. ((a))

    A complete ban on SUP

  2. ((b))

    An eco-friendly initiative to be taken up by the government

  3. ((c))

    Mandatory recycling of waste

  4. ((d))

    Replace plastics with eco-friendly options

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A complete ban on SUP

92

The following sentence may or may not contain an error in one of its parts. Identify the part containing the error. If the sentence is correct, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

This number was compelling (1)/, and even in good times (2)/, a government will think (3)/ twice before imposing a ban. (4)/

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

93

Which of these is opposite in meaning to the word ''burgeoning''?

  1. ((a))

    Proliferating

  2. ((b))

    Extenuating

  3. ((c))

    Transferring

  4. ((d))

    Transpiring

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Proliferating

94

Rearrange the jumbled sentence to make a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.

 the Centre will ask states (1) / using some SUP products (2)/ such as polythene bags and styrofoam (3)/ to enforce existing rules against storing, manufacturing and (4)/ according to a report, for now (5).

  1. ((a))

    12345

  2. ((b))

    51423

  3. ((c))

    15423

  4. ((d))

    51243

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12345

95

Which of these is closest in meaning to the word ''pristine''?

  1. ((a))

    Consecrated

  2. ((b))

    Venerate

  3. ((c))

    Immaculate

  4. ((d))

    Primal

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Consecrated

96

Fill in the blanks.

With a spike in tourists going to these places, who will ensure that plastic poison doesn’t enter the ______of the ecosystem, pollute the oceans, the streams, and the mountains?

  1. ((a))

    Acumen

  2. ((b))

    Pedestal

  3. ((c))

    Paramount

  4. ((d))

    Sinews

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acumen

97

Read the following sentence and determine whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, then select ‘No Error’ as your answer.

The wording and meaning (A)/ in this example (B)/ is ambiguous (C)/ all the way. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

98

In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are correct. Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Jet Airways can resume operations under(A)/ the new owner more than two years(B)/ after it collapsed, according to the(C)/ National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) on Tuesday. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    B and D

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B

99

From the options given below, select the option which states the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.

I. Among the young Turks of the Congress, he was the first to be given an independent charge as a minister of state.

II. During the UPA government, Scindia has been inducted in the Union council of ministers as the minister of state for communications and information technology in 2008.

III. He was one of its top assets in Parliament as well as the organisation.

IV. The Harvard and Stanford University-educated Scindia has been the Congress’ pillar of strength not just in Madhya Pradesh but in the Centre as well.

  1. ((a))

    I II and III are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only II is correct.

  3. ((c))

    III and IV are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Only II is incorrect.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I II and III are incorrect

100

Directions: Find out whether there is an error in the highlighted parts. The error, if any, will be in one part. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.

The sage gave some valuable advice and life lessons to the traveler. He told the traveler that one should never feel inferior than one's siblings. Inferiority complex gives rise to jealousy which leads to downfall. So, one must refrain from it.

  1. ((a))

    The sage gave some valuable advice

  2. ((b))

    one should never feel inferior than one's siblings

  3. ((c))

    Inferiority complex gives rise to jealousy

  4. ((d))

    one must refrain from it

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The sage gave some valuable advice

101

Directions: From the options given below, select the option which states the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.

(A). All that money brought nothing but to sadness and misery and tragedy.

(B). Children who take exams early will be allowed to drop a subject except in the case of maths, English, and science.

(C). I am willing to admit that I do make mistakes.

(D). The government has denied that there was a plot to assassinate the president.

  1. ((a))

    Both C and D are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    A, B, and D are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both B and D are incorrect

  5. ((e))

    Both A and D are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both C and D are incorrect

The following sentences- A,B,C,D,E,F and G form a paragraph. Sentence D is fixed in the 4th place and its position cannot be changed. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.

A. The role of the line manager became very important in the structure of a business entity because it is the shortest way for the executive or non-executive directors to communicate with their employees. 

B. Business management and entrepreneurship are improving rapidly nowadays and one of the main roles that are improving with it is the line manager.

C. However, the line manager cannot function with other managers, if he or she was not asked for it, so the individuals above the line manager are responsible to allow him or her to interfere with other managers or not.

D. In the real life, a line manager is normally in charge of activities and labour’s output or it is responsible for a specific product line, for example, tea production and he cannot make any alterations in the production of coffee because normally it will have its own line manager who is responsible for this product line.

E. For example, the cooperation of the line manager with the human resource manager, finance manager or even with the manager who is responsible for risk-taking can help the business to succeed and meet required goals.

F. A line manager may also increase and interfere with other management lines to increase the success of an entity.

G. Line manager appeared from the business term “Line Management” and its aim was to administrate all activities which are held in the company and try to maximise the level of service providing and output of products.

102

Which sentence should be the first sentence in the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

103

Which sentence should be the second sentence in the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

104

Which sentence should be the third sentence in the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

105

Which sentence should be the fifth sentence in the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

106

Which sentence should be the seventh sentence in the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

107

Given below is a word, followed by three sentences which consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) which best express(es) the meaning of the word. Choose option 5 ‘None of these’ if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences.

DERIDE

A. In the upcoming elections, the allegation is expected to feature prominently in the Democrats’ attempts to deride the Trump administration’s values-bereft, transactional conduct of U.S. foreign policy. 

B. There is an urgent need for a quantum jump in public expenditure on education in order to fill wide gaps in infrastructure, training and retraining of teachers and to deride a strong follow up on the quality of education.

C. A recent Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change report has warned India of the seriousness of climate change and its deride adverse impact on the environment and the livelihood of masses.

  1. ((a))

    Only C

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Both A and C

  4. ((d))

    Only A

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only C

108

Given below is a word, followed by three sentences which consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) which best express(es) the meaning of the word. Choose option 5 ‘None of these’ if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences.

DEMURE

A. For weeks, now thousands of students, many dressed in demure school uniforms or as pop culture icons, have staged rallies across the country.

B. Our growth experience so far shows that the rate of growth of employment has declined with demure economic growth; we have now reached a stage where the economy is suffering from the highest ever unemployment rate.

C. Former Karnataka Chief Ministers Siddaramaiah and H.D. Kumaraswamy and DMK president M.K. Stalin questioned Mr Shah’s remarks and saw in them an attempt to demure Hindi on their States.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and C

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Both B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and C

109

Directions: Below a word is given followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence/s which best expresses the meaning of the word. Choose Option 5 (None of these) if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences.

REPARTEE

A. Burbank and Paine often indulged in witty repartee which seemed, at times, to shock the other members of the cabinet.

B. It is a well-known fact that a thief will criticize the man from whom he steals that seek office, not by displaying their own virtues and qualifications, but by attempting to repartee their opponents.

C. The only thing he had in common with Paine, his stage persona, was a mega-mouth of repartee.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Both A and C

  3. ((c))

    Both B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

110

In the following question, the word at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Bereft

  1. ((a))

    The framework of this crown, bereft of its jewels, is in the possession of Lady Amherst of Hackney.

  2. ((b))

    Patriarch John Abbott died, leaving his children bereft and at the mercy of his despicable last wife Gloria.

  3. ((c))

    There are also a large number of small lakes and ponds lying bereft within the state.

  4. ((d))

    A quite unaccountable tragedy left this fine gentleman bereft of his good humor.

  5. ((e))

    Yet despite their recent successes, the Left seem bereft of new ideas to promote union growth.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The framework of this crown, bereft of its jewels, is in the possession of Lady Amherst of Hackney.

111

In the following question, the word at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Debunk

  1. ((a))

    This popular television show uses physics, chemistry, and experimentation to bust myths and debunk many urban legends.

  2. ((b))

    A large number of their tests ended up debunk and exposing numerous frauds.

  3. ((c))

    A key purpose of the site is to debunk the conspiracy theories and conspiracy factoids that have dominated public perceptions of the assassination.

  4. ((d))

    My attempts to debunk my young daughter’s belief in Santa Claus only ended with her crying for days.

  5. ((e))

    The scientist hoped to debunk the genetic theory by completing his own research.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

This popular television show uses physics, chemistry, and experimentation to bust myths and debunk many urban legends.

112

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given five options, each containing two words. Choose the option containing words which fill the respective blanks correctly, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

Just as fish rots from the head, the ________ of the mark sheets and the subsequent faculty appointment of a grossly under-qualified applicant were ________ at the helm ~ by the then VC, Dilip Sinha, the ex-Registrar, Dilip Mukherjee, and also, of course, the applicant for the lecturer’s post, Mukti Deb.

  1. ((a))

    Aboriginal, jagoff

  2. ((b))

    Chastisement, dunce

  3. ((c))

    Forgery, masterminded

  4. ((d))

    Archetype, orchestrated

  5. ((e))

    Verification, jumbled

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aboriginal, jagoff

113

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given four options, each containing two words. Choose the option containing words which fill the respective blanks correctly, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

While the intent of the ordinance, which is to protect small depositors, is indeed ________, the benefits that depositors will eventually derive from the new legislation will depend largely on its proper ________.

  1. ((a))

    Deplorable, exempt

  2. ((b))

    Commendable, implementation

  3. ((c))

    Despicable, contrivance

  4. ((d))

    Vile, accomplish

  5. ((e))

    Worrisome, execution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deplorable, exempt

114

The following question consists of sentence with two blanks. You are given five options, each containing two words. Choose the option containing words which fill the respective blanks correctly, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

Behind the hut the dark shapes of the two wagons with their horses beside them were ________, and in the hollow the dying campfire ________ red.

  1. ((a))

    Dubious, twinkled

  2. ((b))

    Hidden, glimmered

  3. ((c))

    Acrimonious, flashed

  4. ((d))

    Discernible, gleamed

  5. ((e))

    Specious, beamed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dubious, twinkled

115

Given below is a sentence with two blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used to fill in the blanks.

They did this by marginalizing the interests of the indigenous poor and dismantling the faltering _______ of an Anglo-Irish ________.

A. Macabre

B. Hegemony

C. Contingency

D. Ascendancy

E. Ubiquity

  1. ((a))

    AD

  2. ((b))

    CE

  3. ((c))

    BC

  4. ((d))

    BE

  5. ((e))

    DB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AD

116

Direction: Given below is a sentence with two blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used to fill the blanks.

Serious analysis of generations began in the nineteenth century, ______ from an increasing awareness of the possibility of permanent social change and the idea of youthful ______ against the established social order. 

A. Fight

B. Emerging

C. Rebellion

D. Strike

E. Collapsing

  1. ((a))

    BC

  2. ((b))

    DC

  3. ((c))

    AD

  4. ((d))

    BE

  5. ((e))

    EA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BC

117

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given four options, each containing two words. Choose the option containing words which fill the respective blanks correctly, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

The Unregulated Deposit Scheme Ordinance ________ by the President will help put a check on illicit deposit taking activities that ________ poor and the financially illiterate of their hard earned savings.

  1. ((a))

    Concealed, hoodwink

  2. ((b))

    Revoked, edify

  3. ((c))

    Promulgated, dupe

  4. ((d))

    Recanted, elucidate

  5. ((e))

    Developed, provide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Concealed, hoodwink

118

In the following sentence, one phrase has been printed in bold. Below the sentence, three meanings are given. Select the correct meaning of the phrase from the options given below.

I heard through the grapevine that she’s pregnant.

A. To hear news from someone who heard that news from someone else.

B. To hear news from the actual source.

C. To hear news surreptitiously.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    All A, B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

119

In the following sentence, one phrase has been printed in bold. Below the sentence, three meanings are given. Select the correct meaning of the phrase from the options given below.

The teacher always played devil’s advocate to provoke discussion in the classroom.

A. A notorious advocate.

B. To present a counter argument as one believes in it.

C. To present a counter argument just to initiate a reaction.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    All A , B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

120

In each of the given questions, three sentences are given with a phrase/idiom highlighted in bold. You have to select the answer choice that states the combination of statements in which the idiom has been correctly used.

I. Jane said that she has to play it by ear because she is not sure where to go tomorrow morning. .

II. If you are a high roller, casinos will often let you stay in their hotels for free in the hopes that you will lose big amounts of money.

III. Life is actually a learning curve and the process of achieving excellence should always continue.

  1. ((a))

    Only III

  2. ((b))

    Only I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III

  4. ((d))

    Only II

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only III

English Language (40 questions)

121

A consignment of ‘Jalgaon banana’ has been exported to Dubai. ‘Jalgaon banana’ from which state had received the GI certification?

  1. ((a))

    Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telangana

122

Which of the following is not a member of NATO?

  1. ((a))

    USA

  2. ((b))

    India 

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    United Kingdom

  5. ((e))

    Italy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

USA

123

Which of the following bank has launched ‘Salute Doctors’ banking solutions for medical doctors?

  1. ((a))

    HDFC Bank

  2. ((b))

    Axis Bank

  3. ((c))

    DCB Bank

  4. ((d))

    State Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    ICICI Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HDFC Bank

124

National Doctors’ Day is celebrated in India to honour ________.

  1. ((a))

    Birendra Sutradhar

  2. ((b))

    Bikram Choudhury

  3. ((c))

    Bidhan Chandra Roy

  4. ((d))

    Bhudev Mukhopadhyay

  5. ((e))

    Bhupendranath Datta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Birendra Sutradhar

125

Which of the following e-commerce company has launched Shopsy, an app that allows Indians to start online shops for free?

  1. ((a))

    Amazon

  2. ((b))

    Snapdeal

  3. ((c))

    Flipkart

  4. ((d))

    Paytm

  5. ((e))

    AJIO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amazon

126

The government has given a nine-month extension to LIC Chairman till March 2022. Who is the Chairman of LIC?

  1. ((a))

    Ajay Tyagi

  2. ((b))

    M R Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Sivasubramanian Ramann

  4. ((d))

    G R Chintala

  5. ((e))

    R V Verma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ajay Tyagi

127

In June 2021, which of the following airports won the Airport Council International's (ACI) Director General's Roll of Excellence honour for Airport Service Quality?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai International Airport

  2. ((b))

    Cochin International Airport

  3. ((c))

    Kempegowda International Airport

  4. ((d))

    Indira Gandhi International Airport

  5. ((e))

    Vijayawada International Airport

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai International Airport

128

India is placed _____ among the top 100 countries in Startup Blink's Global Startup Ecosystem Index 2021.

  1. ((a))

    20th

  2. ((b))

    15th

  3. ((c))

    17th

  4. ((d))

    25th

  5. ((e))

    10th

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20th

129

Who has been appointed as the new Chairman and Managing Director (marketing and refineries) of BPCL in May 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Manoj Jain

  2. ((b))

    Arun Kumar Singh

  3. ((c))

    Rajiv Gauba

  4. ((d))

    Akshay Kumar Singh

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manoj Jain

130

How many members are there in NATO ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

131

In July 2021, The RBI has issued an advisory to banks and other RBI-regulated entities emphasizing the need for preparedness for the transition away from LIBOR. What does I stand in LIBOR?

  1. ((a))

    Initial

  2. ((b))

    International

  3. ((c))

    Inter

  4. ((d))

    Important

  5. ((e))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Initial

132

Which among the following is true regarding Payments banks?

  1. ((a))

    They can issue credit cards

  2. ((b))

    They can hold maximum one lakh deposits per customers

  3. ((c))

    The can accept demand deposits

  4. ((d))

    Only 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    The can lend upto 100000.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They can issue credit cards

133

In Jan 2021, Human Rights Council Elected Nazhat Shameem Khan to serve as its President for 2021. Nazhat Shameem Khan  belongs to which country?

  1. ((a))

    Ethiopia

  2. ((b))

    Fiji

  3. ((c))

    Egypt

  4. ((d))

    Democratic Republic of the Congo

  5. ((e))

    Nigeria

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ethiopia

134

In the Archery World Cup, who among the following was/were part of the Indian women's recurve team that won a gold medal in Guatemala in April 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Deepika Kumari

  2. ((b))

    Ankita Bhakat

  3. ((c))

    Komalika Bari

  4. ((d))

    Both 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deepika Kumari

135

Nawada district of which state has topped the list of aspirational districts ranked by government think tank Niti Aayog in January 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

136

With reference to the Model Tenancy Act, consider the following statements.

1. The Act aims to bridge the trust deficit between tenants and landlords by clearly delineating their obligations. 2. The Model Tenancy Act will provide a model for urban and rural properties. 3. The tenant can sublet a part of or the whole property to someone else.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 2 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3 

  5. ((e))

    2 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 and 3 only

137

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2021 introduces an alternate insolvency resolution process for MSMEs, called PIRP. What does 'R' stand for in PIRP? 

  1. ((a))

    Recovery

  2. ((b))

    Resolution

  3. ((c))

    Rental

  4. ((d))

    Retire

  5. ((e))

    Recurrent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Recovery

138

Which organisation launched SHWAS and AROG Loan Schemes for MSMEs to help them with the required financial support in the fight against the COVID-19 pandemic?

  1. ((a))

    Reserve Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    Small Industries Development Bank of India(SIDBI)

  3. ((c))

    SEBI

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of MSME

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Finance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reserve Bank of India

139

As per the latest list by Fortune, the PM of which country tops the Greatest Leaders list, for the role he/she played to tackle Covid from spreading in the country?

  1. ((a))

    Australia

  2. ((b))

    Brazil

  3. ((c))

    New Zealand

  4. ((d))

    Singapore

  5. ((e))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Australia

140

Recently, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced its bi-monthly monetary policy. What is current Reverse repo rate? (Aug)

  1. ((a))

    4%

  2. ((b))

    4.25%

  3. ((c))

    3.35%

  4. ((d))

    18%

  5. ((e))

    3.50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4%

141

How much money allocated for the health and well-being in Union budget 2021-22?

  1. ((a))

    94,452 crore

  2. ((b))

    1,23,846 crore

  3. ((c))

    2,20,846 crore

  4. ((d))

    1,80,846 crore

  5. ((e))

    2,23,846 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

94,452 crore

142

Recently the Corruption perception index 2020 was released by Transparency International, which of the following countries topped the list? (Feb 2021)

  1. ((a))

    Finland and Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    UK and Belgium

  3. ((c))

    Norway and Denmark

  4. ((d))

     Denmark and New Zealand 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Finland and Switzerland

143

In July 2021, the G20 Finance Ministers approved a global corporate tax of at least how many percent to be imposed on multinational companies (MNCs) with an aim to end tax havens?

  1. ((a))

    5%

  2. ((b))

    8%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    12%

  5. ((e))

    15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5%

144

Recently, The second edition of the India Justice Report has been released. Which state has occupied the top position of the 18 Large and Mid-sized states? (Feb)

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

     Madhya Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andhra Pradesh

145

From November 2017, the cabinet approved the scheme to be known as RKVY – RAFTAAR. What does first R mean in RAFTAAR?

  1. ((a))

    Remunerative

  2. ((b))

    Rejuvenation

  3. ((c))

    Republic

  4. ((d))

    Ramping

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Remunerative

146

India’s first Small Finance Bank, the ‘Capital Small Finance Bank’ is headquartered in _________.

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Jaipur

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai

  5. ((e))

    Jalandhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai

147

Time limit for re-opening of Income Tax assessment is reduced in Union Budget 2021-22. By how much years it is reduced?

  1. ((a))

    1 years

  2. ((b))

    5 years

  3. ((c))

    4 years

  4. ((d))

    2 years

  5. ((e))

    3 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 years

148

Time Limit to get information under RTI Act, 2005. Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 obliges PIO to provide information within

  1. ((a))

    20 days

  2. ((b))

    15 days

  3. ((c))

    30 days

  4. ((d))

    45 days

  5. ((e))

    60 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 days

149

Number of Small Finance Bank in India__________.​

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

150

The Score card of CET  exam will be valid for a __period.

  1. ((a))

    2-year

  2. ((b))

    4-year

  3. ((c))

    3-year

  4. ((d))

    5-year

  5. ((e))

    1-year

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2-year

151

NABL provides these services to all testing and calibration laboratories in India and abroad. What does NABL stand for??

  1. ((a))

    National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories.

  2. ((b))

    National Accreditation Board for Testing and Computing Lab.

  3. ((c))

    National Assistance Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories.

  4. ((d))

    National Accredited Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories.

152

_____is  the nickname for the Italian national team.

  1. ((a))

    Blue tiger

  2. ((b))

    Azzurri

  3. ((c))

    La Roja

  4. ((d))

    La Albiceleste

  5. ((e))

    The three lions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blue tiger

153

What is the rank of India in an annual World Competitiveness Index 2021 compiled by the Institute for Management Development (IMD)?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    59

  5. ((e))

    65

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

154

Gross non-performing assets (GNPAs) on retail and MSME loan books of public sector banks rose to how much per cent in June 2021 from about 6 percent in June 2020?

  1. ((a))

    7,28

  2. ((b))

    8,26

  3. ((c))

    9,24

  4. ((d))

    10,22

  5. ((e))

    12,20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7,28

155

The central government and LIC together own more than 94 per cent equity of IDBI Bank. LIC, currently having management control, has 49.24 per cent stake, while the Government of India holds ____per cent

  1. ((a))

    48.48

  2. ((b))

    49.48 

  3. ((c))

    45.48 

  4. ((d))

    57.48

  5. ((e))

    50.48

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48.48

156

A ____ occurs when a company is running low enough on cash so that it starts to have an impact on their operations.

  1. ((a))

    Cash crunch

  2. ((b))

    Cash out

  3. ((c))

    Basis Point

  4. ((d))

    Bank Rate

  5. ((e))

    Bancassurance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cash crunch

157

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY)?

  1. It is a restructured version of Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY).
  2. Its agenda is to support rural poor households through self-managed Self Help Groups (SHGs) and federated institutions. 3. Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana is a sub-scheme under DAY- NRLM.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    2 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    2 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

158

What is the total number of Aspirational Districts in India?

  1. ((a))

    127

  2. ((b))

    117

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    114

  5. ((e))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

127

159

In August 2021, who has won a gold medal in women’s 10 metre air rifle shooting at Tokyo Paralympics?

  1. ((a))

    Heena Sidhu

  2. ((b))

    Avani Lekhara

  3. ((c))

    Apurvi Chandela

  4. ((d))

    Annu Raj Singh

  5. ((e))

    Manu Bhaker

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heena Sidhu

160

In June 2021, the RBI has imposed penalties of how many rupees on Mogaveera Co-operative Bank Limited due to deficiencies in regulatory compliance?

  1. ((a))

    6 lakh

  2. ((b))

    8 lakh

  3. ((c))

    10 lakh

  4. ((d))

    12 lakh

  5. ((e))

    14 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 lakh

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

161

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 335

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    335

  4. ((d))

    120

  5. ((e))

    210

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

162

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

3, 3, 9, 29, ?

  1. ((a))

    61

  2. ((b))

    51

  3. ((c))

    71

  4. ((d))

    75

  5. ((e))

    67

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

61

163

What should come in place of question mark "?" in the following number series?

11, 14, 20, 31, 49, 76, ?

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    104

  4. ((d))

    114

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120

164

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

40, 10, 50, 12.5, ?, 15.625

  1. ((a))

    60.5

  2. ((b))

    64.5

  3. ((c))

    65

  4. ((d))

    45

  5. ((e))

    62.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60.5

165

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

6, 9, 23, 87, 429, ?

  1. ((a))

    2560

  2. ((b))

    2567

  3. ((c))

    2577

  4. ((d))

    2600

  5. ((e))

    1800

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2560

Direction: Read the table carefully and answer the following questions:

The table below shows the total number of visits, percent of men, percent of women and number of children visited a zoo in a week.

<br>

Percentage of women given with respect to number of men

DayTotal VisitsMen (%)Women (%)Children
Monday2,00060%50%200
Tuesday2,60055%70%169
Wednesday2,75064%45%198
Thursday1,85050%48%481
Friday2,40070%40%48
Saturday3,20040%125%320
Sunday3,60075%25%225
<br>

Total number of visits = Men + Women + Children

Number of men = Percent of Total visits

and Number of women = Percent of Men visit

166

The total number of children visited on Thursday, Friday and Saturday is approximately what percent of the total number of men visited on the same days?

  1. ((a))

    18%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    22%

  4. ((d))

    24%

  5. ((e))

    26%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18%

167

Find the average number of women visited the zoo from Wednesday to Saturday.

  1. ((a))

    877

  2. ((b))

    878

  3. ((c))

    887

  4. ((d))

    777

  5. ((e))

    817

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

877

168

Find the difference between the total number of men visited on Monday and Tuesday together and the number of women visited on Saturday and Sunday together.

  1. ((a))

    351

  2. ((b))

    352

  3. ((c))

    353

  4. ((d))

    354

  5. ((e))

    355

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

351

169

Find the difference between the total number of women and the total number of children visited the zoo in the week.

  1. ((a))

    4,140

  2. ((b))

    4,134

  3. ((c))

    4,144

  4. ((d))

    4,413

  5. ((e))

    4,143

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4,140

170

Find the ratio of the number of women and children together visited on Tuesday and the number of men visited on the same day.

  1. ((a))

    11 ∶ 9

  2. ((b))

    9 ∶ 11

  3. ((c))

    8 ∶ 11

  4. ((d))

    11 ∶ 8

  5. ((e))

    13 ∶ 77

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11 ∶ 9

171

Tap A can drain a cistern in 24 hours while Tap B can do the same in 36 hours. Tap A and B are opened simultaneously in which B works at 100% and 60% efficiency at alternate hours. Find the time (in hours) required to drain the cistern.

  1. ((a))

    15(13 / 21)

  2. ((b))

    15(17 / 21)

  3. ((c))

    14(3 / 5)

  4. ((d))

    16(11 / 21)

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15(13 / 21)

172

Three glasses 1,2 and 3 have water and juice in ratio of 1 : 2, 3 : 4 and 2 : 5. Find out which glass contains maximum amount of juice if capacity of glasses is 90 ml, 210 ml and 140 ml respectively and 10 ml of juice was removed from glass 2 and added to glass 3. 

  1. ((a))

    Second glass

  2. ((b))

    Both glass 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Third glass

  4. ((d))

    Both glass 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second glass

173

A starts her journey from a place X. She walks for two hours and takes a halt, if she travels 1/3rd more of what she already covered then she would cover 60% of the total distance she needs to cover. Find the percentage of distance travelled by her in three hours.

  1. ((a))

    58.5%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    45%

  4. ((d))

    67.5%

  5. ((e))

    80%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

58.5%

174

In an examination, there were three subjects Hindi, Maths, and Science. Marks scored by P in Hindi is 40. Marks scored by P and Q in Maths is equal. Marks scored in 3 subjects by Q is 240. Marks scored by Q in science is 25% of total marks obtained. Marks scored by R in Hindi is equal to marks scored by Q in Maths. Marks scored in Maths by Q is 20 more than marks scored in Science. Find the ratio of Hindi marks obtained by P, Q and R.

  1. ((a))

    2 : 5 : 4

  2. ((b))

    3 : 5 : 7

  3. ((c))

    4 : 7 : 9

  4. ((d))

    2 : 7 : 5

  5. ((e))

    2 : 5 : 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 : 5 : 4

175

A boat has speed a of 15 m/s in still water, but while going upstream its speed is half the speed as compared to the speed of the boat going downstream. The boat is going downstream and a ship while going downstream crosses the boat in 15 seconds. The length of the ship is double the length of the boat. Find the time the ship will take to cover a distance of 144 kilometers while going upstream if the length of the ship is 100 meters.

  1. ((a))

    1 hour

  2. ((b))

    2 hours

  3. ((c))

    1.33 hours

  4. ((d))

    1.6 hours

  5. ((e))

    3 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 hour

The graph shows data on financial literacy rate of town A and town B for year 2016, 2017, 2018, 2019 and 2020. Answer the questions considering the line graph mentioned below. The chart shows % increase in financial literacy rate with respect to base year 2015. Literacy rate of town A in 2015 was 35% and town B was 40%. Town A has 50,000 residents and town B has 60,000 residents.

176

From the graph shown below which town has lowest financially literate people and in which year?

  1. ((a))

    Town A, 2017

  2. ((b))

    Town A, 2016

  3. ((c))

    Town B, 2016

  4. ((d))

    Town B, 2017

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Town A, 2017

177

What is the difference in financial literate population in town B and town A in year 2019?

  1. ((a))

    7055

  2. ((b))

    8070

  3. ((c))

    4023

  4. ((d))

    4156

  5. ((e))

    4270

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7055

178

How much percentage of financially literate people increased from year 2019 to 2020 for town A?

  1. ((a))

    (5600/ 1900) %

  2. ((b))

    (8700/18025) %

  3. ((c))

    (9200/18025) %

  4. ((d))

    (10,200/1900) %

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(5600/ 1900) %

179

Calculate number of financially literate people in year 2017.

  1. ((a))

    44,854

  2. ((b))

    43,567

  3. ((c))

    40,234

  4. ((d))

    41,564

  5. ((e))

    42,778

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44,854

180

What is the difference between numbers of financially literate people in year 2016 and 2017 for town B?

  1. ((a))

    440

  2. ((b))

    430

  3. ((c))

    360

  4. ((d))

    410

  5. ((e))

    420

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

440

181

Mahesh purchased two rubber factories, one in India and another in China at Rs. 160 crores. Later on, he sold the Indian factory at 26% profit and the Chinese factory at 34% profit. Thus, he earned a total profit of 29%. The selling price of the China factory?

  1. ((a))

    60.5 Crores

  2. ((b))

    55.2 Crores

  3. ((c))

    80.4 Crores

  4. ((d))

    40.4 Crores

  5. ((e))

    50.4 Crores

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60.5 Crores

182

A man divided Rs. 10000 into two parts. He invested one part at a simple interest of 12.5% for 4 years and the other part at an interest of 10% p.a. compounded annually for 2 years. If he received a total interest of Rs. 3840, find the ratio in which he divided the money.

  1. ((a))

    1 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶ 4

  3. ((c))

    3 ∶ 2

  4. ((d))

    1 ∶ 1

  5. ((e))

    3 ∶ 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 ∶ 3

183

A shirt manufacturer marked the price of a shirt 25% above the cost price and then gives two successive discounts of 20% and 5%. If the cost price of a shirt is Rs.1500 then what is the selling price of the shirt.

  1. ((a))

    1248

  2. ((b))

    1425

  3. ((c))

    1328

  4. ((d))

    1550

  5. ((e))

    1465

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1248

184

There are some books inside a bag. 40% of total books are Red and rest 60 are Green. The average price of green books is Rs.120 and the average price of Red books is Rs.100. Find the average price of books inside a bag.

  1. ((a))

    Rs.112

  2. ((b))

    Rs.120

  3. ((c))

    Rs.115

  4. ((d))

    Rs.98

  5. ((e))

    Rs.105

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs.112

185

A, B and C are partners. A receives 9/10 of the profit and B and C share the remaining profit equally. A's income is increased by Rs. 270 when the profit % of A rises from 12 to 15%. Find the capital invested by B and C each respectively.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 500, Rs. 600

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 500, Rs. 500

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 600, Rs. 500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 600, Rs. 600

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 500, Rs. 600

Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the questions.

There are 6 villages in city X, named A, B, C, D, E and F. The population of village A is 22% of the total population of city X, the population of village B is 24% of the total population of city X, the population of village C is (1/8)th of the total population of city X, the population of village D is 56% of the total population of village C, the population of village E is 80% of the population of village B. The total population of village F is 45900, which is 15.3% of the total population of city X.

186

What is the difference between the total population of village B and D together and village C and D together?

  1. ((a))

    37000

  2. ((b))

    34500

  3. ((c))

    24000

  4. ((d))

    36000

  5. ((e))

    34000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37000

187

The total population of village A and E together are what percent of more than the total population of village C?

  1. ((a))

    170%

  2. ((b))

    229.6%

  3. ((c))

    230%

  4. ((d))

    240%

  5. ((e))

    290%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

170%

188

In village B, 40% of the total population is female. In village C, 53% of the total population is female, and In village D, 46% of the total population is female. What is the total population of the female along with villages B, C and D?

  1. ((a))

    60000

  2. ((b))

    58335

  3. ((c))

    58130

  4. ((d))

    59875

  5. ((e))

    59000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60000

189

In villages A and C, the total number of children below the age of 15 years is 8000, which is in the ratio of 3: 5. The total number of children under 15 in village C is what percentage of the total population of village C?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    13.33%

  4. ((d))

    14.33%

  5. ((e))

    22%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

190

What is the average population of village A, C, D and F?

  1. ((a))

    42600

  2. ((b))

    31000

  3. ((c))

    42350

  4. ((d))

    30050

  5. ((e))

    35000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42600

191

A train at 72 km/hr completely crosses another train having three forth of its length and going in the opposite direction at 54 km/hr in 20 sec. if it also passed a railway platform in 1 minute, the length of the platform is

  1. ((a))

    400 meters 

  2. ((b))

    500 meters

  3. ((c))

    800 meters

  4. ((d))

    700 meters

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 meters 

192

A house to be built in 80 days by a contractor. He hired 100 men for the work in beginning and 100 more after 70 days and completed the house on time. If contractor did not hire any extra men for the work, find the delay in the work.

  1. ((a))

    12 dyas

  2. ((b))

    10 days

  3. ((c))

    15 days 

  4. ((d))

    16 days

  5. ((e))

    18 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 dyas

193

The average age of Prashant, Shivansh, Johny and Vivek is 19 years. If Prashant is 4 years older than Shivansh while Johny is 6 years younger than Shivansh and Vivek’s age is 2 times that of Prashant. Then find the ratio between the ages of Prashant and Vivek.

  1. ((a))

    1 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶ 7

  3. ((c))

    2 ∶ 5

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 7

  5. ((e))

    1 ∶ 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 ∶ 3

194

A man build an overhead water tank which lasts full 10 days for his colony of 200 people. If the water requirement is 12 lit per head per day and ratio of the height, width and length of the water tank is 2 : 3 : 4, find out the area of the square whose length of each side is equal to the height of the tank.

  1. ((a))

    300 dcm2

  2. ((b))

    400 dcm2

  3. ((c))

    225 dcm2

  4. ((d))

    600 dcm2

  5. ((e))

    900 dcm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300 dcm2

195

Chances of India winning a match is 75% when Sachin scores a century. The probability of India winning a match against West Indies is 3/4. Find the probability of India winning the match against West Indies if Sachin scores a century.

  1. ((a))

    1/16

  2. ((b))

    3/4

  3. ((c))

    15/16

  4. ((d))

    9/16

  5. ((e))

    6/4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1/16

196

Choose the correct option from the following

Quantity I: Two partners P and Q enter into partnership with ratio 2 : 3. They earn a profit of 20% on total investment out of which Q gets Rs 20,000 as profit earned. Calculate Sum invested by P

Quantity II: A product is sold at successive rates of 10% and 15% profit. If cost price of product is Rs 10,000 then what is selling price?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

197

Choose the correct option from the following

Quantity I: If A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days, B and C in 12 days and if all three are together then said work is done in 8 days. In how many days would C and A complete the work if working together?

Quantity II: A can do a piece of work in 2/5th of work in 10 days and B can do 1/2 of the same work in 8 days. If both of them are working together then in how many days would the work get completed?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

198

Choose the correct option from the following

Quantity I: What is the compound interest available on principal amount of Rs 20,000 at the rate of 12.5% per annum for two years?

Quantity II: If an amount of Rs 18,000 is divided in ratio of 5 : 4 wherein larger part is kept at simple interest of 20% for 3 years and smaller part at compound interest of 10% for two years. What is the interest earned by the person at the end of two years?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

199

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

A deck of 52 cards is shuffled

Quantity I: Two cards are picked at random, what is the probability of choosing first cards between numbers 5 to 9 (include 5 and 9) and second card being greater than or equal to queen but less than ace.

Quantity II: A card is picked at random, what is the probability of it being either from 1-5 (include 1 and 5) number or greater than a queen.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I < Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

200

Choose the correct option from the following

Quantity I: Rhea sells her beauty accessories at 20% profit. If she sells same accessories at 25 % profit then she could have earned Rs 30 more than the previous. Calculate cost price of the beauty accessories.

Quantity II: Arnkul gave a discount of Rs 30 on the marked price of his ear phones. If the new marked price is 94% of the original price then calculate original marked price.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  4. ((d))

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I< Quantity II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

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