Official Paper

RRB PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 10 September 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a Rectangular table. All of them like different papers Tracing paper, Tissue paper, Vellum paper, Wax paper, Bond paper, Matte paper, Glossy paper, and Copy paper but not necessarily in the same order. Four persons sit on the four corners of the table facing towards the centre and the rest of the four persons sit on the middle of the sides facing away from the centre.

Two persons are sitting between C and G, who likes Tracing paper. C is facing outside. F is sitting second to the right of G. One person is sitting between F and the one who likes Tissue paper. A and B, who like Bond paper are sitting opposite to each other. A is not an immediate neighbour of the person who likes tissue paper. G and B are not immediate neighbours. The person who likes Vellum is sitting third to the right of D. D faces the opposite direction to C and E. D does not like Tissue paper. The persons who like vellum paper and Matte paper are sitting together. C and G do not like matte papers. The person who likes Tracing paper is sitting immediately right of E. The person who likes Glossy paper is sitting second to the left of the person who likes Wax paper.

1

Which of the following is the false statement?

  1. ((a))

    A is sitting second to the left of C.

  2. ((b))

    B likes bond paper.

  3. ((c))

    E and G are immediate neighbour.

  4. ((d))

    F is sitting third to the right of E.

  5. ((e))

    E likes Vellum paper.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A is sitting second to the left of C.

2

Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    E-tracing paper

  2. ((b))

    A-Glossy paper

  3. ((c))

    C-Wax paper

  4. ((d))

    F-Matte paper

  5. ((e))

    H-tissue paper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E-tracing paper

3

Who is sitting immediately left of H?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    the one who likes Bond paper.

  5. ((e))

    the one who likes tracing paper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G

4

Who likes the Matte paper?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

5

What type of paper does person C like? 

  1. ((a))

    Tracing Paper

  2. ((b))

    Glossy Paper

  3. ((c))

    Matte Paper

  4. ((d))

    Wax Paper

  5. ((e))

    Tissue Paper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tracing Paper

6

Directions: In the following question assume the given conclusions hold. Find for which of the following statements the conclusions hold then give your answer accordingly.

Conclusions:

I. F > C

II G > C

  1. ((a))

    F > E ≥ D < C < A < B = G

  2. ((b))

    F > E ≥ D < C < A < B > G

  3. ((c))

    F > E ≥ D = C < A > B = G

  4. ((d))

    F > E ≥ D = C < A < B = G

  5. ((e))

    F > E ≥ D = C >  A > B = G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F > E ≥ D < C < A < B = G

7

Directions: In the following question assume the given conclusions hold. Find for which of the following statements the conclusions hold then give your answer accordingly.

Conclusions:

I. N < K

II. P > T

  1. ((a))

    M > N < T = F = P ≤ K ≥ L

  2. ((b))

    M > N <  T > F < P ≤ K ≥ L

  3. ((c))

    M > N < T < F = P ≤ K ≥ L

  4. ((d))

    M > N < T < F > P ≤  K ≥ L

  5. ((e))

    M > N < T > F = P ≤ K ≥ L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M > N < T = F = P ≤ K ≥ L

8

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions is definitely false and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

A < B ≤ C = D ≥ E ; F < G < E ; T > G > M

  1. ((a))

    A < D

  2. ((b))

    E > M

  3. ((c))

    A > G

  4. ((d))

    C > M

  5. ((e))

    B ≤ D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A < D

9

Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the following question.

Eight family members M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T in a family are related to each other in the following way. P is the mother of M. M has only one daughter. T is the father of R. T is the son-in-law of O. O is the father of N. N is the husband of S. Q is the sister of R. P has two children. 

How is P related to Q?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Son

  3. ((c))

    Daughter-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Brother

  5. ((e))

    Maternal Grandmother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

A word and number arrangement device when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

Input: 56 Soup Cup 15 17 Bottle Light 33 26 Paint Kit 20.

Step I: 30 56 Cup 17 Bottle Light 33 26 Paint Kit 20 Soup.

Step II: 34 30 56 Cup Bottle Light 33 26 Kit 20 Soup Paint.

Step III: 10 34 30 56 Cup Bottle 33 26 Kit Soup Paint Light.

Step IV: 13 10 34 30 56 Cup Bottle 33 Soup Paint Light Kit.

Step V: 66 13 10 34 30 56 Bottle Soup Paint Light Kit Cup.

Step VI: 28 66 13 10 34 30 Soup Paint Light Kit Cup Bottle. 

Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the pattern followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: Day 50 Kite 37 Tool 40 56 Moon Gate 23 Rat 70.

10

Which step is “74 46 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 70 Tool Rat.”?

  1. ((a))

    Step III

  2. ((b))

    Step IV

  3. ((c))

    Step II

  4. ((d))

    Step VI

  5. ((e))

    Step V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Step III

11

What is the position of the word Kite in the IV step?

  1. ((a))

    Second from the right end.

  2. ((b))

    Extreme Right end

  3. ((c))

    Third from the left end.

  4. ((d))

    Extreme left end

  5. ((e))

    Second from the left end.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second from the right end.

12

What will be the second element to the right of the third element from the left end in Step III?

  1. ((a))

    70

  2. ((b))

    Kite

  3. ((c))

    37

  4. ((d))

    Moon

  5. ((e))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70

13

Which of the following will be the II step?

  1. ((a))

    37 46 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 70 Tool Rat.

  2. ((b))

    37 23 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 70 Rat Tool.

  3. ((c))

    74 46 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 70 Tool Rat.

  4. ((d))

    37 23 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 35 Tool Rat.

  5. ((e))

    37 23 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 70 Tool Rat.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37 46 Day 50 Kite 40 56 Moon Gate 70 Tool Rat.

14

Which element is exactly between "Day" and "Kite" in Step III?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    Tool

  3. ((c))

    70

  4. ((d))

    Moon

  5. ((e))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are joining different departments in different months. The departments are Music, Sociology, Linguistics, Business, Geology, Administrative, Radiology, and Chemistry. They joined in January, February, March, and April of the same year. They joined either on the 7th or 28th of the given month. 

E does not join on an odd number of days a month but on an odd date. Three persons joined between E and one who joined the Sociology department. One person joined in between the person who joined the Music and Sociology departments. C joined the Radiology department on 28th February. H joined immediately after D who joined in Chemistry department. F and H do not join in Sociology department. F joined on the 7th of the given month. G joined immediately after B joined but in the different months. The person who joined the Administrative department joined on the prime number date. H and A did not join the linguistic department. Nobody joined in between E and A. A Person in the Business department joined before Geology.

15

How many persons joined the department between B and H?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Five

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Six

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three

16

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Nobody joined after E.

  2. ((b))

    D joined on 28th January.

  3. ((c))

    C joined Chemistry department.

  4. ((d))

    C joined after H.

  5. ((e))

    G joined on 7th February.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nobody joined after E.

17

Which of the following combinations is correct?

  1. ((a))

    C - Linguistic

  2. ((b))

    F - Geology

  3. ((c))

    H - Business

  4. ((d))

    E - Chemistry

  5. ((e))

    G - Radiology

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C - Linguistic

18

Who joined the department on 7th January?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    the one who joined Music department.

  3. ((c))

    the one who joined immediately after H.

  4. ((d))

    H

  5. ((e))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

19

Who joined the Geology department?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    H

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

20

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north direction. C is sitting third from one of the end. Two persons are sitting between C and B. D is sitting second to the right of B. G is sitting second from one of the ends. G is not an immediate neighbor of C. Six persons are sitting between A and G. Same number of persons are sitting between A and D as between A and E. The number of persons sitting between D and A is the same as the number of persons sitting between B and C. A and B are not immediate neighbors. A is not sitting at the extreme ends. E is sitting second to the left of F. The Number of persons sitting in the row is not less than Sixteen.

How many people are sitting in a row?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    20

  5. ((e))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

21

Direction: In the question below are given four statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Blue is red.

Only a few reds are pink.

No Pink is Brown.

All Green is Brown.

Conclusions:

I. All Pink can be red.

II. Some blue is Brown.

  1. ((a))

    Only II follows

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only I follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only II follows

22

Direction: In the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Tin is Copper.

All Iron is Copper.

Only a few Iron is Silver.

All Gold is Tin.

Conclusion:

I. All Copper is Silver is a possibility.

II. All Gold is Copper.

III. Some Silver is Iron.

IV. Some Iron is not Gold.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion IV follows.

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion III follows.

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II follow.

  5. ((e))

    Both II and III follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows.

23

Direction: In the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Bag is Desk.

Some Stone is not Bag.

No Ink is Desk.

Some Stone is Desk.

Conclusion:

I. All Stone is Desk.

II. Some Ink is Stone is a possibility.

III. No Bag is Ink.

IV. Some Ink cannot be Stone.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion IV follows.

  4. ((d))

    Both II and III follow.

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows.

24

Directions: The question consists of a statement and three conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and based on the information given in the statement, decide whether the given conclusions to drawn from the given statement.

Statement: We see the usage of AI in every aspect of life, right from purchasing something online to self-driving vehicles. This technology makes our lives easier and enhances customer experiences. As with any technology, we must leverage this to augment human intelligence and enhance our productivity. But, artificial intelligence (AI) could be more biased than humans as the technology may display stronger racial and gender biases than people do. Biases can inadvertently be introduced in the system based on the prompts used to generate results.

Conclusions:

I. AI is just another technology without any human cognition. The system inherently does not have any bias but depends on how it is trained.

II. It is crucial that the data sets used for training models are fair and cover all scenarios avoiding all possible biases.

III. AI is a destructive force.

  1. ((a))

    Only I can concludes

  2. ((b))

    Only II concludes

  3. ((c))

    Only I and II conclude

  4. ((d))

    Only III concludes

  5. ((e))

    Only II and III conclude

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I can concludes

25

Directions: The question consists of a statement and three inferences. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and based on the information given in the statement, decide whether the given inferences can be inferred from the statement.

Statement: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Bank of Indonesia (BI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish a framework to promote the use of local currencies for cross-border transactions. The MoU covers all current account transactions, permissible capital account transactions, and any other economic and financial transactions as agreed upon by both countries.

Inferences: 

I. This framework would enable exporters and importers to invoice and pay in respective domestic currencies.

II. The use of local currencies in bilateral transactions will eventually decrease trade between India and Indonesia.

III. Use of local currencies would optimize costs and settlement time for transactions.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only I and III follows.

  5. ((e))

    Only I and II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

26

Directions: In the question below a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and based on the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s).

The Cabinet has declared human-wildlife conflict a State-specific disaster. The decision comes in the wake of increasing deaths, injuries, and crop and property loss caused by recurrent wildlife incursions into human habitations abutting forests in the state.

I. The Cabinet should create a committee to alleviate the threat of wildlife to humans, especially plantation and tribal communities.

II The government should form neighborhood watch groups to increase grassroots vigilance in localities plagued by wildlife ingress.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follow.

27

Directions: In the question given below a statement is followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You must read the statement and assumptions carefully and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: Newspapers have been publishing articles about the use of a ‘magic injection’ containing a drug called Semaglutide. Originally used for the treatment of Type-2 diabetes mellitus, this drug also results in weight loss. However, many of the articles promoting these drugs fail to mention that this weight loss drug has not been approved for sale in India.

Assumptions:

I. Pharma companies advising patients not to use this product in India do not get any publicity in the media.

II. The Newspapers are not guilty of not reporting the significant side effects that these drugs can cause.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is implicit.

  2. ((b))

    Only II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are implicit.

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is implicit.

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II is implicit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is implicit.

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Eight college students Manju, Omi, Kiran, Nile, Ena, Pihu, Jai, and Qushi are sitting in a row. All the students are facing north direction. Each college student has a different number of pens such as 10, 12, 13, 18, 20, 22, 28, and 32. All the given information is not necessarily in the same order.

Kiran is sitting at one of the extreme ends. Two persons are sitting between Kiran and Qushi. The person sitting third to the left of Qushi has the multiple of the number of pens Qushi has. Ena has more pen than at least two persons.  Pihu and Jai are immediate neighbors.  The sum of the pens Pihu and Jai have is 31. Jai has more pens than Pihu. The one who has 32 pens is sitting immediately right of Manju. Qushi is sitting third to the right of Ena. One person is sitting between Nile and Pihu. Pihu and Qushi are not immediate neighbors.  Manju has pens which is six less than the pens Nile has. Pihu is not sitting at the extreme end. Kiran does not have the maximum number of pens.

28

What is the sum of pens Kiran and Qushi have? 

  1. ((a))

    Twenty-two

  2. ((b))

    Thirty

  3. ((c))

    Thirty-one

  4. ((d))

    Thirty-two

  5. ((e))

    Twenty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Twenty-two

29

How many persons are sitting between Jai and Nile?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Five

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

30

Which of the following is sitting third to the right of Pihu?

  1. ((a))

    Nile

  2. ((b))

    Ena

  3. ((c))

    Kiran

  4. ((d))

    Manju

  5. ((e))

    Jai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nile

31

Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    Jai - 22

  2. ((b))

    Pihu - 13

  3. ((c))

    Qushi - 10

  4. ((d))

    Omi - 32

  5. ((e))

    Kiran - 12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jai - 22

32

How many pens does Omi have?

  1. ((a))

    Thirteen

  2. ((b))

    Ten

  3. ((c))

    Thirty-Two

  4. ((d))

    Twenty

  5. ((e))

    Twenty-Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thirteen

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are fans of football. Each of them is supporting either of the three football clubs i.e. Real Madrid, Copenhagen football team, and Barcelona football team. At least two and less than four people support one football club.

A supports Copenhagen. H is not supporting Real Madrid and Barcelona. F is supporting a team with only one person. E is supporting a club with an even number of people without including E. E does not support the same team as H. C does not support Madrid. D does not support the same club as E, and F. G and E support the same team. B does not support the same club as G.

33

Who is the fan of the same football club as F?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    H

  5. ((e))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G

34

Which of the following statements is false?

  1. ((a))

    A and G support same football club.

  2. ((b))

    E and C support same football club.

  3. ((c))

    F and B support same football club.

  4. ((d))

    G and F support different football club.

  5. ((e))

    B is Real Madrid fan.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and G support same football club.

35

Which of the following combinations is correct?

  1. ((a))

    A-Real Madrid

  2. ((b))

    F-Madrid

  3. ((c))

    E-Copenhagen

  4. ((d))

    B-Barcelona

  5. ((e))

    D-Barcelona

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Real Madrid

36

Who is the Barcelona fan?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

37

Which of the following is the Real Madrid fan?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    H

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

A person is traveling from his home to the market. He started from point A and traveled 10m east to reach a point B. From B he travels 8m north to reach a point C. From C he travels 6m west to reach a point D. From D he travels 15m south to reach a point E. From E he travels 2m west to reach point F. From F he travels 10m north to reach a point G. From G he travels 5m west to reach a point H. From H he travels 10m south to reach the market which is marked as I.

38

What is the direction of B with respect to H?

  1. ((a))

    East

  2. ((b))

    West

  3. ((c))

    Southwest

  4. ((d))

    North

  5. ((e))

    Southeast

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

East

39

What is the shortest possible distance between I and F?

  1. ((a))

    5m

  2. ((b))

    6m

  3. ((c))

    10m

  4. ((d))

    7m

  5. ((e))

    8m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5m

40

Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    GD

  2. ((b))

    HC

  3. ((c))

    HI

  4. ((d))

    EC

  5. ((e))

    AC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GD

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

41

What is the shortcut key of Microsoft PowerPoint for help option?

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    Shift+H

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl+H

  4. ((d))

    Shift+F11

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F1

42

What does SSD stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Solid set drive

  2. ((b))

    Small state drive

  3. ((c))

    Super State drive

  4. ((d))

    Static state drive

  5. ((e))

    Solid state drive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solid set drive

43

The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as _________.

  1. ((a))

    Join Cells

  2. ((b))

    Merge Cells

  3. ((c))

    Merge Table

  4. ((d))

    Join Table

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Join Cells

44

In application software (MS Excel), there is _______ immediately below the title bar.

  1. ((a))

    Text area 

  2. ((b))

    Menu bar

  3. ((c))

    Standards tool bar 

  4. ((d))

    Scroll bar

  5. ((e))

    Task bar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Text area 

45

Which of the following correctly describes the progression and features of LPDDR RAM generations used in smartphones?

  1. ((a))

    LPDDR3 introduced lower data rates compared to LPDDR2 but had improved energy efficiency.

  2. ((b))

    LPDDR4/4X and LPDDR5 did not offer any improvements in data rates or power efficiency compared to LPDDR3.

  3. ((c))

    LPDDR RAM stands for Low Power Double Data Rate Random Access Memory, optimized for mobile devices for high-speed data transfer and low power consumption.

  4. ((d))

    LPDDR1 is the newest standard, offering the highest data rates and the most significant improvements in energy efficiency among all LPDDR generations.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LPDDR3 introduced lower data rates compared to LPDDR2 but had improved energy efficiency.

46

Which of the following is used for the addition in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    ADD

  2. ((b))

    ADD ALL

  3. ((c))

    SUM

  4. ((d))

    ADDITION

  5. ((e))

    MIX 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ADD

47

A program embedded in a semiconductor chip during manufacture is called ________

  1. ((a))

    Humanware

  2. ((b))

    Firmware

  3. ((c))

    Liveware

  4. ((d))

    Hardware

  5. ((e))

    Software

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Humanware

48

The first cell in MS excel address is

  1. ((a))

    A1

  2. ((b))

    A2

  3. ((c))

    B1

  4. ((d))

    C3

  5. ((e))

    D3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A1

49

In MS Word, the dimensions of the Letter page size are

  1. ((a))

    8.5” × 11”

  2. ((b))

    11” × 17”

  3. ((c))

    8.5” × 14”

  4. ((d))

    7.25” × 10.5”

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.5” × 11”

50

Hyperlink can be in __________.

  1. ((a))

    Pictures.

  2. ((b))

    Documents.

  3. ((c))

    Text.

  4. ((d))

    Button.

  5. ((e))

    All of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pictures.

51

A record of columns is DBMS is called

  1. ((a))

    Tuple

  2. ((b))

    Matrix

  3. ((c))

    Field

  4. ((d))

    Label

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tuple

52

Which Keyboard shortcut key is used to Switch to the next workbook window when more than one workbook window is open ?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl+P

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl+F9

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl+F6

  4. ((d))

    Shift+Space

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl+space

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl+P

53

How many Alphabets in Hexadecimal number?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

54

Which of the following is not a logic gate?

  1. ((a))

    AND

  2. ((b))

    OR

  3. ((c))

    NOT

  4. ((d))

    NAT

  5. ((e))

    NOR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AND

55

______ sign is used to create an absolute cell reference.

  1. ((a))

    $

  2. ((b))

    @

  3. ((c))

    &

  4. ((d))

    %

  5. ((e))
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

$

56

Can direct action viruses delete the infected files?

  1. ((a))

    Yes, direct action viruses can not delete the infected files.

  2. ((b))

    No, direct action viruses can not delete the infected files.

  3. ((c))

    No, direct action viruses can delete the infected files.

  4. ((d))

    Yes, direct action viruses can delete the infected files.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yes, direct action viruses can not delete the infected files.

57

Choose the option from the following which is not a programming language.

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    C++

  3. ((c))

    Java

  4. ((d))

    COBOL

  5. ((e))

    Solaris

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

58

Octal number system has a base ________

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

59

Which of the following is not a search engine?

  1. ((a))

    Excite 

  2. ((b))

    Duck Duck Go

  3. ((c))

    Yandex

  4. ((d))

    Wolfram alpha

  5. ((e))

    Facebook messenger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Excite 

60

To set a paragraph a center align we use

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl+E

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl+J

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl+L

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl+C

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl+R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl+E

61

The binary equivalent of decimal value (10)10­ is:

  1. ((a))

    (1011)2

  2. ((b))

    (1001)2

  3. ((c))

    (1100)2

  4. ((d))

    (1000)2

  5. ((e))

    (1010)2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(1011)2

62

NIC is a hardware component used to connect one computer to another computer in a network. What does the term NIC mean?

  1. ((a))

    New Interface Card

  2. ((b))

    Network interface Care

  3. ((c))

    Network interface Card

  4. ((d))

    Network Integration Card

  5. ((e))

    None of above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Interface Card

63

Citation group comes under which tab in MS-Word?

  1. ((a))

    Home Tab

  2. ((b))

    View Tab

  3. ((c))

    Help Tab

  4. ((d))

    Page Layout

  5. ((e))

    Reference Tab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home Tab

64

Which of the following statements is true in the context of Watermark?

  1. ((a))

    A watermark can only be applied to a single page in document.

  2. ((b))

    A watermark is not visible to viewers in a hard copy.

  3. ((c))

    A watermark is a ghost text.

  4. ((d))

    The colour of a watermark cannot be changed.

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A watermark can only be applied to a single page in document.

65

Which tab is used to insert picture in MS Word?

  1. ((a))

    Design

  2. ((b))

    Insert

  3. ((c))

    Layout

  4. ((d))

    View

  5. ((e))

    References

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Design

66

MS word Header and Footer options under which tab?

  1. ((a))

    Mailing 

  2. ((b))

    Insert

  3. ((c))

    File 

  4. ((d))

    Review

  5. ((e))

    Home

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mailing 

67

Which of the following is not a valid category of impact printers?

  1. ((a))

    Daisy-wheel printers

  2. ((b))

    Line printers

  3. ((c))

    Drum printers

  4. ((d))

    Laser printers

  5. ((e))

    Dot Matrix Printers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Daisy-wheel printers

68

The type of Application Software which is used to support the computer infrastructure is called?

  1. ((a))

    Application Software 

  2. ((b))

    Cloud Software

  3. ((c))

    Operating System

  4. ((d))

    Utility Software

  5. ((e))

    Programming Software

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Application Software 

69

Linux is a type of ________ operating system

  1. ((a))

    Shareware

  2. ((b))

    Commercial

  3. ((c))

    Proprietary

  4. ((d))

    Open source

  5. ((e))

    Hidden type

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shareware

70

what is shortcut key used to Insert a page break in MS word?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + End

  2. ((b))

    Shift + Alt + K+S

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Enter

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Home

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + End

71

Which key can be used to start presentation from beginning in PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    F2

  3. ((c))

    F3

  4. ((d))

    F4

  5. ((e))

    F5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F1

72

Which technology use CHAT GPT?

  1. ((a))

    Natural Language Processing

  2. ((b))

    Computer Vision

  3. ((c))

    Video Processing

  4. ((d))

    Data Science

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Natural Language Processing

73

PNG, GIFs are

  1. ((a))

    Image

  2. ((b))

    Video

  3. ((c))

    Text

  4. ((d))

    Audio

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Image

74

What is the size of MAC Address?

  1. ((a))

    16-bits

  2. ((b))

    32-bits

  3. ((c))

    48-bits

  4. ((d))

    64-bits

  5. ((e))

    128-bits

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16-bits

75

Fastest memory in computer is

  1. ((a))

    RAM

  2. ((b))

    Cache

  3. ((c))

    ROM

  4. ((d))

    Hard disk

  5. ((e))

    CD-ROM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RAM

76

The word wrap features

  1. ((a))

    automatically move text to the next line when necessary

  2. ((b))

    appears at the bottom of the document

  3. ((c))

    allows you to type over text

  4. ((d))

    appears at the top of the document

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

automatically move text to the next line when necessary

77

What will be the full form of GIF?

  1. ((a))

    Graphic Interchange Format

  2. ((b))

    Global Information Forum

  3. ((c))

    Graphic Information Format

  4. ((d))

    Global Interchange File

  5. ((e))

    Graphic Interchange Form

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Graphic Interchange Format

78

Which of the following operating systems provides immediate and accurate responses within the allocated time constraint?

  1. ((a))

    Time-sharing operating system

  2. ((b))

    Multiprocessing operating system

  3. ((c))

    Multiprogram operating system

  4. ((d))

    Real-time operating system

  5. ((e))

    Single-program operating system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Time-sharing operating system

79

_________ is a self-replicating virus that does not alter files but resides in active memory and duplicates itself. 

  1. ((a))

    Time Bomb

  2. ((b))

    Trojan

  3. ((c))

    Mellissa virus

  4. ((d))

    Worm

  5. ((e))

    Macro virus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Time Bomb

80

Which of the following is the range of class A  public IPv4?

  1. ((a))

    0.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

  2. ((b))

    0.0.0.0 to 192.0.0.0

  3. ((c))

    0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

  4. ((d))

    0.0.0.0 to 128.0.0.0

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

General Awareness (40 questions)

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given below carefully.

In the dynamic realm of business, the formulation and execution of an effective marketing strategy stand as pivotal elements that delineate the path to success. This intricate blueprint, when crafted astutely, orchestrates the harmonious alignment of a company’s unique value proposition with the evolving needs and preferences of its target market. It transcends mere promotional efforts to constitute a comprehensive framework that guides product development, pricing, distribution, and communication strategies, thereby ensuring sustained competitive advantage and profitability.

At its core, a marketing strategy begins with a deep understanding of the market landscape. This entails a thorough market analysis, including the study of competitors, consumer behavior, market trends, and economic factors. Such insights enable businesses to identify market opportunities and challenges, thereby informing strategic decisions. Furthermore, a clear delineation of the target audience is crucial. By segmenting the market based on demographic, geographic, psychographic, and behavioral dimensions, companies can tailor their offerings and messaging to appeal to specific customer segments, enhancing the effectiveness of their marketing efforts.

The essence of a marketing strategy also lies in the articulation of a compelling value proposition. This statement encapsulates the unique benefits that a company’s products or services offer, distinguishing it from competitors. It addresses the customer's problem or need and outlines why the offering represents the best solution. A strong value proposition serves as the cornerstone of branding and promotional activities, resonating with target customers and fostering brand loyalty.

Equally paramount to a marketing strategy is the selection of appropriate marketing channels and tactics. In an era characterized by digital transformation, businesses must adeptly navigate the plethora of available channels, from traditional media to digital platforms like social media, email marketing, and search engine optimization. The choice of channels depends on where the target audience is most active and receptive. Moreover, the integration of digital analytics tools enables real-time tracking of campaign performance, offering valuable insights for optimization and refinement.

Finally, a robust marketing strategy is underscored by measurable objectives and key performance indicators (KPIs). These metrics not only facilitate the evaluation of marketing effectiveness but also ensure alignment with the overarching business goals. Whether it’s increasing brand awareness, boosting sales, enhancing customer engagement, or improving market share, setting clear, quantifiable goals allows for focused efforts and accountability.

In conclusion, an effective marketing strategy is not static but an evolving blueprint that adapts to the changing market and organizational contexts. It requires a delicate balance between creativity and analytical rigor, customer-centricity, and strategic vision. As companies navigate the complexities of the market landscape, a well-conceived marketing strategy stands as their north star, guiding towards sustained growth and market leadership. In the high-stakes arena of business, it is the precision of strategy that often delineates the victors from the vanquished.

81

What is a synonym of the word "delineation" as used in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Obscurity

  2. ((b))

    Depiction

  3. ((c))

    Convergence

  4. ((d))

    Disarray

  5. ((e))

    Repulsion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Obscurity

82

Which of the following statements is true based on the passage?

  1. A marketing strategy primarily focuses on promotional efforts and does not consider product development or pricing.
  2. Digital analytics tools play a critical role in tracking the performance of marketing campaigns and offer insights for optimization.
  3. The choice of marketing channels does not depend on where the target audience is most active and receptive.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 & 2

  4. ((d))

    Both 2 & 3

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

83

What is an antonym of the word "vanquished" as used in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Conquered

  2. ((b))

    Triumphed

  3. ((c))

    Defeated

  4. ((d))

    Subdued

  5. ((e))

    Overwhelmed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Conquered

84

According to the passage, why is the articulation of a compelling value proposition crucial in a marketing strategy?

  1. ((a))

     It serves as legal documentation for the company’s offerings.

  2. ((b))

    It constitutes the basis for all marketing and promotional efforts, resonating with the target customers and fostering brand loyalty.

  3. ((c))

     It is solely used for financial forecasting and investment planning.

  4. ((d))

     It enables companies to reduce their operational costs significantly.

  5. ((e))

    It primarily focuses on competitor analysis and market share acquisition.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 It serves as legal documentation for the company’s offerings.

85

Which of the following statements is false based on the passage?

  1. The formulation of a marketing strategy does not begin with understanding the market landscape and identifying opportunities and challenges.
  2. A strong value proposition is essential for differentiating a company’s offerings from its competitors'.
  3. Setting clear, quantifiable goals is not important for the effectiveness and focused efforts of a marketing strategy.
  1. ((a))

    Only 2

  2. ((b))

    Only 3

  3. ((c))

     Both 1 & 3

  4. ((d))

    Only 1

  5. ((e))

     None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 2

86

Directions: In the sentence given below, four words have been highlighted. Identify the correct sequence of the words in the sentence. Also, one of the highlighted words does not fit the context of the sentence and will need to be replaced. Identify the correct sequence and replacement and mark that as your answer.

The energy inaccessibility (A) to renewables is a slow process, the shift to electric vehicles will take time and is precious (B) with issues ranging from the transition (C) and mining of wrought (D) metals to the availability of stable battery technologies.

  1. ((a))

    ACDB, C - permanence

  2. ((b))

    BACD, B - trivial

  3. ((c))

    CDAB, A - availability

  4. ((d))

    DCBA, D - primitive

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement is required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACDB, C - permanence

87

Directions: In the sentence given below, four words have been highlighted. Identify the correct sequence of the words in the sentence. Also, one of the highlighted words does not fit the context of the sentence and will need to be replaced. Identify the correct sequence and replacement and mark that as your answer.

The confluence of permissive (A) frameworks, risk management protocols, and technological innovations has unprecedented (B) a paradigm shift in the banking and finance sector, fostering catalyzed (C) opportunities for agile institutions to optimize operational efficiency (D) and augment customer-centricity.

  1. ((a))

    ACBD, A - regulatory

  2. ((b))

    BACD, B - traditional

  3. ((c))

    CBAD, C - esterified

  4. ((d))

    DBCA, D - coherency

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement is required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACBD, A - regulatory

88

Directions: In the sentence given below, four words have been highlighted. Identify the correct sequence of the words in the sentence. Also, one of the highlighted words does not fit the context of the sentence and will need to be replaced. Identify the correct sequence and replacement and mark that as your answer.

With the growing use of e- platforms, a feeble (A) legal mechanism is a demand, the Indian government should also address (B) existing laws to specifically amend (C) dark patterns, and to do this, new rules aimed against deceptive (D) design practices may need to be introduced.

  1. ((a))

    DCBA, B - disregard

  2. ((b))

    ACBD, A - robust

  3. ((c))

    BCAD, C - sabotage

  4. ((d))

    CDBA, D - veracious

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement is required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DCBA, B - disregard

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Organic farming is an agricultural system that originated early in the 20th century in reaction to rapidly changing farming practices.

(B) For instance, naturally occurring pesticides such as pyrethrin and rotenone are permitted, while synthetic fertilizers and pesticides are generally prohibited. 

(C) It is defined by the use of fertilizers of organic origin such as compost manure, green manure, and bone meal.

(D) Organic standards are designed to allow the use of naturally occurring substances while prohibiting or strictly limiting synthetic substances.

(E) Various organizations develop organic farming.

89

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

90

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

91

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

92

Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

93

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

94

Directions: A phrase is given in bold, followed by three sentences labelled A, B, and C using the phrase. Determine which of these sentences correctly uses the given phrase and mark it as your answer.

ON THE RUN

A. The successful launch of their new product put the company on the run, as competitors struggled to catch up.

B. After robbing the bank, the thieves were on the run from the police.

C. In an attempt to get healthy, he decided to go on the run every morning before work.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both B and C

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    All A, B, and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

95

Directions: Below is a word/phrasal verb/idiom, followed by three sentences incorporating the word/phrasal verb/idiom. Identify the sentence(s) that best illustrate(s) the meaning of the word/phrasal verb/idiom. Choose option 5: "None of the above" if the word/phrasal verb/idiom is not used correctly in any of the sentences.

WEED OUT

A. Teachers work diligently to weed out misconceptions and foster a deeper understanding in students.

B. She nervously weeded out her favourite passage in the book during the book club meeting.

C. It was becoming challenging for her to weed out the right balance between work and personal life.

  1. ((a))

    Only C

  2. ((b))

    Both B and C

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B

  4. ((d))

    Only A

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only C

96

Directions: Below is a word/phrasal verb/idiom, followed by three sentences incorporating the word/phrasal verb/idiom. Identify the sentence(s) that best illustrate(s) the meaning of the word/phrasal verb/idiom. Choose option 5: "None of the above" if the word/phrasal verb/idiom is not used correctly in any of the sentences.

IN FITS AND STARTS

A. A surprise birthday party is in fits and starts, organized by friends and family to celebrate her milestone.

B. Everyone was relieved to see the hero arrive in fits and starts to rescue the trapped passengers from the burning building.

C. Sarah's lack of communication resulted in team members not being in fits and starts about critical updates.

  1. ((a))

    Both C and B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B

  4. ((d))

    Only B

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both C and B

97

Directions: Below is a word/phrasal verb/idiom, followed by three sentences incorporating the word/phrasal verb/idiom. Identify the sentence(s) that best illustrate(s) the meaning of the word/phrasal verb/idiom. Choose option 5: "None of the above" if the word/phrasal verb/idiom is not used correctly in any of the sentences.

PUNITIVE

A. His punitive attitude towards mistakes in the workplace created a fear of experimentation among the employees.

B. The punitive measures for violating social media policies resulted in account suspension for many users.

C. Punitive tariffs imposed by the government resulted in increased prices for imported goods, affecting consumers' budgets.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Both C and A

  4. ((d))

    All A, B, and C

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

98

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

I and Sia spent a few (A)/ magical minutes observing (B)/ giraffes and elephants assembling (C)/ in a watering hole. (D)

  1. ((a))

    BD

  2. ((b))

    AD

  3. ((c))

    BC

  4. ((d))

    AB

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BD

99

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

A passive aggressive employee's behaviour impacts (A)/ the big picture of an organization's productivity (B)/ and moral but his or her piece-by- piece (C)/ acts of insubordination and sabotage are often extreme hard to nail down. (D)

  1. ((a))

    AC

  2. ((b))

    BD

  3. ((c))

    CD

  4. ((d))

    AB

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC

100

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Much of the tobacco leaf and some (A)/ of the cigarettes produced into the (B)/ continent are exported and these exports earn the foreign (C)/ currency that are attractive to the finance ministries of tobacco producing countries. (D)

  1. ((a))

    AC

  2. ((b))

    BD

  3. ((c))

    CD

  4. ((d))

    AB

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC

101

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Willard went on to (A)/ movie fame at playing (B)/ the same (C)/ character over and above. (D)

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    BC

  3. ((c))

    BD

  4. ((d))

    AD

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AB

102

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Intelligence density planning is the (A)/ answer, with old and new (B)/ buildings cohabiting gracefully -- (C) / so arguing the architects. (D)

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    AD

  3. ((c))

    BC

  4. ((d))

    CD

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AB

103

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Starting a family, buying homes and other (A)/ traditional markers of achievement is (B)/ no longer coveted by millennials and Gen Z, whose habits have (C)/been an obsession in marketers seeking to tap their spending power. (D)

  1. ((a))

    AC

  2. ((b))

    BD

  3. ((c))

    CD

  4. ((d))

    AB

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

104

Which of the following words is/are the synonyms of the word "comprehensive" in the context of the passage?

A. Fragmentary

B. Thorough

C. Rigorous

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only C

  3. ((c))

    Both B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only A

  5. ((e))

    All A, B, and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

105

What is the primary focus of the study conducted by scientists at Columbia University, as mentioned in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Investigating the chemical composition of bottled water.

  2. ((b))

    Developing a new imaging platform for plastic analysis.

  3. ((c))

    Assessing the efficiency of existing diagnostic techniques.

  4. ((d))

    Examining the presence of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water.

  5. ((e))

    Validating the standards for nanoplastic concentration in water.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Investigating the chemical composition of bottled water.

106

Which of the following sentence(s) can be true as per the passage?

A. A litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics, according to the research.

B. The research team's automated algorithm was solely developed for identifying plastics in the SRS platform, without broader applications.

C. The concentration levels of nanoplastics in bottled water were found to be consistent with existing standards, as indicated by the study's results.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    All A, B, and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

107

How did the custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform assist in nanoplastic analysis?

  1. ((a))

    By inducing magnetic resonance in plastic particles.

  2. ((b))

    By capturing multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths.

  3. ((c))

    By utilizing X-ray diffraction to identify plastic composition.

  4. ((d))

    By employing electron microscopy for detailed imaging.

  5. ((e))

    By relying on infrared spectroscopy to analyze plastic makeup.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By inducing magnetic resonance in plastic particles.

108

Which of the following options best describes the tone of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Optimistic and hopeful about the advancements in nanoplastic analysis.

  2. ((b))

    Neutral and informative, presenting scientific findings and their implications.

  3. ((c))

    Critical and accusatory towards the bottled water industry for contributing to plastic pollution.

  4. ((d))

    Speculative and uncertain, questioning the reliability of the study's results.

  5. ((e))

    Informative and optimistic, highlighting the urgency of addressing nanoplastic pollution.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Optimistic and hopeful about the advancements in nanoplastic analysis.

109

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A.  may seem more tempting

B. and appealing,

C. it comes with a great cost.

D. we must recognize 

E. that though junk food

  1. ((a))

    ABCED

  2. ((b))

    EDBAC

  3. ((c))

    BEADC

  4. ((d))

    DEABC

  5. ((e))

    CBEAD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ABCED

110

In the given question, a sentence is given with a part of it missing and represented by a blank. Choose the phrase that can be placed in the given blank to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

__________and social distancing norms across geographies have led to severe curbs on labour supply, transport and travel.

  1. ((a))

    The alertness on behaviour

  2. ((b))

    The duty of the government on movement

  3. ((c))

    The abnormality of movement

  4. ((d))

    Tight restrictions on movement 

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The alertness on behaviour

111

In the given question, a sentence is given with a part of it missing and represented by a blank. Choose the phrase that can be placed in the given blank to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

For more than two years the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund __________ sub-Saharan Africa stands on the verge of a debt crisis.

  1. ((a))

    have been warning that

  2. ((b))

    have suggested that

  3. ((c))

    have criticized that 

  4. ((d))

    have exercised that

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

have been warning that

112

Direction: The given sentence contains a blank. Identify the phrase/statement that can make the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct. 

Economic compulsions have led to increasing codification and introduction of the rule of law ________.

  1. ((a))

    without whom a market economy would not be able to function efficiently. 

  2. ((b))

    without which a market economy would be unable to function efficiently. 

  3. ((c))

    ​without that a market economy would be unable to not function efficiently. 

  4. ((d))

    that would prevent a market economy to function efficiently.

  5. ((e))

    which would not allow a market economy to function efficient.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

without whom a market economy would not be able to function efficiently. 

113

Direction: The given sentence contains a blank. Identify the phrase/statement that can make the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct. 

________ to restore the entrance examination for admissions to centers of higher learning.

  1. ((a))

    ​One of first important acts of Xiaoping in 1977 was

  2. ((b))

    ​One of the first important act of Xiaoping in 1977 was

  3. ((c))

    ​One of the first important acts of Xiaoping in 1977 is

  4. ((d))

    ​One of the first important acts of Xiaoping in 1977 has been 

  5. ((e))

    One of the first important acts of Xiaoping in 1977 was

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​One of first important acts of Xiaoping in 1977 was

114

Direction: The given sentence contains a blank. Identify the phrase/statement that can make the given sentence grammatically and contextually correct. 

Unlike Western liberal democracies that believe in incremental change, in China ________.

  1. ((a))

    ​there is the greatest autonomy which allowed Deng to succeed Mao and initiate radical reforms.

  2. ((b))

    ​there is a great autonomy that allowed Deng to succeed Mao and initiate radical reforms.

  3. ((c))

    there is greater autonomy which allowed Deng to succeed Mao and initiate radical reforms.

  4. ((d))

    ​there is greater autonomy which allowed Deng to succeed Mao and initiated radical reforms.

  5. ((e))

    ​there is greater autonomy that has been allowed Deng to succeed Mao and initiate radical reforms.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​there is the greatest autonomy which allowed Deng to succeed Mao and initiate radical reforms.

Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e, No improvement required.

A major fire was reported in a shoe showroom in Indore’s Samvid Nagar on Saturday morning. Locals noticed smoke (A) [rolling] from the building and informed fire officials and the owner rushed to the spot. Fire (B) [proffers] were engaged in controlling the fire for several hours. The shop was totally destroyed and the owner suffered huge losses but no (C) [tears] were reported, said RS Nigwal, superintendent of police (fire). The fire tenders immediately rushed to the spot to (D) [flood] the flames. All the guests were (E) [picked] safely from the hotel. No injuries have been reported in the incident.

115

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?

  1. ((a))

    Billowing

  2. ((b))

    Swirling

  3. ((c))

    Undulating

  4. ((d))

    Churning

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Billowing

116

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?

  1. ((a))

    Bids

  2. ((b))

    Endeavours

  3. ((c))

    Ventures

  4. ((d))

    Tenders

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bids

117

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (C)?

  1. ((a))

    Punctures

  2. ((b))

    Injuries

  3. ((c))

    Slash

  4. ((d))

    Gouge

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punctures

118

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (D)?

  1. ((a))

    Drench

  2. ((b))

    Douse

  3. ((c))

    Saturate

  4. ((d))

    Souce

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Drench

119

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (E)?

  1. ((a))

    Rescued

  2. ((b))

    Salvaged

  3. ((c))

    Raised

  4. ((d))

    Hoisted

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rescued

120

In the given question, a sentence is given with a part of it missing and represented by a blank. Choose the phrase that can be placed in the given blank to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

The great hope among the politicians is that science __________ the “lives versus livelihoods” dilemma.

  1. ((a))

    will enlighten them

  2. ((b))

    will give information

  3. ((c))

    will rescue them from

  4. ((d))

    will advance them

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

will enlighten them

English Language (40 questions)

121

The Government of India has set a target of _________ of production of foodgrains for the 2023-24 crop year.

  1. ((a))

    165 million tonnes

  2. ((b))

    245 million tonnes

  3. ((c))

    332 million tonnes

  4. ((d))

    401 million tonnes

  5. ((e))

    97 million tonnes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

165 million tonnes

122

What is the full form of PACS?

  1. ((a))

    Primary Agricultural Co-operative Society

  2. ((b))

    Price Agriculture Commission Society

  3. ((c))

    Primary Agriculture Crop Scheme

  4. ((d))

    Primary Agricultural Commission Society

  5. ((e))

    Price Agriculture Co-operative Society

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Primary Agricultural Co-operative Society

123

The 'Kavach' system, used by the Indian Railways, is associated with which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Speed control of trains

  2. ((b))

    Anti-collision testing

  3. ((c))

    Communication between stations

  4. ((d))

    Track maintenance and repair

  5. ((e))

    Women Empowerment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed control of trains

124

NPCI-operated systems include which of the following:

  1. ((a))

    IMPS

  2. ((b))

    NACH

  3. ((c))

    AePS

  4. ((d))

    BBPS

  5. ((e))

    All of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IMPS

125

The Government of India allocated how much amount to the Eklavya Model Residential School in the Budget 2023-24?

  1. ((a))

    2000 crore

  2. ((b))

    3555 crore

  3. ((c))

    4231 crore

  4. ((d))

    5943 crore

  5. ((e))

    6643 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000 crore

126

Which of the following is the highest-valued currency in comparison to the Indian Rupee?

  1. ((a))

    British Pound

  2. ((b))

    Swiss Franc

  3. ((c))

    Euro

  4. ((d))

    United States Dollar

  5. ((e))

    Kuwaiti Dinar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

British Pound

127

Recently, the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) signed an MoU with _______ to guide the farmers on the scientific cultivation of different crops for optimum yield and income.

  1. ((a))

    BASF India Ltd.

  2. ((b))

    Farmart Agri Services

  3. ((c))

    DeHaat

  4. ((d))

    Amazon Kisan

  5. ((e))

    Syngenta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BASF India Ltd.

128

Which of these is NOT correct about PANCHAMRIT declaration of PM Modi at COP26?

  1. ((a))

    Reach 500 GW Non-fossil energy capacity by 2030

  2. ((b))

    50% of energy requirements from Renewable energy by 2030

  3. ((c))

    Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now to 2030

  4. ((d))

    Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 50 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reach 500 GW Non-fossil energy capacity by 2030

129

Who is the current ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    Hamid Ansari

  2. ((b))

    Venkaiah Naidu

  3. ((c))

    Jagdeep Dhankar

  4. ((d))

    Sumitra Mahajan

  5. ((e))

    Om BIrla

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hamid Ansari

130

Who has for the first time taken a board position on his flagship Indian firm, Vedanta Ltd. in March 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Srinivasan Venkatakrishnan

  2. ((b))

    Anil Agarwal

  3. ((c))

    Ajay Piramal

  4. ((d))

    Kushal Pal Singh

  5. ((e))

    Dilip Shanghvi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Srinivasan Venkatakrishnan

131

What is the name of the portal to track unclaimed deposits, unveiled by the RBI?

  1. ((a))

    UDGAM

  2. ((b))

    RUPIYA

  3. ((c))

    JANM

  4. ((d))

    UDAY

  5. ((e))

    ANTARDRISHTI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UDGAM

132

What does 'E' stand for in 'ESG'?

  1. ((a))

    Economical

  2. ((b))

    Environmental

  3. ((c))

    Energy

  4. ((d))

    Equity

  5. ((e))

    Endorsement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Economical

133

13.5 crore Indians pulled out of poverty in five years said NITI Aayog in its recent report. Which of the following statement is false with regard to the report?

  1. ((a))

    13.5 Crore people were pulled out of multi-dimensional poverty on the back of Five Years of improvement in parameters of Nutrition, Sanitation, years of schooling, and access to Cooking Fuel among others.

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan recorded the steepest decline in poverty.

  3. ((c))

    The title of the report is 'National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review 2023 '.

  4. ((d))

    The report noted that between 2015-16 and 2019-21, the MPI (Multidimensional Poverty Index) value has nearly halved from 0.117 to 0.066.

  5. ((e))

    None of them is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13.5 Crore people were pulled out of multi-dimensional poverty on the back of Five Years of improvement in parameters of Nutrition, Sanitation, years of schooling, and access to Cooking Fuel among others.

134

Which city has been named the most liveable city in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Singapore

  2. ((b))

    Vienna

  3. ((c))

    Tokyo

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai

  5. ((e))

    Pune

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Singapore

135

Which of the following personalities launched the Unified Registration Portal For GOBARdhan?

  1. ((a))

    Kiren Rijiju

  2. ((b))

    Narendra Modi

  3. ((c))

    Gajendra Singh Shekhawat

  4. ((d))

    Raj Kumar Singh

  5. ((e))

    Amit Shah

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kiren Rijiju

136

What is the full form of GPT in recently launched chatbot ChatGPT? 

  1. ((a))

    Generative Post-trained Transformer

  2. ((b))

    Generative Pre-trained Transponder

  3. ((c))

    Generative Pre-trained Transformer

  4. ((d))

    General Pre-trained Transformer

  5. ((e))

    General Pre-trained Transponder

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Generative Post-trained Transformer

137

According to the latest release by the RBI, the value of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI Index) for March 2022 stands at 56.5 vis-à-vis 53.9 in March 2021, with growth witnessed across all the sub-indices. According to RBI which of the following is the biggest threat to the Indian Economy?

  1. ((a))

    Increased NPA

  2. ((b))

    Declining Growth

  3. ((c))

    Credit growth

  4. ((d))

    Debt growth

  5. ((e))

    Declining GDP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased NPA

138

Which of the following is NOT a Supreme Court of India judge?

  1. ((a))

    Justice Sanjiv Khanna

  2. ((b))

    Justice Surya Kant

  3. ((c))

    Justice Hrishikesh Roy

  4. ((d))

    Justice Abhay.S. Oka

  5. ((e))

    Justice Prateek Jalan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Justice Sanjiv Khanna

139

Recently, In May 2023, The government announced that there will be no TDS tax on Mahila Samman Saving Certificate. What is the current rate of interest on this scheme? (As of May 2023)

  1. ((a))

    8.2%

  2. ((b))

    7.5%

  3. ((c))

    8.5%

  4. ((d))

    9.0%

  5. ((e))

    8.6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.2%

140

Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Index/ReportReleasing Authority
1. India Innovation IndexNITI Aayog
2. CPIOffice of Economic Adviser
3. WPINational Statistical Office
4. Economic SurveyChief Economic Adviser
  1. ((a))

    1, 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2, 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1, 4 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3 only

  5. ((e))

    All of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2 only

141

Which year has been announced as the International Year of Millets by the UNGA?

  1. ((a))

    2024

  2. ((b))

    2022

  3. ((c))

    2023

  4. ((d))

    2025

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2024

142

Which of the following Departments launched the Rural Postal Life Insurance (RPLI)?

  1. ((a))

    Department of Public Enterprises

  2. ((b))

    Department of Post

  3. ((c))

    Department of Telecommunications

  4. ((d))

    Department of Biotechnology

  5. ((e))

    Department of Rural Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Department of Public Enterprises

143

On May 9, 2023 The Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana and Atal Pension Yojana completed How many years ?

  1. ((a))

    11 Years

  2. ((b))

    8 Years

  3. ((c))

    10 Years

  4. ((d))

    5 Years

  5. ((e))

    12 Years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11 Years

144

As per the budget, What is the name of the fund that will be set up to encourage agri-startups in rural areas? 

  1. ((a))

    Agriculture Startup Fund

  2. ((b))

    Agriculture Development Fund

  3. ((c))

    Agriculture Growth Fund

  4. ((d))

    Agriculture Accelerator Fund

  5. ((e))

    Agriculture Enhancer Fund

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Agriculture Startup Fund

145

The Union Cabinet recently approved an initial outlay of Rs ____________crore for the National Green Hydrogen Mission.

  1. ((a))

    12,625

  2. ((b))

    16,250

  3. ((c))

    15,343

  4. ((d))

    20,523

  5. ((e))

    19,744

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12,625

146

Which of the following state of Australia has withdrawn as host of the 2026 Commonwealth?

  1. ((a))

    Queensland

  2. ((b))

    Victoria

  3. ((c))

    Western Australia

  4. ((d))

    Tasmania

  5. ((e))

    Canberra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Queensland

147

Which organizations have collaborated in May 2023 to launch the new RuPay credit card?

  1. ((a))

    Paytm, SBI Card, and NPCI

  2. ((b))

    Visa, SBI Card, and NPCI

  3. ((c))

    Paytm, HDFC Card, and NPCI

  4. ((d))

    Mastercard, ICICI Card, and NPCI

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Paytm, SBI Card, and NPCI

148

India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations?

  1. ((a))

    WTO

  2. ((b))

    G-20

  3. ((c))

    G-8

  4. ((d))

    BIMSTEC

  5. ((e))

    IMF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

WTO

149

NSDL Database Management Limited (NDML) and NSDL Payments Bank are two subsidiary companies of National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL). In which of the following states is the headquarters of NSDL Payments Bank situated?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Sikkim

  5. ((e))

    Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

150

Which of the following is/are correct?

I. Panchayati Raj Day is observed on 24th April.

II. National Mango Day is celebrated on 22nd July.

III. National Science Day is celebrated on 28th February.

IV. National Farmers Day is celebrated on 23rd December.

  1. ((a))

    I, II only

  2. ((b))

    II, III only

  3. ((c))

    III, IV only

  4. ((d))

    I, II, III only

  5. ((e))

    All of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II only

151

Where was the International Education Summit on academic excellence held in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    London

  2. ((b))

    Dubai

  3. ((c))

    New York

  4. ((d))

    Singapore

  5. ((e))

    Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

London

152

PM Modi announced Vishwakarma Yojana for _________

  1. ((a))

    Artisans

  2. ((b))

    Armed Forces

  3. ((c))

    Nurses

  4. ((d))

    Older Age Citizens

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Artisans

153

Recently which bank has launched UPI QR code interoperable with the Central Bank Digital Currency?

  1. ((a))

    HDFC Bank 

  2. ((b))

    YES Bank

  3. ((c))

    Indian Overseas Bank

  4. ((d))

    Kotak Mahindra Bank 

  5. ((e))

    Axis Bank 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HDFC Bank 

154

Which UN body has selected Kerala's Farmers Fresh Zone (FarmersFZ) for its accelerator programme?

  1. ((a))

    Food and Agriculture Organisation

  2. ((b))

    World Health Organisation

  3. ((c))

    United Nations Environment Programme

  4. ((d))

    United Nations Development Programme

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Food and Agriculture Organisation

155

Rasna founder and Chairman ______________, who had contributed immensely to the Indian industry and business, was awarded Padma Shri posthumously in 2023.

  1. ((a))

    Hakim Hafiz Abdul Majeed

  2. ((b))

    Dr. Batra

  3. ((c))

    Rakesh Jhunjhunwala 

  4. ((d))

    Areez Pirojshaw Khambatta

  5. ((e))

    Mulayam Singh Yadav

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hakim Hafiz Abdul Majeed

156

Which of the following risks to crops are covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?

  1. Planting and germination failure
  2. Risk of standing crop failure
  3. Risk of post-harvest losses
  4. Loss or damage to notified insured crops due to nuclear risks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. ((a))

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2, 3 and 4 only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2 and 3 only

157

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a new framework for the acceptance of green deposits by banks. From which date this framework came into effect?

  1. ((a))

    1 June 2023

  2. ((b))

    31 March 2024

  3. ((c))

    1 January 2024

  4. ((d))

    1 May 2023

  5. ((e))

    1 June 2024

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 June 2023

158

The Union Government has created a separate Ministry of Co-operation for realizing the vision of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

  2. ((b))

    Sahkar se Samriddhi

  3. ((c))

    Atmanirbhar Bharat

  4. ((d))

    Digital India

  5. ((e))

    USD 5 Trillian Economy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

159

Which of the following is the wrong match of CEO with Global Company?

  1. ((a))

    Raghu Raghuraman -VMware

  2. ((b))

    Shantanu Narayen- Adobe Inc.

  3. ((c))

    Jayshree Ullal -Arista Networks

  4. ((d))

    Satya Nadella - Microsoft

  5. ((e))

    Dinesh C Paliwal-Reckitt Benckiser

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Raghu Raghuraman -VMware

160

The Ministry of External Affairs recently celebrated Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Day under India's SCO chairmanship. SCO was formed in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1995

  2. ((b))

    1990

  3. ((c))

    2000

  4. ((d))

    2001

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1995

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

Directions: The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the number of students (Boys +  Girls) studying in five different schools such as A, B, C D and E and the table shows the percentage of number of boys students studying in the same schools.

 

Total number of students studying = (Boys students + Girls students) = 200

Total number of boys studying in all the school is 80

 

SchoolsPercentage distribution of number of boys
A15%
B35%
C10%
D25%
E15%
161

Find the difference between the average number of girls studying in all the schools and the average number of boys studying in all the schools.

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

162

If the number of boys in school F is 7 more than the number of boys in school B and the number of boys to girls in school F are in the ratio 5: 7. If x number of girls in the school F is absent on a particular day and (x - 4) boys from school F absent on the same day. Then the ratio boys to girls present in the class becomes 3: 4.Find the value of x.

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13

163

If the number of boys in school C is represented in a pie chart, then the degree value corresponding to that section of the pie chart is equal to x2, then the value of which of the following statements is equal to the value of 'x'?

I: The difference between the number of girls in schools A and B.

II: Difference between boys and girls in school E.

III: Average number of girls in schools B and D.

  1. ((a))

    II only

  2. ((b))

    I only

  3. ((c))

    III only 

  4. ((d))

    II and III only

  5. ((e))

    I and II only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

II only

164

Total number of students who cleared the NEET exam in school A are 30 and the number of girls who cleared the exam in school A is 20. 

Find which of the following statements are true?

i) Difference between the number of uncleared girls and boys in the NEET exam is 6

ii) Total number of uncleared girls is 8

iii) The ratio between uncleared boys to uncleared girls in NEET exam is 1: 4

  1. ((a))

    i and ii only

  2. ((b))

    i only

  3. ((c))

    ii and iii only

  4. ((d))

    iii only

  5. ((e))

    All i, ii and iii are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

i and ii only

165

If the ratio of boys in school E who likes music to those who don’t like music is m: n and ratio of boys in school D who likes music to those who don’t like music is 3: 1. If the total boys from school D and E who likes music are 21, then find the value of ‘mn’

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

166

In a series P, there are six consecutive even numbers, and the average of the smallest and largest number is 83. Another series, Q, contains five consecutive odd numbers. The smallest number in series Q is 40 less than half the sum of the second smallest and third smallest numbers from series P. Determine the value of (2T1 + 3T3 - T5), where Tn represents the nth term in series Q.

  1. ((a))

    188

  2. ((b))

    178

  3. ((c))

    158

  4. ((d))

    168

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

188

167

The ratio of the speed of boat A, boat B and stream is 15 : 14 : 10, If the difference between the speed of boat A and boat B is 2 kmph, then what is the difference between time taken by boat A to cover 150 km along the stream and the time taken by boat B to cover 120 km against stream?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    14

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

168

Sonia had some money. She distributed the money among her employees. 15 % of the total amount she gave to Shabnam and kept 10 % for future use. Out of the remaining amount, she gave to Ankur and Arjun in the ratio of 2 ∶ 3 respectively. If the Arjun got Rs. 9000 more than the Ankur. What was the total amount that Sonia had?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 70,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 65,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 45,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 60,000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 35,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 70,000

169

240 L of mixture A contains milk and water in the ratio of 8: 7. 30 L of mixture is taken out and replaced with same quantity of water and again 60 L of mixture is taken out and replaced with same quantity of water. 260 L of mixture B contains milk and water in the ratio of 8: 5. If all the quantity mixture A and B are mixed, then find the quantity of milk in the resultant mixture.

  1. ((a))

    300 litres

  2. ((b))

    265 litres

  3. ((c))

    258 litres

  4. ((d))

    244 litres

  5. ((e))

    234 litres

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300 litres

170

A invests Rs. ( 2x+2000) in a simple interest at the rate of 30% per annum for 2 years and after 2 years he received the interest from the scheme is ( x + 2100). If the amount of Rs x is invested in a compounded interest scheme at a 30 % per annum for 2 years, then find the compound interest after 2 years ?

  1. ((a))

     Rs 1985

  2. ((b))

     Rs 2100

  3. ((c))

     Rs 3105

  4. ((d))

     Rs 3300

  5. ((e))

     Rs 3885

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Rs 1985

Direction: Read the given data carefully and answer the following questions.

There are three shops A, B, and C who sold tables and chairs. Cost price of tables and chairs for each shop is different and every shop sold a different number of tables and chairs.

 

Note: 1 set of items means 1 table and 1 chair.

Shop A: Number of chairs sold by A is 25% more than the number of tables sold. Cost of 1 table is Rs.240 while the cost of 1 set of items is Rs.390.

Shop B: Ratio of tables sold by shop A to shop B is 4: 5 and the cost of 1 chair and 1 set of items is 200 and 500 respectively. Total number of chairs sold by A is 220.

Shop C: Total number of tables sold is 40 more than the total number of chairs sold, also ratio of total number of tables to chairs sold is 25: 24. Cost of one table is 25% less than the cost of table for shop B and one set of items costs 380. Ratio of number of tables sold by B to the number of chairs sold by B is 5: 6.

171

If the price of each chair sold by shop D is Rs. 5 more than the price of each chair sold at shop C and the price of each chair to the price of each table sold is in the ratio 4: 3. If the number of tables sold is x and the number of chairs sold is (x - 50). The total revenue generated by selling all the chairs and all the tables in Shop D is Rs. 34000. Find the value of x.

  1. ((a))

    160

  2. ((b))

    130

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    120

  5. ((e))

    140

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

160

172

The number  of chairs sold by the shop A, B and C at the cost price respectively is 5,  6 and 8 then the number of tables sold by the shop A, B and C at the cost price respectively is 4, 3 and 2. Find the total revenue generated to all the shops by selling given numbers at cost price.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5800

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5500

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6100

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4300

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 6300

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 5800

173

If shop B marked up all the tables 10% above the cost price and all the chairs at 20% above the cost price and sold all the items together. Find the total profit amount obtained by selling all the items in shop B.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 11890

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 13380

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 12150

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 17160

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 12460

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 11890

174

 Find the ratio of total cost of one table sold by all the three shops A, B, and C together to the total cost of one chair sold by all the three shops A, B, and C together.

  1. ((a))

    142: 155

  2. ((b))

    133: 123

  3. ((c))

    151: 102

  4. ((d))

    153: 101

  5. ((e))

    123: 154

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

142: 155

175

If shop A sold 10% of total chairs at 10% profit while remaining chairs at 90% loss, then find the total profit/loss  amount by shop A.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 21400

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 26400

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 23460

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 26500

  5. ((e))

    Rs.27800

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 21400

176

A boat covers an upstream distance 180 km and a downstream distance 150 km. Time taken by boat to travel upstream distance is 30 hours more than the time taken by it to travel downstream. Then, find the speed of the stream, if the speed of the boat in still water is 4 km/h.

  1. ((a))

    2 km/h

  2. ((b))

    3 km/h

  3. ((c))

    4 km/h

  4. ((d))

    1 km/h

  5. ((e))

    5 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 km/h

177

Ratio of ages of A and B 12 years before was 8: 9 while the ratio of ages of C and D after 8 years will be 25: 29. If B is 10 years younger that C and sum of ages of B and D is 82 years, then find the present age of D.

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    52

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

178

Cost price of five items K, L, M, N, and O is Rs.620 each. If items K, L, M, N, and O are sold at 'x', 'x + 25', 'x + 50', 'x + 75', and 'x + 100' respectively and after selling all the items 25% profit is earned. Find the profit percent earned after selling item O alone.

  1. ((a))

    57.86%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    33.06%

  4. ((d))

    30%

  5. ((e))

    45.58%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

57.86%

179

Two partner A and B enter into a partnership and invested (x + 1800) and (x - 1200) as their initial investment. If both invested their capital for the same period and share of A from the total profit is 8/11, then find the value of 'x'.

  1. ((a))

    5000

  2. ((b))

    3000

  3. ((c))

    4000

  4. ((d))

    2000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5000

180

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 + 12x – 160 = 0

II. y2 + 5y – 126 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

181

Direction: Given below are two equations named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two equations.

LCM and HCF of two number a, b is 88 and 1 respectively such that a < b.

I: x2 - ax - 128 = 0

II: y2 + (6 + b)y + 72 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x ≥ y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

182

Direction: Given below are two equations named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two equations.

I: x3 + x2 + 4x - 63 = x3 - 3x2

II: y3 + 4y2 - 77y = 0

  1. ((a))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

  2. ((b))

    x > y

  3. ((c))

    x < y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x ≥ y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

183

Find the relation between x and y. If m = 3n, √(m2 + n2) = 4√10

I: x2 - (m + n)x + 39 = 0

II: y2 - (m + 2n)y + 75 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x ≥ y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≤ y

  4. ((d))

    x > y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x ≥ y

The following missing table shows the number of items manufactured, Number of items sold and number of items unsold in four different companies A, B, C and D.

 

CompaniesTotal items manufacturedTotal items soldTotal items unsold
A1920Py
B1.65P(z - y)320
C810-210
D--240

 

Note: 

The average of all the items manufactured by company C and D together is 765 while total items sold by company A and D together is 1280.

184

If company C and D together manufactured 70 more items while the number of items sold by them remains the same, then the number of unsold items by both the companies together will be what percent of total number of items manufactured?

  1. ((a))

    38%

  2. ((b))

    36.5%

  3. ((c))

    42.5%

  4. ((d))

    32.5%

  5. ((e))

    27.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38%

185

If company  C sold 'P/10' items more than the previously sold, then find the average of the total number of items  remains unsold by all the four companies.

  1. ((a))

    460

  2. ((b))

    585.5

  3. ((c))

    452.5

  4. ((d))

    700

  5. ((e))

    555.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

460

186

Total number of items sold by company D is 'a'% of total number of items manufactured by that company, then find the value of 'a'.

Which of the following is true?

I: P/10

II: (y +80)/18

III: Same as the percent of items remains unsold by company D out of total manufactured items.

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    II only

  3. ((c))

    I and II only

  4. ((d))

    II and III only

  5. ((e))

    III only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

187

The average number of items sold by all the four companies together is:

A: Equal to the number of total items manufactured by company D.

B: Equal to the 400 less than the value of 'y'.

C: Greater than the number of items that remain unsold by company B, C, and D together.

  1. ((a))

    A only

  2. ((b))

    B only 

  3. ((c))

    A and B only

  4. ((d))

    B and C only

  5. ((e))

    A, B and C all are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A only

188

If total items manufactured by company E is half of the total items manufactured by company B and total items sold by company E is (y + z)/8, then find the total number of items that remains unsold by company E.

  1. ((a))

    225

  2. ((b))

    245

  3. ((c))

    255

  4. ((d))

    265

  5. ((e))

    215

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

225

189

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

5600, 700, 2800, 1400, 1400, (?)

  1. ((a))

    2800

  2. ((b))

    750

  3. ((c))

    700

  4. ((d))

    1410

  5. ((e))

    1450

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2800

190

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

510, 254, ?, 62, 30, 14, 6

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    126

  3. ((c))

    124

  4. ((d))

    120

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

125

191

What should come in the place of question mark '?' in the following number series ?

23, 27, 32, 39, 49, ?

  1. ((a))

    63

  2. ((b))

    61

  3. ((c))

    59

  4. ((d))

    55

  5. ((e))

    71

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

63

192

What should come in the place of question mark '?' in the following number series ?

5, 9, 18, 43, 92, 213, ?

  1. ((a))

    341

  2. ((b))

    382

  3. ((c))

    381

  4. ((d))

    482

  5. ((e))

    462

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

341

193

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

128, 64, 32, ?, 8, 4

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

194

The question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question.

A certain liter mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 7 : 5 respectively. The milkman sold 36 liters of the mixture. Find the quantity of milk in the initial mixture.

Statement I: If sham adds 15 liters of pure milk and 5 liters of water to the remaining mixture, ratio of milk and water in the final mixture becomes 5 : 3 respectively.

Statement II: If sham sold 24 liters of the remaining mixture and adds 3 liters of water to the remaining mixture, ratio of milk and water in the final mixture becomes 7 : 6 respectively.

  1. ((a))

    if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement II alone is not sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    if either the statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    if you cannot get the answer from the statement I and II together, but need even more data.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement II alone is not sufficient.

195

The following question is accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

In a company there are total 360 employees in the office. Number of employees who plays cricket is 288. Find the number of employees who doesn’t play any game. (Assume cricket and pool are the only two games they play)

I. 216 employees play only cricket but not pool.

II. The total numbers of employees who play either cricket or pool or both is 216 more than the number of employees who does not play any game.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Both statement together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

  4. ((d))

    Either statement alone is sufficient.

  5. ((e))

    Statement I and II together are not sufficient.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.

196

Ritesh lends certain amount of money to Suman on compound interest for 2 years at the rate of 20% per annum. Find the amount of interest earned by him.

Statement I: Rs. 8000 will be earned if the same sum is invested on simple interest at the rate of 8% per annum in 4 years.

Statement II: The sum becomes 3.5 times if invested on simple interest at the rate of 25% per annum after 10 years.

  1. ((a))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Statements I and II together are required to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

197

Directions: The following questions are accompanied by three statements (I), (II) and (III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the following question.

What is the Cost Price of the book?

I. After allowing a discount of 20% on printed price shopkeeper charges Rs. 960 for it.

II. If he had not allowed any discount, he would have a profit of 50%.

III. If he allows 10% discount on printed price.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and III are sufficient to answer

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III are sufficient to answer

  3. ((c))

    Only I and II are sufficient to answer

  4. ((d))

    Any two of three are sufficient to answer

  5. ((e))

    None is sufficient to answer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and III are sufficient to answer

198

The base and height of a triangle are 40 cm and 20 cm, respectively. The area of the square is equal to the area of the triangle. If a circle of radius 10 cm is cut out from that square. Then, find the area left in the square is what percentage of the area of the circle? (Rounded off to the nearest hundred)

  1. ((a))

    32.25%

  2. ((b))

    20.25%

  3. ((c))

    22.25%

  4. ((d))

    27.27%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32.25%

199

A simple interest when a sum of money is invested for 5 years at 15% per annum is Rs. 3600 more than the simple interest received if the same sum of money is deposited in a fixed deposit scheme for 3 years at 19% per annum. Find the amount, if the same sum of money is invested for 3 years at 10% per annum.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 15,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 26,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 13,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 20,000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 6,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 15,000

200

A and B can do a work in 60 days and 75 days respectively. Both A and B work together for 10 days. After that B leaves the work but A continues. then after 6 days, C also joins. Then after 24 days, work is completed. How much time it will take C alone to the complete their work?

  1. ((a))

    130 days

  2. ((b))

    120 days

  3. ((c))

    122 days

  4. ((d))

    125 days

  5. ((e))

    121 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

130 days

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