Official Paper

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on:20 October 2019) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Nine members in a family - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, X attended a party. B is the son of A and father of C. C is married to H. D and E are parents of H. C has two children of opposite gender. X is the son-in-law of H. F is the grand son of D who is the father-in-law of C.

1

If J is the brother of X, then how is J related to the daughter of C?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Husband

  4. ((d))

    Brother-in-law

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Brother-in-law

Using the below symbols, we get the following family tree:

If J is the brother of X, we get the following family tree:

From the family tree, G is the daughter of C and J is the brother-in-law of the daughter of C, who is G.

Hence, J is the brother-in-law of G.

2

Who is the mother-in-law of C?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

E

Using the below symbols, we get the following family tree:

Hence, E is the mother-in-law of C.

3

How many females attended the party if C is a female?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

Using the below symbols, we get the following family tree:

As the gender of A is not known, we cannot find the no. of females in the family.

Hence, the correct answer is 'cannot be determined'.

4

How many pairs of digits in the number 839456 have as many numbers between them as in the series of natural numbers both in backward and forward directions?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    More than three

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

More than three

Given number: 839456

Thus, we get 4 pairs:

Forward: (4, 5), (5, 6), (4, 6)

Backward: (9, 6)

Hence, the correct answer is 'more than three'.

Direction: Nine boxes having a unique fruit or vegetable (apple, pear, orange, carrot, onion, ginger, lemon, garlic, and potato) are placed vertically one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.

Gingers are kept on top and the onions are kept 1 place above the bottom box. Oranges are in the box that is kept at the 4thposition from the top. There are only 4 boxes between apple box and potato box. Lemons and pear are not kept at the bottom. Garlic box is kept 2nd above the pear box.

5

If potato box is not kept immediately below the ginger box then how many boxes are there between apple and carrot box?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6

  1. Gingers are kept on top and the onions are kept 1 place above the bottom box.
Ginger
Onion

 

  1. Oranges are in the box that is kept at the 4thposition from the top.
Ginger
Orange
Onion

 

  1. There are only 4 boxes between apple box and potato box.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

  1. Lemons and pear are not kept at the bottom.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion
Lemons/ Pear

 

  1. Garlic box is kept 2 boxes above the pear box. (this means that Garlic box is kept at 2nd position from pear box).

Therefore, lemon box will be kept immediately below pear box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

Now, only 1 place is left for the only left box i.e. carrot box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion
Carrot

 

Hence, If potato box is not kept immediately below the ginger box then 6 boxes are kept between apple and carrot box.

6

What is the position of lemon box?

  1. ((a))

    Immediately below orange box

  2. ((b))

    6th from bottom

  3. ((c))

    immediately above Potato box

  4. ((d))

    6th from top.

  5. ((e))

    immediately above Ginger box

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6th from top.

  1. Gingers are kept on top and the onions are kept 1 place above the bottom box.
Ginger
Onion

 

  1. Oranges are in the box that is kept at the 4thposition from the top.
Ginger
Orange
Onion

 

  1. There are only 4 boxes between apple box and potato box.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

  1. Lemons and pear are not kept at the bottom.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion
Lemons/ Pear

 

  1. Garlic box is kept 2 boxes above the pear box.(this means that Garlic box is kept at 2nd position from pear box).

Therefore, lemon box will be kept immediately below pear box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

Now, only 1 place is left for the only left box i.e. carrot box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion
Carrot

 

Hence, Lemon box is kept at 6th position from top.

7

Which box is kept between garlic and pear box?

  1. ((a))

    Ginger

  2. ((b))

    Lemon

  3. ((c))

    Orange

  4. ((d))

    Carrot 

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Orange

  1. Gingers are kept on top and the onions are kept 1 place above the bottom box.
Ginger
Onion

 

  1. Oranges are in the box that is kept at the 4thposition from the top.
Ginger
Orange
Onion

 

  1. There are only 4 boxes between apple box and potato box.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

  1. Lemons and Pear are not kept at the bottom.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion
Lemons/ Pear

 

  1. Garlic box is kept 2 boxes above the pear box.

Therefore, lemon box will be kept immediately below pear box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

Now, only 1 place is left for the only left box i.e. carrot box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion
Carrot

 

Hence, Orange is the correct answer.

8

What is the position of Orange box?

  1. ((a))

    Immediately above Apple.

  2. ((b))

    6th from bottom

  3. ((c))

    Immediately below Pear.

  4. ((d))

    5th from Top.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6th from bottom

  1. Gingers are kept on top and the onions are kept 1 place above the bottom box.
Ginger
Onion

 

  1. Oranges are in the box that is kept at the 4thposition from the top.
Ginger
Orange
Onion

 

  1. There are only 4 boxes between apple box and potato box.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

  1. Lemons and Pear are not kept at the bottom.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion
Lemons/ Pear

 

  1. Garlic box is kept 2 boxes above the pear box.

Therefore, lemon box will be kept immediately below pear box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

Now, only 1 place is left for the only left box i.e. carrot box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion
Carrot

 

Hence, 6th from the bottom is the correct answer.

9

How many boxes are there between box of Pear and box of Carrot?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3

  1. Gingers are kept on top and the onions are kept 1 place above the bottom box.
Ginger
Onion

 

  1. Oranges are in the box that is kept at the 4thposition from the top.
Ginger
Orange
Onion

 

  1. There are only 4 boxes between apple box and potato box.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

  1. Lemons and Pear are not kept at the bottom.
Ginger
Apple/Potato
Orange
Potato/Apple
Onion
Lemons/ Pear

 

  1. Garlic box is kept 2 boxes above the pear box.

Therefore, lemon box will be kept immediately below pear box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion

 

Now, only 1 place is left for the only left box i.e. carrot box

Ginger
Apple/Potato
Garlic
Orange
Pear
Lemon
Potato/Apple
Onion
Carrot

 

Hence, "3" is the correct answer.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow:

A person starts walking from Point A and travels 75 km east to reach point B and then takes a left turn and reaches point C after walking 15 km. From there He takes a left turn and walks 55 km and reach point D then again takes a left turn and walk 15 km to reach point H. Then he moves in the same direction in which he was facing and further walks 40 km to reach point E. He then turns in west direction and walks 40 km to reach point F and at last, he takes a right turn and walks 40 km to reach point G. K is 40 km south of A.

10

What is the total distance between point G and point B?

  1. ((a))

    85 km

  2. ((b))

    65 km

  3. ((c))

    70 km

  4. ((d))

    45 km

  5. ((e))

    95 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

95 km

Total distance between G and B = Distance between G and A + Distance between A and B = 20 + 75 = 95

Total distance between G and B = 95 km

Hence, “95 km” is the correct answer.

11

Four of the five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one which is different from the others.

  1. ((a))

    HK

  2. ((b))

    CH

  3. ((c))

    HF

  4. ((d))

    EB

  5. ((e))

    DA

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

EB

The first place in each group is in North East of the second place except EB.

EB – Place E is in South West of place B.

Hence, “EB” is the correct answer.

12

At what distance and in which direction is D with respect to E?

  1. ((a))

    45 km, North

  2. ((b))

    35 km, North

  3. ((c))

    15 km, North

  4. ((d))

    55 km, North

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

55 km, North

Total distance between D and E = Distance between D and H + Distance between H and E

Total distance between D and E = 15 km + 40 km + 55 km

Total distance between D and E = 55 km

Also, D is at the North of E.

Hence, “55 km, North” is the correct answer.

13

In which direction is K with respect to B?

  1. ((a))

    South

  2. ((b))

    North West

  3. ((c))

    South West

  4. ((d))

    North East

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

South West

In the above diagram, we can clearly see that K is in south west direction of B.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

M4, L6, U4 is written as “tell your name”

E8, K8, R2 is written as “marks are obtained”

U4, E8, V4 is written as “give your number”

H4, E8, S10 is written as “she secured highest”.

14

“Tell your number” is coded as ____

  1. ((a))

    L6, V4, E10

  2. ((b))

    U4, E8, L6

  3. ((c))

    E8, V4, L4

  4. ((d))

    V4, E10, L6

  5. ((e))

    None of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

U4, E8, L6

Letter: Every second letter from the right end of the word is written first.

Number: Total number of consonants of every word is multiplied by 2.

Example:- “Name”

Second letter from right is M.

Total consonants in the word name is 2. Multiply total consonants by 2, so 2×2 = 4

So, code for NAME is M4.  

 

 

 

Hence, the code for “tell your number is written as U4, E8, L6.

15

What is the code for “highest marks secured”?

  1. ((a))

    E8, K6, S12

  2. ((b))

    K8, E6, S10

  3. ((c))

    E8, K8, S10

  4. ((d))

    S8, K6, E8

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

E8, K8, S10

Letter: Every second letter from the right end of the word is written first.

Number: Total number of consonants of every word is multiplied by 2.

Example:- “Name”

Second letter from right is M.

Total consonants in the word name is 2. Multiply total consonants by 2, so 2×2 = 4

So, code for NAME is M4.  

 

 

 

Hence, the code for “highest marks secured” is E8, K8, S10.

16

Decode the sentence “All are intelligent”.

  1. ((a))

    L2, R4, N12

  2. ((b))

    R4, L6, N10

  3. ((c))

    N8, L6, R8

  4. ((d))

    N14, R2, L4

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

N14, R2, L4

Letter: Every second letter from the right end of the word is written first.

Number: Total number of consonants of every word is multiplied by 2.

Example:- “Name”

Second letter from right is M.

Total consonants in the word name is 2. Multiply total consonants by 2, so 2×2 = 4

So, code for NAME is M4.  

 

 

 

Hence, the code for “All are intelligent” is N14, R2, L4.

17

“M4, N4, E8” is written as ____

  1. ((a))

    Name or Place

  2. ((b))

    Number and Place

  3. ((c))

    Name and Number

  4. ((d))

    Place and Name

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Name and Number

Letter: Every second letter from the right end of the word is written first.

Number: Total number of consonants of every word is multiplied by 2.

Example:- “Name”

Second letter from right is M.

Total consonants in the word name is 2. Multiply total consonants by 2, so 2×2 = 4

So, code for NAME is M4.  

 

 

 

Hence, “M4, N4, E8 is written as “Name and Number”.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

Fourteen people are sitting in two parallel rows containing seven people each. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in row – 1 facing north direction while A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in row – 2 facing south direction but not necessarily in the same order. Each person sitting in row -1 faces another person sitting in a row – 2.

T is sitting third to the right of Q. P is facing the person who is a neighbour of F and B. U who is facing A is sitting at one of the extreme ends. G, who is sitting third to the right of B is a neighbour of A. The number of persons sitting between S and R is the same as the number of persons sitting between P and V. E is facing V. R who is not facing C is sitting 2nd from the right end.

18

Who is facing S?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

Row 1 - P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V (Facing North)

Row 2 - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G (Facing South)

  1. U who is facing A is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

  1. G, who is sitting third to the right of B is a neighbour of A.

(Using statement 2, case 1 will be eliminated.)

  1. P is facing the person who is a neighbour of F and B.

  2. R who is not facing C is sitting 2nd from the right end.

Combining these two statements. We get,

  1. T is sitting third to the right of Q.

  2. E is facing V.

Using statement 4, we get,

The final arrangement is:

Hence, the correct answer is F.

19

What is the position of D with respect to G?

  1. ((a))

    4th to the right

  2. ((b))

    4th to the left

  3. ((c))

    3rd to the left

  4. ((d))

    3rd to the right

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4th to the left

Row 1 - P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V (Facing North)

Row 2 - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G (Facing South)

  1. U who is facing A is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

  1. G, who is sitting third to the right of B is a neighbour of A.

(Using statement 2, case 1 will be eliminated.)

  1. P is facing the person who is a neighbour of F and B.

  2. R who is not facing C is sitting 2nd from the right end.

Combining these two statements. We get,

  1. T is sitting third to the right of Q.

  2. E is facing V.

Using statement 4, we get,

The final arrangement is:

Hence, D is sitting 4th to the left of G.

20

If all the people in row 1 sit in alphabetical order starting from left end then how many people sit at their original place?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    None

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    More than three

  5. ((e))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Three

Row 1 - P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V (Facing North)

Row 2 - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G (Facing South)

  1. U who is facing A is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

  1. G, who is sitting third to the right of B is a neighbour of A.

(Using statement 2, case 1 will be eliminated.)

  1. P is facing the person who is a neighbour of F and B.

  2. R who is not facing C is sitting 2nd from the right end.

Combining these two statements. We get,

  1. T is sitting third to the right of Q.

  2. E is facing V.

Using statement 4, we get,

The final arrangement is:

The arrangement would be PQRSTUV. Thus Q, T and V retain their original position.

Hence, 'three' is the correct answer.

21

Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    GQ

  2. ((b))

    BT

  3. ((c))

    CP

  4. ((d))

    RE

  5. ((e))

    EV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

RE

Row 1 - P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V (Facing North)

Row 2 - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G (Facing South)

  1. U who is facing A is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

  1. G, who is sitting third to the right of B is a neighbour of A.

(Using statement 2, case 1 will be eliminated.)

  1. P is facing the person who is a neighbour of F and B.

  2. R who is not facing C is sitting 2nd from the right end.

Combining these two statements. We get,

  1. T is sitting third to the right of Q.

  2. E is facing V.

Using statement 4, we get,

The final arrangement is:

Except for option 4, the first person is facing the second person.

Hence, the correct answer is RE.

22

Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    F is facing S

  2. ((b))

    C is sitting 2nd to the right of D

  3. ((c))

    S and T are neighbours of P.

  4. ((d))

    P is sitting left of V.

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All are correct

Row 1 - P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V (Facing North)

Row 2 - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G (Facing South)

  1. U who is facing A is sitting at one of the extreme ends.

  1. G, who is sitting third to the right of B is a neighbour of A.

(Using statement 2, case 1 will be eliminated.)

  1. P is facing the person who is a neighbour of F and B.

  2. R who is not facing C is sitting 2nd from the right end.

Combining these two statements. We get,

  1. T is sitting third to the right of Q.

  2. E is facing V.

Using statement 4, we get,

The final arrangement is:

Hence, All the statements are correct.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are having different heights.

A is taller than B and C. E is taller than F and A but shorter than D. There are only two persons who are shorter than F. 2nd tallest person has a height of 170cm. B is not the shortest person.

23

Who is the 2nd tallest person?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

E

  1. A is taller than B and C. → A > B, A > C

  2. E is taller than F and A but shorter than D. → E > F, E > A, E < D

  3. There are only two persons who are shorter than F.

 __ > __ > __ > F > __ > __

  1. 2nd tallest person has a height of 170cm.

__ > __(170cm) > __ > F > __ > __

  1. B is not the shortest person.

After combining above statements, we get,

D > E(170cm) > A > F > B > C

Hence, the 2nd tallest person is E.

24

What is the possible height of D?

  1. ((a))

    155 cm

  2. ((b))

    165 cm

  3. ((c))

    145 cm

  4. ((d))

    175 cm

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

175 cm

  1. A is taller than B and C. → A > B, A > C

  2. E is taller than F and A but shorter than D. → E > F, E > A, E < D

  3. There are only two persons who are shorter than F.

 __ > __ > __ > F > __ > __

  1. 2nd tallest person has a height of 170cm.

__ > __(170cm) > __ > F > __ > __

  1. B is not the shortest person.

After combining the above statements, we get,

D > E(170cm) > A > F > B > C

D is the tallest among them. The 2nd tallest person has a height of 170cm then the possible height of D will be greater than 170cm. Only one option is there which is greater than 170cm.

Hence, the correct answer is 175cm.

25

How many persons are there taller than A?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    More than three

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

  1. A is taller than B and C. → A > B, A > C

  2. E is taller than F and A but shorter than D. → E > F, E > A, E < D

  3. There are only two persons who are shorter than F.

 __ > __ > __ > F > __ > __

  1. 2nd tallest person has a height of 170cm.

__ > __(170cm) > __ > F > __ > __

  1. B is not the shortest person.

After combining above statements, we get,

D > E(170cm) > A > F > B > C

Hence, two persons are taller than A.

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given Questions:

Eight persons are sitting in a round table viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W. All are facing inside the table. They all have different ages viz. 8, 10, 15, 11, 12, 13, 23 and 25 but not necessarily in the same order.

T is sitting 2nd to the left of P whose age is an odd number. Q is sitting beside the one whose age is not a prime number. There are two persons between R and Q. The person whose age is multiple of 5 is sitting opposite to each other. V’s age is cubic number and sits immediate left of Q. S is not the immediate neighbour of T and Q. R is to the immediate left of T. The sum of ages of W and T is 23. V sits 3rd to the right of T whose age is a prime number. W’s age is the second youngest among all. U’s age is the square number and sits beside the person whose age is a prime number. The sum of the age of R and V is 19. The age of S is 12. The person whose age 10 years is not a neighbor of T. The age of Q is less than the age of P.

26

Who is sitting opposite to P?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

S

  1. T is sitting 2nd to the left of P  whose age is an odd number.

 V sits 3rd to the right of T whose age is a prime number.

  1. V’s age is cubic number and sits beside Q

There are two persons between R and Q

3) W’s age is the second youngest among all. Hence, W’s age is 10.

The sum of the ages of W and T is 23. Hence, W is 23 So, 23-10 = 13

T’s age is 13.

R is to the immediate left of T.

Hence Case I eliminated

4) The sum of ages of R and V is 19.

Therefore the age of V is 8 and the age of R is 11.

The age of S is 12

S is not the immediate neighbour of T and Q

5) The person whose age 10 years is not a neighbour of T.

W’s age is 10. Therefore W is not a neighbour of T.

6) U’s age is the square number and sits beside the person whose age is a prime number.

The person whose age is multiple of 5 is sitting opposite to each other.

  1. The age of Q is less than the age of P.

Hence, S is sitting opposite to the P.

27

What is the age of T?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    13

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13

  1. T is sitting 2nd to the left of P  whose age is an odd number.

 V sits 3rd to the right of T whose age is a prime number.

  1. V’s age is cubic number and sits beside Q

There are two persons between R and Q

3) W’s age is the second youngest among all. Hence, W’s age is 10.

The sum of the ages of W and T is 23. Hence, W is 23 So, 23-10 = 13

T’s age is 13.

R is to the immediate left of T.

Hence Case I eliminated

4) The sum of ages of R and V is 19.

Therefore the age of V is 8 and the age of R is 11.

The age of S is 12

S is not the immediate neighbour of T and Q

5) The person whose age 10 years is not a neighbour of T.

W’s age is 10. Therefore W is not a neighbour of T.

6) U’s age is the square number and sits beside the person whose age is a prime number.

The person whose age is multiple of 5 is sitting opposite to each other.

  1. The age of Q is less than the age of P.

Hence, the age of T is 13 years.

28

What is the position of Q with respect to U?

  1. ((a))

    2nd to the right

  2. ((b))

    4th to the right

  3. ((c))

    3rd to the right

  4. ((d))

    Immediate to the right

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3rd to the right

  1. T is sitting 2nd to the left of P  whose age is an odd number.

 V sits 3rd to the right of T whose age is a prime number.

  1. V’s age is cubic number and sits beside Q

There are two persons between R and Q

3) W’s age is the second youngest among all. Hence, W’s age is 10.

The sum of the ages of W and T is 23. Hence, W is 23 So, 23-10 = 13

T’s age is 13.

R is to the immediate left of T.

Hence Case I eliminated

4) The sum of ages of R and V is 19.

Therefore the age of V is 8 and the age of R is 11.

The age of S is 12

S is not the immediate neighbour of T and Q

5) The person whose age 10 years is not a neighbour of T.

W’s age is 10. Therefore W is not a neighbour of T.

6) U’s age is the square number and sits beside the person whose age is a prime number.

The person whose age is multiple of 5 is sitting opposite to each other.

  1. The age of Q is less than the age of P.

Hence, Q is sitting 3rd to the right of U.

29

 What is the sum of ages of P and R?

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    34

  5. ((e))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

34

  1. T is sitting 2nd to the left of P  whose age is an odd number.

 V sits 3rd to the right of T whose age is a prime number.

  1. V’s age is cubic number and sits beside Q

There are two persons between R and Q

3) W’s age is the second youngest among all. Hence, W’s age is 10.

The sum of the ages of W and T is 23. Hence, W is 23 So, 23-10 = 13

T’s age is 13.

R is to the immediate left of T.

Hence Case I eliminated

4) The sum of ages of R and V is 19.

Therefore the age of V is 8 and the age of R is 11.

The age of S is 12

S is not the immediate neighbour of T and Q

5) The person whose age 10 years is not a neighbour of T.

W’s age is 10. Therefore W is not a neighbour of T.

6) U’s age is the square number and sits beside the person whose age is a prime number.

The person whose age is multiple of 5 is sitting opposite to each other.

  1. The age of Q is less than the age of P.

Hence, the sum of the ages of P and R is 34 years.

30

How many persons have age less than the age of S?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    More than three

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

  1. T is sitting 2nd to the left of P  whose age is an odd number.

 V sits 3rd to the right of T whose age is a prime number.

  1. V’s age is cubic number and sits beside Q

There are two persons between R and Q

3) W’s age is the second youngest among all. Hence, W’s age is 10.

The sum of the ages of W and T is 23. Hence, W is 23 So, 23-10 = 13

T’s age is 13.

R is to the immediate left of T.

Hence Case I eliminated

4) The sum of ages of R and V is 19.

Therefore the age of V is 8 and the age of R is 11.

The age of S is 12

S is not the immediate neighbour of T and Q

5) The person whose age 10 years is not a neighbour of T.

W’s age is 10. Therefore W is not a neighbour of T.

6) U’s age is the square number and sits beside the person whose age is a prime number.

The person whose age is multiple of 5 is sitting opposite to each other.

  1. The age of Q is less than the age of P.

Hence, the correct answer is three.

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions below.

Ten people Amar, Sushila, Pavan, Vinit, Vinay, Priyana, Bindu, Avni, Jaya, Leela are staying in a ten-storeyed building, lowermost floor is numbered 1 and topmost floor is numbered 10. Only one person lives on each floor but not necessarily in the same order.

Pavan stays on an even-numbered floor but below the Amar’s floor. Only three floors are there between Vinit and Pavan. Priyanka stays immediately below Leela’s floor but is not staying on the lowermost floor. Sushila lives on an odd-numbered floor but not on 1 or 7. Jaya stays on one of the floors below Amar but immediately above Sushila. Bindu stays on floor number 5 and three floors above Avni. Number of floors between Vinit and Amar is one less than that of number of floors between Pavan and Jaya.

31

Who is staying between Amar and Priyanka?

  1. ((a))

    Vinit

  2. ((b))

    Avni

  3. ((c))

    Leela

  4. ((d))

    Bindu

  5. ((e))

    Sushila

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Leela

  1. Bindu stays on floor 5 and three floors above the Avni.
Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Sushila lives on an odd numbered floor but not on 1 or 7.

Case 1:

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

Case 2:

Floor no.Person
10
9Sushila
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1

 

  1. Jaya stays on one of the floors below Amar but immediately above Sushila.

In case 2, Jaya stays on the top floor, but she stays belowAmar so that case is eliminated.

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Pavan stays on an even numbered floor but below the Amar’s floor.

So Pavan cannot stay on top floor.

  1. Only three floors are there between Vinit and Pavan.

Therefore, Pavan stays on 6th floor.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Number of floors between Vinit and Amar is one less than the number of floors between Pavan and Jaya.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Priyanka stays immediately below Leela’s floor but is not staying on lowermost floor.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

The only person left is Vinay and the only floor left is 1.     

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1Vinay

 

Hence, the correct answer is Leela.

32

On which of the following floor does Jaya live?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

  1. Bindu stays on floor 5 and three floors above the Avni.
Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Sushila lives on an odd numbered floor but not on 1 or 7.

Case 1:

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>

Case 2:

Floor no.Person
10
9Sushila
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Jaya stays on one of the floors below Amar but immediately above Sushila.

In case 2, Jaya stays on the top floor, but she stays belowAmar so that case is eliminated.

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Pavan stays on an even numbered floor but below the Amar’s floor.

So Pavan cannot stay on top floor.

  1. Only three floors are there between Vinit and Pavan.

Therefore, Pavan stays on 6th floor.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Number of floors between Vinit and Amar is one less than the number of floors between Pavan and Jaya.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Priyanka stays immediately below Leela’s floor but is not staying on lowermost floor.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>

The only person left is Vinay and the only floor left is 1.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1Vinay
<br>

Hence, Jaya stays on 4th floor.

33

How many floors are there between Pavan and Bindu?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

  1. Bindu stays on floor 5 and three floors above the Avni.
Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Sushila lives on an odd numbered floor but not on 1 or 7.

Case 1:

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>

Case 2:

Floor no.Person
10
9Sushila
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Jaya stays on one of the floors below Amar but immediately above Sushila.

In case 2, Jaya stays on the top floor, but she stays below Amar so that case is eliminated.

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Pavan stays on an even numbered floor but below the Amar’s floor.

So Pavan cannot stay on top floor.

  1. Only three floors are there between Vinit and Pavan.

Therefore, Pavan stays on 6th floor.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Number of floors between Vinit and Amar is one less than the number of floors between Pavan and Jaya.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Priyanka stays immediately below Leela’s floor but is not staying on lowermost floor.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1
<br>

The only person left is Vinay and the only floor left is 1.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1Vinay
<br>

Bindu stays immediate below Pavan.

Hence, the correct answer is none.

34

Who among the following is staying immediate above Amar?

  1. ((a))

    Jaya

  2. ((b))

    Vinit

  3. ((c))

    Leela

  4. ((d))

    Vinay

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vinit

  1. Bindu stays on floor 5 and three floors above the Avni.
Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Sushila lives on an odd numbered floor but not on 1 or 7.

Case 1:

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

Case 2:

Floor no.Person
10
9Sushila
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1

 

  1. Jaya stays on one of the floors below Amar but immediately above Sushila.

In case 2, Jaya stays on the top floor, but she stays belowAmar so that case is eliminated.

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Pavan stays on an even numbered floor but below the Amar’s floor.

So Pavan cannot stay on top floor.

  1. Only three floors are there between Vinit and Pavan.

Therefore, Pavan stays on 6th floor.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Number of floors between Vinit and Amar is one less than the number of floors between Pavan and Jaya.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Priyanka stays immediately below Leela’s floor but is not staying on lowermost floor.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

The only person left is Vinay and the only floor left is 1.     

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1Vinay

 

Hence, Vinit stays immediately above Amar.

35

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

  1. ((a))

    Avni lives on second floor.

  2. ((b))

    Jaya lives immediately above Sushila.

  3. ((c))

    Only three floors are there between Leela and Jaya.

  4. ((d))

    Vinay lives on an odd numbered floor.

  5. ((e))

    All of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above.

  1. Bindu stays on floor 5 and three floors above the Avni.
Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1
<br>
  1. Sushila lives on an odd numbered floor but not on 1 or 7.

Case 1:

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

Case 2:

Floor no.Person
10
9Sushila
8
7
6
5Bindu
4
3
2Avni
1

 

  1. Jaya stays on one of the floors below Amar but immediately above Sushila.

In case 2, Jaya stays on the top floor, but she stays belowAmar so that case is eliminated.

Floor no.Person
10
9
8
7
6
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Pavan stays on an even numbered floor but below the Amar’s floor.

So Pavan cannot stay on top floor.

  1. Only three floors are there between Vinit and Pavan.

Therefore, Pavan stays on 6th floor.

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Number of floors between Vinit and Amar is one less than the number of floors between Pavan and Jaya.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8
7
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

  1. Priyanka stays immediately below Leela’s floor but is not staying on lowermost floor.
Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1

 

The only person left is Vinay and the only floor left is 1.     

Floor no.Person
10Vinit
9Amar
8Leela
7Priyanka
6Pavan
5Bindu
4Jaya
3Sushila
2Avni
1Vinay

 

Hence, all the statements are true.

Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are six persons in a society namely A, B, C, D, E and F traveling to different cities viz. Nashik, Udaipur, Delhi, Raipur, Chennai, and Chandigarh on two different dates i.e. 7 and 20 of the months January, April, and October but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons go on the same date of the month.

E goes to Nashik but not in January. Two persons who travel to Raipur and Chennai travel in the same month. E travels in a month which has 30 days but not on the 20th. D goes to Delhi on January 20. The number of persons who travel before those who travel to Chandigarh is equal to the number of persons who travel after those who travel to Nashik. F travels in October. There are four persons between B and C traveling to different cities. C does not travel to Udaipur. Neither A nor C travel to Raipur.

36

Who among the following goes to Raipur?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

F

Six persons: A, B, C, D, E and F

Cities: Nashik, Udaipur, Delhi, Raipur, Chennai, and Chandigarh

Months: January, April, October.

Dates: 7th and 20th

  1. D goes to Delhi on January 20. 

  2. E travels in a month which has 30 days but not on the 20th.

  3. E goes to Nashik but not in January.

DatesPersonsCities
7 Jan
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 April
7 October
20 October

 

4) The number of persons who travel before those who travel to Chandigarh is equal to the number of persons who travel after those who travel to Nashik.

5) Two persons who travel to Raipur and Chennai travel in the same month.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberRaipur/Chennai

 

5) There are four persons between B and C traveling to different cities. 6) C does not travel to Udaipur.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberCRaipur/Chennai

 

7) Neither A nor C travel to Raipur.

8) F travels in October.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows:

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilAChandigarh
7 OctoberFRaipur
20 OctoberCChennai

Hence, F goes to Raipur.

37

On which date does A travel?

  1. ((a))

    7th October

  2. ((b))

    20th April

  3. ((c))

    7th January

  4. ((d))

    20th October

  5. ((e))

    7th April

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20th April

Six persons: A, B, C, D, E and F

Cities: Nashik, Udaipur, Delhi, Raipur, Chennai, and Chandigarh

Months: January, April, October.

Dates: 7th and 20th

  1. D goes to Delhi on January 20.  

  2. E travels in a month which has 30 days but not on the 20th. 

  3. E goes to Nashik but not in January.

DatesPersonsCities
7 Jan
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 April
7 October
20 October

 

4) The number of persons who travel before those who travel to Chandigarh is equal to the number of persons who travel after those who travel to Nashik.

5) Two persons who travel to Raipur and Chennai travel in the same month.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberRaipur/Chennai

 

5) There are four persons between B and C traveling to different cities. 6) C does not travel to Udaipur.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberCRaipur/Chennai

 

7) Neither A nor C travel to Raipur.

8) F travels in October.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows:

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilAChandigarh
7 OctoberFRaipur
20 OctoberCChennai

 A travel on 20 April.

38

Which of the following groups is correct?

  1. ((a))

    7 October - E - Raipur

  2. ((b))

    20 April - B - Chandigarh

  3. ((c))

    20 October - D - Chennai

  4. ((d))

    7 January  - B - Udaipur

  5. ((e))

    All are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7 January  - B - Udaipur

Six persons: A, B, C, D, E and F

Cities: Nashik, Udaipur, Delhi, Raipur, Chennai, and Chandigarh

Months: January, April, October.

Dates: 7th and 20th

  1. D goes to Delhi on January 20.  

  2. E travels in a month which has 30 days but not on the 20th. 

  3. E goes to Nashik but not in January.

DatesPersonsCities
7 Jan
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 April
7 October
20 October

 

4) The number of persons who travel before those who travel to Chandigarh is equal to the number of persons who travel after those who travel to Nashik.

5) Two persons who travel to Raipur and Chennai travel in the same month.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberRaipur/Chennai

 

5) There are four persons between B and C traveling to different cities. 6) C does not travel to Udaipur.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberCRaipur/Chennai

 

7) Neither A nor C travel to Raipur.

8) F travels in October.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows:

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilAChandigarh
7 OctoberFRaipur
20 OctoberCChennai

Hence, '7 January  - B - Udaipur' is the correct group.

39

Where does F travel?

  1. ((a))

    Raipur

  2. ((b))

    Chennai

  3. ((c))

    Udaipur

  4. ((d))

    Chandigarh

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Raipur

Six persons: A, B, C, D, E and F

Cities: Nashik, Udaipur, Delhi, Raipur, Chennai, and Chandigarh

Months: January, April, October.

Dates: 7th and 20th

  1. D goes to Delhi on January 20.  

  2. E travels in a month which has 30 days but not on the 20th. 

  3. E goes to Nashik but not in January.

DatesPersonsCities
7 Jan
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 April
7 October
20 October

 

4) The number of persons who travel before those who travel to Chandigarh is equal to the number of persons who travel after those who travel to Nashik.

5) Two persons who travel to Raipur and Chennai travel in the same month.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberRaipur/Chennai

 

5) There are four persons between B and C traveling to different cities. 6) C does not travel to Udaipur.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberCRaipur/Chennai

 

7) Neither A nor C travel to Raipur.

8) F travels in October.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows:

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilAChandigarh
7 OctoberFRaipur
20 OctoberCChennai

Hence, F travels to Raipur.

40

Four of the five are alike in a certain way, thus form a group. Find the one which doesn’t belong to that group.

  1. ((a))

    B - Udaipur

  2. ((b))

    E - Nashik

  3. ((c))

    F - Raipur

  4. ((d))

    A - Chandigarh

  5. ((e))

    C- Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

C- Delhi

Six persons: A, B, C, D, E and F

Cities: Nashik, Udaipur, Delhi, Raipur, Chennai, and Chandigarh

Months: January, April, October.

Dates: 7th and 20th

  1. D goes to Delhi on January 20.  

  2. E travels in a month which has 30 days but not on the 20th. 

  3. E goes to Nashik but not in January.

DatesPersonsCities
7 Jan
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 April
7 October
20 October

 

4) The number of persons who travel before those who travel to Chandigarh is equal to the number of persons who travel after those who travel to Nashik.

5) Two persons who travel to Raipur and Chennai travel in the same month.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberRaipur/Chennai

 

5) There are four persons between B and C traveling to different cities. 6) C does not travel to Udaipur.

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilChandigarh
7 OctoberRaipur/Chennai
20 OctoberCRaipur/Chennai

 

7) Neither A nor C travel to Raipur.

8) F travels in October.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows:

DatesPersonsCities
7 JanBUdaipur
20 JanDDelhi
7 AprilENashik
20 AprilAChandigarh
7 OctoberFRaipur
20 OctoberCChennai

 

Hence, 'C- Delhi' is the odd one out.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

41

The full form of “FORTRAN” is________.

  1. ((a))

    File Translation

  2. ((b))

    Format Translation

  3. ((c))

    Formula Translation

  4. ((d))

    Format Transformation

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Formula Translation

FORTRAN is an abbreviation that stands for the term “formula translation”. It is a machine-independent, high-level programming language which is used for mathematical & scientific purposes.

42

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 11100001111 is

  1. ((a))

    1806

  2. ((b))

    1807

  3. ((c))

    2806

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1807

The correct answer is 1807.

Key Points

  • (11100001111) = 1807
  • Steps for conversion:
  • Units place with 2^0, tens place with 2^1, hundreds place with 2^2 and so on from right to left
  • Add all the products we got from step 1 to get the decimal equivalent of 11100001111.
  • Using the above steps, here is the work involved in the solution for converting 11100001111 to a decimal number (Don't forget that we start from one place to tens and so on...)
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^0 = 1
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^1 = 2
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^2 = 4
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^3 = 8
  • Decimal equivalent of "0" = 0 × 2^4 = 0
  • Decimal equivalent of "0" = 0 × 2^5 = 0
  • Decimal equivalent of "0" = 0 × 2^6 = 0
  • Decimal equivalent of "0" = 0 × 2^7 = 0
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^8 = 256
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^9 = 512
  • Decimal equivalent of "1" = 1 × 2^10 = 1024
  • So, decimal equivalent of "11100001111" = 1+2+4+8+0+0+0+0+256+512+1024= 1807
  • (11100001111)10 = 1807

 

  • 12^10 + 12^9 + 12^8 + 02^7 + 02^6 + 02^5 + 02^4 + 12^3 + 12^2 + 12^1 + 1*2^0 = 1024 + 512 + 256 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 1807
43

The octal equivalent of the binary number (11010101110001111)2 is which of the following mentioned options?

  1. ((a))

    326517

  2. ((b))

    325816

  3. ((c))

    325617

  4. ((d))

    325647

  5. ((e))

    234567

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

325617

The correct answer is 325617.

Key Points 

  • The octal equivalent of the binary number (11010101110001111)2 is 325617.
  • The octal numeral system, or oct for short, is the base-8 number system and uses the digits 0 to 7.
  • Octal numerals can be made from binary numerals by grouping consecutive binary digits into groups of three (starting from the right).
  • From right: (111)- 7 (001)-1 (110)-6 (101)-5 (010)-2 (011)-3

Additional Information

​Binary to Octal conversion table:

0000
0011
0102
0113
1004
1015
1106
1117
44

Mac OS was introduced by

  1. ((a))

    IBM

  2. ((b))

    Microsoft

  3. ((c))

    Apple

  4. ((d))

    Linux

  5. ((e))

    Micromax

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Apple

The correct answer is Apple

Key Points

  • Apple Inc developed the family of Macintosh operating systems in 1984.

  • This is the operating system that runs on Macintosh computers. It is pronounced, "mack-oh-es." The Mac OS has been around since the first Macintosh was introduced in 1984. Since then, it has been continually updated and many new features have been added to it.

Additional Information

  • Since the core of the Mac OS was nearly decades-old, Apple decided to completely revamp the operating system. In March of 2001, Apple introduced a completely new version of the Mac OS that was written from the ground up. The company dubbed it "Mac OS X," correctly pronounced "Mac OS 10."
  • Unlike earlier versions of the Mac OS, Mac OS X is based on the same kernel as Unix and has many advanced administrative features and utilities. Though the operating system is much more advanced than earlier versions of the Mac OS, it still has the same ease-of-use that people have come to expect from Apple software.
  • The first version of the macOS, part of the "Classic" macOS series, was originally released in the mid-1980s. It did not possess a command line and could only run one application at a time. The first version of the Macintosh operating system to be named "macOS" was version 7.6.
45

Which of the following is not an input device?

  1. ((a))

    scanner

  2. ((b))

    mouse

  3. ((c))

    keyboard

  4. ((d))

    printer

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

printer

A printer is an output device. Different types of printers like inkjet, dot matrix, laser printers etc. are used for getting the data printed on a paper as a hard copy. Scanner, mouse and keyboard are input devices.

46

Which of the following tabs contains commands to insert a watermark in an MS Word 2016 document?

  1. ((a))

    Page Layout

  2. ((b))

    Page Background

  3. ((c))

    Design

  4. ((d))

    Page Setup

  5. ((e))

    References

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Design

The correct answer is Design

  • The Design Tab contains all the features to change the look of your document in one place. To find out how to format your document using the design tab follow these simple instructions.
  • To format your document with a theme
  • Select Design (tab) | Document Formatting (group) | Themes (drop-down button)
  • Select a theme from the drop-down list
  • To select other design formats such as style, color, fonts, etc
  • Select Design (tab) | Document Formatting (group)
  • To change the page background
  • Select Design (tab) | Page Background (group) and select one of the following: Watermark, page color, or page border
47

Which of the following is the shortcut key to close a currently open document?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + A

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + V

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + W

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + X

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + W

following are the functions of given shortcut key combinations:

  1. Ctrl + A – select all
  2. Ctrl + V – paste content that is copied to the clipboard
  3. Ctrl + W – close a currently open document
  4. Ctrl + X – cut the selected content and copy it to the clipboard
48

_________ is a self-replicating virus that does not alter files but resides in active memory and duplicates itself. 

  1. ((a))

    Time Bomb

  2. ((b))

    Trojan

  3. ((c))

    Mellissa virus

  4. ((d))

    Worm

  5. ((e))

    Macro virus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Worm

A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program. Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.

49

_____ is not an output device?

  1. ((a))

    Monitors

  2. ((b))

    Printers

  3. ((c))

    Headphones

  4. ((d))

    Projectors

  5. ((e))

    Keyboard

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Keyboard

Keyboard in not an output device, it is rather an input device.

50

Choose the web-browser among the following:

  1. ((a))

    MSN messenger

  2. ((b))

    Yahoo messenger

  3. ((c))

    Rediffbal.net

  4. ((d))

    Netscape Navigator

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Netscape Navigator

The correct answer is Netscape Navigator.

Key Points

  • Netscape Navigator is a web browser that was popular in the 1990s and was one of the first widely used web browsers.
  • It was developed by Netscape Communications Corporation and played a key role in the early growth of the World Wide Web.
  • The browser was eventually succeeded by Mozilla Firefox, which is built on Netscape's codebase.

Additional Information

  • MSN Messenger (Option 1) is a messaging application developed by Microsoft, which was used for instant messaging, not for browsing the web.
  • Yahoo Messenger (Option 2) is another messaging application developed by Yahoo, used for instant messaging, voice calls, and file sharing, but not for web browsing.
  • Rediffbal.net (Option 3) is not a known web browser; it appears to be a fictional or incorrect option.
51

HTML is used to?

  1. ((a))

    Make the Os of computer.

  2. ((b))

    Write code for webpages

  3. ((c))

    Networking

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

  5. ((e))

    Paint

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Write code for webpages

HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language which is used to create, edit and update webpages. It is also used to put effects and animations on the webpages.

52

What does URL stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Uniform Reverse Location

  2. ((b))

    Universal Resolution Location

  3. ((c))

    Universal Resource Locator

  4. ((d))

    Universal Re-Engineering Location

  5. ((e))

    Uniform Resource Locator

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Uniform Resource Locator

A Uniform Resource Locator (URL), colloquially termed a web address, is a reference to a web resource that specifies its location on a computer network and a mechanism for retrieving it. A URL is a specific type of Uniform Resource Identifier (URI), although many people use the two terms interchangeably. URLs occur most commonly to reference web pages (http), but are also used for file transfer, email, database access and many other applications.

53

If you want to delete something from the right side of the cursor on a document, which among the following shortcut keys may be used to perform this function in a computer?

  1. ((a))

    Backspace

  2. ((b))

    Delete

  3. ((c))

    Shift+Del

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl+Esc

  5. ((e))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Delete

The correct answer is Delete

Important Points

  • On a PC keyboard, the Backspace key deletes the character to the left of the cursor and moves the cursor back one space. On these keyboards pressing the Delete key removes the character to the right of the cursor, and the cursor does not change position.
  • On an Apple keyboard, the Delete key behaves like the Backspace key on a PC keyboard. Pressing the Delete key on an Apple keyboard removes the character to the left of the cursor and moves the cursor back one space.

Key Points

  • Pressing Delete (DEL) also deletes the currently highlighted text, image, or group of images.
  • To delete all text in a text file, you can use the shortcut key to select all text which is Ctrl+A. Once all text is highlighted press the Del or Backspace to delete all highlighted text.
  • On desktop computer keyboards, there are two delete keys (one along with Function keys or above backspace, and another on numeric keypad near '0' key) on the keyboard. On laptop computers with no numeric keypad, there is only one delete key on the keyboard. If you have a Chromebook, there are no delete keys.
54

Which of the following is a Web browser?

  1. ((a))

    Paint

  2. ((b))

    Power point

  3. ((c))

    Fire fox

  4. ((d))

    Word

  5. ((e))

    All are web browsers

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fire fox

The correct answer is Fire fox.

Key Points

  • Fire fox is a web browser developed by Mozilla Foundation. It allows users to access and navigate the internet.
  • Web browsers are software applications used to retrieve, present, and traverse information resources on the World Wide Web.

Additional Information

  • Paint: Paint is a simple graphics painting program that is included with all versions of Microsoft Windows. It is not a web browser.
  • Power point: PowerPoint is a presentation program developed by Microsoft. It is used to create slideshows composed of text, graphics, and other objects. It is not a web browser.
  • Word: Microsoft Word is a word processor developed by Microsoft. It is used for creating, editing, and formatting text documents. It is not a web browser.
55

What is the full form of PROM from the following?

  1. ((a))

    Programmable Read Only Memory

  2. ((b))

    Progressive Read Only Memory

  3. ((c))

    Periodic Read Only Memory

  4. ((d))

    Perfect Read Only Memory

  5. ((e))

    Program Read-Only Memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Programmable Read Only Memory

  • PROM stands for Programmable Read Only Memory.
  • Read only memory (ROM) is a type of memory that is used in electronics and computers. It is a non-volatile memory, that is, information stored in such a memory is permanent and cannot be changed.
  • Other two types of ROM are Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) and Erasable Programmable ROM (EPROM).
56

What is the full form of SLSI?

  1. ((a))

    Small-Large scale Integration

  2. ((b))

    Simple-Large scale Integration

  3. ((c))

    Sample-Large scale Integration

  4. ((d))

    Super-Large scale Integration

  5. ((e))

    None of the Above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Super-Large scale Integration

The correct answer is Super Large scale Integration.

Important Points

  • The third generation (1966-75) of computers introduced Integrated Circuits and replaced transistors.
  • A single device can perform operations of computations. Examples are microprocessor chips, micro-controllers, basic PICs, and calculators.
  • between 10, 000 and 100,000 transistors in Super-Large Scale Integration or (SLSI).
  • Contain up to 10 transistors in Small Scale Integration or (SSI).
  • between 10 and 100 transistors in Medium Scale Integration or (MSI).
  • between 100 and 1,000 transistors in Large Scale Integration or (LSI).
  • between 1,000 and 10,000 transistors in Very-Large Scale Integration or (VLSI).
  • more than 1 million transistors in Ultra-Large Scale Integration or (ULSI).
57

Which key on the keyboard can be used to view slide show in PPT?

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    F2

  3. ((c))

    F5

  4. ((d))

    F10

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

F5

The slide show displays the slides on the screen and play those as per the chosen animations and effects. The shortcut in PPT (PowerPoint)  is functional key F5.

58

Which of the following is true regarding to ROM?

(i) It is a volatile memory.

(ii) It is a non-volatile memory.

(iii) It is both a volatile and a non-volatile memory.

  1. ((a))

    Only (i)

  2. ((b))

    Only (ii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (i) & (ii)

  4. ((d))

    All (i), (ii) & (iii)

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only (ii)

The correct answer is Only (ii)

  • ROM is a non-volatile memory.
  • Non-volatile memory,  NVM, or non-volatile storage is a type of computer memory that can retrieve stored information even after having been power cycled (turned off and back on).
  • Whereas Volatile memory is the memory that can not be retrieved after having been power cycled.

Additional Information

  • Examples of non-volatile memory include read-only memory, flash memory, ferroelectric RAM, most types of magnetic computer storage devices (e.g. hard disk drives, floppy disks, and magnetic tape), optical discs, and early computer storage methods such as paper tape and punched cards.
  • Examples of volatile memory include RAM.
59

COBOL being a high level programming language was developed for what purpose?

  1. ((a))

    Business data processing applications

  2. ((b))

    Designing plan for buildings

  3. ((c))

    Maintaining the data of a firm

  4. ((d))

    Teaching children in schools

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Business data processing applications

The correct answer is Business data processing applications.

Key Points

  • COBOL stands for common business oriented language as it was designed specifically for processing data applications related to business.
60

MS-Word is an

  1. ((a))

    tabular data formatting software

  2. ((b))

    Word processing software

  3. ((c))

    presentation software

  4. ((d))

    E-mail client

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Word processing software

The correct answer is Word processing software

  • Sometimes called Winword, MS Word, or Word, Microsoft Word is a word processor published by Microsoft. It is one of the office productivity applications included in the Microsoft Office suite. Originally developed by Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, it was first released in 1983.
  • Microsoft Word is available for Microsoft Windows, Apple macOS, Android, and Apple iOS. It can also run on the Linux operating system using WINE.
  • Microsoft Word allows you to create professional-quality documents, reports, letters, and résumés. Unlike a plain text editor, Microsoft Word has features including spell check, grammar check, text and font formatting, HTML support, image support, advanced page layout, and more.
  • Below is an overview of a Microsoft Word 2010 document.
Application Software TypeExamples
Word processing softwareMS Word, WordPad, and Notepad
Database softwareOracle, MS Access, etc
Presentation SoftwareMicrosoft PowerPoint, Keynotes
Multimedia softwareReal Player, Media Player
Application SuitesOpenOffice, Microsoft Office
61

In MS Excel, to insert a formula in a cell, we must begin the entry with an operator _______.

  1. ((a))

    =

  2. ((b))

    $

  3. ((c))

    @

  4. ((d))

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

=

Microsoft Excel's power is in its ability to calculate and display results from data entered into its cells. To calculate anything in Excel, you need to enter formulas into its cells. Formulas can be simple arithmetical formulas or complicated formulas involving conditional statements and nested functions. All Excel formulas use a basic syntax.

In MS Excel, formulas are equations that perform various calculations in your worksheets.

  • All Excel formulas begin with an equal to sign (=)
  • After the equal symbol, you enter either a calculation or function
  • For example, to add up values in cells B1 through B5, you can either:
  • Type the entire equation: = B1+B2+B3+B4+B5
  • Use the SUM function: = SUM(B1: B5)
  • Press the Enter key to complete the formula

62

Which key should be pressed continuously while moving a column in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl 

  2. ((b))

    shift

  3. ((c))

    alt

  4. ((d))

    tab

  5. ((e))

    space

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

tab

The correct answer is tab

  • Tab key should be pressed continuously while moving a column in MS Excel.
  • A tab key is generally used in a document for proper spacing and enhancing readability by adjusting the text in the document.
  • It can also be used for moving a cursor across the screen and for indenting a paragraph while the user is working with the document.
63

Which of the following is not an operating system?

  1. ((a))

    DOS

  2. ((b))

    Oracle

  3. ((c))

    Linux

  4. ((d))

    Windows

  5. ((e))

    Android

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Oracle

  • DOS (Disk Operating System) is an operating system for x86-based personal computers
  • Oracle Database (Oracle) is a multi-model database management system produced and marketed by Oracle Corporation
  • Linux is a family of free and open-source software operating systems based on the Linux kernel
  • Windows is a group of several graphical operating system families, all of which are developed, marketed, and sold by Microsoft
64

Which of the following Input device is used to convert hard copy to soft copy?

  1. ((a))

    Light pen

  2. ((b))

    Track Ball

  3. ((c))

    Scanner

  4. ((d))

    Digitizer

  5. ((e))

    Microphone

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Scanner

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Scanner.

  • Scanner is an input device, which works more like a photocopy machine. It is used when some information is available on paper and it is to be transferred to the hard disk of the computer for further manipulation.
  • Scanner captures images from the source which are then converted into a digital form that can be stored on the disk. These images can be edited before they are printed.
  • Digitizer is an input device which converts analog information into digital form.
  • Microphone is an input device to input sound that is then stored in a digital form.
  • Track ball is an input device that is mostly used in notebook or laptop computer, instead of a mouse. This is a ball which is half inserted and by moving fingers on the ball, the pointer can be moved.
  • Light pen is a pointing device similar to a pen. It is used to select a displayed menu item or draw pictures on the monitor screen. It consists of a photocell and an optical system placed in a small tube.
65

Which among the following options is not a manufacturer of CPU?

  1. ((a))

    AMD

  2. ((b))

    Intel

  3. ((c))

    IBM

  4. ((d))

    Texas Instruments

  5. ((e))

    Nvidia

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Nvidia

The correct answer is option 5) i.e. Nvidia.

Additional Information

  • A computer's central processing unit (CPU) is the central brain of the computer.
  • Major manufacturers of CPU are Advanced micro devices (AMD) , Intel, IBM, Texas Instruments, Motorola.
  • Nvidia, is an American technology company. It designs graphics processing units for the gaming and professional markets, as well as system on a chip units for the mobile computing and automotive market.
66

Which key deletes the character to the left of the cursor?

  1. ((a))

    Home

  2. ((b))

    Delete

  3. ((c))

    Backspace

  4. ((d))

    End

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Backspace

The correct answer is Backspace

Important Points

  • When you press the Backspace (Windows) or delete key (macOS), it removes text to the left of the cursor. If you need to remove text to the right of the cursor, press the Delete key.
  • The Backspace key has one function: delete text to the left of the cursor. In some Internet browsers, you can also press the Backspace key to go back to the previous page. However, most browsers today use the shortcut combination Alt+left arrow key instead.

Additional Information

  • The keys on your keyboard can be divided into several groups based on function:
  • Typing (alphanumeric) keys. These keys include the same letter, number, punctuation, and symbol keys found on a traditional typewriter.​
  • Control keys. These keys are used alone or in combination with other keys to perform certain actions. The most frequently used control keys are Ctrl, Alt, the Windows logo key

Picture of the Windows logo key

, and Esc.

  • Function keys. The function keys are used to perform specific tasks. They are labeled as F1, F2, F3, and so on, up to F12. The functionality of these keys differs from program to program.
  • Navigation keys. These keys are used for moving around in documents or webpages and editing text. They include the arrow keys, Home, End, Page Up, Page Down, Delete, and Insert.
  • Numeric keypad. The numeric keypad is handy for entering numbers quickly. The keys are grouped together in a block like a conventional calculator or adding machine.
  • The following illustration shows how these keys are arranged on a typical keyboard. Your keyboard layout might be different.

67

Which among the following software is not a product of Microsoft?

  1. ((a))

    Open office

  2. ((b))

    Outlook

  3. ((c))

    Access

  4. ((d))

    Visual studio express

  5. ((e))

    Windows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Open office

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Open office.

  • Apache OpenOffice is an open-source office productivity software suite. It is one of the successor projects of OpenOffice.org and the designated successor of IBM Lotus Symphony.
  • Outlook, Access, Visual studio express, Windows are developed by Microsoft.
68

When a URL is entered like http://www.abcdefghij.com. What does the portion labeled http represents?

  1. ((a))

    Host

  2. ((b))

    Domain name

  3. ((c))

    Protocol

  4. ((d))

    Top-level domain

  5. ((e))

    Loader

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Protocol

The http is the protocol which refers to hypertext transfer protocol and is used as host to access the particular page on the World Wide Web.

69

Task bar can be placed at_____

  1. ((a))

    Bottom of the screen only

  2. ((b))

    Right side of the screen only

  3. ((c))

    Any side of screen

  4. ((d))

    Bottom and Top side of screen only

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Any side of screen

  • Taskbar is a bar used to launch and monitor running applications.
  • It is usually found at the bottom of the screen, however it can be placed at the left, right or the top section of the desktop
70

In MS word, insert footnote appears on ________ tab.

  1. ((a))

    Insert

  2. ((b))

    Review

  3. ((c))

    References

  4. ((d))

    Layout

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

References

The correct answer is References

  • A footnote is a note that appears at the bottom of a page that is commonly used by writers to cite other authors' publications in their document. We will show you how to manage footnotes in Microsoft Word.
  • Footnotes appear at the bottom of the page and endnotes come at the end of the document. A number or symbol on the footnote or endnote matches up with a reference mark in the document.
  • To start inserting a footnote place your mouse cursor at the document where you want to put the footnote and click the ‘Insert Footnote’ button under the ‘Reference’ tab. On the References tab, ‘Insert Footnote’ and ‘Insert Endnote’ appears.
  • Word automatically assigns a number and a line separator at the bottom of the page when we insert a footnote.
  • Each footnote will be marked as a superscript number beside each reference point in the document.
71

Arrange the following according to their speed transmission rate in ascending order .

  1. ((a))

    Coaxial cable < Twisted pair cable < Optical fibre

  2. ((b))

    Coaxial cable <​ Optical fibre < Twisted pair cable

  3. ((c))

    ​Optical fibre < coaxial cable < Twisted pair cable

  4. ((d))

    electrical cable < coaxial cable < Twisted pair cable

  5. ((e))

    ​Optical fibre < coaxial cable < electric cable

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coaxial cable < Twisted pair cable < Optical fibre

Coaxial cable, twisted pair cable, and optical fibre cables are guided media whereas electric cable is not used in computer networks.

Twisted pair cable: 1000 Mbps

Coaxial cable: 10 mbps

Optical fibre: 2Gbps

72

The most common pointing input device is which among the following mentioned options?

  1. ((a))

    trackball

  2. ((b))

    touchpad

  3. ((c))

    touch screen

  4. ((d))

    mouse

  5. ((e))

    scanner

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

mouse

Among the following mentioned options The most common pointing input device is mouse which enables the user to point the cursor and click where the user wants to use it.

73

Octal number system has a base ________

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

  • The octal numeral system, or oct for short, is the base-8 number system and uses the digits 0 to 7.
  • Octal numerals can be made from binary numerals by grouping consecutive binary digits into groups of three (starting from the right).
  • For example, the binary representation for decimal 74 is 1001010.
  • Two zeroes can be added at the left: (00)1 001 010, corresponding the octal digits 1 1 2, yielding the octal representation 112.
74

Fifth-Generation languages are the ____.

  1. ((a))

    Assembly languages

  2. ((b))

    Machine languages

  3. ((c))

    constraint based languages

  4. ((d))

    High level language

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

constraint based languages

The correct answer is constraint-based languages.

Key Points

Programming languages are classified in variety of ways and generation is one of them.

  • Generation are further classified as: First-generation, second-generation, third-generation, fourth-generation, fifth-generation.
  • Fifth generation language is applied to logic and constraint-based languages like Prolog.

Additional Information

  • Assembly languages → Second-generation
  • Machine languages → First-generation
  • High Level language → Third-generation
75

Which kind of language translator converts the source code into machine language?

  1. ((a))

    Cascading

  2. ((b))

    Compiler

  3. ((c))

    COBOL

  4. ((d))

    Disk Fragmenter

  5. ((e))

    Device Driver

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Compiler

A compiler is used to convert the source code (written in the high-level language) into machine language. There are three  different kinds of language translator which help in converting programming languages to machine language. These are assembler, compiler, and interpreter.

76

Which of the following is not an image or graphic file format?

  1. ((a))

    PNG

  2. ((b))

    BMP

  3. ((c))

    GIF

  4. ((d))

    GUI

  5. ((e))

    TIF

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

GUI

GUI is NOT an image or a graphic file format.

Important Points

  • GUI or Graphic user interface has nothing to do with graphic files as it is a type of interface which allows users to interact through graphical icons and visual indicators such as secondary notation, as opposed to text-based interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation.

Additional Information

  • PNG or portable network graphics is an extension given to a graphic file.
  • It was created to replace another format i.e. GIF or Graphic interchange format.
  • BMP or Bitmap file is another extension used to create usually image files.
77

VGA is -

  1. ((a))

    Video Graphics Array

  2. ((b))

    Visual Graphics Array

  3. ((c))

    Volatile Graphics array

  4. ((d))

    Video Graphics Adapter

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Video Graphics Array

VGA stands for Video Graphics Array. It is the hardware used for displaying visuals and is nowadays used as a standard visual standard.

78

198.2.2.1 IP address belongs to which IP class?

  1. ((a))

    Class A

  2. ((b))

    Class B

  3. ((c))

    Class C

  4. ((d))

    Class D

  5. ((e))

    Class E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Class C

With an IPv4 IP address, there are five classes of available IP ranges: Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D and Class E. Each class allows for a range of valid IP addresses, shown in the following table.

ClassAddress RangeSupport
Class A1.0.0.1 to 126.255.255.254Supports 16 million hosts on each of 127 networks
Class B128.1.0.1 to 191.255.255.254Supports 65,000 hosts on each of 16,000 networks
Class C192.0.1.1 to 223.255.254.254Supports 254 hosts on each of 2 million networks
Class D224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255Reserved for multicast groups
Class E240.0.0.0 to 254.255.255.254Reserved for future use, or Research and   Development Purposes
79

The first generation computers had?

  1. ((a))

    Vacuum tubes and magnetic drum

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic tape and transistors

  3. ((c))

    ICs

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    Vacuum tubes and transistors

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vacuum tubes and magnetic drum

  • The first generation computers used vacuum tubes for circuitry and magnetic drums for memory.

Key Points

  • Generation in the computer is nothing but the evolution in different forms of computer.
  • Every time new hardware technology is used.
  • Each generation involves different hardware and software components that make it form a Computer system.
  • There is a total of 5 Generations known to date.
  • Each generation has different characteristics that are shown in the table below.
Generation of computersFeaturesExamples and Images
1st Generation- The period of the first generation of computers is 1946-1959. - In this generation, Vaccum tube technology was used. - Computers of this generation generate a large amount of heat. - Therefore, these computers are not reliable and so expensive. - The size of these computers is very big. - These computers support machine Language only.- ENIAC - EDVAC - UNIVAC
2nd Generation- The period of the second generation was from 1959-1965. - In this generation, Transistors were used. - Transistors generate less amount of heat and more reliable as compared to first-generation computers. - Computers of this generation are cheap and smaller in size than that of the 1sr generation. - In this generation, assembly language and high-level programming languages like FORTRAN, - COBOL was used.- IBM 1620 - IBM 7094 - CDC 1604
3rd Generation- The period of the third generation was from 1965-1971. - Here IC's(Integrated Circuits) are used in place of Transistors. - A single IC has many transistors, resistors, and capacitors along with the associated circuitry. - Due to this computer smaller in size, reliable and efficient.- IBM-360 series - Honeywell-6000 series - PDP (Personal Data Processor) - IBM-370/168
4th Generation- The period of the fourth generation was from 1971-1980. - In this generation, very large integrated circuits (VLIC)were used. - VLIC has 500o transistors on a single cheap made it possible. - These computers are more affordable, reliable, and compact. - In this generation Real-time, the time-sharing operating system was used. - All the high-level languages like C, C++ were used in this generation- DEC 10 - STAR 1000 - PDP 11 - CRAY-1(Super Computer) - CRAY-X-MP(Super Computer)
5th Generation- The period of fifth-generation is the 1980-till date. - In this generation, VLIC is replaced by ULSI. - ULSI is ultra large scale integration. - This generation is based on Artificial Intelligence. - AI is a branch in the computer which means and interpret to think computers like human brains. - All the high-level languages - like C and C++, Java, .Net, etc., are used - in this generation.- Desktop - Laptop - Notebook - Ultrabook - Chromebook -
80

In MS Paint, which extension is not supported?

  1. ((a))

    .jpeg

  2. ((b))

    .doc

  3. ((c))

    .gif

  4. ((d))

    .png

  5. ((e))

    .jpg

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

.doc

The correct answer is .doc.

Key Points

  • Paint is a simple graphics painting program that has been included with all versions of Microsoft Windows. It is often referred to as MS Paint.
  • The programs open and save files as windows btmap.
  • JPEG: Joint Photographic Experts Group
  • GIF: Graphics Interchange Format
  • PNG: Portable Network Graphics
  • TIFF: Tagged Image File Format

.doc is a filename extension for word processing documents (MS Word).

General Awareness (40 questions)

81

The Reserve Bank of India had set up an expert committee to review the current framework for the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME sector). Who among the following was the head of the committee?

  1. ((a))

    Shaktikanta Das 

  2. ((b))

    UK Sinha 

  3. ((c))

    Sudha Balakrishnan

  4. ((d))

    Urjit Patel 

  5. ((e))

    Mahesh Kumar Jain 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

UK Sinha 

  • The Reserve Bank of India had set up an eight member expert committee to review the current framework for the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME sector) under the leadership of UK Sinha, former SEBI chairman.
  • Its mandate was to suggest long-term solutions for the economic and financial sustainability of MSMEs.
  • The committee has recommended doing away with collateral security for loans up to Rs 20 lakh extended to units in this sector.
  • The current ceiling for a collateral free loan for MSMEs is Rs 10 lakh  and these are disbursed under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY).
  • Nitin Gadkari-Minister of MSME
  • Shaktikanta Das-Governor of RBI
  • Sudha Balakrishnan-First Chief Financial Officer of RBI
  • Mahesh Kumar Jain-Deputy Governor of RBI
82

Where is Tadoba National Park situated?

  1. ((a))

    Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

     Maharashtra

  5. ((e))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 Maharashtra

National ParkStateChief Minister
Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National ParkTelanganaK. Chandrashekar Rao
Simbalbara National ParkHimachal PradeshJai Ram Thakur
Tadoba National ParkMaharashtraShri Eknath Shinde
Mukurthi National ParkTamil NaduM. K. Stalin
83

World Tourism Day is observed on ________.

  1. ((a))

    27 September

  2. ((b))

    20 September

  3. ((c))

    10 September

  4. ((d))

    5 September

  5. ((e))

    21 September

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27 September

  • World Tourism Day is observed annually on 27 September. It was first celebrated on 27 September 1980.
  • The United Nations observes 27 September every year as World Tourism Day.

The UN World Tourism Organization expects that tourism will continue to grow at an average of 3% annually until 2030.

The sector also represents an estimated 10% of the world’s GDP and 1 in 10 jobs globally.

The theme for 2019: Tourism and Jobs: A Better Future For All.

84

Which of the following won the UEFA Super Cup in Istanbul in August 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Chelsea

  2. ((b))

    Liverpool

  3. ((c))

    Manchester United

  4. ((d))

    Arsenal

  5. ((e))

    Juventus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Liverpool

  • Liverpool beat Chelsea 5-4 on penalties and won the UEFA Super Cup in Istanbul.
  • It is Liverpool’s 4th Super Cup victory, with their last coming in 2005 in Champions League triumph, also in Istanbul.
  • They have now won 13 European trophies overall.
85

 "Relentless: An Autobiography" is the autobiography of which famous personality?

  1. ((a))

    Shashi Tharoor

  2. ((b))

    Amit Shah

  3. ((c))

    Sonia Gandhi

  4. ((d))

    Yashwant Sinha

  5. ((e))

    Sushma Swaraj

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Yashwant Sinha

From bureaucrat to politician, and from one century to the next, Yashwant Sinha's incredible journey from modest beginnings to the highest corridors of power is a tribute to a family's determination and sacrifices, a young man's indomitable grit and an enduring ode to a nation in the throes of constant churn and change.

86

With which country will India conduct Joint Military Exercise "Open Sunrise"?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    China

  3. ((c))

    Myanmar

  4. ((d))

    Kazakisthan

  5. ((e))

    USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Myanmar

  • Operation Sunrise ,a millitary excercise conducted between India and Myanmar.
  • Named Operation Sunrise, the strategy is aimed at hitting militant groups
  • The transit project will connect Kolkata to Sitwe port in Myanmar and finally end up linking Mizoram
87

In Tennis, who won the Wimbledon title in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Roger Federer

  2. ((b))

    Novak Djokovic

  3. ((c))

    Rafael Nadal

  4. ((d))

    Juan Martín del Potro

  5. ((e))

    Andy Murray

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Novak Djokovic

  • In Tennis, Serbian Novak Djokovic won his fifth Wimbledon title after defeating Swiss tennis ace Roger Federer 7-6, 1-6, 7-6, 4-6, 13-12.
  • The match had to be decided in the fifth set, as both of them won two sets each in the longest ever final to be played so far.
  • This is Djokovic's 16th Grand Slam and 5th Wimbledon title. He is now level with Bjorn Borg as a five-time Wimbledon winner.
88

Which mission was conducted by NASA to Fly Around Titan Looking for Origins, Signs of Life ?

  1. ((a))

    DRAGONFLY

  2. ((b))

    BUTTERFLY

  3. ((c))

    SPEEDFLY

  4. ((d))

    CLUSTERFLY

  5. ((e))

    HORSEFLY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DRAGONFLY

  • NASA's newest planetary science mission is a quadcopter that will fly around the surface of Saturn’s moon Titan. Sporting 8 rotors and a nuclear power source like the Mars Curiosity rover, Dragonfly will launch in 2026 and arrive at Titan in 2034.
  • The mission will build on key discoveries made by Cassini
89

Fugdi folk dance belongs to which state? 

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Goa

  3. ((c))

    Odisha

  4. ((d))

    Gujrat

  5. ((e))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Goa

Fugdi is a Goa folk dance performed by the women in the Konkan region during Hindu religious festivals like Ganesh Chaturthi and Vrata.

90

Who has been awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay Award?

  1. ((a))

    Prannoy Roy

  2. ((b))

    Ravish Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Arnab Goswami

  4. ((d))

    Sambit Patra

  5. ((e))

    Vinod Dua

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ravish Kumar

  • Indian journalist Ravish Kumar has been awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay Award for harnessing journalism to give voice to the voiceless.
  • The award was started in 1957 and celebrates the leadership example of the former Philippine President Ramon del Fierro Magsaysay.
  • The awardees are presented with a medallion with a right side facing profile image of Ramon Magsaysay and a certificate.
91

________ is the 6th Indian to enter the ICC Hall of Fame.

  1. ((a))

    Sachin Tendulkar

  2. ((b))

    Rahul Dravid

  3. ((c))

    Sourav Ganguly

  4. ((d))

    Harbhajan Singh

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sachin Tendulkar

  • International Cricket Council has inducted Sachin Tendulkar, Allan Donald and Cathryn Fitzpatrick into the ICC’s Hall of Fame.
  • Other Indians on the list are Bishan Singh Bedi, Sunil Gavaskar, Kapil Dev, Anil Kumble, Rahul Dravid.
  • Sachin Tendulkar has 34,357 runs across formats and is the only batsman to have 100 internationals hundreds under his belt.
92

Recently, President Ram Nath Kovind has been awarded the National Order of Merit by which country?

  1. ((a))

    Guinea

  2. ((b))

    Congo

  3. ((c))

    Nigeria

  4. ((d))

    Kenya

  5. ((e))

    Namibia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Guinea

  • President Ram Nath Kovind has been awarded the National Order of Merit by the President of Guinea.
  • He was awarded for his exceptional contribution to the advancement of overall relations and development of mutual cooperation between India and Guinea.
  • This is the highest award of the Republic of Guinea.
  • Three MoUs were also signed between the two countries.
93

The 7th RCEP Ministerial Meeting, 16th ASEAN India Economic Ministers meeting and the 7th East Asia Economic Ministers Summit was held in which country?

  1. ((a))

    Singapore

  2. ((b))

    Indonesia

  3. ((c))

    Thailand

  4. ((d))

    Japan

  5. ((e))

    Cambodia

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Thailand

  • Union Minister of Commerce & Industry and Railways, Piyush Goyal, will attend the 7th RCEP Ministerial Meeting, 16th ASEAN India Economic Ministers meeting and the 7th East Asia Economic Ministers Summit being held in Bangkok from 8-10 September 2019.
  • The meetings will be attended by Economic Ministers and senior leaders of 10 ASEAN member countries and 8 East Asia Summit (EAS) countries
  • Bangkok is the capital of Thailand.
  • Phnom Penh is the capital of Cambodia.
  • Tokyo is the capital of Japan.
  • Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia.
94

The RBI set up a working group to review the regulatory and supervisory framework for (CICs) on July 03, 2019. What does CIC stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Core investment companies 

  2. ((b))

    Chief Information Commission

  3. ((c))

    Chief Information Commissioners

  4. ((d))

    Central Investigation Commission

  5. ((e))

    None of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Core investment companies 

  • The RBI set up a working group to review the regulatory and supervisory framework for core investment companies (CICs).
  • The six-member working group was headed by Tapan Ray, Non-Executive Chairman, Central Bank of India.
  • The working group has also been tasked with recommending appropriate measures to enhance RBI’s off-sight surveillance and on-site supervision over CICs.
95

Who is the Chairman of SEBI?

  1. ((a))

    Rajnish Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Subhash Chandra Khuntia

  3. ((c))

    Harsh Kumar Bhanwala

  4. ((d))

    Madhabi Puri Buch

  5. ((e))

    Ajay Tyagi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Madhabi Puri Buch

The correct answer is Madhabi Puri Buch

Key Points

  • Madahabi Puri Buch is the Chairman of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  • She is the first woman chairman of SEBI.
  • She's also the first SEBI chief who's not an ex-bureaucrat in 17 years.
  • She was appointed chairman on March 2022.
  • SEBI is the regulator for the securities market in India.
96

U.S. is celebrating Apollo 11 mission’s ________ year anniversary in July 2019.

  1. ((a))

    25th

  2. ((b))

    30th

  3. ((c))

    35th

  4. ((d))

    50th

  5. ((e))

    45th

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

50th

  • U.S. celebrates the Apollo 11 mission’s 50th year anniversary.
  • In the celebrations, new statues of Astronaut Neil Armstrong were unveiled and an education centre was dedicated to him in Ohio, US.
  • Present Administrator of NASA - James Frederick Bridenstine.
  • Headquarters - Washington, D.C.
97

Where is headquarter of Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)?

  1. ((a))

    Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    Germany

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    USA

  5. ((e))

    Australia

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Australia

  • The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) is founded by Steve Killelea.
  • It is a global think tank headquartered in Sydney, Australia with branches in New York, Mexico City, and Oxford.
  • The institute for IEP is impacting traditional thinking on matters of security, defence, terrorism and development. They aim to create a paradigm shift in the way the world thinks about peace.
98

Which institute was best-ranked Indian institute globally at 152nd position in QS World University Rankings’ 2020?

  1. ((a))

    IIT Chennai

  2. ((b))

    IIT Bombay

  3. ((c))

    NIT Warangal

  4. ((d))

    IISC Bangalore

  5. ((e))

    JNU Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

IIT Bombay

  • IIT-Bombay has been securing top position among all Indian institutes for past three years and in 2020 edition it has improved its rank globally at 152nd position and has emerged as best-ranked Indian institute globally.
  • Massachusetts Institute of Technology tops the global list for eighth year.
  • IIT-Delhi and Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore at 182nd and 184th position respectively.
  • Out of top 10 universities in the 16th edition of the QS World Ranking, five were US based
99

MCLR Stands for:

  1. ((a))

    Maximum cost of funds based lending rate

  2. ((b))

    Marginal cost of funds based lending rate

  3. ((c))

    Minimum cost of funds based lending rate

  4. ((d))

    Material cost of funds based lending rate

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Marginal cost of funds based lending rate

The Correct Answer is Marginal cost of funds based lending rate

  • The MCLR stand for the marginal cost of funds based lending rate.
  • The MCLR was introduced by RBI on April 1, 2016.
  • It is the current rate-setting method for lending money by commercial banks.
  • MCLR is set by the banks on the basis of the structure and methodology followed. To summarise, borrowers can benefit from this change.
  • MCLR is an improved version of the base rate. It is a risk-based approach to determine the final lending rate for borrowers. It considers unique factors like the marginal cost of funds instead of the overall cost of funds. The marginal cost takes into account the repo rate, which did not form part of the base rate.
  • When calculating the MCLR, banks are required to incorporate all kinds of interest rates which they incur in mobilizing the funds. Earlier, the loan tenure was not taken into account when determining the base rate. In the case of MCLR, the banks are now required to include a tenor premium. This will allow banks to charge a higher rate of interest for loans with long-term horizons.
100

Where is the Asian Development Bank (ADB) headquartered?

  1. ((a))

    Indonesia

  2. ((b))

    Philippines

  3. ((c))

    Japan

  4. ((d))

    Malaysia

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Philippines

The Asian Development Bank has its headquarters in Philippines. It is a regional development bank aimed at promoting social and economic development in Asia.

101

In the recently formed new government, who among the following has been appointed as the Minister of Information and Broadcasting?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. Harsh Vardhan 

  2. ((b))

    Prakash Javedkar 

  3. ((c))

    Dharmendra Pradhan

  4. ((d))

    Giriraj Singh

  5. ((e))

    Piyush Goyal 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Prakash Javedkar 

NameMinistry
Dr. Harsh VardhanMinister of Health and Family Welfare, Minister of Science and Technology; and Minister of Earth Sciences
Prakash JavedkarMinister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change; and Minister of Information and Broadcasting
Dharmendra PradhanMinister of Petroleum and Natural Gas; and Minister of Steel
Giriraj SinghMinister of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries
Piyush GoyalMinister of Railways and Minister of Commerce and Industry
102

The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by road transport and highways minister Nitin Gadkari. What is the amount fined for Drink and drive?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 10000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 15000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 12000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 7500

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 10000

  • The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by road transport and highways minister Nitin Gadkari.
  • The Bill seeks to amend the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988. Increasing penalties of traffic violations is among the changes proposed in the amendment.
  • The amendment Bill proposes to omit a clause of the Motor Vehicle Act to decide certain other aspects.
  • The amount fined for Drink and drive is Rs. 10,000.
103

Which Indian state has launched the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Scheme, world's biggest irrigation project?

  1. ((a))

    Telangana 

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Haryana 

  5. ((e))

    Rajasthan 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telangana 

  • Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Scheme of Telangana is the world's biggest irrigation project .
  • The scheme is worth Rs 80,000 crore and envisages irrigating 18 lakh acres of land in 13 districts, stabilising another 17 lakh acres in another 7 districts.
  • It has been built across rive Godavari and will lift the water to a height of half-a-kilometer.
  • The project was constructed by Megha Engineering and Infrastructure Limited (MEIL).
  • Telangana CM-K. Chandrashekhar Rao
  • Telangana capital-Hyderabad
104

Which among the following books had been written by Barack Obama?

  1. ((a))

    What happened

  2. ((b))

    The audacity of hope

  3. ((c))

    Hard Choices

  4. ((d))

    Living History

  5. ((e))

    It takes a village

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The audacity of hope

  • The audacity of hope is written by former President of the United States - Barack Obama. This book was published in 2006.
  • He served as the 44th president of the United States from 2009 to 2017.
  • He was the first African American to be elected to the presidency.
  • What happened, Hard Choices, Living History and It takes a village are written by Hillar Clinton
105

The University Grants Commission (UGC) has approved a new initiative STRIDE. What does 'D' stand for in STRIDE?

  1. ((a))

    Dhan

  2. ((b))

    Dharohar

  3. ((c))

    Developing

  4. ((d))

    Disciplinary

  5. ((e))

    Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Developing

  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) has approved a new initiative - Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India’s Developing Economy (STRIDE).
  • It is to boost research culture in the country.
  • STRIDE will provide support to research projects that are socially relevant, locally need-based, nationally important and globally significant.
106

Who has been appointed as the International Cricket Council's (ICC) first-ever female referee?

  1. ((a))

    Rajeshwari Gayakwad

  2. ((b))

    GS Lakshmi

  3. ((c))

    Pooja Vastrakar

  4. ((d))

    Poonam Yadav

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

GS Lakshmi

  • India's GS Lakshmi has become the first-ever woman referee to be appointed on the ICC International Panel of Match Referees.
  • Lakshmi's appointment follows close on the heels of Claire Polosak, who recently became the first female umpire to stand in a men's One-Day International.
107

Who has been elected as the chairman of Press Trust of India in September 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Vijay Kumar Chopra

  2. ((b))

    Vineet Jain

  3. ((c))

    Aveek Kumar Sarkar

  4. ((d))

    Riyad Mathew

  5. ((e))

    Mahendra Mohan Gupta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vijay Kumar Chopra

  • Vijay Kumar Chopra has been unanimously elected as Chairman of Press Trust of India.
  • Vineet Jain, MD of Bennett, Coleman and Company Limited (BCCL), the publisher of Times of India, was elected for the post of Vice-Chairman of the news agency.
  • Chopra succeeds N Ravi, Publisher and former Editor-in-Chief.
  • Vineet Jain has previously been chairman of PTI in 2010.
108

Recently the Ministry of Jal Shakti was constituted after dissolving the existing ministries related to water resources. Who among the following has been appointed as the Minister of Jal Shakti?

  1. ((a))

    Gajendra Singh Shekhawat 

  2. ((b))

    Nitin Gadkari 

  3. ((c))

    Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank 

  4. ((d))

    Pralhad Joshi 

  5. ((e))

    Mahendra Nath Pandey

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gajendra Singh Shekhawat 

Name of the MinisterMinistry
Gajendra Singh ShekhawatMinister of Jal Shakti (Formed by merging of Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation and Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation)
Nitin GadkariMinister of Road Transport and Highways and Minister of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
Ramesh Pokhriyal NishankMinister of Human Resource Development
Prahallad JoshiMinister of Parliamentary Affairs, Minister of Coal, and Minister of Mines
M​ahendra Nath PandeyMinister of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
109

National poet Maithali Sharan Gupt's Birth anniversary was celebrated on 3rd August, 2019, the number of birth anniversary was_________.

  1. ((a))

    125th

  2. ((b))

    126th

  3. ((c))

    127th

  4. ((d))

    128th

  5. ((e))

    130th

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

130th

The correct answer is option 5, i.e. 130th

  • 3rd August 2019, marks the 130th birth anniversary of the pioneer of Khari Boli in Hindi poetry, Maithili Sharan Gupt, who moved the nation with his writings at the time of independence struggle.
  • Maithili Sharan Gupt, one of the most influential poets in modern Hindi was born on August 3, 1886. He was born in Chirgaon, Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh
  • He is widely known for introducing Khari Boli (plain dialect) in the poetry.
  • Most poets of his time wrote in the Braj Bhasha dialect, whereas he took a different approach with the Khari Boli dialect.
  • He was a recipient of the third-highest (then second-highest) Indian civilian honour of Padma Bhushan in the year 1954.
  • For his book Bharat-Bharati (1912), widely quoted during India's freedom struggle, he was given the title of 'Rashtra Kavi' by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930.
  • After India became independent in 1947, he was also made an honorary member of the Rajya Sabha, where he used poetry to put his opinions before the other members.
  • He remained a member of the Rajya Sabha till his death in 1964
110

FSSAI use which color to indicate high fat, sugar and salt contents in front of the package ?

  1. ((a))

    yellow

  2. ((b))

    red

  3. ((c))

    green

  4. ((d))

    blue

  5. ((e))

    white

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

red

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Red.

  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has issued draft regulations aiming to mandate packaged food companies to label high fat, sugar and salt contents in front of the package itself in red colour.
  • The food labels will also declare, per serve percentage contribution to RDA (recommended dietary allowance) on the front of the pack.
  • Makers of chips, soups, biscuits, juices and other packaged foods will soon have to display red colour coding on the front of packets of products that have high levels of fat, sugar or salt content as per the regulator’s new draft of labelling regulations.
111

Who is the author of "The Audacity of the Hope"?

  1. ((a))

    T.S. Eliot

  2. ((b))

    John Steinbeck

  3. ((c))

    Barack Obama

  4. ((d))

    Ernest Hemingway

  5. ((e))

    none of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Barack Obama

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Barack Obama.

  • Barack Obama is the author of "The Audacity of Hope: Thoughts on Reclaiming The American Dream".
  • Barack Obama was the forty-fourth president of the United States and the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize for 2009.
  • He is the author of the New York Times bestsellers Dreams from My Father.
112

Which of the following states tops the list for the best performing state in the NITI Aayog’s Health Index, 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

  5. ((e))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kerala

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Kerala.

  • Kerala continued to top the list for the best performing State in the health sector among the 21 large States, while Uttar Pradesh retained the worst performer tag, according to the second edition of NITI Aayog’s Health Index.
  • Kerala, which got an overall score of 74.01, was followed by Andhra Pradesh (65.13), Maharashtra (63.99), Gujarat (63.52) and Punjab (63.01), Himachal Pradesh (62.41), Jammu and Kashmir 62.37, Karnataka (61.14) and Tamil Nadu (60.41).
  • Uttar Pradesh continued to be at the bottom of the list with its score falling to 28.61. Other States at the bottom of the list were Bihar (32.11), Odisha (35.97) and Madhya Pradesh (38.39).
  • Among the UTs, Chandigarh jumped one spot to top the list with a score of (63.62), followed by Dadra and Nagar Haveli (56.31), Lakshadweep (53.54), Puducherry (49.69), Delhi (49.42), Andaman and Nicobar (45.36) and Daman and Diu (41.66).
  • The Index ranks the States and Union Territories based on 23 health-related indicators, including neonatal mortality rate, under-five mortality rate, proportion of low birth weight among new-borns, proportion of districts with functional Cardiac Care Units, full immunisation coverage and proportion of specialist positions vacant at district hospitals.
113

Captain Aarohi Pandit, a pilot from Mumbai became the world's first woman to cross the which Ocean solo in a Light Sports Aircraft (LSA)?

  1. ((a))

    Arctic

  2. ((b))

    Pacific

  3. ((c))

    Indian

  4. ((d))

    Atlantic

  5. ((e))

    Southern Ocean

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Atlantic

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Atlantic Ocean.​

  • Captain Aarohi Pandit, a 23-year-old pilot from Mumbai became the world's first woman to cross the Atlantic Ocean solo in a Light Sports Aircraft (LSA).
  • She achieved the feat around, when she landed her tiny aircraft at Iqaluit Airport in Canada, after a gruelling 3,000 km long flight, under adverse and extreme weather conditions the following take-off from Wick, Scotland (United Kingdom), with brief stopovers in Greenland and Iceland.
  • En route, she set another world record as the first woman pilot to fly solo above the treacherous Greenland ice-cap in an LSA.
  • This is part of her ongoing year-long global circumnavigation flight which was launched with her friend Keithair Misquitta on July 30.
114

Hemis, the two-day religious festival is from which part of India?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Ladakh

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Goa

  5. ((e))

    Nagaland

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ladakh

  • Hemis, the two-day religious festival is from Ladakh.
  • It brings out the colorful shades of the culture of Ladakh.
  • The victory of good over the evil is marked by this festival.
AssamRangali Bihu
LadakhHemis
Himachal PradeshHalda
GoaShigmo
115

Where did the 11th BRICS Summit is going to be held?

  1. ((a))

    South Africa

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Brazil

  4. ((d))

    China

  5. ((e))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Brazil

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Brasil.

  • The 11th BRICS summit (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) will be held on November 13-14 in the city of Brasilia, Brazil.
  • The Brazilian capital will host the BRICS summit for the second time already.
  • BRICS is an informal association of Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
  • The state leaders have held regular summits since 2009.
  • Since 2013, the chairing country has also invited states close to it geographically and geopolitically to the summits.
  • The last such meeting(10th) was held in July 2018 in Johannesburg.
116

What is the theme of 5th International Yoga Day 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Climate Change

  2. ((b))

    Climate Action

  3. ((c))

    Yoga with Gurus

  4. ((d))

    Yoga for peace

  5. ((e))

    none of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Climate Action

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Climate Action.

  • The theme for 5th International Yoga Day is ‘Climate Action’.
  • There is a two day celebration of Yoga Day at the United Nation in which there is session called “Yoga with Gurus” followed by a panel discussion on the chosen theme for the Yoga Day.
  • The International Day of Yoga is celebrated annually on June 21 to raise global awareness about the benefits of the ancient Indian practice.  It comes with a different theme every year.
  • In India this year, its theme is on climate change. Yoga is an ancient art that keeps your mind, body and soul in peace.
  • While performing yoga during 5th International Yoga day, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, said “yoga is above everything, as he performed various asanas with around 40,000 enthusiasts at the Prabhat Tara ground in Ranchi, Jharkhand here to mark the fifth International Day of Yoga.
117

Identify the foreigner who has been conferred the second highest civilian award in India, Padma Vibhushan for 'exceptional and distinguished service' in 2019. 

  1. ((a))

    John Chambers

  2. ((b))

    Kader Khan 

  3. ((c))

     Pravin Gordhan

  4. ((d))

     Ismail Omar Guelleh 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 Ismail Omar Guelleh 

  • Ismail Omar Guelleh has been conferred the second highest civilian award in India, Padma Vibhushan for 'exceptional and distinguished service' in 2019.
  • The other recipients include Teejan Bai, Anilkumar Manibhai Naik, and Balwant Moreshwar Purandare.
  • A total of 112 awardees were selected for Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri awards.
118

What is the rank of India on the Global Peace Index 2019?

  1. ((a))

    138

  2. ((b))

    141

  3. ((c))

    145

  4. ((d))

    147

  5. ((e))

    150

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

141

  • India's rank has slipped five places to 141 among 163 countries on the Global Peace Index 2019.
  • Iceland remains the most peaceful country in the world, a position it has held since 2008.
  • Afghanistan is now the least peaceful country in the world, replacing Syria, which is now the second least peaceful.
  • In South Asia, Bhutan topped the index with 15th rank.
  • The Global Peace Index is compiled every year by the Sydney-based think tank Institute for Economics and Peace.
119

Who among the following from India had attended key ministerial meetings of the regional forums of ASEAN, Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) and East Asia Summit?

  1. ((a))

    Ravi Prasad 

  2. ((b))

    Harshvardhan

  3. ((c))

    S Jaishankar

  4. ((d))

    Narender Modi

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

S Jaishankar

  • S Jaishankar, Minister of External Affairs had attended key ministerial meetings of the regional forums of ASEAN, Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) and East Asia Summit.
  • The ASEAN-India Ministerial Meeting was co-chaired by Jaishankar and his Thai counterpart Don Pramudwinai.
  • They reviewed the progress in the implementation of the key decisions of the leaders of ASEAN Member States (AMS) and India.
  • The meeting in Bangkok reviewed the progress of the decisions reached at the Informal ASEAN-India Breakfast Summit held in Singapore on November 15 last year.
  • The participants at the meeting also exchanged views on important regional and international issues and on ways and means to further strengthen the ASEAN-India strategic partnership.
  • S Jaishankar also co-chaired the 10th MGC Ministerial Meeting with the Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Foreign Affairs and International Cooperation of Vietnam, Prak Sokhonn.
  • The ministers also deliberated on the current regional and international issues and on further strengthening of the EAS as the region's prominent leaders-led forum for discussions on global political-security and economic issues.
120

Rural Roads comes under _______ ministry.

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Rural Development

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Tourism

  5. ((e))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Rural Development

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Ministry of Rural Development.

  • The Ministry of Rural Development, a branch of the Government of India, is entrusted with the task of accelerating the socio-economic development of rural India. Its focus is on health, education, drinking water, housing and roads.
  • The Ministry of Rural Development has two departments namely Department of Rural Development and Department of Land Resource.
  • Government launched the Pradhan Mantri Gramdoya Yojana (PMGY) and the Ministry of Rural Development was entrusted with the responsibility of implementing drinking water, housing and rural roads component of PMGY.
  • Narendra Singh Tomar is the Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare and Minister of Rural Development in the Second Modi ministry.(17th LokSabha)

English Language (40 questions)

121

In the given sentence, three words have been given in bold. These words may or may not be in their correct positions. Read the sentence and choose the correct option.

A massive fire (A)stunning  Notre-Dame Cathedral on Monday, (B) consumed the roof of the Paris landmark and (C) gutting France and the world.

  1. ((a))

    ACB

  2. ((b))

    CBA

  3. ((c))

    BCA

  4. ((d))

    CAB

  5. ((e))

    No Replacement Required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BCA

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. BCA.

  • As this statement is talking about the fire, the verb that can be most suitable is;'CONSUMED'.
  • Because of this, our option must start with B and out of the given options, only 3 starts with B.
  • The next option will be 'GUTTING' as it means 'upsetting'. 'B' is related to 'C'.
122

In the given sentence, three words have been given in bold. These words may or may not be in their correct positions. Read the sentence and choose the correct option.

The EC is (A)ensure   with powers to (B)just  a free and (C)vested election.

  1. ((a))

    BAC

  2. ((b))

    BCA

  3. ((c))

    ACB

  4. ((d))

    CAB

  5. ((e))

    No Replacement Required

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CAB

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. CAB.

As it can be seen that B needs a main verb because there is TO before it.

Option B must be a verb and we have to verbs ENSURE and JUST but  A must be a Noun or adjective because the general format is sub + linking verb + adj/ noun.

With the help of this, it is clear that A should be in the mid and vested is an adjective so it should be first.

Now the arrangement is CAB.

123

In the given sentence, three words have been given in bold. These words may or may not be in their correct positions. Read the sentence and choose the correct option.

The investigation report of Special Counsel Robert Mueller is (A) scandal  to end the (B) flow around Russian (C) unlikely in the 2016 U.S.

  1. ((a))

    BAC

  2. ((b))

    ACB

  3. ((c))

    CAB

  4. ((d))

    BCA

  5. ((e))

    No Replacement Required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CAB

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. CAB.

C must come at the place of A because it is an ADVERB.

Sub + linling verb + unlikely + to + v1.

With the help of this structure it can be clear that A should be an adverb.

Only option 3 starts with C so, it should be the correct choice.

124

In the given sentence, three words have been given in bold. These words may or may not be in their correct positions. Read the sentence and choose the correct option.

Water meters for domestic users in developed countries have been (A) penalise, because they can (B) greater large families which have (C) controversial needs.

  1. ((a))

    CAB

  2. ((b))

    BCA

  3. ((c))

    ACB

  4. ((d))

    CBA

  5. ((e))

    No Replacement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CAB

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. CAB.

It can be seen clearly that B must be a main verb because there is a modal verb before it.

Subject + Modal verb + main verb + object.

And we have only one verb here i.e. A. So A must come in the mid of the arranged option.

And we have only one option like this and it is in the option 1.

Read the following passage and choose the correct options to fill in the blanks.

Already, technology has ...1...... a significant impact on warfare since the Iraq war began in 2001. Unmanned drones provide sustained surveillance and swift attacks on targets, and small robots are used to disarm improvised explosive devices. The military is currently funding research to produce more autonomous and self-aware robots to diminish the need for human soldiers to risk .....2...... lives. Founder of Boston Dynamics, Marc Raiber, released a video showing a terrifying six......3.....tall 320-lb. humanoid robot named Atlas, running freely in the woods. The company, which was bought by Google in 2013 and receives grant money from the Department of Defense, is working on .......4......an even more agile version.

The inherent dangers of such powerful technology have inspired several leaders in the scientific .....5.....to voice concerns about Artificial Intelligence.

“Success in creating AI would be the biggest event in human history,” wrote Stephen Hawking in an op-ed, which appeared in The Independent in 2014. “Unfortunately, it might also be the last, unless we learn how to avoid the risks. In the near term, world militaries are considering autonomous-weapon systems that can choose and eliminate targets.” Professor Hawking added in a 2014 interview with BBC, “humans, limited by slow biological evolution, couldn’t .....6......and would be superseded by A.I.”

125

Pick the appropriate word to be filled in blank 1.

  1. ((a))

    has

  2. ((b))

    have

  3. ((c))

    had

  4. ((d))

    having

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

had

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. had.

The structure of the sentence is.

Sub + has/have + v3 + object. (Present perfect tense).

The given blank must be filled with the third form of the verb.

   v1          v2         v3         v4             v5

Have      Had      Had      Having       has

From the above verb form, the third form of the verb can be chosen as HAD.

126

Pick the appropriate word to be filled in blank 2.

  1. ((a))

    their

  2. ((b))

    his

  3. ((c))

    your

  4. ((d))

    our

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

their

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. their.

All the options are the possessive case and the suitable option will be their because it is used for soldiers.

This is the third person plural noun so the possessive case should be THEIR.

127

Pick the appropriate word to be filled in blank 3.

  1. ((a))

    Pound

  2. ((b))

    Foot

  3. ((c))

    Ounce

  4. ((d))

    Feet

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Foot

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Foot.

As there is word  TALL after it, we need to use qualifying adjective according to it.

When we are talking about something as a whole, we don't pluralize it. 

Here since we are considering the Humanoid Robot as a whole we use the measurement Foot

So, the correct answer is Option 2 Foot.

128

Pick the appropriate word to be filled in blank 4.

  1. ((a))

    destroying

  2. ((b))

    sabotaging

  3. ((c))

    disrupting

  4. ((d))

    developing 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

developing 

The correct answer is 4 i.e. developing.

destroying- end the existence of (something) by damaging or attacking it.

sabotaging- deliberately destroy, damage, or obstruct (something), especially for political or military advantage.

disrupting- interrupt (an event, activity, or process) by causing a disturbance or problem.

developing- growing and becoming more mature, advanced, or elaborate.

As there is a word AGILE after it that shows the fastness and swiftness, it can be  said working is being done on development.

Contextually this is correct

129

Pick the appropriate word to be filled in blank 5.

  1. ((a))

    community 

  2. ((b))

    region

  3. ((c))

    family

  4. ((d))

    locality

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

community 

The correct answer is option 1.e. community.

community- a group of people living in the same place or having a particular characteristic in common.

region- an area, especially the part of a country or the world having definable characteristics but not always fixed boundaries.

family- a group consisting of two parents and their children living together as a unit.

locality- the position or site of something.

As scientific is a group of people with the same profession, this is appropriate to use here.

130

Pick the appropriate word to be filled in blank 6.

  1. ((a))

    construction

  2. ((b))

    competition

  3. ((c))

    capacity

  4. ((d))

    capability

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of the above

The correct answer 5 i.e. None of the above.

As we need verb there at the place of blank and no option is verb here so, the  option will be none of the above.

131

Choose the correctly spelt word from among the following words.

  1. ((a))

    Concubenage

  2. ((b))

    Choreographer

  3. ((c))

    Astronout

  4. ((d))

    Millenniium

  5. ((e))

    Nonagenarean

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Choreographer

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 'Choreographer'

Key Points

  • The correctly spelt word is Choreographer.
  • 'Choreographer' which means  'A person who does the art of creating, arranging and recording the dance movements of a work, such as a ballet'.
  • Hence, option 2 is correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • The correct spellings and meanings of other words are:
  • Concubinage: The state of living together as man and wife while not being married.
  • Astronauts: A member of the crew of a spaceship or other spacecraft.
  • Millennium: A period of time consisting of one thousand years.
  • Nonagenarian: One who is between the age of 90 and 99 or one who is in his/her 10th decade.
132

Choose the correctly spelt word from among the following words.

  1. ((a))

    Omnipresent

  2. ((b))

    Plagearism

  3. ((c))

    Encyclopaidia

  4. ((d))

    Misogameest

  5. ((e))

    Spenister

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Omnipresent

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 'Omnipresent'

Key Points

  • The correctly spelt word is Omnipresent.
  • 'Omnipresent' which means 'Being everywhere simultaneously'.
  • Hence, option 1 is correct answer.

Additional Information

  • The correct spellings and meanings of the other words are:
  • Plagiarism: Copying of another person's ideas, text or other creative work.
  • Encyclopedia: Comprehensive reference with articles on a range of topics.
  • Misogamist: A person with a dislike or hatred of marriage.
  • Spinster: A woman who has never been married.
133

Choose the correctly spelt word from among the following words.

  1. ((a))

    Punctelious

  2. ((b))

    Provedential

  3. ((c))

    Precident

  4. ((d))

    Proscreption

  5. ((e))

    Temperament

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Temperament

The correct answer is Option 5 i.e. 'Temperament'

Key Points 

  • The correctly spelt word is Temperament.
  • 'Temperament' which means 'A person's usual manner of thinking, behaving or reacting'.
  • Hence, option 5 is correct answer.

Additional Information

  • The correct spelling and meaning of other words are:
  • Punctilious: Strictly attentive to detail, meticulous or  excessively particular.
  • Providential: Fortunate, preparation for the future.
  • Precedent: Past act used as example.
  • Proscription: A prohibition, decree of condemnation toward one or more persons.
134

Choose the correctly spelt word from among the following words.

  1. ((a))

    Intellegible

  2. ((b))

    Incomperable

  3. ((c))

    Incidental

  4. ((d))

    Neglegible

  5. ((e))

    Noteceable

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Incidental

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 'Incidental'

Key Points

  • The correct spelt word is Incidental.
  • 'Incidental' which means 'Loosely associated, occurring by chance'.
  • Hence, option 3 is correct answer**.**

Additional Information

  • The correct spellings and meanings of other words are:
  • Intelligible: Capable of being understood; clear to the mind.
  • Incomparable: beyond comparison.
  • Negligible: ignored, unimportant.
  • Noticeable: capable of being seen or noticed.
135

Choose the correctly spelt word from among the following words.

  1. ((a))

    Benificial

  2. ((b))

    Confedent

  3. ((c))

    Comtempteble

  4. ((d))

    Ceremonious

  5. ((e))

    Consederable

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ceremonious

  • The correct answer is Option 4 'Ceremonious' which means 'relating or appropriate to grand and formal occasions.'.
  • The correct spellings and meanings of other words are:
  • Beneficial: Helpful or good to something or someone.
  • Confident: Very sure of something, self-assured.
  • Contemptible: Deserving contempt, hateworthy.
  • Considerable: Significant, large in amount.
136

Directions: Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

After watching the world cup victory, all youngsters are __________ with cricket.

  1. ((a))

    Obsessed

  2. ((b))

    Inebriated

  3. ((c))

    Angry

  4. ((d))

    Happy

  5. ((e))

    neglected

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Obsessed

The correct answer is 'Obsessed'

Key Points

The meanings of the words provided in the options are:

  • Inebriated: drunk— cricket is not a drink to drink.
  • Cricket is not a person, to be angry or happy with.
  • Obsessed: preoccupied or filled the mind of (someone) continually.
  • Neglected: suffering a lack of proper care.

So, obsessed is the correct word that can fit in the blank.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

137

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

She was ______ to have worked with some renowned scientists of the world.

  1. ((a))

    favourable

  2. ((b))

    charmed

  3. ((c))

    fortunate

  4. ((d))

    affluent

  5. ((e))

    objected

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

fortunate

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The meaning of the given options:

Favorable: pleasing, encouraging.

Charmed: bewitched, impressed.

Fortunate: Auspicious, lucky.

Affluent: Somebody who is wealthy.

The given sentence is conveying the meaning that she was feeling lucky or fortunate to have worked with great personalities.

Therefore, option 3 fits the blank.

138

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Adali Khal is such a ______ village in Garhwal that hardly any tourist can reach there.

  1. ((a))

    lost

  2. ((b))

    remote

  3. ((c))

    lonesome

  4. ((d))

    dreaming

  5. ((e))

    realistic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

remote

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. remote.

Key Points

lost- unable to find one's way; not knowing one's whereabouts.

remote- (of a place) situated far from the main centres of population; distant.

lonesome- solitary or lonely.

dreaming- experience dreams during sleep.

realistic- showing a sensible and practical idea of what can be achieved or expected.

As hardly any tourist can reach there it means it is very far from the central area.

Only option 2 fits the blanks space contextually.

139

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

He once had a very frightening ______ with a wild bull.

  1. ((a))

    appointment

  2. ((b))

    encounter

  3. ((c))

    enterprise

  4. ((d))

    commitment

  5. ((e))

    judgement

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

encounter

The correct answer is encounter.

Key Points

Let's look at the meaning of the given options. 

  • appointment- an arrangement to meet someone at a particular time and place.
  • encounter- unexpectedly be faced with or experience (something hostile or difficult).
  • enterprise- a project or undertaking, especially a bold or complex one.
  • commitment- the state or quality of being dedicated to a cause, activity, etc.
  • judgment- the ability to make considered decisions or come to sensible conclusions.

Thus from the given meanings, we can conclude that the correct answer is encounter.

Therefore the correct answer is encounter.

140

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

During the elections political parties try to ______ their rivals in order to gain advantage.

  1. ((a))

    laud

  2. ((b))

    covet

  3. ((c))

    commend

  4. ((d))

    vilify

  5. ((e))

    composition

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

vilify

The correct answer is 4 i.e. vilify.

laud- praise (a person or their achievements) highly.

covet- yearn to possess (something, especially something belonging to another).

commend- praise formally or officially.

vilify- speak or write about in an abusively disparaging manner.

The chosen option fits the context the best.

141

Rearrange the given sentences in a meaningful order.

A) India is a land of varied culture and thus different fashion trends are followed in different parts of the country. 

B) Various kinds of fashions come in trend around the world every now and then.

C) People these days are very particular about staying in style and thus follow the fashion trends religiously. 

D) This particularly refers to clothing, hairstyle, footwear and various accessories. 

E) Fashion is something that is in vogue.

  1. ((a))

    ABCDE

  2. ((b))

    EDCBA

  3. ((c))

    BDCEA

  4. ((d))

    EDABC

  5. ((e))

    ABCED

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

EDCBA

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. EDCBA.

Key Points

  • The given sentences talk about fashion and the term fashion is introduced for the first time in sentence E. Hence it will be the first sentence.
  • In the sentence 'D' 'this' refers to the fashion which has been introduced in the sentence 'E', hence 'E' will be followed by 'D'.
  • Sentence 'C' talks about how people think about fashion these days and this connects sentence 'C' with 'D', hence the correct pair is 'EDC'.
  • This combination is followed is option 2 only.
142

Directions: In the following question, sentences of a paragraph have been jumbled and have been labelled as A, B, C, D and E. You are required to rearrange the jumbled sentences accordingly by selecting the correct option.

A. Millions of lives are lost annually throughout the world due to road accidents, resulting in huge loss of finance and resources for individuals as well as for the nation. 

B. Road Safety in today’s context is the most significant issue which relates to the safety of public on road.

C. There is an urgent need to make people more aware about road safety precautions and why they matter so much.  

D. Every year governments throughout the world spend billions on the treatment and welfare of accident victims and their rescue. 

E. Strict laws must also be implemented to enforce road safety norms.

  1. ((a))

    ABCDE

  2. ((b))

    EDCAB

  3. ((c))

    BACED

  4. ((d))

    BADCE

  5. ((e))

    BCADE

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

BADCE

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. BADCE.

Key Points

  • The given sentences talk about road safety and the sentence 'b' introduces the issue for the first time, hence, it will be the first sentence.
  • 'AD' makes the correct pair because in the sentence 'A' effects of road accidents on people and nation are discussed and in the sentence 'D' the expenses that government incur on the treatment of the accident victims are discussed.
  • So, we have got the sequence 'BAD', and it is given only in option 4, hence, the correct answer will be option 4.
143

Rearrange the given sentences in a meaningful order.

A) People use drugs for many reasons: they want to feel good, stop feeling bad, or perform better in school or at work, or they are curious because others are doing it and they want to fit in.

B) The last reason is very common among teens.

C) Drugs excite the parts of the brain that make you feel good. 

D) But after you take a drug for a while, the feel-good parts of your brain get used to it. 

E) Then you need to take more of the drug to get the same good feeling.

  1. ((a))

    DEACB

  2. ((b))

    ABCDE

  3. ((c))

    EDCBA

  4. ((d))

    ABDCE

  5. ((e))

    ABCED

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ABCDE

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. ABCDE.

  • The only independent sentence from the given sentences is 'A' as it talks about the reasons why people take drugs.
  • A' will be followed by 'B' because in the sentence 'A' reasons are mentioned and in the sentence 'B' it is said that the last reason is common among teens, which makes the pair 'AB'.
  • 'C' talks about the effects of drugs on the brain and 'D' further explains the effects, so, 'CD' will follow 'AB'.
  • Hence, ABCDE, is the correct sequence of the given sentences.
144

Rearrange the given sentences in a meaningful order.

A) Emerging infectious diseases are increasing, causing losses in both human and animal lives, as well as large costs to society.

B) The climate-sensitive vector-borne diseases are likely to be emerging due to climate changes and environmental changes, such as increased irrigation.

C) The human population is growing, requiring more space for food production, and needing more animals to feed it. 

D) Many factors are contributing to disease emergence, including climate change, globalization and urbanization, and most of these factors are to some extent caused by humans.

E) Pathogens may be more or less prone to emerging by themselves, and rapidly mutating viruses are more common among the emerging pathogens.

  1. ((a))

    ADBCE

  2. ((b))

    CADEB

  3. ((c))

    CABDE

  4. ((d))

    EACDB

  5. ((e))

    ABCDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CADEB

The correct answer is option 2) i.e CADEB.

  • The only independent sentence from the given sentences is 'C'. Hence the first sentence will be 'C'.
  • In the sentence 'C' human and animals are being talked about and in the sentence 'A' it is being said that diseases affect both human and animal lives. So, the sentences and 'C' and 'A' will come together.
  • In the sentence 'D', the factors contributing to diseases are discussed, hence, it will follow the sentence 'A'.
  • So, 'CAD' is the correct pair, which is given in only option 2).
  • So, the correct sequence will be: CADEB.
145

Rearrange the given sentences in a meaningful order.

A. There is no physical substance humans require more than freshwater: without water, we can only survive a few hellish days.

B. Soils, microorganisms, and plant roots all play a role in filtering and recycling out pollutants with a price far cheaper than building a water filtration plant.

C. Healthy freshwater ecosystems—watersheds, wetlands, and forests—naturally clean pollution and toxins from water. 

D. While pollution and overuse have threatened many of the world’s drinking water sources, nature has an old-fashioned solution, at least, to pollution.

E. According to research, the more biodiverse the ecosystem, the faster and more efficiently water is purified.

  1. ((a))

    ABCDE

  2. ((b))

    DBCEA

  3. ((c))

    ADCBE

  4. ((d))

    EABDC

  5. ((e))

    BCEDA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ADCBE

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. ADCBE.

Key Points

  • The only independent sentence from the given sentences is A. So, 'A' will be the first sentence. Hence, options 2, 4 and 5 are eliminated.
  • Sentence 'D' will be followed by 'C' because in the sentence 'D', it is said that nature has a solution to pollution and then in the sentence 'C' the process of filtration by nature is given. Hence, the correct pair is 'DC'.
  • So, 'ADC' is the correct pair which is given in only option 3.
  • Hence, ADCBE, is the correct sequence of the given sentences.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Only for dolphins and chimps do some scientists still argue that there is sufficient evidence for their overall cognitive superiority to the extent that these species should be set apart from other nonhuman animals. In the case of dolphins, their arguments are usually two-fold: bottlenose dolphins (and other cetacean species) have very large and complex brains, recognize themselves in the mirror, use tools, have ‘names', display some linguistic competences, and have self-awareness. Due to these observations, some scientists even demand that dolphins no longer be kept in captivity. These arguments have a political impact and countries like India have decided that ‘cetaceans should be ________ “nonhuman persons” and as such should have their own specific rights'. But how strong is the scientific evidence for the cognitive exceptionality of dolphins? Manger and colleagues extensively reanalyzed the cortical and hippocampal neuroanatomy of cetacea and came to radically different conclusions. In the last issue of Neuroscience, Manger also reviews the dolphin cognition literature and draws a quite sobering conclusion. But is his critique justified or does he throw the baby out with the bathwater?

Dolphins live in a primarily acoustic world and use a variety of auditory signals for communication. They use learned vocal labels to address each other, exchange signature whistles when meeting, and use their learned whistles in matching interactions in which an individual responds to a whistle of a conspecific by emitting the same whistle type. Studies in captivity have even revealed a certain understanding of syntactic properties in sequences of sounds and gestures. Especially Louis Herman made an impressive scientific lifetime achievement in demonstrating that dolphins understand referential pointing, report the presence or absence of objects, and understand imperative ‘sentences' delivered in either acoustic or gestural format. These ‘sentences' consisted of units that represented objects, actions, agents, and modifiers. They could be combined by rules such that hundreds of different complex commands could be produced. Dolphins also seem to understand the identity of humans and their TV representations since they also followed gestures from video displays, although with some constraints.

These cognitive achievements are certainly highly impressive. But, as pointed out by Manger, similar results could also be obtained from other species. Both chimpanzees and bonobos can learn and combine large numbers of symbols or gestures that stand for objects and actions. Chimpanzees produce functionally referential vocalizations which encode sufficient information about objects to allow conspecifics to respond accordingly.  Also, a California sea lion quickly learned equivalence classes between symbols as a possible means for referential communication. Some dogs can not only learn the names of more than 200 different toys but also acquire new names by exclusion such that the dog attends to a new toy when hearing a novel word. However, there is no evidence that dogs acquire syntactic rules. Also, some parrots label and address conspecifics and the receivers primarily respond to calls that address themselves. This is similar to the usage of whistles by dolphins to address other individuals. Alex, possibly the most famous parrot ever, not only learned English words to referentially label many objects and their colours but also used short phrases and understood that the same object could be defined by material, colour, shape, and object name. These data demonstrate that the ability to learn and to combine a large number of referential symbols and use them with a small set of syntactic rules is within the reach of several nonhuman animals from the avian and mammalian classes. Bottlenose dolphins are not alone.

146

Which of the following is true according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Bottlenose dolphin is the only species that has the ability to learn and to combine a large number of referential symbols.

  2. ((b))

    Bonobos cannot learn and combine large numbers of symbols or gestures that stand for objects and actions.

  3. ((c))

    Scientists say that dolphins and chimps should be set apart from other nonhuman animals.

  4. ((d))

    Unlike other cetacean species, bottlenose dolphins cannot recognise their reflection in the mirror.

  5. ((e))

    Scientists still argue that dolphins should not be released from captivity.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Scientists say that dolphins and chimps should be set apart from other nonhuman animals.

The correct answer is option 3.

**The first sentence of the passage states, "**Only for dolphins and chimps do some scientists still argue that there is sufficient evidence for their overall cognitive superiority to the extent that these species should be set apart from other nonhuman animals".

Therefore, we can conclude that option 3 is true according to the passage.

All the other options go against what has been told in the passage.

147

What do you mean by the idiom, "To throw the baby out with the bathwater"?

  1. ((a))

    To run after an impossible dream.

  2. ((b))

    To stop trying to do something and admit defeat.

  3. ((c))

    To discard an important thing while getting rid of others that are considered worthless.

  4. ((d))

    To fight or supress a strong urge or desire.

  5. ((e))

    To clean the house along with the baby.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To discard an important thing while getting rid of others that are considered worthless.

The correct answer is option 3.

'To throw the baby out with the bathwater' is an idiom that means 'to throw away a good/important thing while discarding unimportant or useless things.'

Therefore, option 3 is correct.

148

Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Dolphins live in a primarily acoustic world and use a variety of auditory signals for communication

  2. ((b))

    Some dogs can not even learn the names of 200 different toys.

  3. ((c))

    Chimpanzees produce functionally referential vocalizations which encode sufficient information about objects to allow conspecifics to respond accordingly.

  4. ((d))

    Louis Herman made an impressive scientific lifetime achievement in demonstrating that dolphins understand referential pointing.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Some dogs can not even learn the names of 200 different toys.

The correct answer is option 2.

The statements given in option 1, 3, 4 and 5  can be found in the passage, proving that they are clearly in accordance with the passage.

However, the statement given in option 2 is contrary to the point made in the passage, which was, "Some dogs can not only learn the names of more than 200 different toys but also acquire new names by exclusion such that the dog attends to a new toy when hearing a novel word".

Therefore, we can conclude that option 2 is not true according to the passage.

149

According to the passage, bottlenose dolphins cannot -

  1. ((a))

    Recognize themselves in the mirror

  2. ((b))

    Use tools

  3. ((c))

    Display some linguistic competences

  4. ((d))

    Have self-awareness

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of the above

The correct answer is option 5 i.e. None of the above.

According to the statement given in the passage, "bottlenose dolphins (and other cetacean species) have very large and complex brains, recognize themselves in the mirror, use tools, have ‘names', display some linguistic competences, and have self-awareness."

Clearly, there is nothing in the first four options that a bottlenose dolphin can NOT do.

Therefore, 'None of the above' is the correct answer.

150

Fill in the blank with a suitable option.

"Cetaceans should be ________ “nonhuman persons” and as such should have their own specific rights"

  1. ((a))

    Considered

  2. ((b))

    Watched

  3. ((c))

    Worshipped

  4. ((d))

    Prayed

  5. ((e))

    Scorned

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Considered

The correct answer is option 1. 

The passage speaks about the advanced and complex brains of dolphins and other cetacean species and tells us how these animals are more intelligent than an average animal.It goes on to tell us that due to these reasons and the discussions around them, some countries have started regarding them as an actual person instead of mere animals.

However, there are no statements regarding worshipping them or disrespecting them.

Therefore, the most suitable option here would be 'Considered'.

151

"Bottlenose dolphins are not alone", what does the author mean by this sentence?

  1. ((a))

    Only for dolphins do some scientists still argue that there is sufficient evidence for their overall cognitive superiority.

  2. ((b))

    Dolphins together live in a primarily acoustic world and use a variety of auditory signals for communication.

  3. ((c))

    Dolphins are kept in captivity along with other animal species.

  4. ((d))

    Apart from bottlenose dolphins, the ability to learn and to combine a large number of referential symbols and use them with a small set of syntactic rules is within the reach of several nonhuman animals from the avian and mammalian classes.

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Apart from bottlenose dolphins, the ability to learn and to combine a large number of referential symbols and use them with a small set of syntactic rules is within the reach of several nonhuman animals from the avian and mammalian classes.

The correct answer is option 4.

Looking at the last few lines of the passage saying, "These data demonstrate that the ability to learn and to combine a large number of referential symbols and use them with a small set of syntactic rules is within the reach of several nonhuman animals from the avian and mammalian classesBottlenose dolphins are not alone.", we can conclude that option 4 is the most suitable answer.

Also, none of the other options is in accordance with the context of the passage. Therefore, they are incorrect.

152

 Alex, a parrot mentioned in the passage, understands that the same object could be defined by-

  1. ((a))

    material

  2. ((b))

    colour

  3. ((c))

    shape

  4. ((d))

    object name

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is option 5.

According to a statement given in the passage, "Alex, possibly the most famous parrot ever, not only learned English words to referentially label many objects and their colours but also used short phrases and understood that the same object could be defined by material, colour, shape, and object name.".,  we can conclude that option 5 i.e. all of the above is correct.

153

Which of the following words is the most opposite in meaning to the word "imperative" as given in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Vital

  2. ((b))

    Crucial

  3. ((c))

    Important

  4. ((d))

    Optional

  5. ((e))

    Peremptory

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Optional

The correct answer is option 4.

Vital, important, crucial and peremptory are all synonyms of imperative.

The only word in the options with a contrasting meaning to the word imperative is 'optional'. 

Peremptory: insisting on immediate attention or obedience, especially in a brusquely imperious way.

154

Which of the following words comes the closest in meaning to the word "cognitive" as given in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Related to intellectual processes.

  2. ((b))

    Related to physical processes.

  3. ((c))

    Related to spiritual processes.

  4. ((d))

    Related to economical processes.

  5. ((e))

    Related to psychological processes.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Related to intellectual processes.

The correct answer is option 1.

The meaning of 'cognitive' is 'related to intellectual processes or mental activity'.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

155

Which of the following words comes the closest in meaning to the word "justified" as given in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    To show something to be just or right.

  2. ((b))

    To act in a disrespectful manner

  3. ((c))

    To talk in a boastful manner.

  4. ((d))

    To be irrational.

  5. ((e))

    To be condescending

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To show something to be just or right.

The correct answer is option 1.

The correct meaning of the word 'justified' is 'to show that something is just or right.'

156

Which of these sentences is/are grammatically correct?

A) I was reading Edgar Allan Poe last night.

B) I was read Edgar Allan Poe last night.

C) I reading Edgar Allan Poe last night.

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    A and C

  3. ((c))

    Only A

  4. ((d))

    only C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only A

  • The correct answer is Option 3.
  • The past continuous tense is used in this sentence. Hence, Sentence (A) is correct.
  • Sentence (B) and (C) have nonsensical tense usages. We cannot use V1 after was/were. 'ing' form of the verb is used after was/were.
  • There is no helping verb in sentence C), hence this is also a wrong sentence.
  • Therefore, Only A is the correct sentence
157

Which of these sentences is/are grammatically correct?

A) I shall buy a laptop after I receive my first salary.

B) I shall be buy a laptop after I receive my first salary.

C) I be buying a laptop after I receive my first salary

  1. ((a))

    A,B and C

  2. ((b))

    A and B 

  3. ((c))

    only B

  4. ((d))

    only A

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

only A

  • The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 'Only A'.
  • Sentence A is in the future indefinite tense. In this tense we use the structure 'will/shall + V1'. The structure is correctly followed by sentence A.
  • Sentence B is wrong because an auxiliary verb 'be' doesn't follow V1. It follows the 'ing' form or V3.
  • Sentence C is wrong because an auxiliary verb 'be' is always preceded by modals(will/shall/may/would etc)
158

Which of these question is/are grammatically correct?

A) Hardly the minister began his speech than the crowd pelted stones at him. 

B) Hardly had the minister began his speech than the crowd pelted stones at him.

C) Hardly had the minister begun his speech when the crowd pelted stones at him.

  1. ((a))

    A and C

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    C only 

  4. ((d))

    A and B

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C only 

  • The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 'Only C'
  • The conjunctions Hardly/scarcely are always followed by 'when'. Clearly, options 1 & 2 are eliminated.
  • If hardly is used at the beginning of a sentence before an auxiliary to say that one thing happens very soon after another thing. Then, the following pattern is followed:-
  • 'Hardly' clause - past perfect tense + 'when' clause - simple past tense.
  • Therefore, the structure is satisfied only by Option 3.
159

Which of these sentences is/are grammatically correct?

A) The library was constructed in record time and opened for the public. 

B) The library was constructing in record time and opened for the public. 

C) The library was constructed in record time and open for the public.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

  • The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 'Only A'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in both B and C sentences.
  • The given sentence is in the Passive form of Past indefinite tense.
  • This form follows the structure 'Object + was/were + V3......'
  • The structure is correctly followed in sentence A.
  • Sentence B is wrong because in passive voice 'was' doesn't take 'ing' form.
  • Sentence C is wrong because the verb is in V1 form instead of V3 because the sentence is in past tense.

Correct answer: "The library was constructed in record time and opened for the public." 

Additional Information

  • Past Indefinite uses was / were + V3 to convert Tense into passive voice.
  • Past Indefinite uses did in negative and interrogative sentences of active voice but uses helping verb was / were to make it passive voice.
  • In negative sentence Passive voice not is applied after helping verb. The helping verb was / were is applied at the beginning of the sentence in the interrogative sentence.
  • In passive voice, helping verb (was / were) is used according to the subject of the sentence. In active voice, singular number subject uses the helping verb was with I / He / She / It / Name and plural number subject we / you / They / uses the helping verb were with Plural noun.
  • | Person | Singular | Plural (P.V Subject) | | --- | --- | --- | | 1st Person | He beaten me. (A.V) | He beaten us. (A.V) | | I was beaten by him. (P.V) | We were beaten by him. (P.V) | | | 2nd Person | He beaten you. ( A.V) | | | You were beaten by him. (P.V) | | | | 3rd Person | He beaten her. (A.V) | He beaten them. — A.V | | She was beaten by him. (P.V) | They were beaten by him. (P.V) | |
160

Which of these sentences is/are grammatically correct?

A) He gone out to have food almost an hour ago but hasn't returned yet.

B) He went out to have food almost an hour ago but hasn't returned yet.

C) He went out to have food almost a hour ago but hasn't returned yet.

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    A and C

  3. ((c))

    B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B

  • The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 'Only B'.
  • Sentence A is wrong because there is no helping verb in this sentence.
  • Sentence B is Grammatically correct because the given sentence is in the past indefinite tense and in this tense V2 is used.
  • Sentence C is wrong because the article 'a' is used before vowel sounding word 'hour'. The correct article to be used is 'an'.

Numerical Ability (40 questions)

161

The speed of train A and train B is 93 km/hr and 51 km/hr, respectively. When both the trains are running in the opposite direction, they cross each other in 18 seconds. The length of train B is half of the length of train A. If train A crosses a bridge in 42 seconds, then find the length of the bridge.

  1. ((a))

    610 m

  2. ((b))

    480 m

  3. ((c))

    605 m

  4. ((d))

    240 m

  5. ((e))

    485 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

605 m

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed in opposite direction = 93 + 51 = 144 kmph = 144 × (5/18) = 40 m/s.

Total distance (Length A + Length B) = 40 × 18 = 720 m.

Since B = A/2, then A + A/2 = 720 ⇒ 1.5A = 720 ⇒ A = 480 m.

Distance covered by A in 42s = (93 × 5/18) × 42 = 1085 m.

Length of bridge = 1085 − 480 = 605 m.

∴ The correct answer is 605 m.

Alternate Method

Given: Speed of Train A = 93 km/hr, Speed of Train B = 51 km/hr, Crossing time = 18 s, Bridge crossing time = 42 s.

Formula Used: Relative Speed = S1 + S2 (Opposite); Distance = Speed × Time; 1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s.

⇒ Relative Speed = (93 + 51) × (5/18) = 144 × (5/18) = 40 m/s.

⇒ Let Length of Train A = 2x and Train B = x.

⇒ Total Length = 2x + x = 40 × 18 ⇒ 3x = 720 ⇒ x = 240 m.

⇒ Length of Train A = 2 × 240 = 480 m.

⇒ Speed of Train A in m/s = 93 × (5/18) = 15.5 × (5/3) = 25.833... or 310/12 = 155/6 m/s.

⇒ Total Distance for bridge crossing = Length A + Bridge = (155/6) × 42.

⇒ 480 + Bridge = 155 × 7 = 1085 m.

⇒ Bridge = 1085 − 480 = 605 m.

∴ The correct answer is 605 m.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in the opposite direction, relative speed is S1 + S2. When they move in the same direction, it is |S1 − S2|.

Crossing a Bridge/Platform

When a train crosses a stationary object of length L, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the object.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Directions: The following table shows the number of bananas sold by 5 fruit sellers and the relation of apples with bananas in 3rd column. Read the table carefully and answer the following question.

Fruit SellersNumber of Bananas sold% relation of Apples with Bananas
A20020% more
B30015% more
C25020% less
D36025% more
E40030% less
162

Had Apples sold by A is only 10% more than bananas sold by A, then find the ratio of the total number of bananas sold by B, C and E to the total number of apples sold by A, D and E.

  1. ((a))

    21 ∶ 19

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶ 1

  3. ((c))

    13 ∶ 15

  4. ((d))

    2 ∶ 3

  5. ((e))

    11 ∶ 15

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 ∶ 1

Total number of bananas sold by B , C and E = 300 + 250 + 400 = 950

Number of apples sold by A = 110/100 × 200 = 220

Number of apples sold by D = 125/100 × 360 = 450

Number of apples sold by E = 70/100 × 400 = 280

Total number of apples sold by A, D and E = 220 + 450 + 280 = 950

∴ The ratio of the total number of bananas sold by B, C and E to the total number of apples sold by A, D and E = 950 : 950 = 1 : 1

163

The total number of apples sold by B and D together is approximately what percent more than the number of bananas sold by C and E together?

  1. ((a))

    26%

  2. ((b))

    19%

  3. ((c))

    22%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    27%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

22%

Number of apples sold by B = 115/100 × 300 = 345

Number of apples sold by D = 125/100 × 360 = 450

Total number of apples sold by B and D together = 345 + 450 = 795

The number of bananas sold by C and E together = 250 + 400 = 650

∴ The number of apples sold by B and D together exceeds the number of bananas sold by C and E together by: 795 - 650 = 145

∴ The approximate percent by which the total number of apples sold by B and D together is more than the number of bananas sold by C and E together:

= 145/650 × 100 = 22.3%

≈ 22%

164

Find the average of the total number of apples sold by all the fruit sellers together.

  1. ((a))

    289

  2. ((b))

    297

  3. ((c))

    309

  4. ((d))

    293

  5. ((e))

    303

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

303

Number of apples sold by A = 120/100 × 200 = 240

Number of apples sold by B = 115/100 × 300 = 345

Number of apples sold by C = 80/100 × 250 = 200

Number of apples sold by D = 125/100 × 360 = 450

Number of apples sold by E = 70/100 × 400 = 280

∴ The average of the total number of apples sold by all the fruit sellers together = ( 240 + 345 + 200 + 450 + 280) / 5 = 303

165

The total fruits sold by B is approximately what percent of the total fruits sold by D?

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    85%

  3. ((c))

    80%

  4. ((d))

    90%

  5. ((e))

    72%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

80%

Number of apples sold by B = 115/100 × 300 = 345

∴ Total fruits sold by B = Number of bananas sold by B + Number of apples sold by B

= 300 + 345 = 645

Number of apples sold by D = 125/100 × 360 = 450

∴ Total fruits sold by D = Number of bananas sold by D + Number of apples sold by D

= 360 + 450 = 810

∴ 645/810 × 100 = 79.62% ≈ 80%

∴ The total fruits sold by B is approximately 80% of the total fruits sold by D.

166

What is the ratio of the average of bananas sold by A, B and E together to the average of apples sold by C and E together?

  1. ((a))

    4 ∶ 5

  2. ((b))

    5 ∶ 4

  3. ((c))

    15 ∶ 8

  4. ((d))

    10 ∶ 7

  5. ((e))

    5 ∶ 6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5 ∶ 4

The ratio of the average of bananas sold by A, B and E together = (200 + 300 + 400) / 3 = 300

Number of apples sold by C = 80/100 × 250 = 200

Number of apples sold by E = 70/100 × 400 = 280

Average of apples sold by C and E together = (200 + 280) / 2 = 240

∴ The ratio of the average of bananas sold by A, B and E together to the average of apples sold by C and E together = 300 : 240 = 5 : 4

167

A can complete a piece of work in 40 days and B is 30% more efficient than A. In how many days will the work be completed, if both are working together?

  1. ((a))

    600/23

  2. ((b))

    400/23

  3. ((c))

    500/23

  4. ((d))

    380/23

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

400/23

GIVEN :

A can complete a piece of work in 40 days.

B is 30% more efficient than A.

FORMULA USED :

Efficiency ∝ 1/Time

CALCULATION :

Ratio of efficiency of A to B = 100 : 130 = 10 : 13

Total work = 40 × 10 = 400

Efficiency of A and B = 10 + 13 = 23

Time taken by A and B to complete the work = (400/23) Days

168

The total circumference of two circles C1 and C2 are 198 cm. If the radius of circle C2 is 25% more than the radius of circle C1, then find the area of circle C1.

  1. ((a))

    612 cm2

  2. ((b))

    416 cm2

  3. ((c))

    616 cm2

  4. ((d))

    636 cm2

  5. ((e))

    438 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

616 cm2

Let the radius of Circle C1 = r1 and the radius of circle C2 = r2.

The total circumference of two circles C1 and C2 are 198 cm.

∴ 2π ( r1 + r2 ) = 198 cm

2 × (22/7) × ( r1 + r2 ) = 198 cm

∴ r1 + r2 = (198 × 7) / (2 × 22) = 31.5 cm.

The radius of circle C2 is 25% more than the radius of circle C1.

∴ r2 = 1.25 r1

∴ r1 + 1.25 r1 = 31.5 cm

∴ 2.25 r1 = 31.5 cm

∴ r1 = 14 cm.

Area of circle C1 =π r12

= 22/7 × (142)

= 616 cm2

169

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity 1: (y – 1/3)2 = 25/36

Quantity 2: x2 – 3x/4 – 1/4 = 0

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Quantity 1∶ (y – 1/3)2 = 25/36

⇒ y – 1/3 = +5/6      or      y – 1/3 = -5/6

y = 7/6      or      y = -1/2

Quantity 2∶ x2 – 3x/4 – 1/4 = 0

⇒ 4x2 – 4x + x – 1 = 0

⇒ 4x(x – 1) + 1(x – 1) = 0

⇒ (4x + 1) (x – 1) = 0

⇒ x = -1/4, x = 1

∴ Relation cannot be established

170

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity 1: If the sum of the circumference and the radius of a circle is 102 cm then find the quantity of radius of the same circle.

Quantity 2: If the perimeter of a rectangle is 42 cm and the length of the rectangle is twice the width then find the length of the rectangle.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Quantity 1: Let 'r' be the radius of the circle.

Given that,

Circumference + radius = 102 cm.

2 × π × r + r = 102

⇒ r = 14 cm.

Quantity 2: Let length and width of rectangle be l and b.

Given that,

perimeter of rectangle = 42 cm and l = 2b 

⇒ 2(l + b) = 42

⇒ l + b = 21

⇒ 3b = 21

⇒ b = 7 cm. 

⇒ l = 2 × 7 = 14 cm.

∴ length of rectangle is 14 cm.

Quantity 1 = Quantity 2

171

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

There are two people A and B who bought a book at the same cost and they mark up the price by 25%.

Quantity 1: A sells the book after giving some discount, he bears no profit no loss on the transaction. Find the discount percent.

Quantity 2: B gives the discount of Rs. 25 and the difference between the cost price and the discount is Rs.175, find the profit percent of the whole transaction.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

Let the cost price for both A and B be 100.

Marked up price = 100 + 100 × 25% = 125

<br>

Quantity 1: For the condition of no profit and no loss,

SP = CP = 100

Discount percent = (125 - 100)/125 × 100 = 20%

<br>

Quantity 2: CP - Discount = 175

                  CP - 25 = 175

                  CP = Rs.200

                  MP = 125% of 200 = 250

                   MP = Rs.250

                   SP = 250 - 25 = 225        (Discount = Rs.25)

                   Percentage profit = (225 - 200)/200 × 100 = 12.5%

 Quantity 1 > Quantity 2.

172

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity 1: If the interest earned on some principal for one year is 16% of the principle. Find the rate of interest.

Quantity 2: If the compound interest for 2 years earned on the principle of Rs.1500 is Rs.315, find the rate of interest.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

Let the principal and rate of interest be P and R.

<br>

Quantity 1:

simplest interest for 1 year = (P × R × 1)/100

ATQ,     

16% of P = PR/100

4P/25 = PR/100 

R = 16%

Quantity 2:

Amount = Principal + Interest 

= 1500 + 315

= Rs.1815

1815 = 1500 × (1 + R/100)2                                              {Using formula, A = P(1 + R/100)n }

⇒ 121/100 = (1 + R/100)2

⇒ 11/10 = 1 + R/100

⇒ 1/10 = R/100

⇒ R = 10%

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2.

173

Given below are two algebraic equation named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity A: x2 – 7x + 12 = 0

Quantity B: y2 – 13y + 42 = 0

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

Quantity A: x2 – 7x + 12 = 0

⇒ x2  - 4x - 3x + 12 = 0

⇒ x(x - 4) - 3(x - 4) = 0

⇒ (x - 4)(x - 3) = 0

⇒ x = 4 or x = 3

Quantity B: y2 – 13y + 42 = 0

⇒ y2 - 6y - 7y + 42 = 0

⇒ y(y - 6) -7(y - 6) = 0

⇒ (y - 7)(y - 6) = 0

⇒ y = 7 or y = 6

hence, x < y.

174

The ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 9 ∶ 2. If 110 litres of the mixture is removed then the difference between the quantity of milk and water becomes 42 litres. Find the final quantity of the mixture.

  1. ((a))

    60 litres

  2. ((b))

    66 litres

  3. ((c))

    64 litres

  4. ((d))

    62 litres

  5. ((e))

    68 litres

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

66 litres

The ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 9 ∶ 2

After removing 110 litres of the mixture the ratio of milk and water will be same i.e. 9 : 2

Let in final quantity of mixture, quantity of milk be 9x and quantity of water be 2x.

∴ Difference between the quantity of milk and water in the final mixture = 9x - 2x = 7x = 42

∴ x = 42/7 = 6

∴ The final quantity of mixture = 9x + 2x = 11x

= 11 × 6

= 66 litres

175

A, B and C invested Rs. 18000, Rs. 20000 and Rs. 24000, respectively, for 4 months. They further invested Rs 2000 more for the next 4 months. If the profit share of A at the end of 8 months is Rs. 7600, then find the profit share of B and C together at the end of 8 months.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 18400

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 16800

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 17300

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 19200

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 18600

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 18400

Profit = Investment × time

∴ Ratio of the profit share of A , B and C at the end of 8 months :

= [(18000 × 4) + (20000 × 4)] : [(20000 × 4) + (22000 × 4)] : [(24000 × 4) + (26000 × 4)]

= 38 : 42 : 50

Let the profit share of A , B and C be 38x , 42x and 50x respectively

According to question:

38x = 7600

∴ x = 200

∴ profit share of B and C together at the end of 8 months = 42x + 50x = 92x

= 92 × 200

= Rs. 18400

Direction∶ A vehicle manufacturing company sells three types of vehicles; 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers in two different sessions 2010-2012 and 2013-2015. In the first session, the ratio of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold is 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 2.  Also, 3 wheelers sold in this session is 20% more than the same type of wheelers sold in the second session. The total vehicles sold in session 2010-2012 is 12 lacs. The 4 wheelers sold in 2013-2015 is 20,000 more than the 2 wheelers sold in 2010-2012. The 2 wheelers sold in 2013-15 are 12.5% more than that of sold in 2010-12.

176

The number of 3 wheelers sold during 2013-2015 is what percent of the number of 4 wheelers sold in the same session?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    70%

  4. ((d))

    65%

  5. ((e))

    80%

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

80%

Given that,

Total vehicles sold in 2010-2012 = 12 lacs

The ratio of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold = 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 2

Total (1 + 2 + 2) units = 12 lacs

5 units = 12 lacs

1 unit = 2.4

In the first session, the number of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold are 2.4 lacs, 4.8 lacs and 4.8 lacs respectively.

The 4 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 lacs + 20,000 = 5 lacs

The 3 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 × 100/120 = 4 lacs

The 2 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 + 4.8 × 12.5% = 5.4 lacs

Session4 wheelers sold (in lacs)3 wheelers (in lacs)2 wheelers(in lacs)
2010-122.44.84.8
2013-15545.4
<br>

Required percentage,

= 4/5 × 100 

= 80%

177

If the ratio of the number of cars (4 wheelers)sold in session 2016-2018 to the number of cars sold in 2010-2012 is 7 ∶ 8, then calculate the approximate average cars sold in all three sessions.

  1. ((a))

    3.2 lacs

  2. ((b))

    4.6 lacs

  3. ((c))

    2.8 lacs

  4. ((d))

    6.8 lacs

  5. ((e))

    7.4 lacs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.2 lacs

Given that,

Total vehicles sold in 2010-2012 = 12 lacs

The ratio of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold = 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 2

Total (1 + 2 + 2) units = 12 lacs

5 units = 12 lacs

1 unit = 2.4

In the first session, the number of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold are 2.4 lacs, 4.8 lacs and 4.8 lacs respectively.

The 4 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 lacs + 20,000 = 5 lacs

The 3 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 × 100/120 = 4 lacs

The 2 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 + 4.8 × 12.5% = 5.4 lacs

Session4 wheelers sold (in lacs)3 wheelers (in lacs)2 wheelers(in lacs)
2010-122.44.84.8
2013-15545.4

 

Given the ratio of the number of cars(4 wheelers) sold in 2016-18 to sold in 2013-2015 = 7 ∶ 8

According to the question,

8 units = 2.4 lacs

1 unit = 0.3 lacs

7 units = 2.1 lacs      (4 wheelers sold in 2016-18)

Average 4 wheelers sold = (2.1 + 2.4 + 5)/3 = 3.166

∴ The approximate average cars sold in all three sessions 3.2 lacs.

178

If in session 2010-2012, the production of 4 wheelers and 2 wheelers are 2.8 lacs and 5 lacs, respectively, then find the ratio of unsold vehicles of the same type.

  1. ((a))

    3 ∶ 1

  2. ((b))

    2 ∶ 1

  3. ((c))

    5 ∶ 4

  4. ((d))

    4 ∶ 1

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2 ∶ 1

Given that,

Total vehicles sold in 2010-2012 = 12 lacs

The ratio of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold = 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 2

Total (1 + 2 + 2) units = 12 lacs

5 units = 12 lacs

1 unit = 2.4 lacs

In the first session, the number of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold are 2.4 lacs, 4.8 lacs and 4.8 lacs respectively.

The 4 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 lacs + 20,000 = 5 lacs

The 3 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 × 100/120 = 4 lacs

The 2 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 + 4.8 × 12.5% = 5.4 lacs

Session4 wheelers sold (in lacs)3 wheelers (in lacs)2 wheelers(in lacs)
2010-122.44.84.8
2013-15545.4
<br>

The unsold 4 wheelers for 2010-12 = 2.8 - 2.4 = 0.4 lacs

The unsold 2 wheelers for 2010-12 = 5 - 4.8 = 0.2 lacs

the ratio of unsold vehicles = 0.4 : 0.2 = 2 : 1.

179

If in session 2013-2015, the sale of 2 wheelers is only 52000 then find the ratio of the total sale in session 2010-2012 to 2013-2015.

  1. ((a))

    111 ∶ 119

  2. ((b))

    150 ∶ 119

  3. ((c))

    120 : 119

  4. ((d))

    113 : 119

  5. ((e))

    115 ∶ 119

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

150 ∶ 119

In the session 2010-2012, the ratio of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold = 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 2

The total vehicles sold in session 2010-2012 = 12 lacs

4 wheelers sold in 2010-2012 = 12/5 lacs

3 wheelers sold in 2010-2012 = 2 × 12/5  = 24/5 lacs

2 wheelers sold in 2010-2012 = 2 × 12/5  = 24/5 lacs

The 4 wheelers sold in 2013-2015 =480000 + 20000 = 5 lacs

The 3 wheelers sold in 2013-2015 = (24/5) × (100/120) = 4 lacs

The 2 wheelers sold in 2013-2015 = 52000

The total vehicles sold in session 2013-2015 = 5 + 4 + 0.52 lacs = 9.52

The ratio of the total sale in session 2010-2012 to 2013-2015 = 12 : 9.52 = 1200 : 952 = 150 : 119

180

Find the ratio of the 3 wheelers sold in both sessions taken together to 2 wheelers sold  in both sessions taken together.

  1. ((a))

    44 : 53

  2. ((b))

    21 : 43

  3. ((c))

    44 : 51

  4. ((d))

    71 : 77

  5. ((e))

    53 : 44

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

44 : 51

Given that,

Total vehicles sold in 2010-2012 = 12 lacs

The ratio of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold = 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 2

Total (1 + 2 + 2) units = 12 lacs

5 units = 12 lacs

1 unit = 2.4

In the first session, the number of 4 wheelers, 3 wheelers and 2 wheelers sold are 2.4 lacs, 4.8 lacs and 4.8 lacs respectively.

The 4 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 lacs + 20,000 = 5 lacs

The 3 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 × 100/120 = 4 lacs

The 2 wheelers sold in 2013-15 = 4.8 + 4.8 × 12.5% = 5.4 lacs

Session4 wheelers sold (in lacs)3 wheelers (in lacs)2 wheelers(in lacs)
2010-122.44.84.8
2013-15545.4

 

Total 3 wheelers sold in both sessions = 4.8 + 4 = 8.8 lacs

Total 2 wheelers sold in both sessions = 4.8 + 5.4 = 10.2 lacs

Required ratio,

= 8.8 : 10.2

or 44 : 51

181

A boat can travel 88.2 km downstream in 4 hrs 12 mins. The speed of the stream is 2.5 km/hr. If the speed of stream reduces by 50% then find the distance travelled by boat upstream in 4 hrs?

  1. ((a))

    69 km

  2. ((b))

    64 km

  3. ((c))

    84 km

  4. ((d))

    79 km

  5. ((e))

    71 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

69 km

Let the speed of the boat in still water be x kmph. 

Therefore, speed of the boat travelling downstream = (x + 2.5)

Given that,

Boat is going 88.2 km downstream in 4 hrs and 12 min i.e. 88.2/(x + 2.5) = 4 + 12/60

⇒ 88.2/(x + 2.5) = 21/5

⇒ x = 18.5 kmph

Speed of stream gets reduced by 50%.

i.e. 2.5/2 = 1.25 kmph

speed of the boat upstream = (18.5 - 1.25) = 17.25 kmph

distance travelled by boat upstream in 4 hours = 17.25 × 4 = 69 km    (using formula, distance = speed × time)

Direction∶ Read the below data carefully and answer the following question∶

In a game show, lucky draw was conducted. Every participant received a prize. There was ‘n’ number of people who got consolation prizes. The value of each consolation prize is 10% of the prize money received by the winner of the lucky draw. It is known that the total prize money of the people’s consolation prizes is equal to the prize money of the winner.

182

Find the number of people in the lucky draw.

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11

Let the prize money given to winner be Rs. 10x.

Consolation prize given to each person losing = 10% of 10x = Rs.x

ATQ,

The total prize money of the people’s consolation prizes = The prize money of the winner

n × x = 10x

n = 10.

The number of people in the lucky draw is 10 + 1 = 11.

183

If the winner of the lucky draw gets 25% less than the original prize that he was promised to be given and the amount that was saved from this was distributed to the rest of the people who participated in the lucky draw. Find the ratio of the prize money of the winner now to the total money used as a consolation prize.

  1. ((a))

    12 ∶ 7

  2. ((b))

    5 ∶ 8

  3. ((c))

    2 ∶ 9

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 5

  5. ((e))

    4 ∶ 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 ∶ 5

Let the prize money given to winner be Rs.10x.

Consolation prize given to each person losing = 10% of 10x = Rs.x

If the prize money was reduced by 25%.

New prize money = 10x - 10x × 25% = 7.5x

The money saved = 10x - 7.5x = 2.5x

The money given to people losing now = 10x + 2.5x = 12.5x

The ratio of the prize money of the winner now to the total money used as a consolation prize = 7.5x : 12.5x or 3 : 5.

184

If the ratio of male to female in the total number of people is 4 ∶ 7. Find the total number of females in the lucky draw.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7

total number of people participating in lucky draw = n + winner 

Let the prize money given to winner be Rs.10x.

Consolation prize given to each person losing = 10% of 10x = Rs.x

ATQ,

The total prize money of the people’s consolation prizes = The prize money of the winner

n × x = 10x

n = 10.

total number of people participating in lucky draw = n + winner 

                                                                               = 10 + 1 = 11.

now ratio of male to female = 4 : 7

total (4 + 7) units = 11

          11 units = 11

           1 unit = 1

female in lucky draw = 7 units = 7 ×  1 = 7.

185

In a given series of 13 numbers, in which all numbers are in ascending order, the average of this series is 19. If the first number is 5 then what can be the maximum value of 13th number.

  1. ((a))

    123

  2. ((b))

    131

  3. ((c))

    111

  4. ((d))

    121

  5. ((e))

    113

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

121

numbers in the series = 13

Average of the series = 19

Sum of all the numbers = 13 × 19 = 247

if first number is 5 and the series is in ascending order the number must be greater than 5.

hence take the numbers as 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16

Sum of all these numbers except the 13th number = 126.

the maximum possible value of the greatest number = 247 - 126 = 121.

186

Five years ago, A’s age is 3.2 times that of B’s and after 7 years, the ratio of their ages will be 20 ∶ 9. Find the sum of their present age.

  1. ((a))

    63

  2. ((b))

    73

  3. ((c))

    67

  4. ((d))

    53

  5. ((e))

    79

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

73

Let B's age five year ago be x

∴ A's age five year ago will be 3.2x

Age of A after 7 years from now will be = 3.2x + 5 + 7 = 3.2x + 12

Age of B after 7 years from now will be = x + 5 + 7 = x + 12

According to question:

(3.2x + 12) / (x + 12) = 20 / 9

∴ 28.8x + 108 = 20x + 240

∴ 8.8x = 132

∴ x = 15

∴ The sum of their present age = (3.2x + 5) + (x + 5)

= (3.2 × 15) + 5 + (15 + 5)

= 73

Directions∶ The following bar graph shows the number of pages in five different books (viz. A, B, C, D and E). Study the graph carefully and answer the following questions.

187

After reading 1/5th of the pages of book E, how many pages remain unread?

  1. ((a))

    150

  2. ((b))

    160

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    120

  5. ((e))

    140

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

160

Total pages in book E = 200

Pages read by person = 200/5 = 40

Remaining unread pages = 200 - 40 = 160

188

In book B, every even number page contains 75 words and the odd number pages contain 60 words. A person read the first 43 pages and stop reading and, on another day, read the last 216 pages. Find how many words remain unread.

  1. ((a))

    2640

  2. ((b))

    2745

  3. ((c))

    2675

  4. ((d))

    2775

  5. ((e))

    2680

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2775

Number of word in even pages = 75 words

Nummbe of word in odd pages = 60 words

Person stop reading from starting = (300 - 216) = 84

Unread pages = 44 to 84

Number of unread odd pages = [(83 - 45)/2] + 1 = 20

Unread words = 20 × 60 = 1200 

Number of unread even pages = [(84 - 44)/2] + 1 = 21

Unread words = 21 × 75 = 1575

Total unread words = 1200 + 1575 = 2775

189

What is the ratio of total number of pages in book B and E together to the total number of pages in book C and D together?

  1. ((a))

    30 ∶ 37

  2. ((b))

    15 ∶ 23

  3. ((c))

    25 ∶ 33

  4. ((d))

    10 ∶ 13

  5. ((e))

    28 ∶ 31

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25 ∶ 33

Total number of pages in book B and E = 300 + 200 = 500

Total number of pages in book C and D = 400 + 260 = 660

the ratio of total number of pages in book B and E together to the total number of pages in book C and D together = 500 : 660 = 25 : 33

190

If every page of book C contains 60 words and a person reads 1/4th of the book, then find how many total words read by him.

  1. ((a))

    2400

  2. ((b))

    3600

  3. ((c))

    5400

  4. ((d))

    6000

  5. ((e))

    9000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6000

Total number of pages read by person = 400/4 = 100

Total words read by person = 100 × 60 = 6000

191

A person had read 1/3rd of the book A on the first day, 1/4th of the remaining on the second day. Find how many pages remains unread on the second day.

  1. ((a))

    160

  2. ((b))

    140

  3. ((c))

    120

  4. ((d))

    240

  5. ((e))

    180

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

180

Total pages in book A = 360

Pages read by person on first day = 360/3 = 120

Remaining unread pages = 360 - 120 = 240

Pages read by person on second day = 240/4 = 60

Remaining unread pages = 240 - 60 = 180

192

Tickets numbered 1 to 50 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 8?

  1. ((a))

    1/7

  2. ((b))

    7/26

  3. ((c))

    3/25

  4. ((d))

    2/5

  5. ((e))

    3/5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3/25

Shortcut Trick

Total outcomes = 50 (numbers 1 to 50).

Multiples of 8 up to 50 = 50 ÷ 8 ≈ 6 (Specifically: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48).

Probability = Favorable outcomes ÷ Total outcomes = 6 ÷ 50 = 3/25.

∴ The correct answer is 3/25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of tickets = 50.

Condition: Drawn ticket must be a multiple of 8.

Formula Used:

Probability P(E) = n(E) ÷ n(S)

Calculations:

⇒ Sample space n(S) = {1, 2, 3, ..., 50} = 50.

⇒ Favorable outcomes E = {8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48}.

⇒ Number of favorable outcomes n(E) = 6.

⇒ P(E) = 6 ÷ 50

⇒ P(E) = 3 ÷ 25

∴ The correct answer is 3/25.

Additional Information

Definition of Probability

Probability is the measure of likelihood of an event occurring, calculated as favorable outcomes divided by total possible outcomes. 0 ≤ P(E) ≤ 1.

Complementary Event

The probability of an event not occurring is P(E') = 1 − P(E). For this problem, probability of not picking a multiple of 8 is 1 − 3/25 = 22/25.

Multiples in a Range

The count of multiples of 'k' in the range 1 to 'n' is given by the greatest integer function [n/k]. Here, [50/8] = 6.

193

Two persons A and B invest amounts ‘x’ and ‘x + 600’ in a business, respectively. The ratio of the months for which they are investing their money is in the ratio 2 ∶ 3. If the profit of B is Rs. 2750 and the total profit is Rs. 3850 then find the value of ‘x’.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 800

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 900

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1200

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 600

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 900

GIVEN :

Two persons A and B invest amounts ‘x’ and ‘x + 600’ in a business respectively.

The ratio of the months for which they are investing their money is in the ratio 2 ∶ 3.

If the profit of B is Rs. 2750 and the total profit is Rs. 3850.

 

FORMULA USED :

Profit = Investment x Time

 

ASSUMPTION :

Let the time for which A and B invested be 2a and 3a respectively.

Investment ratio = x : (x + 600)

Month ratio = 2a : 3a

Profit ratio = 2a × x : 3a × (x + 600) or 2x : 3(x + 600)

 

CALCULATION :

According to the question,

Ratio of profit of A to B's profit = (3850 - 2750) : 2750 or 2 : 5

Now,

⇒ 2x / (3x + 1800) = 2/5

⇒ x = Rs.900

194

A black pipe can empty a tank in 8 hours, while a red pipe can fill it in 3 hours. If the tank is initially half-filled and the red pipe is opened in it, how many black pipes are required in total to be opened in it to empty the tank in 12 hours?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

Given :

A tank is initially half-filled

A black pipe can empty a tank = 8 hours

a red pipe can fill a tank = 3 hours

Red pipe is opened first

Calculations:

Let the number of black pipes opened be ‘x’ 

Part filled by red pipe in 1 hr. = 1/3

Part of tank initially filled = 1/2

Part of tank filled in 12 hrs. = 1/2 + 12 × (1/3) = 1/2 + 4 = 9/2

Now,

Part emptied by 1 black pipe in 1 hr. = 1/8

Part emptied by x black pipes in 1 hr. = x/8

Part emptied by x black pipes in 12 hrs. = 12 × x/8 = 3 × x/2

⇒ 3 × x/2 = 9/2

⇒ x = 9/3 = 3

∴ 3 black pipes should be opened.

Directions∶ The first pie chart shows the percentage of (Leather + Non-leather) shoes of different brands A, B, C, D and E and the second pie chart shows the percentage of Leather shoes in a particular brand. Read the chart carefully and answer the following questions.

195

Find the average of the total number of Non-leather shoes by B, C and D brands together.

  1. ((a))

    223

  2. ((b))

    153

  3. ((c))

    163

  4. ((d))

    167

  5. ((e))

    157

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

153

Given, the 

total number of shoes = 1500

in brand A = 20% of 1500 = 300

in brand B = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand C = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand D = 25% of 1500 = 375

in brand E = 35% of 1500 = 525

Total number of leather shoes in different brands = 360 

In brand A = 10% of 360 = 36

In brand B = 15% of 360 = 54

In brand C = 20% of 360 = 72

In brand D = 25% of 360 = 90 

In brand E = 30% of 360 = 108

Tabular form of given data,

BrandNon-leather 
+ leather shoes
Leather shoesNon-leather shoes
A30036264
B1505496
C1507278
D37590285
E525108417
<br>

Average number of non-leather shoes in brands B,C and D = (96 + 78 + 285)/3

⇒ 153 shoes.

 

∴ the average of the total non-leather shoes from brands B,C and D will be 153.

196

The total number of leather shoes of C, D and E brands together is what percent of the total number of the Non-leather shoes of brands A and B together?

  1. ((a))

    66.66%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    70%

  4. ((d))

    75%

  5. ((e))

    65%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

75%

Given,

Total number of shoes = 1500

in brand A = 20% of 1500 = 300

in brand B = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand C = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand D = 25% of 1500 = 375

in brand E = 35% of 1500 = 525

Total number of leather shoes in different brands = 360 

In brand A = 10% of 360 = 36

In brand B = 15% of 360 = 54

In brand C = 20% of 360 = 72

In brand D = 25% of 360 = 90 

In brand E = 30% of 360 = 108

The tabular form of given data,

BrandNon-leather 
+ leather shoes
Leather shoesNon-leather shoes
A30036264
B1505496
C1507278
D37590285
E525108417
<br>

The total number of non-leather shoes of brands A and B = 264 + 96 = 360

The total number of Leather shoes of brands C, D and E = 72 + 90 + 108 = 270

Required percentage,

270 = 360 × x/100

⇒ 75%

197

Find the ratio of total number of leather shoes of A and B brands together to the total number of Non-leather shoes of C and E brands together.

  1. ((a))

    10 ∶ 121

  2. ((b))

    5 ∶ 21

  3. ((c))

    13 ∶ 31

  4. ((d))

    22 ∶ 51

  5. ((e))

    2 ∶ 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

2 ∶ 11

Given, the 

total number of shoes = 1500

in brand A = 20% of 1500 = 300

in brand B = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand C = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand D = 25% of 1500 = 375

in brand E = 35% of 1500 = 525

Total number of leather shoes in different brands = 360 

In brand A = 10% of 360 = 36

In brand B = 15% of 360 = 54

In brand C = 20% of 360 = 72

In brand D = 25% of 360 = 90 

In brand E = 30% of 360 = 108

Tabular form of given data,

BrandNon-leather 
+ leather shoes
Leather shoesNon-leather shoes
A30036264
B1505496
C1507278
D37590285
E525108417
<br>

Total number of leather shoes from brands A and B together = 36 + 54 = 90

Total number of non-leather shoes from brands C and E together = 78 + 417 = 495

Required ratio = 90 : 495 = 2 : 11.

198

The total number of Non-leather shoes of A and B brands together is what percent less than the total number of shoes of D and E together?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    45%

  4. ((d))

    60%

  5. ((e))

    66.66%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

60%

Given, the 

total number of shoes = 1500

in brand A = 20% of 1500 = 300

in brand B = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand C = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand D = 25% of 1500 = 375

in brand E = 35% of 1500 = 525

Total number of leather shoes in different brands = 360 

In brand A = 10% of 360 = 36

In brand B = 15% of 360 = 54

In brand C = 20% of 360 = 72

In brand D = 25% of 360 = 90 

In brand E = 30% of 360 = 108

Tabular form of given data,

BrandNon-leather 
+ leather shoes
Leather shoesNon-leather shoes
A30036264
B1505496
C1507278
D37590285
E525108417

 

The number of non-leather shoes of A and B = 264 + 96 = 360

The total number of shoes of D and E = 375 + 525 = 900

Required percentage,

= (900 - 360)/900 × 100 

= 540/900 × 100 

= 60%

199

Which of the following statement is true regarding the given pie chart?

A) The total number of Non-leather shoes of A, B and D brands together is 645.

B) The total number of Leather shoes of B and C brands together is approximately 28% less than the total number of Non-leather shoes of the same brands.

C) The ratio of total number of Leather shoes of D and E together to the total number of Non-leather shoes of A and C together is 12 ∶ 19.

  1. ((a))

    Only A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only B and C

  3. ((c))

    Only A and C

  4. ((d))

    All are true

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A and B

Given, the 

total number of shoes = 1500

in brand A = 20% of 1500 = 300

in brand B = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand C = 10% of 1500 = 150 

in brand D = 25% of 1500 = 375

in brand E = 35% of 1500 = 525

Total number of leather shoes in different brands = 360 

In brand A = 10% of 360 = 36

In brand B = 15% of 360 = 54

In brand C = 20% of 360 = 72

In brand D = 25% of 360 = 90 

In brand E = 30% of 360 = 108

Tabular form of given data,

BrandNon-leather 
+ leather shoes
Leather shoesNon-leather shoes
A30036264
B1505496
C1507278
D37590285
E525108417

 

A) The total number of Non-leather shoes of A, B and D brands together = (264 + 96 + 285) = 645

B) The total number of Leather shoes of B and C brands together = 54 + 72 = 126

     The total number of Non-leather shoes of the same brands = 96 + 78 = 174

     Required percentage,

     = (174 - 126)/174 × 100 = 27.58 or approximately 28%

C) The total number of Leather shoes of D and E together = 90 + 108 = 198

     The total number of Non-Leather shoes of A and C together = 342

     required ratio, 

     = 198 : 342

     = 11 : 19 

∴ Only statement A and B are true.

200

The sum of the age of A, B and C is 96 years and the sum of age of A and B is 60 years. If A is 4 years older than C. Find the difference of age between B and C.

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

A + B + C = 96      ----(i)

⇒ A + B = 60       -----(ii)

From (i) and (ii)

⇒ C = 36 years

⇒ A = C + 4 = 36 + 4 = 40 years

From (i)

⇒ 40 + B + 36 = 96

⇒ B = 20 years

∴ Required difference = C - B = 36 = 20 = 16 years

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